SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 17 Feb, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is,

Thus, the missing term in the series is 824.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Seven people, E, F, G, H, K, L and N, are sitting in a row facing north (but not necessarily in the same order) .

Only two people sit to the left of N.

Only three people sit between N and H.

Only one person sits between H and F.

K sits to the immediate left of L.

E is not an immediate neighbour of H.

And G sits at the remaining place.

So, five people sit to the left of G.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

These three items belong to entirely distinct categories and share no common elements or intersections:

A tree is a plant.

Trouser is an article of clothing.

A phone is an electronic communication device.

They are mutually exclusive.

The best Venn diagram to illustrate the relationship between Tree, Trouser, and Phone is one with "three separate, non-overlapping circles".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 47 − 5 ÷ 2 + 72 × 6 = ?

Now, if ‘÷’ and ‘×’ and ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 47 + 5 × 2 − 72 ÷ 6 = ?

⇒ 47 + 5 × 2 − 72 ÷ 6 = ? 

⇒ 47 + 5 × 2 − 12 = ?

⇒ 47 + 10 − 12 = ? 

⇒ 57 − 12 = 45.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is,

Thus, 'help' is coded as 'ap'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its part,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is a two-part rule applied to both the letter clusters and the numbers.

Rule 1 (Letter Clusters): The first letter is shifted +3 positions forward, and the second letter is shifted -4 positions backward.

Rule 2 (Numbers): The number of the second pair is obtained by subtracting 21 from the number of the first pair.

Applying the Logic to the given pairs:

For VF 19 to YB -2:

For TX 11 to WT -10:

For PL 6 to ?:

Thus, the final pair is SH -15.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is,

Option (1): AEC

Option (2): TXV

Option (3): CHE

CHE follows a different pattern (+5, -3).

Option (4): LPN

The odd letter-cluster is: CHE.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given,

From the two positions of the dice, the common number is 6.

By rotating clockwise from the common number 6 in both figures:

• Figure 1: 6 → 5 → 4
• Figure 2: 6 → 3 → 2

The pairs of opposite faces are:

• 5 is opposite 3
• 4 is opposite 2

The only number remaining is 1, which must be opposite the common number 6.

Therefore, the number on the face opposite to the face containing 1 is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The given series is: OLPM_NROS_TQUR SWT_

After putting the option 2) KQPVX in the blank space,

The logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given, Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing 4 people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons.

In row 1 – L, M, N and O are seated and all of them are facing south.

In row 2 – P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north.

M sits third to the right of N.

The one facing Q is an immediate neighbour of N.

The one facing O is an immediate neighbour of Q.

The one facing M is an immediate neighbour of R.

S sits at some place to the left of P.

And L sits at the remaining place.

So, O faces R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is a consistent increase of 3 in the alphabetical position for each of the three letters, with the series wrapping around from Z to A.

Thus, the missing letter-cluster in the series is LLL.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statements:

All cubs are foals.

All cubs are puppies.

All kittens are puppies.

The Venn diagrams for the given statements are:

Conclusions:

(I): All kittens are foals. - False. (There is no direct relationship or overlap specified between kittens and foals. The circle for 'Kittens' is inside 'Puppies', and the circle for 'Cubs' is inside both 'Puppies' and 'Foals'. This does not mean 'Kittens' must also be in 'Foals'.)

(II): Some puppies are foals. - True. (Since all 'Cubs' are both 'Puppies' and 'Foals', the circle for 'Cubs' is in the overlapping region of the 'Puppies' and 'Foals' circles. Therefore, there must be some 'Puppies' that are also 'Foals').

So, only conclusion (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is,

By comparing the words and codes, we can deduce the code for ‘T’.

The letters common to both words are 'A', 'R', and 'E'.

The codes common to both words are 1, 2, and 5.

Thus, the code for 'T' is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given word: 'ICEBOATS'

By comparing the letters in the Original Word row and the Alphabetical Order row, we can see that no letter occupies the same position in both arrangements.

Therefore, the position of Zero (0) letters remains unchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The paper will appear when unfolded,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Expression: P + Q – R × S ÷ T

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We can break down the expression as follows:

• P + Q: P is the mother of Q.
• Q – R: Q is the brother of R.
• R × S: R is the wife of S.
• S ÷ T: S is the father of T.

Family Tree Representation:

Therefore, Q is the mother's brother of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here is that the difference between consecutive terms increases by 2 each time (a constant addition of 2 to the difference).

Thus, the missing term in the series is 653.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic is based on a consistent shift backward in the English alphabetical order. The first two letters are shifted by -2, and the last two letters are shifted by -3.

Analysis of the given pairs:

For ‘QIWC’ to ‘OGTZ’:

For ‘GONY’ to ‘EMKV’:

Applying the logic to ‘FPJA’:

By applying the same logic, ‘FPJA’ is coded as DNGX.

This corresponds to Option 3.

The logic followed here is,

Logic: One line increase in each subsequent figure.

→ +3, +4, +5, +6 line to form "M and N", increase in subsequent figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points

• The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 2002.
• It introduced the 11th Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.
• The 11th Fundamental Duty states: "It shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years."
• This amendment was made to align with the insertion of Article 21A, which made the Right to Education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• The 86th Amendment emphasized the importance of education as a constitutional obligation for both the state and parents.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties
• Originally, the Indian Constitution did not have any provisions for Fundamental Duties.
• They were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Currently, there are 11 Fundamental Duties listed under Article 51A of the Constitution.
• Right to Education (Article 21A)
• Article 21A was introduced by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• It makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• The Right to Education Act (RTE), 2009, was enacted to give effect to this constitutional provision.
• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
• Known as the "Mini-Constitution," it introduced significant changes to the Indian Constitution.
• It added the concept of Fundamental Duties and expanded the scope of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• Other Constitutional Amendments Related to Education
• 93rd Amendment Act, 2005: Introduced Article 15(5) to enable reservation in educational institutions for socially and educationally backward classes.
• 104th Amendment Act, 2019: Extended reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in legislatures and educational institutions.

The correct answer is Veena.

Key Points

• Emani Sankara Sastry, a renowned Carnatic musician, is credited with pioneering the use of a contact microphone to amplify the sound of the Veena.
• He adapted and modernized the traditional playing style of the Veena, making it more suitable for larger audiences in concert settings.
• Sastry's innovation enhanced the tonal clarity and projection of the Veena, especially for live performances.
• His efforts contributed significantly to increasing the versatility and prominence of the Veena in Carnatic music.
• He is remembered as a master of the Veena and for his contributions to Carnatic music, including his innovative techniques.

Additional Information

• Veena:
• The Veena is a traditional string instrument commonly used in Carnatic music, with a history dating back over 2,000 years.
• It typically consists of a large resonating body, a long fretted neck, and four main strings for melody, along with three drone strings.
• The Saraswati Veena is the most commonly played version in South Indian classical music.
• Contact Microphone:
• A contact microphone is designed to pick up vibrations directly from an object, rather than from the air.
• It is often used with acoustic instruments to amplify their sound without compromising tonal quality.
• Carnatic Music:
• Carnatic music is one of the two major traditions of Indian classical music, originating in South India.
• It emphasizes vocal compositions and complex melodic structures known as ragas and rhythmic patterns called talas.
• Emani Sankara Sastry’s Legacy:
• He received several awards, including the prestigious Padma Shri, for his contributions to music.
• He trained many students who went on to become distinguished Veena artists.

The correct answer is North-Eastern Africa.

Key Points

• The Nile River is located in North-Eastern Africa, flowing through countries such as Egypt, Sudan, and Uganda.
• It is widely recognized as the world's longest river, spanning approximately 6,695 kilometers (4,160 miles).
• The Nile has two major tributaries: the White Nile, originating from Lake Victoria, and the Blue Nile, originating from Lake Tana in Ethiopia.
• It flows northward and empties into the Mediterranean Sea, making it unique among major world rivers.
• The river has historically been crucial for agriculture, transportation, and civilization in the region, especially for ancient Egypt.

Additional Information

• Importance in Ancient Civilization:
• The Nile River played a central role in the development of ancient Egyptian civilization, serving as a source of water, transportation, and fertile soil for agriculture.
• The annual flooding of the Nile provided nutrient-rich silt, which was essential for farming in the arid region.
• Hydrology:
• The Nile is fed by its two tributaries: the White Nile (longer but with less water flow) and the Blue Nile (shorter but contributes the majority of the water volume).
• The river basin covers approximately 3 million square kilometers across 11 countries, making it a critical water resource.
• Modern Usage:
• The Nile River supports millions of people through irrigation, drinking water, and hydroelectric power.
• It remains a vital lifeline for agriculture and urban water supply in countries like Egypt and Sudan.
• Environmental Challenges:
• Climate change and upstream dam projects, such as Ethiopia's Grand Renaissance Dam, have raised concerns over water distribution and ecological impacts.
• Efforts are ongoing to balance the needs of the countries sharing the Nile's resources through agreements and negotiations.

The correct answer is Chief Minister.

Key Points

• The Chief Minister of a state acts as the chairman of the State Planning Commission.
• The State Planning Commission is responsible for formulating state-specific development plans in alignment with national goals.
• The Chief Minister holds the primary executive authority in the state and ensures coordination among various departments for implementing developmental schemes.
• State Planning Commissions were modeled after the erstwhile Planning Commission of India, which has now been replaced by the NITI Aayog at the central level.
• The Chief Minister’s role as chairman signifies the significance of their leadership in state development initiatives.

Additional Information

• Planning Commission of India
• Established in 1950, the Planning Commission was responsible for India’s five-year plans and socio-economic development strategies.
• It was replaced in 2015 by the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India).
• NITI Aayog
• NITI Aayog is a policy think tank of the Government of India that focuses on fostering cooperative federalism.
• It provides strategic and technical advice to both the central and state governments.
• Chief Minister
• The Chief Minister is the head of the state government and is appointed by the Governor.
• They are responsible for the overall administration and development of the state.
• State Planning Boards/Commissions
• These are advisory bodies that assist in planning and implementing development initiatives at the state level.
• They work closely with the respective Chief Ministers and state departments.

The correct answer is Tourism industry.

Key Points

• The tourism industry is classified as a service industry because it provides intangible services such as hospitality, transportation, and entertainment to travelers.
• It contributes significantly to the economy by generating employment opportunities and revenue through both domestic and international tourism.
• Tourism involves services like travel arrangements, accommodation, food, and recreational activities, making it a key part of the tertiary sector of the economy.
• Globally, the tourism industry is one of the largest economic sectors, contributing around 10% of global GDP (source: World Travel & Tourism Council, 2023).
• India, for instance, has a thriving tourism sector, contributing approximately 5.8% to its GDP and employing millions in 2022 (source: Ministry of Tourism, India).

Additional Information

• Service Industry:
• It is part of the tertiary sector of an economy, focusing on providing services rather than goods.
• Examples include healthcare, education, financial services, and tourism.
• Economic Impact of Tourism:
• Promotes regional development by boosting infrastructure such as roads, airports, and hospitality facilities.
• Encourages foreign exchange earnings through international tourist arrivals.
• Sustainable Tourism:
• Focuses on minimizing environmental impact while supporting local economies and cultural heritage.
• Includes eco-tourism, cultural tourism, and community-based tourism initiatives.
• Tourism in India:
• India is known for its diverse attractions, including historical monuments, natural landscapes, and cultural festivals.
• Popular destinations include the Taj Mahal, Kerala backwaters, Rajasthan’s forts, and Himachal Pradesh's hill stations.

The correct answer is 163.

Key Points

• A new cricket ball used in standard conditions must weigh not less than 155.9 grams and not more than 163 grams as per the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) Laws of Cricket.
• The weight limit for cricket balls is crucial to maintain fairness and uniformity in the game, ensuring no undue advantage for bowlers or batsmen.
• These specifications are outlined in Law 4 of the MCC Laws of Cricket, which governs the dimensions and weight of a cricket ball.
• The diameter of a cricket ball is also regulated and should measure between 22.4 cm and 22.9 cm.
• The weight and size standards apply to Test matches, One-Day Internationals (ODIs), and T20 Internationals unless specified otherwise.

Additional Information

• Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC)
• The MCC is the custodian of the Laws of Cricket and was founded in 1787.
• It is based at Lord's Cricket Ground in London, often referred to as the "Home of Cricket."
• MCC is responsible for maintaining and updating the Laws of Cricket, ensuring consistency across all formats of the game.
• Cricket Ball Construction
• A cricket ball consists of a cork core wrapped in tightly wound string, encased in a leather cover.
• The leather is dyed red for Test matches and white for limited-overs formats.
• The seam, made of six rows of stitching, plays a significant role in swing and spin bowling.
• Standard Ball Usage in Matches
• The same ball is used for 80 overs in a Test match unless it is damaged or lost.
• In ODIs and T20Is, a new white ball is used at the start of each innings.
• White balls deteriorate faster than red balls due to their coating and are harder to maintain throughout the match.
• Ball Tampering
• Ball tampering refers to the illegal alteration of the ball's condition to gain an unfair advantage.
• Common methods include using foreign substances, scratching the surface, or lifting the seam.
• It is prohibited under the ICC Code of Conduct, and offenders face penalties including suspension.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• Pakistan has Islam as its official state religion, as enshrined in its Constitution.
• According to the Constitution of Pakistan (1973), Article 2 declares Islam as the state religion of the country.
• Pakistan's population is predominantly Muslim, with over 96% of its citizens adhering to Islam, predominantly Sunni Islam.
• The Constitution also provides that laws must be consistent with the Quran and Sunnah, making Pakistan an Islamic Republic.
• Pakistan was established in 1947 with the aim of creating a separate nation for Muslims in the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

• State Religion
• A state religion is a religious body or creed officially endorsed by the state.
• Countries with a state religion often incorporate religious principles into their legal and governance systems.
• Islamic Republic
• An Islamic Republic is a state under a republican government that is officially based on Islamic principles.
• Examples include Pakistan, Iran, and Mauritania.
• Religious Diversity in South Asia
• South Asia is home to diverse religions, including Hinduism, Buddhism, Islam, Christianity, and Sikhism.
• Each neighboring country of India has a unique religious composition and state policies related to religion.
• Other Neighboring Countries
• Sri Lanka: The state religion is Buddhism, but other religions are also practiced freely.
• Nepal: Previously a Hindu kingdom, Nepal is now a secular state with no official religion.
• Myanmar: While Buddhism is dominant, there is no official state religion.

The correct answer is 16.

Key Points

• According to Buddhist and Jain texts, ancient India during the 6th to 4th centuries BCE was divided into 16 Mahajanapadas, which were powerful oligarchic republics or kingdoms.
• The term Mahajanapadas translates to "great realms" or "great countries" and represents the primary political and territorial units of ancient India.
• Some prominent Mahajanapadas included Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa, Avanti, Kuru, Panchala, and Gandhara, among others.
• The Mahajanapadas were spread across various regions of the Indian subcontinent, from the northwestern parts (like Gandhara) to the eastern regions (like Anga and Magadha).
• The rise of Mahajanapadas marked the shift from tribal settlements to organized states with centralized governance and fortified cities.

Additional Information

• Historical Sources:
• The Mahajanapadas are extensively mentioned in Buddhist texts like the Anguttara Nikaya and Jain texts such as the Bhagavati Sutra.
• These texts provide insight into the political, economic, and social conditions of ancient India during this period.
• Types of Governance:
• Some Mahajanapadas, like Magadha, were monarchies led by kings.
• Others, such as Vaishali, were republics governed by an assembly of elected representatives.
• Major Cities:
• Each Mahajanapada had prominent cities serving as administrative centers, such as Rajgir in Magadha and Kausambi in Vatsa.
• Significance:
• The Mahajanapadas played a critical role in shaping ancient Indian civilization and laid the foundation for the rise of large empires like Magadha and later the Maurya Empire.
• They contributed to advancements in art, literature, religion, and urban planning.

The correct answer is 1994-95.

Key Points

• Karnam Malleswari was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 1994-95.
• She is an Indian weightlifter and the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal (bronze in the 2000 Sydney Olympics).
• The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna is India's highest sporting honor, awarded annually for outstanding performance in sports.
• Malleswari was honored for her exceptional achievements in weightlifting, including world championship victories.
• She became a role model for aspiring athletes and significantly contributed to the popularity of weightlifting in India.

Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• Established in 1991-92, it is named after the legendary Indian hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.
• The award includes a medal, a certificate, and a cash prize of Rs. 25 lakhs.
• It recognizes athletes for their extraordinary performance at international sports events.
• Karnam Malleswari's Achievements:
• She won the World Weightlifting Championships twice and multiple medals in Asian Games and Commonwealth Games.
• Her bronze medal at the 2000 Sydney Olympics was India's first Olympic medal in weightlifting.
• She was awarded the Padma Shri in 1999 for her contributions to Indian sports.
• Indian Weightlifting:
• Weightlifting is governed by the Indian Weightlifting Federation (IWF).
• India has produced several successful weightlifters, including Mirabai Chanu and Satish Sivalingam.
• Indian athletes have consistently performed well in regional and international competitions.
• Impact of the Award:
• The Khel Ratna Award motivates athletes to strive for excellence.
• It helps in promoting sports culture and raising awareness about lesser-known sports like weightlifting.
• Awardees often serve as inspirations for the younger generation of athletes.

The correct answer is 2022-23.

Key Points

• The New India Literacy Programme (NILP) was launched by the Government of India in the financial year 2022-23.
• It aims to address the issue of adult illiteracy across the country and is focused on achieving the goal of functional literacy for non-literates aged 15 years and above.
• The programme is aligned with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes the importance of lifelong learning and equitable access to education.
• The NILP replaces the earlier scheme known as the Saakshar Bharat Programme, which concluded in 2017.
• The implementation of the NILP involves coordination between central and state governments, leveraging technology-driven methods and volunteerism to enhance reach and efficacy.

Additional Information

• Functional Literacy:
• Functional literacy refers to the ability to read, write, and perform basic arithmetic tasks essential for everyday life.
• The NILP seeks to ensure that adult learners can effectively engage in social, economic, and cultural activities.
• National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
• The NEP 2020 provides a framework for transforming India's education system, focusing on inclusivity and lifelong learning.
• Adult education and literacy initiatives under the NEP emphasize skill development and digital literacy.
• Saakshar Bharat Programme:
• Launched in 2009, Saakshar Bharat focused on promoting literacy in rural areas, particularly among women.
• It was concluded in 2017, paving the way for the New India Literacy Programme.
• Volunteer-Based Implementation:
• The NILP encourages community participation through volunteer-based teaching and learning models.
• Volunteers receive training and resources to aid in the delivery of literacy programmes.
• Technology Integration:
• The NILP leverages digital platforms and e-learning tools to enhance accessibility and engagement for learners.
• Mobile apps and online modules are being used to facilitate education for adult learners.

The correct answer is Vinay Mohan Kwatra.

Key Points

• Vinay Mohan Kwatra, a seasoned diplomat, was appointed as India’s Ambassador to the United States in July 2024.
• Prior to this appointment, Kwatra served as India's Foreign Secretary, a role he assumed in May 2022.
• Kwatra has extensive diplomatic experience, including postings in Nepal, France, and the Permanent Mission of India to the UN in Geneva.
• He has also held key positions in India’s Ministry of External Affairs, including Joint Secretary in charge of the Policy Planning and Research Division.
• Kwatra’s appointment as Ambassador to the United States is seen as a strategic move to strengthen India-US bilateral relations in areas such as trade, defense, and climate cooperation.

Additional Information

• Role of an Ambassador:
• An ambassador represents their home country in a foreign nation and serves as the highest-ranking diplomat in the host country.
• Ambassadors work to strengthen bilateral relations in areas such as trade, security, and cultural exchange.
• India-US Relations:
• India and the United States share a comprehensive global strategic partnership, focusing on defense, trade, technology, and climate change.
• Bilateral trade between India and the US reached over $120 billion in 2023.
• Defense cooperation includes agreements such as COMCASA and BECA, enhancing interoperability between the two nations.
• Foreign Secretary Role:
• The Foreign Secretary of India is the top diplomat in the Ministry of External Affairs, responsible for implementing foreign policy and advising the government on international matters.
• Vinay Mohan Kwatra served as Foreign Secretary before being appointed as Ambassador to the US.
• India’s Diplomatic Missions:
• India maintains diplomatic missions in over 190 countries, including embassies, consulates, and high commissions.
• The purpose of these missions is to foster international cooperation, protect Indian citizens abroad, and promote India's interests globally.

The correct answer is Syed Ahmed Khan.

Key Points

• Syed Ahmed Khan was the founder of the Aligarh Movement, which aimed to modernize education for Muslims in India by promoting Western education alongside Islamic principles.
• He established the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College in Aligarh in 1875, which later became the renowned Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) in 1920.
• The movement emphasized the importance of English language and modern sciences to bridge the gap between the Muslim community and Western advancements.
• Syed Ahmed Khan believed that education was essential for uplifting the socio-economic conditions of Muslims, who had faced setbacks after the Revolt of 1857.
• The Aligarh Movement played a pivotal role in fostering a sense of unity and intellectual growth among Indian Muslims during British rule.

Additional Information

• Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College:
• Founded in 1875 by Syed Ahmed Khan, the MAO College aimed to integrate modern education with Islamic values.
• The college served as a model institution for educational reform and became a hub for intellectual and cultural development.
• It later evolved into Aligarh Muslim University, one of the premier institutions in India.
• The Revolt of 1857 and its impact on Muslims:
• Muslims faced significant socio-political and economic decline following the failed Revolt of 1857 against British rule.
• Syed Ahmed Khan sought to rebuild the community through education and modernization to combat the stigma and repression faced by Muslims.
• Western Education:
• Syed Ahmed Khan advocated for the adoption of Western scientific knowledge and practices to help Muslims compete in modern society.
• He believed this approach would foster progressive thinking and create opportunities for Muslims in government and administration.
• Legacy of the Aligarh Movement:
• The movement laid the foundation for Muslim nationalism in India and inspired future leaders like Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
• It contributed significantly to the socio-political awakening of Indian Muslims during colonial rule.
• Aligarh Muslim University remains a symbol of the vision of Syed Ahmed Khan, promoting education and research globally.

The correct answer is cyanic acid.

Key Points

• In 1828, Friedrich Wöhler synthesized urea for the first time by heating ammonium cyanate.
• The reaction involved the use of cyanic acid and ammonium to create ammonium cyanate, which then rearranged into urea.
• This discovery marked the first artificial synthesis of an organic compound from inorganic materials, challenging the vitalism theory that organic compounds could only be produced by living organisms.
• Friedrich Wöhler's experiment is considered a foundational moment in the field of organic chemistry.
• The reaction demonstrated that chemical processes in living organisms could be explained through physical and chemical laws.

Additional Information

• Urea (CO(NH₂)₂)
• Urea is a nitrogen-containing compound that is a major end product of protein metabolism in humans and other mammals.
• It is widely used as a fertilizer and in industrial applications such as plastics, resins, and cosmetics.
• Cyanic Acid (HOCN)
• Cyanic acid is a simple, unstable organic acid that plays a key role in the synthesis of urea through ammonium cyanate.
• It is an isomer of isocyanic acid (HNCO).
• Vitalism Theory
• Vitalism was a scientific theory that posited that organic compounds could only be synthesized by living organisms due to a "vital force."
• Wöhler’s urea synthesis disproved this theory, demonstrating that organic compounds could be created artificially.
• Friedrich Wöhler
• Friedrich Wöhler (1800–1882) was a German chemist renowned for his pioneering contributions to organic and inorganic chemistry.
• His urea synthesis is celebrated as one of the most important milestones in the history of chemistry.

The correct answer is Narthaki Nataraj.

Key Points

• Narthaki Nataraj is India's first transgender Bharatanatyam dancer who has achieved national and international recognition for her exceptional contribution to the art form.
• She became the first transgender woman to receive the prestigious Padma Shri award in 2019 for her dedication to Bharatanatyam and promoting inclusivity in the arts.
• She was also conferred with an honorary doctorate for her contributions to Bharatanatyam and her efforts to break barriers for transgender individuals in classical dance.
• Narthaki Nataraj has been an inspiration for the LGBTQ+ community, demonstrating resilience and excellence in the traditionally conservative field of classical dance.
• Her journey highlights the intersection of art and activism, advocating for transgender rights and representation in Indian culture.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam
• Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms of India, originating from Tamil Nadu.
• It is a combination of expression (Bhava), melody (Raga), rhythm (Tala), and dance (Natya).
• This art form was traditionally performed in temples as a form of devotional offering.
• It involves intricate footwork, hand gestures, and facial expressions to convey spiritual themes and stories.
• Padma Shri
• The Padma Shri is India's fourth-highest civilian award, instituted in 1954.
• It is awarded for distinguished contributions in various fields, including arts, literature, sports, public service, and science.
• Recipients are selected by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Government of India.
• Transgender Rights in India
• India legally recognized transgender individuals as a "third gender" in the landmark NALSA v. Union of India case in 2014.
• The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, was enacted to safeguard the rights of transgender individuals.
• Despite legal progress, societal acceptance and inclusivity for transgender individuals remain ongoing challenges.
• Honorary Doctorate
• An honorary doctorate is awarded by universities to individuals who have made significant contributions in a specific field without completing the formal academic requirements.
• It is a recognition of outstanding achievements and contributions to society.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Reh Festival is a significant cultural celebration of the Idu Mishmi community in Arunachal Pradesh, showcasing their rich traditions and rituals.
• Boori Boot Festival is primarily celebrated by the Nyishi tribe in Arunachal Pradesh to mark the arrival of spring and express gratitude for a good harvest.
• The Reh Festival is deeply rooted in the animist beliefs of the Idu Mishmi tribe and involves rituals to appease spirits for well-being and prosperity.
• Boori Boot emphasizes communal harmony and includes rituals, cultural performances, and traditional feasting.
• Both festivals are integral to the cultural identity of Arunachal Pradesh and attract visitors interested in tribal heritage and traditions.

Additional Information

• Arunachal Pradesh:
• Known as the "Land of the Dawn-lit Mountains," Arunachal Pradesh is the northeasternmost state of India.
• It is home to numerous tribes, including the Nyishi, Apatani, Adi, Idu Mishmi, and Monpa, each with distinct cultural practices.
• The state is renowned for its biodiversity and scenic landscapes, including snow-capped mountains, lush valleys, and rivers.
• Nyishi Tribe:
• The Nyishi are the largest ethnic group in Arunachal Pradesh and primarily inhabit the central and western parts of the state.
• They follow animist traditions and worship deities associated with nature.
• Boori Boot Festival is one of their major annual celebrations.
• Idu Mishmi Tribe:
• The Idu Mishmi tribe resides mainly in the Dibang Valley district of Arunachal Pradesh.
• The Reh Festival is significant for this tribe and reflects their animist religious practices.
• The tribe is known for their craftsmanship, especially weaving intricate patterns in textiles.
• Festivals in Arunachal Pradesh:
• Other notable festivals in Arunachal Pradesh include Solung, Losar, and Siang River Festival.
• These festivals are celebrated to honor nature, the agricultural cycle, and communal harmony.
• They play a vital role in preserving the state's cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Ashish Khanna.

Key Points

• Ashish Khanna was appointed as the new Director General of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) during its seventh session held in New Delhi in November 2024.
• The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a coalition of solar-resource-rich countries working to promote sustainable energy solutions and increase the adoption of solar energy globally.
• Prior to his appointment, Ashish Khanna held prominent positions in renewable energy initiatives and was recognized for his contributions to advancing clean energy technologies.
• ISA’s seventh session focused on accelerating the deployment of solar energy and highlighted the role of leadership in achieving global energy transitions.
• The appointment of Ashish Khanna aligns with ISA’s mission to drive innovative strategies and partnerships for harnessing solar energy.

Additional Information

• International Solar Alliance (ISA):
• Founded in 2015, ISA is an initiative jointly launched by India and France during COP21 in Paris.
• Its primary objective is to mobilize over $1 trillion in investments by 2030 for solar energy projects and reduce reliance on fossil fuels.
• The alliance is headquartered in Gurugram, India, and works with member countries to implement solar energy solutions.
• Solar Energy:
• Solar energy is a renewable energy source harnessed from the Sun’s radiation.
• It can be converted into electricity using photovoltaic (PV) cells or concentrated solar power (CSP) systems.
• Solar energy is crucial for reducing greenhouse gas emissions and combating climate change.
• Global Energy Transition:
• Energy transition refers to the shift from fossil fuels to renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and hydropower.
• This transition aims to achieve sustainable development, energy security, and environmental conservation.
• Clean Energy Leadership:
• Effective leadership in clean energy involves fostering innovation, partnerships, and policies to scale up renewable energy adoption.
• Global organizations like ISA play a pivotal role in guiding countries toward sustainable energy practices.

The correct answer is smoke point.

Key Points

• The smoke point is the temperature at which an oil or fat begins to visibly smoke and break down, producing a burnt flavor and potentially harmful compounds.
• It is an important factor in cooking and frying, as heating an oil beyond its smoke point can negatively affect the taste and safety of the food.
• The smoke point varies depending on the type of oil or fat. For instance, refined oils generally have higher smoke points than unrefined oils.
• Common cooking oils and their approximate smoke points: Canola oil (~400°F/204°C), Olive oil (~375°F/190°C), and Avocado oil (~520°F/271°C).
• Oils with higher smoke points are suitable for high-temperature cooking methods like deep-frying, while oils with lower smoke points are better for dressings and low-heat cooking.

Additional Information

• Boiling Point: The temperature at which a liquid turns into vapor. Unlike the smoke point, the boiling point is not a relevant factor for cooking oils.
• Ignition Temperature: The minimum temperature at which a substance catches fire without an external flame or spark. This is much higher than the smoke point.
• Critical Temperature: The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied, regardless of pressure. This term is not related to cooking oils.
• Refined vs. Unrefined Oils: Refining removes impurities, increasing the smoke point of oils. For example, refined coconut oil has a smoke point of ~450°F, while unrefined coconut oil smokes at ~350°F.
• Health Implications: Overheating oils beyond their smoke point can degrade nutrients and produce harmful compounds like acrolein, which is linked to respiratory and health issues.

The correct answer is Father of Indian Statistics.

Key Points

• Dr. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, an Indian statistician, is widely regarded as the Father of Indian Statistics.
• He is best known for introducing the Mahalanobis Distance, a statistical measure used in multivariate data analysis.
• Dr. Mahalanobis founded the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) in 1931, which became a hub for statistical research and education.
• He played a pivotal role in India's economic planning, contributing significantly to the formulation of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61).
• He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 1968 for his outstanding contributions to science and statistics in India.

Additional Information

• Mahalanobis Distance:
• It is a measure of the distance between a point and a distribution, used in multivariate statistics.
• This method helps in identifying and analyzing patterns in high-dimensional data.
• Indian Statistical Institute (ISI):
• Founded by Dr. Mahalanobis in Kolkata, ISI is a renowned institution for research and education in statistics and related fields.
• It conducts national-level exams for admission to its undergraduate and postgraduate programs.
• Second Five-Year Plan:
• Dr. Mahalanobis was the chief architect of this plan, which focused on rapid industrialization in India.
• It emphasized the development of heavy industries and the public sector for economic growth.
• Contributions to Science:
• Dr. Mahalanobis introduced various statistical tools and methods that are still widely used in research.
• His work significantly influenced fields such as anthropology, economics, and meteorology.

The correct answer is To generate revenue for the government.

Key Points

• Disinvestment is the process of selling or liquidating government stakes in public sector enterprises to generate funds.
• The primary objective of disinvestment is to generate revenue for the government to reduce the fiscal deficit and fund developmental programs.
• It helps the government meet its budgetary requirements without increasing taxes or borrowing.
• Disinvestment in Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) is also aimed at reducing the financial burden of loss-making entities on the government.
• Proceeds from disinvestment are often used to invest in infrastructure, social welfare programs, or debt reduction.

Additional Information

• Strategic Disinvestment:
• It involves selling a major portion of government shares in a PSE, along with the transfer of management control to private entities.
• Examples include the sale of Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) and Air India.
• Fiscal Deficit:
• It is the difference between the total revenue and total expenditure of the government in a financial year.
• Disinvestment helps reduce the fiscal deficit by generating non-tax revenue.
• Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs):
• These are companies owned and operated by the government, either fully or partially.
• PSEs play a crucial role in nation-building by contributing to economic development and employment generation.
• National Investment Fund (NIF):
• A fund where disinvestment proceeds are deposited.
• It is used for capital investment in infrastructure and financing social sector programs.
• Privatization vs Disinvestment:
• Privatization refers to transferring ownership and control entirely to private entities.
• Disinvestment involves partial or full sale of government stakes, but ownership may or may not be transferred.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• The Kunbi dance is a traditional tribal dance form performed primarily by the Kunbi community of Goa.
• This dance reflects the simple lifestyle and agricultural traditions of the Kunbi tribe, who are among the earliest settlers in Goa.
• Kunbi dance is performed during festivals and social occasions, often accompanied by folk songs and traditional Goan music.
• The attire for the Kunbi dance includes traditional red sarees with unique draping styles, signifying the cultural identity of the community.
• It is considered an essential part of Goa's folk heritage and tribal culture, showcasing the harmonious relationship between nature and tribal life.

Additional Information

• Goa's Tribal Communities:
• Goa is home to several tribal communities, including the Kunbi, Gauda, and Velip tribes.
• The Kunbi tribe is one of the oldest and most prominent tribal groups in the region.
• Tribal communities in Goa maintain a close connection with nature and play a significant role in preserving the state's rich cultural heritage.
• Other Traditional Dance Forms of Goa:
• Besides Kunbi, Goa is known for other folk dances such as Dekhni, Fugdi, and Mando.
• These dances are performed during various festivals and cultural events, representing Goa's vibrant traditions.
• Goa's Cultural Significance:
• Known for its beaches, Goa also has a rich cultural history influenced by tribal traditions and Portuguese heritage.
• The state's folk art, music, and dance play an integral role in its tourism and cultural identity.
• Preservation of Tribal Heritage:
• Efforts are being made to preserve tribal traditions through cultural festivals and tourism initiatives.
• Documentation and promotion of dances like Kunbi help in maintaining the identity of Goa's tribal communities.

Shortcut Trick

For equal amounts in Compound Interest, the principal ratio relies on the difference in time periods.

Ratio (Rishi : Shan) = (1 + R/100)^{T₂ − T₁} : 1

⇒ Rishi : Shan = (1 + 4/100)^{16 − 15} : 1 = (26/25) : 1 = 26 : 25

⇒ Total parts = 26 + 25 = 51 parts → ₹1224

⇒ Shan's share = (25 / 51) × 1224 = 600

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount Pravin has = ₹1224

Rate of interest (R) = 4% compounded annually

Time for Rishi (T₁) = 15 years

Time for Shan (T₂) = 16 years

Formula Used:

Amount in Compound Interest: A = P(1 + R/100)^T

Total Sum = ₹1224

Rishi's Share 15 Years @ 4% CI

Shan's Share 16 Years @ 4% CI

Equal Final Amounts

Calculations:

Let the initial amount given to Rishi be P_R and to Shan be P_S.

⇒ Total sum = P_R + P_S = 1224

⇒ Final amount of Rishi = P_R × (1 + 4/100)¹⁵

⇒ Final amount of Shan = P_S × (1 + 4/100)¹⁶

Since the amounts received by both are equal after their respective periods:

⇒ P_R × (1 + 1/25)¹⁵ = P_S × (1 + 1/25)¹⁶

⇒ P_R × (26/25)¹⁵ = P_S × (26/25)¹⁶

Dividing both sides by (26/25)¹⁵:

⇒ P_R = P_S × (26/25)

⇒ P_R / P_S = 26 / 25

⇒ P_R : P_S = 26 : 25

⇒ Total parts in ratio = 26 + 25 = 51 parts

⇒ 51 parts = ₹1224

⇒ 1 part = 1224 ÷ 51 = ₹24

⇒ Amount given to Shan (P_S) = 25 parts = 25 × 24 = 600

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Additional Information

Effective Interest Rate

When interest is compounded half-yearly, the rate is halved (R/2) and the time period is doubled (2T). The formula becomes A = P(1 + R/200)^2T.

Difference Between CI and SI

For 2 years on the same principal P at rate R%, the difference is D = P(R/100)². For 3 years, the difference is D = P(R/100)²(3 + R/100).

Successive Compound Interest

If the rate of interest is different for different years (R₁, R₂, R₃), the total amount is calculated sequentially as A = P(1 + R₁/100)(1 + R₂/100)(1 + R₃/100).

Shortcut Trick

Difference in principal = ₹9400 − ₹5400 = ₹4000

Extra interest earned on this difference in 5 years = ₹360

Extra interest per year = 360 ÷ 5 = ₹72

Rate of interest = (72 ÷ 4000) × 100 = 1.8%

∴ The correct answer is 1.8%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal of Nirmal (P₁) = ₹5400

Principal of Rakesh (P₂) = ₹9400

Time (T) = 5 years

Difference in Simple Interest (SI₂ − SI₁) = ₹360

Nirmal P = ₹5400 T = 5 yrs, Rate = R%

Rakesh P = ₹9400 T = 5 yrs, Rate = R%

Difference in Interest = ₹360

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI₁ (Nirmal) = (5400 × R × 5) ÷ 100 = 270R

⇒ SI₂ (Rakesh) = (9400 × R × 5) ÷ 100 = 470R

⇒ SI₂ − SI₁ = 360

⇒ 470R − 270R = 360

⇒ 200R = 360

⇒ R = 360 ÷ 200

⇒ R = 1.8%

∴ The correct answer is 1.8%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Formula

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100, where P is the principal amount, R is the rate of interest per annum, and T is the time in years.

Difference in Simple Interest

When rate (R) and time (T) are the same, the difference in interest is directly proportional to the difference in principal: ΔSI = (ΔP × R × T) ÷ 100.

Amount Formula

Total Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI). It represents the total money accumulated after the given time period.

Shortcut Trick

Since x ∝ 1/y², the ratio of change in x is the inverse ratio of change in y².

y decreases from 11 to 2.2, which means it becomes 1/5 of its initial value.

Thus, y² decreases by a factor of (1/5)² = 1/25.

Due to inverse variation, x must increase by a factor of 25.

New value of x = 78 × 25 = 1950.

∴ The correct answer is 1950.

Alternate Method

Given:

x₁ = 78, y₁ = 11

y₂ = 2.2

x varies inversely as y²

Formula Used:

x₁ × y₁² = x₂ × y₂²

State 1 y = 11 y² = 121 x = 78

State 2 y = 2.2 y² = 4.84 x = ?

y² ÷ 25

x × 25

Calculations:

⇒ 78 × (11)² = x₂ × (2.2)²

⇒ 78 × 121 = x₂ × 4.84

⇒ x₂ = (78 × 121) ÷ 4.84

⇒ x₂ = 78 × (121 ÷ 4.84)

⇒ x₂ = 78 × 25

⇒ x₂ = 1950

∴ The correct answer is 1950.

Additional Information

Direct Variation

When two variables change in the same proportion. Formula: x ∝ y ⇒ x = ky, where k is a constant.

Inverse (Indirect) Variation

When one variable increases while the other decreases proportionally. Formula: x ∝ 1/y ⇒ x × y = k.

Joint Variation

When a variable varies directly or inversely with multiple variables simultaneously. For example: x ∝ y × z ⇒ x = k × y × z.

Shortcut Trick

When moving in opposite directions, relative speed = 58 + 14 = 72 km/h.

Convert relative speed to m/s: 72 × (5/18) = 20 m/s.

Time taken = Distance ÷ Relative speed = 268 ÷ 20 = 13.4 seconds.

∴ The correct answer is 13.4 seconds.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the train (L) = 268 m

Speed of the train (S_t) = 58 km/h

Speed of the man (S_m) = 14 km/h

Formula Used:

Relative speed (opposite direction) = S_t + S_m

Speed in m/s = Speed in km/h × (5/18)

Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Train: 268 m

58 km/h

Man

14 km/h Relative Speed = 58 + 14 = 72 km/h

Calculations:

⇒ Relative speed = 58 + 14 = 72 km/h

⇒ Converting relative speed to m/s = 72 × (5/18) = 20 m/s

⇒ Distance to be covered to cross the man = Length of the train = 268 m

⇒ Time taken = 268 ÷ 20

⇒ Time taken = 13.4 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 13.4 seconds.

Additional Information

Trains moving in Same Direction

When two bodies move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference of their individual speeds (S₁ − S₂).

Train Crossing a Bridge or Platform

When a train crosses a stationary object with some length (like a platform), the total distance covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the object (L₁ + L₂).

Conversion of Speeds

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply the speed by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply the speed by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Let Total Work = LCM of 18, 32, and 52 = 3744 units.

Combined 1-day work (efficiency): (A + B) = 3744 ÷ 18 = 208, (B + C) = 3744 ÷ 32 = 117, (C + A) = 3744 ÷ 52 = 72.

Adding them all gives 2 × (A + B + C) = 208 + 117 + 72 = 397 units.

Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 397 ÷ 2 units/day.

Time taken by them together = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency = 3744 ÷ (397 ÷ 2) = 7488 ÷ 397 = 18 ³⁴²/₃₉₇ days.

∴ The correct answer is 18 ³⁴²/₃₉₇ days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A and B to complete the work = 18 days

Time taken by B and C to complete the work = 32 days

Time taken by A and C to complete the work = 52 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = LCM of Time

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Total Time Taken = Total Work ÷ Total Efficiency

Calculations:

⇒ Adding all 1-day efficiencies from the table:

⇒ Efficiency of (A + B) + (B + C) + (C + A) = 208 + 117 + 72

⇒ 2 × (A + B + C) = 397

⇒ Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 397 ÷ 2

⇒ Time taken by A, B, and C together = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of (A + B + C)

⇒ Time taken = 3744 ÷ (397 ÷ 2)

⇒ Time taken = (3744 × 2) ÷ 397

⇒ Time taken = 7488 ÷ 397 = 18 ³⁴²/₃₉₇ days

∴ The correct answer is 18 ³⁴²/₃₉₇ days.

Additional Information

Combined Efficiency Rule

If A can do a piece of work in x days and B can do it in y days, their combined time is (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of the total work done. If the time spent by workers is constant, wages are directly proportional to their efficiencies.

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar to the time and work model, but an outlet pipe performs negative work, effectively subtracting from the total efficiency.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Selling Price (SP) of 1 chair be 1 unit.

Total SP of 150 chairs = 150 units, and Profit = SP of 90 chairs = 90 units.

Cost Price (CP) = SP − Profit = 150 − 90 = 60 units.

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 = (90 ÷ 60) × 100 = 150%.

∴ The correct answer is 150%.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Number of chairs sold = 150

⇒ Profit = Selling Price (SP) of 90 chairs

Formula Used:

⇒ Profit = SP − CP

⇒ Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

CP = 60 units

Profit = 90 units

Total SP = 150 units Selling Price Split

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Selling Price (SP) of 1 chair be 1 unit.

⇒ Total Selling Price of 150 chairs = 150 × 1 = 150 units.

⇒ Profit earned = Selling Price of 90 chairs = 90 × 1 = 90 units.

⇒ We know that, Cost Price (CP) = SP − Profit

⇒ CP of 150 chairs = 150 − 90 = 60 units.

⇒ Profit % = (90 ÷ 60) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (3 ÷ 2) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 1.5 × 100 = 150%

∴ The correct answer is 150%.

Additional Information

Loss Equal to Selling Price

If a loss on selling 'x' items equals the Selling Price of 'y' items, then the effective Cost Price is SP of (x + y) items. Loss % = [y ÷ (x + y)] × 100.

Profit/Loss on Cost Price

If the profit/loss is given in terms of the Cost Price of 'y' items while selling 'x' items, then the base directly becomes 'x'. Profit/Loss % = (y ÷ x) × 100.

Dishonest Dealer

If a dealer claims to sell at Cost Price but uses a false weight, Profit % = [(True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Since the new speed is 3/7 of the normal speed, the Speed Ratio (Normal : New) = 7 : 3.

Time is inversely proportional to speed, so Time Ratio (Normal : New) = 3 : 7.

Difference in time ratio parts = 7 − 3 = 4 parts.

Given delay is 28 minutes ⇒ 4 parts = 28 minutes ⇒ 1 part = 7 minutes.

Normal time = 3 parts = 3 × 7 = 21 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 21 minutes.

Alternate Method

Given:

New speed = 3/7 of normal speed.

Time delay = 28 minutes late.

City A

City B

Distance (D) is constant

Normal Case Speed = S, Time = T

New Case Speed = 3S/7, Time = T + 28

S × T = (3S/7) × (T + 28)

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let the normal speed be S and normal time be T minutes.

⇒ Distance D = S × T

⇒ New speed = 3S/7

⇒ New time = T + 28

⇒ New Distance = (3S/7) × (T + 28)

⇒ Since distance is constant: S × T = (3S/7) × (T + 28)

⇒ Canceling S from both sides: T = (3/7) × (T + 28)

⇒ 7T = 3T + 84

⇒ 4T = 84

⇒ T = 21 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 21 minutes.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportionality of Speed and Time

When the distance covered is constant, speed is inversely proportional to the time taken. If speed becomes a/b times, the time taken becomes b/a times.

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = |S₁ − S₂|. In opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Average Speed

When equal distances are covered at speeds a and b, Average Speed = (2ab) ÷ (a + b). If equal times are spent, Average Speed = (a + b) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Time difference between Rupesh and Mandar = 13 − 12 = 1 year.

Rate of interest = 8% = 2/25 → Multiplying factor = 27/25.

Since Mandar has less time, he gets a larger share. Ratio of Mandar's to Rupesh's share = 27¹ : 25¹ = 27 : 25.

Total parts = 27 + 25 = 52 parts.

Mandar's share = (27 ÷ 52) × 24700 = ₹12825.

∴ The correct answer is ₹12825.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Money = ₹24,700

Rate of Interest = 8% compounded annually

Age of Rupesh = 12 years, Age of Mandar = 13 years

Target age for equality = 23 years

Formula Used:

Amount in CI, A = P(1 + R/100)^T

Rupesh (12 yrs): Principal R

11 Years Amount A

Mandar (13 yrs): Principal M

10 Years Amount A

Amounts are EQUAL at Age 23

Calculations:

⇒ Time for Rupesh = 23 − 12 = 11 years

⇒ Time for Mandar = 23 − 13 = 10 years

⇒ Let the amount given to Rupesh be R and Mandar be M.

⇒ Amount of Rupesh = Amount of Mandar

⇒ R(1 + 8/100)¹¹ = M(1 + 8/100)¹⁰

⇒ R(108/100)¹¹ = M(108/100)¹⁰

⇒ M / R = (108/100)¹

⇒ M / R = 27 / 25

⇒ Total ratio units = 27 + 25 = 52 units

⇒ 52 units = 24700

⇒ 1 unit = 24700 ÷ 52 = 475

⇒ Mandar's initial amount = 27 units

⇒ Mandar's initial amount = 27 × 475 = 12825

∴ The correct answer is ₹12825.

Additional Information

Distribution of Wealth with Compound Interest

When money is divided between two people such that they get equal amounts at a certain age, the person who has less time to invest must receive a larger principal.

Compound Interest Formula

Amount, A = P(1 + R/100)^N, where P is principal, R is rate of interest per annum, and N is the number of years.

Ratio of Principals in CI

If two parts P₁ and P₂ amount to the same value in T₁ and T₂ years respectively, then their initial investment ratio is given by P₁/P₂ = (1 + R/100)^T₂−T₁.

Given:

16 + 12 ÷ 3 - 3 × 3

Formula used:

Follow BODMAS (Bracket, Order, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) rule.

Calculations:

16 + 12 ÷ 3 - 3 × 3

⇒ 16 + 4 - 9

⇒ 20 - 9

⇒ 11

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

11th number = Average + 11 × (Deviation of first 11) + 11 × (Deviation of last 11)

11th number = 74 + 11 × (72.8 − 74) + 11 × (77.2 − 74) = 74 + 22 = 96

10th number = 96 − 5 = 91

Total deviation of 10th and 11th numbers from average = (96 − 74) + (91 − 74) = +39

Since the excluded numbers are 39 above average, the average of the remaining 19 numbers will decrease.

New average = 74 − (39 ÷ 19) = 74 − 2.05 = 71.95 ≈ 72

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total numbers = 21, Average = 74

Average of first 11 numbers = 72.8

Average of last 11 numbers = 77.2

First 11: 11 × 72.8 = 800.8

Last 11: 11 × 77.2 = 849.2

Total 21 Numbers: 21 × 74 = 1554

10th = 91

11th = 96

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of all 21 numbers = 21 × 74 = 1554

⇒ Sum of first 11 numbers = 11 × 72.8 = 800.8

⇒ Sum of last 11 numbers = 11 × 77.2 = 849.2

⇒ By adding the first 11 and last 11, the 11th number is counted twice.

⇒ 11th number = (800.8 + 849.2) − 1554

⇒ 11th number = 1650 − 1554 = 96

⇒ 10th number = 96 − 5 = 91

⇒ Sum of excluded numbers (10th and 11th) = 96 + 91 = 187

⇒ Sum of remaining 19 numbers = 1554 − 187 = 1367

⇒ Average of remaining 19 numbers = 1367 ÷ 19 = 71.947 ≈ 72

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Additional Information

Overlapping Concept in Averages

When a sequence is divided into two overlapping parts, the common item is counted twice. It can be isolated using: Overlapping Item = (Sum of Part 1 + Sum of Part 2) − Total Sum.

Impact of Excluded Items

If the values removed from a group are greater than the original average, the new average of the remaining items will decrease. Change in average = Total deviation of removed items ÷ Remaining number of items.

Combined Average

When groups are combined, the new average is given by A = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is the number of items and A is their respective average.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of soap quantities = 200 : 300 = 2 : 3

Let assumed average weight be 500 gm.

Deviation of second soap = 650 − 500 = +150 gm

Net average change = (150 × 3) ÷ (2 + 3) = 450 ÷ 5 = +90 gm

Actual Average = 500 + 90 = 590 gm

∴ The correct answer is 590 gm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Weight of 1st soap (W₁) = 500 gm

Quantity of 1st soap (N₁) = 200

Weight of 2nd soap (W₂) = 650 gm

Quantity of 2nd soap (N₂) = 300

Formula Used:

Weighted Average = (W₁ × N₁ + W₂ × N₂) ÷ (N₁ + N₂)

500 gm 650 gm Avg: 590

Qty: 200 Qty: 300

Diff: 90 Diff: 60

Calculation:

⇒ Total weight of 1st soap = 500 × 200 = 1,00,000 gm

⇒ Total weight of 2nd soap = 650 × 300 = 1,95,000 gm

⇒ Total quantity = 200 + 300 = 500

⇒ Total combined weight = 1,00,000 + 1,95,000 = 2,95,000 gm

⇒ Weighted Average = 2,95,000 ÷ 500

⇒ Weighted Average = 590 gm

∴ The correct answer is 590 gm.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

Used when elements in different groups have varying quantities. Formula: A_w = (x₁w₁ + x₂w₂) ÷ (w₁ + w₂).

Alligation Rule

A quicker method to find the ratio in which two components are mixed. Quantity Ratio = (Dearer − Mean) : (Mean − Cheaper).

Deviation Method for Averages

Select an assumed mean, calculate total deviations for all items, and distribute this net deviation equally over total items to find the actual average.

Shortcut Trick

Let the initial expenditure be 100.

Since the price increases by 50%, the new expenditure (if consumption remains unchanged) becomes 150.

However, the desired expenditure is only a 41% increase, making the target expenditure 141.

Required reduction in consumption = [(150 − 141) ÷ 150] × 100

⇒ (9 ÷ 150) × 100 = 6%

∴ The correct answer is 6%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Increase in the price of petrol = 50%

Allowed increase in expenditure = 41%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Price × Consumption

100 Initial Exp

150 Price Effect (Same Cons.)

141 Target Exp

Reduction = 9

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial price be P and initial consumption be C.

⇒ Initial expenditure (E) = P × C

⇒ New price = P + 50% of P = 1.5P

⇒ New target expenditure = E + 41% of E = 1.41E

⇒ Let the new consumption be C'.

⇒ New expenditure = New price × New consumption

⇒ 1.41(P × C) = 1.5P × C'

⇒ C' = (1.41 ÷ 1.5) × C

⇒ C' = 0.94C

⇒ Reduction in consumption = C − 0.94C = 0.06C

⇒ Percentage reduction = (0.06C ÷ C) × 100 = 6%

∴ The correct answer is 6%.

Additional Information

Expenditure, Price and Consumption

Expenditure = Price × Consumption. If the expenditure is kept constant, the consumption is inversely proportional to the price of the commodity.

Successive Percentage Formula

Net % change in expenditure = x + y + (x × y) ÷ 100, where x is the % change in price and y is the % change in consumption.

Base Change Method

When a value is adjusted to match a target value, the required percentage change is calculated on the current actual base: [(New Base − Target) ÷ New Base] × 100.

Given:

The value of 69 - 4 × [ 4 + 3 × { 20 - 5 ( 7 - 5 ) × 2} ÷ 29]

Formula used:

BODMAS Rule (Bracket, Order, Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction)

Calculations:

69 - 4 × [ 4 + 3 × { 20 - 5 ( 7 - 5 ) × 2} ÷ 29]

⇒ 69 - 4 × [ 4 + 3 × { 20 - 5 × 2 × 2} ÷ 29]

⇒ 69 - 4 × [ 4 + 3 × { 20 - 20} ÷ 29]

⇒ 69 - 4 × [ 4 + 3 × 0 ÷ 29]

⇒ 69 - 4 × [ 4 + 0]

⇒ 69 - 4 × 4

⇒ 69 - 16

⇒ 53

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

Using the direct relation: Other Number = (LCM × HCF) ÷ First Number

⇒ Other Number = (140 × 5) ÷ 35

⇒ Other Number = 4 × 5 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given:

LCM of the two numbers = 140

HCF of the two numbers = 5

First number = 35

Formula Used:

First Number × Second Number = LCM × HCF

1st Num × 2nd Num

=

LCM × HCF

35 × ?

=

140 × 5

Calculations:

⇒ 35 × Second Number = 140 × 5

⇒ 35 × Second Number = 700

⇒ Second Number = 700 ÷ 35

⇒ Second Number = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

LCM and HCF of Fractions

LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators ÷ HCF of denominators. HCF of fractions = HCF of numerators ÷ LCM of denominators.

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are said to be co-prime if their HCF is 1. The LCM of two co-prime numbers is always equal to their product.

HCF as a Factor

The HCF of given numbers is always a perfect divisor (factor) of their LCM.

Shortcut Trick

Convert all sides to the same unit: 0.08 m = 8 cm.

The sides are 6 cm, 8 cm, and 4 cm. Semi-perimeter (s) = (6 + 8 + 4) ÷ 2 = 9 cm.

Using direct Heron's formula: Area = √(9 × 3 × 1 × 5).

Area = √135 = 3√15 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 3√15 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Side a = 6 cm

⇒ Side b = 0.08 m

⇒ Side c = 4 cm

Formula Used:

⇒ Heron's formula: Area = √(s × (s − a) × (s − b) × (s − c))

⇒ Semi-perimeter, s = (a + b + c) ÷ 2

8 cm (0.08 m) 6 cm 4 cm

Calculations:

⇒ First, convert all lengths to centimeters to maintain consistent units.

⇒ Side b = 0.08 m = 0.08 × 100 = 8 cm

⇒ Find the semi-perimeter (s):

⇒ s = (6 + 8 + 4) ÷ 2

⇒ s = 18 ÷ 2 = 9 cm

⇒ Now, substitute the values into Heron's formula:

⇒ Area = √(9 × (9 − 6) × (9 − 8) × (9 − 4))

⇒ Area = √(9 × 3 × 1 × 5)

⇒ Area = √135

⇒ Area = √(9 × 15) = 3√15 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 3√15 cm².

Additional Information

Heron's Formula

Used to find the area of a scalene triangle when all three sides are known: Area = √(s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)).

Area of an Equilateral Triangle

For a triangle with all equal sides (length a), the area is calculated directly using: Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × a².

Area of a Right-Angled Triangle

When the base and perpendicular height are given: Area = (1 ÷ 2) × Base × Height.

Shortcut Trick

In the proportion a : b : : c : d, the ratio multiplier is constant.

Here, the first term 0.3 is multiplied by 16 to get the second term 4.8 (since 4.8 ÷ 0.3 = 16).

Applying the exact same multiplier to the third term 0.2:

x = 0.2 × 16 = 3.2

∴ The correct answer is 3.2.

Alternate Method

Given:

0.3 : 4.8 : : 0.2 : x

Formula Used:

For any proportion a : b : : c : d, the product of extremes is equal to the product of means.

⇒ a × d = b × c

0.3

:

4.8

::

0.2

:

x

Product of Means

Product of Extremes

0.3 × x = 4.8 × 0.2

Calculations:

⇒ 0.3 × x = 4.8 × 0.2

⇒ 0.3x = 0.96

⇒ x = 0.96 ÷ 0.3

⇒ x = 3.2

∴ The correct answer is 3.2.

Additional Information

Fourth Proportional

If a : b : : c : d, then d is called the fourth proportional to a, b, and c. It is calculated as d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Third Proportional

If a : b : : b : c, then c is called the third proportional to a and b. It is calculated as c = b² ÷ a.

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is given by √(a × b).

Given:

We need to find the value of the following expression:

[ (29 × 13) × {3 ÷ 3 × (18 - 14) / 4} ]

First, simplify the inner expression:

18 - 14 = 4

Now, substitute into the expression:

[ (29 × 13) × {3 ÷ 3 × 4 / 4} ]

Next, simplify inside the brackets:

3 ÷ 3 = 1

4 / 4 = 1

So, 1 × 1 = 1, and the expression becomes:

[ (29 × 13) × 1 ]

Now, calculate 29 × 13:

29 × 13 = 377

Therefore, the value of the expression is 377.

Shortcut Trick

Fractional value of 9.5% = 9.5 ÷ 100 = 19 ÷ 200.

This means if Cost Price (CP) is 200 units, the Profit is 19 units.

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 200 + 19 = 219 units.

Given SP is 219 units = ₹219 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹1.

Cost Price = 200 units × 1 = ₹200.

∴ The correct answer is ₹200.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹219

Gain percentage = 9.5%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = [100 ÷ (100 + Gain%)] × SP

CP = 100%

Profit = 9.5%

SP = 109.5% = ₹219

Calculations:

⇒ CP = [100 ÷ (100 + 9.5)] × 219

⇒ CP = (100 ÷ 109.5) × 219

⇒ CP = (1000 ÷ 1095) × 219

⇒ CP = (200 ÷ 219) × 219

⇒ CP = 200 × 1

⇒ CP = 200

∴ The correct answer is ₹200.

Additional Information

Loss Calculation

When an article is sold at a loss, the Cost Price can be calculated as: CP = [100 ÷ (100 − Loss%)] × SP.

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price can also be determined from Marked Price after allowing a discount: SP = MP × [(100 − Discount%) ÷ 100].

Successive Profit/Loss

For successive changes of x% and y%, the net percentage change is given by the effective percentage formula: Net % = x + y + (x × y) ÷ 100.

Given:

4% of x = 108

Formula used:

Percentage formula: $\text{Percentage} = \frac{\text{Part}}{\text{Whole}} \times 100$

Calculation:

4% of x = 108

⇒ $\frac{4}{100} \times x = 108$

⇒ $\frac{4x}{100} = 108$

⇒ $\frac{x}{25} = 108$

⇒ x = 108 × 25

⇒ x = 2700

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Shortcut Trick Effective discount formula: D = x + y − (x × y) ÷ 100. Comparing the total sum (x + y) for all options: Option 1 (20%), Option 2 (16%), Option 3 (10%), Option 4 (19%). Option 1 has the highest sum, so it naturally provides the maximum effective discount. Effective discount for Option 1 = 10 + 10 − (10 × 10) ÷ 100 = 19%. Effective discount for Option 4 = 8 + 11 − (8 × 11) ÷ 100 = 18.12%. ∴ The correct answer is Two successive discounts of 10% each.

Alternate Method Given: Four different successive discount schemes to compare. Formula Used: Effective Discount = x + y − (x × y) ÷ 100

Effective Discount Comparison

10% & 10%

19.00%

8% & 8%

15.36%

5% & 5%

9.75%

8% & 11%

18.12%

Calculations: ⇒ Scheme 1 effective discount = 10 + 10 − (10 × 10) ÷ 100 = 20 − 1 = 19% ⇒ Scheme 2 effective discount = 8 + 8 − (8 × 8) ÷ 100 = 16 − 0.64 = 15.36% ⇒ Scheme 3 effective discount = 5 + 5 − (5 × 5) ÷ 100 = 10 − 0.25 = 9.75% ⇒ Scheme 4 effective discount = 8 + 11 − (8 × 11) ÷ 100 = 19 − 0.88 = 18.12% ⇒ Comparing all the calculated effective discounts: 19% > 18.12% > 15.36% > 9.75% ⇒ Scheme 1 provides the highest effective discount. ∴ The correct answer is Two successive discounts of 10% each.

Additional Information Successive Discount Formula When two consecutive discounts of x% and y% are applied on a product, the effective single discount is always given by: D = x + y − (x × y) ÷ 100. Comparing Discounts with the Same Sum If two different pairs of successive discounts add up to the same total sum, the pair with the maximum difference between the two percentage values always provides the highest effective discount to the customer. Marked Price and Selling Price Discount is fundamentally always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). The final Selling Price (SP) after an effective discount of D% is calculated as: SP = MP × (100 − D) ÷ 100. Buy X Get Y Free This is another popular promotional discount scheme. The effective discount percentage here is calculated simply as: Discount % = (Free Items ÷ Total Items) × 100.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence refers to an action completed over two hundred years ago, which requires the past tense construction.
• The correct phrase is "came down from that mountain valley," which aligns with the context and maintains grammatical accuracy.
• Using "had been coming down onto" introduces unnecessary complexity and alters the meaning.
• The phrase "comes down into this" is incorrect because it uses the present tense, which does not fit the timeline of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct substitution is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Over two hundred years ago, early in the eighteenth century, our ancestors came down from that mountain valley to seek fame and fortune in the rich plains below."

 

Additional Information

• No substitution required – This option would be correct if the original sentence was grammatically accurate, but it is not.
• Option 1: "comes down into this" – This option is incorrect as it changes the tense to present, which is inconsistent with the timeline of the sentence.
• Option 4: "had been coming down onto" – This option is incorrect as it unnecessarily complicates the sentence and alters the meaning.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "Idle" means not active, not in use, or without purpose. (निष्क्रिय)
• Example: The factory remained idle due to a lack of raw materials.
• "Active" refers to being engaged in action, movement, or participation. It indicates energy and involvement. (सक्रिय)
• Example: She leads an active lifestyle, participating in sports and outdoor activities.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Idle' is 'Active'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Rude (असभ्य): Showing a lack of respect or courtesy.
• Example: His rude comments offended everyone at the meeting.
• Brave (साहसी): Showing courage and a willingness to face danger or challenges.
• Example: The brave firefighter rescued the child from the burning building.
• Lucky (भाग्यशाली): Having good fortune or success by chance.
• Example: She was lucky to win the lottery on her first attempt.

The correct answer is 'felt free'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'felt free' is the correct collocation in this context, as it aligns with the grammatical structure of the sentence.
• The sentence indicates a past action or state experienced by the residents, so the past tense form 'felt' is appropriate.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The residents felt free now to just go about their lives."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "has felt free" is incorrect because the use of the present perfect tense is unnecessary here.
• Option 2: "has been felt freed" is incorrect because it is not a valid grammatical construct.
• Option 4: "feel freed" is incorrect because it improperly combines present tense and passive voice.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Iminent'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Imminent'.
• The word 'Imminent' is an adjective which means 'about to happen'. (निकट)
• For Example -
• The storm is imminent, and preparations must be made.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Iminent'.

Additional Information

Let’s understand the meanings of the other words -

• Dinner - the main meal of the day, typically eaten in the evening (रात का भोजन)
• Exuberant - filled with or characterized by a lively energy and excitement (उल्लासपूर्ण)
• Colloquial - used in ordinary or familiar conversation; not formal or literary (बोलचाल की भाषा)

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The original sentence contains the phrase "can be source from," which is grammatically incorrect. The word "source" should be in its past participle form "sourced" to align with the auxiliary verb "be" used in the passive voice.
• The correct phrase is "can be sourced from," which ensures proper verb agreement and grammatical correctness.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not adhere to the appropriate grammatical structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Alternative animal feeds can be sourced from byproducts, waste streams or novel crops; they are all designed to facilitate more sustainable agriculture."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "can sourced from" – This option is incorrect as it omits the auxiliary verb "be" required in the passive voice.
• Option 3: "can be sourced along" – This option is incorrect as "along" does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Option 4: "can be sourced near" – This option is incorrect as "near" is contextually inappropriate in this sentence.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence "She soon will finish the project" has an incorrect placement of the adverb "soon."
• Adverbs like "soon" usually come after auxiliary verbs (e.g., "will").
• The correct order should be "She will soon finish the project."
• This ensures grammatical correctness and maintains clarity in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "She will soon finish the project."

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Ally).

Key Points

• The word "Adversary" means an opponent or enemy in a contest, conflict, or dispute. (प्रतिद्वंद्वी या शत्रु)
• Example: In the chess match, he carefully studied his adversary's strategy to gain the upper hand.
• "Ally" refers to someone who supports or cooperates with another person, group, or nation, especially during a conflict or struggle. (मित्र, सहयोगी)
• Example: During the war, the two countries became allies to defeat a common enemy.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'adversary' is 'ally'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Ally).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Enemy (शत्रु): A person who is actively opposed or hostile to someone or something.
• Example: The two nations were enemies for years before they signed a peace treaty.
• Competitor (प्रतिद्वंद्वी): A person or entity that competes with another in a contest or market.
• Example: The company has many competitors in the tech industry.
• Rival (प्रतिस्पर्धी): A person or thing competing with another for the same objective or superiority.
• Example: The two schools have been rivals in athletics for decades.

The correct answer is: Robust.

Key Points

• The word "Feeble" means weak, lacking physical strength or vigor, often due to age or illness. (कमज़ोर)
• Example: After recovering from the illness, he still felt feeble and needed rest.
• "Robust" refers to something strong and healthy, full of vigor, and able to withstand challenges. (मज़बूत)
• Example: The robust economy was able to recover quickly after the recession.
• Since "robust" is the direct antonym of "feeble," it is the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Robust.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Vulnerable (संवेदनशील): Exposed to the possibility of being harmed or attacked.
• Example: The fortress was vulnerable to enemy attacks due to its poor defenses.
• Spindly (पतला-दुबला): Thin and weak in appearance, lacking strength.
• Example: The spindly branches of the tree bent under the weight of the snow.
• Bungling (अक्षम): Clumsy or incompetent in handling tasks.
• Example: His bungling efforts to fix the machine only made the problem worse.

The correct answer is: Dynamic.

Key Points

• The word "Lethargic" refers to a state of being sluggish, drowsy, or lacking energy or enthusiasm. (सुस्त)
• Example: After a long day of work, he felt too lethargic to go out for dinner.
• "Dynamic" means characterized by constant change, activity, or progress; full of energy and new ideas. (गतिशील/सक्रिय)
• Example: She is a dynamic leader who constantly motivates her team to achieve their goals.
• Hence, the antonym of "Lethargic" is "Dynamic".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dynamic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Sluggish (सुस्त): Lacking energy or alertness.
• Example: The hot weather made everyone feel sluggish and unwilling to work.
• Sleepy (नींद से भरा हुआ): Feeling drowsy or ready to fall asleep.
• Example: After the heavy lunch, he felt sleepy and decided to take a nap.
• Dull (मंद/नीरस): Lacking brightness, sharpness, or excitement.
• Example: The lecture was so dull that many students started to lose focus.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'continuos'.

• The correct spelling would be 'continuous'.
• The word 'continuous' is an adjective which means 'forming an unbroken whole; without interruption'. (निरंतर)
• For Example -
• The company strives for continuous improvement in the quality of its products.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'continuous'.

The correct answer is 'contentious'.

 

Key Points

• The word "contentious" means likely to cause disagreement or argument. (विवादास्पद)
• In the given sentence, the proposal's nature resulted in extensive discussions and debates, which aligns perfectly with the meaning of "contentious."
• The other options: "simplistic," "agreeable," and "transparent" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: The contentious nature of the proposal led to extensive discussions and debates among the committee members.

Additional Information

• Simplistic (सरल): means treating complex issues in an overly simplified manner.
• Agreeable (सुखद): means being pleasant or acceptable.
• Transparent (पारदर्शी): means being open and easily understood.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The adverb "brightly" is incorrectly used in the sentence. It is modifying the verb "Elizabeth accepted," which is not the intended meaning.
• The adverb should reflect the manner in which the award was accepted, not describe Elizabeth herself.
• The sentence would be clearer and more grammatically correct if "brightly" were replaced by an appropriate adverb like "graciously" or "happily."
• Thus, the error is located in part 3 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Elizabeth graciously accepted the award given by the President."

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. 'turning a blind eye'.

Key Points

• The idiom "turning a blind eye" means to pretend not to notice something bad happening, or to deliberately ignore something. (अनदेखी करना / नज़रअंदाज करना)
• Example: The principal was accused of turning a blind eye to bullying in the school.
• "Ignoring problems intentionally" means to deliberately overlook or disregard issues. (समस्याओं को जानबूझकर नज़रअंदाज करना)
• Example: He was known for ignoring problems intentionally rather than addressing them directly.
• Hence, the idiom 'turning a blind eye' aptly substitutes the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is: turning a blind eye.

Additional Information

• Turning point (टर्निंग पॉइंट): A time at which a decisive change in a situation occurs.
• Example: The invention of the internet was a turning point in modern history.
• Turning a leaf (नया पन्ना पलटना): This could mean starting fresh or making a significant change in behavior.
• Example: He decided to turn a new leaf and start a healthy lifestyle.
• Turning a corner (कोने से मुड़ना): To pass a critical point in a process or situation and begin to improve.
• Example: After months of hard work, the company is finally turning a corner.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Your friend wants you to confront the consequences or accept responsibility for your actions .

Key Points

• The idiom "face the music" means to confront and deal with the unpleasant consequences of one's actions. (अपने कार्यों के अप्रिय परिणामों का सामना करना)
• This idiom is typically used in a context where someone needs to take responsibility for something they have done wrong.
• Example: After hiding the truth for so long, he finally decided to face the music and tell his parents what really happened.
• The other options do not accurately represent this meaning and would not fit the context of dealing with responsibility for one's actions.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Your friend wants you to confront the consequences or accept responsibility for your actions'.

The correct answer is: Backward.

Key Points

• The word "Forward" means moving ahead or towards a direction that is in front of you; progressing or advancing. (आगे बढ़ना)
• Example: The company is moving forward with its plans to expand internationally.
• "Backward" refers to moving in the opposite direction from forward; it signifies regression or moving to a previous state. (पीछे की ओर)
• Example: After the economic crisis, the country took a step backward in terms of development.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'Forward' is 'Backward'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Backward.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Mean (दुष्ट): Refers to someone who is unkind or malicious.
• Example: She said mean things about her coworkers behind their backs.
• Leading (अग्रणी): Refers to being in a position of leadership or being at the forefront.
• Example: He is a leading expert in environmental science.
• Wise (बुद्धिमान): Refers to having knowledge, experience, and good judgment.
• Example: The wise old man shared his life experiences with us.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• The blank requires a word that fits the context of the sentence and aligns with the meaning being conveyed.
• Among the options provided, "major" is the most appropriate as it highlights the significance or seriousness of the topic being discussed.
• Other options such as "different", "cautious", "rare" do not fit the context as they do not emphasize the magnitude or importance.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Additional Information

• Different (अलग): "Different" does not convey the seriousness or magnitude required in the context.
• Cautious (सावधान): "Cautious" implies being careful, which does not fit the meaning of the sentence.
• Rare (दुर्लभ): "Rare" means uncommon, which does not align with the context of highlighting the significance or seriousness of the topic.

The correct answer is 'towards'.

 

Key Points

• The blank No. 2 in the passage refers to the movement or direction in relation to the forest fire context.
• The word "towards" indicates a direction or movement, which fits the sentence logically and contextually.
• Other options such as "around," "across," and "through" do not convey the intended meaning in this specific context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

• Around (चारों ओर): "Around" indicates surrounding something, which is not the intended meaning in this context.
• Across (पार): "Across" means from one side to another, which does not fit the sentence logically.
• Through (माध्यम से): "Through" implies passing within something, which is not appropriate for the sentence.

The correct answer is 'remarkable'.

 

Key Points

• The context emphasizes the extraordinary nature of the subject being described.
• The word "remarkable" conveys something that is worthy of attention or extraordinary, which aligns well with the context.
• The other options like "fancy", "sober", and "elevated" do not convey the intended meaning effectively in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Additional Information

• Fancy (शानदार): While "fancy" may suggest something elaborate or decorative, it does not fit the intended meaning of extraordinary or noteworthy here.
• Sober (गंभीर): "Sober" refers to seriousness or moderation, which is not relevant in this context.
• Elevated (उन्नत): "Elevated" means raised or lofty but does not align well with the context.

The correct answer is 'primary'.

 

Key Points

• The blank No. 4 requires a word that aligns with the context of being "most important or fundamental."
• The term "primary" fits perfectly as it signifies something that is of utmost importance or priority.
• "Neutral", "Hard", and "Internal" do not match the required meaning in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Additional Information

• Neutral: It implies a state of being impartial or not taking sides, which does not fit the context.
• Hard: It refers to something difficult or solid, which does not align with the intended meaning.
• Internal: It implies something within or inside, which is not relevant to the context of importance or priority.

The correct answer is 'practical'.

 

Key Points

• The blank No. 5 in the passage requires a word that aligns with the context of forest vulnerability to fires.
• The word 'practical' fits well in this context as it reflects the reasoning regarding the vulnerability of forests.
• Other options such as 'neutral', 'competent', and 'harmless' do not align with the given context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

• Neutral: "Neutral" means impartial or not aligned with any side, which does not fit the context of forest vulnerability.
• Competent: "Competent" means having the ability or skill to do something, which does not relate to vulnerability.
• Harmless: "Harmless" means not causing any damage, which contradicts the idea of vulnerability to fire.

'मैं घर की सफाई करूंगा और तब स्नान करूंगा।' इस वाक्य के लिए उचित सरल वाक्य होगा- मैं घर की सफाई कर स्नान करूँगा |

Key Points

• इस वाक्य में, "मैं घर की सफाई करूंगा" और "तब स्नान करूंगा" दोनों ही पूर्ण वाक्य हैं और एक-दूसरे से स्वतंत्र हैं।
• "और" शब्द इन दोनों वाक्यों को जोड़ता है, जिससे यह एक संयुक्त वाक्य बन जाता है।
• इस वाक्य के लिए एक उचित सरल वाक्य है "मैं घर की सफाई कर स्नान करूँगा।

Important Pointsरचना के आधार पर वाक्य भेद -

• रचना के आधार पर वाक्य तीन प्रकार के होते हैं।
• सरल वाक्य
• मिश्रित वाक्य
• संयुक्त वाक्य

Additional Information 

उचित विलोम शब्द होगा - निर्गुण

Key Points

• 'सगुण' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'निर्गुण' होगा।
• 'सगुण' का अर्थ- ​गुणों के साथ या गुणों से युक्त।
• 'निर्गुण' का अर्थ- ​गुणों से रहित या निराकार, विगुण।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information    कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

'मर्त्य' शब्द के लिए किस एक वाक्य में उचित विलोम का प्रयोग हुआ है - महात्मा गाँधी अपने कार्यों के लिए अमर हैं।

Key Points

• वाक्य - महात्मा गाँधी अपने कार्यों के लिए अमर हैं।
• 'मर्त्य' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'अमर' होगा।
• 'मर्त्य' का अर्थ- ​नश्वर या मृत्यु को प्राप्त होने वाला।
• 'अमर' का अर्थ- ​जिसका कभी अंत, क्षय या नाश न हो।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

• जीवों पर दया करो।
• पाँच तत्वों में एक महत्वपूर्ण तत्व अग्नि भी है।
• जीवन में जो प्रकाशित करे, वही महान है।

Additional Information 

 कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - निरपराधी को

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - निरपराधी को दण्ड दिया जाना वास्तव में क़ानून का मज़ाक है।
• दिए गये वाक्य में वर्तनी प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'निरपराधी को' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'निरपराध को' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - निरपराध को दण्ड दिया जाना वास्तव में क़ानून का मज़ाक है।

Additional Information 

 वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ -