SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 21 Feb, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

For, FCBF is related to EBAE

For, XUTX is related to WTSW

Similarly, for NKJN

So, NKJN  will be related to MJIM.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Statements:

All breads are croissants.

All breads are muffins.

All breads are pastries.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

(I) All croissants are pastries:

From the statements: We know all Breads are Croissants, and all Breads are Pastries.

Since the possibility exists that some Croissants are not Pastries

Conclusion (I) does not follow.

(II) Some pastries are muffins:

From the statements: We know that the set of Breads is completely contained within the set of Pastries AND completely contained within the set of Muffins.

Conclusion (II) logically follows.

So, Only conclusion (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing 4 people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons.

In row 1, T, R, A and K are seated and all of them are facing south.

In row 2, S, O, M and E are seated and all of them are facing north.

1. T sits third to the right of K.

2. The one facing S is an immediate neighbour of K.

3) The one facing R is an immediate neighbour of S.

4. The one facing T is an immediate neighbour of O.

5) M sits at some place to the left of E.

And, A will sit at the remaining place.

So, M and K are people sitting at extreme ends of the rows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: E, F, G, H, J, K and L are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table (but not necessarily in the same order).

1. Only one person sits between E and L when counted from the left of L.

2.  K sits third to the right of J.

3. F sits third to the left of G.

4. K sits to the immediate right of F.

5) H is not an immediate neighbour of F.

Thus, There are Three people sit between H and L when counted from the right of H.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘RICE’ is coded as ‘7613

For, ‘FIRE’ is coded as ‘1374’

Letter R, I, E are common in these words and common numbers are 1, 3, and 7.

So, Remaining letter in RICE is 'C' and the code of 'C' will be 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "331" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: TWRU_SNQL_JMHK IDG_

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1) ZQNEC 

Z T W R U Q S N Q L N J M H K E I D G C

Option 2) ZPNFC

Z T W R U P S N Q L N J M H K F I D G C

Option 3)  YPOFB 

Y T W R U P S N Q L O J M H K F I D G B

Option 4)  YQOEB

Y T W R U Q S N Q L O J M H K E I D G B

Thus, ZPNFC continues the descending alphabet pattern used in all earlier parts of the sequence.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: If two positions of a single die have two faces showing the same number, then the remaining faces that are not common must be opposite to each other.

Now, From Dice 1 and Dice 2,

 

In Position 1, the remaining face is 12.

In Position 2, the remaining face is 10.

So, the face containing 12 must be opposite to the face containing 10.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Rose and Flower: All roses are flowers, but not all flowers are roses (e.g., a tulip is a flower but not a rose).

This is represented by a smaller circle (Rose) completely inside a larger circle (Flower).

Bear: A bear is an animal and has no relationship with roses or flowers (plants).

This is represented by a circle (Bear) completely separate from the other two circles.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "698" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

 

Given: F ! L : A < S / H

It means:

F is the Brother of L.

L is the Sister of A.

A is the Father of S. 

S is the wife of H.

 

So, F is the Brother's wife's brother of H.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For,'FNTA' is related to 'BKRZ'

For, 'JOCY' is related to 'FLAX'

Similarly, for 'RWLS' 

So, 'RWLS'  will be related to NTJR.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: (98 – 45 + 14) + (84 ÷ 7) – 36 + (6 × 2) = 43

Now,checking the given options, then:

Option 1) 7 and 14

⇒ (98−45+7)+(84÷14)−36+(6×2)

⇒ 60+6−36+12=42 ≠ 43 → Incorrect

Option 2) 2 and 7

⇒ (98−45+14)+(84÷2)−36+(6×7)

⇒ 67+42−36+42=115 ≠ 43 → Incorrect

Option 3) 98 and 84

⇒ (84−45+14)+(98÷7)−36+(6×2)

⇒ 53+14−36+12=43 → Correct

Option 4) 7 and 6

⇒ (98−45+14)+(84÷6)−36+(7×2)

⇒ 67+14−36+14=59 ≠ 43 → Incorrect

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The unfolded paper will have 4 times the pattern.

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic:

The symbols from Box N rotate 90⁰ clockwise to fill the corresponding positions in Box.

The symbols that rotate into the positions are replaced by the symbols of the opposite pair.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'ZNL' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) KOL

Option 2) RVS

Option 3) HLI

Option 4) LPN

Here, LPN is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Letters: G, R, O, U, P, I, E

Sorted: E G I O P R U

Thus, Only one letter (P) remains in the same position.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘SHOE’ is coded as ‘3214’ 

For, ‘HOST’ is coded as ‘3219’

So, T coded as 9 in the given language.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Part IVA.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution of India by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• They are enshrined under Part IVA of the Constitution of India, specifically in Article 51A.
• The Fundamental Duties were introduced based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was constituted in 1976.
• Initially, there were 10 Fundamental Duties, but the 86^th Amendment Act, 2002, added one more duty, making a total of 11 Fundamental Duties.
• The Fundamental Duties apply to all Indian citizens and are aimed at promoting a sense of responsibility and commitment towards the nation.

Additional Information

• Part IV
• Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• The DPSPs are non-justiciable guidelines provided to the state to ensure socio-economic welfare and justice.
• Examples include provisions for securing a living wage, equitable distribution of resources, and promotion of educational and economic interests of weaker sections.
• They are included in Articles 36 to 51.
• Part VIA
• Part VIA does not exist in the Indian Constitution.
• This option might have been presented as a distractor in the question.
• Part VI
• Part VI of the Indian Constitution deals with the provisions related to the States in India.
• It includes Articles 152 to 237, which specify the structure, powers, and functions of the state governments.
• It encompasses the Governor, State Legislature, High Courts, and subordinate courts.
• Part VI does not deal with Fundamental Duties.

The correct answer is To ensure maximum employment.

Key Points

• Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and taxation to influence the economy. The primary goal is to achieve economic stability and growth.
• One of the main objectives of fiscal policy is to ensure maximum employment by stimulating economic activities and creating job opportunities.
• Governments often increase spending on infrastructure, health, education, and other sectors to boost employment levels.
• Fiscal policy also includes tax cuts or incentives for businesses to encourage investment and hiring.
• By ensuring maximum employment, fiscal policy contributes to reducing income inequality and improving the standard of living.

Additional Information

• Main Tools of fiscal policy:
• Government Spending: Direct spending on infrastructure, defense, education, etc., or transfer payments.
• Taxation: Adjusting income tax, corporate tax, sales tax, etc., to influence spending and investment.
• Public Debt Management: Borrowing and managing government debt levels.
• Types of Fiscal Policy
• Expansionary: Used during recessions; involves increased spending or tax cuts to boost demand, output, and employment.
• Contractionary (Deflationary): Used to fight inflation; involves reduced spending or higher taxes to decrease demand.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra topped the medal tally at the Khelo India Youth Games 2024, showcasing its dominance in various sports disciplines.
• The state secured the highest number of gold medals, followed by a significant tally of silver and bronze medals.
• Maharashtra’s success is attributed to its strong sports infrastructure and government-backed training programs for young athletes.
• The state has consistently performed well in previous editions of the Khelo India Youth Games, underlining its commitment to sports development.
• Sports like athletics, swimming, and wrestling were key contributors to Maharashtra's medal tally.

Additional Information

• Madhya Pradesh
• Madhya Pradesh has emerged as a strong competitor in the Khelo India Youth Games in recent years, with significant investments in sports facilities and training programs.
• The state is particularly known for its performance in sports like hockey, archery, and athletics.
• In the 2024 edition, Madhya Pradesh finished among the top-ranking states, reflecting its growing emphasis on nurturing young talent.
• Manipur
• Manipur, a small state in northeastern India, has an impressive track record in sports, often punching above its weight in national competitions.
• The state is renowned for producing world-class athletes in disciplines like weightlifting, boxing, and football.
• Rajasthan
• Rajasthan has been making strides in sports development, with a focus on promoting traditional sports alongside modern disciplines.
• The state has invested in infrastructure and training to enhance its performance in national competitions.

Important Points

• Khelo India Youth Games
• The Khelo India Youth Games is a national-level multidisciplinary grassroots sports event in India aimed at promoting youth sports and identifying young talent.
• It was launched in 2018 under the Khelo India program by the Government of India to revive the sports culture in the country.
• The event includes a wide range of sports disciplines, providing a platform for young athletes to showcase their skills.
• The Games have been instrumental in identifying and nurturing future sports stars for India’s international sporting ambitions.

The correct answer is Seventh.

Key Points

• The Seventh Five-Year Plan of India was operational from 1985 to 1990 and focused on improving food production, generating employment opportunities, and enhancing productivity.
• Its main objective was to achieve a self-sustained economy, emphasizing modernization of agriculture and rural development.
• The plan aimed to achieve a target growth rate of 5% annual GDP growth, but it surpassed expectations by achieving approximately 6% growth.
• It introduced programs like Jawahar Rozgar Yojana, focusing on employment generation in rural areas.
• This plan also laid special focus on social justice and reducing poverty by improving the living standards of the poor.

Additional Information

• Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980-1985)
• The focus was on poverty reduction, employment generation, and technological self-reliance.
• This plan emphasized the removal of poverty through the Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP).
• It also aimed to achieve economic growth through industrial modernization and agricultural development.
• The concept of Minimum Needs Program was introduced to improve living standards by providing essential facilities like education, healthcare, and drinking water.
• Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-1978)
• The main focus was on poverty alleviation and achieving self-reliance in agricultural and industrial production.
• It introduced programs like the Minimum Needs Program and Garibi Hatao (Eradicate Poverty) to address socio-economic inequalities.
• Due to political instability, the plan was terminated in 1978, one year before its scheduled completion.
• Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992-1997)
• It focused on economic liberalization and structural reforms to integrate the Indian economy with the global market.
• The plan aimed to reduce fiscal deficits, encourage privatization, and promote industrial growth.
• It highlighted the importance of human resource development through investments in education and healthcare.

The correct answer is viviparous.

Key Points

• Animals that give birth to live young ones and where fertilization occurs internally are classified as viviparous animals.
• In viviparous animals, the embryo develops inside the mother’s body, and nourishment is provided through a placenta or other internal structures.
• Examples of viviparous animals include most mammals, such as humans, lions, and whales.
• Viviparity ensures better protection and survival chances for the offspring as they develop in a controlled internal environment.
• Viviparous reproduction is an advanced evolutionary adaptation compared to oviparity (egg-laying), as it increases the likelihood of offspring survival in challenging environments.

Additional Information

• Oviparous
• Oviparous animals lay eggs, and the development of the embryo occurs outside the mother’s body.
• Fertilization can occur either internally (e.g., birds, reptiles) or externally (e.g., fish, amphibians).
• Examples include hens, frogs, snakes, and fish.
• Oviparity is common in species where external environmental factors provide suitable conditions for egg development.
• Vertebrates
• Vertebrates are animals that possess a backbone or spinal column.
• They belong to the phylum Chordata and include classes such as mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fish.
• Both oviparous and viviparous animals can be vertebrates.
• Examples include humans, snakes, frogs, and sharks.
• Invertebrates
• Invertebrates are animals that lack a backbone or spinal column.
• This group includes animals such as insects, arachnids, mollusks, crustaceans, and sponges.
• Most invertebrates are oviparous, though there are some exceptions.
• Examples include octopuses, spiders, and jellyfish.

The correct answer is Lord Canning.

Key Points

• Lord Canning was the British Governor-General during the Revolt of 1857, also known as the First War of Indian Independence.
• He served as Governor-General of India from 1856 to 1858 and later as the first Viceroy of India from 1858 to 1862.
• Lord Canning introduced several reforms during his tenure, including the establishment of universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1857.
• After the revolt, the Government of India Act 1858 was passed, transferring power from the East India Company to the British Crown, marking the end of Company rule in India.
• Lord Canning is also known for his policy of conciliation, aimed at pacifying the Indians after the revolt by introducing measures like the Indian Councils Act of 1861.

Additional Information

• Lord Dalhousie (1848–1856):
• He was the Governor-General of India before Lord Canning and is known for his policy of annexation, called the Doctrine of Lapse.
• Important annexations during his tenure include Satara, Jhansi, Nagpur, and Awadh.
• He is credited with introducing railways, telegraphs, and postal systems in India, contributing significantly to modernizing the country.
• Lord Curzon (1899–1905):
• He is known for the controversial partition of Bengal in 1905, which led to widespread protests and ultimately the Swadeshi Movement.
• Lord Curzon also established the Archaeological Survey of India to protect and preserve India’s historical monuments.
• Lord Ripon (1880–1884):
• He is remembered for his liberal reforms, including the introduction of local self-government in India, making him popular among Indians.
• Lord Ripon also repealed the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 and introduced the Ilbert Bill, which sought to allow Indian judges to try British offenders.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• The National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023 (MPI) is based on indicators including health, education, and standard of living.
• According to the 2023 MPI, Jharkhand has the largest percentage of poor people in India, accounting for approximately 29.4% of its population being multidimensionally poor.
• The MPI measures poverty using 12 indicators across three dimensions: health, education, and living standards.
• Jharkhand has historically faced challenges such as low literacy rates, poor healthcare facilities, and lack of infrastructure development, contributing to its higher poverty index.
• The state government is actively working to address poverty through schemes like Jharkhand State Livelihood Promotion Society (JSLPS) and initiatives in rural development, skill training, and health improvement.

Additional Information

• Meghalaya
• While Meghalaya has a significant percentage of poverty, it has performed better in certain dimensions of MPI such as health and education compared to Jharkhand.
• Meghalaya has undertaken initiatives to improve literacy rates and healthcare accessibility, including programs like the Meghalaya Health Insurance Scheme.
• Uttar Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh has a large population base, and poverty alleviation remains a challenge despite numerous development schemes.
• The state has implemented programs like Mission Shakti and Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana to improve living standards and women's empowerment.
• While poverty levels are high, they are lower than Jharkhand's in terms of multidimensional poverty.
• Andhra Pradesh
• Andhra Pradesh has shown significant improvement in poverty reduction due to developmental initiatives such as Navaratnalu, focusing on healthcare, housing, and education.
• The state has a relatively better MPI ranking compared to Jharkhand due to its focused approach towards improving infrastructure and social welfare.

Important Points

• National Multidimensional Poverty Index
• The MPI is prepared by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
• The index is based on the findings of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5).
• It is a tool to assess poverty beyond income, focusing on multiple indicators like nutrition, child mortality, school attendance, sanitation, and access to drinking water.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• According to the Census 2011, Bihar has a total population of approximately 104 million, making it one of the most densely populated states in India.
• Bihar accounts for about 8.6% of India's total population, with a population density of 1,106 persons per square kilometer.
• The state's population growth rate between 2001 and 2011 was nearly 25.42%, which is among the highest in the country.
• Bihar's population is predominantly rural, with 88.71% of its population living in rural areas and only 11.29% residing in urban regions.
• Bihar has a sex ratio of 918 females per 1000 males, which is slightly below the national average of 940 as per Census 2011.

Additional Information

• West Bengal:
• West Bengal had a population of approximately 91.3 million as per Census 2011, making it the fourth most populous state in India.
• It has a population density of 1,028 persons per square kilometer, which is one of the highest densities in the country.
• West Bengal's urbanization rate is higher compared to Bihar, with 31.89% of its population living in urban areas.
• The literacy rate of West Bengal stands at 76.26%, reflecting better educational attainment compared to some other states.
• Rajasthan:
• Rajasthan had a population of approximately 68.5 million as per Census 2011, making it the seventh most populous state in India.
• It is the largest state in India by area but has a comparatively low population density of 200 persons per square kilometer.
• Rajasthan's population is predominantly rural, with 75.12% of its population living in rural areas.
• The sex ratio of Rajasthan is 928 females per 1000 males, slightly above Bihar's ratio.
• Tamil Nadu:
• Tamil Nadu had a population of approximately 72.1 million as per Census 2011, ranking sixth in terms of population among Indian states.
• It has a population density of 555 persons per square kilometer, higher than Rajasthan but significantly lower than Bihar.
• Tamil Nadu is among the most urbanized states in India, with 48.45% of its population living in urban areas.
• The literacy rate of Tamil Nadu stands at 80.09%, showcasing advanced educational progress.

The correct answer is Aldehyde.

Key Points

• An aldehyde is an organic compound in which the carbonyl carbon is bonded directly to a hydrogen atom and an alkyl or aryl group (R group).
• The general formula for aldehydes is R-CHO, where R represents an alkyl or aryl group.
• The carbonyl group (C=O) in aldehydes is highly reactive, making aldehydes important intermediates in organic synthesis.
• Aldehydes are commonly found in nature, often as components of essential oils, flavoring agents, and fragrances (e.g., formaldehyde, benzaldehyde).
• Some aldehydes, like formaldehyde, are widely used in industrial applications such as resins, plastics, and disinfectants.

Additional Information

• Amides:
• Amides are organic compounds containing the functional group -CONH2, where the carbonyl group (C=O) is attached to a nitrogen atom (NH2).
• They are derived from carboxylic acids by replacing the hydroxyl group (-OH) with an amino group (-NH2).
• Amides are important in biological systems, such as in the structure of proteins where peptide bonds are formed between amino acids.
• Examples include acetamide (CH3CONH2) and benzamide (C6H5CONH2).
• Carboxylic Acids:
• Carboxylic acids are organic compounds characterized by the presence of a carboxyl group (-COOH).
• The carboxyl group contains a carbonyl group (C=O) attached to a hydroxyl group (-OH).
• Carboxylic acids are weak acids and are widely found in nature, such as acetic acid (vinegar) and citric acid (citrus fruits).
• They are used in the production of polymers, pharmaceuticals, and food additives.
• Ketones:
• Ketones are organic compounds in which the carbonyl group (C=O) is attached to two alkyl or aryl groups.
• The general formula for ketones is R-CO-R', where R and R' are alkyl or aryl groups.
• Ketones are used in various applications, including solvents (acetone), fragrances, and intermediates in chemical synthesis.
• Unlike aldehydes, ketones do not have a hydrogen atom directly attached to the carbonyl group.

The correct answer is Arjun Ram Meghwal.

Key Points

• Arjun Ram Meghwal, a senior politician and Union Minister, was a part of the High-Level Committee formed to deliberate on the feasibility of Simultaneous Elections in India.
• The High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections was constituted in September 2023 to explore the possibilities and challenges of implementing simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and state assemblies.
• The committee was chaired by former President Ram Nath Kovind, with notable members such as Arjun Ram Meghwal and other eminent personalities.
• Arjun Ram Meghwal has extensive experience in parliamentary processes and governance, making him a suitable member of this critical committee.
• The committee's objective is to assess the legal, political, economic, and logistical aspects of conducting simultaneous elections.

Additional Information

• Nitin Gadkari
• Nitin Gadkari is the Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways and is not a member of the High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections.
• He is known for his contributions to infrastructure development, including highway construction and rural road connectivity through programs such as the Bharatmala Pariyojana.
• Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
• Dr. S. Jaishankar is the current Union Minister of External Affairs and was not involved in the High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections.
• He is an expert in foreign policy and international relations, contributing significantly to India's diplomatic engagements globally.
• Jagat Prakash Nadda
• Jagat Prakash Nadda is the National President of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and has not been listed as a member of the High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections.
• His role primarily revolves around party leadership and organizational strategies for the BJP.
• Simultaneous Elections
• The concept of simultaneous elections refers to holding elections for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies at the same time.
• The idea aims to reduce the costs and administrative burden associated with frequent elections in India.
• It requires significant amendments to the Constitution and election laws, along with consensus among political parties.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Bundi Utsav is an annual cultural festival celebrated in the Bundi district of Rajasthan.
• The festival is organized by the Rajasthan Tourism Department to showcase the rich heritage, culture, and traditions of the state.
• It features various activities such as traditional music performances, folk dances, art exhibitions, and sports events, along with a vibrant cultural procession.
• The Bundi Utsav is also famous for its turban-tying competition and bridal attire competition, which reflect the traditional Rajasthani lifestyle.
• Tourists and locals participate in the festival, making it a significant platform for promoting Rajasthan's art and culture on an international level.

Additional Information

• Madhya Pradesh
• Madhya Pradesh is known as the "Heart of India" and is famous for its cultural heritage and historical landmarks.
• Popular festivals celebrated in Madhya Pradesh include Khajuraho Dance Festival, Tansen Music Festival, and Malwa Utsav.
• Khajuraho Dance Festival is a renowned classical dance event held annually near the Khajuraho temples.
• Mizoram
• Mizoram is a northeastern state of India, known for its scenic beauty and vibrant tribal culture.
• Popular festivals celebrated in Mizoram include Chapchar Kut, Mim Kut, and Pawl Kut, which are harvest festivals celebrated with traditional dance and music.
• Chapchar Kut is the most significant festival, marking the arrival of spring and celebrated with great enthusiasm.
• Punjab
• Punjab is famous for its rich cultural heritage, vibrant festivals, and traditional music and dance.
• Popular festivals celebrated in Punjab include Lohri, Baisakhi, and Gurpurab.
• Baisakhi marks the harvest season and is celebrated with joyous events like bhangra and giddha performances.

The correct answer is Gaya.

Key Points

• The Yonex-Sunrise All India Sub Junior Ranking Badminton Tournament 2023 was held at Gaya, Bihar, from 27^th June to 2^nd July 2023.
• This prestigious tournament is organized annually to provide a platform for young badminton players to showcase their talent and compete at the national level.
• Gaya, a historically and culturally significant city in Bihar, served as the host for this event, drawing participants and badminton enthusiasts from across India.
• The tournament was conducted under the aegis of the Badminton Association of India (BAI), which oversees badminton tournaments nationwide.
• Such tournaments are crucial for identifying promising players and helping them prepare for future international competitions.

Additional Information

• Bhagalpur
• Bhagalpur, known as the "Silk City of Bihar," is famous for its production of Tussar silk.
• Though it is a prominent city in Bihar, it did not host the Yonex-Sunrise All India Sub Junior Ranking Badminton Tournament 2023.
• Bhagalpur is also known for its historical significance and proximity to the Vikramshila University ruins.
• Patna
• Patna is the capital city of Bihar and a major hub for education, politics, and culture in the state.
• While Patna has hosted several sporting events in the past, it was not the venue for the Yonex-Sunrise All India Sub Junior Ranking Badminton Tournament 2023.
• Famous landmarks in Patna include the Golghar, Patna Sahib Gurudwara, and Bihar Museum.
• Rajgir
• Rajgir is a popular tourist destination in Bihar known for its historical and religious significance, especially in Buddhism and Jainism.
• It is home to sites like the Vulture's Peak and the ancient Nalanda University ruins.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Hampi Dance Utsav, also known as the Hampi Utsav or the Vijaya Utsav, is an annual cultural festival celebrated in the state of Karnataka, India.
• It is organized in the town of Hampi, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and was once the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• The festival is a vibrant showcase of Karnataka’s rich cultural heritage through classical dance performances, music concerts, puppet shows, and other art forms.
• Hampi Utsav attracts thousands of visitors annually, including tourists and art enthusiasts, due to its unique cultural significance and the stunning backdrop of ancient ruins.
• This festival typically takes place in the month of November or early January and is organized by the Government of Karnataka.

Additional Information

• Jharkhand
• Jharkhand is a state known for its tribal culture, rich natural resources, and folk festivals such as Sarhul, Karma, and Sohrai.
• While Jharkhand hosts many traditional and tribal festivals, it is not associated with the Hampi Dance Utsav.
• Odisha
• Odisha is famous for its classical dance form, Odissi, and hosts various cultural festivals like the Konark Dance Festival and the Raja Parba.
• The Konark Dance Festival, held near the Sun Temple, is one of the most celebrated events in Odisha, but it is not related to Hampi Utsav.
• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu is renowned for its Bharatanatyam dance form and festivals such as Pongal, Natyanjali Dance Festival, and Mamallapuram Dance Festival.
• Though Tamil Nadu is rich in cultural heritage, the Hampi Dance Utsav is not associated with this state.

Important Points

• Hampi and its Significance
• Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire during the 14^th to 17^th centuries and is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The site is home to spectacular ruins, temples, and monuments, making it an iconic location for showcasing India’s cultural and artistic traditions.

The correct answer is 100 members in the Lok Sabha and 50 members in the Rajya Sabha.

Key Points

• The motion for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge in India must be signed by at least 100 members in the Lok Sabha and 50 members in the Rajya Sabha before being admitted.
• The process for the removal of Supreme Court Judges is outlined in Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution.
• The grounds for removal are limited to proven misbehavior or incapacity, ensuring that judges cannot be removed arbitrarily.
• Once the motion is admitted, it is referred to a three-member investigative committee comprising a Supreme Court judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist.
• If the committee finds the allegations valid, the motion needs to be passed by both Houses of Parliament with a two-thirds majority of members present and voting before the judge can be removed.

Additional Information

• Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
• The procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judges is governed by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
• The Act elaborates on the process after the removal motion is admitted, including the formation of an investigative committee and voting thresholds in Parliament.
• The removal process ensures judicial independence by safeguarding against arbitrary dismissal.

The correct answer is Ocean.

Key Points

• Ocean water has the highest salinity among natural water bodies, typically ranging from 34 to 36 parts per thousand (ppt), as it contains dissolved salts like sodium chloride, magnesium, and calcium.
• The salinity of oceans is primarily influenced by evaporation, precipitation, river inflow, and ocean currents. High evaporation rates in tropical regions result in higher salinity levels.
• Dead Sea and certain areas of the Red Sea are examples of regions with exceptionally high salinity due to minimal freshwater inflow and high evaporation rates.
• Marine organisms have adapted to high salinity levels, making oceans crucial for biodiversity and ecological balance.
• Oceans cover approximately 71% of Earth's surface and play a significant role in regulating the planet's climate and hydrological cycle.

Additional Information

• Pond
• Ponds are small, shallow freshwater bodies with low salinity levels as they primarily accumulate rainwater and runoff.
• They often support various aquatic plants and animals but are not significant contributors to global salinity levels.
• The salinity in ponds can increase due to pollution or lack of freshwater inflow but remains much lower than in oceans.
• River
• Rivers are freshwater systems with negligible salinity (typically less than 0.5 ppt), as they are primarily fed by precipitation, snowmelt, or springs.
• They transport dissolved minerals and salts to oceans, contributing to ocean salinity.
• Human activities like agriculture and industrial discharge can increase salinity levels in certain river systems.
• Lake
• Most lakes are freshwater bodies with low salinity, but saltwater lakes such as the Great Salt Lake or Lake Van can have high salinity due to evaporation and lack of outflow.
• The salinity levels in lakes vary based on geographical location, climate, and surrounding geological formations.

The correct answer is Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana.

Key Points

• Shruti Sadolikar is a renowned Indian classical vocalist known for her contributions to the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana of Hindustani classical music.
• The Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana is famous for its intricate and complex ragas, particularly rare or compound ragas like Basanti Kedar and Sampoorna Malkauns.
• Shruti Sadolikar trained under her father, Wamanrao Sadolikar, who was a disciple of Ustad Alladiya Khan, the founder of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana.
• She is celebrated for her deep understanding of rhythm (layakari) and her ability to present compositions with clarity and precision.
• In addition to her performances, she has played a pivotal role in preserving the traditions of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana and spreading awareness about its unique style.

Additional Information

• Patiala Gharana
• The Patiala Gharana is another prominent school of Hindustani classical music, known for its focus on taans (fast melodic passages) and bol baant (syllabic variations).
• This Gharana is associated with artists such as Bade Ghulam Ali Khan and his son Munawar Ali Khan.
• Unlike the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana, the Patiala Gharana emphasizes emotional expression and ornamentation, making its style more accessible to audiences.
• Rampur-Sahaswan Gharana
• Founded in Uttar Pradesh, this Gharana is an offshoot of the Gwalior Gharana and emphasizes clear enunciation of lyrics and the beauty of the raga.
• Artists such as Ustad Nissar Hussain Khan and Ustad Rashid Khan belong to this school.
• This Gharana is known for its systematic raga development and intricate aakar taans.
• Mewati Gharana
• The Mewati Gharana is associated with the legendary Pandit Jasraj and is known for its devotional and spiritual approach to music.
• This Gharana focuses on the emotional rendering of ragas and often incorporates elements of bhajans and kirtans.
• It combines traditional techniques with modern sensibilities, making it highly popular among global audiences.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Mudiyettu is a traditional ritual dance-drama performed in the state of Kerala.
• It is primarily associated with the worship of the goddess Kali and depicts the mythological tale of her victory over the demon Darika.
• Mudiyettu was inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2010, recognizing its cultural significance and traditional value.
• This art form is performed in temples and village shrines, serving as a communal celebration of good triumphing over evil.
• The performers use elaborate costumes, vibrant face paint, and traditional music to bring the characters and story to life, making it a visually captivating experience.

Additional Information

• Odisha
• Odisha is known for its traditional dance forms like Odissi, one of the classical dance styles of India, but it is not associated with Mudiyettu.
• Other notable folk traditions in Odisha include Chhau dance and Pala (a form of ballad singing).
• Karnataka
• Karnataka has its own rich heritage of traditional dance and theatrical forms, such as Yakshagana, a dance-drama performance combining music, dialogue, and elaborate costumes.
• However, Mudiyettu is not part of Karnataka's cultural repertoire.
• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu is renowned for its classical dance form Bharatanatyam and folk traditions like Karagattam and Therukoothu.
• Although it shares cultural similarities with Kerala, Tamil Nadu does not practice Mudiyettu.

The correct answer is Brihadratha.

Key Points

• Brihadratha was the last ruler of the Mauryan Empire, which was one of the most powerful empires in ancient Indian history.
• He was assassinated by his Commander-in-Chief, Pushyamitra Shunga, in 185 BCE during a military parade.
• This assassination marked the end of the Mauryan Empire and led to the establishment of the Shunga dynasty.
• The Shunga dynasty ruled parts of North and Central India and is known for its contributions to art and culture, particularly in promoting Buddhism and Hinduism.
• Brihadratha's reign is considered weak and marked the decline of the once-powerful Mauryan Empire.

Additional Information

• Samprati
• Samprati was a Mauryan ruler and the grandson of Emperor Ashoka.
• Known for his efforts in spreading Jainism, he is often compared to Ashoka for his religious contributions.
• He built numerous Jain temples and promoted the religion in the regions he ruled.
• Samprati's rule is remembered for its focus on religious tolerance and the propagation of Jainism.
• Bindusara
• Bindusara, the son of Chandragupta Maurya, was the second ruler of the Mauryan Empire.
• He was known as "Amitraghata," meaning "Slayer of Enemies."
• Bindusara expanded the Mauryan Empire significantly, conquering several territories and ruling efficiently.
• He was the father of Emperor Ashoka, one of India's most famous rulers.
• Dasharatha
• Dasharatha was a Mauryan ruler and the grandson of Emperor Ashoka.
• He is believed to have succeeded Ashoka to the throne but was unable to maintain the empire's strength and unity.
• During his reign, there was a decline in the power and territory of the Mauryan Empire.
• Dasharatha also played a role in continuing Ashoka's legacy of promoting Buddhism.

The correct answer is 2015.

Key Points

• The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) was established by the Government of India on January 1, 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
• NITI Aayog acts as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing strategic and technical advice on developmental matters.
• The institution focuses on enhancing cooperative federalism by involving state governments in economic policy-making processes.
• Its primary goals include fostering innovation, promoting sustainable development, and driving economic growth through evidence-based policy-making.
• NITI Aayog is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, and includes a governing council comprising Chief Ministers of states and Union Territories along with other key stakeholders.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 2016
• 2016 saw the launch of various government initiatives, but the establishment of NITI Aayog was not one of them.
• In this year, programs such as Digital India and Stand-Up India were further strengthened to boost innovation and entrepreneurship.
• Option 2: 2017
• 2017 was significant for the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST), which reformed India's taxation structure.
• NITI Aayog had already been functioning for two years by this time.
• Option 3: 2014
• In 2014, the Government of India announced its intention to replace the Planning Commission with NITI Aayog.
• However, the formal establishment of NITI Aayog occurred on January 1, 2015.

Important Points

• NITI Aayog
• NITI Aayog focuses on creating a shared vision of development for the country across states and Union Territories.
• Its initiatives include schemes like Atal Innovation Mission, Sustainable Development Goals monitoring, and India Energy Dashboards.
• It actively promotes the use of technology and evidence-based research for policy formulation.
• Through its think tank role, NITI Aayog works to address critical challenges such as poverty, health, and education while fostering growth and innovation.

The correct answer is the central and state level.

Key Points

• The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024 focuses on the prevention, control, and abatement of water pollution in India.
• The Act establishes pollution control boards at both the central and state levels to oversee and regulate water pollution in their respective domains.
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is responsible for laying down standards and coordinating the activities of state boards.
• The State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) implement the policies and standards set by the CPCB at the state level and ensure compliance with pollution control regulations.
• The Act empowers these boards to monitor water quality, issue directives to industries, and take necessary action against violators.

Additional Information

• Key Government Initiatives
• Namami Gange Programme: Focuses on cleaning the Ganga River by reducing industrial and sewage pollution.
• Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM): Aims to provide safe, potable tap water to every rural household by 2024, including in areas with poor water quality.
• Jal Shakti Abhiyan: A campaign for water conservation and rainwater harvesting, focusing on groundwater recharge.
• National River Conservation Plan (NRCP): Broadens efforts to protect other rivers and water bodies from pollution.
• Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) & Smart Cities Mission: Address urban water supply and sanitation.

Shortcut Trick

If the product of two variables is constant, and one variable decreases by x%, the other must increase by [x / (100 − x)] × 100%.

Here, the base decreases by 20%, so x = 20.

Percentage increase in height = [20 / (100 − 20)] × 100%

⇒ (20 / 80) × 100% = (1 / 4) × 100% = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given:

The area of the triangle is constant.

The base is decreased by 20%.

Formula Used:

Area of a triangle = 1/2 × base × height

Constant Area: Base × Height = Constant

Base: 100

−20%

New Base: 80

Height: 80

+25%

New Height: 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial base be b and the initial height be h.

⇒ Initial Area = 1/2 × b × h

⇒ New base = b − 20% of b = 0.8b

⇒ Let the new height be H.

⇒ New Area = 1/2 × 0.8b × H

⇒ Since the area remains constant: 1/2 × b × h = 1/2 × 0.8b × H

⇒ b × h = 0.8b × H

⇒ H = h / 0.8 = 10/8 × h = 1.25h

⇒ Increase in height = 1.25h − h = 0.25h

⇒ Percentage increase = (0.25h / h) × 100% = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Constant Product Rule

If A × B = Constant, a decrease of a/b in quantity A requires an increase of a/(b−a) in quantity B. Here, 20% = 1/5 decrease in base, which directly requires a 1/(5−1) = 1/4 = 25% increase in height.

Successive Percentage Change

When two variables change by a% and b%, the net percentage change in their product is given by: Net Change = a + b + (a × b) / 100. For the area to remain constant, the net change must be 0%.

Area of a Triangle

The foundational formula for the area of any triangle is 1/2 × Base × Perpendicular Height. Altering the base and height in strictly inverse proportions will always keep the overall area completely unchanged.

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM(40, 60, 80) = 240 units.

Efficiency: Parth = 6, Rizwan = 4, Sangeeta = 3.

Work in 1 cycle (3 days) = 6 + 6 + (6 + 4 + 3) = 25 units.

Work in 9 cycles (27 days) = 9 × 25 = 225 units. Remaining 15 units is done sequentially.

Parth does 12 units in the next 2 days (29 days total). The remaining 3 units are done by all three in 3/13 days.

∴ The correct answer is 29 ³/₁₃ days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Parth can complete the work in 40 days.

Rizwan can complete the work in 60 days.

Sangeeta can complete the work in 80 days.

⇒ Work done by Parth on day 1 = 6 units

⇒ Work done by Parth on day 2 = 6 units

⇒ Work done by Parth, Rizwan and Sangeeta on day 3 = 6 + 4 + 3 = 13 units

⇒ Total work done in a 3-day cycle = 6 + 6 + 13 = 25 units

⇒ Work done in 9 such cycles (27 days) = 9 × 25 = 225 units

⇒ Remaining work = 240 − 225 = 15 units

⇒ On the 28^th and 29^th days, Parth works alone and completes 6 + 6 = 12 units

⇒ Remaining work after 29 days = 15 − 12 = 3 units

⇒ On the 30^th day, all three work together (efficiency = 13). Time taken = 3 ÷ 13 days

⇒ Total time taken = 29 + 3/13 = 29 ³/₁₃ days

∴ The correct answer is 29 ³/₁₃ days.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Work Concept

When individuals work in a repeated pattern, first determine the work done in one complete cycle. Multiply by the largest integer to stay within total work, then assign remaining work sequentially day by day.

LCM Method for Total Work

Taking the Total Work as the Lowest Common Multiple (LCM) of the given days ensures that the efficiency of each person is a whole number, heavily simplifying arithmetic calculations.

Work and Wages

Wages are strictly distributed in proportion to the total work done by individuals. If all persons work for an equal number of days, their wages are distributed directly in the ratio of their daily efficiencies.

Shortcut Trick

Total Simple Interest percentage = Rate × Time = 4% × 8 = 32%

This means 32% of the Principal = ₹168

⇒ 1% of Principal = 168 ÷ 32 = ₹5.25

⇒ 100% of Principal = 5.25 × 100 = ₹525

∴ The correct answer is ₹525.

Alternate Method

Principal P = ?

Rate = 4% p.a. Time = 8 years Total Int. = 32%

Simple Interest SI = ₹168

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹168

Rate (R) = 4% per annum

Time (T) = 8 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Where P is the Principal amount.

Calculation:

⇒ 168 = (P × 4 × 8) ÷ 100

⇒ 168 = 32P ÷ 100

⇒ P = (168 × 100) ÷ 32

⇒ P = 16800 ÷ 32

⇒ P = 525

∴ The correct answer is ₹525.

Additional Information

Compound Interest (CI)

Compound Interest is calculated on the principal and the interest accumulated over previous periods. Formula: A = P(1 + R ÷ 100)^T and CI = A − P.

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years

For a given principal P and rate R% per annum, the difference between CI and SI for 2 years is calculated as: Difference = P(R ÷ 100)².

Amount in Simple Interest

The total amount (A) after a certain period is the sum of Principal and Simple Interest. Formula: A = P + SI = P(1 + R × T ÷ 100).

Shortcut Trick

Total distance to cross = 110 m + 390 m = 500 m = 0.5 km

Relative speed (same direction) = 130 km/h − 120 km/h = 10 km/h

Time (in hours) = Distance ÷ Speed = 0.5 km ÷ 10 km/h = 0.05 hours

Time (in minutes) = 0.05 × 60 = 3 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 3 minutes.

Alternate Method

390 m 130 km/h →

110 m 120 km/h →

Total Distance = 390 + 110 = 500 m

Relative Speed = 130 − 120 = 10 km/h

Given:

Length of faster train (L₁) = 390 m

Length of slower train (L₂) = 110 m

Speed of faster train (S₁) = 130 km/h

Speed of slower train (S₂) = 120 km/h

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (same direction) = S₁ − S₂

Time Taken = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = L₁ + L₂ = 390 m + 110 m = 500 m

⇒ Relative Speed = 130 km/h − 120 km/h = 10 km/h

⇒ Convert Relative Speed to m/s: 10 × (5 ÷ 18) = 25 ÷ 9 m/s

⇒ Time Taken = 500 ÷ (25 ÷ 9) seconds

⇒ Time Taken = 500 × 9 ÷ 25 = 180 seconds

⇒ Convert seconds to minutes: 180 ÷ 60 = 3 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 3 minutes.

Additional Information

Opposite Direction

When two bodies move in opposite directions, their relative speeds are added. Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂.

Crossing a Stationary Object

When a train crosses a vertical stationary object like a pole or a standing man, the distance covered is exactly equal to the length of the train itself.

Speed Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5 ÷ 18. Conversely, to convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18 ÷ 5.

Shortcut Trick

Effective discount % for successive discounts of a% and b% = a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100

Net discount = 5 + 8 − (5 × 8) ÷ 100 = 13 − 0.40 = 12.6%

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price × (100 − Effective Discount)%

SP = 1200 × (100 − 12.6)% = 1200 × 87.4% = 1048.80

∴ The correct answer is ₹1048.80.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹1,200

First discount (D₁) = 5%

Second discount (D₂) = 8%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (1 − D₁ ÷ 100) × (1 − D₂ ÷ 100)

₹1200 Marked Price

−5%

₹1140 After 1^st Disc.

−8%

₹1048.80 Selling Price

Calculations:

⇒ Price after 5% discount = 1200 × (100 − 5) ÷ 100

⇒ Price after 5% discount = 1200 × 95 ÷ 100 = ₹1140

⇒ Price after additional 8% discount = 1140 × (100 − 8) ÷ 100

⇒ Final Selling Price (SP) = 1140 × 92 ÷ 100

⇒ Final Selling Price (SP) = 104880 ÷ 100 = ₹1048.80

∴ The correct answer is ₹1048.80.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two discounts x% and y% are given consecutively, the net effective discount is calculated using the formula: Net Discount = x + y − (x × y) ÷ 100.

Marked Price vs Selling Price

Discounts are always calculated on the Marked Price (MP) of an item, never on the Cost Price. Selling Price (SP) is the final amount to be paid after deducting the total discount.

Dishonest Dealer Concept

If a dealer claims to sell goods at Cost Price but uses false weight, Profit % = (True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Fractional equivalent of 10.5% = 10.5 ÷ 100 = 21/200.

Let Cost Price (CP) be 200 units, then Profit = 21 units.

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 200 + 21 = 221 units.

Given SP is ₹221, meaning 221 units = ₹221 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹1.

Therefore, CP = 200 units = ₹200.

∴ The correct answer is ₹200.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹221

Profit = 10.5%

CP = ?

SP = ₹221

• 10.5% Profit

Formula Used:

CP = (SP × 100) ÷ (100 + Profit%)

Calculations:

⇒ CP = (221 × 100) ÷ (100 + 10.5)

⇒ CP = 22100 ÷ 110.5

⇒ CP = 221000 ÷ 1105

⇒ CP = 200

∴ The correct answer is ₹200.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

When an article is sold at a loss, the Selling Price is less than Cost Price. Formula: CP = (SP × 100) ÷ (100 − Loss%).

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on Marked Price (MP). SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Successive Profit/Loss

If an article goes through successive percentage changes of a% and b%, the net effective change is given by: a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100.

Given:

22 - 2 × [ 7 + 8 × { 14 - 7 ( 6 - 5 ) × 2} ÷ 37]

Formula Used:

Parentheses first, followed by brackets.

Order of operations (BODMAS): Brackets, Orders (exponents), Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

Calculation:

⇒ 22 - 2 × [ 7 + 8 × { 14 - 7 × ( 6 - 5 ) × 2 } ÷ 37]

⇒ 22 - 2 × [ 7 + 8 × { 14 - 7 × 1 × 2 } ÷ 37]

⇒ 22 - 2 × [ 7 + 8 × { 14 - 14 } ÷ 37]

⇒ 22 - 2 × [ 7 + 8 × 0 ÷ 37]

⇒ 22 - 2 × [ 7 + 0 ]

⇒ 22 - 2 × 7

⇒ 22 - 14

⇒ 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Shortcut Trick

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Total Distance = 60 + 30 + 45 = 135 km

Total Time = (60 ÷ 30) + (30 ÷ 60) + (45 ÷ 90) = 2 + 0.5 + 0.5 = 3 hours

Average Speed = 135 ÷ 3 = 45 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 45 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Part 1: Distance (D₁) = 60 km, Speed (S₁) = 30 km/hr

Part 2: Distance (D₂) = 30 km, Speed (S₂) = 60 km/hr

Part 3: Distance (D₃) = 45 km, Speed (S₃) = 90 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

D₁ = 60 km D₂ = 30 km D₃ = 45 km

S₁ = 30 km/hr S₂ = 60 km/hr S₃ = 90 km/hr

T₁ = 2 hr T₂ = 0.5 hr T₃ = 0.5 hr

Total Distance = 135 km, Total Time = 3 hr

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 60 + 30 + 45 = 135 km

⇒ Time for Part 1 (T₁) = 60 ÷ 30 = 2 hours

⇒ Time for Part 2 (T₂) = 30 ÷ 60 = 0.5 hours

⇒ Time for Part 3 (T₃) = 45 ÷ 90 = 0.5 hours

⇒ Total Time = 2 + 0.5 + 0.5 = 3 hours

⇒ Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

⇒ Average Speed = 135 ÷ 3 = 45 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 45 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed

It is defined as the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. The formula is Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time.

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference of their speeds (S₁ − S₂). When moving in opposite directions, it is the sum of their speeds (S₁ + S₂).

Equal Distance Average Speed Rule

If two equal distances are covered at speeds a and b, the average speed for the entire journey is given by (2 × a × b) ÷ (a + b).

Shortcut Trick

According to the properties of weighted averages, if a population is divided into two mutually exclusive groups (males and females),

And if the overall literacy percentage matches the literacy percentage of one group (males = 58%),

Then the literacy percentage of the other group (females) must also be exactly the same.

No calculation is required since the literacy rate remains perfectly uniform across the total and its parts.

∴ The correct answer is 58%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total population = 383000

Number of males = 221000

Overall literacy rate = 58%

Male literacy rate = 58%

Formula Used:

Female Literacy % = (Total Literate Females ÷ Total Females) × 100

Male (58%) Pop: 221,000

Female (x%) Pop: 162,000

Overall 58%

Ratio = |x − 58|

Ratio = 58 − 58 = 0

Since population > 0, |x − 58| must be 0 → x = 58%

Calculations:

⇒ Number of females = Total population − Number of males

⇒ Number of females = 383000 − 221000 = 162000

⇒ Total literate population = 58% of 383000

⇒ Total literates = (58 ÷ 100) × 383000 = 222140

⇒ Literate males = 58% of 221000

⇒ Literate males = (58 ÷ 100) × 221000 = 128180

⇒ Literate females = Total literates − Literate males

⇒ Literate females = 222140 − 128180 = 93960

⇒ Female literacy % = (93960 ÷ 162000) × 100

⇒ Female literacy % = 0.58 × 100 = 58%

∴ The correct answer is 58%.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Uniformity

When two groups combine to form a whole, if one group shares the exact same average or percentage as the entire combined group, the second group must inherently possess that identical average as well.

Alligation Method

Alligation is a standard technique used to find the ratio in which two quantities are mixed. The ratio is determined by cross-subtracting the individual values from the mean: Ratio = |V₂ − Mean| : |V₁ − Mean|.

Percentage Base Dependency

A percentage inherently represents a fraction of a base value. In population-based literacy questions, if the rate (%) remains universally constant, the absolute count of literates simply scales linearly with the respective population breakdowns.

Shortcut Trick

The greatest number leaving the same remainder is the HCF of the differences of the given numbers.

Differences: (61 − 31) = 30, (91 − 61) = 30, (91 − 31) = 60.

x = HCF(30, 30, 60) = 30.

Required LCM = LCM(30, 48).

Since 30 = 6 × 5 and 48 = 6 × 8, LCM = 6 × 5 × 8 = 240.

∴ The correct answer is 240.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers are 31, 61, and 91.

x is the greatest number that leaves the same remainder when dividing these numbers.

Formula Used:

If a number leaves the same remainder when dividing a, b, and c, then the greatest such number is the HCF of |a − b|, |b − c|, and |c − a|.

Calculation:

⇒ First difference = 61 − 31 = 30

⇒ Second difference = 91 − 61 = 30

⇒ Third difference = 91 − 31 = 60

⇒ x = HCF of 30, 30, and 60

⇒ x = 30

⇒ We need to find the LCM of x and 48, which is the LCM of 30 and 48.

⇒ Prime factorization of 30 = 2 × 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 48 = 2⁴ × 3

⇒ LCM(30, 48) = highest power of each prime factor present

⇒ LCM(30, 48) = 2⁴ × 3 × 5 = 16 × 15 = 240

∴ The correct answer is 240.

Additional Information

Greatest Number Dividing with Same Remainder

When asked for the greatest number that divides a, b, and c leaving the same remainder, compute the HCF of their absolute differences: |a − b|, |b − c|, and |c − a|.

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The smallest positive integer that is exactly divisible by each of the given numbers. It is found by multiplying the highest power of all prime factors involved.

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

The largest positive integer that divides two or more numbers without leaving a remainder. It is the product of the lowest power of each common prime factor.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of students = 35 : 40 : 25 = 7 : 8 : 5 (Total = 20 units)

Let assumed average = 80.

Net deviation = 7 × (90 − 80) + 8 × (88 − 80) + 5 × (80 − 80)

⇒ Net deviation = 70 + 64 + 0 = 134

⇒ Overall average = Assumed average + (Net deviation ÷ Total units) = 80 + (134 ÷ 20) = 86.7

∴ The correct answer is 86.7 marks.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of students: n₁ = 35, n₂ = 40, n₃ = 25

Average marks: A₁ = 90, A₂ = 88, A₃ = 80

Formula Used:

Overall Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂ + n₃A₃) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + n₃)

Avg: 90 35 students

Avg: 88 40 students

Avg: 80 25 students

Total Students = 100 Overall Avg = ?

Calculations:

⇒ Total marks of first section = 35 × 90 = 3150

⇒ Total marks of second section = 40 × 88 = 3520

⇒ Total marks of third section = 25 × 80 = 2000

⇒ Total marks of all sections = 3150 + 3520 + 2000 = 8670

⇒ Total number of students = 35 + 40 + 25 = 100

⇒ Overall Average = 8670 ÷ 100 = 86.7

∴ The correct answer is 86.7 marks.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When combining multiple groups, the overall average is determined by taking the weighted mean of the averages of the individual groups using the formula: A_w = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂ + ... + n_kA_k) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + ... + n_k).

Deviation Method (Assumed Mean)

This method simplifies calculations by choosing an assumed average and finding the net deviation. The actual average is calculated as: Actual Average = Assumed Average + (Net Deviation ÷ Total Count).

Shortcut Trick

Cost Price (CP) of 1 apple = 1200 ÷ 100 = ₹12

Profit per apple = 900 ÷ 400 = ₹2.25

Selling Price (SP) of 1 apple = 12 + 2.25 = ₹14.25

SP of 1 dozen (12 apples) = 14.25 × 12 = ₹171

∴ The correct answer is ₹171.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total custard apples bought = 400

Cost Price (CP) per 100 apples = ₹1200

Total Profit on selling 400 apples = ₹900

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) + Profit

Value per dozen = (Total Value ÷ Total Quantity) × 12

Calculation for 400 Custard Apples

Total CP = ₹4800

Profit = ₹900

Total SP = ₹4800 + ₹900 = ₹5700 SP per dozen = (₹5700 ÷ 400) × 12 = ₹171

Calculations:

⇒ Total CP for 400 apples = (1200 ÷ 100) × 400 = ₹4800

⇒ Total SP for 400 apples = CP + Profit = 4800 + 900 = ₹5700

⇒ SP for 12 apples (1 dozen) = (Total SP × 12) ÷ Total apples

⇒ SP per dozen = (5700 × 12) ÷ 400

⇒ SP per dozen = 57 × (12 ÷ 4) = 57 × 3

⇒ SP per dozen = ₹171

∴ The correct answer is ₹171.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Percentage

Profit and loss are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise. Formula: Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is offered on the Marked Price (MP) of an article. Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount. Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100.

Successive Discounts

When two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the effective single discount percentage is equal to (a + b − a × b ÷ 100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Weight of the overlapping person = Overall Average + Net Deviation

Overall average of 3 persons = 46 kg

Deviation of Rakesh & Shivam = (40 − 46) × 2 = −12 kg

Deviation of Shivam & Rupesh = (48 − 46) × 2 = +4 kg

Weight of Shivam = 46 − 12 + 4 = 38 kg

∴ The correct answer is 38 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average weight of Rakesh, Shivam and Rupesh = 46 kg

Average weight of Rakesh and Shivam = 40 kg

Average weight of Shivam and Rupesh = 48 kg

Shivam + Rupesh = 96 kg

Rakesh + Shivam = 80 kg

Rakesh

Shivam

Rupesh

Total (Rakesh + Shivam + Rupesh) = 138 kg

Overlap (Shivam) = (80 + 96) − 138 = 38 kg

Calculations:

⇒ Total weight of Rakesh, Shivam and Rupesh = 46 × 3 = 138 kg

⇒ Total weight of Rakesh and Shivam = 40 × 2 = 80 kg

⇒ Total weight of Shivam and Rupesh = 48 × 2 = 96 kg

⇒ Sum of weights of both pairs = (Rakesh + Shivam) + (Shivam + Rupesh)

⇒ Sum of weights of both pairs = 80 + 96 = 176 kg

⇒ Since Shivam's weight is added twice in this sum, we must subtract the total weight to find his exact share:

⇒ Weight of Shivam = Sum of pairs − Total weight of all three

⇒ Weight of Shivam = 176 − 138 = 38 kg

∴ The correct answer is 38 kg.

Additional Information

Average Formula

The average is the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations. Conversely, Sum = Average × Number of observations.

Overlapping Groups Principle

When two sub-groups overlap, the sum of their totals minus the grand total of all unique entities gives exactly the value of the overlapping entity.

Deviation Method in Averages

The net deviation from the overall average is always zero. If subsets have non-zero deviations, the overlapping element must balance this net deviation directly.

Given:

Expression to solve = \left[(26 \times 14) \times \left{ 9 \div 3 \times \frac{(19 - 15)}{2} \right}\right]

Formula Used:

Follow BODMAS (Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction).

Calculation:

\left[(26 \times 14) \times \left{ 9 \div 3 \times \frac{(19 - 15)}{2} \right}\right]

⇒ \left[(364) \times \left{ 3 \times \frac{4}{2} \right}\right]

⇒ \left[364 \times \left{ 3 \times 2 \right}\right]

⇒ 364 × 6

⇒ 2184

The value of the expression is 2184.

Shortcut Trick

If x is subtracted from a, b, c, d to make them proportional, then x = (ad − bc) ÷ ((a + d) − (b + c)).

Here a = 55, b = 50, c = 23, and d = 22.

x = (55 × 22 − 50 × 23) ÷ ((55 + 22) − (50 + 23)) = (1210 − 1150) ÷ (77 − 73) = 60 ÷ 4 = 15.

Fourth proportional of 3, 7, and 15 = (7 × 15) ÷ 3 = 105 ÷ 3 = 35.

∴ The correct answer is 35.

Alternate Method

Given numbers: 55, 50, 23, and 22.

Let the subtracted number be x.

According to the given condition, the resulting numbers are in proportion:

⇒ (55 − x) : (50 − x) :: (23 − x) : (22 − x)

⇒ (55 − x) ÷ (50 − x) = (23 − x) ÷ (22 − x)

Cross multiplying the terms:

⇒ (55 − x)(22 − x) = (50 − x)(23 − x)

⇒ 1210 − 55x − 22x + x² = 1150 − 50x − 23x + x²

⇒ 1210 − 77x = 1150 − 73x

⇒ 1210 − 1150 = 77x − 73x

⇒ 60 = 4x

⇒ x = 15

Now, we need to find the fourth proportional (let's say y) of 3, 7, and x (which is 15).

Finding the Fourth Proportional

× 5

3

:

7

::

15

:

y = 35

× 5

⇒ 3 : 7 :: 15 : y

⇒ 3 ÷ 7 = 15 ÷ y

⇒ 3 × y = 7 × 15

⇒ 3y = 105

⇒ y = 35

∴ The correct answer is 35.

Additional Information

Proportional Subtraction Rule

If a number x is subtracted from a, b, c, and d to make them proportional, then x = (ad − bc) ÷ ((a + d) − (b + c)).

Proportional Addition Rule

If a number x is added to a, b, c, and d to make them proportional, then x = (bc − ad) ÷ ((a + d) − (b + c)).

Types of Proportionals

For numbers a, b, and c: Fourth proportional = (bc) ÷ a. Third proportional of a and b = b² ÷ a. Mean proportional of a and b = √(ab).

Shortcut Trick

Direct formula for the difference between CI and SI for 3 years:

P = D × 100³ ÷ [R² × (300 + R)]

P = 152 × 1000000 ÷ [4² × (300 + 4)]

P = 152000000 ÷ [16 × 304]

P = 152000000 ÷ 4864 = 31250

∴ The correct answer is ₹31250.

Alternate Method

Given:

Difference (D) = ₹152

Rate (R) = 4% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Difference between CI and SI for 3 years:

D = P × (R/100)² × (3 + R/100)

Simple Interest

Diff = ₹152

Total Compound Interest (3 Years) D = P × (R/100)² × (3 + R/100)

Calculations:

⇒ 152 = P × (4/100)² × (3 + 4/100)

⇒ 152 = P × (1/25)² × (3 + 1/25)

⇒ 152 = P × (1/625) × (76/25)

⇒ 152 = P × (76 ÷ 15625)

⇒ P = (152 × 15625) ÷ 76

⇒ P = 2 × 15625

⇒ P = 31250

∴ The correct answer is ₹31250.

Additional Information

Difference for 2 years

The difference between CI and SI for 2 years is calculated directly as: D = P × (R/100)²

Effective Rate for 2 years

The net effective compound interest rate for 2 years is: 2R + (R² ÷ 100)%

Effective Rate for 3 years

The net effective compound interest rate for 3 years is: 3R + (3R² ÷ 100) + (R³ ÷ 10000)%

Shortcut Trick

The formula for the curved surface area is 2 × π × r × h.

Since π = 22 ÷ 7 and the radius (14 cm) is perfectly divisible by 7, the 7 in the denominator cancels out.

Because the formula uses 22, the final result must be a multiple of 11.

Check the given options using the divisibility rule of 11 (difference of the sum of alternating digits):

Only 1408 satisfies this condition: (1 + 0) − (4 + 8) = −11, which is fully divisible by 11.

∴ The correct answer is 1408 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Height of the cylinder (h) = 16 cm

Radius of the cylinder (r) = 14 cm

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a cylinder = 2 × π × r × h

r = 14 cm

h = 16 cm

Curved Surface Area = 2 × π × r × h

Calculations:

⇒ CSA = 2 × (22 ÷ 7) × 14 × 16

⇒ CSA = 2 × 22 × 2 × 16

⇒ CSA = 44 × 32

⇒ CSA = 1408 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 1408 cm².

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of a Cylinder

The total surface area includes the curved surface and the two circular flat bases. Formula: TSA = 2 × π × r × (r + h).

Volume of a Cylinder

It represents the total capacity or 3D space enclosed by the cylinder. Formula: Volume = π × r² × h.

Relation with Cone

A right circular cone with the same base radius and perpendicular height contains exactly one-third the volume of its enclosing cylinder. Volume of Cone = (1 ÷ 3) × π × r² × h.

Given:

16 + 8 ÷ 4 - 3 × 3

Formula Used:

Order of operations (BODMAS): Brackets → Orders → Division/Multiplication → Addition/Subtraction

Calculation:

⇒ 16 + 8 ÷ 4 - 3 × 3

⇒ 16 + 2 - 9

⇒ 18 - 9

⇒ 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Shortcut Trick

When amounts are equal, Ratio of Principal = Inverse ratio of multiplying factors.

Piyush's Share : Manoj's Share = (1 + 10/100)^{12 − 11} : 1

Ratio = 1.1 : 1 = 11 : 10

Piyush's share = 11 / (11 + 10) × 1617 = 11/21 × 1617

Piyush's share = 11 × 77 = ₹847

∴ The correct answer is ₹847.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount = ₹1617

Rate of interest (R) = 10% compounded annually

Time for Piyush (T₁) = 11 years

Time for Manoj (T₂) = 12 years

Formula Used:

Amount = P(1 + R/100)^T

Total Sum: ₹1617

Piyush (11 years) P1 × (1.1)^11 = Amount

Manoj (12 years) P2 × (1.1)^12 = Amount

Ratio P1 : P2 = 1.1 : 1 = 11 : 10

Calculations:

Let Piyush's share be P₁ and Manoj's share be P₂.

⇒ P₁ + P₂ = 1617

According to the question, amounts after their respective years are equal.

⇒ P₁(1 + 10/100)¹¹ = P₂(1 + 10/100)¹²

⇒ P₁/P₂ = (1 + 10/100)^{12 − 11}

⇒ P₁/P₂ = (110/100)¹ = 11/10

⇒ Ratio of shares, P₁ : P₂ = 11 : 10

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 11 + 10 = 21 parts

⇒ 21 parts = ₹1617

⇒ 1 part = 1617 ÷ 21 = ₹77

⇒ Piyush's share (11 parts) = 11 × 77 = ₹847

∴ The correct answer is ₹847.

Additional Information

Division of Sum into equal amounts

When a total sum P is divided into two parts P₁ and P₂ producing equal amounts after T₁ and T₂ years respectively at R% compound interest, their ratio is given by P₁/P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{T₂ − T₁}.

Compound Interest Formula

The general formula for compound interest is Amount = P(1 + R/100)^T, where P = principal, R = rate, and T = time period.

Effective Rate of Compound Interest

For 2 years at R% per annum, the effective compound interest rate is calculated directly as 2R + (R²/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

For any three numbers a, b, and c, the fourth proportional (d) can be found directly using the formula:

d = (b × c) ÷ a

Here, a = 4, b = 6, and c = 5.

Fourth proportional = (6 × 5) ÷ 4 = 30 ÷ 4 = 7.5

∴ The correct answer is 7.5.

Alternate Method

Product of Extremes (4 × x)

Product of Means (6 × 5)

4

:

6

::

5

:

x

Given:

First term (a) = 4

Second term (b) = 6

Third term (c) = 5

Formula Used:

If four values a, b, c, and d are in proportion (a : b :: c : d), then the ratio of the first two equals the ratio of the last two.

⇒ a ÷ b = c ÷ d

⇒ Product of Extremes (a × d) = Product of Means (b × c)

Calculations:

Let the fourth proportional be x.

⇒ 4 : 6 :: 5 : x

⇒ 4 ÷ 6 = 5 ÷ x

⇒ 4 × x = 6 × 5

⇒ 4x = 30

⇒ x = 30 ÷ 4

⇒ x = 7.5

∴ The correct answer is 7.5.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is the square root of their product. It is given by x = √(a × b).

Third Proportional

If three numbers a, b, and c are in continued proportion such that a : b :: b : c, then c is called the third proportional, given by c = b² ÷ a.

Componendo and Dividendo Rule

If two ratios are equal such that a ÷ b = c ÷ d, then applying Componendo and Dividendo gives (a + b) ÷ (a − b) = (c + d) ÷ (c − d).

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Unreliable).

Key Points

• The word "Credible" means something or someone that is believable, trustworthy, or reliable. (विश्वसनीय)
• Example: The newspaper article was based on credible sources.
• "Unreliable" refers to something or someone that cannot be trusted or depended upon. (अविश्वसनीय)
• Example: The witness gave an unreliable statement during the trial.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'credible' is 'unreliable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Unreliable).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Fantastic (काल्पनिक): Refers to something extraordinary, imaginary, or unrealistic.
• Example: The movie showcased fantastic creatures in a magical world.
• Credulous (भोलाभाला): Refers to someone who is too ready to believe things, often without evidence.
• Example: She was so credulous that she believed every word of the scammer.
• Friendly (मित्रवत): Refers to someone or something that is kind and pleasant.
• Example: The neighbours were very friendly and welcoming.

The correct answer is 'got'.

 

Key Points

• The verb "got" is the correct choice as it collocates with "lost" in this context.
• The sentence describes a past event where the hikers found themselves in a specific situation ("got lost").
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not form a proper collocation with "lost" in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Pranav and Karan, the hikers from the south, got lost in the dense forest but eventually found their way."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "held" is incorrect because it does not fit the context of being lost in a forest.
• Option 3: "had" is incorrect because it does not form a proper collocation with "lost" in this context.
• Option 4: "gone" is incorrect because it is grammatically unsuitable in this sentence.

The correct answer is 'at'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "at" is used to denote skill or ability in a particular activity.
• The sentence implies that she possesses a skill in dancing, making "at" the most appropriate choice.
• Options 1 (of), 3 (for), and 4 (on) are incorrect in this context because they do not fit the grammatical structure or meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "She is very good at dancing."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "of" is incorrect because "of" does not denote skill or expertise.
• Option 3: "for" is incorrect as it does not fit the context of describing ability.
• Option 4: "on" is grammatically incorrect in this sentence.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The error in the sentence lies in the part "It was that cold."
• The phrase "It was that cold" is incorrect and lacks proper grammatical structure. The correct phrasing should be "It was so cold" to convey the intended meaning effectively.
• The word "so" is appropriate for expressing the degree of coldness.
• Thus, the error is located in Option 4.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "It was so cold that I could not feel my fingers at night."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "that I could not feel" – This part is grammatically correct.
• Option 2: "my fingers at night." – This part is grammatically correct.
• Option 3: "No error" – This would be correct if the sentence contained no errors, but there is an error in Option 4.
• Option 4: "It was that cold" – This part contains the error as explained above.

The correct answer is: Sloppy.

Key Points

• The word "meticulous" means showing great attention to detail, being very careful and precise in approach. (सावधानीपूर्वक)
• Example: She is meticulous in her preparations for the meeting, ensuring everything is perfect.
• "Sloppy" refers to being careless, untidy, or lacking attention to detail. It is the antonym of "meticulous." (असावधान या अस्त-व्यस्त)
• Example: His sloppy handwriting made it difficult to read the notes.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'meticulous' is 'sloppy'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Sloppy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Detailed (विस्तृत): Including many small elements or features; thorough.
• Example: He gave a detailed description of the incident during the meeting.
• Orderly (सुसंगत ): Arranged or organized in a systematic manner.
• Example: The orderly arrangement of files made it easier to find the required document.
• Categorised (वर्गीकृत): Sorted or classified into specific groups or categories.
• Example: The books were categorised according to their genres in the library.

The correct answer is 'two peas in a pod'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "two peas in a pod" is an idiom used to describe people or things that are very similar or always agree with one another.
• The sentence implies that Arun and his friends are always in agreement, which aligns perfectly with this idiomatic expression.
• Option 1, Option 3, and Option 4 do not convey the intended meaning or are not commonly used idioms.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Arun and his friends are like two peas in a pod; they always agree on everything."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "two potatoes in a plate" is not a recognized idiom and does not make sense in this context.
• Option 3: "two pots in a kitchen" might suggest similarity but lacks the commonly understood meaning of the idiom "two peas in a pod."
• Option 4: "two pearls in a ring" implies beauty or value but does not align with the idea of agreement or similarity.

The correct answer is 'disappointed'.

 

Key Points

• The word "disappointed" correctly describes the feeling of fans who were unable to buy tickets due to their unavailability.
• The other options do not fit logically or contextually in the sentence.
• Option 1: "satisfied" is incorrect as it conveys the opposite emotion.
• Option 2: "clear" is irrelevant in this context.
• Option 3: "screaming" is incorrect as it does not convey the disappointment of the fans.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "The concert tickets were sold out within minutes, leaving many fans disappointed."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "satisfied" is incorrect because fans would not be satisfied if tickets were sold out before they could purchase them.
• Option 2: "clear" is irrelevant as it does not describe the emotional state of the fans.
• Option 3: "screaming" is not contextually appropriate as it does not convey the disappointment of the fans.

The correct answer is: Option 2 ('Under the weather').

Key Points

• The idiom "Under the weather" refers to feeling unwell, sick, or not in good health. (अस्वस्थ महसूस करना)
• Example: I didn’t go to work today because I’ve been feeling under the weather.
• The phrase is commonly used to describe a temporary state of poor health or fatigue. (थोड़े समय के लिए स्वास्थ्य खराब होना या थकावट)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 ('Under the weather').

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Under the radar (नजर से बचकर): Refers to doing something secretly or without attracting attention.
• Example: The new startup is operating under the radar until they are ready to launch officially.
• Under the sun (संसार में): Refers to everything that exists or is possible in the world.
• Example: They discussed every topic under the sun during their meeting.
• Under pressure (दबाव में): Refers to a state of being stressed or forced to do something due to external demands.
• Example: She performs well under pressure, which is why she excels in stressful situations.

The correct answer is: Irritable.

Key Points

• The word "Grumpy" refers to a mood or behavior characterized by irritability or a bad temper. (चिड़चिड़ा)
• Example: The old man was grumpy because his morning coffee was cold.
• "Irritable" means easily annoyed or angered, often showing signs of impatience or frustration. (चिड़चिड़ा)
• Example: She became irritable after working long hours without a break.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Grumpy' is 'Irritable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Irritable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Competent (सक्षम): Having the necessary ability, knowledge, or skill to do something successfully.
• Example: She is a competent leader who always achieves her goals efficiently.
• Jubilant (हर्षित): Feeling or expressing great joy or happiness.
• Example: The team was jubilant after winning the championship.
• Fascinating (मोहक): Extremely interesting or captivating.
• Example: The documentary about space exploration was absolutely fascinating.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Awkwardely'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Awkwardly'.
• The word 'Awkwardly' is an adverb which means 'in a clumsy or uncomfortable manner'. (बेढंग तरीके से)
• For Example -
• He awkwardly bumped into the table while trying to avoid the chair.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Awkwardely'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Frankly - in an open, honest, and direct manner (स्पष्ट रूप से)
• Deliberately - consciously and intentionally; on purpose (जानबूझकर)
• Mortally - in such a manner as to cause death or fatal injury (मौत के कगार पर)

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence provided does not contain any grammatical error.
• Each segment of the sentence is grammatically correct and adheres to standard usage.
• Therefore, the correct answer is No error, corresponding to Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "He has won the elections before but this time the situation is different."

 

Additional Information

• Part A: "He has won the" – This part is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Part B: "elections before but" – This part is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Part C: "this time the situation is different." – This part is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Appear).

Key Points

• The word "Fade" means to gradually lose brightness, color, or visibility; to become less distinct or disappear over time. (मुरझाना/धुंधला होना)
• Example: The colors of the painting started to fade after being exposed to sunlight for years.
• "Appear" means to come into view, to become visible, or to emerge. It is the opposite of fading, as it refers to something becoming clearer or more distinct. (उभरना/दिखाई देना)
• Example: The stars begin to appear as the sky turns dark.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'fade' is 'appear'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Appear).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Achieve (हासिल करना): To successfully reach a goal or objective through effort.
• Example: He worked hard to achieve his dream of becoming a doctor.
• Accept (स्वीकार करना): To agree to take something or to approve of it.
• Example: She decided to accept the job offer despite its challenges.
• Admire (प्रशंसा करना): To regard someone or something with respect or warm approval.
• Example: Everyone admires her dedication to her work.

The correct answer is: Honest.

Key Points

• The word "Candid" means being truthful, straightforward, and honest in speech or behaviour. (स्पष्ट, निष्कपट)
• Example: She gave a candid assessment of the challenges the team is facing.
• "Honest" refers to someone or something that is truthful, sincere, and free from deceit. (ईमानदार)
• Example: The honest man always speaks the truth, no matter the consequences.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Candid' is 'Honest'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Honest.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Deceptive (छलपूर्ण): Misleading or giving a false impression.
• Example: His deceptive behavior made it hard to trust him.
• Reserved (संकोची): Someone who is shy or reluctant to share their thoughts and feelings.
• Example: Despite being reserved, she managed to express her ideas effectively.
• Hesitant (हिचकिचाहट): Unsure or slow to act due to uncertainty or fear.
• Example: He was hesitant to speak up in the meeting.

The correct answer is: Slanderous.

Key Points

• The word "Slanderous" refers to something that is false and defamatory, especially in the form of spoken words intended to damage someone's reputation. (अपमानजनक और मानहानिकारक)
• Example: The politician filed a lawsuit against the journalist for making slanderous statements about him.
• "Defamatory" is another term closely related to slanderous, signifying any spoken or written statement that harms someone's reputation. (मानहानिपूर्ण)
• Example: The defamatory article in the newspaper caused significant damage to the celebrity's career.
• Hence, the term 'slanderous' is the most appropriate one-word substitute for the underlined segment in the given sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Slanderous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Flattery (चापलूसी): Excessive and insincere praise, especially to gain favor or advantage.
• Example: She saw through his flattery and realized he was trying to manipulate her.
• Adorable (प्यारा ): Inspiring great affection or delight.
• Example: The puppy was so adorable that everyone wanted to take it home.
• Adulatory (चापलूस): Excessively praising or admiring.
• Example: The audience's adulatory applause made the singer feel appreciated.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'horrizon'.

• The correct spelling would be 'horizon'.
• The word 'horizon' is a noun which means 'the line at which the earth's surface and the sky appear to meet'. (क्षितिज)
• For Example -
• As the sun set, the colors on the horizon became breathtaking.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'horizon'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Caesting - Incorrect spelling. The correct spelling would be 'casting', which means throwing something forcefully (फेंकना).
• **Tranquill -**Incorrect spelling. The correct spelling would be 'tranquil', which means calm and peaceful (शांत).
• Accross - Incorrect spelling. The correct spelling would be 'across', which means from one side to the other (पार).

The correct answer is 'at'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the rate at which tea imports increased in the Colonies.
• The correct preposition to indicate growth or change in rate is "at".
• "At a very fast rate" is the standard phrase used to describe something increasing rapidly.
• Other options ("beside", "of", "about") do not fit the context or are grammatically incorrect in this phrase.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: The volume of tea imports into the Colonies rose at a very fast rate in the four years up to the Boston Tea Party. They went from 55 tonnes in 1770, which was close to the amount dumped in the harbour, to 370 tonnes the year the tea was dumped. This was an increase of almost seven times. The population of the Colonies was about 2 million people in 1770 and didn’t change much in that four-year period. Basic economics tells us this sharp increase in supply without more customers meant the price of tea had to fall.

 

Additional Information

• Beside: Means "next to" or "apart from", which does not fit the context of describing the rate of increase.
• Of: Does not indicate rate or speed of increase.
• About: Used for approximation, not for describing rate or speed.

The correct answer is 'following'.

 

Key Points

• The passage refers to a period of four years leading up to the Boston Tea Party.
• The word “following” is commonly used to indicate a period after or leading up to a specific event.
• “Following up to the Boston Tea Party” correctly expresses the intended timeframe.
• Other options (“trailing,” “lagging,” “leading”) do not fit the grammatical or contextual requirements of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: The volume of tea imports into the Colonies rose at a very fast rate in the four years following up to the Boston Tea Party. They went from 55 tonnes in 1770, which was close to the amount dumped in the harbour, to 370 tonnes the year the tea was dumped. This was an increase of almost seven times. The population of the Colonies was about 2 million people in 1770 and didn’t change much in that four-year period. Basic economics tells us this sharp increase in supply without more customers meant the price of tea had to fall.

 

Additional Information

• Trailing: Means following behind, but is not used for time periods in this context.
• Lagging: Implies being slow or behind, not suitable here.
• Leading: Means going before, which is opposite to the required meaning.

The correct answer is 'dumped'.

 

Key Points

• The passage is about the Boston Tea Party, an event where tea was thrown into the harbour as a protest.
• The blank refers to the amount of tea that ended up in the harbour during this event.
• "Dumped" is the most appropriate word, as it means tea was disposed of or thrown away, matching the historical context.
• Other options ("upheld", "elevated", "fostered") do not fit the context of tea being thrown into the harbour.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: The volume of tea imports into the Colonies rose at a very fast rate in the four years following up to the Boston Tea Party. They went from 55 tonnes in 1770, which was close to the amount dumped in the harbour, to 370 tonnes the year the tea was dumped. This was an increase of almost seven times. The population of the Colonies was about 2 million people in 1770 and didn’t change much in that four-year period. Basic economics tells us this sharp increase in supply without more customers meant the price of tea had to fall.

 

Additional Information

• Upheld: Means supported or maintained, which is unrelated to the context.
• Elevated: Means raised or lifted, which does not describe the act of disposing tea.
• Fostered: Means encouraged or promoted, which does not fit the narrative of tea being thrown away.

The correct answer is 'expand'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the population of the Colonies during a four-year period.
• The blank requires a verb that fits the idea of population change over time.
• "Expand" means to increase in size or number, which fits the idea of population growth.
• Other options ("condense", "constrict", "shrink") mean to decrease or become smaller, which do not fit as the sentence says the population “didn’t _____ much.”

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: The volume of tea imports into the Colonies rose at a very fast rate in the four years following up to the Boston Tea Party. They went from 55 tonnes in 1770, which was close to the amount dumped in the harbour, to 370 tonnes the year the tea was dumped. This was an increase of almost seven times. The population of the Colonies was about 2 million people in 1770 and didn’t expand much in that four-year period. Basic economics tells us this sharp increase in supply without more customers meant the price of tea had to fall.

 

Additional Information

• Condense: Means to make something denser or more compact, not suitable for population growth context.
• Constrict: Means to make narrower or tighter, not appropriate for discussing population changes.
• Shrink: Means to become smaller, the opposite of what is needed for the intended meaning in the passage.

The correct answer is 'dramatic'.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes a significant increase in tea imports into the Colonies.
• The word needed should highlight the notable or striking nature of the increase.
• "Dramatic" means sudden, noticeable, or significant, which matches the description of the increase in supply.
• Other options ("dull", "understated", "mundane") do not convey the sense of a sharp or significant rise as required by the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: The volume of tea imports into the Colonies rose at a very fast rate in the four years following up to the Boston Tea Party. They went from 55 tonnes in 1770, which was close to the amount dumped in the harbour, to 370 tonnes the year the tea was dumped. This was an increase of almost seven times. The population of the Colonies was about 2 million people in 1770 and didn’t expand much in that four-year period. Basic economics tells us this dramatic increase in supply without more customers meant the price of tea had to fall.

 

Additional Information

• Dull: Means uninteresting or lacking excitement, which is the opposite of what the passage describes.
• Understated: Means presented or expressed in a subtle and effective way, but not appropriate for a significant increase.
• Mundane: Means ordinary or unremarkable, which does not fit the context of a sharp rise in supply.

सही उत्तर 'एटलस' है।

• 'एटलस' भाववाचक संज्ञा नहीं है।

Key Points

Additional Information