The logic followed here is:

Logic: The signs are arranged from bottom left corner to top right corner as rotation of the positions of each sign.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "160" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

Given: Seven people, A, B, L, M, N, S and T, are sitting in a row, facing north(but not necessarily in the same order).

1. Only three people sit to the left of T.

2.  Only B sits to the right of A.

3. Only three people sit between A and S.

4. L sits at some place to the left of N but at some place to the right of M.

So, Three people sit between M and N.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Here, 'GZK' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Here, ‘PAIR’ is coded as ‘7643’

and, ‘REAP’ is coded as ‘7536’

Thus, the code for E is 5 in the given code language.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) UVQ

Option 2) IJE

Option 3) WXS

Option 4) IMH

Here, 'IMH' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 32 + 49 − 7 × 4 ÷ 3 = ?

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 32 × 49 ÷ 7 + 4 − 3 = ?

⇒ 1568 ÷ 7 + 4 − 3 = ?

⇒ 224 + 4 − 3 = 225.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern should be embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Statements:

All pianists are musicians.

All musicians are singers.

No singer is a composer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

(I) No pianist is a composer:

Since the entire set of Pianists is inside the Singers set, and the Singers set has no overlap with the Composers set, it logically follows that the Pianists set has no overlap with the Composers set.

Conclusion (I) logically follows.

(II)Some singers are pianists:

Since all pianists are singers, it logically follows that some singers must be pianists.

Conclusion (II) logically follows.

So, Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "475" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3 ".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The design in the corner of the paper will be imprinted 4 times in the whole paper.

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Here, 'XHOS' is coded as '84' 

X,H,O,S → reverse positions =3,19,12,8

sum = 42 → code = 2×42=84.

and, 'CRFY' is coded as '112'

C,R,F,Y → reverse positions =24,9,21,2

sum = 56 → code = 2×56=112.

Similarly, for 'ZIOE'

Z I O E → reverse positions =1,18,12,22

sum = 53 → code = 2×53=106.

Thus, 106 is the code for 'ZIOE' in the given language.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The design in the corner of the paper will be imprinted 4 times in the whole paper.

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Six people A, B, C, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) .

1. Only three people sit between A and S when counted from the right of S.

2. Only two people sit between A and B.

3. R sits to the immediate right of C. 

Here, Four people sit between T and A when counted from the left of A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, SHMA is related to PJOX

S(19) → 19 − 3 = 16 → P

H(8) → 8 + 2 = 10 → J

M(13) → 13 + 2 = 15 → O

A(1) → 1 − 3 = −2 → wrap → 24 → X

For, RBUX is related to ODWU

R (18) → 18 − 3 = 15 → O

B (2) → 2 + 2 = 4 → D

U (21) → 21 + 2 = 23 → W

X (24) → 24 − 3 = 21 → U

Similarly, NCTV  related to KEVS

S(19) → 19 − 3 = 16 → P

H(8) → 8 + 2 = 10 → J

M(13) → 13 + 2 = 15 → O

A(1) → 1 − 3 = −2 → wrap → 24 → X

So, NCTV will be related to KEVS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'PWGZ' is related to 'RZIC' 

P (16) + 2 = 18 → R

W (23) + 3 = 26 → Z

G (7) + 2 = 9 → I

Z (26) + 3 = 29 → 29 − 26 = 3 → C

For, 'UELO' is related to 'WHNR'

U (21) + 2 = 23 → W

E (5) + 3 = 8 → H

L (12) + 2 = 14 → N

O (15) + 3 = 18 → R

Similarly, 'JDVB' related to LGXE

J (10) +2 → 12 → L

D (4) +3 → 7 → G

V (22) +2 → 24 → X

B (2) +3 → 5 → E

So, 'JDVB' will be related to LGXE.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Sequence : _ _ T B _ N A _ B M _ A

positions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) TAMNA → (TAMNA) would place T at position 1; then position 6 (which is N) would not match the repeating pattern and several mirrored equalities would break.

Option 2)  NTMAN→ (NTMAN) do not produce the consistent 5-letter repeating block required by the given letters; they break one or more of the equalities

Option 3) MTANN → (MTANN) also do not produce the consistent 5-letter repeating block required by the given letters; they break one or more of the equalities

Option 4) NAMTN →  The letters to place, left to right, are N A M T N, which matches option (4) NAMTN.

Here, 'N A M T N' followed a pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

 

Given: P < B ! S : T / A 

It means:

P is the Son of B,

B is the Brother of S,

S is the Wife of T,

T is the Father of A.

 

So, P is the Mother's brother's son of A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Bread and Food:

Bread is a type of food.

Therefore, the circle representing Bread should be completely inside the circle representing Food.

Wool and Food:

Wool is a fiber used for clothing and textiles; it is not food.

Therefore, the circle representing Wool must be completely separate from the Food circle.

Wool and Bread:

Wool has no relation to Bread (other than both being commodities).

Therefore, the Wool circle must be completely separate from the Bread circle.

So, The best representation is a large circle (Food) containing a smaller circle (Bread), with a third completely separate circle (Wool).

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

C L I M B E R

Arrange the letters in alphabetical order: B, C, E, I, L, M, R — giving the sequence:  B C E I L M R

So, Only the letter R remains in the same position (position 7). So exactly one letter remains unchanged.

Hence, the  Correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The correct answer is Fourth Plan.

Key Points

• The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-1974) of India faced significant challenges, including the influx of Bangladeshi refugees due to the Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971.
• Approximately 10 million refugees fled to India, primarily settling in states like West Bengal, Assam, and Tripura, which created immense pressure on resources.
• The Indian government had to allocate substantial funds and resources during this period for refugee rehabilitation and support, impacting the overall economic planning of the Fourth Plan.
• The refugee crisis also led to increased international attention, prompting India to seek global support, including financial assistance from organizations like the United Nations.
• This situation coincided with other challenges such as droughts, inflation, and a balance of payments crisis, making the Fourth Plan a critical period in India's economic history.

Additional Information

• Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-1974):
• The main focus of the Fourth Plan was on self-reliance and economic growth, addressing issues like poverty and unemployment.
• It aimed to strengthen sectors like agriculture, industrial development, and defense.
• However, the plan faced disruptions due to the Bangladesh refugee crisis and external factors like the Indo-Pak War of 1971.
• Bangladesh Liberation War (1971):
• The war was triggered by the political and social oppression of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) by the West Pakistani government.
• India played a significant role in supporting the liberation movement, which culminated in the creation of Bangladesh.
• The conflict led to a massive refugee influx into India, straining resources and necessitating international aid.
• Impact on India:
• The refugee crisis led to increased financial burdens, with India spending an estimated $200 million on refugee rehabilitation.
• It also caused political and social pressures in states like West Bengal, Assam, and Tripura.
• India's intervention in the liberation war earned international recognition but also created tensions with Pakistan.
• International Support:
• India sought aid from global organizations like the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) to manage the refugee crisis.
• The crisis highlighted the need for international cooperation in humanitarian emergencies.

Important Points

• India’s Refugee Policy:
• India has traditionally followed a humanitarian approach to refugees, providing shelter and support despite not being a signatory to the UN Refugee Convention of 1951.
• The Bangladeshi refugee crisis of 1971 remains one of the largest in India's history.
• Economic Impact of Refugee Crisis:
• The influx significantly impacted India's economic planning and resource allocation, particularly during the Fourth Plan.
• It necessitated adjustments in budget priorities and led to increased dependence on foreign aid.

The correct answer is Self-reliance.

Key Points

• The concept of Self-reliance was one of the foundational objectives of India’s Five-Year Plans, aiming to reduce dependency on foreign aid and imports.
• It focused on developing India's industrial base, agriculture, and infrastructure to ensure economic independence.
• The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), based on the Mahalanobis model, emphasized heavy industries to achieve self-reliance in production and technological capabilities.
• Self-reliance was seen as critical for ensuring national sovereignty, improving the standard of living, and fostering an independent economy.
• This objective was closely tied to the principle of import substitution, promoting domestic industries to manufacture goods that were previously imported.

Additional Information

• Five-Year Plans in India:
• The Five-Year Plans were introduced in 1951, inspired by the Soviet model of planned economic development.
• They were designed to address specific economic challenges such as poverty, unemployment, and underdevelopment.
• The plans emphasized sectors like agriculture, industry, education, and health to promote balanced economic growth.
• Post 1991 economic reforms, the focus shifted more towards liberalization, privatization, and globalization.
• Self-reliance and Import Substitution:
• Import substitution industrialization (ISI) was a key strategy under self-reliance, aiming to reduce dependence on foreign goods by promoting domestic production.
• Industries like steel, heavy machinery, and chemicals were prioritized during the Second and Third Five-Year Plans.
• Self-reliance also involved fostering indigenous technological development to reduce foreign technological dependence.
• Other Objectives of Five-Year Plans:
• Economic growth: Focused on increasing national income and GDP.
• Equity: Aimed at reducing income inequalities and ensuring social justice.
• Modernization: Encouraged the adoption of advanced technologies to improve productivity.
• Employment generation: Targeted reducing unemployment and underemployment through sectoral development.
• Examples of Achievements:
• Establishment of public sector enterprises like Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) and Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL).
• Development of the Green Revolution in the agriculture sector during the Fourth Five-Year Plan.
• Expansion of educational institutions and technical universities for skill development.

Important Points

• Mahalanobis Model:
• Introduced in the Second Five-Year Plan, it emphasized the development of the heavy industry sector.
• It focused on capital formation and long-term industrial growth.
• Played a crucial role in fostering self-reliance by reducing reliance on foreign imports.
• Self-reliance in Agriculture:
• The Green Revolution (1960s) significantly contributed to achieving self-reliance in food production.
• India transitioned from being an importer of food grains to being self-sufficient in agriculture.

The correct answer is Option 4 (11).

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are enshrined in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution under Part IV-A.
• Initially, 10 Fundamental Duties were introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, based on recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• An additional duty, making the total count 11 Fundamental Duties, was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002. This amendment introduced the duty to provide opportunities for education to children between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
• The Fundamental Duties are not legally enforceable but serve as moral and civic obligations for citizens to ensure the promotion of harmony and the spirit of patriotism.
• These duties apply to all Indian citizens and provide a framework to ensure responsible behavior in society and towards the nation.

Additional Information

• Key Features of Fundamental Duties:
• Fundamental Duties are inspired by the Constitution of USSR (Russia) and are unique in their inclusion in the Indian Constitution.
• They emphasize individual responsibility and collective societal well-being.
• These duties are aligned with the Directive Principles of State Policy and aim to strengthen national integrity and unity.
• List of Fundamental Duties:
• Respect the Constitution, National Flag, and National Anthem.
• Cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
• Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
• Defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• Promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all people of India and renounce practices derogatory to women.
• Preserve the rich heritage of India's culture.
• Protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
• Develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• Safeguard public property and abjure violence.
• Strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
• Provide opportunities for education to children between 6 and 14 years (added by the 86th Amendment Act).
• Constitutional Amendments Related to Fundamental Duties:
• The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties.
• The 86th Amendment Act (2002) added the duty related to education for children.
• Enforcement:
• Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning citizens cannot be legally punished for their violation.
• However, they serve as a moral compass for citizens to contribute positively to society.
• Examples of Fundamental Duties in Practice:
• Participation in national festivals, respecting symbols like the National Flag and National Anthem.
• Promoting environmental conservation through tree planting drives and wildlife protection initiatives.
• Encouraging scientific temper by supporting innovation and education.
• Fostering gender equality and renouncing practices derogatory to women.

The correct answer is Gandhi Jayanti.

Key Points

• Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan was launched on 2nd October 2014, coinciding with Gandhi Jayanti, to honor Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of a clean and hygienic India.
• The campaign was initiated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and aims to promote cleanliness, sanitation, and the elimination of open defecation across India.
• Gandhi Jayanti, celebrated annually on October 2nd, marks the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi and is observed as a national holiday in India.
• Mahatma Gandhi was a proponent of cleanliness and strongly believed in the principle of “Cleanliness is next to Godliness.” His teachings inspired the launch of this campaign.
• The date was chosen to align with Gandhi’s ideals of cleanliness and community hygiene, making it a symbolic occasion for the Swachh Bharat initiative.

Additional Information

• Objectives of Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan:
• The campaign primarily aims to achieve a clean and hygienic India by 2nd October 2019, marking the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
• Its focus includes the elimination of open defecation through the construction of toilets, promoting sanitation, managing waste, and encouraging behavioral changes.
• The mission was divided into two sub-missions: Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) and Swachh Bharat Mission (Rural), targeting urban and rural areas respectively.
• Various campaigns and initiatives like Clean India Drives and community participation were conducted to spread awareness and encourage active involvement.
• Gandhi Jayanti:
• Gandhi Jayanti is celebrated nationwide with various activities like prayer meetings, cultural events, and cleanliness drives honoring Mahatma Gandhi’s legacy.
• Mahatma Gandhi, born on 2nd October 1869, is renowned for his principles of non-violence, truth, and social reforms.
• The day is observed as a national holiday, and events promoting peace and cleanliness take place across the country.
• It is also recognized globally as the International Day of Non-Violence, highlighting Gandhi’s influence on the world.
• Impact of Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan:
• Since its inception, the mission has achieved significant milestones, including the construction of over 100 million toilets, making many areas open defecation-free (ODF).
• The campaign has helped improve the overall sanitation coverage in India, with increased awareness about hygiene and cleanliness.
• It has also promoted waste segregation, recycling, and eco-friendly practices, contributing to a cleaner environment.
• Other National Festivals in India:
• Independence Day: Celebrated annually on 15th August, marking India’s independence from British rule in 1947.
• Republic Day: Observed on 26th January, commemorating the adoption of India’s Constitution in 1950.
• New Year: Celebrated globally on 1st January, marking the beginning of a new year.

Important Points

• Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan’s Symbolic Launch:
• The launch date, October 2nd, was deliberately chosen to honor Mahatma Gandhi’s lifelong commitment to cleanliness and sanitation.
• The campaign represents a tribute to Gandhi’s vision and aims to fulfill his dream of a clean India.
• Significance of Gandhi Jayanti:
• Gandhi Jayanti serves as a reminder of Mahatma Gandhi’s contributions to India’s independence and social reforms.
• It is an occasion to reflect on his teachings and implement his principles in daily life.

The correct answer is Sukhbir Singh Sandhu.

Key Points

• Sukhbir Singh Sandhu was appointed as an Election Commissioner in the Election Commission of India on 15 March 2024.
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body responsible for administering elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President of India.
• As an Election Commissioner, Sukhbir Singh Sandhu will play a key role in ensuring free, fair, and transparent elections.
• The appointment of Election Commissioners is made by the President of India under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.
• Prior to his appointment, Sukhbir Singh Sandhu has held various administrative positions and is known for his expertise in public administration and governance.

Additional Information

• Election Commission of India (ECI):
• The Election Commission of India was established on 25 January 1950 under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution.
• It is an independent constitutional authority responsible for conducting elections in India.
• The ECI consists of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners.
• The Commission functions as a watchdog to ensure free and fair elections, preventing malpractices and enforcing election laws.
• Appointment of Election Commissioners:
• The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners.
• They serve a tenure of 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
• Their independence is safeguarded by provisions ensuring their removal only through a process similar to that for Supreme Court judges.
• Responsibilities of Election Commissioners:
• They oversee the preparation of electoral rolls and conduct elections for the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the President and Vice-President of India.
• The Commission ensures compliance with the Representation of People Act and other election-related laws.
• They also address disputes related to recognition of political parties and allocation of election symbols.
• Recent Developments:
• The Commission has been adopting advanced technologies like Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) systems to enhance transparency.
• It has also introduced measures like Model Code of Conduct to ensure ethical practices during elections.

Important Points

• Article 324:
• It vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India.
• The Article provides the framework for the functioning and authority of the Election Commission.
• Representation of People Act, 1951:
• This Act governs the conduct of elections and outlines procedures for qualifications and disqualifications of members.
• It also specifies the rules regarding corrupt practices and electoral offenses.
• Chief Election Commissioner vs Election Commissioners:
• While the CEC holds the highest authority within the Election Commission, decisions are generally taken collectively by all members.
• In case of a disagreement, the majority view prevails.

The correct answer is Rahul Sipligunj and Kalabhairava.

Key Points

• The song 'Naatu Naatu' from the film RRR won the prestigious Golden Globe Award in 2023 for the category of 'Best Original Song'.
• The song was sung by Rahul Sipligunj and Kaala Bhairava, who are well-known playback singers in the Indian music industry.
• 'Naatu Naatu' was composed by M. M. Keeravani, a celebrated music director who has contributed significantly to Indian cinema, particularly in the Telugu film industry.
• The song became immensely popular for its vibrant beats, catchy lyrics, and energetic choreography, which resonated with audiences worldwide.
• The film RRR, directed by S. S. Rajamouli, is a Telugu-language epic action drama that has received international acclaim for its storytelling, performances, and technical brilliance.

Additional Information

• Rahul Sipligunj:
• Rahul Sipligunj is a prominent playback singer and independent musician from Hyderabad, India.
• He is known for his works primarily in the Telugu film industry and has gained popularity through independent music videos on YouTube.
• Rahul has a unique singing style and has performed in several blockbuster Telugu songs.
• Kaala Bhairava:
• Kaala Bhairava, the son of composer M. M. Keeravani, is a playback singer and music composer in the Telugu film industry.
• He has collaborated with his father on multiple projects and has established himself as a versatile vocalist.
• Kaala Bhairava's contribution to 'Naatu Naatu' added energy and authenticity to the track.
• Golden Globe Awards:
• The Golden Globe Awards are one of the most prestigious accolades in the global entertainment industry, recognizing excellence in film and television.
• The awards are presented annually by the Hollywood Foreign Press Association (HFPA).
• The win for 'Naatu Naatu' marked a significant milestone for Indian cinema on the international stage.
• RRR Film:
• RRR (Rise Roar Revolt) is a 2022 Indian Telugu-language epic action drama, set in the 1920s during India's freedom struggle.
• The film features Ram Charan and Jr. NTR in the lead roles, portraying fictionalized versions of real-life freedom fighters.
• RRR has received international acclaim for its storytelling, action sequences, and technical achievements.

The correct answer is Daman.

Key Points

• As per the Census 2011, Daman, a district in the union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, has the lowest sex ratio in India.
• The sex ratio of Daman is 591 females per 1000 males, which is significantly lower compared to other regions in the country.
• The low sex ratio in Daman is primarily attributed to migrant male laborers who constitute a significant proportion of the population, leading to a gender imbalance.
• Other districts mentioned in the options, such as Surat, Kargil, and Chandigarh, have comparatively better sex ratios than Daman.
• The sex ratio is a critical demographic indicator that reflects the number of females per 1000 males and is used to assess gender equity in society.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio in Census 2011:
• The sex ratio in India as per the 2011 Census is 940 females per 1000 males.
• Kerala has the highest sex ratio of 1084 females per 1000 males, while Haryana has one of the lowest among states with 879 females per 1000 males.
• Factors Influencing Low Sex Ratio in Daman:
• Migrant Workforce: A large influx of male migrant workers in industries and factories has skewed the demographic balance.
• Patriarchal Norms: Cultural preferences for male children in some regions contribute to gender imbalances.
• Sex Ratio in Other Districts:
• Surat: The sex ratio in Surat, Gujarat, is approximately 774 females per 1000 males, primarily due to the high number of male migrant laborers.
• Kargil: Kargil, in the union territory of Ladakh, has a sex ratio of 810 females per 1000 males, which is higher than Daman.
• Chandigarh: The union territory of Chandigarh has a sex ratio of 818 females per 1000 males, higher than Daman but still lower than the national average.
• Importance of Sex Ratio:
• The sex ratio is an important social indicator that reflects the status of women in society.
• A skewed sex ratio can lead to social issues, such as gender discrimination, imbalanced marriage markets, and increased crime rates against women.
• Government Initiatives to Improve Sex Ratio:
• Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme: Launched in 2015, this scheme aims to address the declining child sex ratio and promote education for girls.
• Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act, 1994: Enacted to prevent sex-selective abortions and regulate prenatal diagnostic techniques.

The correct answer is 1910.

Key Points

• The Indian Press Act of 1910 was enacted by the British government in India to control the press and curb nationalist activities.
• The Act granted the government extensive powers to demand security deposits from publishers and impose restrictions on the publication of materials deemed "seditious" or against the interests of the colonial administration.
• Under this Act, printers and publishers were required to register with the government, and authorities could seize printing presses and publications that violated its provisions.
• The Act was seen as a direct response to the growing revolutionary and nationalist movements in India, which were using the press as a medium to spread anti-colonial sentiments.
• It was among several legislative measures used by the British to suppress dissent and maintain control over the Indian population during the early 20th century.

Additional Information

• Historical Context:
• The Indian Press Act, 1910, was introduced during the tenure of Lord Minto, the then Viceroy of India, to counter the increasing influence of nationalist newspapers.
• During the early 20th century, Indian newspapers like Kesari and Amrita Bazar Patrika played a significant role in raising public awareness about colonial oppression.
• The Act was preceded by the Vernacular Press Act of 1878, which specifically targeted Indian-language publications.
• Impact on Indian Press:
• The Indian Press Act imposed heavy penalties and allowed the government to confiscate the printing presses of any publication that violated its provisions.
• It severely restricted the freedom of the press, which was a crucial tool for nationalist leaders to communicate with the masses.
• Despite the restrictions, Indian newspapers continued to play a pivotal role in the freedom movement by finding innovative ways to circumvent the Act.
• Examples of Press Control:
• Several nationalist publications were banned or heavily fined under the Indian Press Act, including Kesari, which was founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
• The Act also targeted revolutionary pamphlets and leaflets circulated by groups like the Anushilan Samiti and Ghadar Party.
• Repeal and Legacy:
• The oppressive measures of the Indian Press Act were gradually relaxed as nationalist movements gained momentum and international attention.
• Post-Independence, India adopted constitutional provisions to guarantee freedom of the press, ensuring that such restrictive laws would not exist in a democratic setup.

Important Points

• Vernacular Press Act (1878):
• This Act targeted Indian-language publications, requiring them to submit all materials for approval before publication.
• It was specifically aimed at curbing the spread of nationalist ideas among the Indian population.
• Role of Indian Newspapers:
• Newspapers like The Hindu, Kesari, and Amrita Bazar Patrika played a significant role in the freedom struggle by exposing colonial exploitation.
• These publications often faced censorship and fines under laws like the Indian Press Act of 1910.
• Freedom of Press Post-Independence:
• The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), ensuring a free press.
• India's press freedom is an essential part of its democracy, contrasting the restrictions imposed during colonial rule.

The correct answer is mesoglea.

Key Points

• Mesoglea is a gelatinous, non-cellular layer present between the two embryonic layers of animal cells in diploblastic organisms.
• It acts as a support structure and provides elasticity to the body of organisms like cnidarians (e.g., jellyfish, hydra, and corals).
• The two embryonic layers surrounding the mesoglea are the ectoderm (outer layer) and the endoderm (inner layer).
• Although the mesoglea is primarily acellular, it can contain a few scattered cells or connective tissue fibers in certain species.
• The presence of mesoglea is a characteristic feature of diploblastic animals, which lack a third embryonic layer (mesoderm) found in triploblastic organisms.

Additional Information

• Diploblastic Animals:
• Diploblastic animals, such as cnidarians and ctenophores, develop from two primary germ layers: the ectoderm and endoderm.
• They lack a mesoderm, which is the third germ layer found in triploblastic animals.
• The mesoglea, present between the ectoderm and endoderm, serves as a primitive connective tissue providing structural support.
• Ectoderm:
• The ectoderm is the outer germ layer in embryos, which later develops into structures such as the skin, hair, nails, and nervous system.
• In diploblastic animals, it forms the outer protective layer of the body.
• Endoderm:
• The endoderm is the inner germ layer that forms the gut lining, digestive glands, and other internal organs.
• In diploblastic animals, it lines the inner cavity and assists in digestion and nutrient absorption.
• Triploblastic Animals:
• In contrast to diploblastic animals, triploblastic animals have three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.
• The mesoderm gives rise to tissues such as muscle, bone, and circulatory systems, enabling more complex body structures and functions.
• Examples of Diploblastic and Triploblastic Animals:
• Diploblastic: Jellyfish, hydra, and corals.
• Triploblastic: Humans, fish, reptiles, birds, and amphibians.

The correct answer is Alcohols.

Key Points

• Alcohols contain the hydroxyl (-OH) group, which is highly polar due to the significant difference in electronegativity between oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
• The oxygen atom in the -OH group attracts the shared electron pair more strongly, creating a partial negative charge on oxygen and a partial positive charge on hydrogen.
• The presence of this asymmetrical charge distribution makes alcohols capable of forming hydrogen bonds, contributing to their solubility in water.
• Alcohols are commonly found in various chemical processes and are widely used in industries for solvent applications, fuel additives, and chemical synthesis.
• Hence, alcohols are the functional group that exhibits polarity due to the unsymmetrical charge distribution between oxygen and hydrogen atoms.

Additional Information

• Esters:
• Esters are characterized by the -COO- functional group and are generally less polar compared to alcohols.
• They are commonly used as fragrance agents and flavoring compounds in the food and cosmetic industries.
• Esters do not form significant hydrogen bonds, making them less soluble in water than alcohols.
• Carboxylic Acids:
• Carboxylic acids contain the -COOH group, which is also polar due to the electronegative oxygen atoms.
• They can form hydrogen bonds and exhibit acidic properties due to the ability to donate protons (H+).
• Carboxylic acids are widely used in organic synthesis, food preservation, and pharmaceuticals.
• Ethers:
• Ethers contain an oxygen atom bonded to two alkyl or aryl groups, represented as R-O-R.
• They are less polar compared to alcohols and do not form hydrogen bonds as effectively.
• Ethers are extensively used as solvents in organic reactions.
• Hydrogen Bonding in Alcohols:
• Alcohols can form hydrogen bonds due to the presence of the hydroxyl (-OH) group.
• This property makes alcohols highly soluble in polar solvents like water.
• Hydrogen bonding also contributes to the relatively high boiling points of alcohols compared to compounds of similar molecular weight.

Important Points

• Polarity: Polarity arises due to the unequal distribution of electrons between atoms in a molecule, leading to partial positive and negative charges.
• Hydrogen Bonding: Alcohols can form hydrogen bonds, which significantly influence their physical properties like boiling points and solubility.
• Applications: Alcohols are widely used in chemical industries, pharmaceuticals, and as biofuels.
• Comparison: Among the given options, alcohols stand out due to their highly polar nature and ability to form hydrogen bonds.

The correct answer is Kuchipudi.

Key Points

• Sarayu Sai was awarded the Natya Kalajyoti Award in 2006 for her contribution to the Kuchipudi dance style, which is a classical Indian dance form originating from Andhra Pradesh.
• Kuchipudi is known for its graceful movements, strong narrative expression, and incorporation of music and drama, making it unique among Indian classical dances.
• The dance form is deeply rooted in Indian mythology and often showcases themes from the Hindu epics such as the Mahabharata and Ramayana.
• Kuchipudi performances often include both solo and group acts, accompanied by traditional music and instruments like the mridangam and veena.
• Sarayu Sai played an integral role in promoting and preserving the Kuchipudi tradition through her performances and dedication to the art form.

Additional Information

• About Kuchipudi:
• Kuchipudi originated in a village named Kuchipudi in Krishna district, Andhra Pradesh.
• It is a dance-drama performance art that combines classical dance, acting, and storytelling, often portraying religious and spiritual narratives.
• The dance form is characterized by intricate footwork, fluid movements, and dramatic facial expressions.
• Performers are traditionally trained in both dance and music, as singing is an integral part of Kuchipudi performances.
• The costumes are elaborate and colorful, with heavy jewelry and makeup that enhance the visual appeal of the performance.
• Comparison with other classical dance forms:
• Bharatanatyam: Originated in Tamil Nadu, it is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, intricate hand gestures (mudras), and facial expressions.
• Odissi: Originated in Odisha, characterized by its lyrical movements and themes inspired by Vaishnavism and Shaivism.
• Kathak: Originated in northern India, it emphasizes storytelling through fast footwork and spins, often accompanied by Hindustani classical music.
• Mohiniyattam: Originated in Kerala, it is a graceful and feminine dance style showcasing love and devotion themes.
• Notable Kuchipudi Performers:
• Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma: Known for his exceptional performances and preservation of Kuchipudi traditions.
• Yamini Krishnamurthy: A prominent dancer who excelled in both Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam.
• Swapnasundari: An acclaimed dancer recognized for her contribution to Kuchipudi.
• Important Points:
• Kuchipudi is one of the eight classical dance forms recognized by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, India's national academy for music, dance, and drama.
• The dance form is performed in temples and theaters, making it both a spiritual and cultural tradition.

The correct answer is Charaka.

Key Points

• Charaka, an eminent scholar and physician of ancient India, is widely regarded as the "Father of Indian Medicine." He is associated with the foundational text of Ayurveda, the Charaka Samhita.
• In the Charaka Samhita, the human body is described in great detail, including the mention of 360 bones in the human body. This includes both the main bones and cartilaginous structures.
• The Charaka Samhita is considered one of the most comprehensive and earliest treatises on Ayurveda, focusing on internal medicine and philosophy.
• Charaka was not only a medical practitioner but also a philosopher, emphasizing the holistic approach to health, integrating physical, mental, and spiritual well-being.
• His works contributed significantly to the ancient understanding of anatomy, physiology, and medical ethics in India, influencing both traditional and modern medicine.

Additional Information

• About the Charaka Samhita:
• The Charaka Samhita is one of the foundational texts of Ayurveda, written in Sanskrit and dating back to around the 1st century BCE.
• It primarily focuses on internal medicine and provides detailed explanations of anatomy, physiology, pathology, pharmacology, and therapeutic practices.
• The text also emphasizes the role of diet, lifestyle, and mental health in maintaining overall health.
• It contains descriptions of various diseases, their symptoms, and treatments, along with the ethical code of conduct for physicians.
• Other Important Figures in Indian Medicine:
• Sushruta: Known as the "Father of Surgery," he authored the Sushruta Samhita, which focuses on surgical techniques and tools.
• Patanjali: Although not directly linked to anatomy, he is known for his contributions to Yoga and the Yoga Sutras, which integrate physical and mental health practices.
• Chanakya: A political strategist and author of the Arthashastra, he did not contribute to the field of medicine or anatomy.
• Shudraka: An ancient Indian playwright, best known for his work Mrichchhakatika, not related to medicine or anatomy.
• Relevance of Ancient Indian Medicine:
• The ancient Indian system of medicine, Ayurveda, has been practiced for over 5,000 years and continues to be relevant in holistic healthcare.
• The principles of Ayurveda, as described in texts like Charaka Samhita and Sushruta Samhita, emphasize prevention, personalized medicine, and the harmony of body, mind, and spirit.
• Modern research often revisits these ancient texts to uncover insights into natural remedies and alternative medicine.

Important Points

• The claim of 360 bones in the human body, as mentioned in ancient texts, reflects the inclusion of cartilaginous structures and smaller bone fragments, differing from the modern anatomical understanding of 206 bones.
• Ancient Indian medicine laid the groundwork for various concepts that align with contemporary practices, such as the importance of hygiene, balanced diet, and ethical medical practices.
• The ethical guidelines outlined by Charaka for physicians are remarkably progressive and emphasize the importance of compassion, confidentiality, and professionalism.

The correct answer is Limestone.

Key Points

• Limestone is a type of carbonate sedimentary rock, primarily composed of the minerals calcite (CaCO₃) and aragonite, which are different crystal forms of calcium carbonate.
• Limestone forms under marine conditions through the accumulation of shells, coral, algae, and other organic debris, or through chemical precipitation from water.
• This rock is widely used in construction, particularly in the production of cement and concrete, as well as in the manufacture of lime.
• Limestone can exhibit various textures such as fossiliferous limestone, which contains visible fossil fragments, and oolitic limestone, composed of small spherical grains called ooids.
• Limestone is an essential material in various industries, including agriculture for soil pH adjustment, water treatment, and even as a decorative stone for flooring and facades.

Additional Information

• Garnet:
• Garnet is a group of silicate minerals known for their use as gemstones and abrasives.
• It is typically found in metamorphic rocks, such as schists and gneisses, and has no relation to carbonate rocks like limestone.
• Garnets are prized for their hardness and brilliant colors, ranging from red to green.
• Feldspar:
• Feldspar is a group of rock-forming silicate minerals that constitute over 50% of Earth's crust.
• It is commonly found in igneous rocks like granite and basalt.
• Feldspar is unrelated to sedimentary rocks such as limestone.
• Marble:
• Marble is a metamorphic rock formed from the recrystallization of limestone or dolostone under high temperature and pressure.
• While marble originates from limestone, its mineral structure changes due to metamorphism, distinguishing it from sedimentary limestone.
• Marble is used extensively in sculpture, architecture, and decorative applications.
• Applications of Limestone:
• Limestone is a primary raw material in the cement industry and is calcined to produce lime (CaO).
• In agriculture, limestone is used to neutralize acidic soils.
• It is also utilized in steel production as a flux to remove impurities.
• In environmental applications, limestone helps in water treatment and flue gas desulfurization in power plants.

Important Points

• Geological Formation:
• Limestone is typically formed in shallow marine environments through the deposition of organic materials like shells and coral fragments.
• Some limestone formations are created by chemical precipitation of calcium carbonate directly from water.
• Global Distribution:
• Limestone deposits are found worldwide, including in countries like India, United States, China, and Italy.
• Famous limestone formations include the White Cliffs of Dover in England and the Carlsbad Caverns in the USA.
• Physical Characteristics:
• Limestone is typically light-colored, ranging from white to gray or tan.
• It has a density of around 2.3 to 2.7 g/cm³ and is relatively soft compared to other rocks, with a Mohs hardness of about 3 to 4.

The correct answer is Species Survival Commission.

Key Points

• The Species Survival Commission (SSC) is a part of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
• It is a global network of conservation experts that focuses on improving the status of species and ensuring their survival.
• The Harry Messel Award is given by the SSC to individuals who demonstrate exceptional leadership in species conservation efforts.
• Bibhab Kumar Talukdar, a noted conservationist from India, was awarded the Harry Messel Award in October 2024 for his contributions to species conservation, including his work with rhinoceroses and other critically endangered species.
• The SSC's efforts include engaging specialists across the globe to work on specific species groups, ecosystems, and conservation challenges.

Additional Information

• Species Survival Commission (SSC):
• The SSC is one of the six commissions of the IUCN, with a membership of over 10,000 volunteers globally.
• It focuses on addressing critical issues related to species conservation and biodiversity preservation.
• The SSC specializes in assessing the conservation status of species and publishing the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
• It collaborates with governments, NGOs, and local communities to implement conservation strategies.
• Harry Messel Award:
• The award is named after Professor Harry Messel, an influential conservation leader.
• It recognizes individuals who have demonstrated outstanding leadership in species conservation efforts.
• Recipients of this award are leaders in their field who have significantly contributed to the understanding and conservation of biodiversity.
• Bibhab Kumar Talukdar:
• He is an Indian conservationist and the founder of Aaranyak, an organization working for biodiversity conservation in Northeast India.
• His work has focused on rhinoceros conservation and addressing threats like habitat destruction and poaching.
• Talukdar has contributed to global conservation efforts through his association with organizations like the SSC.
• IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature):
• IUCN is a global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it.
• It was established in 1948 and works with governments, NGOs, scientists, and local communities.
• The IUCN is best known for its Red List of Threatened Species, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide.

Important Points

• Key Contributions of SSC:
• SSC plays a major role in formulating conservation strategies and influencing policy decisions globally.
• It coordinates with specialized groups, such as the Asian Rhino Specialist Group, to tackle region-specific conservation issues.
• IUCN Red List:
• The Red List categorizes species into groups like Least Concern, Vulnerable, Endangered, and Critically Endangered based on their risk of extinction.
• This list is used by policymakers to prioritize conservation efforts and allocate resources effectively.
• Other IUCN Awards:
• IUCN recognizes conservation achievements through awards like the John C. Phillips Memorial Medal and the Fred Packard Award.
• These awards highlight the importance of individual and collective efforts in biodiversity conservation.

The correct answer is Supreme Court.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority in the country and acts as the final interpreter of the Constitution of India.
• Under Article 141 of the Indian Constitution, the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India, making it the ultimate authority in constitutional interpretation.
• The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review under Article 13, which allows it to declare any law or executive action unconstitutional if it violates the Constitution.
• In disputes involving the interpretation of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has the exclusive jurisdiction as per Article 131.
• It also acts as the guardian of the Constitution, ensuring that the principles and provisions of the Constitution are upheld by all branches of the government.

Additional Information

• Role of the Lok Sabha:
• The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament of India and represents the people of the country.
• It has the power to make laws and amend the Constitution, but the interpretation of the Constitution is not its function.
• Its actions are subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court to ensure compliance with the Constitution.
• Role of the President:
• The President of India is the constitutional head of the executive branch, but they do not have the authority to interpret the Constitution.
• However, the President can seek the Supreme Court's advisory opinion under Article 143 on constitutional matters.
• Role of the Parliament:
• The Parliament has the authority to make and amend laws, including constitutional amendments.
• However, the constitutionality of laws enacted by the Parliament can be reviewed by the Supreme Court, which has the final say in interpretation.
• Judicial Review:
• The power of judicial review enables the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders.
• It ensures that the laws passed by the legislature and actions taken by the executive comply with the Constitution.
• This power is a fundamental aspect of the basic structure doctrine, which cannot be altered even by constitutional amendments.
• Important Points:
• The Supreme Court was established on January 28, 1950, under the Constitution of India.
• The Supreme Court comprises the Chief Justice of India and other judges, with the maximum strength fixed at 34 judges (as per the 2019 amendment).
• The Supreme Court also has appellate jurisdiction, original jurisdiction, and advisory jurisdiction.

The correct answer is Offering financial services to the low-income group.

Key Points

• Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) primarily aim to provide financial services to the low-income group, particularly those who do not have access to traditional banking systems. These services include small loans, savings accounts, insurance, and remittances.
• MFIs play a significant role in alleviating poverty by empowering individuals and small businesses to improve their economic status through access to credit and other financial resources.
• They target individuals in rural and semi-urban areas who lack access to formal banking and financial systems, enabling them to start or grow small businesses or meet essential needs such as healthcare and education.
• Microfinance services are designed specifically for the financially excluded population, promoting financial inclusion and fostering economic development in underserved communities.
• By providing micro-loans, MFIs help individuals become self-reliant, increase their income-generating capacity, and contribute to the economic growth of their communities.

Additional Information

• Functions and Features of Microfinance Institutions:
• Microfinance Institutions provide collateral-free loans, making it easier for low-income individuals to access credit.
• They focus on empowering women and small entrepreneurs, as they are often excluded from formal financial systems.
• MFIs promote self-employment and entrepreneurship by providing financial support for small business ventures.
• They also educate individuals about financial literacy and savings, encouraging sustainable financial habits.
• MFIs operate in both rural and urban areas but have a stronger focus on rural development.
• Examples of Microfinance Institutions:
• Some prominent MFIs in India include SKS Microfinance, Bandhan Bank, Ujjivan Small Finance Bank, and Grameen Financial Services.
• Globally, institutions like the Grameen Bank in Bangladesh, founded by Nobel laureate Dr. Muhammad Yunus, are pioneers in the field of microfinance.
• Impact of Microfinance:
• Microfinance has been instrumental in reducing poverty levels by providing financial resources to those in need.
• It fosters economic independence and helps in building a sustainable livelihood for individuals and families.
• Microfinance contributes to gender equality, as many programs specifically target women, empowering them economically and socially.
• Important Points:
• Microfinance is closely aligned with the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly goals related to poverty eradication, gender equality, and economic growth.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates MFIs in India to ensure transparency, fairness, and the protection of borrowers.
• Despite its benefits, microfinance faces challenges such as high-interest rates, repayment issues, and the need for more robust financial literacy programs for borrowers.

The correct answer is Option 3 (5 events).

Key Points

• The Olympic Badminton competition features five events, categorized based on gender and type of play.
• The five events are: Men’s Singles, Women’s Singles, Men’s Doubles, Women’s Doubles, and Mixed Doubles.
• Badminton was introduced as a full-medal sport in the 1992 Summer Olympics in Barcelona.
• The Mixed Doubles category was added later in the 1996 Atlanta Olympics.
• The competition format includes a group stage followed by knockout rounds, ensuring fair representation and competitive balance across all five events.

Additional Information

• History of Badminton in the Olympics:
• Badminton became a demonstration sport during the 1972 Munich Olympics, showcasing its potential as a global sport.
• It officially debuted as a medal sport during the 1992 Summer Olympics in Barcelona, with four events: Men’s Singles, Women’s Singles, Men’s Doubles, and Women’s Doubles.
• The Mixed Doubles event was introduced in the 1996 Atlanta Olympics, making it the fifth category in Olympic Badminton.
• Structure of Olympic Badminton Events:
• The five events are divided into two singles events (Men’s Singles and Women’s Singles) and three doubles events (Men’s Doubles, Women’s Doubles, and Mixed Doubles).
• Each event involves players or pairs competing in a group stage, followed by knockout rounds leading up to the finals.
• Rules and Scoring System:
• Badminton matches are played in a best-of-three games format, with each game played to 21 points.
• A player or team must win by at least a two-point margin unless the score reaches 29–29, in which case the first to 30 points wins.
• Notable Achievements in Olympic Badminton:
• Countries like China, Indonesia, South Korea, and Denmark dominate Olympic Badminton, with China being the most successful nation.
• Prominent players include Lin Dan (China), Lee Chong Wei (Malaysia), and Carolina Marin (Spain), who have made significant contributions to the sport.
• Important Points:
• Badminton is governed by the Badminton World Federation (BWF), which ensures that Olympic tournaments adhere to international standards.
• The sport requires a combination of speed, agility, precision, and endurance, making it one of the fastest racket sports in the world.

The correct answer is 10'.

Key Points

• As per the official NBA rules, the height of the basketball hoop (ring) is set at 10 feet (3.05 meters) above the playing surface. This is the universally accepted standard for professional basketball games.
• The hoop must be securely attached to the backboard, ensuring stability during the game. The upper edge of the rim must remain parallel to the floor.
• The rim is positioned equidistant from the vertical edges of the rectangular backboard, ensuring uniform gameplay and minimizing advantages/disadvantages based on court setup.
• The standard height of 10 feet has been in practice since the inception of basketball in the late 19th century by James Naismith, as it provides a balanced challenge for players of varying heights and skills.
• This measurement is used for all professional leagues, including the NBA, WNBA, NCAA, and most international competitions governed by FIBA.

Additional Information

• Basketball Court Dimensions:
• The standard court size for professional basketball is 94 feet by 50 feet (28.65 meters by 15.24 meters).
• The free-throw line is positioned 15 feet (4.57 meters) away from the backboard, and the three-point line distance varies by league (23.75 feet in the NBA, 22.15 feet for FIBA).
• Backboard Specifications:
• The backboard is a rectangular structure measuring 6 feet wide by 3.5 feet high (1.83 meters by 1.07 meters).
• The backboard provides rebound opportunities, making it a critical part of the basketball setup.
• Historical Context:
• Basketball was invented in 1891 by Dr. James Naismith as a game to keep athletes active indoors during winters.
• The original rules included the use of peach baskets as hoops, which evolved into the modern 10-foot hoop setup.
• Importance of Standard Hoop Height:
• The 10-foot height provides a balanced level of difficulty, allowing for strategic gameplay involving dunks, jump shots, and layups.
• Lowering or raising the hoop height significantly alters the dynamics of the game, impacting player performance and strategy.
• Variations for Youth Basketball:
• For younger players, the hoop height is often adjusted to 8 or 9 feet, depending on the age group, to make the game more accessible and enjoyable.
• This allows children to develop shooting techniques and confidence before transitioning to the standard height.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• The Films Division of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting organized the first part of the 'Nrityanjali', an online film festival dedicated to Indian Classical Dance and Maestros, in the year 2020.
• The initiative was introduced during the COVID-19 pandemic when cultural activities were promoted through virtual platforms.
• 'Nrityanjali' showcased documentaries and films featuring the rich heritage of Indian classical dance forms such as Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Odissi, and others, along with highlighting the works of eminent maestros.
• This festival aimed to promote and preserve India's traditional art forms while making them accessible to a wider audience through digital mediums.
• The online festival was part of the broader attempt to engage audiences virtually and continue the dissemination of India's cultural richness despite the restrictions imposed by the pandemic.

Additional Information

• Films Division of India:
• The Films Division was established in 1948 by the Government of India under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
• It is responsible for the production and distribution of documentaries, short films, and newsreels that focus on India's culture, heritage, and social issues.
• The division has played a crucial role in archiving significant events and cultural milestones in India's history.
• Indian Classical Dance Forms:
• India is home to eight recognized classical dance forms, including Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Kathakali, Manipuri, Kuchipudi, Odissi, Sattriya, and Mohiniyattam.
• Each dance form is deeply rooted in spiritual and cultural traditions and is often associated with ancient scriptures and temples.
• These dances are known for their intricate movements, storytelling through expressions (abhinaya), and music.
• Impact of COVID-19 on Cultural Activities:
• The COVID-19 pandemic necessitated a shift to virtual platforms for continuing cultural events and activities.
• Several organizations, including the Films Division, started hosting online festivals and webinars to keep art and culture alive during lockdowns.
• Virtual events made cultural content accessible to a global audience, enhancing cultural exchange and appreciation.
• Importance of Documenting Indian Art Forms:
• Documentaries and films on Indian art forms play a critical role in preserving heritage and educating future generations.
• They serve as archives of knowledge, techniques, and the legacy of renowned artists.
• Such initiatives also help in promoting tourism and global recognition of India's cultural diversity.

Important Points

• The 'Nrityanjali' online festival is part of the Films Division's efforts to use technology for cultural engagement and education.
• By organizing such events, the division aims to highlight the contributions of legendary dancers and choreographers who have shaped India's classical dance traditions.
• The initiative also underscores the importance of adapting cultural practices to modern digital platforms to ensure their continuity and relevance.

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) is a landmark Indian labour law and social security measure introduced in 2005.
• It aims to guarantee the ‘right to work’ by providing at least 100 days of wage employment to rural households in a financial year.
• Under this act, individuals in rural areas can demand employment, and the government is obligated to provide work within 15 days of the request; otherwise, unemployment allowance must be paid.
• The act focuses on creating durable assets like roads, canals, ponds, and wells to boost rural infrastructure.
• It is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development, ensuring transparency through mechanisms like Social Audits and the use of technology such as geo-tagging of assets.

Additional Information

• Key Features of MGNREGA:
• The act covers all rural areas in India and is applicable to adults who are willing to do unskilled manual work.
• It ensures equal wages for men and women under the scheme, promoting gender equality in rural employment.
• Work provided under MGNREGA must be within a 5-kilometer radius of the applicant’s residence; otherwise, additional travel allowances are granted.
• MGNREGA supports sustainable development by undertaking works related to water conservation, afforestation, and drought-proofing.
• Significance of MGNREGA:
• The act serves as a critical tool for reducing rural poverty and unemployment by creating guaranteed wage opportunities.
• It contributes to strengthening grassroots democracy by involving Panchayati Raj Institutions in planning and implementation.
• MGNREGA has been instrumental in mitigating the effects of drought, floods, and other disasters by creating durable assets that enhance community resilience.
• Comparison with Other Acts:
• Indian Institutes of Management Act: Focuses on the governance of IIMs, not related to labour or social security.
• Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act: Provides social security in the form of retirement benefits to employees but does not guarantee employment.
• Citizenship Act: Deals with matters of nationality and citizenship, not employment or social security.
• Historical Context:
• MGNREGA was enacted during the tenure of Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and is often regarded as one of the most ambitious social welfare schemes in India.
• The act was inspired by earlier employment generation programs like the National Food for Work Programme (2004).

Shortcut Trick

Mean proportional = √(a × b)

⇒ √(36 × N) = 3 × √(8 × 32)

⇒ 6√N = 3 × √256 = 3 × 16 = 48

⇒ √N = 8

⇒ N = 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Alternate Method

Given:

Mean proportional between 36 and N is 3 times the mean proportional between 8 and 32.

Formula Used:

Mean proportional between a and b = √(a × b)

√(36 × N)

3 ×

√(8 × 32)

6√N

3 × 16

6√N = 48  →  N = 64

Calculations:

⇒ Mean proportional between 8 and 32 = √(8 × 32)

⇒ √(256) = 16

⇒ Mean proportional between 36 and N = √(36 × N)

⇒ √(36N) = 6√N

⇒ According to the given condition, 6√N = 3 × 16

⇒ 6√N = 48

⇒ √N = 48 ÷ 6 = 8

⇒ N = 8² = 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is given by √(a × b).

Third Proportional

For two numbers a and b, the third proportional c is found using the relation a:b :: b:c, which gives c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

For three numbers a, b, and c, the fourth proportional d is calculated as a:b :: c:d, leading to d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Shortcut Trick

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Total Distance = (50 × 2) + (40 × 2.5) + (60 × 3) = 100 + 100 + 180 = 380 km

Total Time = 2 + 2.5 + 3 = 7.5 hours

Average Speed = 380 ÷ 7.5 = 50.666... ≈ 50.67 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 50.67 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed 1 (S₁) = 50 km/hr, Time 1 (T₁) = 2 hours

Speed 2 (S₂) = 40 km/hr, Time 2 (T₂) = 2.5 hours

Speed 3 (S₃) = 60 km/hr, Time 3 (T₃) = 3 hours

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

100 km 100 km 180 km

50 km/hr 40 km/hr 60 km/hr

2 hr 2.5 hr 3 hr

Total Distance = 380 km | Total Time = 7.5 hr

Calculations:

⇒ Distance 1 (D₁) = 50 × 2 = 100 km

⇒ Distance 2 (D₂) = 40 × 2.5 = 100 km

⇒ Distance 3 (D₃) = 60 × 3 = 180 km

⇒ Total Distance = 100 + 100 + 180 = 380 km

⇒ Total Time = 2 + 2.5 + 3 = 7.5 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 380 ÷ 7.5 = 3800 ÷ 75

⇒ Average Speed = 152 ÷ 3 = 50.666... km/hr

⇒ Rounding off to two decimal places, we get 50.67 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 50.67 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Two Equal Distances

If an object covers two equal distances at speeds x and y respectively, the average speed for the entire journey is given by the formula: (2xy) ÷ (x + y).

Average Speed for Three Equal Distances

If three equal distances are covered at speeds x, y, and z respectively, the average speed is given by the formula: (3xyz) ÷ (xy + yz + zx).

Relative Speed

For two objects moving in the same direction, relative speed = |S₁ − S₂|. For objects moving in opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(20, 36) = 180 units.

Efficiency of (A + B) = 180 ÷ 20 = 9 units/day | (B + C) = 180 ÷ 36 = 5 units/day.

Work split: 5A + 10B + 15C = 180 ⇒ 5(A + B) + 5(B + C) + 10C = 180

⇒ 5 × 9 + 5 × 5 + 10C = 180 ⇒ 70 + 10C = 180 ⇒ C = 11 units/day.

Time for C alone = 180 ÷ 11 = 16 ⁴/₁₁ days.

∴ The correct answer is 16 ⁴/₁₁ days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by (A + B) = 20 days

Time taken by (B + C) = 36 days

Calculations:

⇒ Work completed by A in 5 days, B in 10 days, and C in 15 days = Total Work

⇒ 5A + 10B + 15C = 180

⇒ 5A + 5B + 5B + 5C + 10C = 180

⇒ 5(A + B) + 5(B + C) + 10C = 180

⇒ 5 × 9 + 5 × 5 + 10C = 180

⇒ 45 + 25 + 10C = 180

⇒ 70 + 10C = 180

⇒ 10C = 180 − 70

⇒ 10C = 110

⇒ C = 11 units/day

⇒ Time taken by C alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of C

⇒ Time = 180 ÷ 11

⇒ Time = 16 ⁴/₁₁ days

∴ The correct answer is 16 ⁴/₁₁ days.

Additional Information

Total Work and Efficiency

Total Work is calculated as the LCM of the given time periods. Efficiency is the work done per day and is inversely proportional to the time taken.

Work Split Technique

When individual times are unknown but pair sums are given, rearrange the worked days to form known pairs. Example: 5A + 10B = 5(A + B) + 5B.

Pipes & Cisterns

Follows the exact same LCM logic as Time & Work. Filling pipes have positive efficiency, while emptying (leakage) pipes have negative efficiency.

Shortcut Trick

Time for first part = 200 ÷ 100 = 2 hours.

Time for second part = 150 ÷ 75 = 2 hours.

Since the time taken for both parts is exactly equal, the average speed is simply the arithmetic mean of the individual speeds.

Average Speed = (100 + 75) ÷ 2 = 175 ÷ 2 = 87.5 km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 87.5 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

D₁ = 200 km, S₁ = 100 km/h

D₂ = 150 km, S₂ = 75 km/h

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Distance = 200 km Speed = 100 km/h Time = 200 ÷ 100 = 2 hr

Distance = 150 km Speed = 75 km/h Time = 150 ÷ 75 = 2 hr

Total Distance = 350 km | Total Time = 4 hr Average Speed = 350 ÷ 4 = 87.5 km/h

Calculations:

⇒ T₁ = 200 ÷ 100 = 2 hours

⇒ T₂ = 150 ÷ 75 = 2 hours

⇒ Total Distance = 200 + 150 = 350 km

⇒ Total Time = 2 + 2 = 4 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 350 ÷ 4 = 87.5 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 87.5 km/h.

Additional Information

Average Speed (Equal Distance)

When a journey is divided into two equal halves traveled at speeds x and y, Average Speed = (2xy) ÷ (x + y).

Average Speed (Equal Time)

When a journey is divided into parts where the exact same time is taken for each part, Average Speed = (S₁ + S₂ + ... + S_n) ÷ n.

Relative Speed

When two objects move in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂. When moving in the same direction, Relative Speed = |S₁ − S₂|.

Shortcut Trick

Observe that 46 is a factor of 138 (46 × 3 = 138) and 68 is a factor of 136 (68 × 2 = 136).

Therefore, LCM (46, 68, 136, 138) is simply the LCM of the larger multiples: LCM (136, 138).

Since 136 = 2 × 68 and 138 = 2 × 69, their highest common factor is 2.

As 68 and 69 are consecutive integers, they are coprime (no further common factors).

LCM = 2 × 68 × 69 = 136 × 69 = 9384.

∴ The correct answer is 9384.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers: 46, 68, 136 and 138

Method Used:

We can find the LCM by taking the highest power of each prime factor present in the prime factorisation of all the numbers.

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorisation of 46 = 2 × 23

⇒ Prime factorisation of 68 = 2² × 17

⇒ Prime factorisation of 136 = 2³ × 17

⇒ Prime factorisation of 138 = 2 × 3 × 23

⇒ The distinct prime factors found are 2, 3, 17, and 23.

⇒ The highest powers of these prime factors are 2³, 3¹, 17¹, and 23¹.

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3 × 17 × 23

⇒ LCM = 8 × 3 × 17 × 23

⇒ LCM = 24 × 17 × 23

⇒ LCM = 408 × 23 = 9384

∴ The correct answer is 9384.

Additional Information

LCM (Least Common Multiple)

The smallest number that is a multiple of all given numbers. It can be found by multiplying the highest powers of all prime factors.

HCF (Highest Common Factor)

The largest number that perfectly divides the given numbers. The relationship between two numbers is given by: a × b = LCM × HCF.

Coprime Numbers

Two numbers are coprime if their only common factor is 1. Consecutive integers are always coprime. Their LCM is equal to their direct product.

Shortcut Trick

Interest difference = (Difference in Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

480 = [(10200 − 5400) × R × 5] ÷ 100

480 = (4800 × R × 5) ÷ 100

480 = 240 × R

R = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Nirmal's principal (P₁) = ₹10200

Atul's principal (P₂) = ₹5400

Time (T) = 5 years

Difference in Simple Interest = ₹480

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Simple Interest Difference

Nirmal: P = ₹10200 Interest = (10200 × R × 5) ÷ 100

Atul: P = ₹5400 Interest = (5400 × R × 5) ÷ 100

Diff = ₹4800

Interest Diff = ₹480 → (4800 × R × 5) ÷ 100 = 480

Calculations:

⇒ Nirmal's Interest = (10200 × R × 5) ÷ 100 = 510R

⇒ Atul's Interest = (5400 × R × 5) ÷ 100 = 270R

⇒ According to the question, Nirmal gets ₹480 more than Atul.

⇒ 510R − 270R = 480

⇒ 240R = 480

⇒ R = 480 ÷ 240 = 2

⇒ Rate of interest = 2%

∴ The correct answer is 2%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI)

The interest calculated only on the principal portion of a loan. Formula: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Compound Interest (CI)

The interest calculated on the initial principal and also on the accumulated interest of previous periods. Formula: Amount = P(1 + R ÷ 100)^T.

SI vs CI Difference

For 2 years, the difference between CI and SI on the same principal is calculated as: D = P × (R ÷ 100)².

Shortcut Trick

Relative speed = 60 + 70 = 130 km/h = 130 × (5 ÷ 18) ≈ 36.11 m/s.

Total distance covered in 26 seconds = 36.11 × 26 = 938.86 m.

Length of the second train = Total distance − Length of first train

Length of the second train = 938.86 − 170 = 768.86 m.

∴ The correct answer is 768.86 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of Train 1 (S₁) = 60 km/h

Speed of Train 2 (S₂) = 70 km/h

Length of Train 1 (L₁) = 170 m

Time to cross (T) = 26 seconds

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (opposite directions) = S₁ + S₂

Total distance to cross = L₁ + L₂

Distance = Speed × Time

Train 1: 170m

60 km/h

Train 2: L

70 km/h

Relative Speed = 60 + 70 = 130 km/h Total Distance = 170 + L Crossing Time = 26 seconds

Calculations:

⇒ Relative Speed = 60 + 70 = 130 km/h

⇒ Converting km/h to m/s: 130 × (5 ÷ 18) = 36.11 m/s (approximated to 2 decimal places)

⇒ Total Distance = Relative Speed × Time

⇒ 170 + L₂ = 36.11 × 26

⇒ 170 + L₂ = 938.86 m

⇒ L₂ = 938.86 − 170

⇒ L₂ = 768.86 m

∴ The correct answer is 768.86 m.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two bodies move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds (S₁ + S₂).

Crossing Objects with Length

When a moving train crosses another train, platform, or bridge, the total distance covered by the trains to completely pass each other is the sum of their lengths (L₁ + L₂).

Unit Conversion for Speed

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply the speed value by 5 ÷ 18. To convert m/s back to km/h, multiply by 18 ÷ 5.

Shortcut Trick

Base Area of Cylinder = π × r² = (22 ÷ 7) × 7 × 7 = 154 m²

Volume of Cylinder = Base Area × Depth

⇒ Depth = Volume ÷ Base Area

⇒ Depth = 4774 ÷ 154 = 31 m

∴ The correct answer is 31 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Capacity (Volume) of the cylindrical tank, V = 4774 m³

Radius of the base, r = 7 m

Formula Used:

Volume of a cylinder (V) = π × r² × h

Where r is the radius and h is the depth (height) of the cylinder.

r = 7 m

Depth (h) = ?

V = 4774 m³

Calculation:

⇒ 4774 = (22 ÷ 7) × 7² × h

⇒ 4774 = (22 ÷ 7) × 49 × h

⇒ 4774 = 22 × 7 × h

⇒ 4774 = 154 × h

⇒ h = 4774 ÷ 154

⇒ h = 31 m

∴ The correct answer is 31 m.

Additional Information

Curved Surface Area of a Cylinder

The lateral or curved surface area is calculated as CSA = 2 × π × r × h.

Total Surface Area of a Cylinder

It includes the areas of both circular bases and the curved surface: TSA = 2 × π × r × (r + h).

Volume of a Cone

A cone with the same base radius and height has one-third the volume of a cylinder: V = (1 ÷ 3) × π × r² × h.

Shortcut Trick

Selling Price = Marked Price × Multiplying factor for discount

SP = 6490 × (100 − 18)%

SP = 6490 × 0.82

SP = 5321.8 ≈ 5322 (Rounded off to nearest rupee)

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,322.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) of the injection = ₹6,490

Discount percentage = 18%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100

MP ₹6490

SP ₹5322

−18% Discount × 0.82

Calculations:

⇒ SP = 6490 × (100 − 18) ÷ 100

⇒ SP = 6490 × 82 ÷ 100

⇒ SP = 649 × 8.2

⇒ SP = 5321.8

⇒ Rounding off to the nearest rupee, SP ≈ 5322

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,322.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP) of an article. It represents the reduction in price offered by the seller. The direct formula is Discount = MP − SP.

Successive Discounts

When two successive discounts of D₁% and D₂% are given, the Effective Discount Percentage is equivalent to: (D₁ + D₂ − (D₁ × D₂) ÷ 100)%.

Profit/Loss vs Discount Relation

Profit or Loss is always evaluated over the Cost Price (CP), whereas Discount applies to the Marked Price (MP). They are linked by the fundamental relation: CP × (100 + Profit%) = MP × (100 − Discount%).

Shortcut Trick

Using the ratio method for successive percentage changes:

15% ↓ ⇒ 20 → 17 | 25% ↓ ⇒ 4 → 3 | 35% ↓ ⇒ 20 → 13 | 40% ↑ ⇒ 5 → 7

Initial parts product = 20 × 4 × 20 × 5 = 8000

Final parts product = 17 × 3 × 13 × 7 = 4641

Decrease % = [(8000 − 4641) ÷ 8000] × 100 = 3359 ÷ 80 = 41.9875% ≈ 41.98%

∴ The correct answer is 41.98% decrease.

Alternate Method

Given:

Successive changes in fuel price: Decreases by 15%, 25%, 35%, followed by an increase of 40%.

Formula Used:

Final Value = Initial Value × (1 ± R₁/100) × (1 ± R₂/100) × (1 ± R₃/100) × (1 ± R₄/100)

Calculation:

−15% −25% −35% +40%

100 Start

85

63.75

41.44

58.01 Final

Overall Decrease: 41.98%

Let the initial price of the fuel be 100.

⇒ Price after 1st month (15% decrease) = 100 × (1 − 0.15) = 85

⇒ Price after 2nd month (25% decrease) = 85 × (1 − 0.25) = 63.75

⇒ Price after 3rd month (35% decrease) = 63.75 × (1 − 0.35) = 41.4375

⇒ Price after 4th month (40% increase) = 41.4375 × (1 + 0.40) = 58.0125

⇒ Net decrease in price = Initial Price − Final Price = 100 − 58.0125 = 41.9875

⇒ Percentage decrease = (41.9875 ÷ 100) × 100% = 41.9875% ≈ 41.98%

∴ The correct answer is 41.98% decrease.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value undergoes successive changes of a% and b%, the net percentage change can be tracked using multiplying factors: Final = Initial × (1 ± a/100) × (1 ± b/100).

Fraction to Percentage Conversion

Converting percentage changes into fractions immensely simplifies calculation. For example, a 15% decrease becomes a multiplier of 85/100 or 17/20, and a 40% increase becomes 140/100 or 7/5.

Net Percentage Change via Ratio Method

For three or more changes, set up initial and final ratio parts for each step. Multiply all initial parts together and all final parts together to find the overall base and result, then compute the net percentage change directly.

Shortcut Trick

Let the fourth proportional to a, b, and c be x.

Using the direct formula: x = (b × c) ÷ a

Substitute the given values (a = 17, b = 87, c = 119):

⇒ x = (87 × 119) ÷ 17

⇒ x = 87 × 7 = 609

∴ The correct answer is 609.

Alternate Method

Given:

Three numbers: 17, 87, and 119

Formula Used:

If four numbers a, b, c, and d are in proportion, then a : b :: c : d

⇒ a ÷ b = c ÷ d

⇒ Product of Extremes = Product of Means

Product of Means

17

:

87

::

119

:

x

Product of Extremes

Calculations:

Let the fourth proportional be x.

⇒ 17 : 87 :: 119 : x

⇒ 17 × x = 87 × 119

⇒ x = (87 × 119) ÷ 17

Since 119 ÷ 17 = 7:

⇒ x = 87 × 7

⇒ x = 609

∴ The correct answer is 609.

Additional Information

Third Proportional

If a and b are two numbers, their third proportional c satisfies a : b :: b : c, giving the formula c = b² ÷ a.

Mean Proportional

For two numbers a and b, the mean proportional x lies perfectly between them such that a : x :: x : b, yielding the formula x = √(a × b).

First Proportional

For three numbers b, c, and d, the first proportional a is determined by a : b :: c : d, resulting in a = (b × c) ÷ d.

Shortcut Trick

Let Ashish's initial share be A and Ketan's initial share be K.

Time for Ashish = 24 − 13 = 11 years | Time for Ketan = 24 − 14 = 10 years.

Ratio of their shares K / A = (1 + R/100)^{(11 − 10)} = (1 + 4/100)¹ = 104/100 = 26/25.

Ketan's share = 26 parts out of total (26 + 25) parts = 26/51 × 25500 = 26 × 500 = 13000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹13000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total money with Pramod = ₹25500

Age of Ashish = 13 years, Age of Ketan = 14 years

Target Age for receiving money = 24 years

Rate of Compound Interest (R) = 4% annually

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)^T

Ashish (13 yrs)

Ketan (14 yrs)

Amount at Age 24

T = 11 yrs @ 4%

T = 10 yrs @ 4%

Calculations:

⇒ Time for Ashish (T₁) = 24 − 13 = 11 years

⇒ Time for Ketan (T₂) = 24 − 14 = 10 years

⇒ Let Ashish's initial share be P₁ and Ketan's initial share be P₂.

⇒ Amount received by Ashish = P₁(1 + 4/100)¹¹

⇒ Amount received by Ketan = P₂(1 + 4/100)¹⁰

⇒ Since both receive the same amount at age 24:

⇒ P₁(104/100)¹¹ = P₂(104/100)¹⁰

⇒ P₂ / P₁ = (104/100)^{11 − 10} = 104/100 = 26/25

⇒ Ratio of Ketan's share to Ashish's share = 26 : 25

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 26 + 25 = 51 parts

⇒ Total money = 51 parts = ₹25500

⇒ 1 part = 25500 ÷ 51 = 500

⇒ Ketan's share (P₂) = 26 × 500 = ₹13000

∴ The correct answer is ₹13000.

Additional Information

Division of Amount with Equal Maturity

When a given sum is divided into two parts P₁ and P₂ such that their amounts are equal after t₁ and t₂ years respectively at R% compound interest, the ratio of their principal amounts is given by P₁ / P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{t₂ − t₁}.

Compound Interest Formula

A = P(1 + R/100)^T, where A is the final amount, P is the initial principal, R is the annual interest rate, and T is the time in years.

Simple vs Compound Interest

For the first compounding period, SI and CI are equal. For subsequent periods, CI is always greater than SI as interest is earned on the previously accumulated interest.

Shortcut Trick

Rate = 10% = 1/10 ⇒ Multiplying factor for Compound Interest = 11/10.

Difference in time for Varun and Raj = 19 − 18 = 1 year.

Ratio of principal shares (Raj : Varun) = 11¹ : 10¹ = 11 : 10.

Total parts = 11 + 10 = 21 parts ⇒ ₹1617

Raj's share (11 parts) = (1617 ÷ 21) × 11 = 77 × 11 = ₹847.

∴ The correct answer is ₹847.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Total amount = ₹1617

⇒ Rate of interest (R) = 10%

⇒ Time for Raj (n₁) = 18 years

⇒ Time for Varun (n₂) = 19 years

Formula Used:

⇒ Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

Total = ₹1617

Raj (P1) Time = 18 years Amount = A1

Varun (P2) Time = 19 years Amount = A2

A1 = A2

Calculations:

Let the amount given to Raj be P₁ and to Varun be P₂.

⇒ P₁ + P₂ = 1617

⇒ Amount of Raj = P₁(1 + 10/100)¹⁸

⇒ Amount of Varun = P₂(1 + 10/100)¹⁹

Since both receive the same amount:

⇒ P₁ × (11/10)¹⁸ = P₂ × (11/10)¹⁹

⇒ P₁ / P₂ = (11/10)¹⁹ ÷ (11/10)¹⁸

⇒ P₁ / P₂ = 11 / 10

⇒ Ratio of Raj's share to Varun's share = 11 : 10

⇒ Total ratio parts = 11 + 10 = 21

⇒ 21 parts = 1617

⇒ 1 part = 1617 ÷ 21 = 77

⇒ Raj's share (11 parts) = 11 × 77 = 847

∴ The correct answer is ₹847.

Additional Information

Compound Interest Formula

When interest is compounded annually, the final amount is given by A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ, where P is Principal, R is the Rate of interest, and n is the Time period in years.

Equal Amount Distribution

If a total sum P is split into P₁ and P₂ such that their amounts are equal after t₁ and t₂ years respectively at the same rate R%, the ratio of their principals is P₁/P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{t₂ − t₁}. The person whose money is invested for less time requires a larger principal share to reach the same final amount.

Given:

Expression = (−9) − (−60) ÷ (−12) + (−3) × 6

Formula Used:

BODMAS rule — Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

Calculation:

⇒ (−9) − (−60) ÷ (−12) + (−3) × 6

⇒ (−9) − 5 + (−18)

⇒ −9 − 5 − 18 = −32

∴ The correct answer is −32.

Shortcut Trick Given: 28 × CP = 32 × SP ⇒ CP / SP = 32 / 28 = 8 / 7 Let CP = 8 units and SP = 7 units. Loss = CP − SP = 8 − 7 = 1 unit. Loss % = (1 ÷ 8) × 100 = 12.5% ∴ The correct answer is 12.5%.

Alternate Method Given: Cost price of 28 bats = Selling price of 32 bats. Formula Used: Loss = Cost Price (CP) − Selling Price (SP) Loss Percentage = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100

Cost Price vs Selling Price Breakdown

Total Cost Price (CP) = 32 units

Selling Price (SP) = 28 units

Loss = 4

Loss % = (4 ÷ 32) × 100 = 12.5%

Calculations: ⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of 1 bat be ₹1. ⇒ Total CP of 32 bats = ₹32. ⇒ SP of 32 bats = CP of 28 bats = ₹28. ⇒ Since CP > SP, there is a loss. ⇒ Loss = 32 − 28 = ₹4. ⇒ Loss % = (4 ÷ 32) × 100 ⇒ Loss % = (1 ÷ 8) × 100 = 12.5% ∴ The correct answer is 12.5%.

Additional Information Marked Price & Discount Discount is always given on the Marked Price (MP). The formula is: Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100. Dishonest Dealer Concept When a dealer sells goods at cost price but uses a false weight, Profit % = [(True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight] × 100. Successive Discount For two successive discounts of a% and b%, Equivalent Single Discount = a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Cost Price per dozen = (1220 ÷ 100) × 12 = ₹146.4

Profit per dozen = (920 ÷ 400) × 12 = ₹27.6

Selling Price per dozen = Cost Price + Profit

Selling Price per dozen = 146.4 + 27.6 = ₹174

∴ The correct answer is ₹174.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of apples = 400

Cost price of 100 apples = ₹1220

Total profit on selling all apples = ₹920

Formula Used:

Total Cost Price = (Cost Price per unit) × Total Quantity

Total Selling Price = Total Cost Price + Total Profit

Total CP ₹4880

Total SP ₹5800

• ₹920 (Profit) SP per dozen = (5800 ÷ 400) × 12 = ₹174

Calculations:

⇒ Cost Price (CP) of 400 apples = 1220 × 4 = ₹4880

⇒ Total Selling Price (SP) of 400 apples = Total CP + Profit

⇒ Total SP = 4880 + 920 = ₹5800

⇒ Selling Price of 1 apple = 5800 ÷ 400 = ₹14.5

⇒ Selling Price of 1 dozen (12 apples) = 14.5 × 12 = ₹174

∴ The correct answer is ₹174.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when the Selling Price (SP) is greater than the Cost Price (CP). Profit = SP − CP. Conversely, Loss occurs when CP is greater than SP. Loss = CP − SP.

Unitary Method

To find the price of multiple items, first find the price of 1 item by dividing the total price by the total quantity, then multiply by the desired quantity.

Given:

Expression = [(17 × 16) × {8 ÷ 8 × (18 − 11) ÷ 7}]

Formula Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule — Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

Calculation:

⇒ (18 − 11) = 7

⇒ Inside braces: {8 ÷ 8 × 7 ÷ 7}

⇒ 8 ÷ 8 = 1

⇒ 1 × 7 = 7

⇒ 7 ÷ 7 = 1

⇒ Now the expression = (17 × 16) × 1

⇒ 17 × 16 = 272

∴ The correct answer is 272.

Given:

4% of x = 96

Formula Used:

Percentage formula: % × value = result

To find x: x = result ÷ (% ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ 4 ÷ 100 = 0.04

⇒ x = 96 ÷ 0.04

⇒ x = 2400

∴ The correct answer is 2400.

Shortcut Trick

Let the assumed average be ₹300.

Deviations from 300: Group A = +103, Group B = +83, Group C = −72

Net deviation = (44 × 103) + (26 × 83) + (45 × (−72))

Net deviation = 4532 + 2158 − 3240 = +3450

Actual average = Assumed Average + (Net deviation ÷ Total members) = 300 + (3450 ÷ 115)

Actual average = 300 + 30 = ₹330

∴ The correct answer is ₹330.

Alternate Method

Given:

Members in Group A, B, and C = 44, 26, and 45 respectively.

Average amount spent = ₹403, ₹383, and ₹228 respectively.

Formula Used:

Combined Average = (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂ + n₃x₃) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + n₃)

Group A: 44 Avg: ₹403

Group B: 26 Avg: ₹383

Group C: 45 Avg: ₹228

Total Members: 115 Net Avg: ₹330

Calculations:

⇒ Total members = 44 + 26 + 45 = 115

⇒ Total amount spent by Group A = 44 × 403 = ₹17732

⇒ Total amount spent by Group B = 26 × 383 = ₹9958

⇒ Total amount spent by Group C = 45 × 228 = ₹10260

⇒ Total amount spent = 17732 + 9958 + 10260 = ₹37950

⇒ Combined Average = 37950 ÷ 115 = ₹330

∴ The correct answer is ₹330.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

Used to find the combined average of multiple groups with varying sample sizes. Formula: A_w = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂ + ... ) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + ... )

Deviation Method

A time-saving shortcut method to calculate the average of large numbers without massive multiplications. Actual Average = Assumed Average + (Net Deviation ÷ Total Count).

Average Change Rule

When adding or removing an element from a set, the change in average is distributed equally among all remaining members. Change = (New Value − Old Average) ÷ Total Count.

Shortcut Trick

We know that the product of two numbers is equal to the product of their LCM and HCF.

Other Number = (LCM × HCF) ÷ Given Number

Other Number = (198 × 33) ÷ 99

Other Number = 198 ÷ 3 = 66

∴ The correct answer is 66.

Alternate Method

Given:

LCM of the two numbers = 198

HCF of the two numbers = 33

First number = 99

Formula Used:

First Number × Second Number = LCM × HCF

Calculations:

⇒ 99 × Second Number = 198 × 33

⇒ Second Number = (198 × 33) ÷ 99

⇒ Second Number = 198 × (33 ÷ 99)

⇒ Second Number = 198 × (1 ÷ 3)

⇒ Second Number = 198 ÷ 3

⇒ Second Number = 66

∴ The correct answer is 66.

Additional Information

Product Rule of LCM and HCF

The product of any two numbers is always exactly equal to the product of their Least Common Multiple (LCM) and Highest Common Factor (HCF). Note that this rule applies specifically to exactly two numbers.

LCM and HCF of Fractions

To find the LCM of fractions, use the formula: LCM of numerators ÷ HCF of denominators. For the HCF of fractions, use: HCF of numerators ÷ LCM of denominators.

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime, meaning they share no common positive factor other than 1, their HCF is 1, and their LCM is directly calculated as the product of the two numbers.

The correct answer is: Timidity.

Key Points

• The word "boldness" refers to the quality of showing courage, confidence, and a willingness to take risks; it demonstrates fearlessness in handling situations. (साहस)
• Example: Her boldness in speaking against injustice inspired many to join the cause.
• "Timidity" refers to a lack of courage or confidence and a tendency to avoid risks or confrontations; it is the opposite of boldness. (भीरुता)
• Example: His timidity prevented him from voicing his opinions in the meeting.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'boldness' is 'timidity'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Timidity.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Confidence (आत्मविश्वास): The feeling or belief that one can rely on someone or something; firm trust.
• Example: She spoke with confidence during her presentation, leaving a lasting impression on the audience.
• Correctness (सही होना): The quality of being accurate or right.
• Example: He checked the correctness of the calculations before submitting the report.
• Recklessness (लापरवाही): Lack of care or thought about the consequences of an action.
• Example: His recklessness while driving led to a serious accident.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the word "happy" after "danced."
• In this context, "happy" should be replaced with the adverb "happily" to describe the action of dancing correctly.
• Adverbs are used to modify verbs, and the correct phrase should be "She danced happily."
• Thus, the error is located in Option 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "She danced happily on the stage in the competition held last evening."

The correct answer is: Condemn.

Key Points

• The word "Exculpate" means to clear someone from blame or prove that they are not guilty of wrongdoing. (दोषमुक्त करना)
• Example: The lawyer managed to exculpate the defendant with strong evidence proving his innocence.
• "Condemn" refers to expressing complete disapproval of someone, often in a moral or legal sense, or declaring them guilty of a crime. (निंदा करना)
• Example: The jury condemned the defendant for his unethical actions after reviewing all the evidence.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Exculpate' is 'Condemn'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Condemn.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Vindicate (सत्य साबित करना): To clear someone of blame or suspicion and prove their innocence.
• Example: The evidence vindicated the accused, showing that they were not involved in the crime.
• Absolve (दोषमुक्त करना): To formally declare someone free from guilt, obligation, or punishment.
• Example: The priest absolved him of his sins after a heartfelt confession.
• Condone (अनदेखा करना): To accept or allow morally wrong behavior to continue.
• Example: The teacher refused to condone cheating in the examination hall.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "To get upper hand".

Key Points

• The idiom "To get upper hand" means to gain advantage, control, or dominance over someone or something. (प्रभुत्व प्राप्त करना)
• Example: The team worked hard to get the upper hand in the match and eventually won.
• The word "To get upper hand" fits the context of the sentence, as it emphasizes the father’s strong position as an MLA, implying dominance or advantage. (प्रभुत्व की स्थिति)
• Example: His father enjoyed the strongest position as an MLA, clearly having the upper hand in his constituency.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: To be at one's wit (चिंतित या असमंजस में): Refers to being at a point of extreme anxiety or confusion.
• Example: He was at his wit's end trying to solve the complex puzzle.
• Option 3: To be at hem of (प्रारंभिक स्थिति में होना): Refers to being at the beginning or under control of someone.
• Example: She was at the hem of her career when she joined the company.
• Option 4: To go to the dogs (बर्बादी की ओर जाना): Refers to a situation deteriorating or becoming worse.
• Example: After the company’s leadership changed, its business started going to the dogs.

The correct answer is 'shows'.

 

Key Points

• The verb "shows" is in the singular form and is appropriate because the subject "data" is treated as a singular collective noun.
• The sentence refers to the latest studies presenting data, which requires the singular verb "shows."
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The data from the latest studies shows a sharp rise in global temperatures."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "show" is incorrect because the subject "data" is treated as singular in this context, requiring "shows."
• Option 3: "are being show" is grammatically incorrect because "show" is not in the correct form.
• Option 4: "have been showing" is incorrect because it implies continuous action over time, which doesn't fit the sentence.

The correct answer is 'the'.

 

Key Points

• The definite article "the" is used to specify a particular noun that is known to the speaker and the listener.
• In this context, the question asks for a specific route that is best for avoiding traffic. Thus, "the" is the appropriate article to use.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect as they do not fit the grammatical or contextual requirement of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "Which route is the best for avoiding traffic?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "No article required" is incorrect because the sentence requires a definite article to specify the route.
• Option 2: "an" is incorrect because "an" is used before words starting with a vowel sound, and it does not fit the context here.
• Option 3: "a" is incorrect because "a" is an indefinite article and does not specify a particular route.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence highlights the characteristics of the project presented during the competition.
• The word "innovative" is appropriate for describing the project as modern and new.
• The processes used in the project are described as "efficient," meaning they are effective and practical.
• The panel judging the competition consists of "judges," which fits the context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: His innovative project featured modern technology, efficient processes and practical solutions, impressing the panel of judges during the competition.

Additional Information

• Innovative (नवोन्मेषी): means introducing new ideas or methods.
• Efficient (कुशल): means achieving maximum productivity with minimum wasted effort.
• Judges (न्यायाधीश): refers to individuals who evaluate and decide the outcome of a competition.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Distraught).

Key Points

• The word "Frantic" means showing extreme emotion, often due to stress, worry, or fear; it refers to someone behaving in a wildly excited or hurried way. (उन्मत्त)
• Example: She made frantic calls to her friends when she realized she had lost her wallet.
• "Distraught" refers to someone who is deeply upset, worried, or agitated, often to the point of being unable to think clearly. (हताश)
• Example: He was distraught after hearing the news of his friend’s accident.
• Hence, the word "Distraught" is the synonym of "Frantic".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Distraught).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Kinetic (गतिशील): Relating to or resulting from motion.
• Example: The kinetic energy of the moving car was enormous.
• Quaint (पुरानी शैली का): Attractively unusual or old-fashioned.
• Example: We stayed in a quaint little cottage during our vacation.
• Magnanimous (उदार): Generous or forgiving, especially toward a rival or less powerful person.
• Example: He was magnanimous in victory, thanking his opponents for their efforts.

The correct answer is: Radiant.

Key Points

• The word "Bright" means full of light, shining, or emitting a lot of light. It can also mean intelligent or cheerful. (चमकदार, तेज)
• Example: The bright sunlight filled the room with warmth.
• "Radiant" means shining or glowing brightly, often used to describe something emitting light or heat, or someone looking happy and healthy. (दमकता हुआ)
• Example: She looked radiant in her wedding dress.
• Hence, the most appropriate meaning of the word "Bright" is "Radiant."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Radiant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Immense (विशाल): Extremely large or great in size, scale, or degree.
• Example: The ocean is an immense body of water.
• Hooked (आदी): Captivated, fascinated, or addicted to something.
• Example: He is hooked on reading mystery novels.
• Unlit (बुझा हुआ): Not lit; lacking light or illumination.
• Example: The room was unlit and filled with shadows.

The correct answer is: Brief.

Key Points

• The word "succinct" means something expressed in a clear, concise, and brief manner, without unnecessary words. (संक्षिप्त)
• Example: Her email response was succinct, covering all key points in just two sentences.
• "Brief" refers to something that is short in duration or length, or concise in expression. (संक्षिप्त)
• Example: The teacher gave a brief explanation of the topic before moving on to the next chapter.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'succinct' is 'brief'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Brief.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Lengthy (लंबा): Something that is long in duration or contains excessive details.
• Example: The lengthy speech bored the audience after the first ten minutes.
• Complicated (जटिल): Something that is difficult to understand or requires effort to figure out.
• Example: The instructions for assembling the furniture were so complicated that I had to call a professional.
• Detailed (विस्तृत): Something that contains a lot of information or goes into depth.
• Example: The report provided a detailed analysis of the company’s financial performance over the last year.

The correct answer is: a white elephant.

Key Points

• The phrase "a white elephant" refers to something that is expensive but serves no useful purpose or is considered a burden. (बोझ या अनुपयोगी चीज)
• Example: The government building turned out to be a white elephant as it remained unused for years.
• The given sentence refers to the car being a "useless one," which aligns with the meaning of "a white elephant."

Therefore, the correct answer is: a white elephant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• A gift of gab (बोलने की कला): The ability to speak easily, confidently, and persuasively.
• Example: She has the gift of gab and can charm anyone with her words.
• Bite the bullet (मुश्किल स्थिति का सामना करना): To face a difficult or unpleasant situation with courage.
• Example: He decided to bite the bullet and tell his boss about his mistake.
• In doldrums (निराशाजनक स्थिति में): To be in a state of inactivity, stagnation, or depression.
• Example: After losing his job, he was in the doldrums for months.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Adverbs are placed near the verb or adjective they modify for clarity.
• Option 4 ("Larry complete had forgotten about the meeting") is incorrect because the adverb "completely" has been replaced with "complete," which is an adjective, making the sentence grammatically incorrect.
• The correct sentence should use the adverb "completely": "Larry had completely forgotten about the meeting."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Larry had completely forgotten about the meeting."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Larry had certainly forgotten about the meeting" – This sentence is correct and uses the adverb "certainly" appropriately.
• Option 2: "Larry had almost forgotten about the meeting" – This sentence is correct and uses the adverb "almost" appropriately.
• Option 3: "Larry had completely forgotten about the meeting" – This sentence is correct and uses the adverb "completely" appropriately.

The correct answer is 'instant'.

 

Key Points

• The word "instant" means immediate or happening without delay. (तुरंत)
• In the given context, the sentence implies that soldiers are expected to follow the commander’s orders without any delay, making "instant" the most appropriate choice.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: When the commander gives an order, instant obedience is expected of the soldiers.

Additional Information

• Suddenly (अचानक): denotes something happening abruptly or without warning.
• Hurry (जल्दबाजी): refers to rushing or moving quickly.
• Fastly: is not a standard English word and cannot be used grammatically in this context.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Deciet'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Deceit'.
• The word 'Deceit' is a noun which means 'the action or practice of deceiving someone by concealing or misrepresenting the truth'. (धोखाधड़ी)
• For Example -
• She was accused of using deceit to gain information.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Deciet'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Fright - a sudden intense feeling of fear (डर)
• Anomaly - something that deviates from what is standard, normal, or expected (असामान्यता)
• Consistent - acting or done in the same way over time, especially so as to be fair or accurate (सुसंगत)

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'knowlege'.

• The correct spelling would be 'knowledge'.
• The word 'knowledge' is a noun which means 'facts, information, and skills acquired through experience or education'. (ज्ञान)
• For Example -
• She has extensive knowledge of mathematics and science.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'knowledge'.

The correct answer is 'of'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence is: "The last one of this long procession (1) _______ silent men and women was a little wizened old man."
• Here, the preposition ‘of’ is used to show belonging or association.
• The phrase “procession of silent men and women” means the procession consists of silent men and women.
• Other options like for, to, and in do not convey the correct relationship between “procession” and “silent men and women.”

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1 – of'.

 

Additional Information

• of – shows belonging or composition (correct choice).
• for – shows purpose (incorrect here).
• to – shows direction or relation (doesn’t fit context).
• in – shows location (not appropriate here).

The correct answer is 'carried'.

 

Key Points

• The passage is written in the past tense, as seen in the phrase "The last one of this long procession was a little wizened old man."
• Therefore, the verb in blank (2) must also be in the past tense to maintain consistency in narration.
• Among the given options, "carried" is the correct past tense form of "carry."
• Hence, the correct sentence is: "Even he carried a load of two baskets, slung on a pole on his shoulder."

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1 – carried'.

 

Additional Information

• carries: Present tense – does not fit the past narrative of the passage.
• carry: Base form of the verb – grammatically incorrect in this context.
• carrying: Continuous form – would require an auxiliary verb (e.g., “was carrying”).

The correct answer is 'There'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence is: “(3) ______ he kept a folded quilt and a cauldron.”
• The word needed here should indicate place or position, referring to one of the baskets.
• “There” is used correctly to refer to a location — in this case, the basket where the man kept a folded quilt and a cauldron.
• Hence, the sentence becomes: “There he kept a folded quilt and a cauldron.” — which is grammatically and contextually correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2 – There'.

 

Additional Information

• Than – used for comparison; not suitable here.
• This and That – demonstrative pronouns used to indicate specific objects; they don’t fit grammatically in this sentence.
• There – correctly indicates a place (the basket) where the quilt and cauldron were kept.

The correct answer is 'extremely'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence describes the appearance of a quilt that is “ragged and patched, but still clean.”
• The missing word should intensify the description of how ragged the quilt is.
• “Extremely” fits best as it is an adverb used to emphasize a high degree of a quality.
• Other options like “frankly”, “eagerly”, or “abruptly” do not describe the condition of an object.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

• Frankly – means honestly; used to express truthfulness, not suitable here.
• Eagerly – means with enthusiasm; does not describe the condition of a quilt.
• Abruptly – means suddenly; does not fit contextually.

The correct answer is 'him'.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes an old man walking alone in a procession.
• The pronoun used must correctly refer back to the old man, who is male.
• In the phrase “There was no one with _____”, the correct object pronoun referring to a male person is “him.”
• Other options like “his,” “its,” or “her” are incorrect because they either show possession or refer to the wrong gender.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1 – him'.

 

Additional Information

• his – possessive pronoun, not suitable after “with.”
• its – refers to a non-living thing or animal, not a person.
• her – feminine pronoun, incorrect because the subject is an old man.