SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 18 Feb, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

YE 12 is related to WG 3

And,

CS 44 is related to AU 11

Similarly,

DH 36 is related to

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

TFIM is related to VEKL

And,

YADS is related to AZFR

Similarly,

JFQZ is related to

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 1 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: 97 + 70 - 35 × 5 ÷ 4 = ?

According to the question, after '÷' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '+' are interchanged:

97 + 70 - 35 × 5 ÷ 4 = ? ⇒ 97 × 70 ÷ 35 + 5 - 4 = ?

⇒ 97 × 70 ÷ 35 + 5 - 4 = ?

⇒ 97 × 2 + 5 - 4 = ?

⇒ 194 + 5 - 4 = ?

⇒ 199 - 4 = ?

⇒ 195 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) RWT

Option 2) LQN

Option 3) XCA

Option 4) TYV

Thus, out of all 'XCA' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: 

1) P is the brother of R.

2. R is the mother of Q.

3. S is the wife of Q.

4. T is the daughter of S.

Thus, P is T's father's mother's brother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

According to the given information,

Thus, 'T' is coded as '5'.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. All the element are five sided polygon at different angles subsequently.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Here, option figure 4 shows the mirror image of the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. No saucer is a bowl → False (As some saucers are plates and no plate is a bowl. As no direct relation is given between saucer and bowl, therefore it is false.)

II. Some forks are bowls. → False (as no plate is a bowl and no plate is a fork. As no direct relation is given between fork and bowl, therefore it is false.)

Thus, Neither I nor II follows.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given word: HOSTILE

According to the question all the letters in the word given are arranged in English alphabetical order:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, zero letters remains unchanged.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1) R is sitting to the immediate left of Q and immediate right of O.

2) M is sitting to the immediate left of O and immediate right of L.

3) P is sitting to the immediate left of L and immediate right of N.

Thus, N is the immediate neighbour of both Q and P.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

According to the given information,

Thus, 'A' is coded as '1'.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Seven persons, A, B, L, M, N, S and T, are sitting in a row facing north.

1) No one sits to the left of B.

2) Only four persons sit between B and N.

3) Only three persons sit to the right of L.

4) M sits immediate left of S.

5. A is not the immediate neighbour of L.

After positioning A only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. T.

Thus, L sits third to the left of A.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes  is shown below :

All cats are animals.

Boxes and animals are two different sets.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Triglycerides.

Key Points

• Triglycerides are a type of fat (lipid) found in your blood, primarily derived from calories consumed that are not immediately used by the body.
• High levels of triglycerides in the blood, when combined with low HDL (good cholesterol) or high LDL (bad cholesterol), significantly increase the risk of heart attack, stroke, and cardiovascular disease.
• Normal triglyceride levels are below 150 mg/dL; levels above 200 mg/dL are considered high and pose health risks.
• Common causes of high triglyceride levels include obesity, uncontrolled diabetes, excessive alcohol consumption, and high-calorie diets.
• Maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including regular exercise, a balanced diet, and avoiding smoking, can help manage triglyceride levels effectively.

Additional Information

• LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein):
• Known as "bad cholesterol," LDL carries cholesterol to the arteries, where it can form plaques and lead to blockages.
• High levels of LDL are a major risk factor for cardiovascular diseases such as heart attack and stroke.
• Recommended LDL levels are below 100 mg/dL for optimal heart health.
• HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein):
• Known as "good cholesterol," HDL helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream, transporting it to the liver for excretion.
• Higher levels of HDL are associated with reduced risk of heart disease.
• Healthy HDL levels are 60 mg/dL or higher.
• Triglycerides vs Cholesterol:
• Triglycerides store unused calories and provide energy, whereas cholesterol is used to build cells and hormones.
• Both are lipids, but they serve different functions in the body.
• Preventive Measures for High Lipid Levels:
• Adopt a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins while avoiding trans fats and sugary foods.
• Engage in regular aerobic exercise to improve lipid profiles and overall heart health.
• Limit alcohol intake and quit smoking to reduce triglyceride levels and improve HDL levels.

The correct answer is Six.

Key Points

• The Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan (GKRA) was launched by the Government of India on 20 June 2020 to boost livelihood opportunities for migrant workers.
• This program was implemented in six states: Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Odisha, and Jharkhand.
• It was initiated as a 125-day campaign to address the economic distress caused by the reverse migration of workers due to the COVID-19 lockdown.
• The program aimed to provide employment opportunities in rural areas by utilizing the existing skill sets of migrant workers.
• A total of 25 target-driven schemes from 12 ministries were combined under GKRA, with an allocation of Rs. 50,000 crores.

Additional Information

• Targeted States
• The six states were chosen based on the large number of returning migrant workers during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Bihar had the highest number of districts (32) under the campaign, followed by Uttar Pradesh (31 districts).
• Focus Areas
• The campaign focused on rural infrastructure development such as roads, housing, community centers, and water conservation projects.
• It also promoted skill development and self-reliance initiatives under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
• Execution and Monitoring
• The program was implemented in a coordinated effort by the central and state governments.
• It was monitored through a technology-driven platform to ensure transparency and efficiency.
• Impact and Outcomes
• Over 50 crore person-days of employment were generated by the end of the campaign.
• The initiative helped stabilize rural economies during the pandemic by creating job opportunities at the local level.

The correct answer is Article 14.

Key Points

• Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• This article ensures that no person is above the law and emphasizes that laws should be applied uniformly, irrespective of an individual's status.
• It is a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution, promoting the principle of rule of law.
• The concept of "equality before the law" originates from the British legal system, while "equal protection of the laws" is inspired by the U.S. Constitution.
• This article forms the cornerstone of India's commitment to secularism, non-discrimination, and justice in a democratic setup.

Additional Information

• Equality before the law:
• This concept originates from the rule of law propounded by A.V. Dicey in England.
• It means that no individual, regardless of their rank or position, is exempt from the jurisdiction of the ordinary courts.
• It prevents any special privileges for individuals or groups under the law.
• Equal protection of the laws:
• This phrase is derived from the 14^th Amendment of the U.S. Constitution.
• It mandates that individuals in similar circumstances will be treated equally by the law.
• However, reasonable classification (not arbitrary) is permitted under this principle.
• Doctrine of Reasonable Classification:
• The state can make laws that apply differently to different groups, provided the classification is reasonable.
• It must fulfill two criteria: (i) Classification must be based on intelligible differentia, and (ii) It must have a rational nexus with the object of the law.
• Fundamental Rights under Part III:
• Articles 12–35 of the Indian Constitution enumerate the Fundamental Rights available to citizens.
• These rights are enforceable by courts and aim to protect individual freedoms and uphold equality.
• Exceptions to Article 14:
• The President and Governors enjoy certain immunities under Articles 361 and 361A.
• Diplomatic immunity is provided to foreign diplomats under international law.

The correct answer is deuce.

Key Points

• In tennis, a deuce occurs when both players or teams reach a score of 40-all (three points each).
• To win the game after a deuce, a player/team must win two consecutive points.
• The first point won after deuce is called an advantage, indicating that the player/team is one point away from winning the game.
• If the player/team with the advantage loses the next point, the score returns to deuce, and the cycle continues.
• This scoring rule ensures that players must earn a decisive two-point lead to win a game after deuce.

Additional Information

• Love:
• In tennis, love refers to a score of zero.
• The term is derived from the French word "l'œuf," meaning "egg," which symbolizes zero.
• Set:
• A set in tennis consists of games won by a player/team.
• A player/team typically needs to win six games with a margin of at least two games to win a set.
• Advantage:
• Advantage refers to the point immediately following deuce, where a player/team is one point away from winning the game.
• If the player/team with the advantage loses the next point, the score returns to deuce.
• International Tennis Federation (ITF):
• The ITF is the governing body for world tennis, overseeing international tournaments and establishing rules.
• It was founded in 1913 and manages key events such as the Davis Cup and Billie Jean King Cup.

The correct answer is Junbeel Mela.

Key Points

• Junbeel Mela is a unique and traditional festival of Assam, which is held every year in the third week of January.
• This festival is celebrated by the community of Tiwa tribe and it showcases an ancient reciprocal system.
• In Junbeel Mela, people exchange goods through barter system, in which modern currency is not used.
• This fair is held in Morigaon district and apart from the Tiwa community, other tribes also participate in it.
• Junbeel Mela is not only a platform for trade but also cultural programs, traditional dance and music are organized.

Additional Information

• Tiwa tribe
• The Tiwa tribe is an important tribe of Assam and Meghalaya.
• They are also known as "Lalung" and the barter system has a special place in their culture.
• Barter system 
• It is an age old trade system in which goods and services are exchanged without currency.
• Junbeel Mela is a living example of barter system.
• Other major festivals of Assam
• Bhogali Bihu: Harvest festival.
• Ambubachi Mela: A religious fair held at Kamakhya temple.
• Rangali Bihu: The biggest and colourful festival of Assam.
• Name of junbil
• The name Junbeel is derived from "jun" (moon) and "beel" (lake), as the fair is held near a crescent-shaped lake.

The correct answer is Vinaya Pitaka.

Key Points

• Vinaya Pitaka is one of the three baskets (Tripitaka) of Buddhist scriptures that contains the rules and regulations for monks and nuns within the Buddhist monastic community (Sangha).
• The text provides detailed guidance on monastic discipline, including codes of conduct, procedures for resolving disputes, and penalties for violations.
• The Vinaya Pitaka is divided into three main parts: Sutta Vibhanga (rules for individual monks and nuns), Khandhaka (procedural rules for the Sangha), and Parivara (a summary and analysis of rules).
• It was compiled during the First Buddhist Council held at Rajgir (Rajagriha) shortly after Buddha’s death (parinirvana) to preserve the monastic traditions and teachings.
• The Vinaya Pitaka serves as a cornerstone for maintaining the moral and ethical framework of the Buddhist monastic community, ensuring harmony and discipline.

Additional Information

• Tripitaka (Three Baskets):
• The Tripitaka consists of three main texts: Vinaya Pitaka (discipline), Sutta Pitaka (teachings), and Abhidhamma Pitaka (philosophical analysis).
• It forms the canonical literature of Theravada Buddhism.
• Sutta Pitaka:
• It is a collection of discourses delivered by Buddha and his close disciples.
• The Sutta Pitaka focuses on ethical teachings and philosophical concepts.
• Abhidhamma Pitaka:
• This text contains a detailed analysis of Buddhist doctrines and concepts.
• It is considered an advanced and systematic elaboration of Buddha's teachings.
• Role of Monastic Rules:
• The rules in the Vinaya Pitaka ensure discipline, ethical conduct, and spiritual growth among monks and nuns.
• Adherence to these rules fosters a harmonious and conducive environment for practicing the Dhamma.

The correct answer is Primary industry.

Key Points

• Primary industry involves activities that extract natural resources directly from the Earth, such as farming, fishing, forestry, and mining.
• These industries are the foundation of the economy, as they provide raw materials for other industries like manufacturing and construction.
• Examples include agriculture, where crops are grown; forestry, which involves harvesting wood; and fishing, which supplies seafood for consumption.
• Primary industries are typically labor-intensive and depend heavily on natural factors such as climate, soil quality, and water availability.
• The role of primary industries is crucial for ensuring food security, raw material supply, and environmental sustainability.

Additional Information

• Manufacturing Industry:
• This industry transforms raw materials from primary industries into finished goods or intermediate products.
• Examples include automobile production, textile manufacturing, and electronics assembly.
• Manufacturing industries are part of the secondary sector of the economy.
• Service Industry:
• Also known as the tertiary sector, this industry provides services rather than goods.
• Examples include healthcare, education, finance, and retail.
• It relies on human capital and plays a significant role in modern economies.
• Genetic Industry:
• This is a specialized branch of the primary industry focused on genetic modification and breeding.
• Examples include fish hatcheries, seed production, and cattle breeding.
• It contributes to improving agricultural productivity and biodiversity.
• Importance of Primary Industry:
• It supports rural livelihoods and provides employment opportunities to millions.
• Primary industries are essential for economic growth, especially in developing countries.
• They play a key role in conserving natural resources and maintaining ecological balance.

The correct answer is Sankardev.

Key Points

• Sankardev (1449–1568) was a saint-scholar, poet, playwright, and social-religious reformer from Assam.
• He is credited with creating Sattriya dance, a classical dance form of India, as part of the Neo-Vaishnavite movement in Assam.
• Sattriya dance was originally performed in monastic institutions called Satras, established by Sankardev to propagate the Vaishnavite philosophy.
• The dance form serves as a medium for storytelling and is deeply rooted in mythological themes and devotional expressions.
• Sattriya was officially recognized as one of the eight classical dance forms of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.

Additional Information

• Sankardev's Neo-Vaishnavism Movement
• Sankardev propagated the Ekasarana Dharma, a monotheistic religious movement emphasizing devotion to Lord Krishna.
• He used art forms like music (Borgeet), dance (Sattriya), and drama (Ankiya Nat) to spread his teachings.
• The movement rejected caste discrimination and ritualistic practices, promoting equality and devotion.
• Satras
• Satras are monastic institutions established by Sankardev and his disciples in Assam to promote Vaishnavism.
• They function as cultural hubs for the preservation of art, literature, and religious practices.
• Sattriya dance evolved and thrived within these institutions.
• Sattriya Dance Characteristics
• The dance combines expressive hand gestures (mudras), rhythmic footwork, and storytelling.
• It incorporates themes from the Bhagavata Purana and Krishna-centric mythology.
• Traditionally performed by male monks (Bhakats), it is now practiced by both men and women.
• Recognition of Sattriya Dance
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognized Sattriya as a classical dance form in 2000, bringing it to a national platform.
• Efforts are ongoing to preserve this cultural heritage and promote it globally.

The correct answer is Carnatic music.

Key Points

• Muthuswami Dikshitar was one of the Trinity of Carnatic music composers, alongside Tyagaraja and Shyama Sastri.
• He composed over 500 kritis, which are devotional songs in Sanskrit, known for their intricate melodies and lyrical depth.
• Dikshitar's compositions often included references to Hindu deities, temples, and Indian philosophy, and showcased his mastery of ragas.
• He is credited with introducing the violin to Carnatic music as an accompanying instrument.
• Muthuswami Dikshitar's works are widely regarded as a foundation for Carnatic classical music and continue to be performed and studied extensively.

Additional Information

• Carnatic music is a classical music tradition from South India, characterized by complex rhythmic patterns, intricate melodic structures, and devotional themes.
• The Trinity of Carnatic music (Tyagaraja, Shyama Sastri, and Muthuswami Dikshitar) played a pivotal role in shaping this genre during the late 18^th and early 19^th centuries.
• A raga in Carnatic music is a melodic framework composed of specific notes and phrases, serving as the foundation for improvisation and composition.
• The is one of the most popular forms in Carnatic music, often consisting of three sections: pallavi, anupallavi, and charanam.
• Carnatic music is traditionally performed in a concert format, featuring vocalists and instrumentalists, accompanied by percussion instruments like mridangam and ghatam.

The correct answer is Indian National Congress (INC).

Key Points

• Wrestlers Vinesh Phogat and Bajrang Punia joined the Indian National Congress (INC) in September 2024, ahead of the Haryana assembly elections.
• Both athletes are renowned Indian wrestlers and have represented India in various international competitions, including the Olympics.
• The decision to join INC comes amidst their ongoing fight for justice regarding allegations of misconduct in the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI).
• The INC welcomed their inclusion, emphasizing the party's commitment to supporting athletes and addressing issues related to sports governance.
• Haryana, their home state, is known for producing elite athletes, and their entry into politics is seen as a significant move ahead of the assembly elections.

Additional Information

• Indian National Congress (INC)
• The INC, founded in 1885, is one of India's oldest political parties, playing a pivotal role in the country's independence movement.
• It advocates for social justice, secularism, and democratic governance, with a focus on inclusive development.
• Notable leaders of INC include Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Indira Gandhi, among others.
• INC has historically been influential in shaping India's political and economic policies.
• Wrestling in India
• Wrestling is a traditional and popular sport in India, with significant contributions from Haryana and Punjab.
• Indian wrestlers have achieved success in international events like the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and Asian Games.
• Wrestlers like Sushil Kumar, Bajrang Punia, and Vinesh Phogat are celebrated for their achievements.
• The sport faces challenges such as governance issues, funding, and support for grassroots development.
• Haryana Assembly Elections
• Haryana's assembly elections are crucial in shaping the state's political landscape and governance.
• The state has a history of political competition among parties like INC, BJP, and regional players like INLD.
• Key issues include farmer welfare, employment, education, and sports development.
• Participation of prominent figures like athletes can influence voter sentiment and election dynamics.

The correct answer is Polonium.

Key Points

• Polonium was isolated by Marie Curie in 1898 while studying radioactive elements in pitchblende ore.
• The discovery of Polonium marked one of the first instances of isolating a radioactive element beyond Uranium.
• Marie Curie named Polonium after her native country, Poland, in recognition of her homeland.
• Polonium is a highly radioactive element with the atomic number 84 and belongs to the group of chalcogens.
• The isolation of Polonium was pivotal in advancing the understanding of radioactivity and laid the groundwork for further research in nuclear science.

Additional Information

• Pitchblende:
• Pitchblende is a mineral primarily composed of Uraninite, which contains Uranium and other radioactive elements.
• It was extensively studied by the Curies during their research on radioactivity.
• Radioactivity:
• Radioactivity refers to the spontaneous emission of particles or radiation from unstable atomic nuclei.
• It was first discovered by Henri Becquerel in 1896, which inspired further research by Marie and Pierre Curie.
• Marie Curie:
• Marie Curie was a pioneering physicist and chemist who won two Nobel Prizes in Physics (1903) and Chemistry (1911).
• She is renowned for her groundbreaking work on radioactivity and the discovery of Polonium and Radium.
• Applications of Polonium:
• Polonium has been used in antistatic devices and as a heat source in space equipment.
• Due to its high radioactivity, it requires careful handling and has limited applications.

The correct answer is PM-SHRI Scheme.

Key Points

• The PM-SHRI (Pradhan Mantri Schools for Rising India) scheme aims to upgrade and modernize existing schools into model schools aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
• The initiative covers both central government schools and state government schools, emphasizing the holistic development of students.
• These schools will adopt eco-friendly practices, digital learning techniques, and inclusive education frameworks to foster innovation and academic excellence.
• The scheme targets providing high-quality education to students while ensuring equitable access to resources and technologies.
• As part of the implementation, schools will integrate skill development programs and vocational training to prepare students for future challenges.

Additional Information

• National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
• A comprehensive framework for education reform in India, covering school to higher education.
• Focuses on critical thinking, creativity, and holistic learning rather than rote memorization.
• Introduces a 5+3+3+4 structure to replace the traditional 10+2 system.
• Emphasizes vocational education, multilingualism, and the use of technology in education.
• Eco-Friendly Practices in Schools:
• Includes the use of solar energy, rainwater harvesting, and waste management systems.
• Promotes environmental awareness and sustainability among students.
• Aligns with the national goals of combating climate change and promoting green initiatives.
• Digital Learning:
• Incorporates smart classrooms, e-content, and AI-based tools for personalized learning.
• Bridges the digital divide by providing access to technology in rural and underserved areas.
• Supports remote and hybrid learning, especially during crises like the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Skill Development in Schools:
• Includes training in coding, robotics, and vocational skills to align education with industry needs.
• Prepares students for entrepreneurship and employment opportunities.
• Encourages hands-on learning and innovation through project-based activities.

The correct answer is 2024.

Key Points

• Veteran actor and accomplished Bharatanatyam dancer Vyjayanthimala Bali was conferred the Padma Vibhushan award in 2024, recognizing her significant contributions to Indian cinema and classical dance.
• The Padma Vibhushan is India’s second-highest civilian award, given for exceptional and distinguished service across various fields.
• Vyjayanthimala is celebrated for her groundbreaking performances in Bollywood and her mastery of the classical dance form Bharatanatyam.
• Her career spans decades, with iconic roles in movies like "Madhumati," "Devdas," and "Sangam," earning her critical acclaim and numerous accolades.
• The Padma Vibhushan award in 2024 highlights her enduring legacy as a cultural icon in India.

Additional Information

• Padma Awards:
• The Padma Awards are among the highest civilian honors in India and are announced annually on Republic Day.
• They are divided into three categories: Padma Vibhushan (second-highest), Padma Bhushan (third-highest), and Padma Shri (fourth-highest).
• The awards are conferred in disciplines such as art, literature, education, sports, medicine, social work, science, public affairs, and more.
• The Padma Vibhushan recognizes "exceptional and distinguished service" in any field.
• Vyjayanthimala's Contributions:
• She is a pioneer in seamlessly blending Bharatanatyam into mainstream cinema, elevating the art form’s prominence.
• She has been awarded several honors, including multiple Filmfare Awards for her acting prowess.
• Beyond films, her Bharatanatyam performances have been showcased globally, earning her accolades as a cultural ambassador.
• Bharatanatyam:
• Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms of India, originating in Tamil Nadu.
• It is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, intricate footwork, hand gestures (mudras), and facial expressions.
• The dance form often conveys spiritual themes and stories from Hindu mythology.
• Bollywood Legacy:
• Vyjayanthimala is regarded as one of the first female superstars of Indian cinema.
• Her work in films like "Amrapali" showcased her dual talents in acting and classical dance.
• She paved the way for actresses to take up roles that combined glamour with substance.

The correct answer is Article 262.

Key Points

• Article 262 of the Indian Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes or complaints regarding the use, distribution, and control of waters of inter-state rivers and river valleys.
• It gives the Parliament the authority to make laws for resolving inter-state water disputes.
• Parliament has enacted two key laws under this article: the River Boards Act, 1956, and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956.
• The provision explicitly states that the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or any other court is barred in matters related to such disputes.
• This article ensures that water disputes are settled through designated mechanisms to prevent prolonged legal battles and maintain inter-state harmony.

Additional Information

• River Boards Act, 1956:
• This act provides for the establishment of River Boards by the Central Government to advise states on the regulation and development of inter-state rivers and river valleys.
• The boards facilitate coordination between states for effective water resources management.
• Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956:
• This act empowers the Central Government to set up a tribunal for the adjudication of disputes between states regarding inter-state river waters.
• Tribunal decisions are final and binding on the parties involved.
• Examples of Inter-State Water Disputes:
• Some notable disputes include the Cauvery Water Dispute (Karnataka and Tamil Nadu), the Krishna Water Dispute, and the Ravi-Beas Dispute.
• Federal Principle and Water Disputes:
• Water disputes highlight the challenges of federalism in India, as water resources often span multiple states, requiring cooperative governance.

The correct answer is Lakshya Sen.

Key Points

• Lakshya Sen, an emerging badminton player from India, received the prestigious Arjuna Award in 2022 for his outstanding achievements in the sport.
• He is one of India's top singles badminton players and has consistently performed well in international tournaments.
• In 2022, Lakshya Sen won the gold medal in men's singles at the Commonwealth Games held in Birmingham.
• He also reached the finals of the All England Open 2022, becoming the first Indian male player to do so in over two decades.
• The Arjuna Award is conferred to athletes for their excellence in sports and their contributions to promoting the sport in India.

Additional Information

• Arjuna Award:
• It is one of India's highest sporting honors, instituted in 1961, to recognize outstanding performance in sports.
• Recipients of the Arjuna Award receive a bronze statuette of Arjuna, a certificate, ceremonial dress, and a cash prize.
• The award encourages athletes to achieve greater excellence in their respective sports disciplines.
• Lakshya Sen's Career Highlights:
• Lakshya Sen is known for his agility, technical skills, and composure on the court.
• He is an alumnus of the Prakash Padukone Badminton Academy, where he honed his skills under world-class coaching.
• Sen achieved his career-high BWF World Ranking of 6 in 2022.
• Other Major Achievements in 2022:
• India's badminton team, including Lakshya Sen, won the historic Thomas Cup in 2022.
• He also won the India Open 2022, part of the BWF World Tour Super 500 series.
• Commonwealth Games and Indian Badminton:
• Badminton is one of India's strongholds in the Commonwealth Games, with multiple golds in men's and women's singles.
• India's consistent performance in badminton at international levels has elevated its stature globally.

The correct answer is Wheat and rice.

Key Points

• The Green Revolution in India primarily targeted crops like wheat and rice to enhance their production and address food shortages.
• It began in the mid-1960s with the introduction of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, improved irrigation techniques, and increased use of fertilizers and pesticides.
• Wheat production saw a significant boost in states like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh due to favorable climatic conditions and modern farming methods.
• Rice cultivation expanded in regions like Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal, ensuring food security in India.
• The Green Revolution transformed India from a food-deficient country to a self-sufficient nation in grain production.

Additional Information

• High-Yielding Variety (HYV) Seeds: These are genetically improved seeds introduced during the Green Revolution to boost crop yield. Examples include varieties of wheat like Sonalika and Kalyan Sona.
• Fertilizers and Pesticides: The use of chemical fertilizers like urea and pesticides improved soil fertility and protected crops from pests, contributing to higher productivity.
• Irrigation Systems: Large-scale irrigation projects, including canals, tube wells, and dams, ensured a reliable water supply for agriculture.
• Impact on Economy: The Green Revolution helped in reducing India's reliance on food imports, boosting rural incomes, and driving economic growth in agricultural regions.
• Criticism: Despite its success, the Green Revolution faced criticism for environmental damage, groundwater depletion, and unequal benefits across different regions and farmers.

The correct answer is Women's India Association.

Key Points

• The Women's India Association (WIA) was founded by Sarojini Naidu, Margaret Cousins, and other prominent women in 1917.
• The WIA aimed to promote women's rights, education, and social reform in India during the pre-independence era.
• It was one of the earliest organizations that worked towards achieving gender equality and improving the status of women in India.
• The association also played a crucial role in advocating for universal suffrage and equal opportunities for women in all spheres.
• Sarojini Naidu, known as the "Nightingale of India," was a key figure in the Indian freedom struggle and contributed significantly to women's empowerment through WIA.

Additional Information

• Bharat Stree Mahamandal:
• Founded by Kamini Roy in 1910, it was one of the earliest women's organizations in India.
• The organization aimed to promote women's education and social welfare.
• National Federation of Indian Women (NFIW):
• Established in 1954, this organization works towards gender equality and social justice for women.
• NFIW is affiliated with various national and international women's rights movements.
• All India Women's Conference (AIWC):
• Founded in 1927 by Margaret Cousins, AIWC is one of the oldest women's organizations in India.
• The organization focuses on women's education, health, and empowerment.
• Sarojini Naidu's Legacy:
• She was the first Indian woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress in 1925.
• She also served as the first woman Governor of an Indian state after independence (Uttar Pradesh).

The correct answer is Northern.

Key Points

• The Himadri zone, also known as the Greater Himalayas, is located in the northernmost physiographic zone of Uttarakhand.
• It consists of prominent mountain ranges such as the Zaskar Range and sections of the Great Himalayan Range.
• This zone includes some of the highest peaks in India, such as Nanda Devi, Trishul, and Kedarnath.
• The Himadri region is characterized by perennial snow, glaciers, and high-altitude passes.
• It serves as the origin of major rivers like the Ganga and Yamuna, which are fed by glaciers from this zone.

Additional Information

• Himadri (Greater Himalayas):
• The Himadri is the innermost and highest part of the Himalayan range, extending from Jammu & Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh.
• The average altitude of this range is above 6,000 meters (19,700 feet).
• It is home to some of the world's highest peaks, including Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga.
• Geologically, this zone is composed of crystalline rocks and ancient rock formations.
• Physiographic Zones of Uttarakhand:
• Uttarakhand consists of five main physiographic zones: Himadri, Himachal (Lesser Himalayas), Shivaliks (Outer Himalayas), the Doon Valley, and the Terai-Bhabar region.
• Each zone has distinct topographical and climatic characteristics, contributing to the state's diverse geography.
• Glaciers of the Himadri:
• Famous glaciers in this region include the Gangotri Glacier (source of the Ganga) and Yamunotri Glacier (source of the Yamuna).
• Glacial meltwater is critical for the sustenance of rivers and agriculture in the plains of North India.
• Importance of the Himadri Zone:
• The Himadri plays a vital role in climate regulation due to its impact on monsoonal patterns and glacial water resources.
• It is also significant for biodiversity conservation, with several endemic and rare species inhabiting the region.

The correct answer is Potential monopolistic practices.

Key Points

• Privatisation of major public sector industries can lead to the concentration of ownership and control in a few private entities, increasing the likelihood of monopolistic practices.
• Monopolistic behavior may result in price manipulation, reduced competition, and exploitation of consumers due to the absence of sufficient market regulation.
• Essential services provided by the industry may become less accessible or unaffordable for economically weaker sections of society.
• Government oversight may diminish after privatisation, making it harder to enforce regulations to prevent monopolistic tendencies.
• In the absence of adequate checks, the industry may prioritize profit over public welfare, negatively impacting service quality and equitable resource allocation.

Additional Information

• Privatisation:
• Privatisation refers to transferring ownership and management of public sector enterprises to private entities.
• Its main objectives include enhancing operational efficiency, reducing fiscal burden, and encouraging private investment.
• Monopoly:
• A monopoly exists when a single entity dominates the market, with little or no competition.
• Monopolies can lead to higher prices, reduced innovation, and limited consumer choices.
• Regulatory Oversight:
• Regulatory bodies like the Competition Commission of India (CCI) are tasked with ensuring fair practices and curbing monopolistic behavior.
• Privatisation may require stronger regulatory frameworks to balance profit motives with public interest.
• Economic Impact:
• Privatisation can boost economic growth by attracting private investment and enhancing operational efficiency.
• However, unchecked privatisation may lead to negative externalities, such as income inequality and reduced access to essential services.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 was introduced to address the unmet needs of contraception, healthcare infrastructure, and health personnel.
• The policy aims to achieve a stable population by 2045, consistent with sustainable economic growth, social development, and environmental protection.
• One of the goals is to reduce infant mortality rate (IMR) to below 30 per 1000 live births by 2010, not 15 as mentioned in Option 4.
• It promotes universal immunization for children, free and compulsory education for children up to age 14, and delayed marriage for girls to reduce fertility rates.
• The policy also emphasizes increasing access to reproductive healthcare services and creating awareness about family planning.

Additional Information

• Infant Mortality Rate (IMR):
• IMR refers to the number of infant deaths (under 1 year of age) per 1000 live births in a given year.
• According to the NPP 2000, the goal was to reduce IMR to less than 30 by 2010.
• Achieving a low IMR is crucial for improving the overall health of a population.
• Universal Immunization Programme (UIP):
• Launched in 1985, UIP is one of the largest health programs globally, targeting vaccine-preventable diseases.
• It aims to immunize children against diseases such as polio, tuberculosis, measles, and diphtheria.
• UIP aligns with the NPP 2000 objective of universal child vaccination.
• Free and Compulsory Education:
• The policy emphasizes free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years of age as a means to empower them and reduce fertility rates.
• This is in line with the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
• Delayed Marriage for Girls:
• NPP 2000 promotes raising the marriage age for girls to 18 or higher to improve maternal and child health.
• Delayed marriage helps reduce adolescent pregnancies and ensures better health outcomes for mothers and children.
• Goals of NPP 2000:
• Achieve replacement-level fertility (Total Fertility Rate of 2.1) by 2010.
• Reduce maternal mortality ratio (MMR) to below 100 per 100,000 live births by 2010.
• Promote contraception and access to reproductive health services for all.

Shortcut Trick

Make the common term (A) equal in both given ratios.

Given, A : B = 9 : 4 and A : C = 3 : 2

Multiply the ratio A : C by 3 → A : C = 9 : 6

Combined ratio → A : B : C = 9 : 4 : 6

Multiply all terms by 3 to match the given options → A : B : C = 27 : 12 : 18

∴ The correct answer is 27 : 12 : 18.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of A : B = 9 : 4

Ratio of A : C = 3 : 2

A B C

27 (9 × 3) 12 (4 × 3) 18 (6 × 3)

Equivalent Ratio Proportions A : B : C = 27 : 12 : 18

Calculations:

⇒ Let A = 9x, then B = 4x (from the ratio A : B = 9 : 4)

⇒ Substitute the value of A in the second ratio A : C = 3 : 2

⇒ 9x / C = 3 / 2

⇒ 3 × C = 18x

⇒ C = 6x

⇒ Now, write the combined ratio A : B : C.

⇒ A : B : C = 9x : 4x : 6x

⇒ A : B : C = 9 : 4 : 6

⇒ Multiply each term by 3 to find an equivalent ratio that matches the given options.

⇒ A : B : C = (9 × 3) : (4 × 3) : (6 × 3)

⇒ A : B : C = 27 : 12 : 18

∴ The correct answer is 27 : 12 : 18.

Additional Information

Equivalent Ratios

Multiplying or dividing each term of a ratio by the same non-zero number produces an equivalent ratio without changing its core value (e.g., 9 : 4 : 6 is exactly equivalent to 27 : 12 : 18).

Compound Ratio

When two or more ratios are multiplied together, it is known as a compound ratio. For a : b and c : d, the compound ratio is simply ac : bd.

Invertendo Property

If a : b = c : d, then by the property of invertendo, b : a = d : c. This is highly useful for rearranging common terms symmetrically to find combined proportional ratios.

Shortcut Trick

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years = ₹45 − ₹42 = ₹3.

SI for 1 year = ₹42 ÷ 2 = ₹21.

Rate % = (Difference ÷ SI for 1 year) × 100 = (3 ÷ 21) × 100 = 100/7%.

Principal = (SI for 1 year × 100) ÷ Rate = (21 × 100) ÷ (100/7) = 21 × 7 = ₹147.

∴ The correct answer is ₹147.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest for 2 years = ₹42

Compound Interest for 2 years = ₹45

Principal (P)

Year 1 SI ₹21

Year 2 SI ₹21

• ₹3

Formula Used:

SI for 1 year = Total SI ÷ Time

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years = CI − SI

Rate (R) = (Difference ÷ SI for 1^st year) × 100

Principal (P) = (SI × 100) ÷ (R × T)

Calculations:

⇒ SI for 1 year = 42 ÷ 2 = ₹21

⇒ Difference between CI and SI for 2 years = 45 − 42 = ₹3

⇒ The difference is the additional interest earned on the 1^st year's SI.

⇒ Rate of Interest (R) = (3 ÷ 21) × 100 = 100/7%

⇒ Principal (P) = (SI for 1 year × 100) ÷ R

⇒ P = (21 × 100) ÷ (100/7)

⇒ P = 21 × 7 = ₹147

∴ The correct answer is ₹147.

Additional Information

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years

For a given principal P and rate R, the difference for 2 years is calculated as: CI − SI = P(R/100)².

First Year Interest Property

For the first year, simple interest and compound interest are exactly the same when compounded annually. The difference arises in the second year due to interest calculated on the first year's interest.

Rate Determination Shortcut

When both CI and SI for 2 years are given, the rate can be directly found as: Rate = [2 × (CI − SI) ÷ SI] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Total time from 3 Feb to 17 Apr = 25 days (Feb) + 31 days (Mar) + 17 days (Apr) = 73 days.

Time (T) in years = 73 ÷ 365 = 1/5 years.

Using the Direct Simple Interest formula: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (2000 × 6.75 × 1/5) ÷ 100 = 20 × 1.35 = 27

∴ The correct answer is ₹27.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2000

Rate of Interest (R) = 6.75% per annum

Time Period = 3 February 2023 to 17 April 2023

3 Feb (25 days)

March (31 days)

17 Apr (17 days)

Total = 73 days

P = ₹2000 | R = 6.75% | T = 73/365 y

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Number of days in February 2023 (a non-leap year) = 28

⇒ Remaining days in February = 28 − 3 = 25 days

⇒ Days in March = 31 days

⇒ Days in April = 17 days

⇒ Total Time (T) in days = 25 + 31 + 17 = 73 days

⇒ Time (T) in years = 73 ÷ 365 = 1/5 years

⇒ SI = [2000 × 6.75 × (1/5)] ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 20 × 6.75 × (1/5)

⇒ SI = 4 × 6.75

⇒ SI = 27

∴ The correct answer is ₹27.

Additional Information

Rule for Counting Days in SI

When calculating simple interest between two exact dates, either the starting day or the ending day is included, but never both. Most commonly, the starting date is excluded and the end date is included.

Leap Year Identification

A year is a leap year if it is perfectly divisible by 4. However, century years must be divisible by 400. In non-leap years (like 2023), February has exactly 28 days.

Common Days to Years Conversions

Standard fractional year conversions used frequently in exams: 73 days = 1/5 year, 146 days = 2/5 year, 219 days = 3/5 year, and 292 days = 4/5 year.

Shortcut Trick

Volume in m³ = Capacity in litres ÷ 1000 = 62000 ÷ 1000 = 62 m³

Breadth = Volume ÷ (Length × Depth)

Breadth = 62 ÷ (2.5 × 10)

Breadth = 62 ÷ 25 = 2.48 m

∴ The correct answer is 2.48 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Capacity of the tank = 62000 litres

Length (L) = 2.5 m

Depth (D) = 10 m

Formula Used:

1 m³ = 1000 litres

Volume of cuboid = Length × Breadth × Depth

L = 2.5 m

D = 10 m

B = ? Vol = 62 m³

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of the tank = 62000 ÷ 1000 = 62 m³

⇒ Volume = L × B × D

⇒ 62 = 2.5 × B × 10

⇒ 62 = 25 × B

⇒ B = 62 ÷ 25

⇒ B = 2.48 m

∴ The correct answer is 2.48 m.

Additional Information

Volume Unit Conversion

1 m³ = 1000 litres. This conversion is essential for relating liquid capacities to geometric dimensions.

Volume of a Cuboid

Volume = Length × Breadth × Height. It represents the total 3-dimensional space occupied by the cuboid.

Surface Area of a Cuboid

Total Surface Area = 2 × (lb + bh + hl) where l, b, and h are the length, breadth, and height respectively.

Diagonal of a Cuboid

The length of the longest rod that can fit inside a cuboidal space is given by √(l² + b² + h²).

Shortcut Trick

Let the assumed average be 1.30.

Deviations of the given values (1.35, 1.29, 1.32, 1.36) from 1.30 are: +0.05, −0.01, +0.02, +0.06.

Net deviation = 0.05 − 0.01 + 0.02 + 0.06 = +0.12

Average deviation = +0.12 ÷ 4 = +0.03

Actual average = Assumed average + Average deviation = 1.30 + 0.03 = 1.33

∴ The correct answer is 1.33.

Alternate Method

Given:

Values of refractive index of water = 1.35, 1.29, 1.32, 1.36

Number of observations = 4

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations

1.29

1.32

1.35

1.36

Mean = 1.33 Average = 1.33

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of given values = 1.35 + 1.29 + 1.32 + 1.36

⇒ Sum = 5.32

⇒ Average = 5.32 ÷ 4

⇒ Average = 1.33

∴ The correct answer is 1.33.

Additional Information

Deviation Method for Averages

If an assumed mean A is taken, the actual mean = A + (Sum of deviations ÷ Total number of items). This drastically reduces calculation effort for closely grouped numbers.

Combined Average

If group 1 has n₁ items with average A₁ and group 2 has n₂ items with average A₂, the combined average is calculated as: (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Refractive Index Context

The refractive index (n) is a dimensionless number describing how fast light travels through a material. It is calculated as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium (n = c ÷ v). The standard refractive index of water is approximately 1.33.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance = 240 + 410 = 650 m

Relative speed (same direction) = 110 − 80 = 30 km/h = 30 × 5/18 = 25/3 m/s

Time = 650 ÷ (25/3) = 650 × 3 / 25 = 78 seconds

Time in minutes = 78 ÷ 60 = 1.3 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 1.3 minutes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of slower train = 240 m

Length of faster train = 410 m

Speed of slower train = 80 km/h

Speed of faster train = 110 km/h

410 m 110 km/h →

240 m 80 km/h →

Relative Speed = 110 − 80 = 30 km/h Total Distance = 410 + 240 = 650 m

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (same direction) = S₁ − S₂

Total Distance = L₁ + L₂

Time = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Speed in m/s = Speed in km/h × (5/18)

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 240 + 410 = 650 m

⇒ Relative Speed = 110 − 80 = 30 km/h

⇒ Relative Speed in m/s = 30 × (5/18) = 150/18 = 25/3 m/s

⇒ Time taken = 650 ÷ (25/3)

⇒ Time taken = 650 × 3 / 25 = 26 × 3 = 78 seconds

⇒ Time taken in minutes = 78 ÷ 60 = 1.3 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 1.3 minutes.

Additional Information

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction)

When two bodies move towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds (S₁ + S₂).

Train Crossing a Stationary Object

When a train crosses a pole or a standing man, the distance covered is equal to the length of the train itself.

Train Crossing a Platform/Bridge

When a train crosses a platform, the total distance covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the platform.

Unit Conversions

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick Total CP for 400 apples = 4 × 1240 = ₹4960 Total SP = CP + Profit = 4960 + 840 = ₹5800 SP of 1 dozen = (Total SP ÷ Total Apples) × 12 SP of 1 dozen = (5800 ÷ 400) × 12 = 14.50 × 12 = 174 ∴ The correct answer is ₹174.

Alternate Method Given: Total apples bought = 400 Cost price of 100 apples = ₹1240 Total profit earned = ₹840 Formula Used: Total Selling Price (SP) = Total Cost Price (CP) + Profit SP per dozen = (Total SP ÷ Total Quantity) × 12

Total CP ₹4960

• Profit ₹840

Total SP ₹5800

÷ 400 (per apple) × 12 (per dozen)

SP per Dozen ₹174

Calculations: ⇒ Total CP for 400 apples = (1240 ÷ 100) × 400 ⇒ Total CP = 12.40 × 400 = ₹4960 ⇒ Total SP = Total CP + Total Profit ⇒ Total SP = 4960 + 840 = ₹5800 ⇒ SP of 1 apple = 5800 ÷ 400 = ₹14.50 ⇒ SP of 1 dozen (12 apples) = 14.50 × 12 ⇒ SP of 1 dozen = ₹174 ∴ The correct answer is ₹174.

Additional Information Cost Price (CP) & Selling Price (SP) Cost Price is the total amount paid to purchase an item. Selling Price is the total amount received upon selling it. When SP > CP, a profit is made. Profit & Profit Percentage Profit = SP − CP. The profit percentage is always calculated based on the Cost Price: Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100. Unitary Method It involves finding the value of a single unit first (e.g., finding the SP of 1 apple) and then multiplying it by the required quantity (e.g., 12 for a dozen).

Given:

((-9) - (-60) ÷ (-12) + (-4) × 9

Formula used:

Follow the BODMAS rule: Brackets, Orders (i.e., powers and roots, etc.), Division and Multiplication (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right).

Calculation:

(-9) - (-60) ÷ (-12) + (-4) × 9

⇒ (-9) - $\frac{-60}{-12}$ + (-4) × 9

⇒ (-9) - 5 + (-4) × 9

⇒ (-9) - 5 - 36

⇒ (-9 - 5 - 36

⇒ -50

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Shortcut Trick

Let assumed average be ₹350.

⇒ Net deviation = 13×(+17) + 10×(−238) + 45×(+51)

⇒ Net deviation = 221 − 2380 + 2295 = +136

⇒ Average change = +136 ÷ 68 = +2

⇒ Actual Average = 350 + 2 = 352

∴ The correct answer is ₹352.

Alternate Method

Given:

Members in Group A (n₁) = 13, Average (A₁) = ₹367

Members in Group B (n₂) = 10, Average (A₂) = ₹112

Members in Group C (n₃) = 45, Average (A₃) = ₹401

Formula Used:

Combined Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂ + n₃A₃) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + n₃)

n = 13 ₹367

n = 10 ₹112

n = 45 ₹401

Total Members = 13 + 10 + 45 = 68 Combined Average = ₹352

Calculation:

⇒ Total spending = (13 × 367) + (10 × 112) + (45 × 401)

⇒ Total spending = 4771 + 1120 + 18045 = 23936

⇒ Total members = 13 + 10 + 45 = 68

⇒ Combined Average = 23936 ÷ 68 = 352

∴ The correct answer is ₹352.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When combining multiple groups, the combined average is calculated as A_w = (w₁A₁ + w₂A₂ + ... + w_nA_n) ÷ (w₁ + w₂ + ... + w_n).

Deviation Method

The deviation method simplifies calculations by choosing an assumed mean (A). Net deviation = Sum of (Weight × Deviation from assumed mean). True Average = A + (Net Deviation ÷ Total Weight).

Average of Consecutive Numbers

The average of any sequence in Arithmetic Progression is simply the middle term, which equals (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM(16, 24) = 48 units.

Efficiency of A = 3 units/day, Efficiency of B = 2 units/day.

Work done in 2 days (A then B) = 3 + 2 = 5 units.

In 18 days (9 cycles), work done = 9 × 5 = 45 units.

Remaining 3 units are completed by A on the 19^th day (3 ÷ 3 = 1 day).

∴ The correct answer is 19 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 16 days

Time taken by B = 24 days

They work on alternate days starting with A.

Method Used:

Total Work = LCM of given days. Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Days.

Calculations:

⇒ Work done in the first 2 days (1 cycle) = 3 (by A) + 2 (by B) = 5 units

⇒ Multiplier to get close to total work: 48 ÷ 5 = 9 cycles with a remainder

⇒ Work done in 9 cycles (18 days) = 9 × 5 = 45 units

⇒ Remaining work = 48 − 45 = 3 units

⇒ On the 19^th day, it is A's turn.

⇒ Time taken by A to complete remaining 3 units = 3 ÷ 3 = 1 day

⇒ Total time taken = 18 days + 1 day = 19 days

∴ The correct answer is 19 days.

Additional Information

Alternate Days Concept

When individuals work on alternate days, calculate the combined work for one full cycle (equal to the number of people). Never divide the total work directly by combined efficiency.

Efficiency vs Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. If A and B take time in the ratio x:y, their working efficiencies will be in the ratio y:x.

Work and Wages

If multiple people complete a piece of work together, the total wages are distributed in the ratio of the total work done by each person.

Given:

Expression: [(17 × 10) × {8 ÷ 8 × ((19 - 12) ÷ 7)}]

Formula used:

Order of operations (BODMAS): Brackets, Orders (powers and roots, etc.), Division and Multiplication, Addition and Subtraction

Calculation:

[(17 × 10) × {8 ÷ 8 × ((19 - 12) ÷ 7)}]

⇒ [(170) × {8 ÷ 8 × (7 ÷ 7)}]

⇒ [(170) × {1 × 1}]

⇒ [(170) × 1]

⇒ 170

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

When amounts are equal under CI, Ratio of investments P₁ : P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{Difference in Time}

Ratio = (1 + 5/100)^{13 − 12} = 21/20 ⇒ Anand : Anil = 21 : 20

Total parts = 21 + 20 = 41 parts = ₹1230 ⇒ 1 part = ₹30.

Anil's share = 20 parts = 20 × 30 = ₹600.

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount = ₹1230

Rate of interest (R) = 5% per annum

Anand's time (T₁) = 12 years

Anil's time (T₂) = 13 years

Formula Used:

Amount = P(1 + R/100)^T

Total: ₹1230

Anand (P1) 12 years @ 5%

Anil (P2) 13 years @ 5%

Equal Amount Ratio P1 : P2 = 21 : 20

Calculations:

⇒ Let the amount given to Anand be P₁ and to Anil be P₂.

⇒ P₁(1 + 5/100)¹² = P₂(1 + 5/100)¹³

⇒ P₁/P₂ = (1 + 1/20)^{13 − 12}

⇒ P₁/P₂ = 21/20

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 21 + 20 = 41 parts.

⇒ 41 parts = ₹1230 ⇒ 1 part = 1230 ÷ 41 = ₹30

⇒ Anil's share (P₂) = 20 parts = 20 × 30 = ₹600

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Additional Information

Equal Amount in Compound Interest

When two principals P₁ and P₂ amount to the same sum in times t₁ and t₂ respectively, their ratio is P₁ : P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{t₂ − t₁}.

Rule of 72

A useful shortcut to estimate the number of years required to double the invested money at a given fixed annual interest rate. Years ≈ 72 ÷ Rate.

Effective Compound Interest

For 2 years at an interest rate of R% per annum, the effective percentage of compound interest is given by the successive percentage formula: (2R + R²/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Second Number = (LCM × HCF) ÷ First Number

⇒ Second Number = (54 × 9) ÷ 18

⇒ Second Number = 3 × 9 = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Alternate Method

Given:

LCM of the two numbers = 54

HCF of the two numbers = 9

One of the numbers = 18

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF

Calculations:

⇒ First Number × Second Number = LCM × HCF

⇒ 18 × Second Number = 54 × 9

⇒ 18 × Second Number = 486

⇒ Second Number = 486 ÷ 18

⇒ Second Number = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Additional Information

Product of Numbers Rule

For any two positive integers a and b, the product of their HCF and LCM is strictly equal to the product of the numbers: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are co-prime if their highest common factor (HCF) is 1. The LCM of two co-prime numbers is always equal to their product.

HCF & LCM of Fractions

HCF = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators)

LCM = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators)

Shortcut Trick

The LCM must be exactly divisible by all the given numbers: 16, 45, 135, and 144.

Since 144 is a multiple of 9 (144 = 16 × 9), the LCM must also be a multiple of 9.

Checking the sum of digits of the given options for divisibility by 9:

Only 2160 has a digit sum of 9 (2 + 1 + 6 + 0 = 9), which means it is completely divisible by 9.

It also ends in a 0, satisfying the divisibility criteria for both 5 (from 45) and an even number (from 16).

∴ The correct answer is 2160.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers to find the LCM for are 16, 45, 135, and 144.

Method Used: Prime Factorisation

⇒ Prime factors of 16 = 2⁴

⇒ Prime factors of 45 = 3² × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 135 = 3³ × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 144 = 2⁴ × 3²

The LCM is evaluated by taking the product of the highest powers of all prime factors present in the numbers.

⇒ Highest power of 2 = 2⁴

⇒ Highest power of 3 = 3³

⇒ Highest power of 5 = 5¹

⇒ LCM = 2⁴ × 3³ × 5

⇒ LCM = 16 × 27 × 5

⇒ LCM = 16 × 135

⇒ LCM = 2160

∴ The correct answer is 2160.

Additional Information

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The smallest positive integer that is completely divisible by each of the given numbers. It is determined by taking the highest power of each unique prime factor involved.

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is exactly divisible by 9 if the sum of all its digits is a multiple of 9. This simple trick is extremely useful for quickly eliminating options in complex LCM calculations.

Relation between HCF and LCM

For any two specific numbers a and b, their product is exactly equal to the product of their HCF and LCM. Formula: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b). Note that this specific rule does not directly apply to three or more numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Let the original fraction be N / D.

(100 − 10)% of N / (100 + 15)% of D = 2 / 5

90% of N / 115% of D = 2 / 5

N / D = (2 × 115) / (5 × 90)

N / D = 230 / 450 = 23 / 45

∴ The correct answer is 23/45.

Alternate Method

Given:

Decrease in numerator = 10%

Increase in denominator = 15%

Resulting fraction = 2 / 5

N

D

Original

−10%

+15%

0.9 N

1.15 D

New

=

2

5

Given Value

Calculations:

Let the original fraction be N / D.

⇒ New numerator = N − (10% of N) = 0.9N

⇒ New denominator = D + (15% of D) = 1.15D

According to the given condition:

⇒ 0.9N / 1.15D = 2 / 5

By shifting terms to isolate N / D:

⇒ N / D = (2 × 1.15) / (5 × 0.9)

⇒ N / D = 2.3 / 4.5

Multiply numerator and denominator by 10 to clear decimal values:

⇒ N / D = 23 / 45

∴ The correct answer is 23/45.

Additional Information

Percentage Change in Fractions

When a numerator changes by a% and denominator by b%, the new fraction becomes N × (100 ± a)% / D × (100 ± b)%.

Equivalent Fractions

Fractions that represent the same numerical value. Multiplying or dividing both the numerator and denominator by the same non-zero number produces an equivalent fraction (e.g., 2.3/4.5 = 23/45).

Cross Multiplication

An essential technique used to solve equations involving fractions. If A / B = C / D, it directly implies that A × D = B × C.

Shortcut Trick

Since the percentage sign (%) is common to all terms, cancel it directly to simplify the equation.

Directly write the mathematical expression: 4m + 6n = (7m + 14n) ÷ 2

Cross multiply by 2: 8m + 12n = 7m + 14n

Group similar variables: 8m − 7m = 14n − 12n

m = 2n ⇒ m : n = 2 : 1

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 1.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of 4% of m and 6% of n = 1/2 of the sum of 7% of m and 14% of n.

Ratio Comparison of m and n

m

1 part 1 part 2 units

n

1 part 1 unit

m : n = 2 : 1

Calculation:

⇒ (4 / 100) × m + (6 / 100) × n = (1 / 2) × [ (7 / 100) × m + (14 / 100) × n ]

⇒ (4m + 6n) / 100 = 1/2 × [ (7m + 14n) / 100 ]

⇒ Canceling 100 from the denominators on both sides:

⇒ 4m + 6n = (7m + 14n) / 2

⇒ 2 × (4m + 6n) = 7m + 14n

⇒ 8m + 12n = 7m + 14n

⇒ 8m − 7m = 14n − 12n

⇒ m = 2n

⇒ m / n = 2 / 1

⇒ m : n = 2 : 1

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 1.

Additional Information

Proportion Rule

An equation stating that two ratios are equal (a : b = c : d) implies that ad = bc (Product of extremes = Product of means).

Compound Ratio

When two or more ratios are multiplied together, it forms a compound ratio. For a : b and c : d, the compound ratio is ac : bd.

Componendo and Dividendo

If a / b = c / d, then according to this algebraic identity, (a + b) / (a − b) = (c + d) / (c − d).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price to Selling Price = 2160 : 1998

Dividing both sides by 54, we get CP : SP = 40 : 37

Loss in ratio parts = 40 − 37 = 3 parts

Loss % = (Loss parts ÷ CP parts) × 100

Loss % = (3 ÷ 40) × 100 = 7.5%

∴ The correct answer is 7.5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of the mixer = ₹2160

Selling Price (SP) of the mixer = ₹1998

Cost Price (CP) = ₹2160

Selling Price (SP) = ₹1998

Loss

Loss % = (162 ÷ 2160) × 100 = 7.5%

Formula Used:

Loss = CP − SP

Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Loss = 2160 − 1998

⇒ Loss = ₹162

⇒ Loss % = (162 ÷ 2160) × 100

⇒ Loss % = 1620 ÷ 216

⇒ Loss % = 7.5%

∴ The correct answer is 7.5%.

Additional Information

Base of Calculation

Profit and Loss percentages are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless specifically stated otherwise in the question.

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always offered on the Marked Price (MP). The fundamental relationship is given by: SP = MP − Discount.

Dishonest Dealer

When a dealer claims to sell at CP but uses a false weight, his actual CP is based on the false weight given, while SP is based on the claimed weight.

Shortcut Trick

To find when multiple runners meet at the starting point for the first time, simply calculate the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of their individual lap times.

Required Time = LCM(280, 350, 420, 560)

We can factor out the common divisor 70 to make it easier:

Required Time = 70 × LCM(4, 5, 6, 8)

The LCM of 4, 5, 6, and 8 is 120.

Required Time = 70 × 120 = 8400 seconds.

∴ The correct answer is 8400 seconds.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Runner 1 (T₁) = 280 s

Time taken by Runner 2 (T₂) = 350 s

Time taken by Runner 3 (T₃) = 420 s

Time taken by Runner 4 (T₄) = 560 s

Start

Runner Times: T1 = 280 s T2 = 350 s T3 = 420 s T4 = 560 s Meet Time = LCM

Concept Used:

The runners will meet exactly at the starting point when the elapsed time is a common multiple of all their individual lap times. The first time they meet is the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of these given times.

Calculations:

Finding the prime factorization of each given lap time:

⇒ 280 = 28 × 10 = 2³ × 5 × 7

⇒ 350 = 35 × 10 = 2 × 5² × 7

⇒ 420 = 42 × 10 = 2² × 3 × 5 × 7

⇒ 560 = 56 × 10 = 2⁴ × 5 × 7

The LCM is the product of the highest powers of all distinct prime factors involved (2, 3, 5, and 7):

⇒ LCM = 2⁴ × 3¹ × 5² × 7¹

⇒ LCM = 16 × 3 × 25 × 7

⇒ LCM = (16 × 25) × (3 × 7)

⇒ LCM = 400 × 21

⇒ LCM = 8400

Therefore, all four runners will meet at the starting point together after 8400 seconds.

∴ The correct answer is 8400 seconds.

Additional Information

Meeting at the Starting Point

When multiple runners run around a circular track, the time they first meet exclusively at the starting point is always the LCM of the times taken by each to complete exactly one full lap.

First Meeting Anywhere on the Track

If runners are moving in the same direction, they meet anywhere on the track when the faster runner covers exactly one lap more than the slower runner. The formula used is Distance of Track ÷ Relative Speed.

Number of Distinct Meeting Points

If the ratio of their speeds in simplest integer form is a : b, they will meet at (a + b) distinct points on the track if running in opposite directions, and |a − b| distinct points if running in the same direction.

Shortcut Trick

Let the base value for price, consumption and expenditure be 100.

New Price = 100 + 70 = 170

New Expenditure = 100 + 19 = 119

Reduction in consumption % = [(New Price − New Expenditure) ÷ New Price] × 100

⇒ [(170 − 119) ÷ 170] × 100 = (51 ÷ 170) × 100 = 30%

∴ The correct answer is 30%.

Alternate Method

Base: 100

Price: 170

Exp: 119

• 70%

• 19%

−30%

Given:

Increase in price of petrol = 70%

Increase in total expenditure allowed = 19%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Price × Consumption

Calculations:

Let original price be ₹100/litre and original consumption be 100 litres.

⇒ Original Expenditure = 100 × 100 = ₹10,000

⇒ New price = 100 + (70% of 100) = ₹170/litre

⇒ New expenditure = 10,000 + (19% of 10,000) = ₹11,900

⇒ New Consumption = New Expenditure ÷ New Price

⇒ New Consumption = 11,900 ÷ 170 = 70 litres

⇒ Reduction in consumption = Original Consumption − New Consumption

⇒ Reduction = 100 − 70 = 30 litres

⇒ Percentage reduction = (30 ÷ 100) × 100 = 30%

∴ The correct answer is 30%.

Additional Information

Constant Product Rule

When Expenditure = Price × Consumption, and Expenditure is kept constant, Price and Consumption are inversely proportional. A price increase of (1/x) leads to a consumption decrease of 1/(x+1).

Successive Percentage Change

If a value changes by a% and then by b%, the net percentage change is given by (a + b + ab ÷ 100)%.

Base Change Concept

To calculate the percentage reduction required to reach a target value, the new increased value is treated as the base. Formula: [(New Value − Target Value) ÷ New Value] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price × (100% − Discount%)

SP = 25960 × (100% − 20%)

SP = 25960 × 80%

SP = 25960 × 4/5 = 5192 × 4

SP = 20768

∴ The correct answer is ₹20,768.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) of the watch = ₹25,960

Discount offered = 20%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP − (Discount % of MP)

Marked Price ₹25,960

Selling Price ? (80%)

-20% Discount

Calculations:

⇒ Discount Amount = 20% of 25960

⇒ Discount = (20 / 100) × 25960

⇒ Discount = 2 × 2596 = 5192

⇒ Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount Amount

⇒ SP = 25960 − 5192

⇒ SP = 20768

∴ The correct answer is ₹20,768.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two consecutive discounts of a% and b% are given, the equivalent single discount is given by the formula (a + b − ab/100)%.

Relation between CP, MP, and Discount

MP ÷ CP = (100 + Profit %) ÷ (100 − Discount %). This relationship is extremely useful when both profit percentage and discount percentage are known.

Profit/Loss Percentage Rule

Profit and Loss percentages are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise, whereas Discount is strictly calculated on the Marked Price (MP).

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The phrase "blessing in disguise" refers to something that initially seems unfortunate or negative but ultimately leads to an unforeseen positive outcome. (छुपा हुआ वरदान)
• Example: Losing my job turned out to be a blessing in disguise, as it pushed me to pursue my passion and start my own successful business.
• Unforeseen Positive Outcome means a result that was unexpected and beneficial. (अप्रत्याशित सकारात्मक परिणाम)
• Example: Missing the train might have been a blessing in disguise, as I avoided the accident that happened on that route.
• Hence, the correct meaning of "blessing in disguise" is "something unfortunate that results in an unforeseen positive outcome."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Something one can gift to others (कुछ ऐसा जिसे दूसरों को उपहार स्वरूप दिया जा सकता है): Refers to an object or gesture that can be given as a gift.
• Example: Flowers are something one can gift to others as a token of appreciation.
• Option 2: Something which is a hidden danger (ऐसा कुछ जो एक छुपा हुआ खतरा है): Refers to a situation or element that poses a risk but is not immediately apparent.
• Example: The slippery road was a hidden danger that caused several accidents.
• Option 3: Something which shows compassion (कुछ ऐसा जो करुणा दिखाता है): Refers to an act or gesture that conveys kindness and empathy.
• Example: Helping the homeless is something which shows compassion.

The correct answer is: Dull.

Key Points

• The word "monotonous" means something that is dull, repetitive, and lacking in variety or interest. (नीरस)
• Example: The monotonous routine of his daily life made him feel uninspired.
• "Dull" refers to something that is boring, uninteresting, or lacking brightness and liveliness. (सुस्त, उबाऊ)
• Example: The lecture was so dull that half the audience fell asleep.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'monotonous' is 'dull'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dull.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Varied (विविध): Incorporating a number of different types or elements; showing variety.
• Example: The teacher used varied teaching methods to keep the students engaged.
• Interesting (रोचक): Something that holds or grabs attention and arouses curiosity.
• Example: The book was so interesting that I couldn’t put it down.
• Exciting (रोमांचक): Causing great enthusiasm and eagerness.
• Example: The roller-coaster ride was an exciting experience for the kids.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The blank requires an expression that indicates a large quantity of homework.
• "Few" and "many" are incorrect because they are typically used with plural countable nouns, not uncountable nouns like "homework."
• "The little" is incorrect because it implies a small amount, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
• "A lot of" is the correct choice because it appropriately describes a large quantity of homework, and "homework" is an uncountable noun.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "I can't go out tonight because I have a lot of homework to do."

 

Additional Information

• "Few": Used with plural countable nouns, e.g., "few apples," but does not fit here as "homework" is uncountable.
• "The little": Refers to a small quantity, which contradicts the implied meaning of a large amount in this context.
• "Many": Used with plural countable nouns, e.g., "many books," and is unsuitable here.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "Very expensive".

Key Points

• The idiom "Cost an arm and a leg" means something that is extremely expensive or costs a lot of money. (बहुत महंगा)
• Example: The new iPhone costs an arm and a leg, so I decided to wait for a sale.
• "Very expensive" describes something that requires a significant amount of money to purchase or acquire. (बहुत महंगा)
• Example: Luxury cars are very expensive, and only a few people can afford them.
• Hence, the idiom "Cost an arm and a leg" means "Very expensive".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Affordable (सस्ता): Something reasonably priced that most people can buy.
• Example: The local market offers affordable clothing for everyone.
• Inexpensive (अल्प मूल्य): Something that is not costly or very cheap.
• Example: This store sells high-quality products at inexpensive prices.
• Free of charge (बिना शुल्क): Something that does not require payment or is provided for free.
• Example: The museum entry is free of charge on Sundays.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Expllorer'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Explorer'.
• The word 'Explorer' is a noun which means 'a person who travels to unfamiliar places to learn more about them'. (अन्वेषक)
• For Example -
• The explorer discovered a hidden cave during his journey.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Expllorer'.

Additional Information

Let’s understand the meanings of the other marked words -

• Selection - the action or process of choosing someone or something (चयन)
• Acoustic - relating to sound or the sense of hearing (ध्वनिक)
• Curious - eager to know or learn something (जिज्ञासु)

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Authentic).

Key Points

• The word "Spurious" means something that is false or fake; not being what it purports to be. (झूठा / नकली)
• Example: The document was spurious and could not be used as evidence in court.
• "Authentic" refers to something genuine, real, and true to its origin or nature. (प्रामाणिक)
• Example: The painting was verified as an authentic work of Vincent van Gogh.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Spurious' is 'Authentic'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Authentic).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Fake (नकली): Something that is not real or genuine; an imitation.
• Example: The jewelry was fake and made of cheap materials.
• Bogus (नकली): Something that is counterfeit or not authentic.
• Example: The company was accused of issuing bogus invoices to customers.
• Counterfeit (जाली): Made in exact imitation of something valuable with the intent to deceive.
• Example: The bank detected counterfeit currency during a routine check.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Strong).

Key Points

• The word "Feeble" refers to something that is weak, lacking in physical strength, or faint. (कमज़ोर, दुर्बल)
• Example: The old man's feeble voice was barely audible in the noisy room.
• The word "Strong" is the opposite of "Feeble" and refers to something that has great physical power, strength, or durability. (मज़बूत)
• Example: She is a strong athlete who trains every day to maintain her fitness.
• Hence, we can conclude that the antonym of "Feeble" is "Strong".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Strong).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Rare (दुर्लभ): Something that occurs infrequently or is uncommon.
• Example: This species of bird is so rare that it is seldom seen in the wild.
• Delicate (नाज़ुक): Easily broken or damaged; fragile.
• Example: Handle the delicate glassware with care to avoid breaking it.
• Sickly (बीमार): Often ill or in poor health.
• Example: The sickly child was given extra care and attention by the nurses.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "high over the atmosphere" is not the most appropriate usage.
• The correct substitution is "high into the atmosphere," which indicates the particles rising and dispersing within the atmospheric layers.
• The other options, such as "high across the atmosphere" or "high onto the atmosphere," are either grammatically incorrect or do not convey the intended meaning.
• "High above the atmosphere" does not fit because black carbon particles remain within the atmosphere rather than above it.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Black carbon consists of tiny particles that can waft high into the atmosphere and be carried for thousands of kilometres."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "high across the atmosphere" – This does not convey the particles rising within the atmosphere and is contextually inappropriate.
• Option 3: "high onto the atmosphere" – This is grammatically incorrect as the particles cannot be "onto" the atmosphere.
• Option 4: "high above the atmosphere" – This suggests the particles are outside the atmosphere, which is inaccurate.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect placement of the adverb "hardly."
• Adverbs like "hardly" should typically be placed before the auxiliary verb in a sentence.
• The correct placement should be "Andrew could hardly believe the news," ensuring proper sentence structure and clarity.
• This sentence, as written, disrupts the expected word order and makes the usage of "hardly" awkward and incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Andrew could hardly believe the news when he heard it."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Mona spoke softly so that everyone could hear her clearly." – This sentence is grammatically correct. The adverbs "softly" and "clearly" are appropriately placed.
• Option 2: "The manager was highly pleased with the results." – This sentence is grammatically correct. The adverb "highly" is appropriately used to modify the adjective "pleased."
• Option 3: "They were surprisingly quick to understand the complex instructions." – This sentence is grammatically correct. The adverb "surprisingly" appropriately modifies the adjective "quick."

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The sentence requires the use of the correct collocation to describe the relationship after leaving school.
• The word "friendship" is the appropriate term to refer to the bond between people, not "friends," which refers to individuals.
• The verb "developed" is correct because it refers to the progression or change in the friendship.
• Thus, the correct phrase is "friendship developed," ensuring grammatical accuracy and clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "We were at school together, but our friendship developed after we left school."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "friends developed" – Incorrect, as "friends" refers to people, not the relationship.
• Option 2: "friendship grows" – Incorrect tense, as the sentence is in the past tense ("developed").
• Option 3: "friends grown" – Grammatically incorrect as "grown" is not appropriately used.

The correct answer is: Arrogant.

Key Points

• The word "Haughty" means someone who is arrogantly superior and disdainful. It describes a person who behaves as if they are better than others. (अभिमानी, घमंडी)
• Example: The haughty tone of his voice made it clear that he thought little of our opinions.
• "Arrogant" refers to having an exaggerated sense of one's own importance or abilities. It often conveys a sense of superiority and overconfidence. (अहंकारी)
• Example: The arrogant leader refused to listen to the advice of his team, believing he knew better than everyone else.
• Hence, we can conclude that the synonym of 'Haughty' is 'Arrogant'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Arrogant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Modest (विनम्र): Someone who is humble and does not boast about their achievements.
• Example: Despite her numerous accomplishments, she remained modest and unassuming.
• Bashful (शर्मीला): Someone who is shy or easily embarrassed.
• Example: The bashful child hid behind his mother's legs when introduced to the guests.
• Sheepish (संकोची): Showing embarrassment from shame or a lack of self-confidence.
• Example: He gave a sheepish smile when his mistake was pointed out.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "in case of afford a new car" is grammatically incorrect and does not convey the intended meaning.
• The correct phrase is "in order to afford a new car," which indicates the purpose of saving money.
• The use of "in order to" shows the goal or reason behind the action of saving money each month.
• Option 2 is the most appropriate substitution, ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "He saved money each month in order to afford a new car."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "in the mean time afford new car" – This is incorrect as it does not fit the context and lacks grammatical correctness.
• Option 3: "in addition to afford the new car" – This is incorrect as it implies an additional action rather than a purpose.
• Option 4: "in charge of affording new car" – This is incorrect as it conveys a completely different meaning and is not relevant to the context.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Believ'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Believe'.
• The word 'Believe' is a verb which means 'to accept something as true or real'. (विश्वास करना)
• For Example -
• I believe in the power of hard work.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Believ'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other words - 

• Refer - to mention or allude to something (संदर्भित करना)
• Sculptor - an artist who makes sculptures (मूर्तिकार)
• Combination - a joining or merging of different parts (संयोजन)

The correct answer is 'destination'.

 

Key Points

• The word "destination" refers to the place to which someone or something is going or being sent. (गंतव्य)
• In this context, the sentence talks about reaching a specific place late due to a flight delay, so "destination" fits best.
• The other options: "designation," "destiny," and "rabble" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: My flight got delayed yesterday, so I reached my destination very late.

Additional Information

• Designation (पद): refers to a title or position assigned to someone.
• Destiny (भाग्य): refers to the events that will necessarily happen to someone in the future.
• Rabble (भीड़): refers to a disorderly crowd or mob.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The adverb "always" is incorrectly placed in the sentence. In English, adverbs of frequency (e.g., always, never, usually) are generally placed before the main verb.
• The correct placement should be: "Nila always arrives on time for meetings."
• Option 2 ("Nila never arrives on time for meetings."), Option 3 ("Nila hardly ever arrives on time for meetings."), and Option 4 ("Nila usually arrives on time for meetings.") use the adverbs correctly.
• Thus, the error is in Option 1.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Nila always arrives on time for meetings."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Nila never arrives on time for meetings." – This is grammatically correct, as the adverb "never" is correctly placed before the verb "arrives."
• Option 3: "Nila hardly ever arrives on time for meetings." – This is grammatically correct, as the adverb phrase "hardly ever" is correctly placed before the verb "arrives."
• Option 4: "Nila usually arrives on time for meetings." – This is grammatically correct, as the adverb "usually" is correctly placed before the verb "arrives."

The correct answer is 'inevitable'.

 

Key Points

• The passage talks about stress in today’s fast-paced world.
• The word in blank (1) must show that stress cannot be avoided.
• "Inevitable" means something that is certain to happen and unavoidable, which perfectly fits the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Additional Information

• Recurring: Suggests repetition but does not convey certainty.
• Unrealistic: Impractical or not real; irrelevant here.
• Crucial: Important, but doesn’t capture the unavoidable nature of stress.

The correct answer is 'coping'.

 

Key Points

• The passage talks about stress in modern life and how to handle it effectively.
• The blank refers to the kind of mechanisms that help a person deal with stress.
• "Coping" mechanisms is the correct phrase, as it refers to strategies people use to manage stress and challenges.
• Other options like "creative", "obsolete", and "remedial" do not collocate naturally with "mechanisms" in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Additional Information

• Creative: Refers to imagination or innovation, but does not fit with “mechanisms” for stress.
• Obsolete: Means outdated, which is irrelevant here.
• Remedial: Suggests corrective action, but the natural collocation is not “remedial mechanisms.”

The correct answer is 'help'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence is: “Engaging in activities like meditation and exercise can (3) ______ manage stress levels.”
• The subject here is the phrase “activities like meditation and exercise”, which is plural.
• After the modal verb “can”, we always use the base form of the verb.
• Therefore, the correct verb form is help.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

• Helps: Incorrect because after “can,” the base form of the verb is required.
• Adds: Does not match the meaning of the sentence about stress management.
• Add: Grammatically possible but contextually inappropriate.

The correct answer is 'recurring'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the impact of stress on health and well-being.
• The blank refers to a type of stress that can harm physical and mental health.
• The word "recurring" means something that happens again and again, which fits the idea of stress that persists over time.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Additional Information

• Malignant: Means very dangerous or harmful in medical sense; does not fit in the context of general stress.
• Cancerous: Relates specifically to cancer; not suitable for describing stress.
• Occasional: Means happening sometimes; occasional stress is not usually harmful.

The correct answer is 'balanced'.

 

Key Points

• The passage is about stress management and adopting healthy coping mechanisms for overall well-being.
• The blank (5) comes after the phrase "prioritising self-care is essential for a ___ and healthy lifestyle".
• The adjective should logically pair with "healthy lifestyle".
• "Balanced" is the most appropriate choice because a balanced lifestyle includes proper rest, diet, work, and recreation, ensuring both physical and mental well-being.
• Other options like "nutritious," "calming," and "sober" do not fit smoothly in the context of describing an overall lifestyle.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

• Nutritious: Refers to food rich in nutrients; does not apply to the overall lifestyle in this context.
• Calming: Means relaxing, but it modifies activities or environments, not lifestyle as a whole.
• Sober: Means not drunk/serious-minded; it does not fit the sense of a lifestyle description.

सही उत्तर है- हम इसलिए पढ़ते हैं कि हमारे ज्ञान में वृद्धि हो।

Key Points

• जो आश्रित उपवाक्य संज्ञा की तरह व्यवहृत हों, उन्हें 'संज्ञा-उपवाक्य' कहते हैं।
• दूसरे शब्दों में - 
• जो गौण उपवाक्य प्रधान उपवाक्य का उद्देश्य (कर्ता), कर्म या पूरक बनकर संज्ञा अथवा सर्वनाम के स्थान पर प्रयुक्त हो, वह संज्ञा उपवाक्य कहलाता है तथा यह ‘कि’ योजक द्वारा जुड़ा होता है।
• जैसे -
• मोहन ने कहा कि मैं अभी खेलूँगा। यहाँ मैं अभी खेलूँगा ‘संज्ञा आश्रित उपवाक्य’ है।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- या तो नरेश स्वयं आएगा या अपने पुत्र को भेजेगा। 

Key Pointsरचना के आधार पर वाक्य भेद -

• रचना के आधार पर वाक्य तीन प्रकार के होते हैं।
• सरल वाक्य
• मिश्रित वाक्य
• संयुक्त वाक्य

Important Points

‘मेल’ का विलोम नहीं है- मैत्री

Key Points

• मैत्री का विलोम है- शत्रुता

Important Points

• विलोम - 
• जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Additional Information

कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - पराधीन

Key Points

• 'स्वाधीन' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'पराधीन' होगा।
• 'स्वाधीन' का अर्थ - स्वतंत्र, अपने आप पर निर्भर।
• 'पराधीन' का अर्थ - पराधीन, दूसरों के अधीन।

Important Points

• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

दिए गए वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान के लिए उचित विदेशज शब्द होगा - मिसाल

Key Points

• वाक्य - रीमा अपने गाँव में पहली महिला डॉक्टर बनी है। जो सारी लड़कियों के लिए एक मिसाल है।
• 'मिसाल' एक विदेशज शब्द (अरबी भाषा से लिया गया) है, जिसका अर्थ उदाहरण या प्रेरणा है।

​अन्य विकल्प -

• 'फसाद' - विदेशज शब्द (अरबी), अर्थ: झगड़ा या अशांति। संदर्भ में अनुपयुक्त।
• 'तारीफ' - विदेशज शब्द (अरबी), अर्थ: प्रशंसा। संदर्भ में प्रेरणा के बजाय प्रशंसा का अर्थ कम फिट होता है।
• 'कम' - विदेशज शब्द (अरबी), अर्थ: थोड़ा। संदर्भ में बेमेल।

Important Pointsविदेशज:-

• जो शब्द विदेशी भाषा के हैं, परंतु हिंदी में उनका प्रचलन हो रहा है, उन्हें विदेशज शब्द कहा जाता है।
• विदेशी शब्द अरबी, फारसी, तुर्की, अंग्रेजी आदि भाषाओं से लिए गए हैं। जैसे - डॉक्टर, चश्मा, फकीर आदि।

देशज:-

• वे शब्द जिनकी उत्पत्ति का श्रोत ज्ञात न हो और भाषा में उनका प्रचलन भरपूर हो, देशज शब्दों की श्रेणी में आते हैं।
• जैसे - लोटा, कटोरा, डोंगा, डिबिया, खिचड़ी आदि।

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