SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 25 Feb, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic follows here,

LQAB is coded as 32

= 12 + 17 + 1 + 2

= 32

For, CMGP is coded as 39

= 3 + 13 + 7 + 16

= 39

Similarly,

SJZC is coded as 

= 19 + 10 + 26 + 3

= 58

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

After unfolding the given figure following cuts will be shown.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic follows here,

Logic: (1st number × 2) + 4 = 2^nd number

2^nd number + 8 = 3^rd number

So, the missing term is 116

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given : Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing 4 people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons.

In row 1 – W, O, R and K are seated and all of them are facing south

In row 2 – P, A, S and T are seated and all of them are facing north.

Thus, each person faces another person from the other row.

• K sits second to the left of R.
• T sits second to the right of A.
• Only two people sit between A and P.
• O faces S

The Final Arrangement is ,

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic followed here is

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here,

45 + 0²= 45 + 0 = 45

45 + 1²= 45 + 1 = 46

​46 + 2²= 46 + 4 = 50

50 + 3²= 50 + 9 = 59

59 + 4²= 59 + 16 = 75

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed here is

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I): Some ties are dress.- False (As their is no direct relation between ties and dress may be it is possible but not definite. Hence, it is false)

(II): Some shirts are tie.- False (As their is no direct relation between ties and shirtsmay be it is possible but not definite. Hence, it is false)

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Logic : One side is increasing in each next term.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed here is

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Six friends, A, B, C, K, L and M, are sitting in a straight line facing north (but not necessarily in the same order) .

• Only two people sit between A and M.
• B sits to the immediate left of M.
• No one sits to the right of C.
• Only two people sit between C and B.
• B sits to the immediate right of L
• The Final Arrangement is ,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

Brother's wife's brother

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The given figure  is embedded

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here is:

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given: _ G I M K _ J N L I _ O M J L _ N K M _​​

Now, we check each options.

 

• Option (1): FIMRT (Not Follow)​
• F G / I M / K I / J N / L I / M O / M J / L R / N K / M T
• Option (2): JHKPQ (Follow)​
• J G / I M / K H / J N / L I / K O / M J / L P / N K / M Q
• So, the following pattern is: - 3 and + 4 alternately
• Thus, correct option is (2).
• Option (3): JIKRQ (Not Follow)
• J G / I M / K I / J N / L I / K O / M J / L R / N K / M Q
• Option (4): FHMPT (Not Follow)​
• F G / I M / K H / J N / L I / M O / M J / L P / N K / M T

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given : 11 − 9 ÷ 2 + 16 × 8 = ?

BODMAS table

 ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged

New equation: 11 + 9 × 2 - 16 ÷ 8 = ?

​11 + 9 × 2 - 2 = ?

11 + 18 - 2 = ?

29 - 2 = ?

? = 27.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic follows here,

Given Word : D A U G H T E R

 Arranged in English alphabetical order : A D E G H R T U

Two  letters will remain unchanged : G and H.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The correct answer is Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.

Key Points

• Urea is a chemical compound with the molecular formula CO(NH₂)₂. It is composed of four main elements: carbon (C), hydrogen (H), oxygen (O), and nitrogen (N).
• Urea is a significant organic molecule primarily produced in the liver of mammals as part of the urea cycle, also known as the ornithine cycle.
• In the urea molecule:
• Carbon: Forms the central atom of the molecule, part of the carbonyl group (C=O).
• Hydrogen: Found in the two NH₂ (amino) groups attached to the central carbon.
• Oxygen: Present in the carbonyl group (C=O).
• Nitrogen: Found in the two amino (NH₂) groups.
• It is extensively used in agriculture as a nitrogen-based fertilizer due to its high nitrogen content, which is essential for plant growth.
• Urea is also utilized in industrial applications like the production of resins, plastics, and cosmetics.

Additional Information

• Chemical Composition of Urea:
• Urea consists of 46% nitrogen, making it one of the most concentrated nitrogen fertilizers available.
• The molecular weight of urea is 60.06 g/mol.
• It is highly soluble in water, allowing for quick absorption in agricultural applications.
• Urea Cycle (Ornithine Cycle):
• The urea cycle occurs in the liver to convert toxic ammonia, a by-product of protein metabolism, into urea, which is safely excreted through urine.
• Enzymes such as carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I and argininosuccinate synthetase play a critical role in this cycle.
• Industrial Applications of Urea:
• Used in the production of urea-formaldehyde resins, which are employed in the manufacturing of particle boards and adhesives.
• Plays a role in the pharmaceutical industry for synthesizing drugs and medical products.
• Commonly used in the creation of cosmetics, particularly in skin creams, as it helps retain moisture.
• Important Characteristics:
• Urea appears as a white crystalline solid at room temperature.
• It is a non-toxic compound and is biodegradable, making it environmentally friendly when used in proper quantities.
• Overuse of urea as a fertilizer can lead to soil degradation and water contamination due to nitrogen leaching.

The correct answer is Bhubaneshwar.

Key Points

• The AIFF-FIFA Football Academy was launched in Bhubaneshwar, Odisha, in 2023 to promote football infrastructure and nurture young talent in India.
• Bhubaneshwar is recognized as a sports hub in India, having hosted major events like the Hockey World Cup and Indian Super League (ISL) matches.
• The academy is a part of the collaboration between the All India Football Federation (AIFF) and FIFA to strengthen grassroots football and provide advanced training facilities in the country.
• This initiative aligns with the Indian government’s vision to enhance sports infrastructure and make India more competitive in global football.
• The academy aims to train young football players through modern techniques, experienced coaches, and state-of-the-art facilities.

Additional Information

• Bhubaneshwar as a Sports Hub:
• Bhubaneshwar has gained prominence as a model city for sports development due to its world-class facilities, such as the Kalinga Stadium.
• The city has hosted prestigious events like the Men’s Hockey World Cup (2018 and 2023) and ISL matches, establishing itself as a center for international sports.
• The Odisha government has actively invested in upgrading sports infrastructure and promoting youth participation in sports.
• All India Football Federation (AIFF):
• The AIFF is the governing body for football in India and is affiliated with FIFA and the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).
• Its initiatives include organizing leagues like the Indian Super League (ISL) and I-League, as well as grassroots and youth development programs.
• The AIFF’s collaboration with FIFA aims to boost football development in India and enhance its global competitiveness.
• FIFA’s Role in Football Development:
• FIFA provides financial and technical support to member associations like AIFF for developing football infrastructure and grassroots programs.
• Programs like FIFA Forward focus on sustainable football growth and increasing participation worldwide.
• FIFA emphasizes inclusivity, ensuring that football is accessible to all, regardless of socioeconomic status.

The correct answer is 59%.

Key Points

• The literacy rate of Scheduled Tribes (ST) in India, as per Census 2011, stands at 59%.
• This marks a significant improvement from Census 2001, where the literacy rate among STs was recorded at 47.10%.
• The male literacy rate among Scheduled Tribes is higher at 68.5%, while the female literacy rate is comparatively lower at 49.4%.
• The overall literacy rate of India in Census 2011 is 74.04%, showing a gap of approximately 14% between the general population and STs.
• States like Mizoram and Nagaland report the highest literacy rates among Scheduled Tribes, while states such as Jharkhand and Odisha show relatively lower literacy rates.

Additional Information

• Challenges Faced by Scheduled Tribes in Education:
• Socio-economic barriers such as poverty, traditional livelihoods, and limited access to quality education.
• Geographical isolation and lack of educational infrastructure in remote tribal areas.
• Language barriers due to differing tribal languages and the medium of instruction.
• Government Initiatives for Improving Tribal Literacy:
• Programs like the Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) provide educational opportunities for tribal children.
• Scholarship schemes like Post Matric Scholarship for ST Students aim to reduce financial burdens.
• Focus on skill development and vocational training to empower tribal youth.
• Definition of Literacy Rate:
• The literacy rate refers to the percentage of people aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language.
• It is calculated based on the total population in this age group.

The correct answer is Four.

Key Points

• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) to the Indian Constitution.
• The newly added DPSPs are aimed at promoting socialism, environmental protection, and equitable justice.
• The four newly added principles include:
• Article 39: To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children.
• Article 39A: To promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to economically weaker sections.
• Article 43A: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
• Article 48A: To protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
• The amendment was introduced during the Emergency period (1975–77) under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• The 42nd Amendment is often referred to as the "Mini-Constitution" due to the extensive changes it brought, including changes to the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, and distribution of powers between the Centre and States.

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs):
• DPSPs are outlined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36–51).
• They are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by a court of law.
• They serve as guidelines for the State in formulating policies to establish social and economic democracy.
• Other options in the question:
• Option 1 (Two): This is incorrect as the 42nd Amendment Act introduced four DPSPs, not two.
• Option 2 (Six): This is incorrect as the number of new DPSPs added was four, not six.
• Option 3 (Seven): This is incorrect because the amendment did not add seven DPSPs; it added only four.
• Environmental Protection under DPSPs:
• Article 48A, introduced by this amendment, highlights the State's responsibility to protect and improve the environment.
• It also aligns with Article 51A (Fundamental Duties), which obligates citizens to contribute to environmental conservation.

The correct answer is Mohiniattam.

Key Points

• Mohiniattam is a classical dance form that originated in Kerala, India.
• The dance form flourished under the patronage of King Swathi Thirunal of Travancore during the 19th century.
• It is characterized by graceful movements, subtle expressions, and feminine themes.
• Mohiniattam is performed as a solo dance by women and is accompanied by Carnatic music.
• The term "Mohini" refers to the enchanting divine form of Lord Vishnu, which is reflected in the elegance of this dance.

Additional Information

• King Swathi Thirunal's Patronage
• Swathi Thirunal was a renowned ruler of Travancore and an exceptional composer of Carnatic music.
• He played a significant role in reviving and promoting art and culture, including Mohiniattam.
• His compositions are still used as musical accompaniments for Mohiniattam performances.
• Distinctive Features of Mohiniattam
• Mohiniattam incorporates Lasya, which represents the graceful and delicate aspect of dance.
• The costume includes a white sari with golden borders, emphasizing simplicity and elegance.
• Movements are soft, rhythmic, and circular, creating a visual representation of feminine charm.
• Other Dance Forms of Kerala
• Kathakali: A classical dance-drama characterized by elaborate makeup, costumes, and gestures.
• Theyyam: A ritualistic dance form performed in temples.
• Both Kathakali and Mohiniattam draw inspiration from religious themes and mythology.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi.

Key Points

• Vasanthalakshmi Narasimhachari is a celebrated classical dancer, proficient in Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi, two renowned Indian classical dance forms.
• She was honored with the Nritya Kalanidhi Award 2023, a prestigious recognition by the Madras Music Academy for her exceptional contributions to Indian classical dance.
• Bharatanatyam originates from Tamil Nadu and is distinguished by intricate footwork, graceful movements, and expressive storytelling rooted in Hindu mythology.
• Kuchipudi, originating from Andhra Pradesh, is a dance-drama performance art known for its blend of narrative and pure dance accompanied by Carnatic music.
• Vasanthalakshmi Narasimhachari, along with her late husband K.P. Narasimhachari, enriched these dance forms by blending tradition with innovative elements and dedicated her life to teaching and preserving them for future generations.

Additional Information

• Sattriya and Mohiniyattam
• Sattriya is a classical dance form from Assam, introduced by the saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardeva in the 15th century.
• Mohiniyattam is a graceful classical dance form from Kerala, known for its feminine movements and themes derived from Hindu mythology, especially Lord Vishnu.
• Manipuri and Chau
• Manipuri is a classical dance form from Manipur, characterized by gentle, lyrical movements and themes related to Vaishnavism.
• Chau is a semi-classical dance drama from eastern India, particularly Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, blending martial arts and storytelling.
• Kathak and Odissi
• Kathak is a classical dance form from northern India, known for its intricate footwork, spins, and storytelling through rhythmic patterns.
• Odissi is a classical dance from Odisha, featuring fluid movements, sculpturesque poses, and themes rooted in Hindu deities and mythology.

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

• The tableau of Uttarakhand, based on the theme 'Manaskhand', was awarded the best tableau among 17 states and Union Territories during the Republic Day Parade 2023.
• The tableau depicted the cultural heritage and tourism potential of Uttarakhand, highlighting the spiritual significance of the Manaskhand region.
• Manaskhand refers to the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, which is known for its religious and mythological importance.
• The tableau showcased prominent sites like the Jageshwar Dham, a group of ancient temples dedicated to Lord Shiva, which are significant in Hindu mythology.
• The artistic portrayal and detailed representation of Uttarakhand's spiritual and natural beauty earned the tableau wide appreciation.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh:
• In the Republic Day Parade 2023, the tableau of Uttar Pradesh was based on the theme of Ayodhya Deepotsav, showcasing the rich cultural heritage of the state.
• Ayodhya is the birthplace of Lord Rama and a significant spiritual hub in India.
• The tableau highlighted the grandeur of the Deepotsav festival, a major event celebrated in Ayodhya.
• Bihar:
• Bihar's tableau in 2023 was themed around “Jal-Jeevan-Hariyali”, emphasizing the state's initiatives for water conservation, environmental sustainability, and green development.
• It showcased Bihar's efforts to combat climate change and promote ecological balance.
• Gujarat:
• The tableau of Gujarat in 2023 depicted the theme “Clean-Green Energy Efficient Gujarat”, focusing on renewable energy initiatives and sustainable development in the state.
• It highlighted Gujarat’s achievements in solar and wind energy and its efforts toward a cleaner environment.
• Manaskhand:
• Manaskhand is a term that refers to the Kumaon region in Uttarakhand and is prominently mentioned in ancient scriptures.
• The region is known for its religious and cultural significance, with several temples and pilgrimage sites like Jageshwar Dham and Patal Bhuvaneshwar.
• It also boasts natural beauty, with popular destinations such as Nainital and Almora, attracting tourists and pilgrims alike.

The correct answer is Both statements A and B are correct.

Key Points

• Statement A: Vaccination involves the introduction of antigenic proteins or inactivated/weakened pathogens into the body to stimulate the immune system. This helps the body to recognize and combat pathogens effectively.
• Statement B: Vaccines lead to the formation of memory-B and T-cells, which are crucial for quick recognition and elimination of pathogens during future infections. This ensures long-term immunity.
• Vaccination is a preventive healthcare measure, pivotal in controlling and eradicating diseases like smallpox, polio, and measles.
• Memory cells generated during vaccination help the immune system respond faster and more effectively upon re-exposure to the same pathogen.
• The development of modern vaccines, such as mRNA-based COVID-19 vaccines, utilizes advanced technologies to maximize efficacy and minimize risks.

Additional Information

• Concept of Vaccination:
• Vaccines mimic infection without causing illness, stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies.
• They rely on the principle of immunological memory, where memory cells (B and T cells) are created to recognize and neutralize the pathogen during future exposure.
• Vaccination also contributes to herd immunity, reducing the overall disease spread within a community.
• Types of Vaccines:
• Live-attenuated vaccines: Contain weakened forms of the pathogen (e.g., measles, mumps, rubella vaccines).
• Inactivated vaccines: Contain killed pathogens (e.g., polio vaccine).
• Subunit/conjugate vaccines: Include specific parts of the pathogen, such as proteins (e.g., Hepatitis B, HPV vaccines).
• mRNA vaccines: Use genetic instructions for the body to produce a protein that triggers an immune response (e.g., COVID-19 vaccines).
• Role of Memory Cells:
• Memory-B cells produce antibodies specific to the pathogen upon re-exposure.
• Memory-T cells help in detecting and destroying infected cells.
• These cells ensure a rapid and efficient immune response, preventing severe illness during subsequent infections.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• Bismillah Khan, the celebrated shehnai maestro, was born on March 21, 1916, in Dumraon, a small town in the Buxar district of Bihar, India.
• Dumraon is one of the oldest municipalities in Bihar and is renowned for its rich cultural heritage.
• Bismillah Khan is credited with popularizing the shehnai, a traditional Indian wind instrument, and elevating it to the status of a classical music instrument.
• He was honored with India’s highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna, in 2001 for his outstanding contribution to Indian classical music.
• Bihar, the birthplace of Bismillah Khan, is historically and culturally significant as it has produced many prominent figures in art, music, and literature.

Additional Information

• Kerala:
• Kerala is a state in southern India known for its lush green landscapes, backwaters, and rich cultural traditions like Kathakali and Mohiniyattam.
• It has contributed significantly to India’s classical dance, music, and Ayurveda practices.
• However, Kerala is not associated with the birthplace of Bismillah Khan or the shehnai tradition.
• Himachal Pradesh:
• Himachal Pradesh is a state in northern India known for its scenic beauty, hill stations, and temples.
• The state is famous for its folk music and dance forms like Nati, but it does not have any historical connection to Bismillah Khan or the shehnai.
• Rajasthan:
• Rajasthan is well-known for its royal heritage, traditional music, and instruments like the sarangi and pakhawaj.
• While Rajasthan has a rich musical legacy, it is not the birthplace of Bismillah Khan or the shehnai tradition.

The correct answer is Only iii.

Key Points

• Statement i is correct: The Government of India launched the National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Scheme in 2016 to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities by integrating Agricultural Produce Market Committees (APMCs).
• Statement ii is correct: The agriculture credit flow for the financial year 2020-21 was ₹15,75,398 crore as per the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare data.
• Statement iii is incorrect: The National Mission on Edible Oils - Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) was launched in 2021, not 2023. It aims to increase domestic production of edible oils and reduce dependency on imports.
• Since only Statement iii is incorrect, the correct option is Option 1.
• e-NAM and NMEO-OP: Both are crucial schemes aimed at improving agricultural infrastructure and making India self-reliant in agriculture.

Additional Information

• National Agriculture Market (e-NAM):
• Launched in April 2016 to integrate APMC markets across India, enabling transparent and efficient trade of agricultural commodities.
• As of now, over 1,000 mandis are linked to the e-NAM platform, promoting better price discovery and reducing intermediaries.
• It empowers farmers with access to nationwide markets, eliminating the limitations of local markets.
• Agriculture Credit Flow:
• Agriculture credit is essential for enhancing productivity and farmer welfare.
• The credit flow target has consistently increased over the years, with ₹15,75,398 crore achieved in 2020-21.
• This credit is vital for financing inputs, machinery, and other agricultural needs.
• National Mission on Edible Oils - Oil Palm (NMEO-OP):
• Launched in 2021, it aims to boost domestic palm oil production, reducing India's reliance on imports.
• The scheme provides financial assistance to farmers for planting materials, inputs, and processing infrastructure.
• It is part of India's broader initiative to achieve self-sufficiency in edible oil production.

The correct answer is It leads to a greater integration of markets.

Key Points

• Foreign trade promotes market integration by linking domestic and international producers, consumers, and suppliers, creating a global marketplace.
• It facilitates the free flow of goods, services, and capital across borders, enabling access to a variety of products and services worldwide.
• Through foreign trade, countries specialize in the production of goods and services where they have a comparative advantage, enhancing efficiency and economic output.
• Foreign trade enhances economic interdependence between nations, encouraging collaboration and reducing the likelihood of conflicts.
• It fosters the transfer of technology, skills, and knowledge, improving productivity and innovation in domestic economies.

Additional Information

• Foreign Trade
• Foreign trade encompasses the exchange of goods, services, and capital between countries, playing a critical role in economic globalization.
• It allows countries to benefit from each other's strengths, leading to improved resource allocation, economic growth, and consumer choices.
• Key components of foreign trade include exports, imports, and trade policies like tariffs, quotas, and trade agreements.

The correct answer is Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty.

Key Points

• Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty is the Secretary of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) in India as of October 2024.
• He also serves as the Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission, which is responsible for formulating policies for the development of nuclear energy in India.
• Dr. Mohanty is an accomplished physicist with expertise in nuclear physics, particularly in high-energy nuclear reactions and quantum mechanics.
• He previously served as the Director of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), India’s premier nuclear research facility.
• Under his leadership, the DAE focuses on advancing India's nuclear energy program and promoting research in various nuclear and allied sciences.

Additional Information

• Dr. Roshan Basu
• There is no credible information linking Dr. Roshan Basu to the position of Secretary of the Department of Atomic Energy or any related role in India’s nuclear sector.
• This option is likely fictitious or unrelated to the current context of the question.
• Ramesh Chauhan
• Ramesh Chauhan is a well-known Indian industrialist and chairman of Bisleri International, a leading packaged water company.
• He is not associated with the Department of Atomic Energy or India’s nuclear program.
• Rakesh Sinha
• Rakesh Sinha is a public intellectual and a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha, representing the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• He has no professional connection to the field of atomic energy or the Department of Atomic Energy.
• Department of Atomic Energy (DAE)
• The DAE is responsible for India’s nuclear energy production, research, and development.
• It was established in 1954 under the guidance of Dr. Homi J. Bhabha, the father of India’s nuclear program.
• The DAE oversees premier organizations like Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL), and Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR).
• The department operates under the direct charge of the Prime Minister of India.

The correct answer is February 2024.

Key Points

• The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana was launched on 1 February 2024 by the Government of India.
• This scheme focuses on providing free electricity to households through solar power generation.
• It aims to promote renewable energy, reduce dependency on conventional energy sources, and cut down household electricity expenses.
• Under this initiative, households are encouraged to install solar panels for their own electricity consumption.
• The scheme aligns with India’s broader renewable energy goals and contributes to the nation’s environmental sustainability efforts.

Additional Information

• PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana
• The scheme is part of India’s commitment to sustainability and renewable energy transition.
• It encourages the adoption of rooftop solar panel installations among households, supporting the National Solar Mission.
• It is expected to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and promote self-sufficient energy production in rural and urban areas.
• The initiative addresses the dual goals of energy affordability and environmental sustainability.

The correct answer is Megasthenes.

Key Points

• Megasthenes was an ancient Greek historian, diplomat, and ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya.
• He authored the famous work ‘Indica’, which provides detailed observations on Indian society, administration, geography, and culture during the Mauryan period.
• The text ‘Indica’ is considered one of the earliest accounts of India by a foreign traveler and is often quoted by later historians like Strabo and Arrian.
• Megasthenes described the Mauryan administrative system, the capital city of Pataliputra, and the social structure of ancient India.
• His works highlight key aspects of Indian society, such as the absence of slavery, economic prosperity, agricultural practices, and military organization under Chandragupta Maurya.

Additional Information

• Herodotus:
• Known as the ‘Father of History,’ Herodotus was an ancient Greek historian who lived during the fifth century BCE.
• He authored the work ‘Histories,’ which primarily focused on the Greco-Persian Wars and provided accounts of various cultures and civilizations.
• Herodotus did not visit India nor chronicle any observations related to Chandragupta Maurya or the Mauryan Empire.
• Ptolemy:
• Ptolemy was a Greek mathematician, astronomer, and geographer who lived in the second century CE.
• He is best known for his works on geography, especially ‘Geographia,’ which provided maps and descriptions of the known world at the time.
• While Ptolemy mentioned India in his geographical accounts, he did not serve as an ambassador or provide detailed observations of Indian society during the Mauryan era.
• Pliny the Elder:
• Pliny the Elder was a Roman author, naturalist, and philosopher who lived during the first century CE.
• He wrote ‘Naturalis Historia,’ a comprehensive encyclopedia covering various topics, including geography, natural sciences, and history.
• Although he mentioned India in his writings, he did not visit Chandragupta Maurya’s court or provide firsthand observations.

The correct answer is Quit India Movement.

Key Points

• The Quit India Movement was launched on 8th August 1942 during the All-India Congress Committee session in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• It was initiated under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, who gave the famous slogan "Do or Die" to inspire Indians to fight against British rule.
• The movement aimed to demand an immediate end to British colonial rule in India and pave the way for the country's independence.
• The British responded with heavy repression, arresting major leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Sardar Patel, and resorting to mass detentions and violence against protesters.
• The Quit India Movement is also known as August Kranti and is considered one of the most significant milestones in India's fight for independence.

Additional Information

• Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-1934)
• Launched by Mahatma Gandhi, the Civil Disobedience Movement was a campaign of nonviolent resistance against British laws, taxes, and policies.
• The movement began with the Dandi March (Salt March) on 12th March 1930, where Gandhi led a 240-mile march to produce salt from seawater, defying the British salt tax.
• The movement aimed to achieve self-rule and included actions like the boycott of British goods, refusal to pay taxes, and non-cooperation with colonial authorities.
• It played a significant role in mobilizing Indians across the country but was temporarily suspended after the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in 1931 and resumed in 1932.
• Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922)
• The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 as a response to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the Khilafat Movement.
• It urged Indians to boycott British goods, institutions, and titles and to adopt swadeshi (use of Indian-made goods) as a form of protest.
• The movement gained widespread participation from all sections of society but was abruptly called off by Gandhi in 1922 after the Chauri Chaura incident, where a violent mob set a police station on fire.
• Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908)
• Started as a response to the Partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon in 1905, the Swadeshi Movement aimed to promote Indian goods and boycott British imports.
• This movement marked the beginning of the Indian struggle for economic self-reliance and industrial growth.
• It encouraged the use of khadi (handspun cloth) and promoted Indian industries like handloom and textiles while rejecting foreign goods.
• Key leaders included Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai, known as the Lal-Bal-Pal trio.

The correct answer is It plays a key role in the provision of activities that aid economic development..

Key Points

• The service industry is a major driver of modern economies, contributing significantly to GDP through sectors like healthcare, education, IT, and finance.
• It facilitates the efficient functioning of other industries, such as agriculture and manufacturing, by providing essential support services like logistics, communication, and financial solutions.
• Employment generation is a key contribution of the service sector, offering diverse job opportunities across skill levels, from low-skilled jobs in hospitality to high-skilled jobs in IT and finance.
• Globalization and advancements in technology have expanded the scope of the service industry, enabling cross-border trade and digital transformation, which further fuels economic growth.
• Services such as banking, tourism, and retail not only support economic stability but also foster innovation and competitiveness in the global market.

Additional Information

• Importance of the Service Industry
• The service sector, or tertiary sector, encompasses industries that offer intangible goods and services, including education, healthcare, finance, and retail.
• It is a pivotal component of economic advancement, contributing significantly to GDP and employment creation globally.
• By supporting other sectors and fostering innovation, the service industry plays a crucial role in driving sustainable development.

The correct answer is Nepal.

Key Points

• Nepal is a secular state as per Article 4 of its Constitution, which was adopted in 2015.
• The Constitution ensures that Nepal respects all religions and guarantees equal treatment and protection under the law for every faith.
• Secularism in Nepal means that the state does not endorse or favor any religion, providing the citizens with the freedom to practice their religion without interference.
• Nepal transitioned to secularism after the abolition of the monarchy in 2008, ending its status as the world's only Hindu kingdom.
• The secular nature of Nepal reflects its diverse religious landscape, where Hinduism, Buddhism, Islam, Christianity, and indigenous faiths coexist peacefully.

Additional Information

• Pakistan:
• Pakistan is an Islamic republic, and Islam is declared as the state religion as per its Constitution.
• The country's laws and governance are significantly influenced by Islamic principles.
• Religious minorities exist in Pakistan, but the state gives preference to Islam in legal and cultural matters.
• Afghanistan:
• Afghanistan is also an Islamic state, and Islam is the official religion as per its Constitution.
• The governance system in Afghanistan is heavily influenced by Islamic Sharia law.
• Religious freedom is limited, and the state enforces strict adherence to Islamic principles.
• Maldives:
• The Maldives is an Islamic state where Islam is the state religion, and adherence to Islam is a requirement for citizenship.
• Non-Muslims are not allowed to practice their religion publicly in the Maldives.
• The Constitution mandates that laws must be compatible with the principles of Islam.
• Secularism:
• Secularism is the principle of separating religion from the state, ensuring that governments remain neutral in religious matters.
• It guarantees freedom of religion, allowing individuals to practice any faith or none at all without state interference.
• Secular states treat all religions equally and do not endorse or discriminate against any religion.

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

• The authority to change the name of a state in India is vested in the Parliament of India.
• This power is derived from Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, which allows the Parliament to change the name, area, or boundaries of a state.
• A constitutional amendment is not required for this process, making it relatively straightforward compared to other constitutional procedures.
• Before passing the bill for renaming a state, the President of India refers the proposal to the respective state legislature for its opinion; however, this opinion is not binding.
• The final decision is made when the bill is passed by a simple majority in both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Additional Information

• Examples of State Name Changes:
• Madras was renamed Tamil Nadu in 1969.
• Bombay was renamed Maharashtra in 1960.
• Orissa was renamed Odisha in 2011 through the Odisha (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2010.

The correct answer is Archery.

Key Points

• Archery is a sport where participants use a bow to shoot arrows at a target to earn points based on accuracy.
• The essential equipment for archery includes a bow, arrows, a bracer (arm guard), a finger tab, a quiver, a bow stand, a bow stringer, and a target.
• A finger tab protects the archer’s fingers from the bowstring, while a bracer shields the forearm from injuries caused by the string’s impact.
• Archery has been practiced since ancient times for hunting and combat and has evolved into a popular sport and recreational activity.
• Modern archery, particularly recurve archery, is part of the Olympic Games, with a standard target distance of 70 meters for competitors.

Additional Information

• Fencing
• Fencing is a sport where participants compete using swords such as the foil, épée, or sabre.
• The objective is to score points by striking the opponent on the valid target area with the tip or edge of the weapon.
• Fencing equipment includes a sword, protective clothing (jacket, mask, gloves), and scoring sensors.
• The sport requires speed, strategy, and precision and has been part of the Olympic Games since their modern inception in 1896.
• Shooting
• Shooting is a precision sport involving firearms or air guns to hit stationary or moving targets.
• It includes various disciplines, such as rifle shooting, pistol shooting, and shotgun shooting, with events held over different distances and formats.
• Essential equipment includes firearms, ammunition, ear protection, and specialized clothing for stability and comfort.
• Shooting is also an Olympic event and requires a high level of focus and hand-eye coordination.
• Bobsleigh
• Bobsleigh is a winter sport where teams slide down an ice track in a gravity-powered sled at high speeds.
• The sport requires a combination of physical strength, teamwork, and precision to achieve optimal speed and control of the sled.
• Bobsleigh equipment includes a streamlined sled, helmets, and aerodynamic suits.
• The sport is contested in the Winter Olympics and is popular in countries with cold climates.

The correct answer is Atlantic Ocean.

Key Points

• The Gulf Stream is a powerful and warm ocean current originating in the Atlantic Ocean.
• It begins in the Gulf of Mexico, flows along the eastern coastline of the United States and Canada, and then moves northeast across the Atlantic Ocean.
• The Gulf Stream is part of the larger North Atlantic Gyre, a system of rotating ocean currents in the Atlantic Ocean.
• This current plays a key role in regulating the climate of the eastern United States and Western Europe, making their temperatures warmer compared to other regions of similar latitude.
• The Gulf Stream is driven by wind patterns and thermohaline circulation, which is based on differences in water temperature and salinity.

Additional Information

• Pacific Ocean
• The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean on Earth, covering more than 30% of the Earth's surface.
• It is home to several major currents like the Kuroshio Current and the California Current, which influence the climate of the Pacific Rim countries.
• The Pacific Ocean does not host the Gulf Stream; instead, its currents serve different climatic and ecological roles.
• Southern Ocean
• The Southern Ocean encircles Antarctica and is the fourth-largest ocean on Earth.
• It is characterized by the Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC), which flows eastward around Antarctica and helps regulate the global climate system.
• Unlike the Atlantic Ocean, the Southern Ocean does not host warm currents like the Gulf Stream.
• Indian Ocean
• The Indian Ocean is the third-largest ocean and is located primarily in the tropical zone.
• It is influenced by monsoonal winds and features major currents such as the Agulhas Current and the Somali Current.
• While the Indian Ocean plays a critical role in weather patterns and marine biodiversity, it is not associated with the Gulf Stream.

Given:

66 - 2 × [ 10 + 2 × { 18 - 2 ( 7 - 4 ) × 3} ÷ 50] 

Formula Used:

PEMDAS (Parentheses, E×ponents, Multiplication and Division, Addition and Subtraction)

Calculation:

⇒ 66 - 2 × [10 + 2 × {18 - 2 (7 - 4) × 3} ÷ 50]

⇒ 66 - 2 × [10 + 2 × {18 - 2 × 3 × 3} ÷ 50]

⇒ 66 - 2 × [10 + 2 × {18 - 18} ÷ 50]

⇒ 66 - 2 × [10 + 2 × 0 ÷ 50]

⇒ 66 - 2 × [10 + 0]

⇒ 66 - 2 × 10

⇒ 66 - 20

⇒ 46

∴ The correct answer is 46.

Shortcut Trick

Time difference for Sachin (23 − 13 = 10 yrs) and Chetan (23 − 14 = 9 yrs) is 1 year.

When compound amounts are equal, the principal ratio is inversely proportional to the accumulating factor (1 + R/100)^T.

Ratio of Chetan's share to Sachin's share = (1 + 10/100)¹ : 1 = 11 : 10.

Chetan's share = 11 / (11 + 10) × 25200 = (11 / 21) × 25200 = 13200.

∴ The correct answer is ₹13200.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total money = ₹25200

Sachin's age = 13 years, Chetan's age = 14 years

Time for Sachin (T₁) = 23 − 13 = 10 years

Time for Chetan (T₂) = 23 − 14 = 9 years

Rate of Interest (R) = 10% compounded annually

Formula Used:

Amount in Compound Interest = P × (1 + R/100)^T

Total Wealth = ₹25200Sachin (₹ S)Chetan (₹ C)Equal Amount(At age 23)10 yrs @ 10%9 yrs @ 10%

Calculations:

⇒ Let Sachin's share be S and Chetan's share be C.

⇒ Amount received by Sachin = S × (1 + 10/100)¹⁰ = S × (11/10)¹⁰

⇒ Amount received by Chetan = C × (1 + 10/100)⁹ = C × (11/10)⁹

⇒ According to the question, both receive the same amount:

⇒ S × (11/10)¹⁰ = C × (11/10)⁹

⇒ S × (11/10) = C

⇒ C / S = 11 / 10

⇒ Ratio of the shares of Chetan and Sachin = 11 : 10

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 11 + 10 = 21

⇒ Value of 21 parts = ₹25200

⇒ Value of 1 part = 25200 ÷ 21 = ₹1200

⇒ Chetan's share = 11 parts = 11 × 1200 = ₹13200

∴ The correct answer is ₹13200.

Additional Information

Allocation of Principal for Equal Amounts

If two sums P₁ and P₂ are invested at compound interest rate R for time periods T₁ and T₂ respectively such that their final amounts are equal, their principal ratio is P₁ / P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{T₂ − T₁}.

Effective Compound Interest

In simple interest, the principal remains constant, whereas in compound interest, the principal grows exponentially each year. The uniform multiplying factor per compounding cycle is (1 + R/100).

Difference Between CI and SI

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years on principal P at rate R% is given by PR² / 100². For 3 years, it is PR²(300 + R) / 100³.

Shortcut Trick

Relative speed of trains in opposite directions = 140 + 80 = 220 km/h.

Convert speed to m/s: 220 × (5/18) = 1100/18 m/s.

Total distance covered = Speed × Time = (1100/18) × 11 = 12100/18 ≈ 672.22 m.

Length of the second train = Total distance − Length of first train = 672.22 − 340 = 332.22 m.

∴ The correct answer is 332.22 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of first train (S₁) = 140 km/h

Speed of second train (S₂) = 80 km/h

Length of first train (L₁) = 340 m

Time taken to cross each other (T) = 11 seconds

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (opposite directions) = S₁ + S₂

Total Distance = Speed × Time = L₁ + L₂

Train 1 (340 m) Train 2 (L2) 140 km/h 80 km/h

Moving in opposite directions Crossing Time = 11 sec

Calculations:

⇒ Relative speed = 140 + 80 = 220 km/h

⇒ Conversion to m/s = 220 × (5/18) = 1100/18 m/s

⇒ Total Distance = Speed × Time

⇒ 340 + L₂ = (1100/18) × 11

⇒ 340 + L₂ = 12100/18

⇒ 340 + L₂ = 672.22

⇒ L₂ = 672.22 − 340

⇒ L₂ = 332.22 m

∴ The correct answer is 332.22 m.

Additional Information

Trains Moving in the Same Direction

When two trains are moving in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference of their individual speeds (S₁ − S₂). The total distance to cross each other remains the sum of their lengths.

Unit Conversion Rule

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply the value by (5/18). Conversely, to convert m/s to km/h, multiply by (18/5).

Crossing Stationary Objects

When a train crosses a stationary point object (like a pole or a standing man), the distance covered is equal to the length of the train. If crossing an object with length (like a platform or bridge), the distance is the length of the train plus the length of the platform.

Shortcut Trick

For 'Buy X Get Y Free' schemes, the discount percentage is calculated on the total items given.

Discount % = [Free items ÷ (Buy items + Free items)] × 100

Discount % = [6 ÷ (10 + 6)] × 100

Discount % = (6 ÷ 16) × 100 = 37.5%

∴ The correct answer is 37.5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Items bought (paid for) = 10

Free items received = 6

Formula Used:

Discount % = (Total Discount ÷ Total Marked Price) × 100

10 Paid Items

6 Free Items

Customer Pays For (SP)

Discount

Total 16 Items (Total MP)

Discount % = (6 ÷ 16) × 100 = 37.5%

Calculations:

Let the Marked Price (MP) of 1 item be 1 unit.

⇒ Total items taken by customer = 10 (bought) + 6 (free) = 16 items

⇒ Total MP of 16 items = 16 units

⇒ Selling Price (SP) paid by customer = MP of 10 items = 10 units

⇒ Discount given = Total MP − SP = 16 − 10 = 6 units

⇒ Discount % = (6 ÷ 16) × 100

⇒ Discount % = (3 ÷ 8) × 100 = 37.5%

∴ The correct answer is 37.5%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two consecutive discounts of a% and b% are given on an item, the effective discount percentage is given by (a + b − ab ÷ 100)%.

Markup and Discount Relation

Selling Price (SP) can be calculated using both the Cost Price and the Marked Price: SP = CP × (1 + Profit%) = MP × (1 − Discount%).

Dishonest Dealer (False Weight)

If a dealer claims to sell goods at Cost Price but uses a false weight, the true Profit % = [(True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Required percentage reduction = (Change in Price − Change in Expenditure) ÷ (100 + Change in Price) × 100

⇒ % Reduction = (40 − 12) ÷ (100 + 40) × 100

⇒ % Reduction = 28 ÷ 140 × 100

⇒ % Reduction = 1 ÷ 5 × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage increase in petrol price = 40%

Percentage increase in expenditure = 12%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Price × Consumption

Base 100

Price +40%

Expenditure +12%

New Price: 140

Target Exp: 112

− 28

Calculations:

Let the initial price of petrol be ₹100 per litre and initial consumption be 100 litres.

⇒ Initial Expenditure = 100 × 100 = ₹10000

⇒ New Price = 100 + 40% of 100 = ₹140 per litre

⇒ Target Expenditure = 10000 + 12% of 10000 = ₹11200

⇒ New Consumption = Target Expenditure ÷ New Price

⇒ New Consumption = 11200 ÷ 140 = 80 litres

⇒ Reduction in consumption = Initial Consumption − New Consumption

⇒ Reduction = 100 − 80 = 20 litres

⇒ Percentage reduction = (Reduction ÷ Initial Consumption) × 100

⇒ Percentage reduction = (20 ÷ 100) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Expenditure, Price and Consumption Rule

Expenditure = Price × Consumption. If expenditure is kept constant, consumption becomes inversely proportional to the price.

Constant Expenditure Shortcut

If the price of a commodity increases by P%, the reduction in consumption required to keep the expenditure completely unchanged is (P ÷ (100 + P)) × 100%.

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is subjected to two successive percentage changes a% and b%, the net percentage change is given by the formula: a + b + (a × b ÷ 100).

Shortcut Trick

Selling Price (SP) of 1 shirt = 48600 ÷ 120 = ₹405

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to SP = 375 : 405 = 25 : 27

Gain = 2 parts on a base of 25 parts

Gain % = (2 ÷ 25) × 100 = 8%

∴ The correct answer is Gain 8%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of shirts = 120

Cost Price (CP) of 1 shirt = ₹375

Total Selling Price (SP) = ₹48,600

Formula Used:

Profit = Total SP − Total CP

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100

Total CP = ₹45,000

Total SP = ₹48,600

Profit = ₹3,600

• 8%

Calculations:

⇒ Total Cost Price (CP) = 120 × 375 = ₹45,000

⇒ Profit = Total SP − Total CP

⇒ Profit = 48,600 − 45,000 = ₹3,600

⇒ Profit % = (3600 ÷ 45000) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (36 ÷ 450) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 8%

∴ The correct answer is Gain 8%.

Additional Information

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP) of an item. Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the equivalent single discount is given by the formula (a + b − ab ÷ 100)%.

Dishonest Dealer

If a dealer professes to sell his goods at the Cost Price but uses a false weight, his Profit % = (Error ÷ (True Value − Error)) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Subtract the remainders from the given numbers directly to get exactly divisible numbers:

First number = 711 − 48 = 663

Second number = 1040 − 20 = 1020

The required greatest number is the HCF of 663 and 1020.

The HCF must be a factor of their difference (1020 − 663 = 357). From the options, only 51 is a factor of 357 and divides both 663 and 1020 perfectly.

∴ The correct answer is 51.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers are 711 and 1040.

The respective remainders are 48 and 20.

Formula Used:

Required Number = HCF of (First Number − Remainder 1) and (Second Number − Remainder 2)

Calculations:

⇒ First exact divisible number = 711 − 48 = 663

⇒ Second exact divisible number = 1040 − 20 = 1020

⇒ Prime factorization of 663 = 3 × 13 × 17

⇒ Prime factorization of 1020 = 2² × 3 × 5 × 17

⇒ The common prime factors of 663 and 1020 are 3 and 17

⇒ HCF(663, 1020) = 3 × 17 = 51

∴ The correct answer is 51.

Additional Information

Greatest Dividing Number (Different Remainders)

To find the greatest number that divides x, y, and z leaving remainders a, b, and c respectively, calculate the HCF of (x − a), (y − b), and (z − c).

Greatest Dividing Number (Same Remainder)

To find the greatest number that divides x, y, and z leaving the same remainder in each case, calculate the HCF of |x − y|, |y − z|, and |z − x|.

Product Rule for HCF & LCM

For any two given numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Shortcut Trick

10 Men = 15 Women ⇒ Efficiency ratio (Man : Woman) = 15 : 10 = 3 : 2.

Let efficiency of 1 man be 3 units/day and 1 woman be 2 units/day.

Total Work = 10 × 3 × 8 = 240 units.

Required efficiency for completing work in 12 days = 240 ÷ 12 = 20 units/day.

Combined efficiency of x men and y women = 3x + 2y.

∴ The correct answer is 3x+2y=20.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ 10 men can complete the task in 8 days.

⇒ 15 women can complete the task in 8 days.

⇒ Time taken by 1 man alone = 10 × 8 = 80 days.

⇒ Time taken by 1 woman alone = 15 × 8 = 120 days.

Calculations:

⇒ Total assumed work = 240 units.

⇒ The task needs to be completed in 12 days by x men and y women.

⇒ Total efficiency required per day = Total Work ÷ Days

⇒ Required combined efficiency = 240 ÷ 12 = 20 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of x men = 3 × x = 3x.

⇒ Efficiency of y women = 2 × y = 2y.

⇒ Total combined efficiency = 3x + 2y.

⇒ Equating required efficiency with actual efficiency: 3x + 2y = 20.

∴ The correct answer is 3x+2y=20.

Additional Information

Time and Work Concept

Total work is always proportional to the combined efficiency and the time taken. Formula: Total Work = Total Efficiency × Time.

MDH Rule (Chain Rule)

It relates the number of men, days, hours, and work directly. Formula: M₁ × D₁ × H₁ ÷ W₁ = M₂ × D₂ × H₂ ÷ W₂.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed strictly in proportion to the total actual work completed or the direct ratio of their individual efficiencies.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of number of students in the three sections = 30 : 45 : 50 = 6 : 9 : 10 (Total 25 parts).

Let the assumed average score be 80.

Net deviation = (0 × 6) + (−5 × 9) + (+10 × 10) = 0 − 45 + 100 = +55.

Average deviation = +55 ÷ 25 = +2.2.

Actual average score = 80 + 2.2 = 82.2.

∴ The correct answer is 82.2 marks.

Alternate Method

Section 1 Students = 30 Avg = 80

Section 2 Students = 45 Avg = 75

Section 3 Students = 50 Avg = 90

Total Students = 125, Avg = ?

Given:

⇒ Students in sections: n₁ = 30, n₂ = 45, n₃ = 50

⇒ Average scores: A₁ = 80, A₂ = 75, A₃ = 90

Formula Used:

⇒ Combined Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂ + n₃A₃) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + n₃)

Calculations:

⇒ Total score of section 1 = 30 × 80 = 2400

⇒ Total score of section 2 = 45 × 75 = 3375

⇒ Total score of section 3 = 50 × 90 = 4500

⇒ Sum of all scores = 2400 + 3375 + 4500 = 10275

⇒ Total number of students = 30 + 45 + 50 = 125

⇒ Average score of all students = 10275 ÷ 125 = 82.2

∴ The correct answer is 82.2 marks.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When different groups have different sizes, the combined average is given by the weighted average formula: (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂ + ... + n_kA_k) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + ... + n_k).

Deviation Method for Averages

Select an assumed average (A) and calculate the net deviation of all values from A. The actual average is A + (Net Deviation ÷ Total Items). This approach simplifies calculations significantly, especially for large numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Using the Alligation method on speed to find the ratio of time taken:

Average speed of the total journey = 60 ÷ 6 = 10 km/hr.

Ratio of time (Walking : Cycling) = (12 − 10) : (10 − 6) = 2 : 4 = 1 : 2.

Time spent on walking = [1 ÷ (1 + 2)] × 6 = 2 hours.

Distance covered on foot = Walking Speed × Walking Time = 6 × 2 = 12 km.

∴ The correct answer is 12 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total distance = 60 km

Total time taken = 6 hours

Walking speed = 6 km/hr

Cycling speed = 12 km/hr

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Start End

On Foot 6 km/hr x km

By Bicycle 12 km/hr (60 − x) km

Total Distance = 60 km | Total Time = 6 hr

Calculations:

⇒ Let the distance covered on foot be x km.

⇒ Then, the distance covered by bicycle = (60 − x) km.

⇒ Total time = Time on foot + Time on bicycle

⇒ (x ÷ 6) + [(60 − x) ÷ 12] = 6

⇒ Multiplying the entire equation by 12 gives:

⇒ 2x + (60 − x) = 72

⇒ x + 60 = 72

⇒ x = 72 − 60

⇒ x = 12 km

∴ The correct answer is 12 km.

Additional Information

Average Speed

Average speed is the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. If two equal distances are covered at speeds 'x' and 'y', the average speed is (2xy) ÷ (x + y).

Alligation on Speed

When the rule of alligation is applied to speeds (Distance ÷ Time), the resulting ratio strictly represents the ratio of the time spent traveling at those speeds, not the distance.

Relative Speed

When two bodies are moving in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference of their speeds. When moving in opposite directions, it is the sum of their individual speeds.

Shortcut Trick

Since x and y are directly proportional, their ratio y/x remains constant.

Constant ratio = 5 / 3

New value of y = New x × (5 / 3)

New y = 7.8 × (5 / 3) = 2.6 × 5 = 13

∴ The correct answer is 13.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial condition: x₁ = 3, y₁ = 5

New condition: x₂ = 7.8

Condition 1 x = 3 y = 5

× 2.6

× 2.6

Condition 2 x = 7.8 y = ?

Formula Used:

When two quantities x and y are directly proportional, their ratio is constant: x₁ / y₁ = x₂ / y₂

Calculations:

⇒ 3 / 5 = 7.8 / y₂

⇒ y₂ = (5 × 7.8) / 3

⇒ y₂ = 39 / 3

⇒ y₂ = 13

∴ The correct answer is 13.

Additional Information

Direct Proportion

When two variables change in the same ratio, they are in direct proportion. The formula used is x₁ / y₁ = x₂ / y₂.

Inverse Proportion

When an increase in one variable leads to a proportional decrease in the other, they are inversely proportional. The formula used is x₁ × y₁ = x₂ × y₂.

Means and Extremes Rule

For any proportion given as a : b :: c : d, the product of the means equals the product of the extremes: b × c = a × d.

Shortcut Trick

In overlapping average questions, the value of the overlapping entity is given directly by:

Value = (Sum of group 1) + (Sum of group 2) − (Total Sum)

Atul's weight = (39 × 2) + (46 × 2) − (46 × 3)

Atul's weight = 78 + 92 − 138 = 170 − 138 = 32 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 32 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average weight of Akshay, Atul, and Baban = 46 kg

Average weight of Akshay and Atul = 39 kg

Average weight of Atul and Baban = 46 kg

Formula Used:

Sum of observations = Average × Number of observations

Akshay + Atul + Baban = 138 kg

Akshay + Atul = 78 kg

Atul + Baban = 92 kg

Overlap = Atul

Calculations:

⇒ Total weight of Akshay, Atul, and Baban = 46 × 3 = 138 kg

⇒ Total weight of Akshay and Atul = 39 × 2 = 78 kg

⇒ Total weight of Atul and Baban = 46 × 2 = 92 kg

⇒ Sum of weights of both groups = 78 + 92 = 170 kg

⇒ In the sum of both groups, Atul is counted twice (Akshay + Atul + Atul + Baban = 170 kg)

⇒ Weight of Atul = (Sum of both groups) − (Total weight of all three)

⇒ Weight of Atul = 170 − 138 = 32 kg

∴ The correct answer is 32 kg.

Additional Information

Overlapping Averages

When a specific entity is included in two separate overlapping groups, its individual value is found by: Overlapping Value = (Sum of Group 1) + (Sum of Group 2) − (Total Sum of All).

Average Formula

Average is the arithmetic mean, given by Average = (Sum of observations) ÷ (Total number of observations). Thus, total value is determined by cross-multiplying average and the number of subjects.

Combined Average

If two distinct groups of size n₁ and n₂ have averages A₁ and A₂ respectively, their combined average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

The area of the cardboard required is equal to the Total Surface Area (TSA) of the box.

TSA = 2 × (lb + bh + hl)

⇒ Area = 2 × (12 × 14 + 14 × 8 + 8 × 12)

⇒ Area = 2 × (168 + 112 + 96)

⇒ Area = 2 × 376 = 752 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 752 cm².

Alternate Method

14 cm 12 cm 8 cm Dimensions of the Box

Given:

Length (l) = 12 cm

Breadth (b) = 14 cm

Height (h) = 8 cm

Formula Used:

Total Surface Area of a cuboid = 2 × (lb + bh + hl)

Calculations:

⇒ Area of cardboard = 2 × (12 × 14 + 14 × 8 + 8 × 12)

⇒ Area of cardboard = 2 × (168 + 112 + 96)

⇒ Area of cardboard = 2 × 376

⇒ Area of cardboard = 752 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 752 cm².

Additional Information

Volume of a Cuboid

The total space occupied by the cuboid is calculated as Volume = l × b × h.

Lateral Surface Area (LSA)

The area of the four walls of a cuboid, excluding top and bottom, is given by LSA = 2h(l + b).

Length of Diagonal

The longest rod that can be placed inside a cuboid is its diagonal = √(l² + b² + h²).

Surface Area of a Cube

For a cube with all sides equal to 'a', the Total Surface Area = 6a² and Lateral Surface Area = 4a².

Given:

32 ÷ 8 × 3 - 2 × 3

Formula Used:

Apply BODMAS: Brackets, Orders (exponents), Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction.

Calculation:

⇒ 32 ÷ 8 × 3 - 2 × 3

⇒ 4 × 3 - 6

⇒ 12 - 6

⇒ 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Shortcut Trick

By applying successive fraction multipliers to the initial price:

Final Price = Initial Price × (100 + Profit%)/100 × (100 − Loss%)/100

3780 = Mandar's CP × (105/100) × (75/100)

3780 = Mandar's CP × (21/20) × (3/4) = Mandar's CP × (63/80)

Mandar's CP = 3780 × (80/63) = 60 × 80 = 4800

∴ The correct answer is ₹4800.

Alternate Method

Given:

Tushar's cost price = ₹3780

Profit percentage for Mandar = 5%

Loss percentage for Ketan = 25%

Method: Successive Percentage Change

Mandar CP = x

Ketan CP = 1.05x

Tushar ₹3780

+5% Profit -25% Loss

Calculations:

⇒ 5% profit fractional equivalent = + 1/20

⇒ Multiplier for Mandar's Selling Price = (1 + 1/20) = 21/20

⇒ 25% loss fractional equivalent = − 1/4

⇒ Multiplier for Ketan's Selling Price = (1 − 1/4) = 3/4

⇒ Let Mandar's original Cost Price be x.

⇒ Ketan's Cost Price = x × (21/20)

⇒ Tushar's Cost Price = x × (21/20) × (3/4)

⇒ x × (63/80) = 3780

⇒ x = 3780 × (80/63)

⇒ x = 60 × 80 = 4800

∴ The correct answer is ₹4800.

Additional Information

Successive Profit and Loss

When an item is sold through a chain of multiple buyers, the final Selling Price = Initial Cost Price × (1 ± P₁/100) × (1 ± P₂/100). We use plus for a profit and minus for a loss.

Equivalent Percentage Change

The overall net percentage change for two successive changes of a% and b% is given by the formula: Net % Change = a + b + (a × b)/100.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in Principal = ₹10200 − ₹5400 = ₹4800

Simple interest generated by extra principal in 4 years = ₹960

Simple interest for 1 year = 960 ÷ 4 = ₹240

Rate of Interest (R) = (Interest for 1 year ÷ Extra Principal) × 100

R = (240 ÷ 4800) × 100 = 5%

∴ The correct answer is 5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal invested by Amit (P₁) = ₹5400

Principal invested by Gopal (P₂) = ₹10200

Time (T) = 4 years

Difference in Simple Interest = ₹960

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Difference in SI = [(P₂ − P₁) × R × T] ÷ 100

Amit: ₹5400

₹5400

Diff: ₹4800 Gopal: Total ₹10200

SI Diff = ₹960 Time = 4 yrs

Calculations:

⇒ Difference in SI = [(10200 − 5400) × R × 4] ÷ 100

⇒ 960 = [4800 × R × 4] ÷ 100

⇒ 960 = 48 × R × 4

⇒ 960 = 192 × R

⇒ R = 960 ÷ 192

⇒ R = 5%

∴ The correct answer is 5%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Formula

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100, where P is Principal, R is Rate of Interest, and T is Time.

Difference in Interest for Same Time & Rate

When T and R are constant, the difference in Simple Interest is directly proportional to the difference in Principal: ΔSI = (ΔP × R × T) ÷ 100.

Compound Interest vs Simple Interest

For the first year, SI and CI are equal if compounded annually. For subsequent years, CI is calculated on the accumulated interest as well, making CI greater than SI.

Shortcut Trick

Rate = 8% = 8/100 = 2/25 ⇒ Multiplying Factor = (1 + 2/25) = 27/25

Time difference = 17 − 16 = 1 year.

To get the same amount, the person with less time needs a larger initial sum.

Ratio of their initial investments (Raj : Varun) = (27)¹ : (25)¹ = 27 : 25

Raj's share = [27 ÷ (27 + 25)] × 1612 = (27 ÷ 52) × 1612 = 27 × 31 = ₹837.

∴ The correct answer is ₹837.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Principal = ₹1612

Rate of Interest (R) = 8% compounded annually

Time for Raj (T₁) = 16 years

Time for Varun (T₂) = 17 years

Formula Used:

Amount in Compound Interest: A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

Total Principal = ₹1612

Raj: ₹x

16 years @ 8% CI

Amount (A)

Varun: ₹V

17 years @ 8% CI

Amount (A)

=

Calculations:

⇒ Let the principal given to Raj be ₹x.

⇒ Then, the principal given to Varun = ₹(1612 − x).

⇒ According to the given condition, amounts after their respective periods are equal.

⇒ x(1 + 8/100)¹⁶ = (1612 − x)(1 + 8/100)¹⁷

⇒ x = (1612 − x)(1 + 8/100)^{17 − 16}

⇒ x = (1612 − x)(1 + 2/25)

⇒ x = (1612 − x)(27/25)

⇒ 25x = 27(1612 − x)

⇒ 25x = 43524 − 27x

⇒ 52x = 43524

⇒ x = 43524 ÷ 52 = 837

∴ The correct answer is ₹837.

Additional Information

Division of Amount at CI

If a total sum P is divided into parts P₁ and P₂ for n₁ and n₂ years respectively yielding equal amounts, their ratio is P₁/P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{n2 − n1}.

Difference Between CI and SI

For 2 years, the difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a principal P at rate R% is given directly by Difference = P(R/100)².

Compound Interest Formula (Half-Yearly)

When interest is compounded half-yearly, the rate is halved and the time is doubled. Amount A = P(1 + R/200)²ⁿ.

Rule of 72

A popular trick to estimate the number of years required to double an investment at a given annual compound interest rate R%. Years ≈ 72 ÷ R.

Shortcut Trick Convert the target bounds into fractions with a difference of 1 between the numerator and denominator: 0.9 = 9/10 and 0.95 = 19/20. For proper fractions where the difference between numerator and denominator is the same, the fraction with larger numerical terms is strictly greater. Thus, we need a fraction whose values lie strictly between the bounds (9, 10) and (19, 20). Among the given options, 12/13 is the only fraction satisfying the condition 9 < 12 < 19. ∴ The correct answer is 12 : 13.

Alternate Method Given: Ratios to evaluate: 12 : 13, 7 : 8, 9 : 10, and 5 : 6 Condition: The correct ratio must be greater than 0.90 and smaller than 0.95. ⇒ 0.90 < Target Ratio < 0.95 Calculation: Convert each of the given ratios into its decimal equivalent through simple division: ⇒ 12 : 13 = 12 ÷ 13 ≈ 0.923 ⇒ 7 : 8 = 7 ÷ 8 = 0.875 ⇒ 9 : 10 = 9 ÷ 10 = 0.900 ⇒ 5 : 6 = 5 ÷ 6 ≈ 0.833

Target Range (0.9 to 0.95)

0.8

0.85

0.9

0.95

1.0

5:6

7:8

9:10

12:13

Check which decimal value satisfies the target boundary (0.90 < Value < 0.95): ⇒ 0.923 is greater than 0.900 and less than 0.950. Hence, the ratio 12 : 13 perfectly fits the required condition. ∴ The correct answer is 12 : 13.

Additional Information

Comparing Fractions with Equal Differences If the difference between the numerator and denominator remains constant for proper fractions, the fraction with larger numerical values is fundamentally greater. For example, maintaining a difference of 1 yields the sequence: 5/6 < 7/8 < 9/10 < 12/13.

Cross-Multiplication Method To directly compare two fractions like a/b and c/d without relying on division, evaluate the cross products a×d and b×c. If a×d > b×c, then a/b is strictly greater than c/d. For instance, comparing 12/13 and 9/10: 12×10 (120) > 13×9 (117) conclusively proves 12/13 > 9/10.

Percentage Conversion Shortcut Multiplying a ratio's decimal form by 100 transforms it directly into a percentage. The given target boundary of 0.9 to 0.95 naturally translates to 90% to 95%. Since the fraction 12:13 equates to roughly 92.3%, it clearly falls within this designated target bracket.

Given:

(-9) - (-60) ÷ (-12) + (-4) × 7

Formula Used:

Subtraction: a - b

Division: a ÷ b

Multiplication: a × b

Calculation:

(-9) - (-60) ÷ (-12) + (-4) × 7

⇒ (-9) - 5 - 28

⇒ -42

∴ The correct answer is -42.

Shortcut Trick

Base × Multiplying Factor = Percentage Value

⇒ 4% corresponds to 120.

⇒ 1% corresponds to 120 ÷ 4 = 30.

⇒ 100% corresponds to 30 × 100 = 3000.

∴ The correct answer is 3000.

Alternate Method

Given:

4% of x = 120

4% Remaining 96%

120

Total 100% Base (x)

Formula Used:

Value = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Base

Calculation:

⇒ (4 ÷ 100) × x = 120

⇒ x = 120 × (100 ÷ 4)

⇒ x = 30 × 100

⇒ x = 3000

∴ The correct answer is 3000.

Additional Information

Base Value in Percentage

In any percentage calculation, the original or total quantity represents the 100% base mark. When given a partial percentage value, solving for the entire base reveals the 100% amount.

Fraction Equivalents

Calculating 4% is mathematically equivalent to dividing the value by 25, since 4% = 4 ÷ 100 = 1/25. Thus, (1/25) × x = 120 directly leads to x = 120 × 25.

Direct Multiplier Method

If p% of a given number is N, the entire number can be quickly deduced using the straightforward transposition formula: Base = N × (100 ÷ p).

The correct answer is 'having'.

 

Key Points

• The verb "having" is the correct choice here because it complements the verb "anticipates" and maintains proper grammatical structure.
• The sentence indicates a future expectation ("by Saturday"), making "having" the most appropriate fit.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are not suitable because they do not align with the construction of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "She anticipates having the reports done by Saturday."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "making" is incorrect because it implies the action of creating the reports, not their completion.
• Option 3: "had" is incorrect because it is in the past tense and does not fit with the future expectation of the sentence.
• Option 4: "has" is incorrect because it does not match the grammatical construction of the sentence.

The correct answer is: Option 4, i.e., Crude.

Key Points

• The word "Dainty" means something that is delicately small, pretty, or elegant. (सुरुचिपूर्ण)
• Example: She served the tea in dainty little cups that looked very elegant on the table.
• "Crude" refers to something that is raw, unrefined, or lacking in sophistication or elegance. It is the opposite of "dainty." (अपरिष्कृत, असंस्कृत)
• Example: The artist’s early work was crude and lacked the finesse of his later masterpieces.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'dainty' is 'crude'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4, i.e., Crude.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Exquisite (अति सुंदर, उत्कृष्ट): Something that is extremely beautiful, elegant, or finely detailed.
• Example: The bride wore an exquisite wedding dress adorned with intricate embroidery.
• Cute (प्यारा): Attractive in a charming or endearing way.
• Example: The baby’s laugh was so cute that everyone in the room couldn’t stop smiling.
• Graceful (सुगठित, सुंदर): Having or showing elegance and beauty in movement or form.
• Example: The dancer moved with such a graceful flow that the audience was mesmerized.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "match" in this context refers to a short stick with a tip that ignites when rubbed on a rough surface. (माचिस की तिल्ली)
• Example: He struck a match to light the candle during the power outage.
• The word "match" has various meanings, but in the given sentence, it clearly refers to the object used to create fire. (माचिस की तिल्ली)
• Example: She used a match to ignite the stove for cooking dinner.
• Hence, the correct interpretation of "match" in this context aligns with Option 4.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A piece of stone (पत्थर का टुकड़ा): Refers to a fragment of stone material.
• Example: He found a small piece of stone on the hiking trail.
• Option 2: A piece of decorative or protective material placed on the tip of a stick (सजावटी या सुरक्षात्मक सामग्री का टुकड़ा): Refers to an ornamental or protective covering on a stick.
• Example: The walking stick had a decorative piece at the tip.
• Option 3: A contest in a game or sport (खेल या खेल में प्रतियोगिता): Refers to a competitive event between players or teams.
• Example: The cricket match was thrilling and kept the audience on edge.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'deligent'.

• The correct spelling would be 'diligent'.
• The word 'diligent' is an adjective which means 'showing care and conscientiousness in one’s work or duties'. (परिश्रमी)
• For Example -
• The diligent student worked hard to achieve excellent results.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'deligent'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Earning - to receive money as payment for work that you do (कमाई)
• Studied - to learn about a subject, especially in an educational course or by reading books (अध्ययन किया)
• Well-deserved - something that is earned or merited (अर्जित)

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence uses the word "one more," which implies the addition of a single item. The word "another" is the most appropriate replacement for "one more" in this context.
• The other options do not fit the context of the sentence:
• Option 1: both – This refers to two items, which is not suitable in this case.
• Option 2: many – This refers to a large number of items, which does not align with the singular "one more."
• Option 4: either – This is used to refer to one of two options, which is not relevant here.
• Thus, the most appropriate option is another, which correctly conveys the intended meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "I will have another of these delicious rasgullas."

The correct answer is: Option 2: Faulty.

Key Points

• The word "impeccable" refers to something that is flawless, perfect, or free from any fault or error. (निर्दोष, त्रुटिहीन)
• Example: Her performance in the play was impeccable, leaving the audience in awe.
• The word "faulty", which is the antonym of "impeccable," means something that has defects, flaws, or is imperfect. (दोषपूर्ण)
• Example: The faulty wiring in the house caused a short circuit.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'impeccable' is 'faulty'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2: Faulty.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Perfect (संपूर्ण): Something that is complete, flawless, and without any faults.
• Example: The artist completed the painting with perfect precision.
• Spotless (निर्दोष, स्वच्छ): Something that is completely clean or free from any stains, dirt, or flaws.
• Example: Her spotless reputation made her the ideal candidate for the role.
• Unblemished (अकलंकित, बेदाग): Something that is free from any kind of marks, flaws, or imperfections.
• Example: The athlete's unblemished record made him a favorite for the award.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "The flat up" is grammatically incorrect and does not fit well in the sentence.
• The correct phrase should be "The flat upstairs" or "The flat above," depending on the intended meaning.
• The other segments of the sentence ("is full of," "an awful lot," and "of junk") are grammatically correct.
• Thus, the error is located in Option 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The flat upstairs is full of an awful lot of junk."

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "took advantage" is a common collocation in English, meaning to make good use of an opportunity or a situation.
• In the given sentence, Hari made use of the sale to buy three new shirts, which aligns with the meaning of "took advantage."
• Other options like "set advantage," "saw advantage," or "struck advantage" do not form proper collocations in English.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Hari took advantage of the sale and bought three new shirts.

Additional Information

• Set advantage: Not a valid collocation; does not make sense contextually.
• Saw advantage: Incorrect, as it does not fit the context of utilizing an opportunity.
• Struck advantage: Not a proper collocation in English.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom "as water under the bridge" is used to describe something that has happened and cannot be changed, so it is best to let go of it.
• In the given context, the artist took criticism lightly and moved on without letting it affect them. This aligns perfectly with the meaning of the idiom.
• The other options do not fit the context:
• A chip on their shoulder: Refers to holding a grudge or being resentful, which does not fit here.
• A piece of cake: Refers to something that is very easy, which is irrelevant to the context.
• Break a leg: A phrase used to wish someone good luck, unrelated to this situation.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Despite the criticism, the artist took it in stride and considered it as water under the bridge.

Additional Information

• A chip on their shoulder: Refers to someone who is resentful about something.
• A piece of cake: Means something that is very easy to accomplish.
• Break a leg: Is an idiom used to wish someone good luck, especially in a performance.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Regular.

Key Points

• The word "Sporadic" means something occurring at irregular intervals or happening only occasionally; it is not constant or regular. (छिटपुट)
• Example: His attendance in class was sporadic, so he missed many important lessons.
• "Regular" refers to something happening at consistent intervals or occurring frequently. It is the opposite of sporadic. (नियमित)
• Example: She goes for a regular morning walk every day without fail.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Sporadic' is 'Regular'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Regular.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• National (राष्ट्रीय): Relating to a nation or country as a whole.
• Example: Independence Day is a national holiday in many countries.
• Aromatic (सुगंधित): Having a pleasant and distinctive smell.
• Example: The aromatic spices filled the kitchen with a delightful fragrance.
• Scant (अल्प): Barely sufficient or adequate in quantity.
• Example: The resources available for the project were scant, making it difficult to complete on time.

The correct answer is 'audacity'.

 

Key Points

• The word "audacity" means boldness or courage. (साहस या निर्भीकता)
• His presence of mind and audacity saved the life of the elderly woman.
• The other options: "fear," "carelessness," and "cowardice" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: His presence of mind and audacity saved the life of the elderly woman.

Additional Information

• Fear (डर): means an unpleasant emotion caused by the belief that someone or something is dangerous.
• Carelessness (लापरवाही): means lack of attention or caution.
• Cowardice (कायरता): means lack of bravery or courage.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence "Rohit completed already the project" contains incorrect adverb placement.
• Adverbs like "already" should typically be placed after the auxiliary verb or before the main verb for proper sentence construction.
• The correct placement would be: "Rohit has already completed the project."
• Thus, the error lies in the placement of the adverb "already."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Rohit has already completed the project."

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'deciphere'.

• The correct spelling would be 'decipher'.
• The word 'decipher' is a verb which means 'to convert (a text written in code, or a coded signal) into normal language'. (डिकोड करना)
• For Example -
• He was able to decipher the encoded messages with ease.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'decipher'.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. one step at a time.

Key Points

• The phrase "one step at a time" means to approach a task or challenge gradually, breaking it into smaller, manageable steps. (धीरे-धीरे और एक-एक कदम करके)
• Example: She managed to overcome her fear of public speaking by taking it one step at a time, starting with small group discussions.
• In the given sentence, the idiom "one step at a time" perfectly describes the approach of completing the overwhelming project in a slow and careful manner.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (one step at a time).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• One step closer (एक कदम और करीब): Refers to being nearer to a goal or objective.
• Example: With this achievement, we are one step closer to completing the project.
• One step ahead (एक कदम आगे): Refers to being more advanced, prepared, or ahead of someone or something.
• Example: He is always one step ahead of his competitors in business strategies.
• One step fix (एक बार में समाधान): Refers to a solution or action that resolves a problem in one go. However, this is not a commonly used idiom.
• Example: The company introduced a one-step fix for the technical glitch in the software.

The correct answer is: Limited.

Key Points

• The word "Versatile" refers to someone or something that is able to adapt to many different functions or activities; it implies flexibility and diversity. (बहुप्रयोजनीय, बहुमुखी)
• Example: She is a versatile actress who excels in both comedy and drama roles.
• "Limited" refers to something that is restricted in scope, extent, or amount, often the opposite of being versatile. (सीमित)
• Example: His options were limited due to the lack of resources.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Versatile' is 'Limited'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Limited.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Optimistic (आशावादी): Having a hopeful and positive outlook on life or future events.
• Example: Despite the challenges, she remained optimistic about her chances of success.
• Beautiful (सुंदर): Attractive to the eyes or pleasing to the senses.
• Example: The sunset over the ocean was absolutely beautiful.
• Cruel (क्रूर): Showing indifference or harshness toward others, often causing suffering.
• Example: The king was known for his cruel treatment of prisoners.

The correct answer is 'throughout'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence discusses indigenous communities in a global context.
• The preposition must convey the idea of these communities being spread across all regions of the world.
• "Throughout" correctly expresses the idea of something occurring in every part of a place or across the entire world.
• Other options do not fully convey the global, widespread nature described in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Correct Sentence: “Indigenous communities throughout the world are facing some of the most severe climate impacts.”

 

Additional Information

• Around: Suggests “near” or “in the surrounding area,” not suitable for a global scale.
• In: Grammatically correct but not appropriate for describing global distribution.
• Of: Does not fit the meaning or structure.

The correct answer is 'reliant'.

 

Key Points

• The passage explains that indigenous communities depend heavily on their surrounding ecosystems for survival and livelihood.
• The word that best expresses strong dependence is "reliant".
• Other options like "relatable," "relevant," and "relational" do not fit the context of depending on ecosystems for life and livelihood.
• Thus, the most appropriate word for the blank is reliant.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Additional Information

• Relatable: means able to be related to emotionally; does not fit the context of dependence.
• Relevant: means closely connected or appropriate; does not imply dependence.
• Relational: refers to relationships or connections; again does not convey dependence.

The correct answer is 'also'.

 

Key Points

• The preceding clause says indigenous communities depend on surrounding ecosystems for lives and livelihoods; the next clause adds another related idea about identity.
• The connector "also" correctly adds this related point: their identities are also deeply interwoven with the land and water.
• Other options are inappropriate: "seldom" and "only" change the meaning, and "too" is less natural here than "also" in formal expository prose.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is ‘are leading’ (Option 3).

 

Key Points

• The subject of the sentence is “indigenous peoples”, which is "plural".
• Therefore, the verb used must also be in a "plural form".
• Among the given options, “are leading” is the only grammatically correct plural verb phrase.
• The sentence expresses an ongoing action, which also suits the present continuous structure: “are leading efforts.”

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Option 3’.

 

Additional Information

• has leading — Incorrect because “has” is singular, but the subject is plural.
• have leading — Grammatically awkward; “have” does not pair naturally with “leading” in this structure.
• was leading — Incorrect tense and singular form.

The correct answer is ‘nurture’.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes how the Center for Climate Justice works closely with indigenous communities.
• The word needed should indicate building, supporting, or strengthening relationships.
• “Nurture” means to support, develop, and strengthen — which perfectly fits the context of building relationships.
• Other options like notice, imitate, and nominate do not convey the meaning of developing meaningful partnerships.

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Option 3’.

 

Additional Information

• Notice — means to observe; does not fit the context.
• Imitate — means to copy; not relevant here.
• Nominate — means to propose someone for a position; incorrect in this context.

'स्वधर्म' का विलोम शब्द है - परधर्म

Key Points

• स्वधर्म का अर्थ – अपना धर्म या कर्तव्य।
• परधर्म का अर्थ – दूसरे का धर्म या कर्तव्य।

Important Pointsकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - गरीब

Key Points

• वाक्य - गरीब आदमी का इलाज किसी वैद्य ने नहीं किया।
• 'गरीब' एक विदेशी शब्द (अरबी भाषा) है, जिसका अर्थ है 'निर्धन' या 'आर्थिक रूप से कमजोर'। यह वाक्य के संदर्भ में सार्थक है, क्योंकि यह गरीब व्यक्ति के इलाज न होने की स्थिति को दर्शाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

• 'निर्धन' एक संस्कृत मूल का शब्द है, जिसका अर्थ 'गरीब' है।
• 'मूर्छित' एक संस्कृत मूल का शब्द है, जिसका अर्थ 'बेहोश' है।
• 'निराश' एक संस्कृत मूल का शब्द है, जिसका अर्थ 'आशा रहित' है।

Important Pointsविदेशज:-

• जो शब्द विदेशी भाषा के हैं, परंतु हिंदी में उनका प्रचलन हो रहा है, ऐसे शब्द विदेशज शब्द कहे जाते हैं।
• विदेशी शब्द अरबी, फारसी, तुर्की, अंग्रेजी आदि भाषाओं से लिए गए हैं। जैसे - लगाम, वापिस, शराब, हिम्मत आदि।

देशज:-

• वे शब्द जिनकी उत्पत्ति का श्रोत ज्ञात न हो और लेकिन भाषा में उनका प्रचलन भरपूर हो, देशज शब्दों की श्रेणी में आते हैं।
• जैसे - लोटा, कटोरा, डोंगा, डिबिया, खिचड़ी, खिड़की, पगड़ी, चिड़िया, जूता, तेंदुआ, फुनगी, कलाई आदि।

Additional Information

'किरण' का पर्यायवाची शब्द है - रश्मि

Key Points

• 'किरण' का अर्थ है- प्रकाश की रेखा या किरण।
• 'किरण' का पर्यायवाची है- 
• रश्मि, अंशु, अर्चि, गो, कर, मयूख, मरीचि, ज्योति, प्रभा।​

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प-

• विद्युत - अर्थ: बिजली या तड़ित।
• ज्योत्सना - अर्थ: चाँदनी या चंद्रमा का प्रकाश।
• ईहा - अर्थ: इच्छा या प्रयास।

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

• पृथ्वी - धरा, धरती, वसुधा, भूमि, वसुंधरा, भू, इला, धरा, धरत्री, धरणी।
• पर्वत - शैल, नग, भूधर, पहाड़, अंचल, महीधर, गिरि, भूमिधर, तुंग, अद्रि।
• बिजली - चपला, चंचला, दामिनी, सौदामनी, विधुत्, तड़ित, बीजुरी, क्षणप्रभा।
• मेघ - बादल, जलधर, पयोद, पयोधर, घन।
• राजा - नृप, नृपति, भूपति, नरपति, भूप, महीप, महीपति, नरेश।
• रजनी - रात्रि, निशा, यामिनी, विभावरी।
• सर्प - साँप, अहि, भुजंग, विषधर, व्याल, फणी, उरग, पन्नग, नाग।
• सागर - समुद्र, उदधि, जलधि, वारिधि, पारावार, सिंधु, नीरनिधि, नदीश।
• सिंह - शेर, वनराज, शार्दूल, मृगराज, व्याघ्र, पंचमुख, मृगेंद्र, केशरी, महावीर।

'आराधना' का उपयुक्त एकार्थक शब्द है - तपस्या

Key Points

• 'आराधना' का अर्थ - तपस्या, भक्ति, या उपासना।
• ऐसे शब्द जो केवल एक ही प्रकार का अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं, उन्हें एकार्थक शब्द कहा जाता है।
• 'तपस्या' का अर्थ - कठोर साधना या भक्ति, जो 'आराधना' का सटीक एकार्थक शब्द है।

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प -

• 'पढ़ाई' का अर्थ - अध्ययन या शिक्षा।
• 'प्रेम' का अर्थ - स्नेह या मोहब्बत।
• 'परिश्रम' का अर्थ - मेहनत या श्रम।

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य एकार्थक शब्द -

'गोदान' प्रेमचंद की एक मशहूर ___________ का नाम है।' वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान के लिए उपयुक्त विदेशी शब्द है - किताब

Key Points

• उपयुक्त विदेशी शब्द - 'किताब'
• वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान के लिए 'किताब' उपयुक्त है, क्योंकि यह एक विदेशी शब्द है (फारसी मूल से) और इसका अर्थ 'पुस्तक' या 'लिखित रचना' है, जो 'गोदान' के संदर्भ में सही है।
• शुद्ध वाक्य: 'गोदान' प्रेमचंद की एक मशहूर किताब का नाम है।

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प-

• उपन्यास -
• यह विदेशी शब्द नहीं है, बल्कि हिंदी शब्द है और इसका अर्थ 'नॉवेल' है।
• ग्रंथ -
• यह संस्कृत मूल का शब्द है, न कि विदेशी, और इसका अर्थ 'महत्वपूर्ण पुस्तक' है।
• पुस्तक -
• यह संस्कृत मूल का शब्द है, न कि विदेशी, और इसका अर्थ 'किताब' है।

Additional Informationविदेशी शब्दों के उदाहरण -

प्रख्यात का विलोम शब्द ‘कुख्यात’ है।

Key Pointsप्रख्यात का अर्थ – अति प्रसिद्ध, बहुत विख्यात।

कुख्यात → बुरी तरह प्रसिद्ध (विलोम अर्थ में प्रयोग होता है)

<br>

अन्य विकल्प:

• प्रसिद्ध → अर्थ भी लगभग वही (प्रख्यात का पर्यायवाची)
• विख्यात → समान अर्थ (पर्यायवाची)
• ख्यात → प्रसिद्ध (पर्यायवाची)​

Additional Information

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध वाक्य है - राकेश ने घर बनवाया।

Key Points

• शुद्ध वाक्य - 'राकेश ने घर बनवाया।'
• वाक्य में 'राकेश ने घर बनवाया' व्याकरणिक रूप से सही है, क्योंकि 'राकेश' कर्ता है और 'ने' कारक चिह्न का प्रयोग प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया 'बनवाया' के साथ उचित है।

Important Pointsअन्य विकल्प-

• राकेश की घर बनवाया। -
• अशुद्ध, क्योंकि 'की' संप्रदान या संबंध कारक है, जो कर्ता के साथ अनुचित है। शुद्ध रूप: राकेश ने घर बनवाया।
• राकेश से, घर बनाया। -
• अशुद्ध, क्योंकि 'से' साधन या अपादान कारक है और 'बनाया' क्रिया प्रेरणार्थक नहीं है। शुद्ध रूप: राकेश ने घर बनवाया।
• राकेश का घर बनवाया। -
• अशुद्ध, क्योंकि 'का' संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम है और कर्ता के स्थान पर नहीं आ सकता। शुद्ध रूप: राकेश ने घर बनवाया।

Additional Informationकारक संबंधी अशुद्धि-

• ​वाक्य में कारक संबंधी गलत शब्द प्रयोग भी किए जाते हैं, जिस कारण वाक्य अशुद्ध हो जाता है। इन अशुद्धियों को कारक संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ कहा जाता है।