SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 19 Feb, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) .

A is sitting to the immediate right of F and the immediate left of C.

G is sitting to the immediate right of C and the immediate left of E.

D is sitting to the immediate left of F and the immediate right of B.

The final arrangement is 

E is sitting immediate left of B. 

Hence, the correct answer is E.

The table shows the alphabetical order number -

Hence, the correct answer is OMQ.

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

 

Given expression :

‘P × Q – R ÷ S + T’

Hence, the correct answer is husband's brother's wife.

The logic followed here is :-

Logic: 1st letter - 3, 2nd letter - 3, 3rd letter - 4 and 4th letter- 4 

For, RGLA → ODHW

R - 3 → O, G - 3 → D, L - 4 → H, A - 4 → W

For, CTZW → ZQVS

C - 3 → Z, T - 3 → Q, Z - 4 → V, W - 4 → S

Similarly,

NBUP → ?

N - 3 → K, B - 3 → Y, U - 4 → Q, P - 4 → L

So, NBUP is related to KYQL

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is PUL.

The option in which the given figure is embedded when rotation is not allowed is shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is Option C.

Given: Doctors, Men, Tables

 Some doctors are men. Tables are separate things.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

According to the given figure:

The figure Appear when it is opened as follows:

Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

Logic: If two dice are shown with two common faces in the same relative position, then the face opposite to the remaining face is the opposite of give face.

So, the opposite of U is V.

Given: _ N R M Q _ O J N H _ G K E I _ H B F _

Now, we check each options.

 SKMDC (Not Follow)

S N / R M / Q K / O J / N H / M G / K E / I D / H B / F C

SJMFC (Not Follow)​

S N / R M / Q J / O J / N H / M G / K E / I F / H B / F C

 TJLFA (Not Follow)​

T N / R M / Q J / O J / N H / L G / K E / I F / H B / F A

 TKLDA (Follow)​

T N / R M / Q K / O J / N H / L G / K E / I D / H B / F A

So, the following pattern is: - 6 and - 5 alternately

Thus, correct option is (2).

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given: 990, 1000, 1011, 1023, 1036, ?​​

Logic: Difference is increasing by 1 starting from 10.

990 + 10 = 1000

1000 + 11 = 1011

1011 + 12 = 1023

1023 + 13 = 1036

1036 + 14 = 1050

So, the missing term is 1050.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Given: 87, 91, 94, 98, 101, ?​​

Logic: Difference between number is + 4 and + 3 alternately.

87 + 4 = 91

91 + 3 = 94

94 + 4 = 98

98 + 3 = 101

101 + 4 = 105

So, the missing term is 105.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Logic: 1st letter - 2, 2nd letter - 2 and 3rd number - 2 

For, LY 15 → JW 13

L - 2 → J, Y - 2 → W, 15 - 2 → 13

For, DW 25 → BU 23

D - 2 → B, W - 2 → U, 25 - 2 → 23

Similarly,

MR 35 → ?

M - 2 → K, R - 2 → P, 35 - 2 → 33

So, MR 35 is related to KP 33.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Given: 

G, H, I, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table(but not necessarily in the same order).

J sits third to the left of G.

M sits second to the left of K.

Only G sits between H and M.

Lis not an immediate neighbour of J.

The final arrangemnt is 

H and G is sitting between I and M when counted from the right of I.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

I. Some pizzas are slippers. (False, there is no direct relation between pizzas and slippers).

II. Some rats are slippers. (False, there is no direct relation between rats and slippers).

Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is option C .

Given Equation - 40 + 24 − 6 × 12 ÷ 3 = ?

After ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged

New equation: 40 × 24 ÷ 6 + 12 - 3 = ?

40 × 4 + 12 - 3 = ?

160 + 12 - 3 = ?

172 - 3 = ?

? = 169

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

The table is alphabets place value:

 In a certain code language, 'PVQCB' is coded as '4' and 'MOZWITZ' is coded as '6'.

Logic: Number of letters - 1 = Number

For, PVQCB → 4

Number of letters = 5

5 - 1 = 4

For, MOZWITZ → 6

Number of letters = 7

7 - 1 = 6

Similarly,

RPAW → ?

Number of letters = 4

4 - 1 = 3

So, RPAW is coded as 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Given Word- C R E A T I O N S

After arranging the letters of the given word as they appear in the English alphabet,

A C E I N O R S T

Only 'E' remains at the same position after rearrangement.

Hence, only one letter will remain unchanged.

Logic: Direct coding is given. (based on the alphabet's positional value)

For, NANDA → 14-1-14-4-1

N → 14, A → 1, N → 14, D → 4, A → 1

For, GOPAL → 7-15-16-1-12

G → 7, O → 15, P → 16, A → 1, L → 12

Similarly,

BISWAS ​→ ?

B → 2, I ​→ 9, S → 19, W → 23, A → 1, S → 19

So, BISWAS is coded as 2-9-19-23-1-19.

The correct answer is Chlorine.

Key Points

• Johann Wolfgang Döbereiner, a German chemist, introduced the concept of triads in 1817, where he grouped elements with similar properties into sets of three.
• Döbereiner identified that the properties of liquid Bromine lie between those of Chlorine (gas) and solid Iodine in terms of atomic mass and chemical behavior.
• In Döbereiner's triad, the atomic mass of Bromine (approximately 80) is the arithmetic mean of the atomic masses of Chlorine (~35.5) and Iodine (~127).
• This observation marked one of the earliest attempts to classify elements based on their chemical properties and atomic masses.
• The grouping of Chlorine, Bromine, and Iodine into a triad showed the periodic nature of chemical elements, forming the foundation for the modern periodic table.

Additional Information

• Johann Wolfgang Döbereiner: He was a German chemist who first attempted to classify elements into groups with similar properties, laying the groundwork for the periodic classification of elements.
• Triads: Döbereiner's triads are groups of three elements with similar chemical properties, where the atomic mass of the middle element is approximately the average of the other two.
• Halogens: Chlorine, Bromine, and Iodine belong to the Halogen group (Group 17) in the periodic table. They are highly reactive non-metals and form salts when combined with metals.
• Periodic Law: The work of Döbereiner and other scientists like Mendeleev led to the development of the periodic law, which states that the properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.
• Modern Periodic Table: The periodic table organizes elements based on increasing atomic number, with elements in the same group exhibiting similar properties due to having the same number of valence electrons.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, Bihar recorded the lowest female literacy rate at 51.5%.
• The female literacy rate in Bihar was significantly lower compared to the national average of 65.46%.
• Lack of educational infrastructure and socio-economic factors contributed to the low literacy rate in Bihar.
• Patriarchal norms and gender disparities played a major role in limiting educational opportunities for women in the state.
• Bihar's overall literacy rate stood at 61.8%, ranking it among the least literate states in India as per the 2011 Census.

Additional Information

• Female Literacy Rate in India:
• The national average female literacy rate in India, as per Census 2011, was 65.46%.
• Kerala recorded the highest female literacy rate at 92.07%.
• Female literacy is a critical metric in measuring gender equality and empowerment.
• Challenges in Bihar:
• Socio-economic barriers, early marriages, and limited access to schools contribute to low female literacy.
• Government initiatives like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao aim to improve female education.
• Impact of Literacy:
• Higher literacy rates among women lead to improved socio-economic conditions, better health outcomes, and reduced gender disparity.
• Female literacy is directly linked to lower infant mortality rates and higher family income.
• Government Efforts:
• Programs like Saakshar Bharat Mission have been implemented to promote adult literacy, especially among women.
• The Indian government emphasizes universal primary education through schemes like Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Villu Pattu is a traditional folk art form of Tamil Nadu, where performers narrate stories through songs.
• The term “Villu” refers to a bow, which is used as the primary musical instrument in this art form.
• It is primarily performed by a group of musicians and storytellers who sing, play the bow, and enact stories with a rhythmic tune.
• The stories narrated often revolve around religious epics, local folklore, and moral tales.
• This art form is known for its simplicity and its ability to convey messages in an engaging and entertaining manner.

Additional Information

• Villu (bow): The bow used in Villu Pattu is a simple, large bow-like instrument. It is struck with a wooden stick to produce rhythmic sounds.
• Religious Connection: Villu Pattu is often performed in temples and during festivals, as the stories narrated are usually based on Hindu mythology and deities.
• Performance Style: The lead singer narrates the story, supported by a group that provides music and rhythmic beats. The performance often includes humor and interaction with the audience.
• Historical Significance: Villu Pattu has been a part of Tamil Nadu’s cultural heritage for centuries and serves as a medium of storytelling and preserving traditions.
• Decline and Revival: While this art form faced decline due to modern entertainment, efforts have been made by cultural organizations and the government to revive and preserve Villu Pattu.

The correct answer is Food grains.

Key Points

• Consumer goods are products purchased by individuals for personal use or consumption rather than for manufacturing or resale.
• Food grains, such as rice, wheat, and pulses, are classified as consumer goods since they are directly consumed by people.
• Consumer goods are different from capital goods, which are used in the production process (e.g., machinery, tools).
• Examples of consumer goods include food items, clothing, beverages, and household products.
• Food grains are essential items for daily sustenance and are categorized under non-durable consumer goods due to their short lifespan.

Additional Information

• Types of Consumer Goods: Consumer goods are broadly classified into durable goods (e.g., appliances, furniture), non-durable goods (e.g., food, beverages), and services (e.g., haircut, healthcare).
• Capital Goods: These are goods used to produce other goods and services, such as machinery, tools, and equipment. They are not directly consumed by end users.
• Intermediate Goods: These are goods used as inputs in the production of other goods, such as raw materials and semi-finished products.
• Economic Importance: The production and consumption of consumer goods drive economic growth, influence market trends, and reflect the standard of living in a society.
• Non-Durable Goods: These are goods that are consumed quickly or have a short lifespan, such as food, beverages, and toiletries.

The correct answer is PM VIKAS.

Key Points

• PM VIKAS stands for Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman, a scheme introduced in the Union Budget 2023-24.
• The scheme aims to benefit traditional artisans and craftspeople, enhancing their skills and providing financial support.
• PM VIKAS will focus on sectors such as handicrafts, handlooms, and other traditional crafts to promote entrepreneurship and employment generation.
• The program will ensure access to advanced tools, training, and modern technology to improve productivity and competitiveness.
• It seeks to preserve India’s rich cultural heritage and traditional art forms by supporting skilled artisans.

Additional Information

• Key Features of PM VIKAS:
• Focuses on providing financial assistance through loans and subsidies.
• Includes skill upgradation programs to improve artisans' technical capabilities.
• Aims at integration of artisans into the formal economy by providing access to credit and markets.
• Importance of Traditional Crafts:
• India’s handicraft and handloom sector is a major contributor to rural employment and export earnings.
• Preserving traditional crafts plays a crucial role in maintaining India’s cultural identity.
• Government Initiatives for Artisans:
• Previous schemes like Ambedkar Hastshilp Vikas Yojana (AHVY) focused on clusters of artisans.
• Handloom Mark Scheme ensures quality and authenticity of handloom products.
• Other initiatives include Skill India and National Handicrafts Development Programme (NHDP).
• Economic Impact:
• Reviving traditional crafts can lead to sustainable livelihood opportunities.
• Encourages entrepreneurship and reduces reliance on traditional employment sectors.
• Boosts exports and strengthens India’s position as a global hub for handicrafts.

The correct answer is Losar Festival.

Key Points

• Losar Festival is celebrated by the Monpas, a major tribal community in Arunachal Pradesh, marking the Tibetan New Year.
• The festival usually occurs in February or March and lasts for 15 days.
• It involves vibrant rituals, including prayers, dances, and cultural performances, symbolizing purification and welcoming prosperity.
• Losar signifies the end of the harvest season and the arrival of spring.
• The Monpa tribe celebrates this festival with traditional meals, rituals, and the hoisting of religious flags as an offering to deities.

Additional Information

• Monpa Tribe:
• The Monpas are one of the most prominent ethnic groups in Arunachal Pradesh, primarily residing in the Tawang and West Kameng districts.
• They follow Tibetan Buddhism and have a rich cultural heritage influenced by their religion and traditions.
• Monpa architecture, language, and clothing reflect Tibetan cultural elements.
• Losar Celebration:
• Losar is a significant festival not only for the Monpas but also for Tibetan Buddhists globally.
• Traditional dishes like Guthuk (noodle soup) are served, symbolizing purification and removing negativity.
• Ceremonial dances and yak processions are performed during the festival.
• Buddhism in Arunachal Pradesh:
• Buddhism plays a central role in the spiritual life of the Monpas, with major monasteries like Tawang Monastery being key religious centers.
• The teachings of Mahayana Buddhism are predominant among the Monpa community.
• Other Tribal Festivals in Arunachal Pradesh:
• Nyokum (celebrated by the Nyishi tribe), Solung (by the Adi tribe), and Siang River Festival are other prominent cultural events in the state.
• These festivals reflect the diverse tribal cultures and traditions of Arunachal Pradesh.

The correct answer is Gandhi and Ambedkar.

Key Points

• The Poona Pact was signed on 24th September 1932, between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
• It was an agreement to resolve the issue of separate electorates for the Depressed Classes in British India.
• The pact ensured reserved seats for the Depressed Classes in provincial legislatures but within the general electorate framework.
• Under the pact, 148 seats were reserved for the Depressed Classes in provincial legislatures.
• The agreement symbolized Gandhi's efforts to maintain the unity of Hindus while addressing the concerns of the marginalized communities.

Additional Information

• Separate Electorates: This was a provision in British India allowing certain groups to vote for their own representatives separately, creating divisions in society.
• Depressed Classes: A term used during British India to refer to marginalized communities, primarily Dalits, who faced social discrimination.
• Round Table Conferences: These were a series of conferences (1930-1932) held by the British government to discuss constitutional reforms in India, where the issue of separate electorates arose prominently.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's Role: As a leader of the Depressed Classes, Ambedkar initially supported separate electorates but agreed to the Poona Pact under significant pressure.
• Gandhi's Perspective: Gandhi opposed separate electorates, believing they would divide Hindu society and weaken India's fight against British colonial rule.

The correct answer is Western Ganges plains.

Key Points

• The Maukharis were initially subordinate rulers under the Gupta Empire but later established their own independent kingdom.
• Their kingdom was primarily located in the Western Ganges plains, covering parts of present-day Uttar Pradesh.
• Their capital was located at Kannauj, which became a prominent political and cultural center during their reign.
• They played a significant role in the post-Gupta period by acting as a buffer state against external invasions from the west and northwest.

Additional Information

• Origin of the Maukharis: The Maukharis were originally feudatories or tributary rulers under the Gupta Empire before asserting independence in the 6th century.
• Historical Context: They emerged during the period of political fragmentation following the decline of the Gupta Empire, marking the beginning of regional kingdoms in northern India.
• Kannauj's Importance: Kannauj, their capital, remained a significant center of power in northern India even after the decline of the Maukhari dynasty.
• Relation with Other Dynasties: The Maukharis were contemporaries and rivals of the Pushyabhuti dynasty of Thanesar, which eventually gave rise to the Harsha Empire.
• Decline: The Maukhari dynasty eventually lost prominence, paving the way for the rise of the Pushyabhutis under Harsha in the early 7th century.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• The Governor of a state is responsible for deciding on the disqualifications of members of the State Legislature under Article 192 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Governor acts in consultation with the Election Commission of India while making a decision on the disqualification of a legislator.
• This power of the Governor applies to disqualifications under Article 191 of the Constitution, which specifies grounds such as holding an office of profit, unsound mind, insolvency, or disqualification under any law made by Parliament.
• The Governor's decision is binding, but it must be based on the opinion of the Election Commission, which ensures an impartial and fair process.
• The Constitution ensures that the process of disqualification is carried out independently, avoiding any influence from the executive branch of the state government.

Additional Information

• Article 192: This article of the Indian Constitution deals with the decision on questions regarding disqualifications of members of the State Legislature by the Governor in consultation with the Election Commission.
• Article 191: It specifies the grounds for disqualification for membership in the State Legislature, including holding an office of profit, unsound mind, insolvency, or being disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
• Election Commission of India (ECI): The ECI is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India. Its opinion in the disqualification process ensures neutrality and fairness.
• Governor's Role: As the constitutional head of the state, the Governor performs functions as outlined by the Constitution, including addressing matters of disqualification of legislators.
• Checks and Balances: The involvement of the Election Commission ensures that the process of disqualification is conducted impartially and remains free from political interference.

The correct answer is Mewati gharana.

Key Points

• Rattan Mohan Sharma is a renowned classical vocalist associated with the Mewati gharana, which is one of the prominent musical gharanas of Indian classical music.
• The Mewati gharana is known for its emphasis on devotional music, including Bhajans and Haveli Sangeet.
• Rattan Mohan Sharma is the nephew of Pandit Jasraj, one of the most celebrated exponents of the Mewati gharana.
• He has performed extensively across India and abroad, showcasing the unique style and intricate techniques of the Mewati gharana.
• Rattan Mohan Sharma is also known for his expertise in blending classical music with contemporary styles, making his performances accessible to diverse audiences.

Additional Information

• Mewati Gharana:
• Founded by Ustad Ghagge Nazir Khan, the Mewati gharana has its roots in the Khayal tradition of Indian classical music.
• It incorporates elements of spiritual and devotional music, setting it apart from other gharanas.
• The gharana places significant focus on clarity in pronunciation and melodic expression during performances.
• Pandit Jasraj:
• A legendary vocalist of the Mewati gharana, Pandit Jasraj popularized the gharana worldwide through his soulful renditions of classical and semi-classical compositions.
• His contributions include blending classical music with devotional themes and pioneering new forms of presentation.
• Gharana System:
• In Indian classical music, gharanas are schools or styles of music that have evolved over generations.
• Each gharana has its own unique approach to teaching, performance, and composition.
• Prominent gharanas include Agra, Kirana, Jaipur-Atrauli, and Mewati, among others.
• Haveli Sangeet:
• Haveli Sangeet is a style of devotional music traditionally sung in temples and havelis, with roots in Vaishnavite traditions.
• The Mewati gharana has preserved and promoted this genre through its performances.

The correct answer is Hinduism.

Key Points

• Hinduism is the largest religion in Nepal, constituting approximately 81.3% of the population as per the latest census data.
• Nepal is the only Hindu kingdom in the world, and Hinduism has been deeply ingrained in the country's culture and traditions for centuries.
• The Pashupatinath Temple in Kathmandu is one of the most sacred Hindu shrines and attracts millions of devotees annually.
• Hindu festivals such as Dashain and Tihar are celebrated with great enthusiasm and form an integral part of Nepalese society.
• The constitution of Nepal recognizes the country as a secular state, but Hinduism remains highly influential in social and cultural spheres.

Additional Information

• Buddhism
• Buddhism is the second-largest religion in Nepal, constituting around 9% of the population.
• It originated in Nepal, with Lumbini being the birthplace of Lord Buddha, making it a significant pilgrimage site.
• Despite being the second-largest religion, Buddhist practices often blend with Hindu traditions in Nepal.
• Christianity
• Christianity constitutes a small percentage of the population, making up less than 2% of Nepal's population.
• The religion is growing steadily, with several churches established across the country.
• Islam
• Islam is practiced by a minority, comprising around 4.4% of Nepal’s population.
• Most of the Muslim population resides in the Terai region of Nepal.
• Secularism in Nepal
• The 2015 Constitution of Nepal declared Nepal a secular state, ensuring freedom of religion for all its citizens.
• Despite secularism, Hinduism continues to play a dominant role in the cultural and political landscape of Nepal.

The correct answer is 1976.

Key Points

• The first Winter Paralympic Games were held in Örnsköldsvik, Sweden, in the year 1976.
• The event featured athletes with physical disabilities competing in two disciplines: Alpine skiing and Cross-country skiing.
• These games marked the beginning of Winter Paralympic sports, expanding the Paralympic movement beyond summer competitions.
• A total of 16 nations participated in the 1976 Winter Paralympics.
• The event was originally known as the 1st Paralympic Winter Games, later officially recognized as part of the Paralympic Games.

Additional Information

• The Paralympic Games were first held in Rome in 1960, exclusively featuring summer sports.
• In the Winter Paralympics, Alpine skiing includes events such as slalom, giant slalom, and downhill skiing for athletes with disabilities.
• Cross-country skiing in the Paralympics involves athletes using specialized equipment such as sit-skis for mobility-impaired participants.
• The Paralympics are governed by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC), which oversees rules, classifications, and event standards.
• The Winter Paralympics have grown significantly over time, now featuring sports like para ice hockey and wheelchair curling in addition to skiing events.

The correct answer is Dendritic.

Key Points

• The drainage pattern of rivers originating from the Northern Plains is Dendritic.
• Dendritic drainage resembles the branches of a tree, where tributaries join the main river at acute angles.
• This pattern develops in regions with a homogeneous substratum where the river flows over flat terrain, such as the Northern Plains of India.
• Rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, and Brahmaputra exhibit dendritic drainage systems due to the plain topography and uniform rock structure.
• The dendritic pattern is one of the most common drainage systems globally and is indicative of stable geological conditions.

Additional Information

• Drainage Patterns:
• Trellis: Forms when tributaries join the main river at right angles, often in regions with alternating hard and soft rock layers.
• Radial: Develops when rivers flow outward from a central elevated point, such as a volcanic cone or dome.
• Centripetal: Occurs when rivers converge towards a central depression or basin.
• Northern Plains Rivers:
• Fed by Himalayan snowmelt, rainfall, and underground aquifers, ensuring perennial flow.
• Examples include major rivers like Ganga, Yamuna, Brahmaputra, and their tributaries.
• Geological Features:
• The Northern Plains are formed by the alluvial deposits of the Indo-Gangetic Basin.
• Flat terrain and fertile soil make this region suitable for dendritic drainage.
• Importance of Drainage Patterns:
• Drainage patterns provide insights into the topography, geological structure, and hydrological processes of a region.
• They influence agriculture, water resource management, and ecosystem stability.

The correct answer is Nalin Prabhat.

Key Points

• Nalin Prabhat, a senior Indian Police Service (IPS) officer, was appointed as the Special Director General of Jammu and Kashmir Police in August 2024.
• He belongs to the 1992 batch of the IPS from the Andhra Pradesh cadre.
• Nalin Prabhat has held significant positions in the past, including Inspector General of Police (IGP) in various capacities across multiple states.
• He is known for his expertise in counter-insurgency operations and extensive experience in tackling security challenges.
• His appointment comes at a crucial time to bolster the security and law enforcement mechanisms in the region.

Additional Information

• Jammu and Kashmir Police:
• The Jammu and Kashmir Police is responsible for maintaining law and order in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The force plays a crucial role in counter-terrorism operations and ensuring the safety of the region's citizens.
• Special Director General:
• The position of Special Director General is a high-ranking post in the Indian Police Service, reporting directly to the Director General of Police (DGP).
• The role often involves managing critical security and administrative operations within the police department.
• Counter-Insurgency Operations in J&K:
• Counter-insurgency operations are a major aspect of security in Jammu and Kashmir due to the region's history of militancy and cross-border terrorism.
• Such operations include intelligence gathering, neutralizing threats, and ensuring peace and stability in the area.
• Indian Police Service (IPS):
• The IPS is one of the All India Services of the Government of India responsible for law enforcement and public safety.
• IPS officers are recruited through the Civil Services Examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

• The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution under Article 51A.
• These duties were introduced based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was set up by the government in 1976.
• Fundamental Duties are applicable to all citizens of India and aim to promote a sense of responsibility and discipline among them.
• The Fundamental Duties are non-enforceable but serve as a moral obligation for citizens to uphold national values.
• Originally, there were 10 duties, and later, the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, added one more duty, raising the total to 11.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Context: Fundamental Duties are enshrined under Part IVA of the Indian Constitution and were inspired by the Constitution of the USSR.
• Purpose: These duties aim to foster patriotism and strengthen the unity and integrity of India.
• Key Duties: Some of the Fundamental Duties include respecting the national flag and anthem, cherishing India's heritage, protecting the environment, and striving for excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activities.
• Non-enforceable Nature: Unlike Fundamental Rights, these duties are non-justiciable, meaning no legal action can be taken for their non-compliance.
• Significance: Fundamental Duties complement Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy, ensuring a balance between individual rights and responsibilities.

The correct answer is Eyes.

Key Points

• Xerophthalmia is a medical condition affecting the eyes due to severe vitamin A deficiency.
• The condition is characterized by dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea, leading to potential vision loss if untreated.
• It is one of the major causes of preventable childhood blindness globally.
• Symptoms include night blindness, Bitot's spots (white, foamy spots on the conjunctiva), and corneal ulcers or keratomalacia.
• Vitamin A supplementation and dietary improvement can effectively prevent and treat xerophthalmia.

Additional Information

• Vitamin A: An essential nutrient for maintaining healthy vision, immune function, and cell growth.
• Night Blindness: One of the earliest signs of vitamin A deficiency, where individuals struggle to see in dim light.
• Bitot's Spots: A clinical sign of vitamin A deficiency, appearing as white or grayish patches on the conjunctiva.
• Keratomalacia: A severe form of xerophthalmia where the cornea becomes soft and opaque, leading to irreversible blindness.
• Sources of Vitamin A: Includes foods such as carrots, sweet potatoes, spinach, liver, and fortified dairy products.

The correct answer is Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth.

Key Points

• The Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012–2017) of India was themed "Faster, More Inclusive and Sustainable Growth."
• It aimed to achieve a growth rate of 8% GDP annually during the plan period.
• The plan emphasized reducing inequalities in income and opportunities while addressing environmental sustainability.
• It focused on sectors like health, education, infrastructure, and poverty alleviation.
• The Planning Commission of India, under the leadership of then Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, formulated this plan.

Additional Information

• Key Objectives of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan:
• Economic growth with a focus on reducing poverty and improving the quality of life for all citizens.
• Addressing regional disparities in development.
• Ensuring environmental sustainability through efficient use of natural resources.
• Inclusive Growth:
• The concept focuses on reducing inequality and ensuring economic benefits reach all sections of society.
• Special attention was given to marginalized groups, including women, Scheduled Castes (SCs), and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
• Key Challenges Highlighted:
• Addressing infrastructure gaps in sectors like energy, transportation, and water resources.
• Tackling issues related to unemployment, inflation, and inequality in the country.
• Environmental Sustainability:
• Promoted the adoption of renewable energy sources like solar and wind energy.
• Focused on sustainable agricultural practices to address food security.

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

• On 8 July 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi began a high-profile visit to Russia to strengthen bilateral relations and discuss strategic partnerships.
• India and Russia share a long-standing friendship and strategic partnership across various sectors, including defense, energy, trade, and space exploration.
• During the visit, discussions were focused on cooperation in areas such as civil nuclear energy, defense manufacturing, and regional stability.
• Russia is one of India's most important partners in the BRICS grouping and SCO (Shanghai Cooperation Organization).
• India and Russia have collaborated on various defense projects, including the BrahMos missile, and Russia remains one of the largest suppliers of defense equipment to India.

Additional Information

• Bilateral Trade: India and Russia aim to increase their bilateral trade to $30 billion by 2025, focusing on energy, pharmaceuticals, and defense.
• Defense Cooperation: Russia is a major supplier of military equipment to India, including fighter jets, submarines, and missile systems, contributing to India's defense capabilities.
• Energy Partnership: India imports crude oil from Russia and collaborates in the development of nuclear power plants, such as the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant.
• BRICS Grouping: Both nations are active members of BRICS, a grouping of emerging economies (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) aiming to enhance cooperation in global governance and economic development.
• Historical Ties: India and Russia have shared strong historical ties since the Soviet era, with Russia supporting India's industrialization and space programs in the early 20th century.

The correct answer is six.

Key Points

• In cricket, an over consists of six consecutive valid balls bowled by a single bowler.
• A valid ball refers to a delivery that is not declared a wide or no-ball by the umpire.
• An over ends after six valid deliveries, regardless of extras like wides or no-balls.
• The bowler must change ends after every over, and a different bowler typically takes over.
• The concept of six-ball overs is universally accepted in international cricket today.

Additional Information

• Historical Context: Earlier formats of cricket used four-ball or eight-ball overs in different countries, but six-ball overs became the standard in the 20th century.
• No-ball and Wide Rules: A no-ball or wide does not count as part of the six valid balls and requires the bowler to deliver an additional ball.
• Extras: Runs scored through wides, no-balls, leg byes, or byes during an over are considered extras and are added to the batting team's total.
• Bowling Strategy: Bowlers often strategize their deliveries within an over to optimize chances of dismissing the batsman or limiting scoring opportunities.
• Over Restrictions in Limited-Overs Cricket: In formats like One-Day Internationals (ODIs) or T20s, bowlers are restricted to a maximum number of overs per match (e.g., 10 overs in ODIs, 4 overs in T20s).

The correct answer is Mohiniyattam.

Key Points

• Bharati Shivaji is a renowned exponent of Mohiniyattam, a classical dance form from Kerala.
• Mohiniyattam is known for its graceful and feminine movements, which Bharati Shivaji has mastered and popularized globally.
• She has been honored with prestigious awards such as the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, Sahitya Kala Parishad Samman, and the Padma Shri for her contributions to this art form.
• Bharati Shivaji has authored books and conducted workshops to promote and preserve the heritage of Mohiniyattam.
• Her efforts have been instrumental in reviving the dance form and bringing it to the forefront of India's cultural scene.

Additional Information

• Mohiniyattam:
• Mohiniyattam is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating from Kerala.
• The term "Mohini" refers to a divine enchantress, and the dance is characterized by delicate, flowing movements.
• It typically follows the Lasya style, showcasing grace and elegance.
• The music accompanying Mohiniyattam is based on the Carnatic style, with instruments like the veena, mridangam, and edakka.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Award:
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi Award is India's highest recognition in the performing arts.
• It acknowledges exceptional contributions in the fields of music, dance, and drama.
• Recipients are selected by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, the National Academy for Music, Dance, and Drama.
• Padma Shri:
• The Padma Shri is the fourth highest civilian award in India.
• It is awarded for distinguished contributions in various fields, including art, literature, science, and public service.
• Bharati Shivaji received the Padma Shri for her dedication to Mohiniyattam.
• Kerala's Cultural Heritage:
• Kerala is home to several classical art forms, including Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, and Koodiyattam.
• Its dance forms often reflect themes of spirituality and mythology.
• Efforts to preserve these traditions have gained global recognition, attracting scholars and artists worldwide.

Shortcut Trick

Selling Price (SP) = 80% of Marked Price (MP)

SP = 0.8 × 950 = ₹760

Given, SP = 2.5 × Cost Price (CP)

⇒ 760 = 2.5 × CP

⇒ CP = 760 ÷ 2.5 = ₹304

∴ The correct answer is ₹304.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹950

Discount = 20%

Selling Price (SP) = 2.5 × Cost Price (CP)

Formula Used:

SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100

CP = ?

MP = 950

SP = 760

-20%

SP = 2.5 × CP

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 950 × (100 − 20) ÷ 100

⇒ SP = 950 × 80 ÷ 100

⇒ SP = 950 × 0.8

⇒ SP = ₹760

⇒ 2.5 × CP = 760

⇒ CP = 760 ÷ 2.5

⇒ CP = 7600 ÷ 25

⇒ CP = ₹304

∴ The correct answer is ₹304.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is an allowance given on the Marked Price (MP) of an article. The selling price after discount is given as SP = MP − Discount.

Profit & Loss Base Rule

Profit or Loss percentages are universally computed using the Cost Price (CP) as the base value unless a different condition is explicitly mentioned. Formula: SP = CP + Profit.

Mark-up Formula

Mark-up indicates how much the price has been raised above the cost price to determine the marked price. Mark-up amount = MP − CP.

Shortcut Trick

The required smallest number is the LCM of 48, 72, 16, and 15.

Since 16 is a factor of 48, we can completely ignore 16.

The LCM of 48 and 72 is clearly 144.

Now, we only need to find the LCM of 144 and 15.

LCM(144, 15) = 144 × 5 = 720.

∴ The correct answer is 720.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers: 48, 72, 16, and 15

Formula Used:

The smallest natural number divisible by a given set of numbers is their Least Common Multiple (LCM).

Calculations:

Prime factorisation of the given numbers:

⇒ 48 = 2⁴ × 3

⇒ 72 = 2³ × 3²

⇒ 16 = 2⁴

⇒ 15 = 3 × 5

Taking the highest power of each prime factor present (2, 3, and 5):

⇒ LCM = 2⁴ × 3² × 5

⇒ LCM = 16 × 9 × 5

⇒ LCM = 144 × 5

⇒ LCM = 720

∴ The correct answer is 720.

Additional Information

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The smallest positive integer that is perfectly divisible by each of the given numbers. It is obtained by multiplying the highest powers of all prime factors present.

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

The largest positive integer that divides each of the given numbers without leaving a remainder. It is obtained by multiplying the lowest powers of the common prime factors.

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are said to be co-prime if their HCF is 1. The LCM of two co-prime numbers is strictly the direct product of the two numbers.

Relation between LCM and HCF

For any two given numbers a and b, the product of their LCM and HCF is always equal to the product of the numbers: LCM × HCF = a × b.

Shortcut Trick

Let total distance = 960 km (a common multiple of 8, 60, and 40 for easy calculation).

Time for first 3/8th part = (3/8 × 960) ÷ 60 = 360 ÷ 60 = 6 hours.

Time for remaining 5/8th part = (5/8 × 960) ÷ 40 = 600 ÷ 40 = 15 hours.

Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time = 960 ÷ (6 + 15) = 960 ÷ 21 = 320/7 km/hr.

320 ÷ 7 ≈ 45.71 km/hr, which rounds off to 46 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 46 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance covered at 60 km/hr = 3/8 of total journey

Remaining distance covered at 40 km/hr = 1 − 3/8 = 5/8 of total journey

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Total Distance = d

Distance: 3/8 d Speed: 60 km/hr

Distance: 5/8 d Speed: 40 km/hr

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let the total distance be d km.

⇒ Time taken for the first part = (3d/8) ÷ 60 = 3d ÷ 480 = d ÷ 160 hours.

⇒ Time taken for the remaining part = (5d/8) ÷ 40 = 5d ÷ 320 hours.

⇒ Total Time = (d ÷ 160) + (5d ÷ 320)

⇒ Total Time = (2d ÷ 320) + (5d ÷ 320) = 7d ÷ 320 hours.

⇒ Average Speed = d ÷ (7d ÷ 320)

⇒ Average Speed = (d × 320) ÷ 7d = 320 ÷ 7 km/hr.

⇒ Average Speed ≈ 45.71 km/hr.

⇒ Rounding off to the nearest integer, we get 46 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 46 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed

Average speed is defined as the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. It is not the simple arithmetic mean of the speeds.

Equal Distance Formula

If two equal distances are covered at speeds x and y, then the Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference between their speeds. When moving in opposite directions, it is the sum of their speeds.

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM(25, 30, 36, 40) = 1800 units, with efficiencies P = 72, Q = 60, R = 50, S = 45.

4-day cycle work (Q + S + P + R) = 60 + 45 + 72 + 50 = 227 units.

Work in 7 cycles (28 days) = 227 × 7 = 1589 units; Remaining = 1800 − 1589 = 211 units.

Work done in next 3 days (Q, S, P) = 60 + 45 + 72 = 177 units; Remaining = 34 units for R.

Total time = 28 + 3 + (34 ÷ 50) = 31¹⁷/₂₅ days.

∴ The correct answer is 31¹⁷/₂₅ days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by P = 25 days

Time taken by Q = 30 days

Time taken by R = 36 days

Time taken by S = 40 days

Order of work: Q works on day 1, S on day 2, P on day 3, R on day 4, and the cycle repeats.

Formula Used:

Total Work = LCM of individual time taken

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time Taken

Calculations:

⇒ Total work done in one complete 4-day cycle (Q + S + P + R) = 60 + 45 + 72 + 50 = 227 units

⇒ Number of full cycles that can be completed = 1800 ÷ 227 = 7 cycles (with a remainder)

⇒ Work completed in 7 cycles (28 days) = 227 × 7 = 1589 units

⇒ Remaining work = 1800 − 1589 = 211 units

⇒ On the 29th day, Q works: Remaining work = 211 − 60 = 151 units

⇒ On the 30th day, S works: Remaining work = 151 − 45 = 106 units

⇒ On the 31st day, P works: Remaining work = 106 − 72 = 34 units

⇒ On the 32nd day, R completes the remaining 34 units.

⇒ Time taken by R = Remaining Work ÷ Efficiency of R = 34 ÷ 50 = 17/25 days

⇒ Total time required to complete the work = 28 + 3 + 17/25 = 31¹⁷/₂₅ days

∴ The correct answer is 31¹⁷/₂₅ days.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Work

When individuals work on alternate days, first calculate the combined work done in one full sequence cycle. Then divide total work by cycle work to find the full cycles before resolving the leftover fraction day-by-day.

Total Work Concept

Assuming the total work as the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the individual time periods helps convert fractional daily work calculations into manageable integer efficiencies.

Work and Efficiency Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time taken. The fundamental rule applied in such problems is: Total Work = Efficiency × Time Taken.

Shortcut Trick

Total simple interest percentage for 2 years = Rate × Time = 5% × 2 = 10%.

We are given that this 10% of the Principal is equal to ₹487.

Therefore, Principal (100%) = 487 × 10 = ₹4870.

∴ The correct answer is ₹4870.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹487

Rate of Interest (R) = 5% per annum

Time Period (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

Time = 2 years | Rate = 5% p.a.

Year 0 P = ?

Year 2 SI = 487

Total Effective Rate = 5% × 2 = 10%

Calculations:

⇒ 487 = (P × 5 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ 487 = (P × 10) ÷ 100

⇒ 487 = P ÷ 10

⇒ P = 487 × 10

⇒ P = 4870

∴ The correct answer is ₹4870.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total amount at the end of the time period is given by Amount = Principal + Simple Interest = P[1 + (RT ÷ 100)].

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

In Simple Interest, the interest is calculated only on the initial principal every year. In Compound Interest, interest is calculated on both principal and accumulated interest from previous periods.

Difference Between CI and SI

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years on the same principal is D = P(R ÷ 100)².

Given:

Expression: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-15) + (-2) × 7

Formula used:

Order of operations: BODMAS (Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction)

Calculation:

Expression: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-15) + (-2) × 7

⇒ (-9) - (-60 ÷ -15) + (-2 × 7)

⇒ (-9) - (4) + (-14)

⇒ -9 - 4 - 14

⇒ -27

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

Evaluate: 16 + 9 ÷ 3 - 3 × 3

Formula used:

Follow BODMAS: Brackets, Orders (powers and roots), Division/Multiplication (left to right), Addition/Subtraction (left to right)

Calculation:

Expression: 16 + 9 ÷ 3 - 3 × 3

⇒ 16 + 3 - 9 

⇒ 19 - 9  

⇒ 10

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Shortcut Trick

Total Selling Price (SP) of 100 guavas = Cost Price + Profit = 1210 + 965 = ₹2175

SP of 1 guava = 2175 ÷ 100 = ₹21.75

SP per dozen = 21.75 × 12 = ₹261

∴ The correct answer is ₹261.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost price (CP) of 100 guavas = ₹1210

Total profit on 100 guavas = ₹965

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) + Profit

Profit & Selling Price

CP = ₹1210

Profit = ₹965

Total SP = ₹2175 (For 100 guavas)

Calculations:

⇒ Total SP of 100 guavas = 1210 + 965 = ₹2175

⇒ SP of 1 guava = 2175 ÷ 100 = ₹21.75

⇒ SP of a dozen (12 guavas) = 21.75 × 12 = ₹261

∴ The correct answer is ₹261.

Additional Information

Profit & Loss Percentage

Profit and loss percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless specifically stated otherwise: Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Selling by Dozen

One dozen refers to exactly 12 individual items. When asked to determine the price per dozen, you must always find the value of 1 item and multiply it by 12.

Marked Price & Discount

Marked Price (MP) is the maximum retail price labeled on an item. Selling Price is derived by subtracting the discount from MP: SP = MP − Discount.

Shortcut Trick

Rate of interest = 4% = 1/25.

Multiplying factor for 1 year = 1 + 1/25 = 26/25.

Since Nitin's amount after 19 years equals Pravin's amount after 20 years, the ratio of their principals is inverse to the multiplying factor difference.

Ratio of Nitin's share to Pravin's share = 26 : 25.

Pravin's share = (25 ÷ 51) × 1224 = 25 × 24 = 600.

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount to be divided = ₹1224

Rate of interest (R) = 4% compounded annually

Time for Nitin = 19 years

Time for Pravin = 20 years

Formula Used:

Amount in Compound Interest: A = P(1 + R/100)^T

Total = ₹1224

Nitin (N)

19 years @ 4%

Pravin (P)

20 years @ 4%

Amount A

Amount A

=

N × (1.04)19 = P × (1.04)20

Calculations:

⇒ Let Nitin's share be N and Pravin's share be P.

⇒ N + P = 1224

⇒ Amount received by Nitin = N × (1 + 4/100)¹⁹

⇒ Amount received by Pravin = P × (1 + 4/100)²⁰

According to the question, both received the same amount:

⇒ N × (104/100)¹⁹ = P × (104/100)²⁰

⇒ N = P × (104/100)

⇒ N/P = 104/100 = 26/25

⇒ Let N = 26x and P = 25x.

⇒ 26x + 25x = 1224

⇒ 51x = 1224

⇒ x = 1224 ÷ 51 = 24

⇒ Pravin's share (P) = 25x = 25 × 24 = ₹600

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Additional Information

Dividing a sum into two parts in Compound Interest

When a sum is divided into two parts P₁ and P₂ invested for T₁ and T₂ years respectively at the same rate R%, and their final amounts are equal, the ratio of the principal amounts is given directly by P₁/P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{T₂ − T₁}.

Effective Compound Interest Rate

For 2 years, the effective CI rate can be calculated using the successive percentage formula: R_eff = R + R + (R × R)/100.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

In Compound Interest, interest is calculated on the principal as well as the accumulated interest of previous periods, whereas in Simple Interest, it is calculated only on the initial principal. The difference for 2 years is D = P(R/100)².

Shortcut Trick

Let the numerator and denominator be 100x and 100y, so the original fraction = x/y.

New numerator = 100x + 40% = 140x.

New denominator = 100y − 20% = 80y.

New fraction = 140x / 80y = (7/4) × (x/y).

Ratio of the new fraction to the original fraction = 7/4.

∴ The correct answer is 7/4.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numerator increase = 40%

Denominator decrease = 20%

Formula Used:

New value = Original value × (100 ± Change%) / 100

Original

Numerator (100)

Denominator (100)

+40%

−20%

New

Numerator (140)

Denominator (80)

New Fraction = 140 / 80 = 7/4 of Original

Calculations:

⇒ Let the original fraction be N / D.

⇒ New Numerator = N × (100 + 40) / 100 = 1.4N

⇒ New Denominator = D × (100 − 20) / 100 = 0.8D

⇒ New fraction = 1.4N / 0.8D

⇒ New fraction = (14 / 8) × (N / D)

⇒ New fraction = (7 / 4) × Original fraction

∴ The correct answer is 7/4.

Additional Information

Percentage Change in Fractions

If a fraction's numerator is changed by a% and denominator by b%, the new fraction becomes [(100 ± a) / (100 ± b)] × Original fraction.

Successive Percentage Change

When a single quantity undergoes two successive changes of a% and b%, the effective percentage change is given by (a + b + ab/100)%.

Ratio and Proportion Property

A ratio or fraction remains unchanged if both its numerator (antecedent) and denominator (consequent) are multiplied or divided by the same non-zero number.

Shortcut Trick

Effective Simple Interest (SI) rate for 3 years at 10% = 3 × 10% = 30%

Effective Compound Interest (CI) rate for 3 years at 10% = 33.1%

Difference in effective rates = 33.1% − 30% = 3.1%

Given difference = ₹217 ⇒ 3.1% of P = 217

⇒ P = (217 ÷ 3.1) × 100 = ₹7000

∴ The correct answer is ₹7000.

Alternate Method

Let P = 1000

Yr 1: 100

Yr 2: 100

• 10 (CI)

Yr 3: 100

• 20 (CI)

• 1 (CI)

CI − SI Difference = 10 + 20 + 1 = 31 units

Given:

Time (T) = 3 years, Rate (R) = 10% per annum

Difference between CI and SI (D) = ₹217

Formula Used:

D = P × (R / 100)² × [(300 + R) / 100]

Calculation:

⇒ 217 = P × (10 / 100)² × [(300 + 10) / 100]

⇒ 217 = P × (1 / 10)² × (310 / 100)

⇒ 217 = P × (1 / 100) × (31 / 10)

⇒ 217 = P × (31 / 1000)

⇒ P = (217 × 1000) ÷ 31

⇒ P = 7 × 1000 = 7000

∴ The correct answer is ₹7000.

Additional Information

Difference for 2 Years

The difference between compound interest and simple interest for exactly 2 years is given by the formula D = P × (R / 100)².

Difference for 3 Years

The difference for 3 years is given by D = P × (R / 100)² × (R + 300) / 100, which accurately accounts for the interest charged on the accumulated interest from the second year.

Effective Rate Method

Converting annual interest rates into an effective overall percentage speeds up calculations. For 3 years at 10%, SI is 30% and CI is 33.1%. The gap directly yields 3.1%, making it easier to skip complex fractional formulas.

Shortcut Trick

Total weight of all 3 persons = 46 × 3 = 138 kg

Sum of weights of the two overlapping pairs = (39 × 2) + (47 × 2) = 78 + 94 = 172 kg

Since Mohammad is counted twice in these pairs, his weight is exactly the overlapping extra amount.

Weight of Mohammad = Sum of pairs − Total weight = 172 − 138 = 34 kg

∴ The correct answer is 34 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average weight of Mohan, Mohammad and Ashish = 46 kg

Average weight of Mohan and Mohammad = 39 kg

Average weight of Mohammad and Ashish = 47 kg

Formula Used:

Total Value = Average × Number of items

Mohan + Mohammad + Ashish = 138 kg

Mohan

Mohammad

Ashish

78 kg

94 kg Overlap = Mohammad = (78 + 94) - 138 = 34 kg

Calculations:

⇒ Let the weights of Mohan, Mohammad and Ashish be A, B and C respectively.

⇒ A + B + C = 46 × 3 = 138 kg  ... (i)

⇒ A + B = 39 × 2 = 78 kg  ... (ii)

⇒ B + C = 47 × 2 = 94 kg  ... (iii)

⇒ Adding equations (ii) and (iii):

⇒ (A + B) + (B + C) = 78 + 94

⇒ A + 2B + C = 172 kg  ... (iv)

⇒ Subtracting equation (i) from equation (iv):

⇒ (A + 2B + C) − (A + B + C) = 172 − 138

⇒ B = 34 kg

∴ The correct answer is 34 kg.

Additional Information

Concept of Averages

The average of a given set of numbers is equal to the sum of all the numbers divided by the total number of items.

Inclusion-Exclusion Principle

When one element is part of two overlapping sets, its distinct value can be calculated as: Overlapping Value = (Sum of Group 1 + Sum of Group 2) − Sum of Total Group.

Weighted Average

If two distinct groups have sizes n₁ and n₂ with averages A₁ and A₂ respectively, then Combined Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

If the overall percentage of a group is identical to the percentage of one of its parts, the remaining part must also possess that exact same percentage.

Given the overall literacy rate is 31% and the male literacy rate is also 31%.

Therefore, the female literacy rate must also be exactly 31% without needing any calculation.

∴ The correct answer is 31%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total population = 335000

Number of males = 214000

Overall literacy rate = 31%

Male literacy rate = 31%

Total Population : 335000 Literacy : 31%

Males : 214000 Literacy : 31%

Females : 121000 Literacy : ? = 31% Literacy % remains constant across identical components

Calculations:

⇒ Number of females = Total population − Number of males

⇒ Number of females = 335000 − 214000 = 121000

⇒ Total literate population = 31% of 335000 = (31 ÷ 100) × 335000 = 103850

⇒ Total literate males = 31% of 214000 = (31 ÷ 100) × 214000 = 66340

⇒ Total literate females = Total literate population − Total literate males

⇒ Total literate females = 103850 − 66340 = 37510

⇒ Percentage of literate females = (Total literate females ÷ Number of females) × 100

⇒ Percentage of literate females = (37510 ÷ 121000) × 100 = 31%

∴ The correct answer is 31%.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Rule

When combining two groups, if the average of the whole is equal to the average of the first group, then the average of the second group must exactly match the overall average regardless of their individual quantities.

Mixture Alligation

This logical deduction applies strictly to mixtures as well. If you mix liquid A (31% concentration) with liquid B to obtain a mixture of exactly 31% concentration, then liquid B must also have a 31% concentration natively.

Shortcut Trick

Speed ratio (Normal : New) = 4 : 1

Time ratio (Normal : New) = 1 : 4 (since distance is constant, time is inversely proportional to speed)

Difference in time ratio parts = 4 − 1 = 3 parts

Given delay is 54 minutes ⇒ 3 parts = 54 minutes

Normal time (1 part) = 54 ÷ 3 = 18 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 18 minutes.

Alternate Method

City A City B

Constant Distance

Normal Case: Speed = S → Time = T

Late Case: Speed = S/4 → Time = T + 54

Given:

Kamal's new speed = 1/4 of his normal speed

Late arrival time = 54 minutes

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let his normal speed be S and normal time be T minutes.

⇒ Distance covered = S × T

⇒ When speed is reduced, new speed = S/4

⇒ The new time taken = (T + 54) minutes

⇒ Since the distance travelled remains constant in both cases:

⇒ S × T = (S/4) × (T + 54)

⇒ Cancelling S from both sides gives:

⇒ T = (T + 54) ÷ 4

⇒ 4 × T = T + 54

⇒ 4T − T = 54

⇒ 3T = 54

⇒ T = 18 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 18 minutes.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportionality of Speed and Time

When the distance is constant, speed and time are inversely proportional (Speed ∝ 1 / Time). If speed becomes a/b of its original value, the time taken becomes b/a of the original time.

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. If a person covers two equal distances at speeds S₁ and S₂ respectively, the Average Speed is given by (2 × S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ + S₂).

Relative Speed

When two bodies move in the same direction, their relative speed = S₁ − S₂. When moving in opposite directions, their relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Shortcut Trick

The multiplier from the 1st term (2.5) to the 3rd term (75) is 75 ÷ 2.5 = 30.

To maintain the proportion, the 4th term must be the 2nd term (9.6) multiplied by the exact same multiplier.

Fourth proportional = 9.6 × 30 = 288.

∴ The correct answer is 288.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers are 2.5, 9.6 and 75.

Formula Used:

If four numbers a, b, c and d are in proportion, then a : b :: c : d

⇒ a ÷ b = c ÷ d

2.5

:

9.6

::

75

:

x

× 30

× 30

x = 288

Calculations:

Let the fourth proportional be x.

⇒ 2.5 ÷ 9.6 = 75 ÷ x

⇒ 2.5 × x = 9.6 × 75

⇒ x = (9.6 × 75) ÷ 2.5

⇒ x = 9.6 × (75 ÷ 2.5)

⇒ x = 9.6 × 30

⇒ x = 288

∴ The correct answer is 288.

Additional Information

Fourth Proportional

If four terms a, b, c, and x are in proportion (a:b :: c:x), then x is the fourth proportional given by x = (b × c) ÷ a.

Third Proportional

If three terms a, b, and x are in continued proportion (a:b :: b:x), then x is the third proportional given by x = b² ÷ a.

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two quantities a and b is calculated as √(a × b).

Product Rule

In any valid proportion, the product of the extremes is strictly equal to the product of the means.

Shortcut Trick

Given, 12 × CP = 9 × SP

Ratio of SP to CP → SP / CP = 12 / 9 = 4 / 3

Profit = SP − CP = 4 − 3 = 1 unit

Profit % = (1 / 3) × 100 = 33¹/₃%

∴ The correct answer is 33¹/₃%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost price of 12 pens = Selling price of 9 pens

Formula Used:

Profit = SP − CP

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

Cost Price vs Selling Price

CP (9 units): SP (12 units):

Base Cost Base Cost Recovered Profit = 3

Profit % = (3 ÷ 9) × 100 = 33.33%

Calculations:

Let the CP of 1 pen be ₹1.

⇒ CP of 9 pens = ₹9

⇒ CP of 12 pens = ₹12

According to the question, SP of 9 pens = CP of 12 pens

⇒ SP of 9 pens = ₹12

⇒ Profit earned on 9 pens = SP of 9 pens − CP of 9 pens

⇒ Profit = 12 − 9 = ₹3

⇒ Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (3 ÷ 9) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (1 ÷ 3) × 100 = 33¹/₃%

∴ The correct answer is 33¹/₃%.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

When Cost Price (CP) > Selling Price (SP), a loss is incurred. Loss = CP − SP. Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Discount and Marked Price

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount. Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100.

Dishonest Dealer Formula

If a dealer professes to sell goods at CP but uses false weight, Profit % = [Error ÷ (True Value − Error)] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

In any proportion, the Product of Extremes is equal to the Product of Means.

⇒ 16 × 324 = a × 9a

⇒ 9a² = 16 × 324

⇒ a² = 16 × 36

⇒ a = 4 × 6 = 24

∴ The correct answer is a = 24.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term = 16, Second term = a, Third term = 9a, Fourth term = 324

Formula Used:

If four numbers A, B, C, and D are in proportion (A : B :: C : D), then:

Product of Extremes (A × D) = Product of Means (B × C)

Product of Extremes (16 × 324)

16

:

a

::

9a

:

324

Product of Means (a × 9a)

Calculation:

⇒ 16 : a :: 9a : 324

⇒ 16 ÷ a = 9a ÷ 324

⇒ a × 9a = 16 × 324

⇒ 9a² = 5184

⇒ a² = 5184 ÷ 9

⇒ a² = 576

⇒ a = √576

⇒ a = 24

∴ The correct answer is a = 24.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional (or geometric mean) between two numbers a and b is given by the formula √(a × b).

Third Proportional

If three numbers a, b, and c are in continued proportion (a : b :: b : c), then c is called the third proportional. It is calculated using the formula: c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

If four numbers a, b, c, and d are in proportion (a : b :: c : d), then d is called the fourth proportional. It is calculated using the formula: d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Shortcut Trick

For a round trip with equal distances, Average Speed = (2 × x × y) ÷ (x + y)

Here, x = 23 km/h and y = 33 km/h.

Average Speed = (2 × 23 × 33) ÷ (23 + 33)

Average Speed = 1518 ÷ 56 = 759 ÷ 28

Average Speed = 27 ³/₂₈ km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 27 ³/₂₈ km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the car to the destination (S₁) = 23 km/h

Return speed of the car (S₂) = 33 km/h

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

A B

Speed = 23 km/h

Speed = 33 km/h Distance = D

Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x+y)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the one-way distance be D km.

⇒ Total Distance = D + D = 2D

⇒ Time taken to go = D ÷ 23 hours

⇒ Time taken to return = D ÷ 33 hours

⇒ Total Time = (D ÷ 23) + (D ÷ 33)

⇒ Total Time = D × [(33 + 23) ÷ (23 × 33)]

⇒ Total Time = D × (56 ÷ 759)

⇒ Average Speed = 2D ÷ [D × (56 ÷ 759)]

⇒ Average Speed = (2 × 759) ÷ 56 = 1518 ÷ 56

⇒ Average Speed = 759 ÷ 28 = 27 ³/₂₈ km/h

∴ The correct answer is 27 ³/₂₈ km/h.

Additional Information

Average Speed for n Equal Distances

For 3 equal distances at speeds x, y, and z: Average Speed = 3xyz ÷ (xy + yz + zx)

General Average Speed

When distances are unequal: Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Relative Speed

Same direction = |S₁ − S₂| | Opposite direction = S₁ + S₂

Shortcut Trick

The Curved Surface Area of a sphere in terms of diameter (d) is directly written as πd².

⇒ (22/7) × d² = 9856

⇒ d² = 9856 × 7 ÷ 22 = 3136

⇒ d = √3136 = 56 cm

⇒ Diameter in m = 56 ÷ 100 = 0.56 m

∴ The correct answer is 0.56 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Curved surface area of the sphere = 9856 cm²

Formula Used:

Curved surface area of a sphere = 4πr²

Diameter = 2r

r

Diameter (d) = 2r

Curved Surface Area = 9856 cm²

Calculations:

⇒ 4 × (22/7) × r² = 9856

⇒ 88/7 × r² = 9856

⇒ r² = (9856 × 7) ÷ 88

⇒ r² = 112 × 7

⇒ r² = 784

⇒ r = √784 = 28 cm

Now, find the diameter:

⇒ Diameter (d) = 2 × 28 = 56 cm

Convert cm into meters (since 1 m = 100 cm):

⇒ Diameter in meters = 56 ÷ 100 = 0.56 m

∴ The correct answer is 0.56 m.

Additional Information

Volume of a Sphere

The volume of a sphere is the total space occupied by the sphere and is calculated using the formula V = 4/3 × πr³.

Surface Areas of a Hemisphere

When a sphere is cut in half, it forms a hemisphere. Its Curved Surface Area (CSA) is exactly half of the sphere (2πr²), while its Total Surface Area (TSA) includes the flat circular base, making it 3πr².

Common Mistakes in Mensuration

Always ensure all given values are in the same unit before performing calculations. In this problem, the radius was found in cm, but the final answer was required in meters (divide cm by 100).

Shortcut Trick

Observe the given numbers: 21, 24, 104, and 312.

Since 312 is completely divisible by both 24 (24 × 13 = 312) and 104 (104 × 3 = 312), we can directly eliminate 24 and 104.

Now, we only need to find the LCM of 21 and 312.

Break down 21 = 3 × 7. Since 312 is already a multiple of 3 (sum of digits is 6), simply multiply 312 by the remaining prime factor 7.

LCM = 312 × 7 = 2184.

∴ The correct answer is 2184.

Alternate Method

Given:

The given numbers are 21, 24, 104 and 312.

Method Used:

Prime Factorisation Method to find the Lowest Common Multiple (LCM).

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorisation of 21 = 3 × 7

⇒ Prime factorisation of 24 = 2³ × 3

⇒ Prime factorisation of 104 = 2³ × 13

⇒ Prime factorisation of 312 = 2³ × 3 × 13

⇒ The LCM is the product of the highest powers of all prime factors involved.

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3 × 7 × 13

⇒ LCM = 8 × 3 × 7 × 13

⇒ LCM = 24 × 91

⇒ LCM = 2184

∴ The correct answer is 2184.

Additional Information

LCM and HCF Formula

For any two specific numbers 'a' and 'b', the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their LCM and HCF: a × b = LCM(a, b) × HCF(a, b).

LCM of Fractions

LCM of fractions = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators).

HCF of Fractions

HCF of fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime (meaning their HCF = 1), their LCM is directly the product of the two numbers.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The sentence in Option 1 is incorrect because of the improper placement of the adverb "slightly."
• In English grammar, adverbs should be positioned to clearly and logically modify the intended word or phrase.
• In the sentence "Merry was aware of the implications more than her colleagues slightly," the placement of "slightly" at the end of the sentence makes it ambiguous and awkward.
• A better construction would be: "Merry was slightly more aware of the implications than her colleagues."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Marsh is an exceptionally talented musician with a bright future." – This sentence is grammatically correct and uses the adverb "exceptionally" appropriately to modify "talented."
• Option 3: "The presentation was well-organised and effectively delivered." – This sentence is grammatically correct, with the adverbs "well-organised" and "effectively" used correctly.
• Option 4: "The novel written by Rahul was harshly critiqued by the readers." – This sentence is grammatically correct, with the adverb "harshly" correctly modifying "critiqued."

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Quandery'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Quandary'.
• The word 'Quandary' is a noun which means 'a state of perplexity or uncertainty over what to do in a difficult situation'. (उलझन)
• For Example -
• She was in a quandary about whether to accept the offer or not.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Quandery'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Paradigm - a typical example or pattern of something (आदर्श)
• Contingency - an event that may occur but that is not likely or intended; a possibility (संभावना)
• Sergeant - a rank of a noncommissioned officer in the armed forces (सार्जेंट)

The correct answer is: Complicated.

Key Points

• The word "abstruse" means something that is difficult to understand, obscure, or highly complex in nature. (जटिल या कठिन समझने वाला)
• Example: The professor's abstruse theories on quantum mechanics left the students puzzled.
• "Complicated" refers to something that consists of many interconnecting parts or elements, making it difficult to understand or deal with. (जटिल)
• Example: The instructions for assembling the furniture were so complicated that it took hours to complete.
• Hence, "abstruse" and "complicated" are synonyms, as both imply difficulty in understanding.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Complicated.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Clear (स्पष्ट): Something that is easy to perceive, understand, or interpret.
• Example: Her explanation of the topic was clear and concise, making it easier for everyone to grasp.
• Obvious (स्पष्ट या जाहिर): Something that is easily seen, understood, or recognized.
• Example: It was obvious that he was upset after hearing the news.
• Concise (संक्षिप्त): Giving a lot of information clearly and in a few words; brief but comprehensive.
• Example: The report was concise yet included all the necessary details.

The correct answer is 'formidable'.

 

Key Points

• The word "formidable" means inspiring fear or respect through being impressively large, powerful, or intense. (दुर्जेय)
• The sentence mentions challenges faced during the expedition, which signifies these challenges were significant and intense.
• The other options: "negligible," "insignificant," and "trivial" do not fit the context as they mean unimportant or minor.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: Despite the formidable challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination.

Additional Information

• Negligible (नगण्य): means so small or unimportant as to be not worth considering.
• Insignificant (महत्वहीन): means too small or unimportant to be worth consideration.
• Trivial (तुच्छ): means of little value or importance.

The correct answer is: enticing.

Key Points

• The word "sickening" refers to something that causes disgust, nausea, or an unpleasant sensation. (घृणित, मतली पैदा करने वाला)
• Example: The sight of spoiled food was sickening to look at.
• "Enticing" refers to something that attracts or tempts someone, making them want to engage or indulge in it. (लुभावना)
• Example: The aroma of freshly brewed coffee was so enticing that I couldn't resist ordering a cup.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'sickening' is 'enticing'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: enticing.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Wakening (जगाना): The act of waking up or causing someone to wake up.
• Example: The loud noise in the street was wakening everyone in the neighborhood.
• Withdrawing (वापस लेना): To retreat or remove oneself from a situation or place.
• Example: She began withdrawing from social events after her promotion.
• Pampering (लाड़-प्यार करना): To indulge or treat someone with excessive care or attention.
• Example: The spa offers pampering treatments for ultimate relaxation.

The correct answer is: Doubtful.

Key Points

• The word "Dubious" means something that is uncertain, questionable, or doubtful; it refers to a situation where there is a lack of confidence or reliability. (संदेहपूर्ण)
• Example: His explanation for being late sounded dubious and unconvincing.
• "Doubtful" refers to something that is uncertain or not definite, often involving skepticism or hesitation. (संदिग्ध)
• Example: The success of the project seems doubtful given the current circumstances.
• Hence, the synonym for 'Dubious' is 'Doubtful'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Doubtful.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Certain (निश्चित): Something that is known for sure; definite.
• Example: It is certain that she will win the competition.
• Definite (स्पष्ट): Something that is clearly stated or decided; not vague.
• Example: We need a definite answer about whether you are attending the event.
• Clear (साफ): Easy to perceive, understand, or interpret.
• Example: The instructions for assembling the furniture were clear and easy to follow.

The correct answer is: Dearth.

Key Points

• The word "surplus" means something that is more than what is needed or used; excess. (अधिशेष)
• Example: The farmer had a surplus of crops this year, which he sold in the market.
• The word "Dearth" means end or absence of something, which is the opposite of having an excess. (कमी)
• Example: The dearth of resources in that area caused great hardship for the people.
• Hence, the antonym of "surplus" is "dearth".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dearth.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Stale (बासी): Something that is no longer fresh or pleasant.
• Example: The bread was stale, so we couldn’t eat it.
• Hot (गरम): Having a high temperature; warm.
• Example: The tea was so hot that I had to wait for it to cool down.
• Huge (विशाल): Extremely large in size, quantity, or degree.
• Example: The huge building towered over the small houses nearby.

The correct answer is 'make'.

 

Key Points

• The verb "make" is commonly used to collocate with "arrangements."
• The phrase "make arrangements" refers to organizing or planning something.
• The other options: "put," "made," and "meet" do not form correct collocations with "arrangements."

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: The teacher, Sara, told us we must make arrangements for the upcoming conference.

Additional Information

• Put: While this verb is correct in many contexts, it does not collocate with "arrangements."
• Made: This is the past tense of "make," but the sentence uses the modal verb "must" which requires the base form of the verb.
• Meet: This verb does not fit the context of the sentence as it is unrelated to "arrangements."

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The original sentence lacks proper grammatical structure for the segment "cut children off."
• The verb form "cutting" is required to convey the ongoing nature of the actions mentioned in the sentence.
• "Cutting children off" correctly aligns with the context and ensures grammatical accuracy.
• Thus, Option 3 is the most appropriate substitution for the underlined segment.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Climate change, conflict, COVID-19 and economic crises are cutting children off from their chance to thrive."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "cut children of" – This option is grammatically incorrect as the preposition "of" does not fit the context.
• Option 2: "cuts children off" – This option is incorrect because the verb "cuts" does not match the plural subject "Climate change, conflict, COVID-19, and economic crises."
• Option 4: "cutting child off" – This option is incorrect because "child" is singular, whereas the sentence refers to children collectively.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The idiom "Breathed his last" means to die or pass away. (अपना अंतिम सांस लेना)
• Example: After battling illness for years, the old man breathed his last peacefully surrounded by his family.
• The phrase "After suffering for a long time, Roy finally passed away this month" can be replaced with this idiom, as it signifies the end of life. (मृत्यु का संकेत देता है)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Brought down the house (ज़बरदस्त मनोरंजन प्रदान करना): To give an outstanding performance that elicits great applause or appreciation.
• Example: The comedian brought down the house with his hilarious jokes.
• Burnt his boats (वापसी का कोई विकल्प न छोड़ना): To do something that makes it impossible to return to an earlier state or decision.
• Example: By quitting his job so abruptly, he burnt his boats with the company.
• Blazed the trail (रास्ता दिखाना या नई दिशा में शुरुआत करना): To be the first to do something or initiate a new path.
• Example: She blazed the trail for women in the field of science.

The correct answer is: Surrender.

Key Points

• The word "Relinquish" means to voluntarily give up or let go of something, often a possession, right, or claim. (त्याग करना, छोड़ देना)
• Example: She decided to relinquish her position as the team leader to focus on personal goals.
• "Surrender" refers to giving up control or possession of something, often to someone else or under compulsion. (आत्मसमर्पण करना, छोड़ देना)
• Example: The soldiers had no choice but to surrender to the enemy forces after running out of supplies.
• Hence, the synonym of 'Relinquish' is 'Surrender'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Surrender.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Embrace (गले लगाना, स्वीकार करना): To accept or support something willingly or enthusiastically.
• Example: She decided to embrace the challenges that come with starting a new business.
• Hold (पकड़ना): To keep or maintain possession of something.
• Example: He held the book tightly in his hands.
• Retain (बनाए रखना): To continue to have or keep something.
• Example: The organization has been able to retain most of its employees despite the economic downturn.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The error lies in the use of the adverb "less thorough" in Option 3.
• The correct adverbial form should be "less thoroughly" because it modifies the verb "completed" and refers to the manner of completing the assignment.
• Adverbs are typically used to modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs, and they often end in "-ly" when describing the manner of an action.
• Thus, the correct sentence should be: "The students completed the assignment less thoroughly than expected."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The students completed the assignment less thoroughly than expected."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "He answered the questions surprisingly well during the interview." – This sentence is correct as the adverb "surprisingly well" is used appropriately to describe how the questions were answered.
• Option 2: "She performs her duties more diligently than anyone else in the team." – This sentence is correct as the adverb "more diligently" properly modifies the verb "performs."
• Option 4: "The new software runs more efficiently than the previous version." – This sentence is correct as the adverb "more efficiently" is used correctly to describe how the software runs.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The word "any" is used correctly in the sentence to indicate the absence of additional cake being given to the toddler.
• The word "many" would not fit correctly, as it is typically used for plural countable nouns, and "cake" is uncountable in this context.
• "None" would imply that the toddler was not given any cake at all, which contradicts the context as the toddler had already received some cake.
• "Two" would not make sense in this context, as the sentence does not specify the toddler asking for a specific quantity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The toddler asked for more pieces of cake, but she wasn’t given any."

 

Additional Information

• ​Option 2: "many" – Incorrect, as "cake" is uncountable in this context.
• Option 3: "none" – Incorrect, as it implies no cake was given at all.
• Option 4: "two" – Incorrect, as there is no reference to the toddler asking for a specific quantity.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The sentence is grammatically correct as it stands and does not require any changes.
• The verb "was giving" is appropriately used to indicate an action in progress at the time of the incident.
• This tense aligns well with the context of the sentence, which describes an ongoing action interrupted by another event.
• None of the other options provide a better substitute or improve the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "giving" – This does not provide additional clarity or improve the sentence.
• Option 2: "has given" – This implies a completed action, which does not align with the ongoing nature of the action described.
• Option 3: "gave" – This indicates a simple past action, which changes the meaning and does not reflect the interruption of an ongoing activity.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'greatful'.

• The correct spelling would be 'grateful'.
• The word 'grateful' is an adjective which means 'feeling or showing thanks'. (आभारी)
• For Example -
• She was grateful for the support she received during tough times.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'greatful'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Survived - to continue to live or exist, especially in spite of danger or hardship (जीवित रहना)
• Pandemic - a disease prevalent over a whole country or the world (महामारी)
• Extremely - to a very great degree (बेहद)

The correct answer is 'influential'.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes Aristotle as one of the greatest philosophers whose ideas shaped centuries of thought.
• The adjective in blank (1) should describe Aristotle’s great importance and lasting impact on philosophy.
• "Influential" fits best because it means having great influence or impact, which matches the context of Aristotle’s philosophical legacy.
• Other options like "average", "unknown", or "modern" do not fit the context, as Aristotle was neither ordinary, unknown, nor modern.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

• Average: Suggests mediocrity, which contradicts Aristotle’s greatness.
• Unknown: Incorrect, as Aristotle is one of the most well-known philosophers.
• Modern: Inappropriate, as Aristotle belonged to ancient Greece.

The correct answer is 'philosophical'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence says — “Judged solely in terms of his (2) ______ influence, only Plato is his peer.”
• The context compares Aristotle and Plato — both were major figures in the field of philosophy.
• "Philosophical" influence fits logically because it highlights Aristotle’s impact on philosophy over centuries.
• Other options like "modernity", "society", and "history" do not describe the nature of influence relevant to the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Additional Information

• Modernity: Refers to the modern era or mindset — unrelated to Aristotle’s influence.
• Society: Refers to people or social structures — not about intellectual influence.
• History: Refers to past events — doesn’t specify the type of influence.

The correct answer is 'prolific'.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes Aristotle’s extensive writing and research output.
• The blank refers to the kind of researcher/writer Aristotle was — one who produced many works.
• "Prolific" means highly productive (especially in writing), which fits the context perfectly.
• Other options ("lazy", "reluctant", "hesitant") contradict the description of Aristotle producing about two hundred treatises.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Additional Information

• Lazy: Means unwilling to work or avoidant of effort — contradicts producing ~200 treatises.
• Reluctant: Means unwilling or hesitant to do something — does not describe someone who wrote extensively.
• Hesitant: Implies uncertainty or pause — again inconsistent with prolific, sustained output.

The correct answer is 'topics'.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions Aristotle’s wide range of study areas such as logic, ethics, metaphysics, and biology.
• Hence, the blank refers to the various subjects or areas Aristotle explored through his writings.
• The noun "topics" appropriately fits the context, meaning subjects of discussion or study.
• Other options like "characters", "books", and "politics" do not capture the broad academic scope described in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Additional Information

• Characters: refers to people in a story, not suitable for philosophical writings.
• Books: refers to written works, but the passage already mentions his treatises separately.
• Politics: refers to governance or political activities, which is only one area of his study, not the whole range.

The correct answer is 'debates'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses Aristotle’s lasting impact on philosophy and how his ideas continue to engage thinkers over centuries.
• The appropriate noun should express the idea of intellectual discussions or arguments that his ideas have inspired.
• "Debates" fits best as it refers to formal discussions or arguments on a topic, which aligns with Aristotle’s influence sparking intellectual discourse.
• Other options like "criticise", "confuse", and "indifferent" do not match the context of philosophical engagement and continued study.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Additional Information

• Criticise: Refers to finding fault, but the passage highlights engagement and discussion, not disapproval.
• Confuse: Means to cause bewilderment, which doesn’t fit the intellectual context.
• Indifferent: Means lacking interest or concern, opposite in meaning to the idea of continued interest in Aristotle’s ideas.

सही उत्तर है - सैनिक के दुश्मन को देखा और गोलियाँ बरसाने लगा।

Hint

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - सैनिक के दुश्मन को देखा और गोलियाँ बरसाने लगा।
• दिए गये वाक्य में कारक प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• यहाँ 'दुश्मन को' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• अत: सार्थक शब्द 'दुश्मन को' के स्थान पर 'दुश्मन को' के बजाय 'दुश्मन को देखकर' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - सैनिक ने दुश्मन को देखकर गोलियाँ बरसानी शुरू की।

Key Points

अन्य विकल्प -

• मैंने उसे इशारा किया मगर वह बोलता ही चला गया।
• उसे: कर्म कारक (को - प्राप्तकर्ता)
• उसने देखा कि पूरा पुल बाढ़ में डूबा है।
• में: अधिकरण कारक (में - स्थान)
• आँधी ने अपना विकराल रूप धारण कर लिया।
• ने: कर्ता कारक (ने - कर्ता)

Important Pointsहिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Informationकारक संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ -

'जो अपनी हत्या स्वयं कर ले' वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द होगा-  आत्मघाती

Key Points​अन्य विकल्प -

Important Pointsवाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - 

• अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

'विक्रमादित्य अपने समय में कुसल और न्यायप्रिय शासक थे।' वाक्य के शब्द में वर्तनी की त्रुटि है - कुसल

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - विक्रमादित्य अपने समय में कुसल और न्यायप्रिय शासक थे।
• दिए गये वाक्य में वर्तनी प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• यहाँ 'कुसल' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• अत: सार्थक शब्द 'कुशल' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य -
• ​विक्रमादित्य अपने समय में कुशल और न्यायप्रिय शासक थे।

Important Points

• वर्तनी - भाषा के किसी शब्द को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के सही क्रम को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

• 'न्यायप्रिय' का अर्थ - न्याय करने वाला, न्यायप्रियता रखने वाला।
• 'शासक' का अर्थ - राजा, नेता, शासन करने वाला।
• 'विक्रमादित्य' का अर्थ - एक ऐतिहासिक राजा का नाम।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - पश्चिम दिशा से आँधी चली​।

Key Points

• वाक्य - पश्चिम दिशा से आँधी चली।
• दिए गए वाक्य में संज्ञा प्रयोग सही है,
• यहाँ "पश्चिम दिशा" संज्ञा है।
• संज्ञा का अर्थ - व्यक्ति, वस्तु, स्थान या भाव का नाम।

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प -

• अंदर मत आना। - "अंदर मत आना" एक निषेधवाचक या नकारात्मक वाक्य है, जिसमें कोई संज्ञा पद नहीं है।
• तुम किसके साथ गए थे? - यहाँ "किसके" सर्वनाम है, संज्ञा नहीं।
• कल तक रुको। - यहाँ "कल" विशेषण ��े रूप में प्रयुक्त हुआ, संज्ञा नहीं।

Additional Informationसंज्ञा के प्रकार -