SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 17 Feb, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given Expression: B + C × D – E ÷ F

B + C: B is the mother of C.

C × D: C is the wife of D.

D – E: D is the brother of E.

E ÷ F: E is the father of F.

Therefore, D is the Father's brother of F.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The completion of the image based series:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The letter-cluster that does not belong to the group is MRZ.

The logic followed here is:

Option (1): JKP

 

                     

Option (2): FGL

                       

Option (3): RSX

 

                     

Option (4): MRZ

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The hidden inmage of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Clothes, Shoes, Black

Some clothes are black.

Some shoes are black.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Seven people, G, H, I, J, K, L and M, are sitting in a row, facing north(but not necessarily in the same order) .

Only two people sit to the left of I. Only three people sit between I and K.

L sits second to the right of I. Only two people sit between L and G.

M sits at some place to the right of H but at some place to the left of J. 

Thus, Only three people sit to the right of M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

The logic is to find the "sum of the positional values" of the letters in the word.

For 'HXCT': 55

Positional values: H(8), X(24), C(3), T(20)

Sum: 8 + 24 + 3 + 20 = 55

This matches the given code.

For 'LAMU': 47

Positional values: L(12), A(1), M(13), U(21)

Sum: 12 + 1 + 13 + 21 = 47

Similarly, 

For 'ZFGD':

Positional values: Z(26), F(6), G(7), D(4)

Sum: 26 + 6 + 7 + 4 = 43

Therefore, the code for 'ZFGD' is 43"

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given interchange rules:

• ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged.
• ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged.

The given equation is:

112 + 8 × 2 − 13 ÷ 21 = ?

After applying the interchange rules, the equation becomes:

112 ÷ 8 − 2 × 13 + 21 = ?

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

= 112 ÷ 8 − 2 × 13 + 21

= 14 − 26 + 21

= -12 + 21

= 9

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:                                                                                                                                                                                                                   

                                                                                                                                           

Thus, the missing term in the series is 569.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing letter in the series is U.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3";

The completion of the incomplete figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 680.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For MISC to OFUZ:

For ZDEN to BAGK:

Applying the same logic to PVAT:

Thus, the letter cluster related to PVAT is "RSCQ".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: E, F, G, H, K, L and N are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) .

N sits to the immediate right of E. Only three people sit between N and H when counted from the left of N.

Only three people sit between E and K. F sits to the immediate right of G.

Thus, only one people sit between E and G when counted from the right of G.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

The code for "tree" is "gk".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

From the given two positions of the dice, we observe that the letter 'U' is common to both figures.

From Figure 1 (Clockwise from U): U → A → T 

From Figure 2 (Clockwise from A): U → H → S

By comparing the sequences, we can find the opposite pairs:

Opposite pairs:

A ↔ H

T ↔ S

The letters on the faces of the dice are  U, J, T, H, A and S

We have found pairs for A, H, T,S. The remaining two letters are U and J.

Since 'U' is the common face, the remaining unseen face must be opposite to 'U'. The remaining unseen face is 'J'.

So, the face opposite to "U" is "J".

Therefore, the face opposite to "J" is "U".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Word: FUNFAIRS 

Arrange each letter in reverse English alphabetical order.

Number of letters with unchanged positions: Zero 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is: 

For GTSU to TGHF:

For KJIE to PQRV:

Applying the same logic to ALMO:

Thus, the word ALMO is coded as ZONL.

Hence, the correct asnwer is "Option 3".

The least possible venn digaram is given:

Conclusions:

(I) No toy is a machine - False(as there is n direct relation is given between them so, it can be possible only).

(II) Some toys are vacuums - False(as there is n direct relation is given between them so, it can be possible only).

Thus, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is Krishna.

Key Points

• The Rigveda is the oldest of the four Vedas and is a primary source of early Indian history, focusing on hymns, rituals, and nature worship.
• Rivers like Saraswati, Sindhu (Indus), and Yamuna are prominently mentioned in the Rigveda as sacred rivers with vital cultural and religious significance.
• The Rigveda praises the Sindhu (Indus) as a mighty river, referring to it as the lifeblood of the ancient Vedic civilization.
• The Saraswati River, often described as a divine and mythical river, is extensively referenced in the Rigveda, symbolizing fertility and prosperity.
• Krishna, a river in southern India, is not mentioned in the Rigveda, as the focus of the text is primarily on rivers in the northwestern and northern regions of the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

• Geographical Context of the Rigveda: The hymns of the Rigveda were composed in the Sapta Sindhu (land of seven rivers) region, which includes the modern-day areas of Punjab and Haryana.
• Important Rivers in the Rigveda: The Rigveda mentions rivers like Saraswati, Sindhu (Indus), Ganga, Yamuna, and others, emphasizing their significance in agriculture, rituals, and trade.
• Saraswati River: The Saraswati River, often considered mythical, is described as flowing between the Yamuna and Sutlej rivers. It is central to Vedic cosmology and is regarded as a sacred river.
• Absence of Southern Rivers: Rivers like Krishna, Godavari, and Kaveri, located in southern India, are not mentioned in the Rigveda, as the Vedic civilization primarily flourished in northern and northwestern India during its composition.
• Later Textual Developments: The southern rivers gained prominence in later texts like the Mahabharata, Ramayana, and Puranas, reflecting the geographic expansion of Vedic culture over time.

The correct answer is option 1,

The correct answer is Tethys Sea.

Key Points

• The Tethys Sea was an ancient ocean that existed between approximately 250 to 50 million years ago, during the Mesozoic and early Cenozoic eras.
• It played a crucial role in separating the supercontinents of Laurasia (in the northern hemisphere) and Gondwana (in the southern hemisphere).
• During the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods, the Tethys Sea acted as a biodiversity hotspot, housing a wide range of marine organisms.
• As tectonic plates shifted, the Tethys Sea gradually disappeared, giving rise to modern-day seas like the Mediterranean Sea and contributing to the formation of the Indian Ocean.
• The remnants of the Tethys Sea are visible today in the form of sedimentary rocks, fossil deposits, and geological features across Europe, Asia, and Africa.

Additional Information

• Supercontinents: Laurasia and Gondwana were two major supercontinents separated by the Tethys Sea during the Mesozoic era.
• Plate Tectonics: The movement of tectonic plates caused the closure of the Tethys Sea and eventually led to the collision of India with Asia, forming the Himalayas.
• Marine Ecosystems: The Tethys Sea supported diverse marine ecosystems, including ammonites, corals, and other marine life forms, many of which are now extinct.
• Fossil Records: Fossil deposits from the Tethys Sea provide valuable insights into the evolutionary history of marine organisms and the Earth's geological past.
• Modern Geological Impact: The disappearance of the Tethys Sea influenced the formation of various mountain ranges, such as the Alps, Himalayas, and Zagros mountains.

The correct answer is Jyotiba Phule.

Key Points

• Jyotiba Phule, a prominent social reformer and thinker, authored the book 'Sarvajanik Satyadharma'.
• The book emphasizes equality and justice and was written to challenge the caste system and social injustices prevailing during the 19^th century.
• Phule used his writings, including 'Sarvajanik Satyadharma,' to advocate for the upliftment of oppressed communities, especially the Dalits and women.
• This book reflects his broader philosophy of Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth Seekers), which he founded in 1873 to promote social equality.
• Jyotiba Phule’s contributions extended to education reform, where he worked tirelessly to promote the education of women and lower-caste individuals.

Additional Information

• Jyotiba Phule: Born in 1827 in Maharashtra, he was a pioneer of social reform movements in India and is often referred to as the "Father of Indian Social Revolution."
• Satyashodhak Samaj: An organization founded by Phule to fight against Brahmanical supremacy and to advocate for the rights of marginalized communities.
• Educational Reforms: Phule, along with his wife Savitribai Phule, opened the first school for girls in India in 1848, marking a major step towards gender equality in education.
• Other Works: Jyotiba Phule also authored 'Gulamgiri' (Slavery), which criticized caste-based discrimination and oppression.
• Legacy: Jyotiba Phule's work laid the foundation for the social justice movements that followed, inspiring leaders like B.R. Ambedkar in their fight for equality and rights for the oppressed.

The correct answer is Emphasis on 'Garibi Hatao' (Eradicate Poverty).

Key Points

• The Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-1979) was a major turning point in India's economic planning, with a strong focus on 'Garibi Hatao' (Eradicate Poverty) as its central theme.
• The plan was designed to address the acute issue of poverty in India, with policies aimed at improving the living standards of the poor and marginalized sections of society.
• It marked a shift towards greater emphasis on the social sector, including employment generation, rural development, and self-reliance in food production.
• This plan included specific programs such as the Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) and the National Rural Employment Programme to directly tackle poverty.
• Indira Gandhi's slogan 'Garibi Hatao' became the political and economic mantra during this period, reflecting the government's commitment to inclusive development.

Additional Information

• Minimum Needs Programme (MNP):
• Introduced as part of the Fifth Five Year Plan, it aimed at providing basic necessities such as education, healthcare, clean drinking water, and housing to the poorest sections of society.
• The program was an effort to reduce inequalities and improve the quality of life for disadvantaged communities.
• Self-Reliance in Food Production:
• The plan prioritized agricultural development and food security to reduce dependence on imports and ensure self-sufficiency in food production.
• Efforts included increasing irrigation facilities, adopting high-yield variety seeds, and promoting cooperative farming.
• Shift in Strategy:
• The Fifth Five Year Plan marked a departure from earlier growth-focused strategies to include a more welfare-oriented approach.
• It integrated poverty alleviation programs directly into the planning framework.
• Political Context:
• The plan coincided with the period of political and economic turbulence, including the Emergency (1975-1977) declared by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• Despite its ambitious goals, the plan faced implementation challenges due to political instability and resource constraints.
• Outcome:
• The Fifth Five Year Plan laid the foundation for future poverty alleviation programs and highlighted the importance of inclusive development in India's economic planning.
• However, the plan was terminated early in 1978 by the subsequent government, which introduced a new plan with different priorities.

The correct answer is Neha Kakkar.

Key Points

• London Thumakda is a popular Bollywood song from the movie Queen, released in 2014.
• The song is sung by Neha Kakkar, Labh Janjua, and Sonu Kakkar.
• It was composed by the music director duo Amit Trivedi, known for their distinctive style in Bollywood music.
• The lyrics of the song were penned by Anvita Dutt, who is celebrated for her quirky and engaging writing.
• The song gained widespread popularity for its upbeat rhythm and vibrant depiction of Indian wedding celebrations.

Additional Information

• Neha Kakkar is a renowned Indian playback singer known for her energetic and melodious voice.
• She gained fame with songs like Second Hand Jawani, Kala Chashma, and Aankh Marey.
• Neha Kakkar started her singing journey by participating in the reality show Indian Idol and later became one of the judges on the same show.
• The movie Queen, starring Kangana Ranaut, is a critically acclaimed film that celebrates themes of self-discovery and empowerment.
• The song London Thumakda is widely recognized as one of the iconic tracks that adds to the joyous and celebratory vibe of Indian weddings.

The correct answer is State Election Commission.

Key Points

• The 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, mandates the establishment of the State Election Commission in each state to oversee elections at the municipal level.
• The State Election Commission is responsible for conducting regular, free, and fair elections to the urban local bodies (Municipalities) and rural local bodies (Panchayats).
• Under Article 243K and 243ZA of the Indian Constitution, the powers of superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Panchayati Raj Institutions and Municipalities are vested in the State Election Commission.
• The State Election Commission is an independent body, and its composition, tenure, and functions are determined by the respective state governments as per the guidelines of the Constitution.
• The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures, but the State Election Commission handles local body elections.

Additional Information

• 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act:
• It was enacted in 1992 to provide constitutional status to urban local bodies (Municipalities).
• The Act introduced three types of municipalities: Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, and Municipal Corporation.
• It aimed to strengthen decentralized governance in urban areas.
• State Election Commissions:
• Each state has its own State Election Commission, headed by a State Election Commissioner.
• The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the state.
• The Commission ensures independent and impartial elections to local bodies.
• Election Commission of India vs. State Election Commission:
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) conducts elections to the Parliament, State Legislative Assemblies, and the offices of the President and Vice President.
• The State Election Commission conducts elections to Panchayats and Municipalities.
• Both bodies operate independently of each other.
• Articles 243K and 243ZA:
• These articles provide for the establishment and functioning of the State Election Commissions.
• They empower the State Election Commissions to oversee the preparation of electoral rolls and conduct of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities.

The correct answer is 2003.

Key Points

• Sonal Mansingh is one of the most celebrated Indian classical dancers, excelling in Bharatanatyam and Odissi dance forms.
• She was honored with the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian award, in the year 2003.
• The Padma Vibhushan recognizes "exceptional and distinguished service" in any field, including arts, public affairs, science, and more.
• Sonal Mansingh is known for her contributions to the promotion of classical Indian dance and culture globally.
• She is also a recipient of the Padma Bhushan (1992) and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1987).

Additional Information

• Padma Awards:
• The Padma Awards are conferred in three categories: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
• They are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
• Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest award, followed by Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri.
• Indian Classical Dance Forms:
• India has eight recognized classical dance forms: Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Odissi, Kathakali, Kuchipudi, Manipuri, Mohiniyattam, and Sattriya.
• Sonal Mansingh is a renowned practitioner of Bharatanatyam and Odissi.
• Sonal Mansingh's Contributions:
• She has used dance as a medium to address social issues and promote Indian cultural heritage.
• Her performances often combine storytelling, music, and movement to depict themes from mythology and contemporary life.
• Recognition for Indian Artists:
• The Padma Awards are a testament to India's commitment to honoring its cultural ambassadors.
• By recognizing artists like Sonal Mansingh, the awards inspire younger generations to preserve and promote traditional art forms.

The correct answer is option 4,

The correct answer is Rajiv Kumar.

Key Points

• Rajiv Kumar is the 25^th Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India, appointed on 15 May 2022.
• He succeeded Sushil Chandra as the Chief Election Commissioner.
• Rajiv Kumar has been serving in various administrative capacities, including roles in the Ministry of Finance and Department of Personnel and Training.
• The Chief Election Commissioner is responsible for overseeing elections for the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice President in India.
• Rajiv Kumar played a significant role in implementing electoral reforms and ensuring transparency in the election process.

Additional Information

• Election Commission of India (ECI)
• Established in 1950, the ECI is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for conducting free and fair elections in India.
• The ECI consists of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs).
• It operates under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.
• Roles and Powers of the Chief Election Commissioner
• Ensures the conduct of free and fair elections at national and state levels.
• Issues guidelines for political parties and candidates during elections.
• Oversees the implementation of the Model Code of Conduct during elections.
• Has quasi-judicial powers to settle disputes related to elections.
• Electoral Reforms
• Introduction of Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system for transparency.
• Digitization and simplification of voter registration processes.
• Reforms aimed at reducing the influence of money and muscle power during elections.
• Significance of ECI
• Plays a vital role in upholding India's democratic values.
• Ensures the participation of citizens in the electoral process.
• Maintains the integrity of the electoral system.

The correct answer is Harmanpreet Singh and Lovlina Borgohain.

Key Points

• Harmanpreet Singh, the captain of the Indian men’s hockey team, and Lovlina Borgohain, an Olympic medal-winning boxer, were the flag bearers for India at the opening ceremony of the Asian Games 2023.
• The opening ceremony of the Asian Games 2023 took place on 23^rd September 2023 in Hangzhou, China.
• The decision to select these athletes reflects their significant achievements and contributions to Indian sports on the global stage.
• This marked a proud moment for India as these two athletes represented the spirit and excellence of the country at the prestigious event.

Additional Information

• Asian Games: The Asian Games, also known as Asiad, is a continental multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from across Asia.
• Harmanpreet Singh: He is an accomplished hockey player and has been instrumental in the success of the Indian men’s hockey team, including their bronze medal win at the Tokyo Olympics.
• Lovlina Borgohain: She is an Indian boxer who won a bronze medal in the women’s welterweight event at the Tokyo Olympics, making her one of India’s top-performing athletes.
• Opening Ceremony: The opening ceremony of the Asian Games is a grand event that showcases the culture, tradition, and spirit of sportsmanship of the host country.
• India at Asian Games: India has been a consistent participant in the Asian Games since its inception in 1951, with achievements across various sports disciplines.

The correct answer is Water of Crystallisation.

Key Points

• Water of crystallisation refers to the fixed number of water molecules that are chemically bound within the crystalline structure of a compound.
• It is essential for maintaining the physical properties and structure of the crystal.
• Compounds with water of crystallisation are often called hydrated salts.
• Examples include copper sulfate pentahydrate (CuSO₄·5H₂O) and gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O).
• On heating, these compounds may lose their water of crystallisation, resulting in anhydrous forms.

Additional Information

• Hydrated Salts: These are crystalline solids containing water molecules within their structure. The water molecules are known as water of crystallisation.
• Anhydrous Compounds: When hydrated salts lose their water of crystallisation upon heating, they become anhydrous. For example, heating CuSO₄·5H₂O forms anhydrous CuSO₄.
• Efflorescence: Some hydrated salts lose water of crystallisation naturally when exposed to air. This phenomenon is called efflorescence. Example: Washing soda (Na₂CO₃·10H₂O).
• Deliquescence: Certain compounds absorb moisture from the air and dissolve in it to form a solution. These are called deliquescent substances, like calcium chloride (CaCl₂).
• Applications: Water of crystallisation is significant in chemical analysis, construction materials (e.g., plaster of Paris), and in maintaining the stability of certain compounds.

The correct answer is Growth of country's capacity to produce goods and services.

Key Points

• The term "growth" in the context of the five-year plans refers to the country's capacity to produce goods and services, measured by economic indicators like Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• All five-year plans aimed at ensuring self-reliance, modernization, and economic development through industrialization, agricultural growth, and infrastructure development.
• The primary goal of the plans was to achieve a sustained increase in production capacity to meet the needs of the growing population and reduce reliance on imports.
• Economic growth was seen as the cornerstone for improving living standards, reducing poverty, and achieving balanced regional development.
• For example, the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) emphasized rapid industrialization and the growth of capital goods industries to strengthen the economic base of the country.

Additional Information

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP): GDP is the total monetary value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period, serving as a primary indicator of economic growth.
• Planned Economy: India adopted a planned economic model post-independence, where the government played a central role in setting production targets and resource allocation through five-year plans.
• Self-Reliance: A key objective was to reduce dependence on foreign aid and imports by developing indigenous industries and enhancing production capacity.
• Balanced Regional Development: Special focus was placed on reducing regional disparities by encouraging growth in backward and underdeveloped areas.
• Role of the Planning Commission: The Planning Commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog) was responsible for formulating and overseeing the implementation of five-year plans to achieve economic growth and social welfare objectives.

The correct answer is Bohag Bihu.

Key Points

• Bohag Bihu, also known as Rongali Bihu, marks the Assamese New Year and the beginning of the harvest season.
• It is celebrated in the month of April, typically on the 14^th or 15^th, and aligns with the harvest festivals in other parts of India like Tamil Nadu's Puthandu and Punjab's Baisakhi.
• This festival spans three primary days: Goru Bihu (for cattle), Manuh Bihu (for humans), and Gosai Bihu (for deities).
• Bohag Bihu involves traditional dances like the Bihu dance, music, and the preparation of delicacies such as pithas (rice cakes) and larus (sweet snacks).
• The festival is rooted in agrarian traditions, celebrating fertility, prosperity, and the bond between humans and nature.

Additional Information

• Other Types of Bihu:
• Magh Bihu: Also known as Bhogali Bihu, it is the post-harvest festival celebrated in January, emphasizing feasts and bonfires.
• Kati Bihu: Observed in October, it is a simpler festival focused on lighting lamps in paddy fields to pray for a good harvest.
• Agrarian Connection: Bihu festivals are directly linked to the agricultural cycle of Assam, reflecting the socio-economic dependence on farming.
• Cultural Significance: Bohag Bihu is a symbol of Assamese identity and unity, transcending religious and ethnic boundaries in the state.
• Bihu Dance: Recognized worldwide, it is a vibrant folk dance that showcases the energy and spirit of the Assamese people, performed during the festival.
• Assamese Calendar: Bohag Bihu marks the start of the Assamese calendar year, aligning with the traditional Hindu solar calendar.

The correct answer is Atishi Marlena.

Key Points

• Atishi Marlena is the Chief Minister of Delhi as of October 2024, succeeding Arvind Kejriwal.
• Atishi is a senior leader of the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) and has been a prominent figure in Delhi's education reforms.
• She has been instrumental in implementing key initiatives like the transformation of Delhi's government schools and the introduction of the "Happiness Curriculum."
• Atishi holds a degree from St. Stephen's College, Delhi, and further pursued her education at the University of Oxford as a Rhodes Scholar.
• Her leadership focuses on governance reforms, public welfare, and ensuring inclusive development for all citizens in Delhi.

Additional Information

• Aam Aadmi Party (AAP):
• AAP was founded in 2012 by Arvind Kejriwal and others following the anti-corruption movement led by Anna Hazare.
• The party's core agenda focuses on transparency, anti-corruption, and public welfare.
• AAP has been in power in Delhi since 2015, focusing on education, healthcare, and infrastructure development.
• Happiness Curriculum:
• Introduced in Delhi government schools in 2018 to promote emotional well-being and mindfulness among students.
• It includes meditation, storytelling, and activities aimed at fostering self-awareness and critical thinking skills.
• Education Reforms in Delhi:
• Under the AAP government, massive investments have been made in improving the quality of education in government schools.
• Initiatives like "Mission Buniyaad" focus on bridging learning gaps among students.
• Delhi government schools have been recognized nationally and internationally for their infrastructure and academic results.
• Delhi Governance Model:
• The Delhi governance model emphasizes accessible healthcare through "Mohalla Clinics" and improved public services.
• Water and electricity subsidies have been key welfare measures under AAP's leadership.

The correct answer is option 2,

The correct answer is Milk of Magnesia.

Key Points

• Milk of Magnesia is a suspension of magnesium hydroxide in water and is widely used as an antacid to neutralize stomach acid and relieve indigestion or heartburn.
• It is also used as a laxative to treat occasional constipation by drawing water into the intestines, promoting bowel movement.
• Magnesium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid in the stomach to form magnesium chloride and water, thereby reducing acidity.
• Milk of Magnesia is available in liquid form and is popular due to its gentle and effective action.
• It is commonly prescribed in cases of mild digestive disturbances and is considered safe when used in recommended doses.

Additional Information

• Magnesium Hydroxide:
• A chemical compound with the formula Mg(OH)₂, classified as an inorganic base.
• It appears as a white powder or suspension and is sparingly soluble in water.
• Commonly used in medicine, agriculture, and as a flame retardant in plastics.
• Antacid Function:
• Milk of Magnesia neutralizes excess stomach acid, providing relief from acid reflux, bloating, and heartburn.
• Other common antacid ingredients include calcium carbonate, aluminum hydroxide, and sodium bicarbonate.
• Laxative Effect:
• Magnesium hydroxide works as an osmotic laxative, drawing water into the intestines to soften stool.
• Recommended for short-term use to avoid dependency or electrolyte imbalance.
• Safety and Precautions:
• Overuse may lead to diarrhea, electrolyte imbalance, or dehydration.
• Not recommended for individuals with kidney disease or those on a low-magnesium diet.

The correct answer is Article 46.

Key Points

• Article 46 of the Indian Constitution comes under the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV).
• It mandates the State to promote the educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and other weaker sections of society.
• The provision emphasizes protecting these communities from social injustice and exploitation.
• The directive serves as a guiding principle for the government to formulate policies aimed at reducing inequalities and ensuring social justice.
• Though not legally enforceable, the principles under Part IV act as a moral obligation for the State.

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
• These are guidelines for the State to ensure socio-economic justice and aim to create a welfare state.
• They are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts.
• Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36-51) deals with the Directive Principles.
• Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs):
• SCs and STs are historically disadvantaged communities recognized in the Constitution.
• The Constitution provides special measures to uplift these groups, including reservations in education, employment, and political representation.
• Social Justice and Equality:
• Social justice refers to fair treatment and equal opportunities for all sections of society.
• Article 46 aligns with the broader goals of Articles 14 (Equality before the law) and 15 (Prohibition of discrimination).
• Educational and Economic Measures:
• Government schemes such as Pre-Matric and Post-Matric Scholarships, Eklavya Model Residential Schools, and Stand-Up India aim to empower SCs and STs.
• Skill development initiatives and financial inclusion programs are part of these efforts.

The correct answer is option 3,

The correct answer is 2011.

Key Points

• Aajeevika - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India, in June 2011.
• NRLM aims at reducing poverty by enabling the rural poor to engage in sustainable livelihood opportunities through self-help groups (SHGs).
• It was designed as a successor to the Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) with a broader focus on livelihood enhancement.
• The mission is funded in partnership between the Government of India and the World Bank.
• NRLM operates on the principle of community-driven development, empowering women and marginalized groups.

Additional Information

• Self-Help Groups (SHGs):
• SHGs are the backbone of NRLM and consist of 10-20 members who come together to save and improve their financial status.
• They also receive training for capacity building, financial literacy, and entrepreneurial skills.
• Key Features of NRLM:
• Focus on women empowerment, with 70% of SHGs comprising women.
• Access to credit, skill-building, and market linkages for livelihood enhancement.
• Encouragement of sustainable development practices.
• World Bank Partnership:
• The World Bank supports NRLM through financial aid and technical assistance.
• It emphasizes community-based institutions for implementation.
• Sustainable Livelihoods:
• NRLM promotes agriculture, animal husbandry, handicrafts, and other sustainable livelihoods.
• It aims to ensure that the rural poor achieve significant economic independence.

The correct answer is option 2,

Key Points

• According to Census 2011, Andhra Pradesh recorded the lowest literacy rate among southern states at 67.02%.
• Among the southern states, Kerala had the highest literacy rate at 93.91%, followed by Tamil Nadu at 80.33%, Karnataka at 75.36%, and Andhra Pradesh at the bottom.
• The national average literacy rate as per Census 2011 was 74.04%, making Andhra Pradesh's literacy rate significantly lower than the average.
• Literacy rate is calculated as the percentage of literate individuals aged seven years and above in a given population.
• The low literacy rate in Andhra Pradesh can be attributed to various factors, including regional disparities, socio-economic challenges, and lack of access to educational resources.

Additional Information

• Literacy Rate Definition: Literacy rate is defined as the percentage of people aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language.
• Kerala's Literacy Model: Kerala's high literacy rate is often attributed to effective government policies and a strong emphasis on education and health infrastructure.
• National Literacy Mission: The Government of India launched the National Literacy Mission in 1988 to eradicate illiteracy among adults aged 15 and above.
• Regional Variations: Literacy rates in India vary significantly across states due to factors like economic development, cultural practices, and accessibility to education.
• Female Literacy: Female literacy rates are often lower than male literacy rates, highlighting the need for gender-focused educational initiatives.

The correct answer is option 3,

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Sattriya is a classical dance form of India that originated in the monasteries of Assam.
• The dance was introduced in the 15^th century by Srimanta Sankardev, a Vaishnavite saint and reformer.
• Sattriya was initially performed in Satras (Vaishnavite monasteries) as a form of religious expression and storytelling.
• The dance combines elements of drama, music, and dance to depict stories from Hindu mythology, particularly the life of Lord Krishna.
• In 2000, Sattriya was recognized as one of the eight classical dance forms of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

Additional Information

• Srimanta Sankardev: He was a 15^th-century saint, scholar, and cultural icon of Assam who played a key role in the spread of the Bhakti movement.
• Satras: These are Vaishnavite monasteries established by Srimanta Sankardev and his followers, serving as centers for religion, art, and culture.
• Costumes: Sattriya dancers wear traditional Assamese attire, including the dhoti, chadar, and ghuri for men and the mekhela chadar for women.
• Music: The dance is accompanied by traditional Assamese musical instruments such as the Khol (drum), taal (cymbals), and flute.
• Other classical dance forms: India has eight recognized classical dances, including Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Kathakali, Odissi, Manipuri, Mohiniyattam, Kuchipudi, and Sattriya.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Income is the primary determinant of an individual's ability to buy goods and services, as it directly affects purchasing power.
• Higher income levels enable individuals to access a broader range of goods and services, improving their standard of living.
• Disposable income, which is the portion of income left after taxes and essential expenses, plays a crucial role in discretionary spending.
• Economic theories, such as the Keynesian consumption function, emphasize the direct relationship between income and consumption.
• Income inequality significantly impacts the overall demand for goods and services in an economy, as lower-income groups have limited purchasing power.

Additional Information

• Purchasing Power: Defined as the financial ability to buy goods and services, it depends on income levels and inflation rates.
• Disposable Income: The amount of money individuals or households have available for spending and saving after taxes and essential expenses.
• Consumption Function: An economic concept that represents the relationship between disposable income and consumer spending.
• Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC): The fraction of additional income that is spent on consumption rather than saved.
• Inflation Impact: Rising inflation can erode purchasing power, reducing the ability to buy goods and services even with the same income.

The correct answer is option 3,

The correct answer is Chess.

Key Points

• Bhakti Pradip Kulkarni is an Indian chess player and a FIDE Woman Grandmaster (WGM).
• She won the Asian Chess Championship (Women) in 2018 held in Makati City, Philippines.
• Bhakti has represented India in multiple international chess tournaments and has secured several laurels.
• She is known for her strategic gameplay and has been a prominent figure in Indian women's chess.
• Bhakti Kulkarni has contributed to promoting chess in India by inspiring young players through her achievements.

Additional Information

• Chess Terminology:
• Checkmate: A position where the opponent's king is under threat and cannot escape.
• FIDE: Fédération Internationale des Échecs or International Chess Federation, the governing body for chess.
• Opening: The initial moves in a chess game aimed at controlling the center and developing pieces.
• Endgame: The final stage of the game where fewer pieces remain on the board.
• India's Chess Legacy:
• India has produced renowned chess players like Viswanathan Anand, a former World Chess Champion.
• Chess is believed to have originated in India as "Chaturanga" during the Gupta Empire.
• Women in Chess:
• Women's chess is gaining prominence globally, with various championships held exclusively for women.
• Indian women players like Bhakti Kulkarni and Harika Dronavalli have excelled in international chess tournaments.
• Chess Benefits:
• Improves cognitive skills like problem-solving, strategic thinking, and memory enhancement.
• Promotes patience, concentration, and decision-making abilities.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance = Length of train + Length of tunnel = 238 + 702 = 940 m

Speed = 36 × (5/18) = 10 m/s

Time = Distance ÷ Speed = 940 ÷ 10 = 94 s

∴ The correct answer is 94 seconds.

Alternate Method

Speed = 36 km/h → 10 m/s

Train: 238 m

Tunnel: 702 m

Total Distance = 238 + 702 = 940 m

Time = 940 ÷ 10 = 94 s

Given:

Length of the train (L₁) = 238 m

Length of the tunnel (L₂) = 702 m

Speed of the train = 36 km/h

Formula Used:

Total Distance = Length of Train + Length of Object

Time = Total Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 238 + 702 = 940 m

⇒ Speed in m/s = 36 × (5/18)

⇒ Speed = 10 m/s

⇒ Time = 940 ÷ 10

⇒ Time = 94 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 94 seconds.

Additional Information

Trains Crossing Objects with Length

When a train crosses a platform, bridge, or tunnel, the total distance covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the object.

Speed Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply the speed by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Trains Crossing Poles or People

When a train crosses a stationary pole or a standing person, the distance covered is equal to the length of the train itself since the width of a pole or person is negligible.

Shortcut Trick

Cost Price (CP) of the mixture = 5 × (100 ÷ 125) = ₹4 per kg.

By alligation, ratio of quantities = (4.60 − 4.00) : (4.00 − 3.80) = 0.60 : 0.20 = 3 : 1.

Let the required quantity of the first type of sugar be x kg.

x : 60 = 3 : 1 ⇒ x = 60 × 3 = 180 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 180 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Price of 1^st type of sugar = ₹3.80 per kg

Quantity of 2^nd type of sugar = 60 kg

Price of 2^nd type of sugar = ₹4.60 per kg

Selling Price (SP) of mixture = ₹5 per kg

Gain percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = SP × [100 ÷ (100 + Gain%)]

Calculations:

⇒ Mean Cost Price (CP) of the mixture = 5 × [100 ÷ (100 + 25)] = 5 × (100 ÷ 125) = ₹4 per kg

⇒ Let the required quantity of the first type of sugar be x kg.

⇒ Applying the rule of alligation:

₹3.80 (x kg)

₹4.60 (60 kg)

Mean: ₹4.00

0.60

0.20 Ratio → 3 : 1

⇒ From the alligation diagram, the ratio of quantities = 0.60 : 0.20 = 3 : 1

⇒ x ÷ 60 = 3 ÷ 1

⇒ x = 60 × 3

⇒ x = 180 kg

∴ The correct answer is 180 kg.

Additional Information

Alligation Rule

It is a method used to find the exact ratio in which two ingredients at different prices must be mixed to get a mixture of a desired mean price. Ratio = (Quantity of Cheaper) ÷ (Quantity of Dearer) = (Price of Dearer − Mean Price) ÷ (Mean Price − Price of Cheaper).

Profit & Loss Base

Profit or Loss percentages are fundamentally calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless specifically stated otherwise in the problem. If Selling Price (SP) is given, CP = SP × [100 ÷ (100 + Profit%)].

Successive Replacement Method

If initially a vessel contains a liters of liquid, and b liters are withdrawn and replaced by water n times, the final quantity of pure liquid left = a × (1 − b ÷ a)ⁿ.

Shortcut Trick

Total time = 37.5 days. Since Q starts the work, Q works for 19 days (all odd days up to 37) and R works for 18.5 days (all even days up to 36, plus 0.5 day on the 38^th day).

Work done by Q = 19 ÷ 56.

Remaining work = 1 − (19 ÷ 56) = 37 ÷ 56.

R completes 37 ÷ 56 of the work in 18.5 days.

Time for R to complete the whole work = (18.5 × 56) ÷ 37 = 28 days.

Time for R to complete half of the work = 28 ÷ 2 = 14 days.

∴ The correct answer is 14 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Q to finish the work = 56 days

Total time taken by Q and R working alternately = 37.5 days

Let the total work be 56 units (which is the LCM of 56).

Calculations:

⇒ Total days = 37.5 days

⇒ Since Q starts, Q works on days 1, 3, 5, ..., 37 (total 19 days).

⇒ R works on days 2, 4, 6, ..., 36 and for 0.5 days on day 38 (total 18.5 days).

⇒ Work done by Q = 19 days × 1 unit/day = 19 units.

⇒ Remaining work = 56 − 19 = 37 units.

⇒ This remaining work is completed by R in 18.5 days.

⇒ Efficiency of R = 37 ÷ 18.5 = 2 units/day.

⇒ Time required by R alone to complete the full work = 56 ÷ 2 = 28 days.

⇒ Time required by R alone to complete half of the work = 28 ÷ 2 = 14 days.

∴ The correct answer is 14 days.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Work Cycle

When individuals work alternately, calculating the work done in one complete 2-day cycle simplifies the process of finding the total number of days taken.

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. Total Work = Efficiency × Time taken.

Fractional Work Calculation

If a person can complete a task in N days, the time taken to complete a fraction of the work is N × Fraction of work.

Shortcut Trick

The third proportional of two numbers a and b is given by b² ÷ a.

For finding it quickly, calculate the multiplier between the first and second term.

Multiplier = 0.52 ÷ 0.13 = 4

Third proportional = Second term × Multiplier = 0.52 × 4 = 2.08

∴ The correct answer is 2.08.

Alternate Method

Continuous Proportion: a : b :: b : x

0.13

:

0.52

::

0.52

:

x

× 4

× 4

Given:

First number (a) = 0.13

Second number (b) = 0.52

Formula Used:

If three terms a, b, and c are in continuous proportion, then a : b = b : c.

⇒ a ÷ b = b ÷ c

⇒ c = b² ÷ a

Calculations:

⇒ c = (0.52 × 0.52) ÷ 0.13

⇒ c = 0.52 × (0.52 ÷ 0.13)

⇒ c = 0.52 × 4

⇒ c = 2.08

∴ The correct answer is 2.08.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two given numbers a and b is √(a × b). It acts as the geometric mean.

Fourth Proportional

For three separate numbers a, b, and c, the fourth proportional x satisfies a : b :: c : x. It is calculated using the formula x = (b × c) ÷ a.

Compound Ratio

When two or more ratios are combined by multiplying their corresponding antecedents and consequents term by term, it creates a compound ratio. For a : b and c : d, it is ac : bd.

Given:

Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-12) + (-3) × 8

Calculation:

(-9) - (-60) ÷ (-12) + (-3) × 8

⇒ (-9) - [(-60) ÷ (-12)] + [(-3) × 8]

⇒ (-9) - [5] + [-24]

⇒ (-9) - 5 - 24

⇒ -9 - 5 - 24 = -38

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Shortcut Trick

Total effective interest rate for 3 years = 8% × 3 = 24%

According to the question, 24% of the Principal = ₹486

1% of the Principal = 486 ÷ 24 = ₹20.25

Principal (100%) = 20.25 × 100 = ₹2025

∴ The correct answer is ₹2025.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹486

Rate of Interest (R) = 8% per annum

Time period (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Principal (P) = (SI × 100) ÷ (R × T)

Principal (P) ?

8% per annum 3 Years

Simple Interest ₹486 Total Interest % = 8% × 3 = 24%

Calculations:

⇒ P = (486 × 100) ÷ (8 × 3)

⇒ P = 48600 ÷ 24

⇒ P = ₹2025

∴ The correct answer is ₹2025.

Additional Information

Amount under Simple Interest

The total amount (A) after T years is the sum of the Principal and the Simple Interest. Formula: A = P[1 + (R × T) ÷ 100].

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

For the first year, if compounded annually, Simple Interest and Compound Interest remain exactly equal. From the second year onwards, Compound Interest is strictly greater than Simple Interest on the same principal amount.

Rule of 72

A commonly used financial shortcut to estimate how many years it will take to double an investment at a given interest rate (R) is approximately calculated as 72 ÷ R.

Shortcut Trick

144 is a direct multiple of both 18 and 72, so their combined LCM is simply 144.

We now only need to find the LCM of 144 and 184.

Extracting the highest common factor 8, we get: 144 = 8 × 18 and 184 = 8 × 23.

The LCM is the product of the common factor and the remaining uncommon factors.

LCM = 8 × 18 × 23 = 144 × 23 = 3312.

∴ The correct answer is 3312.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers are 18, 72, 184, and 144.

Method Used:

The LCM is the product of the highest powers of all prime factors present in the given numbers.

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 18 = 2 × 3²

⇒ Prime factorization of 72 = 2³ × 3²

⇒ Prime factorization of 184 = 2³ × 23

⇒ Prime factorization of 144 = 2⁴ × 3²

⇒ The highest power of 2 is 2⁴

⇒ The highest power of 3 is 3²

⇒ The highest power of 23 is 23¹

⇒ LCM = 2⁴ × 3² × 23

⇒ LCM = 16 × 9 × 23

⇒ LCM = 144 × 23 = 3312

∴ The correct answer is 3312.

Additional Information

Product of Two Numbers

For any two numbers a and b, the product of their LCM and HCF is equal to the product of the numbers: LCM(a, b) × HCF(a, b) = a × b.

LCM of Fractions

The LCM of two or more fractions is calculated as: LCM = (LCM of numerators) ÷ (HCF of denominators).

HCF of Fractions

The HCF of two or more fractions is calculated as: HCF = (HCF of numerators) ÷ (LCM of denominators).

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime (having no common factor other than 1), their HCF is 1 and their LCM is strictly equal to their product.

Shortcut Trick

By the concept of weighted average or mixtures:

If the overall percentage of a quantity is 11%, and one part of it is also exactly 11%, then the remaining part must also be exactly 11%.

Since overall literacy is 11% and male literacy is 11%, female literacy will directly be 11% irrespective of the population distribution.

∴ The correct answer is 11%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total population = 340000

Males = 217000

Literate population = 11%

Literate males = 11%

Total: 340000 (11% Lit.)

Males: 217000 Literate = 11%

Females: 123000 Literate = ?%

Female Literacy = 11%

Calculations:

⇒ Females = 340000 − 217000 = 123000

⇒ Total literate = 11% of 340000 = 37400

⇒ Literate males = 11% of 217000 = 23870

⇒ Literate females = 37400 − 23870 = 13530

⇒ Literate females % = (13530 ÷ 123000) × 100

⇒ Literate females % = 11%

∴ The correct answer is 11%.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When a quantity is divided into two parts with averages A₁ and A₂, the overall average A is given by A = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Percentage Change

It is calculated as: % Change = [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100.

Base Independence in Percentages

If every subset of a population shares the exact same percentage for a specific attribute, the overall population will also exhibit that same percentage, regardless of subset sizes.

Given:

Expression: 16 + 10 ÷ 5 - 3 × 3

Calculation:

16 + 10 ÷ 5 - 3 × 3

⇒ 16 + 2 - 3 × 3

⇒ 16 + 2 - 9

⇒ 18 - 9

⇒ 9

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Shortcut Trick

Total weight of Chetan, Vipul and Mohan = 46 × 3 = 138 kg

Combined weight of (Chetan + Vipul) and (Vipul + Mohan) = (40 × 2) + (44 × 2) = 168 kg

Since Vipul's weight is counted twice in the above combined sum, we can find his exact weight by subtraction:

Weight of Vipul = 168 − 138 = 30 kg

∴ The correct answer is 30 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average weight of Chetan, Vipul and Mohan = 46 kg

Average weight of Chetan and Vipul = 40 kg

Average weight of Vipul and Mohan = 44 kg

Formula Used:

Total Sum = Average × Number of persons

Total (Chetan + Vipul + Mohan) = 138 kg

Chetan + Vipul = 80 kg

Chetan

Vipul

Mohan

Vipul + Mohan = 88 kg

Vipul = (80 + 88) − 138 = 30 kg

Calculations:

Let the weights of Chetan, Vipul, and Mohan be C, V, and M respectively.

⇒ Total weight of all three = C + V + M = 46 × 3 = 138 kg --- (1)

⇒ Total weight of Chetan and Vipul = C + V = 40 × 2 = 80 kg --- (2)

⇒ Total weight of Vipul and Mohan = V + M = 44 × 2 = 88 kg --- (3)

Adding equations (2) and (3):

⇒ (C + V) + (V + M) = 80 + 88

⇒ C + 2V + M = 168 kg --- (4)

Subtracting equation (1) from (4):

⇒ (C + 2V + M) − (C + V + M) = 168 − 138

⇒ V = 30 kg

∴ The correct answer is 30 kg.

Additional Information

Average Formula

Average is mathematically defined as the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations. Formula: Average = Sum of Observations ÷ Number of Observations.

Overlapping Groups Concept

When one individual or item is counted simultaneously in two separate sub-groups, the sum of those two sub-groups will strictly exceed the actual combined group total. The exact value of the overlapping item is determined by the difference between the sum of the sub-groups and the actual total sum.

Weighted Average

Used when dealing with multiple groups of different sample sizes. Formula: Combined Average = (n₁ × A₁ + n₂ × A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n represents the number of elements and A represents their respective averages.

Shortcut Trick

Convert Rate into fraction: 5% = 1/20.

Let Principal = (Denominator)³ = (20)³ = 8000 units.

Difference between CI and SI for 3 years = 3 × (Denominator) + 1 = 3 × 20 + 1 = 61 units.

Given 61 units = ₹122 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹2.

Principal = 8000 units × 2 = ₹16000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹16000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Difference between CI and SI for 3 years (D) = ₹122

Rate (R) = 5% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

D = P × (R/100)² × (300 + R)/100

Simple Interest 5% × 3 years = 15%

Compound Interest Effective Rate = 15.7625%

Diff = 0.7625% = ₹122

Calculations:

⇒ D = P × (R/100)² × (300 + R)/100

⇒ 122 = P × (5/100)² × (300 + 5)/100

⇒ 122 = P × (1/20)² × (305/100)

⇒ 122 = P × (1/400) × (61/20)

⇒ 122 = P × (61/8000)

⇒ P = (122 × 8000) ÷ 61

⇒ P = 2 × 8000

⇒ P = ₹16000

∴ The correct answer is ₹16000.

Additional Information

Difference Between CI and SI for 2 Years

For 2 years, the difference between compound interest and simple interest is given by: D = P × (R/100)².

Effective Rate Method for 3 Years CI

Effective CI % = 3R . 3R² R³ (where R² and R³ are written as two-digit blocks). Example: for 5% per annum, the effective compound interest rate over 3 years is 15.7625%.

Ratio Method for SI and CI

If rate R = 1/x, principal can be assumed as x³ for 3 years. Then CI = 3x² + 3x + 1, SI = 3x², giving a Difference = 3x + 1.

Shortcut Trick

Since the dimensions of the compartment are perfectly divisible by the cube edge, calculate directly:

Number of cubes = (Depth ÷ edge) × (Height ÷ edge) × (Width ÷ edge)

Number of cubes = (36 ÷ 4) × (16 ÷ 4) × (12 ÷ 4)

Number of cubes = 9 × 4 × 3 = 108

∴ The correct answer is 108 cubes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Depth of the ice compartment = 36 cm

Height of the ice compartment = 16 cm

Width of the ice compartment = 12 cm

Edge of each ice cube = 4 cm

36 cm 12 cm 16 cm

4 cm 4 cm 4 cm

Ice Compartment vs Ice Cube

Formula Used:

Volume of a cuboid = Length × Width × Height

Volume of a cube = a³ (where a is the edge)

Number of objects = Volume of larger container ÷ Volume of one small object

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of the ice compartment = 36 × 16 × 12 = 6912 cm³

⇒ Volume of one ice cube = 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 cm³

⇒ Total number of ice cubes = 6912 ÷ 64

⇒ Total number of ice cubes = 108

∴ The correct answer is 108 cubes.

Additional Information

Volume of a Cuboid

The volume of a cuboid represents the total space it occupies, calculated using the formula: Volume = L × B × H.

Volume of a Cube

A cube is a special 3D shape where all sides are equal. Its volume is calculated as: Volume = a³, where 'a' is the edge length.

Fitting Smaller Objects

When fitting small uniform objects into a larger container, if the dimensions are completely divisible, the count is simply the ratio of their volumes: Count = Volume of Container ÷ Volume of Object.

Given:

Expression: [(60 ÷ 5) × {(56 ÷ 4) + (14 ÷ 3) × (9 - 6)}]

Formula used:

Follow the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction).

Calculations:

Expression: [(60 ÷ 5) × {(56 ÷ 4) + (14 ÷ 3) × (9 - 6)}]

⇒ [(12) × {14 + (14 ÷ 3) × 3}]

⇒ [(12) × {14 + 14}]

⇒ [(12) × 28]

⇒ 336

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Shortcut Trick

When running in the same direction, the first meeting time anywhere is the LCM of their pair-wise relative meeting times.

Time for M and N to meet = Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 150 ÷ (20 − 15) = 30 sec.

Time for N and P to meet = Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 150 ÷ (15 − 12) = 50 sec.

Time to meet for all three = LCM(30, 50) = 150 sec.

∴ The correct answer is 150 sec.

Alternate Method

Centre

Track Length = 150 m

Start Point

M = 20 m/s

N = 15 m/s

P = 12 m/s

Meeting Time = LCM of Individual Lap Times

Given:

⇒ Length of circular track = 150 m

⇒ Speed of M = 20 m/sec

⇒ Speed of N = 15 m/sec

⇒ Speed of P = 12 m/sec

Formula Used:

⇒ Time taken to complete one lap = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ Time to meet at starting point = LCM of individual lap times

⇒ LCM of fractions = LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators

Calculation:

⇒ Lap time for M = 150 ÷ 20 = 15/2 sec

⇒ Lap time for N = 150 ÷ 15 = 10/1 sec

⇒ Lap time for P = 150 ÷ 12 = 25/2 sec

⇒ Time to meet = LCM(15/2, 10/1, 25/2)

⇒ LCM of Numerators (15, 10, 25) = 150

⇒ HCF of Denominators (2, 1, 2) = 1

⇒ Meeting time = 150 ÷ 1 = 150 sec

(Note: For these specific speeds, the time to meet for the first time anywhere on the track is identically equal to the time to meet at the starting point.)

∴ The correct answer is 150 sec.

Additional Information

First Meeting at Starting Point

Regardless of the direction of running, the time taken for all runners to meet again at the starting point is always the LCM of their individual lap times: Time = LCM(T₁, T₂, T₃).

First Meeting Anywhere on Track (Same Direction)

When running in the same direction, the time to meet for the first time is the LCM of the times taken to meet in pairs using relative speed: Time = LCM [ D ÷ (S₁ − S₂) , D ÷ (S₂ − S₃) ].

First Meeting Anywhere on Track (Opposite Direction)

When two persons run in opposite directions, their relative speeds are added. The time taken to meet for the first time anywhere on the track is: Time = D ÷ (S₁ + S₂).

LCM of Fractions Rule

To calculate the LCM of fractions, always use the rule: LCM(a/b, c/d) = LCM(a, c) ÷ HCF(b, d).

Shortcut Trick

Let the Selling Price (SP) of 1 chair be ₹1.

Total Selling Price of 153 chairs = ₹153

Profit = Selling Price of 68 chairs = ₹68

Cost Price (CP) of 153 chairs = SP − Profit = 153 − 68 = ₹85

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 = (68 ÷ 85) × 100 = 80%

∴ The correct answer is 80%.

Alternate Method

Total SP of 153 chairs = 153 units

CP = 85 units

Profit = 68 units

Profit % = (68 / 85) × 100 = 80%

Given:

Number of chairs sold = 153

Gain = Selling price of 68 chairs

Formula Used:

Profit = SP − CP

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Profit on 153 chairs = SP of 153 chairs − CP of 153 chairs

⇒ SP of 68 chairs = SP of 153 chairs − CP of 153 chairs

⇒ CP of 153 chairs = SP of 153 chairs − SP of 68 chairs

⇒ CP of 153 chairs = SP of (153 − 68) chairs = SP of 85 chairs

⇒ Let SP of 1 chair be ₹1

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = ₹85

⇒ Profit = ₹68

⇒ Profit % = (68 ÷ 85) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (4 ÷ 5) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 80%

∴ The correct answer is 80%.

Additional Information

Calculation Base for Profit/Loss

Unless otherwise explicitly stated in the question, the profit or loss percentage is always calculated over the Cost Price (CP).

Selling Price Relation

Selling Price (SP) can be derived directly using CP and profit percentage as: SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100.

Loss in Terms of SP

If there is a loss equal to the SP of some items, then the CP becomes greater than the SP: CP of sold items = SP of sold items + SP of loss items.

Shortcut Trick

Effective SI for 3 years at 10% = 10% × 3 = 30%

Effective CI for 3 years at 10% = 33.1%

Difference = 33.1% − 30% = 3.1%

Given 3.1% of Principal = 186

⇒ Principal = (186 ÷ 3.1) × 100 = 6000

∴ The correct answer is ₹6000.

Alternate Method

Principal P

SI = 30% of P

CI = 33.1% of P

Difference 3.1% = ₹186

Given:

Rate of Interest (R) = 10% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Difference between CI and SI = ₹186

Formula Used:

Difference for 3 years = P × (R / 100)² × (3 + R / 100)

Calculations:

⇒ 186 = P × (10 / 100)² × (3 + 10 / 100)

⇒ 186 = P × (1 / 10)² × (3 + 1 / 10)

⇒ 186 = P × (1 / 100) × (31 / 10)

⇒ 186 = P × (31 / 1000)

⇒ P = (186 × 1000) ÷ 31

⇒ P = 6 × 1000

⇒ P = 6000

∴ The correct answer is ₹6000.

Additional Information

CI vs SI Difference for 2 Years

The difference between compound and simple interest for exactly 2 years is calculated using the formula: Diff = P × (R / 100)².

Effective CI Rate Calculation

For 2 years: Effective Rate = 2R + (R² ÷ 100)%

For 3 years: Effective Rate = 3R + (3R² ÷ 100) + (R³ ÷ 10000)%

Simple vs Compound Interest

Simple interest is calculated only on the principal amount: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100, while Compound interest includes interest earned on accumulated interest from prior periods.

Shortcut Trick

Fraction value of 20% = 1 ÷ 5

If CP = 5 units, SP = 5 + 1 = 6 units

Given 5 units = 540

1 unit = 540 ÷ 5 = 108

SP = 6 units = 6 × 108 = 648

∴ The correct answer is ₹648.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹540

Profit = 20%

CP = ₹540

SP = ?

• 20% Profit 100% Value 120% Value

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × [ (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100 ]

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 540 × [ (100 + 20) ÷ 100 ]

⇒ SP = 540 × (120 ÷ 100)

⇒ SP = 540 × 1.2

⇒ SP = 648

∴ The correct answer is ₹648.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when the Selling Price (SP) is greater than the Cost Price (CP). Profit = SP − CP.

Profit Percentage

Profit % is always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise. Formula: Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Loss Scenario

When SP is less than CP, a loss is incurred. Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Net change per unit = (Proportion of S × Change in S) + (Proportion of T × Change in T)

Net change = (60% × +10) + (40% × −10) = +6 − 4 = +₹2

Initial average cost per unit = (60% × 30) + (40% × 30) = ₹30

Percentage increase = (Net change ÷ Initial cost) × 100

Percentage increase = (2 ÷ 30) × 100 ≈ 6.67%

∴ The correct answer is increase by 6.67%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Composition: Substance S = 60%, Substance T = 40%

Initial cost of S = ₹30/unit, Initial cost of T = ₹30/unit

New cost of S = ₹40/unit, New cost of T = ₹20/unit

Formula Used:

Percentage Change = [(Final Cost − Initial Cost) ÷ Initial Cost] × 100

₹30 Initial Cost

₹32 New Cost

• ₹2 / unit

Calculations:

⇒ Let the total quantity of the medicine be 100 units.

⇒ Quantity of S = 60 units, Quantity of T = 40 units

⇒ Initial cost = (60 × 30) + (40 × 30)

⇒ Initial cost = 1800 + 1200 = ₹3000

⇒ New cost = (60 × 40) + (40 × 20)

⇒ New cost = 2400 + 800 = ₹3200

⇒ Increase in cost = 3200 − 3000 = ₹200

⇒ Percentage increase = (200 ÷ 3000) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = 20 ÷ 3 ≈ 6.67%

∴ The correct answer is increase by 6.67%.

Additional Information

Percentage Change

Percentage change represents the degree of change over time, calculated as the ratio of the difference to the original value, multiplied by 100. Formula: % Change = (Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value × 100.

Weighted Average

It calculates the average of a set of values where each value carries a different weight or proportion. Formula: Average = (w₁x₁ + w₂x₂) ÷ (w₁ + w₂).

Alligation Rule

Alligation is an arithmetic method used to compute the average price or composition when two or more ingredients at given prices or concentrations are mixed together.

Shortcut Trick

4% of the value corresponds to 60.

Therefore, 1% corresponds to 60 ÷ 4 = 15.

Hence, the total value (100%) = 15 × 100 = 1500.

∴ The correct answer is 1500.

Alternate Method

Given:

4% of x = 60

4% = 60 Remaining 96%

Total (100%) = x

Calculations:

⇒ 4% of x = 60

⇒ (4 / 100) × x = 60

⇒ x = (60 × 100) ÷ 4

⇒ x = 15 × 100

⇒ x = 1500

∴ The correct answer is 1500.

Additional Information

Percentage Change

Percentage change is calculated as: ((New Value − Old Value) ÷ Old Value) × 100.

Fraction to Percentage Conversion

Important fraction equivalents: 4% = 1/25, 5% = 1/20, 10% = 1/10, 20% = 1/5, 25% = 1/4.

Successive Percentage

If a value changes successively by a% and b%, the net percentage change is given by: (a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100)%.

Shortcut Trick

The equivalent single discount for two successive discounts of x% and y% is given by the formula: x + y − (x × y ÷ 100)

⇒ Equivalent Discount = 12 + 18 − (12 × 18 ÷ 100)

⇒ 30 − (216 ÷ 100)

⇒ 30 − 2.16 = 27.84%

∴ The correct answer is 27.84%.

Alternate Method

Given:

First successive discount (D₁) = 12%

Second successive discount (D₂) = 18%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) × (100 − D₁) ÷ 100 × (100 − D₂) ÷ 100

100 88 72.16

MP After D1 Final SP

− 12%

− 18%

Equivalent Discount: 27.84%

Calculations:

Let the Marked Price (MP) of the item be 100.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 100 × (100 − 12) ÷ 100 × (100 − 18) ÷ 100

⇒ SP = 100 × (88 ÷ 100) × (82 ÷ 100)

⇒ SP = 88 × 0.82

⇒ SP = 72.16

Total Equivalent Discount = MP − SP

⇒ Total Discount = 100 − 72.16 = 27.84

Since the base value is 100, the equivalent single discount percentage is 27.84%.

∴ The correct answer is 27.84%.

Additional Information

Successive Discount

When a discount is given on an already discounted price, it is called a successive discount. The equivalent single discount for three successive discounts of x%, y%, and z% is calculated by first finding the equivalent of x% and y%, and then applying the formula again with z%.

Marked Price (MP) vs Selling Price (SP)

A discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (also known as the List Price). The final Selling Price is derived by subtracting the discount from the Marked Price (SP = MP − Discount).

Net Change Formula

The overall percentage change for any two consecutive changes of A% and B% can be calculated using the net effect formula: A + B + (A × B ÷ 100). For discounts, the values of A and B are taken as negative quantities.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The highlighted phrase "missing" is incomplete and does not fit the structure of the sentence properly.
• The correct verb form to indicate the current state of the book's unavailability is "is missing."
• The use of "is missing" ensures the sentence is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning clearly.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The book, which has all the details on parenting, is missing."

 

Additional Information

• No correction – This option would be correct if the original sentence was grammatically accurate, but it is not since "missing" alone is incomplete.
• Had been missing – This implies a past action that is no longer true, which does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Had missing – This is grammatically incorrect as it does not follow standard English syntax.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Defended: English meaning – to protect from harm or attack; Hindi meaning – बचाव करना (Bachav Karna)
• Example: The soldiers defended their country bravely during the war.
• Protected: English meaning – kept safe from harm or injury; Hindi meaning – सुरक्षा करना (Suraksha Karna)
• Example: The mother protected her child from the stray dog.

Therefore, the correct answer is- protected

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Invaded – English meaning: to enter forcefully; Hindi meaning – घुसपैठ करना (Ghuspaith Karna)
• Option 2: Condemned – English meaning: to express disapproval; Hindi meaning – निंदा करना (Ninda Karna)
• Option 3: United – English meaning: joined together; Hindi meaning – एकजुट होना (Ekjut Hona)

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'irressistible'.

• The correct spelling would be 'irresistible'.
• The word 'irresistible' is an adjective which means 'too attractive and tempting to be resisted'. (अवरोधनीय)
• For Example -
• The aroma of freshly baked cookies was simply irresistible.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'irressistible'.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e., 'simplifying'.

Key Points

• The word "streamlining" means to make a process or system more easy.
• Example: The company decided to streamline its service process by implementing an automated chat bot to handle common inquiries.
• "Simplifying" refers to making something easier to do or understand. (सरल बनाना)
• Example: The software is very effective in simplifying complex calculations.

Therefore, the correct answer is: simplifying.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Sojourning (अस्थायी प्रवास): Staying somewhere temporarily.
• Example: He is sojourning at a friend's house until he finds a new apartment.
• Startling (चौंकाने वाला): Very surprising, astonishing, or remarkable.
• Example: The news of his resignation was startling to everyone.
• Stripling (युवक): A youth in the early stages of development.
• Example: The stripling aspired to become a great warrior like his father.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e., 'Sparse'.

Key Points

• The word "Abundant" means existing or available in large quantities; plentiful. (प्रचुर मात्रा में)
• Example: The harvest was abundant this year, resulting in plenty of food for everyone.
• "Sparse" refers to something that is thinly dispersed or scattered; not dense. (विरल)
• Example: Vegetation becomes sparse as you move towards the desert.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'abundant' is 'sparse'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Sparse.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Plentiful (प्रचुर): Existing in great quantities.
• Example: During the spring, flowers are plentiful in this region.
• Ample (पर्याप्त): Enough or more than enough; plentiful.
• Example: There was ample evidence to support the claim.
• Copious (प्रचुर): Abundant in supply or quantity.
• Example: The author provided copious details about the historical event.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "by" is the most appropriate choice to indicate the agents or people responsible for the action (in this case, the team of experts).
• Using "across" or "at" in this context would be incorrect, as they do not align with the intended meaning of collaboration or creation.
• The preposition "on" also does not fit the context, as it generally refers to working on a specific task or subject, not indicating the creators.
• Thus, "by" correctly conveys that the software was developed by a team of experts.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The software was developed by a team of experts and tested by users before its release."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "developed across" – Incorrect, as "across" implies a physical space or area, which is not relevant here.
• Option 2: "developed at" – Incorrect, as "at" refers to a specific location, which is not the focus here.
• Option 4: "developed on" – Incorrect, as "on" is unsuitable for describing the creators of the software.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'insipeed'.

• The correct spelling would be 'insipid'.
• The word 'insipid' is an adjective which means 'lacking flavor, vigor, or interest'. (नीरस)
• For Example -
• The soup was insipid, lacking any taste or spices.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'insipid'.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "above" is incorrect in the given context of the sentence.
• When referring to disappointment caused by something, the correct preposition to use is "by."
• Thus, the correct phrase should be "disappointed by the defeat of their team."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The players were disappointed by the defeat of their team."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "over the defeat" – While "over" can sometimes be used to express disappointment, it is less formal and not as appropriate as "by" in this context.
• Option 3: "around the defeat" – This phrase is incorrect and does not fit the context of disappointment.
• Option 4: "in the defeat" – This phrase is also incorrect and does not convey the intended meaning.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence in Option 3, "The results were analysed careful to ensure accuracy," contains an error in the use of the adverb.
• The word "careful" is an adjective, but the sentence requires an adverb to describe how the results were analysed.
• The correct adverb form is "carefully."
• Thus, the correct sentence should be: "The results were analysed carefully to ensure accuracy."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The results were analysed carefully to ensure accuracy."

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "grass is always greener on the other side".

Key Points

• The phrase "grass is always greener on the other side" is an idiom that means people often believe that others have it better or easier, even though this may not be true. (दूसरों की स्थिति या चीजें हमेशा बेहतर लगती हैं, भले ही ऐसा न हो।)
• Example: He quit his stable job thinking the grass is greener on the other side, but soon realized the challenges of freelancing.
• Explanation: In the given sentence, "The grass is always redder on one side" does not make sense. The correct idiom is "grass is always greener on the other side," which fits the context and conveys the intended meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Sky is red in the evening (सूर्यास्त के समय आकाश लाल होता है): This is a literal statement and not an idiom. It refers to the natural phenomenon of the sky appearing red due to the scattering of sunlight.
• Example: The sky is red in the evening during sunset.
• Option 3: Plant is always greener on all sides (पौधा हमेशा सभी तरफ हरा होता है): This is not a recognized idiom in English. It is an incorrect variation of the actual idiom.
• Option 4: Fruit is yellow on the other side (फल दूसरी तरफ पीला होता है): This is also not an idiom and has no relevance to the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence lies in part A.
• The word "quick" is incorrectly used as an adverb. The appropriate adverbial form of "quick" is "quickly."
• Adverbs are used to modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs. In this case, "quickly" should modify the verb "finished" to indicate how the action was performed.
• Thus, part A should be corrected to "She quickly finished her homework."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "She quickly finished her homework before dinner, eager to join her friends at the park for an exciting game of soccer."

The correct answer is 'bright'.

 

Key Points

• The word "bright" means optimistic or cheerful. (उज्ज्वल/आशावादी)
• Someone who always looks on the bright side of life remains positive even during tough times.
• The other options: "negative," "dark," and "neutral" do not fit the context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: She always looks on the bright side of life, no matter how tough things get.

Additional Information

• Negative (नकारात्मक): means pessimistic or harmful.
• Dark (अंधकारमय): means gloomy or pessimistic.
• Neutral (तटस्थ): means impartial or not leaning towards any side.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e., 'Decent'.

Key Points

• The word "obscene" means offensive or disgusting by accepted standards of morality and decency. (अश्लील)
• Example: The driver made an obscene gesture at the passenger, shocking everyone around.
• "Decent" refers to conforming with generally accepted standards of respectable or moral behavior. (सभ्य)
• Example: He was known for his decent behavior and courteous manners.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'obscene' is 'decent'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Decent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hilarious (बहुत मजेदार): Extremely amusing.
• Example: The comedian's performance was absolutely hilarious.
• Improper (अनुचित): Not in accordance with accepted standards, especially of morality or honesty.
• Example: His improper remarks were not appreciated by the audience.
• Mean (नीच): Unkind, spiteful, or unfair.
• Example: She made a mean comment about his appearance.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e., 'Careless'.

Key Points

• The word "vigilant" means keeping careful watch for possible danger or difficulties. (सतर्क)
• Example: The security guard remained vigilant throughout the night to ensure safety.
• "Careless" refers to not giving sufficient attention or thought to avoiding harm or errors. (लापरवाह)
• Example: His careless driving resulted in a minor accident.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'vigilant' is 'careless'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Careless.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Awake (जागृत): Not asleep.
• Example: He stayed awake all night to finish his project.
• Choosy (चूजी): Overly particular or fastidious in making a choice.
• Example: She is very choosy about what she eats.
• Mindful (ध्यानशील): Conscious or aware of something.
• Example: Be mindful of how you speak to others.

The correct answer is 'make'.

 

Key Points

• The collocation "make noise" is a commonly used phrase in English.
• The verb "make" is often paired with "noise" to indicate the act of producing sound.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because they do not form a proper collocation with "noise."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "He tends to make a lot of noise when he's working."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "have noise" is incorrect because "have" is not used to describe the act of producing noise.
• Option 2: "give noise" is incorrect as it does not align with standard English usage.
• Option 3: "get noise" is incorrect because it does not form a correct collocation with "noise."

The correct answer is 'especially'.

 

Key Points

• The blank requires an adverb that emphasizes the significance or specificity of the statement being discussed.
• The word "especially" highlights something that is of particular importance or relevance in the context.
• Other options like "ascetically", "equally", and "fanatically" do not fit the context or meaning intended in the sentence.
• "Especially" is the most appropriate choice to fill the blank.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Additional Information

• Ascetically (संयमपूर्वक): "Ascetically" refers to self-discipline or abstention, which does not fit the context.
• Equally (समान रूप से): "Equally" means in equal measure, which does not emphasize the importance or relevance as required.
• Fanatically (कट्टरता से): "Fanatically" means with excessive enthusiasm or zeal, which is unrelated to the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The blank No. 2 in the passage needs an adverb to describe the frequency of forest fires in summer.
• "Often" is the most appropriate choice as it indicates a frequent occurrence, which aligns with the context of forest fires happening regularly during summers.
• Other options like "hardly," "rarely," and "seldom" suggest infrequency, which contradicts the idea of frequent forest fires described in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Additional Information

• Hardly (मुश्किल से): "Hardly" means rarely or barely, which contradicts the idea of frequent forest fires.
• Rarely (कभी-कभार): "Rarely" suggests infrequency, which does not fit the passage’s context of frequent forest fires.
• Seldom (कभी-कभार): "Seldom" also implies infrequency and is unsuitable for describing the regular occurrence of forest fires.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• The blank no. 3 requires a word that aligns with the context of events happening in a sequential or uninterrupted manner.
• The word "consecutive" means "following continuously" and fits well in the context of describing the repeated occurrence of work days for nurses.
• Other options, such as "consensus" (agreement), "conjunctional" (related to conjunctions), and "continent" (landmass), do not fit the context of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Additional Information

• Consensus (सहमति): "Consensus" means general agreement, which is not relevant to the context of describing work schedules.
• Conjunctional (संयोजक): "Conjunctional" relates to conjunctions, which does not fit the context of the passage.
• Continent (महाद्वीप): "Continent" refers to a large landmass, which is unrelated to the description of work shifts.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• The blank no. 4 in the passage is meant to describe a specific characteristic or action.
• "Require" fits appropriately in the context, as it indicates the necessity or demand for something to happen.
• Other options ("Rectify," "Pacify," "Specify") do not align with the context of describing what is needed or demanded by the situation.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Additional Information

• Rectify (सुधारना): "Rectify" means to correct something, which does not fit the context of describing what is needed.
• Pacify (शांत करना): "Pacify" means to calm or soothe, which does not align with the demand or necessity being described.
• Specify (निर्दिष्ट करना): "Specify" means to state explicitly, which is unrelated to the idea of necessity in this context.

The correct answer is 'ensure'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the need to maintain proper staffing levels in healthcare services.
• The word to be filled should indicate the requirement for maintaining or securing continuous, adequate staffing.
• "Ensure" fits well as it means to make certain that something will occur or be the case.
• Other options ("treat", "animate", "scrutinise") do not fit the context of ensuring continuous staffing in healthcare facilities.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Additional Information

• Treat (इलाज करना): "Treat" means to deal with medically or look after in a specified manner, which does not fit the context of staffing needs.
• Animate (जीवंत करना): "Animate" means to bring to life, which does not fit the context of ensuring staffing levels.
• Scrutinise (गहराई से जांचना): "Scrutinise" means to examine or inspect closely, which does not align with the context of ensuring staff levels.

"उल्लास" का विलोम शब्द है- विषाद

Key Points 

• 'उल्लास' शब्द का विलोम शब्द विषाद होगा।
• 'उल्लास' शब्द का अर्थ है - आनंद, प्रसन्नता, हर्ष, उत्साह।
• 'विषाद' शब्द का अर्थ है - दुख, उदासी, निराशा।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य विलोम शब्द-

शुद्ध वाक्य होगा - वह क्रिकेट खेलता है।

Key Points 

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - वह क्रिकेट खेल है**।**
• दिए गये वाक्य में क्रिया प्रयोग की त्रुटि है।
• यहाँ 'खेल है।' सार्थक नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• अत: सार्थक क्रिया खेलता है होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - वह क्रिकेट खेलता है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Informationक्रिया संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

उपरोक्त विकल्प में सही उत्तर 'परार्थ' है| अन्य सभी विकल्प असंगत हैं|

Key Points

• स्वार्थ का विलोम शब्द परार्थ है।
• स्वार्थ का अर्थ - अपना हित साधने की उग्र भावना।
• परार्थ का अर्थ - दूसरे का हित।

Additional Information

इसका सही उत्तर "व्यापारियों" है। 

Key Pointsगैर-विदेशज: गैर-विदेशज शब्द का अर्थ होता है वह शब्द जो विदेशी न हो, अर्थात जिसका उद्गम या स्रोत किसी विदेशी भाषा में न हो। हिंदी भाषा में ऐसे शब्द जिन्हें हमारी अपनी भाषाओं से लिया गया है, गैर-विदेशज शब्द कहलाते हैं।

• यह वाक्य किसी व्यापार सम्मेलन या व्यापारिक बैठक का संदर्भ देता है।
• यह शब्द "व्यापार" से बना है, जिसका अर्थ है "व्यवसाय" या "कारोबार", और "व्यापारियों" का अर्थ है "व्यवसाय करने वाले लोग" या "कारोबार करने वाले लोग"। यह शब्द हिंदी में संस्कृत से आया है, इसलिए इसे गैर-विदेशज माना जाता है।
• इसमें प्रश्न किया गया है कि आपने यह इंतजाम कितने व्यापारियों के लिए किया है।
• इसलिए, सही उत्तर व्यापारियों है।

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प:

हाकिमों -

• यह शब्द "हाकिम" से बना है, जिसका अर्थ है शासक या अधिकारी, और "हाकिम" शब्द अरबी भाषा से हिंदी में आया है। ।

रिश्तेदारों -

• रिश्तेदारों के लिए विदेशज (विदेशी) शब्द "रिलेटिव्स" है। यह एक अंग्रेजी शब्द है जो हिंदी में भी उपयोग होता है।

मेहमानों -

• मेहमानों का मतलब अतिथि होता है, जो विदेशी शब्द है ।

Important Points विदेशज - 

• जो शब्द विदेशी भाषा के हैं, परंतु हिंदी में उन शब्दों का प्रचलन हो रहा है, ऐसे शब्द विदेशज शब्द कहे जाते हैं।
• विदेशी शब्द अरबी, फारसी, तुर्की, अंग्रेजी इत्यादि भाषाओं से लिए गए है। जैसे - डॉक्टर,चश्मा,फकीर आदि।

देशज -

• वे शब्द जिनकी उत्पत्ति का श्रोत ज्ञात न हो और लेकिन भाषा में उनका प्रचलन भरपूर हो, देशज शब्दों की श्रेणी में आते हैं,
• जैसे - लोटा, कटोरा, डोंगा, डिबिया, खिचड़ी, खिड़की, पगड़ी, चिड़िया, जूता, तेंदुआ, फुनगी, कलाई आदि।

सही उत्तर है - कागज

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - यदि उन्हें लकड़ी मिल जाएँ तो वे पोस्टर बनाएँगे।
• दिए गये वाक्य में शब्द-अर्थ प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'लकड़ी' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'कागज' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - यदि उन्हें कागज मिल जाएँ तो वे पोस्टर बनाएँगे।

Additional Information

   शब्द-अर्थ संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

सही उत्तर है - पुनरिक्षीत।

Key Points 

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - लेखिका की यह किताब पुनरिक्षीत हो चुकी है।
• दिए गए वाक्य में वर्तनी की त्रुटि है।
• यहाँ 'पुनरिक्षीत' सही शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• सही शब्द 'पुनरीक्षित' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - लेखिका की यह किताब पुनरीक्षित हो चुकी है।
• वर्तनी - किसी शब्द के अक्षरों और मात्राओं को सही क्रम में लिखने की प्रक्रिया को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Informationवर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

इसका सही उत्तर निष्कपट है। 

Key Points 

• वाक्य - मेरा मित्र बहुत (कपटी) निष्कपट है।
• कोष्ठक में 'कपटी' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'निष्कपट' होगा।
• 'कपटी' शब्द का अर्थ है - छल करने वाला, धोखेबाज।
• 'निष्कपट' शब्द का अर्थ - जो छल या कपट से रहित हो, सरल।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -