SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given that December 31 of a leap year is a Monday.

Therefore, the first day of the next year, January 1, will be a Tuesday.

To find the day of the week on March 1 of the next year, we calculate the total number of days passed in January and February:

Days in January = 31 days

Days in February = 28 days (as it is a non-leap year)

Total days from January 1 to March 1 = 31 + 28 = 59 days

To find the number of odd days, we divide by 7: 59 ÷ 7 = 8 weeks and 3 odd days.

Day on March 1 = Tuesday + 3 days = Friday.

Now, let us list the occurrences of Mondays and Thursdays in March (31 days):

Since March 1 is a Friday, the calendar for the month is as follows:

1. Mondays fall on: March 4, 11, 18, and 25. (Total = 4 Mondays)
2. Thursdays fall on: March 7, 14, 21, and 28. (Total = 4 Thursdays)

Total number of Mondays and Thursdays = 4 + 4 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

We need to find the day on 1st January 1611.

Period until 31st December 1610 = 1600 years + 10 years.

Odd days in 1600 years = 0 odd days (as it is a multiple of 400).

Now, calculate odd days in the remaining 10 years (from 1601 to 1610):

Number of leap years in these 10 years = 2 (Years 1604 and 1608).

Number of ordinary years in these 10 years = 10 − 2 = 8.

Odd days from 2 leap years = 2 × 2 = 4 odd days.

Odd days from 8 ordinary years = 8 × 1 = 8 odd days.

Total odd days in 10 years = 4 + 8 = 12 odd days.

To simplify, 12 ÷ 7 = 1 week and 5 odd days.

Total odd days until 31st December 1610 = 0 (from 1600 years) + 5 = 5 odd days.

Based on the day mapping, 5 odd days indicates that 31st December 1610 was a Friday.

The next day, 1st January 1611, is Friday + 1 = Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

5 persons P, B, C, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. B is second to the left of H.
2. G is the immediate neighbour of B and H.
3. C is not the immediate neighbour of B. 

"B" is the second to the right of C.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

7 boys A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. E is second to the left of A.
2. D is fourth to the left of F.
3. A is fifth from the right end of the row.
4. B is third to the left of G. 

B is to the immediate left of C.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Family chart:

Family tree,

Therefore, D is the husband of C (the mother), which makes D the Father of A.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given word: CONTAMINATION

(1) ANIMATION → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word.

(2) CINNAMON → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word.

(3) NOTATIONS → Can not be formed as it requires letter "S", whereas the given word does not contains "S".

(4) ATOMIC → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The given word is: JOURNALISM

The alphabetical arrangement is: 

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To find the third letter from the right end, we count from the end of the sequence:

3rd from right end = R

The third letter from the right end is R.

The correct answer is "Option 4".

First, we find the prime factors for each number:

 

The prime factors involved are 2, 3, and 5.

The highest power of 2 is 22.

The highest power of 3 is 32.

The highest power of 5 is 52.

LCM = 22 × 32 × 52

LCM = 4 × 9 × 25

LCM = 36 × 25

LCM = 900

Therefore, the smallest positive integer divisible by 45, 60, and 75 is 900.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

In a farm, cows have 4 legs and 1 head each, while hens have 2 legs and 1 head each.

Let the number of cows be C and the number of hens be H.

C + H = 50 ---- (Equation 1)

(4 × C) + (2 × H) = 140

2C + H = 70 ---- (Equation 2)

Subtract Equation 1 from Equation 2:

(2C + H) − (C + H) = 70 − 50

C = 20

So, the total number of cows in the farm is 20.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

 

Alternate Method 

If all 50 animals were hens, the total legs would be 50 × 2 = 100.

Difference in legs = 140 − 100 = 40.

Difference in legs per animal (Cow vs Hen) = 4 − 2 = 2.

Number of cows = 40 ÷ 2 = 20.

The correct answer is option 1.

Logic followed here is,

275 + 16 = 291

291 + 24 = 315

315 + 32 = 347

347 + 40 = 387

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

49 + 6 = 55

 

55 + 12 = 67

 

67 + 20 = 87

 

87 + 30 = 117

 

117 + 42 = 159

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Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Seven persons, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, sit in a linear row and face in the north direction.

1. Only two persons sit between G and A.
2. D sits adjacent to C.
3. Only one person sits between F and D.
4. Only two persons sit between A and F.
5. Only three persons sit between C and B.
6. B doesn't sit immediate left of E.

D sits second to the left of E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

MJ81 : IF461 → 

YK75 : UG455 → 

Similarly,

LO68 : ? → 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

AAP21 : DVW361 → 

IOD18 : LLK256 → 

Similarly,

TMC25 : ? → 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First Number = Second Number − 32

For 2976 : 3008

⇒ 3008 − 32 = 2976.

For3832 : 3864

⇒ 3864 − 32 = 3832.

Applying the same logic to the second pair

? : 7818

⇒ 7818 − 32 = 7786.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First Number − Second Number = 317

For 883 : 566

⇒ 883 − 566 = 317.

For 619 : 302

⇒ 619 − 302 = 317.

Applying the same logic to the second pair

? : 513

⇒ ? − 513 = 317

⇒ ? = 513 + 317 = 830.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

LUFF is coded as MYDB →

PION is coded as QMMJ →

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Similarly,

let's find the code for LAMB:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

'hour need' be coded in that code language as "ne go".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Wrong tern is EC180.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is mandated by Article 323(1) of the Constitution of India to submit an annual report directly to the President of India, detailing the work performed by the Commission over the preceding year.
• The President is then constitutionally obligated to place this report before both Houses of Parliament (the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha), ensuring that the activities of the Commission are scrutinized by the legislative branch.
• Accompanying the report is a memorandum that must explain the reasons why the advice of the Commission was not accepted by the government in any specific instances, which serves as a safeguard against arbitrary executive decisions in civil service matters.
• Established under Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution, the UPSC acts as an independent constitutional body to maintain the merit system of the Indian Civil Services without political interference.

 Additional Information

• State Public Service Commission (SPSC):
• According to Article 323(2), the SPSC follows a similar protocol at the state level by submitting its annual report to the Governor of the state, who then places it before the State Legislature.
• Appointment and Removal:
• The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by the President for a term of six years or until they reach the age of 65 years.
• They can be removed by the President only on the grounds of misbehavior after an inquiry by the Supreme Court, as per Article 317.
• Role of Other Entities:
• Parliament: While Parliament discusses the report, it is the President who facilitates the submission process.
• Prime Minister: As the head of the Union Council of Ministers, the Prime Minister oversees the executive branch, but the UPSC remains an autonomous body reporting to the Head of State to preserve its neutrality.
• Cabinet Secretary: The highest-ranking civil servant who heads the Cabinet Secretariat, yet the UPSC operates outside this administrative hierarchy for recruitment and disciplinary functions.

The correct answer is President's assent.

Key Points

• According to Article 111 of the Constitution of India, when a Bill has been passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, it must be presented to the President for their formal approval.
• The legislative process is completed only when the President provides their assent, at which stage the Bill officially becomes an Act or a law of the land.
• The President holds the authority to exercise Veto Powers; they can either grant assent, withhold assent, or return the Bill (except for a Money Bill) for reconsideration by the Parliament.
• If the Parliament passes the Bill again, with or without changes, and presents it to the President a second time, the President is constitutionally bound to give their assent.
• Once assent is received, the law is typically published in the Official Gazette of India to inform the public of its commencement.

 Additional Information

• Judicial Review:
• The Supreme Court does not approve bills; instead, it exercises Judicial Review under Article 13 to ensure that the laws enacted do not violate the Fundamental Rights or the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
• Constitutional Amendment Bills:
• Under Article 368, the President has no power to return or withhold assent for a Constitutional Amendment Bill; they must sign it once it is passed by the required majority in both houses.
• Parliamentary Components:
• As per Article 79, the Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Therefore, the President is an integral part of the legislative body.
• Money Bills:
• A Money Bill, defined under Article 110, is introduced only in the Lok Sabha with the prior recommendation of the President, and the President generally grants assent to it.

The correct answer is Bihu.

Key Points

• The Bihu dance is an indigenous folk dance from the Indian state of Assam, performed primarily during the Bihu festival, which marks the most important cultural celebration of the Assamese people.
• While there are three types of Bihu, the dance is most vigorously performed during Rongali Bihu (also known as Bohag Bihu), which occurs in mid-April to celebrate the Assamese New Year and the onset of the spring season.
• The performance is characterized by brisk dance steps, rapid hand movements, and a rhythmic swaying of the hips, symbolizing fertility, youth, and the joy of nature.
• Dancers wear traditional Assamese attire; women wear the Mekhela Chador made of Muga silk (golden silk), and men wear Dhoti and Gamosa.
• The musical accompaniment includes traditional instruments such as the Dhol (a two-sided drum), Pepa (an instrument made of buffalo horn), Gogona (a reed/bamboo instrument), Toka (a bamboo clapper), and Xutuli (a clay whistle).
• In April 2023, the Bihu dance created a Guinness World Record when over 11,000 dancers and drummers performed together at the Sarusajai Stadium in Guwahati.

 Additional Information

• Diwali:
• Known as the Festival of Lights, it is celebrated across India to signify the victory of light over darkness and good over evil.
• It usually falls between mid-October and mid-November and involves the lighting of Diyas and fireworks.
• Durga Puja:
• A major festival celebrated with great fervor in West Bengal, Odisha, and Assam, honoring the victory of Goddess Durga over the demon Mahishasura.
• It is inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.
• Pongal:
• A four-day harvest festival celebrated in Tamil Nadu and by the Tamil diaspora worldwide, dedicated to the Sun God (Surya).
• It typically occurs in January and coincides with Makar Sankranti, marking the start of the sun's six-month-long journey northwards (Uttarayanam).

The correct answer is Anandpur Sahib.

Key Points

• Hola Mohalla is a prominent Sikh festival that takes place annually at Anandpur Sahib in the state of Punjab, attracting millions of devotees from across the globe.
• The festival was started by the tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh Ji, in March 1701, originally designed as a day for the Khalsa to perform military exercises and mock battles.
• The term Hola is a masculine variation of the word Holi, while Mohalla signifies an organized procession or a military-style column.
• The celebrations span three days and include a massive display of martial arts, such as Gatka (traditional weapon-based fighting), tent pegging, and bareback horse riding.
• The event serves as a platform for poetry competitions and kirtan (spiritual music), reinforcing the Sikh values of chardi kala (eternal optimism) and valour.
• The festivities culminate in a grand procession led by the Panj Pyaras, starting from Takht Sri Keshgarh Sahib and passing through various historical Gurdwaras.

 Additional Information

• Anandpur Sahib:
• Founded in 1665 by Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji, the ninth Sikh Guru, it is known as the City of Bliss.
• It is the historical site where the Khalsa Panth was formally established during the Vaisakhi of 1699.
• The city houses Takht Sri Keshgarh Sahib, which is one of the five Takhts (seats of authority) of Sikhism.
• Other Notable Sikh Centers:
• Amritsar: Established by Guru Ram Das Ji, it is the site of the Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple) and serves as the spiritual hub of the community.
• Patna Sahib: Located in Bihar, this is the birthplace of Guru Gobind Singh Ji and is recognized as a Takht.
• Nankana Sahib: Currently located in Pakistan, it is the sacred birthplace of Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the founder of Sikhism.

The correct answer is 1/6.

Key Points

• The weight of an object is defined as the gravitational force exerted on it by a celestial body. It is mathematically expressed as the product of the object's mass (m) and the acceleration due to gravity (g) of that body.
• The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is approximately 1.625 m/s², whereas the standard gravity on Earth is approximately 9.807 m/s².
• By comparing these two values, the ratio of the lunar gravity to terrestrial gravity is calculated as 1.625 ÷ 9.807, which is approximately 0.1657, or nearly 1/6.
• The Moon's gravity is significantly lower because its mass is about 1/81 of the Earth's mass and its radius is only 1/3.7 of the Earth's radius.
• Consequently, an object with a weight of 600 Newtons on Earth would weigh approximately 100 Newtons on the Moon, although its mass remains constant in both environments.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Differences:
• Mass: Measured in kilograms (kg), mass is the measure of the quantity of matter in an object. It is a scalar quantity and is invariant across the universe.
• Weight: Measured in Newtons (N), weight is a vector quantity that changes depending on the strength of the local gravitational field.
• Gravitational Formula:
• The value of g is determined by Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation: g = G × M / R², where G is the Universal Gravitational Constant (6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg²), M is the mass of the celestial body, and R is its radius.
• This inverse-square law indicates that while a smaller radius increases gravity, the Moon's significantly lower mass is the dominant factor in making its gravity one-sixth that of Earth.

The correct answer is Harper Lee.

Key Points

• Harper Lee, born Nelle Harper Lee in 1926, was an iconic American novelist whose reputation rests primarily on her debut novel, 'To Kill a Mockingbird', published in 1960.
• The novel was an immediate success, winning the prestigious Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1961 and becoming a staple of modern American literature taught in schools worldwide.
• The story is set in the fictional town of Maycomb, Alabama, during the Great Depression and is narrated by Jean Louise 'Scout' Finch, a young girl learning about social injustice and moral fortitude.
• The narrative centers on Atticus Finch, a principled lawyer who defends Tom Robinson, a Black man falsely accused of raping a white woman, highlighting themes of racial prejudice and the loss of innocence.
• Lee was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom in 2007 for her contribution to literature, and her second novel, 'Go Set a Watchman', was published much later in 2015 as an earlier draft of her masterpiece.

 Additional Information

• Margaret Atwood:
• A prolific Canadian author known for her speculative fiction and environmental activism.
• Her most famous work is 'The Handmaid's Tale' (1985), which explores a dystopian society centered on theocratic totalitarianism.
• Toni Morrison:
• A Nobel Prize-winning American novelist celebrated for her examination of the Black female experience.
• Major works include 'Beloved' (1987), which won the Pulitzer Prize, and 'The Bluest Eye' (1970).
• Sylvia Plath:
• A renowned American poet and novelist associated with the Confessional poetry movement.
• She is best known for her semi-autobiographical novel 'The Bell Jar' (1963) and the posthumous poetry collection 'Ariel'.

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• The Himalayan mountain range is one of the youngest and highest mountain systems in the world, stretching approximately 2,400 kilometers across the northern borders of India.
• Geographically, it is divided into three distinct parallel longitudinal ranges based on their altitude, composition, and location from north to south.
• The northernmost and highest range is the Great Himalayas or Inner Himalayas, also known as Himadri. It is characterized by an average elevation of 6,000 meters and contains most of the world's highest peaks, including Mount Everest.
• Located to the south of the Himadri, the Lesser Himalayas or Himachal range is composed of highly compressed and altered rocks. The average altitude of this range fluctuates between 3,700 and 4,500 meters.
• The southernmost part of the system is the Outer Himalayas, known as the Shiwalik Range. These are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges and have an average height ranging between 900 and 1,100 meters.

 Additional Information

• Great Himalayas (Himadri):
• Contains the Gangotri and Yamunotri glaciers, which are the sources of the Ganga and Yamuna rivers.
• Includes prominent peaks such as Kanchenjunga, Lhotse, and Nanga Parbat.
• Lesser Himalayas (Himachal):
• Known for major mountain ranges like the Pir Panjal Range, Dhauladhar Range, and Mahabharat Range.
• Home to famous hill stations like Mussoorie, Nainital, and Ranikhet.
• Outer Himalayas (Shiwaliks):
• Feature longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks known as Duns, such as Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun, and Patli Dun.
• The width of this range varies between 10 to 50 kilometers.

The correct answer is National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).

Key Points

• The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in January 2019 as a comprehensive pan-India strategy.
• The program originally targeted 102 non-attainment cities, but the scope was later expanded to include 131 cities across the country that do not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS).
• The primary objective of NCAP is to achieve a 20% to 30% reduction in the concentration of Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5) by the year 2024, using 2017 as the base year for comparison.
• It promotes a collaborative and multi-sectoral approach, involving various Central Ministries, State Governments, and local bodies to mitigate air pollution through city-specific action plans.
• The program emphasizes capacity building, increasing the air quality monitoring network, and creating awareness among the public to ensure sustainable air quality management.

 Additional Information

• Green India Mission (GIM):
• It is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) aimed at protecting and enhancing India’s forest cover.
• The mission focuses on carbon sequestration and improving ecosystem services like biodiversity and hydrological services.
• PRANA Portal:
• The Portal for Regulation of Air-pollution in Non-Attainment cities is a tracking platform launched to monitor the implementation of NCAP.
• It provides real-time information on the physical and financial progress of air quality improvement initiatives in targeted cities.
• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):
• A statutory organization under the MoEFCC responsible for executing the technical aspects of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
• The CPCB coordinates the activities of State Pollution Control Boards and provides technical assistance for air quality data collection.

The correct answer is Gallup World Poll.

Key Points

• The World Happiness Report is an annual publication of the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) that ranks global happiness levels based on survey data.
• The primary source of data used for the index is the Gallup World Poll, which conducts surveys in more than 160 countries and in over 140 languages to capture the perspectives of respondents worldwide.
• The core measure used is the Cantril Self-Anchoring Striving Scale (or Cantril Ladder), where participants rate their current life on a scale from 0 to 10, where 10 represents the best possible life.
• The index analyzes six key factors to explain the variation in happiness: GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and perceptions of corruption.
• The first World Happiness Report was released in April 2012, following the UN High-Level Meeting on 'Happiness and Well-Being: Defining a New Economic Paradigm'.

 Additional Information

• Pew Global Attitudes Survey
• A series of worldwide public opinion surveys conducted by the Pew Research Center.
• It focuses on subjects ranging from people's assessment of their own lives to their views on the global economy, technology, and international policy.
• Transparency International Survey
• This organization is best known for the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI).
• The survey measures the perceived levels of public sector corruption in countries around the world based on expert assessments and opinion surveys.
• World Bank Enterprise Survey
• A firm-level survey that collects data from a representative sample of an economy's private sector.
• It covers topics such as access to finance, corruption, infrastructure, crime, and performance indicators like sales and employment growth.

The correct answer is Corona.

Key Points

• The Corona is the outermost layer of the solar atmosphere, extending millions of kilometers into space and consisting of extremely hot, low-density plasma.
• Under ordinary conditions, the Corona is invisible to the human eye because its light is approximately one million times fainter than that of the Photosphere.
• During a total solar eclipse, the Moon moves directly between the Earth and the Sun, completely occulting the bright solar disk and revealing the Corona as a shimmering, pearly white halo.
• Scientifically, the Corona is noted for its extreme temperatures, which range from 1 million to 3 million degrees Celsius, far exceeding the surface temperature of the Sun.
• The structure and appearance of the Corona are dictated by the Sun magnetic field, often appearing as streamers, loops, or plumes that fluctuate with the 11-year solar cycle.

 Additional Information

• Photosphere:
• It is the visible surface of the Sun that we see daily, with a thickness of about 500 kilometers.
• This layer has a temperature of roughly 5,500 degrees Celsius and is where sunspots are formed.
• Chromosphere:
• Located above the Photosphere, this layer is approximately 2,000 kilometers thick.
• It emits a distinctive reddish glow due to hydrogen heating, which is briefly visible at the beginning and end of a total solar eclipse as the flash spectrum.
• Core:
• The innermost region where nuclear fusion occurs, converting hydrogen into helium at temperatures reaching 15 million degrees Celsius.
• The Core is never visible from Earth as it is contained within the dense solar interior.

The correct answer is Afghanistan.

Key Points

• Chabahar Port is a strategic maritime facility located on the Makran Coast in the Sistan and Baluchestan Province of Iran, situated along the Gulf of Oman.
• It serves as a vital transit hub that allows India to bypass Pakistan to access landlocked Afghanistan and the Central Asian Republics (Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan).
• In May 2016, India, Iran, and Afghanistan signed a trilateral Chabahar Agreement to establish a transport and transit corridor, facilitating the movement of goods and services between the three nations.
• India has actively utilized the port to deliver humanitarian assistance to Afghanistan, including the shipment of 75,000 metric tonnes of wheat as food aid and 20,000 litres of Malathion to help the country combat locust infestations.
• The port development is led by India Ports Global Limited (IPGL), which operates the Shahid Beheshti terminal, ensuring a steady supply chain for essential commodities to the Afghan people.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Connectivity:
• Zaranj-Delaram Road: India constructed this 218-km highway in Afghanistan to connect the Iran-Afghanistan border to the Garland Highway, linking major Afghan cities like Kabul, Kandahar, and Herat to the Chabahar Port.
• International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC): Chabahar is envisioned as a key gateway for this 7,200-km multi-modal network designed to connect India, Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia.
• Geopolitical Context: The port is strategically positioned to compete with Pakistan's Gwadar Port, which is being developed with significant Chinese investment under the CPEC framework.
• Regional Impact:
• Pakistan: Does not benefit from this initiative as it provides an alternative that reduces Afghanistan's dependence on Pakistani ports like Karachi.
• Myanmar and Sri Lanka: These nations are geographically distant and rely on Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean maritime routes, bearing no direct connection to the transit logic of Chabahar.

The correct answer is Third Plan - food crisis and Indo-China war.

Key Points

• The First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956) was based on the Harrod-Domar model and primarily focused on the agricultural sector, irrigation, and power to overcome food shortages; it was largely successful and did not suffer from industrial inflationary pressures. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Third Five-Year Plan (1961–1966) aimed for a self-reliant and self-generating economy but was severely hampered by the Sino-Indian War of 1962 and the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, which diverted funds to defense spending. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In addition to war, the Third Plan period witnessed a disastrous drought in 1965-66, leading to a critical food crisis and necessitating massive imports under the PL-480 program, which eventually led to the Plan Holidays (1966–1969). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969–1974) focused on Growth with Stability and the progressive achievement of self-reliance, but its main challenges were the 1971 Bangladesh refugee crisis and the global 1973 oil shock. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–1978) focused on Garibi Hatao (Poverty Eradication) and attainment of self-reliance; it did not face a primary challenge regarding the underutilization of foreign exchange reserves, which actually grew during later periods. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Planning Commission of India:
• Established in March 1950 as a non-constitutional and advisory body to formulate India's Five-Year Plans.
• The Prime Minister served as the Ex-officio Chairman, while the Deputy Chairman handled the administrative transition of the plans.
• Replaced by NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) on January 1, 2015, to foster cooperative federalism.
• Important Plan Outcomes:
• Second Plan (1956-61): Known as the Mahalanobis Plan, it focused on rapid industrialization and heavy industries.
• Plan Holiday (1966-69): Three annual plans were implemented due to the economic exhaustion following the Third Plan's failure.
• Rolling Plan (1978-80): Introduced by the Janata Party government after terminating the Fifth Plan one year early.

The correct answer is Mitochondria.

Key Points

• Plastids and Mitochondria share a strikingly similar external and internal structural organization, primarily because both are bounded by a double-membrane envelope consisting of an outer and an inner membrane.
• Both organelles are classified as semi-autonomous organelles. This means they possess their own genetic material in the form of circular DNA and contain their own 70S ribosomes, allowing them to synthesize some of their own proteins.
• The structural similarity is fundamentally rooted in the Endosymbiotic Theory, which proposes that both mitochondria and plastids (specifically chloroplasts) originated from free-living prokaryotic organisms that were engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells.
• Like bacteria, both organelles replicate through a process similar to binary fission, independent of the cell's nuclear division, which further highlights their structural and functional parallels.
• While Plastids are involved in photosynthesis and storage in plants, and Mitochondria focus on ATP production, their basic architectural blueprint remains remarkably consistent.

 Additional Information

• Mitochondria:
• Known as the powerhouse of the cell, they are the sites of aerobic respiration.
• The inner membrane is highly folded into cristae to maximize the surface area for the Electron Transport Chain.
• Lysosomes:
• These are single-membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the Golgi apparatus.
• They contain hydrolytic enzymes (hydrolases) and function as the cell's waste disposal system or suicidal bags.
• Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER):
• A vast network of single-membrane tubules and sacs called cisternae.
• It is divided into Rough ER (protein synthesis) and Smooth ER (lipid synthesis and detoxification).
• Nucleus:
• Although it has a double membrane (nuclear envelope), its structure is distinct due to the presence of nuclear pores and its direct continuity with the ER.
• It houses chromatin (linear DNA) and the nucleolus, serving as the main control center of the cell.

The correct answer is 1956.

Key Points

• The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) was established on September 1, 1956, after the Government of India decided to nationalize the private insurance industry.
• The legislative framework for this transition was the Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956, which was passed by the Parliament on June 19, 1956.
• The formation of LIC involved the merger of over 245 insurance companies and provident societies, which were previously functioning as private entities in the Indian market.
• The central objective behind the nationalization was to mobilize domestic savings for the purpose of nation-building and to provide financial security to the rural population of India at an affordable cost.

 Additional Information

• Core Attributes of LIC:
• Headquarters: The central office of LIC is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Slogan: The corporation operates under the motto 'Yogakshemam Vahamyaham', which is a Sanskrit phrase meaning 'Your welfare is our responsibility', sourced from the 9th chapter of the Bhagavad Gita.
• Governance: It is a statutory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• Market Status: For nearly 44 years, LIC enjoyed a complete monopoly in the life insurance sector until the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) Act, 1999 opened the sector to private competitors in the year 2000.
• Investment Role: LIC is currently the largest institutional investor in India, significantly contributing to the government's Five-Year Plans and various infrastructure development initiatives.

The correct answer is Black soil.

Key Points

• Black soil, also known as Regur soil or Black Cotton Soil, is the most suitable soil type for cotton cultivation due to its unique chemical and physical properties.
• It is primarily found in the Deccan Trap region, covering states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh, and is formed from the weathering of basaltic lava rocks.
• The soil is characterized by a high clay content, which provides it with an exceptional moisture-retention capacity, allowing the cotton crop to thrive even during periods of low rainfall.
• A distinctive feature of this soil is its self-ploughing nature; it develops deep fissures or cracks during the dry season, which facilitates oxygenation and aeration of the soil layers.
• Chemically, Black soil is rich in essential nutrients such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime, though it is typically deficient in phosphorus and nitrogen.

 Additional Information

• Red Soil:
• Formed from crystalline igneous rocks in regions with low rainfall, such as parts of Tamil Nadu and Odisha.
• It appears red due to the high diffusion of iron oxides and is better suited for pulses and millets.
• Alluvial Soil:
• Deposited by Himalayan rivers, it is the most fertile and widespread soil in India, particularly in the Indo-Gangetic plains.
• It is ideal for intensive agriculture, supporting crops like paddy, wheat, and sugarcane.
• Laterite Soil:
• Develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall through the process of intense leaching.
• It is acidic and nutrient-poor but is highly effective for plantation crops like cashew nuts, tea, and coffee.

The correct answer is ₹1 lakh crore for urban redevelopment, cities as growth hubs.

Key Points

• The Urban Challenge Fund is a strategic initiative aimed at incentivizing states to undertake significant urban reforms and modernize their cities.
• As per the Union Budget 2024-25, the government has proposed an allocation of ₹1 lakh crore to support states in implementing these reforms and fostering urban redevelopment.
• The primary objective of this fund is to transform cities into growth hubs by improving urban planning, governance, and economic productivity, which are essential for achieving the vision of a Viksit Bharat.
• Support is specifically directed toward high-impact projects such as water supply, sewerage systems, and solid waste management across several large cities through bankable projects.
• The fund encourages a competitive approach among states, rewarding those that successfully implement orderly urban growth policies and sustainable infrastructure development.

 Additional Information

• Cities as Growth Hubs:
• Refers to the development of urban centers as concentrated areas of economic activity, innovation, and employment.
• Focuses on creating social and physical infrastructure that attracts global and domestic investment to boost the national GDP.
• Urban Redevelopment:
• Involves the restoration and modernization of older city areas, including slum redevelopment and revitalizing commercial zones.
• Emphasizes Transit-Oriented Development (TOD) and the efficient use of urban land to accommodate rising populations.
• Urban Reforms:
• Includes legislative and administrative changes like reforming property tax structures, updating building bylaws, and streamlining urban planning processes.

The correct answer is Religious tolerance and universal peace.

Key Points

• Sulh-i-Kul is a Persian phrase that literally translates to 'absolute peace' or 'universal peace', serving as the foundational ideology of Emperor Akbar's reign during the Mughal Empire.
• This policy was formulated to unify a socially and religiously diverse India, moving away from orthodox sectarianism toward a state policy that treated all religious communities with equal respect.
• The concept was heavily influenced by Akbar's interactions at the Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) in Fatehpur Sikri, where he held debates with scholars from Hinduism, Islam, Christianity, Jainism, and Zoroastrianism.
• Abul Fazl, the court historian and author of Akbarnama, defined the ideal Mughal ruler as one who possesses farr-i-izadi (divine light) and maintains Sulh-i-Kul by ensuring no group undermines the authority of the state or the rights of others.
• The policy emphasized an ethical code focused on justice, honesty, and kindness, rather than the strict imposition of any specific religious dogma or Islamic law.

 Additional Information

• Abolition of Religious Taxes: To practicalize Sulh-i-Kul, Akbar abolished the Jizya (a tax on non-Muslim subjects) in 1564 and the Pilgrim Tax in 1563, which were previously major sources of resentment among Hindus.
• Administrative Integration:
• The policy allowed for the large-scale integration of Rajput chiefs and other non-Muslims into the high-ranking Mansabdari system of the Mughal bureaucracy.
• It shifted the loyalty of the nobility from their respective religious groups to the person of the Mughal Emperor.
• Impact on Successors: While Jahangir and Shah Jahan largely followed the principles of Sulh-i-Kul, the policy saw a significant reversal during the reign of Aurangzeb, who reintroduced the Jizya and adopted more orthodox religious stances.

The correct answer is Capital grant from central government.

Key Points

• Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India are designated duty-free enclaves treated as foreign territories for trade operations, duties, and tariffs, governed by the SEZ Act, 2005.
• To support the high capital expenditure required for developing world-class infrastructure, the central government offers capital grants and financial assistance through targeted infrastructure development schemes to eligible SEZ developers.
• These grants are aimed at facilitating the creation of essential common infrastructure, such as roads, water supply systems, power distribution networks, and waste management facilities.
• In addition to direct funding support, developers are entitled to duty-free import or domestic procurement of goods and a 10-year Income Tax exemption under Section 80-IAB of the Income Tax Act.

 Additional Information

• Tax refund on exports:
• This fiscal benefit is specifically structured for SEZ Units (the individual business entities operating inside the zone) to boost their export competitiveness under Section 10AA, rather than for the master developers of the zone.
• Subsidy on land acquisition:
• Land acquisition is primarily governed by State Governments. While state policies may facilitate land allotment, there is no standardized central subsidy provided specifically for purchasing land.
• Low-interest loans from banks:
• Although SEZ infrastructure development is granted infrastructure status to enable easier access to external commercial borrowings (ECBs) and long-term credit, banks do not offer mandated low-interest loans as a direct government incentive.

The correct answer is 2027.

Key Points

• The Census of India is the largest administrative and statistical exercise in the world, traditionally conducted every ten years to capture the demographic, social, and economic profile of the nation.
• The last successful census was conducted in 2011; however, the scheduled 2021 Census was postponed indefinitely due to the outbreak of the COVID-19 pandemic and the resulting administrative challenges.
• The Government of India has indicated that the fieldwork and enumeration for the next census are now targeted for completion by February 28, 2027, effectively skipping the 2021 cycle to maintain a new decadal alignment.
• This census is of critical importance because its data will be utilized for the delimitation of parliamentary constituencies and is a prerequisite for implementing the Women’s Reservation Act (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam).
• The process involves two main phases: House Listing and Housing Census followed by Population Enumeration, ensuring every individual residing in the country is accounted for.

 Additional Information

• Historical Background:
• The first non-synchronous census in India was initiated in 1872 during the tenure of Lord Mayo.
• The first synchronous and comprehensive census was conducted in 1881 under Lord Ripon, and it has been held every ten years since then until the 2021 delay.
• Administrative Authority:
• The census is organized by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Digital Transition:
• The 2027 Census is expected to be India’s first Digital Census, utilizing a specially developed mobile application for data collection and a Self-Enumeration portal for citizens.
• Legal Provisions:
• The exercise is conducted under the Census Act, 1948, which provides the legal backing for data collection and guarantees the confidentiality of the information provided by the public.

The correct answer is Manda.

Key Points

• Manda is a prominent archaeological site of the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) located in the Akhnoor district of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Geographically, it is situated on the right bank of the Chenab River in the foothills of the Pir Panjal Range, marking a significant territorial boundary.
• It is widely considered the northernmost point of the Harappan civilization within the Indian subcontinent.
• The site was excavated in 1976-77 by Jagat Pati Joshi, revealing a cultural sequence that spans from the Pre-Harappan to the Post-Harappan eras.
• Significant artifacts recovered from Manda include Harappan redware, copper double-headed pins (of Central Asian origin), terracotta cakes, and chert blades.
• The settlement provided evidence of the Mature Harappan culture overlapping with local traditions, suggesting it served as a key outpost for timber and lapis lazuli trade.

 Additional Information

• Kalibangan:
• Located in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan on the banks of the Ghaggar-Hakra River.
• Notable for being the first site to provide evidence of ploughed agricultural fields and the presence of fire altars.
• Banawali:
• Situated in the Fatehabad district of Haryana.
• Famous for the discovery of a high-quality terracotta model of a plough and significant quantities of barley.
• Lothal:
• Located in the Ahmedabad district of Gujarat near the Sargwala village.
• It was a major port city featuring the world's earliest known artificial dockyard connected to the Sabarmati River.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracket first: (36 + 24) = 60.

Group positive and negative terms: (78 + 69 + 85 + 32) − (60 + 49).

Simplify: 264 − 109 = 155.

∴ The correct answer is 155.

Alternate Method

Given: 78 + 69 − (36 + 24) + 85 − 49 + 32

Method Used: Apply the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 78 + 69 − 60 + 85 − 49 + 32

⇒ 147 − 60 + 85 − 49 + 32

⇒ 87 + 85 − 49 + 32

⇒ 172 − 49 + 32

⇒ 123 + 32

⇒ 155

∴ The correct answer is 155.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

The BODMAS rule is an acronym to help remember the order of operations in calculations: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Arithmetic Signs

When simplifying expressions with multiple signs, always process terms inside brackets first. For addition and subtraction, operations can be performed from left to right or by grouping like signs together.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the operations using BODMAS order: Of → Division → Addition/Subtraction.

First, calculate Of: 18 × 2 = 36 and 13 × 2 = 26.

Then, calculate Division: 36 ÷ 3 = 12.

Combine results: 59 + 36 − 12 + 44 − 21 + 26 = 132.

∴ The correct answer is 132.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 59 + (18 of 2) − 36 ÷ 3 + 44 − 21 + 13 of 2

Method Used: Apply the BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 59 + (18 × 2) − 36 ÷ 3 + 44 − 21 + (13 × 2)

⇒ 59 + 36 − 36 ÷ 3 + 44 − 21 + 26

⇒ 59 + 36 − 12 + 44 − 21 + 26

⇒ (59 + 36 + 44 + 26) − (12 + 21)

⇒ 165 − 33

⇒ 132

∴ The correct answer is 132.

Additional Information

BODMAS / VBODMAS Rule

This rule defines the priority of arithmetic operations: V (Vinculum/Bar), B (Brackets), O (Of/Orders), D (Division), M (Multiplication), A (Addition), and S (Subtraction).

The 'Of' Operator

In mathematical simplification, Of is treated as a multiplication that must be performed after brackets but strictly before division and multiplication.

Grouping Strategy

To minimize errors in long expressions, group all positive terms and negative terms separately before performing the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the numerator directly: 0.4 × 0.4 + 0.02 = 0.16 + 0.02 = 0.18.

Solve the denominator directly: 0.3 × 0.3 + 0.03 = 0.09 + 0.03 = 0.12.

Divide the results: 0.18 ÷ 0.12 = 18 ÷ 12 = 1.5.

∴ The correct answer is 1.5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression = (0.4 × 0.4 + 0.02) ÷ (0.3 × 0.3 + 0.03)

Method: Apply the BODMAS rule, solving brackets and multiplication before addition and division.

⇒ Numerator = 0.4 × 0.4 + 0.02

⇒ Numerator = 0.16 + 0.02 = 0.18

⇒ Denominator = 0.3 × 0.3 + 0.03

⇒ Denominator = 0.09 + 0.03 = 0.12

⇒ Expression = 0.18 ÷ 0.12

⇒ Expression = 18/12

⇒ Expression = 3/2 = 1.5

∴ The correct answer is 1.5.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

The order of operations is Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Decimal Multiplication

When multiplying decimals, the number of decimal places in the product is the sum of the decimal places in the values being multiplied (e.g., 0.4 × 0.4 = 0.16).

Simplifying Fractions

To simplify 0.18 ÷ 0.12, multiply both numerator and denominator by 100 to remove decimals, resulting in 18 ÷ 12.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the expression as the standard algebraic identity: ((a + b)² − (a − b)²) ÷ ab.

Where a = 20.8 and b = 1.2.

Since (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab, the entire expression simplifies directly to 4ab ÷ ab = 4.

The result is independent of the actual values of a and b.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Alternate Method

Given:

First value (a) = 20.8

Second value (b) = 1.2

Formula Used:

Expression = ((a + b)² − (a − b)²) ÷ (a × b)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum (a + b) = 20.8 + 1.2 = 22

⇒ Difference (a − b) = 20.8 − 1.2 = 19.6

⇒ Numerator = 22² − 19.6²

⇒ Numerator = 484 − 384.16 = 99.84

⇒ Denominator = 20.8 × 1.2 = 24.96

⇒ Final Value = 99.84 ÷ 24.96

⇒ Final Value = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

Square of Sum and Difference Identity

The difference between the square of a sum and the square of a difference is always four times the product: (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab.

Square of Sum and Difference Addition

The sum of the square of a sum and the square of a difference is twice the sum of their squares: (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²).

Difference of Two Squares

The difference of two squares is equal to the product of their sum and difference: a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b).

Shortcut Trick

Use the algebraic identity: a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b).

Let a = 81.58 and b = 29.42.

Sum (a + b) = 81.58 + 29.42 = 111

Difference (a − b) = 81.58 − 29.42 = 52.16

Product = 111 × 52.16 = 5789.76

∴ The correct answer is 5789.76.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: (81.58)² − (29.42)²

Formula Used: a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b)

⇒ a = 81.58, b = 29.42

⇒ (81.58 + 29.42) × (81.58 − 29.42)

⇒ 111 × 52.16

⇒ 111 × 52.16 = (100 + 10 + 1) × 52.16

⇒ 5216 + 521.6 + 52.16

⇒ 5789.76

∴ The correct answer is 5789.76.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identities

Standard identities like (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² and (a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b² are useful for simplifying squares of decimals.

Multiplication by 111

Multiplying any number by 111 is equivalent to (100 + 10 + 1) × Number, which allows for quick addition of shifted values.

Difference of Squares

The identity a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b) is most efficient when the sum or difference results in a round number like 100 or 111.

Shortcut Trick

The expression follows the algebraic identity a² + b² + 2ab = (a + b)².

Identify a = 320 and b = 180.

Direct calculation: (320 + 180)² = 500².

500² = 250000.

∴ The correct answer is 250000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression: (320 × 320 + 180 × 180 + 2 × 320 × 180)

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculations:

⇒ Let a = 320 and b = 180

⇒ The given expression is in the form: a² + b² + 2ab

⇒ Substituting the values: (320)² + (180)² + 2(320)(180)

⇒ According to the identity: (320 + 180)²

⇒ (500)²

⇒ 500 × 500 = 250000

∴ The correct answer is 250000.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identity for (a − b)²

The square of a difference is calculated as a² + b² − 2ab = (a − b)².

Difference of Two Squares

The identity a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b) is useful for simplifying the product of a sum and a difference.

Identity for (a + b + c)²

For three terms, the square is given by (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca.

Shortcut Trick

Side of the rhombus = 120 ÷ 4 = 30 cm.

Half of the given diagonal = 36 ÷ 2 = 18 cm.

Using the Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5) scaled by 6: (18, 24, 30).

The other half-diagonal must be 24 cm.

Total length of the other diagonal = 24 × 2 = 48 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 48 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Perimeter = 120 cm, Diagonal 1 (d₁) = 36 cm.

Formula Used: In a rhombus, the side (s) and diagonals (d₁, d₂) are related by: s² = (d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)².

⇒ Side (s) = Perimeter ÷ 4 = 120 ÷ 4 = 30 cm

⇒ Half-diagonal₁ = 36 ÷ 2 = 18 cm

⇒ 30² = 18² + (d₂/2)²

⇒ 900 = 324 + (d₂/2)²

⇒ (d₂/2)² = 900 − 324 = 576

⇒ d₂/2 = √576 = 24 cm

⇒ Diagonal 2 (d₂) = 24 × 2 = 48 cm

∴ The correct answer is 48 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Rhombus

The Area is calculated as 1/2 × d₁ × d₂. In this case, Area = 1/2 × 36 × 48 = 864 cm².

Properties of Diagonals

The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at right angles (90°) and also bisect the internal angles of the rhombus.

Side-Diagonal Relationship

The sum of the squares of the diagonals is equal to four times the square of the side: d₁² + d₂² = 4s².

Shortcut Trick

In a trapezium, the Area can be directly calculated using the median (the line joining the mid-points of non-parallel sides) and the height.

Area = Median × Height

Given: Median = 12 cm and Height = 30 cm

Area = 12 × 30 = 360 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 360 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance between parallel sides (Height, h) = 30 cm

Length of the line joining mid-points (Median, m) = 12 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a trapezium = 1/2 × (Sum of parallel sides) × Height

Median (m) = (Sum of parallel sides) ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ Let the parallel sides be a and b.

⇒ m = (a + b) ÷ 2 = 12 cm

⇒ Sum of parallel sides (a + b) = 12 × 2 = 24 cm

⇒ Area = 1/2 × (24) × 30

⇒ Area = 12 × 30

⇒ Area = 360 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 360 cm².

Additional Information

Median of a Trapezium

The line segment connecting the mid-points of the non-parallel sides is parallel to the bases and its length is the arithmetic mean of the bases: m = (a + b) ÷ 2.

Isosceles Trapezium

A trapezium where the non-parallel sides are equal in length and the base angles are equal. Its diagonals are also equal in length.

Distance Formula for Area

If a trapezium is placed on a coordinate plane, the area can also be found using the vertical distance (difference in y-coordinates) between the parallel bases.

Shortcut Trick

To find the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of decimals, first convert them into integers by multiplying with a power of 10.

Multiply 0.48, 0.64, and 0.80 by 100 to get 48, 64, and 80.

The common factor for 48, 64, and 80 is 16 (since 48 = 16 × 3, 64 = 16 × 4, and 80 = 16 × 5).

Divide the result back by 100: 16 ÷ 100 = 0.16.

∴ The correct answer is 0.16.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers 0.48, 0.64, and 0.80.

Formula Used: HCF of Fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators)

⇒ Convert decimals to fractions: 0.48 = 48/100, 0.64 = 64/100, 0.80 = 80/100

⇒ Find prime factors of numerators:

⇒ 48 = 2⁴ × 3

⇒ 64 = 2⁶

⇒ 80 = 2⁴ × 5

⇒ HCF of (48, 64, 80) = 2⁴ = 16

⇒ LCM of denominators (100, 100, 100) = 100

⇒ Required HCF = 16 / 100 = 0.16

∴ The correct answer is 0.16.

Additional Information

HCF of Fractions

The Highest Common Factor of a set of fractions is calculated as the HCF of the numerators divided by the LCM of the denominators.

LCM of Decimals

To find the Least Common Multiple, make the number of decimal places equal, find the LCM of the resulting integers, and then shift the decimal point back.

Relationship Rule

For any two numbers A and B, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: A × B = HCF × LCM.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the largest number in the set: 20.

Test the multiples of 20 to find the first one divisible by 8, 10, and 15.

Multiples: 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120.

Check: 120 ÷ 8 = 15, 120 ÷ 10 = 12, 120 ÷ 15 = 8. All are exact divisors.

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers are 8, 10, 15, and 20.

Formula: The least number exactly divisible by a set of numbers is their Least Common Multiple (LCM).

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 8 = 2 × 2 × 2 = 2³

⇒ Prime factorization of 10 = 2 × 5 = 2¹ × 5¹

⇒ Prime factorization of 15 = 3 × 5 = 3¹ × 5¹

⇒ Prime factorization of 20 = 2 × 2 × 5 = 2² × 5¹

⇒ LCM = Product of highest powers of all prime factors

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3¹ × 5¹

⇒ LCM = 8 × 3 × 5 = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Additional Information

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers a and b, the product of their HCF and LCM is equal to the product of the numbers: HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b) = a × b.

LCM of Fractions

To find the LCM of fractions, use the formula: LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators.

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime (their HCF is 1), then their LCM is always the product of the two numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Convert dimensions to cm: 456 cm and 768 cm.

The largest tile size required to pave the floor is the HCF of its dimensions.

Successive subtraction: 768 − 456 = 312; 456 − 312 = 144; 312 − (144 × 2) = 24.

Since 24 divides 144 exactly, the HCF is 24.

∴ The correct answer is 24 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the courtyard = 4.56 m = 456 cm

Width of the courtyard = 7.68 m = 768 cm

Formula Used:

The side of the largest possible square tile = HCF (Length, Width)

Calculations:

⇒ To find the HCF of 456 and 768 using the division method:

⇒ 768 = 456 × 1 + 312

⇒ 456 = 312 × 1 + 144

⇒ 312 = 144 × 2 + 24

⇒ 144 = 24 × 6 + 0

⇒ The remainder is zero, so the HCF is the last divisor.

⇒ HCF = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24 cm.

Additional Information

Total Number of Tiles

The number of tiles required to cover the area is given by: (Area of floor) ÷ (Area of one tile) = (Length × Width) ÷ (Side)².

Prime Factorization Method

HCF can also be found by writing prime factors: 456 = 2³ × 3 × 19 and 768 = 2⁸ × 3. The common factors are 2³ × 3 = 24.

Fundamental Relation

For any two numbers, the product of their HCF and LCM is equal to the product of the two numbers itself (HCF × LCM = a × b).

Shortcut Trick

Assume B = 100.

A is 5 times more than B ⇒ A = 100 + (5 × 100) = 600.

Percentage more = (Difference ÷ Base) × 100.

Percentage more = (500 ÷ 100) × 100 = 500%.

∴ The correct answer is 500 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: A is 5 times more than B.

Formula: Percentage Increase = [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100

⇒ Let the value of B be x.

⇒ A is 5 times more than B, so A = x + 5x = 6x.

⇒ The excess value of A over B = A − B = 6x − x = 5x.

⇒ Required percentage more = (Excess Value ÷ B) × 100.

⇒ Percentage more = (5x ÷ x) × 100.

⇒ Percentage more = 5 × 100 = 500%.

∴ The correct answer is 500 percent.

Additional Information

Times vs. Times More

If a value is n times of x, the value is nx. If it is n times more than x, the value is x + nx.

Percentage Comparison

When calculating X is what percent more than Y, the value Y is always the base (denominator). Formula: [(X − Y) ÷ Y] × 100.

Relationship Shortcut

If A = n × B, then A is (n − 1) × 100 percent more than B. Here A = 6B, so (6 − 1) × 100 = 500%.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) is inversely proportional to the number of articles.

CP of 120 = SP of y ⇒ CP ÷ SP = y ÷ 120

Given loss of 4%, SP = 96% of CP ⇒ CP ÷ SP = 100 ÷ 96

Equating the ratios: y ÷ 120 = 100 ÷ 96

y = (100 × 120) ÷ 96 = 125

∴ The correct answer is 125.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost price of 120 articles = Selling price of y articles

Loss percentage = 4%

Formula Used:

SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the cost price of one article be ₹1.

⇒ Total CP of 120 articles = 120 × 1 = ₹120.

⇒ According to the question, selling price of y articles = CP of 120 articles = ₹120.

⇒ SP of one article = 120 ÷ y.

⇒ Loss% = [(CP − SP) ÷ CP] × 100

⇒ 4 = [(1 − 120/y) ÷ 1] × 100

⇒ 4 ÷ 100 = 1 − 120/y

⇒ 0.04 = 1 − 120/y

⇒ 120 ÷ y = 1 − 0.04

⇒ 120 ÷ y = 0.96

⇒ y = 120 ÷ 0.96

⇒ y = 12000 ÷ 96

⇒ y = 125

∴ The correct answer is 125.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss on Article Quantity

If the cost price of 'x' articles is equal to the selling price of 'y' articles, then the Profit or Loss percentage is given by [(x − y) ÷ y] × 100. A positive result indicates profit, while a negative result indicates loss.

Relation between CP, SP and Profit/Loss

The Selling Price can be directly calculated from Cost Price using SP = CP × (100 ± P/L%) ÷ 100, where P/L is the profit or loss percentage.

Successive Discounts

When two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the equivalent single discount is (a + b − ab ÷ 100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Combined efficiency of R and S = (1/40 + 1/50) = 9/200 work/day.

Work completed in 10 days = 10 × (9/200) = 9/20 part.

∴ The correct answer is 9/20 part.

Alternate Method

Given: R alone completes work in 40 days and S alone in 50 days.

⇒ Combined efficiency of R and S = 5 + 4 = 9 units/day

⇒ Work done in 10 days = 9 × 10 = 90 units

⇒ Part of total work completed = 90 / 200 = 9/20

∴ The correct answer is 9/20 part.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

Remaining Work Calculation

If a fraction 'x' of work is completed, the remaining work is calculated as (1 − x). For this question, it would be 1 − 9/20 = 11/20.

Combined Work Formula

If two people finish work in A and B days, they finish (A + B) / (A × B) part of the work in one day.

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(8, 6, 12) = 24 units.

Efficiencies: (M + R) = 3, (R + P) = 4, (P + M) = 2.

Sum of efficiencies: 2(M + R + P) = 3 + 4 + 2 = 9 ⇒ (M + R + P) = 4.5.

Efficiency of P = (M + R + P) − (M + R) = 4.5 − 3 = 1.5 units/day.

Time for P alone = 24 ÷ 1.5 = 16 days.

∴ The correct answer is 16 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by (M + R) = 8 days, (R + P) = 6 days, (P + M) = 12 days.

Formula Used: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time taken.

Calculations:

⇒ Total efficiency of the pairs = (M + R) + (R + P) + (P + M) = 3 + 4 + 2 = 9

⇒ 2(M + R + P) = 9

⇒ Efficiency of (M + R + P) = 9 ÷ 2 = 4.5

⇒ Efficiency of P = Efficiency of (M + R + P) − Efficiency of (M + R)

⇒ Efficiency of P = 4.5 − 3 = 1.5

⇒ Time taken by P alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of P

⇒ Time = 24 ÷ 1.5 = 16 days.

∴ The correct answer is 16 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work (E ∝ 1/T).

Combined Work Rule for Pairs

When work is done in pairs (A+B, B+C, C+A), the sum of their efficiencies is always twice the combined efficiency of A, B, and C together.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the direct ratio of the work done or the ratio of efficiencies when the duration of work is the same for all.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance to be covered = Train Length + Bridge Length

Total Distance = 210 + 590 = 800 m

Time = Total Distance ÷ Speed = 800 ÷ 25

Time = 32 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 32 sec.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the Train (L₁) = 210 m

Length of the Bridge (L₂) = 590 m

Speed of the train (S) = 25 m/s

Formula Used:

Time (T) = Total Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = L₁ + L₂

⇒ Total Distance = 210 + 590 = 800 m

⇒ Time = 800 ÷ 25

⇒ Time = 32 sec

∴ The correct answer is 32 sec.

Additional Information

Crossing Objects with Length

When a train crosses a platform, bridge, or another train, the distance covered is the sum of their lengths: Distance = L_train + L_object.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed

If two trains move in the same direction, relative speed is S₁ − S₂. In opposite directions, it is S₁ + S₂.

Shortcut Trick

Since the Speed of the train is constant, Time is directly proportional to the Total Distance (Train + Bridge).

Total Distance 1 = 250 + 350 = 600 m

Total Distance 2 = 250 + 900 = 1150 m

Time Ratio = Distance Ratio = 600 : 1150 = 12 : 23

As 12 units = 12 sec, then 23 units = 23 sec.

∴ The correct answer is 23 sec.

Alternate Method

Given: Train Length = 250 m, Bridge 1 = 350 m, Time 1 = 12 sec, Bridge 2 = 900 m.

Formula Used: Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

⇒ Case 1: Total Distance 1 = 250 + 350 = 600 m

⇒ Speed of the train = 600 ÷ 12 = 50 m/sec

⇒ Case 2: Total Distance 2 = 250 + 900 = 1150 m

⇒ Time to cross the second bridge = Total Distance 2 ÷ Speed

⇒ Time = 1150 ÷ 50 = 23 sec

∴ The correct answer is 23 sec.

Additional Information

Crossing a Stationary Point Object

When a train crosses a pole, tree, or a stationary man, the distance covered is equal to the Length of the Train itself.

Crossing an Object with Length

When a train crosses a bridge, platform, or another stationary train, the distance covered is (Length of Train + Length of Object).

Relative Speed

If two objects move in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂. In the same direction, Relative Speed = S₁ − S₂.

Unit Conversion

To convert Speed from km/hr to m/sec, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/sec to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) at 30% profit is 10 : 13.

Given Discount = (2/5) SP ⇒ Ratio Discount : SP = 2 : 5.

Equating SP (LCM of 13 and 5 = 65) ⇒ CP : SP : Discount = 50 : 65 : 26.

Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount = 65 + 26 = 91.

∴ The correct answer is (50/91) of marked price.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit Percentage = 30%

Discount = (2/5) × Selling Price

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) + Profit

Marked Price (MP) = Selling Price (SP) + Discount

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of the article be 100.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 100 + 30% of 100 = 130.

⇒ Discount = (2/5) × 130 = 2 × 26 = 52.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount = 130 + 52 = 182.

⇒ To find CP in terms of MP: CP/MP = 100/182.

⇒ Dividing numerator and denominator by 2 ⇒ CP/MP = 50/91.

⇒ CP = (50/91) × MP.

∴ The correct answer is (50/91) of marked price.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP and MP

The ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price can be directly calculated as CP/MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%).

Discount Percentage

Discount% is always calculated on the Marked Price. Discount% = (Discount / MP) × 100.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁ and d₂ are given, the equivalent single discount is (d₁ + d₂ − d₁×d₂/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

To find Selling Price (SP), apply the multiplier (100 − D%) / 100 to the Marked Price (MP).

For Option 4: MP = ₹5000 and Discount = 30%

SP = 5000 × 0.70 = ₹3500.

Check other options: 4000 × 0.85 = 3400; 4500 × 0.90 = 4050; 5500 × 0.60 = 3300.

∴ The correct answer is Marked price = ₹5000 and Discount = 30%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹5000

Discount Percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount Amount

Discount Amount = (Discount % / 100) × MP

Calculations:

⇒ Discount Amount = (30 / 100) × 5000

⇒ Discount Amount = 30 × 50 = ₹1500

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 5000 − 1500

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = ₹3500

∴ The correct answer is Marked price = ₹5000 and Discount = 30%.

Additional Information

Relationship between MP, SP, and CP

Marked Price (MP) is the price printed on an item. Selling Price (SP) = MP × (100 − Discount%)/100. Also, SP = Cost Price (CP) × (100 + Profit%)/100.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the single equivalent discount is (a + b − ab/100)%.

Markup Percentage

Markup% = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100. It represents how much the price is increased above the cost price before offering a discount.

Shortcut Trick

Let Cost Price (CP) = 100%, then Marked Price (MP) = 120% and Selling Price (SP) = 110%.

Given MP = 120% = Rs. 1200 ⇒ 1% = Rs. 10.

∴ SP = 110% = 110 × 10 = Rs. 1100.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1100.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 1200, Markup Percentage = 20%, Profit Percentage = 10%.

Formula Used: CP = MP ÷ (1 + Markup%) and SP = CP × (1 + Profit%)

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = 1200 ÷ (1 + 20/100)

⇒ CP = 1200 ÷ 1.2 = Rs. 1000

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = CP × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ SP = 1000 × 1.1 = Rs. 1100

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1100.

Additional Information

CP, MP, Profit and Discount Relation

The direct ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price is given by CP / MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%).

Markup Percentage

Markup percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price: Markup% = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100.

Discount Calculation

Discount is the reduction offered on the Marked Price: Discount = MP − SP. Discount% = (Discount / MP) × 100.

The correct answer is: To be very happy or pleased.

Key Points

• The idiom 'to be chuffed to bits' is a British colloquial expression used to describe someone who is extremely pleased, delighted, or proud of a particular outcome. (बहुत प्रसन्न या खुश होना)
• Example: I was chuffed to bits when I found out that I had passed my final exams with such high marks.
• 'To be very happy or pleased' is the literal interpretation of the idiom, signifying a high state of joy and satisfaction. (बहुत खुश या प्रसन्न होना)
• Example: The team was very happy or pleased to receive the championship trophy after months of hard work.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of the idiom 'to be chuffed to bits' is to be very happy.

Therefore, the correct answer is: To be very happy or pleased.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To be very sad or gloomy (बहुत उदास या निराशाजनक): Refers to a state of being unhappy, dejected, or in low spirits.
• Example: The rainy weather and the loss of the game made him feel very sad or gloomy.
• To shatter the heart to bits (दिल को टुकड़े-टुकड़े कर देना): This phrase means to cause someone extreme emotional pain or deep sorrow.
• Example: The sudden news of her departure was enough to shatter his heart to bits.
• To feel very angry (बहुत गुस्सा महसूस करना): To experience a strong feeling of annoyance, displeasure, or hostility.
• Example: He began to feel very angry when he realized that his hard work was being ignored by the manager.

The correct answer is: A sharp, strident, or disconcerting reproof or rebuff.

Key Points

• The idiom 'a flea in one's ear' refers to an unwelcome or stinging rebuff, or a sharp scolding given to someone. (कड़ी फटकार)
• Example: He went to the manager to ask for a promotion, but he came back with a flea in his ear.
• 'A sharp, strident, or disconcerting reproof or rebuff' means a severe, loud, or upsetting expression of disapproval or rejection. (तीव्र, कर्कश, या निराशाजनक फटकार या तिरस्कार)
• Example: The player received a sharp reproof from the coach for breaking the team rules.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of the idiom 'a flea in one's ear' is 'a sharp, strident, or disconcerting reproof or rebuff'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: A sharp, strident, or disconcerting reproof or rebuff.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• In good health (स्वस्थ): To be physically and mentally fit and free from illness.
• Example: My grandmother is nearly 90 years old, but she is still in good health.
• A private, often brief, communication with one, often to issue a suggestion or warning (एक निजी और संक्षिप्त संचार): This refers to the act of speaking to someone privately to give advice or a caution.
• Example: The teacher had a private communication with the student to issue a warning about his grades.
• To harm nothing or no one (किसी को नुकसान न पहुँचाना): To be completely harmless or to act in a way that causes no injury.
• Example: The stray dog was very gentle and would harm nothing or no one.

The correct answer is: Pecuniary.

Key Points

• The word 'Pecuniary' refers to something that is relating to or consisting of money or financial matters. (धन संबंधी)
• Example: He was more interested in pecuniary gain than in the prestige of the job.
• 'Pecuniary' is correctly spelled in option 2. It is derived from the Latin word 'pecunia', meaning money. (वित्तीय)
• Example: The court ordered the defendant to pay pecuniary damages to the plaintiff.
• Hence, we can conclude that the correctly spelled word among the primary choices is 'Pecuniary'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Pecuniary.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their correct spellings and Hindi meanings:

• Paucity (कमी): This is the correct spelling of 'Pawcity'. it refers to the presence of something in only small or insufficient quantities.
• Example: There is a paucity of information regarding the new government policy.
• Pernicious (हानिकारक): This is the correct spelling of 'Pernecious'. it means having a harmful or destructive effect, especially in a gradual way.
• Example: The pernicious effects of constant stress on the body are well documented.
• Pliable (लचीला): This word is also correctly spelled and refers to something that is easy to bend or easily influenced.
• Example: The material is pliable enough to be molded into various intricate shapes.

The correct answer is Option(2) i.e. High.

Key Points

• The word 'lofty' refers to something that is of imposing height, or someone having an elevated, noble, or superior character. (बुलंद/ऊँचा)
• Example: The travelers gazed up at the lofty peaks of the mountains with wonder.
• 'High' refers to a great or considerable distance reaching upwards; it describes something situated far above the ground or some other level. (ऊँचा)
• Example: The eagle built its nest high on the rocky cliff to protect its young.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate synonym for 'lofty' is 'high'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- High.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Low (नीचा/कम): Something that is situated not far above the ground or below the normal level.
• Example: The sun was low in the sky as the day came to an end.
• Flat (समतल/सपाट): Having a level surface without any raised areas, lumps, or holes.
• Example: The desert stretched out before them, a vast and flat expanse of sand.
• Narrow (संकीर्ण/तंग): Something that has a small distance from side to side in relation to its length.
• Example: The car struggled to pass through the narrow streets of the village.

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e. Gradually.

Key Points

• The word suddenly means something that happens or is done very quickly and unexpectedly. (अचानक)
• Example: The car came to a suddenly halt when the driver saw the obstacle in the road.
• Gradually refers to something that happens by small degrees or slowly over a period of time, rather than all at once. (धीरे-धीरे)
• Example: As the sun rose, the fog began to gradually disappear from the valley.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate antonym of suddenly is gradually.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Gradually.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Quickly (जल्दी से): Moving or capable of moving with high speed.
• Example: She quickly finished her work to leave the office early.
• Immediately (तुरंत): Occurring at once or without any delay.
• Example: Please call the doctor immediately if the fever increases.
• Rapidly (तेजी से): At a great rate or very fast.
• Example: The city is growing rapidly due to the new industrial projects.

The correct answer is: Dull.

Key Points

• The word 'Exciting' refers to something that causes great enthusiasm, eagerness, or interest. (उत्साहजनक)
• Example: The announcement of the vacation was very exciting for the children.
• 'Dull' refers to something that lacks interest or excitement; it is often used to describe things that are boring or monotonous. (सुस्त)
• Example: The long lecture on accounting was quite dull and repetitive.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'exciting' is 'dull'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dull.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Thrilling (रोमांचकारी): Causing a sudden feeling of excitement and pleasure.
• Example: It was a thrilling experience to watch the race from the front row.
• Stimulating (उत्तेजक): Something that encourages new ideas or enthusiasm.
• Example: The seminar provided a stimulating discussion on environmental issues.
• Fascinating (आकर्षक): Extremely interesting or charming.
• Example: The museum had a fascinating exhibit on ancient Egyptian artifacts.

pThe correct answer is: siesta.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A short nap taken in the afternoon' refers to a brief period of sleep or rest during the daytime, typically following a midday meal. (दोपहर की नींद)
• Example: It is common in many Mediterranean cultures to take a short nap in the afternoon to escape the heat.
• 'Siesta' is the specific term used to describe a short nap or rest taken in the early afternoon, often to avoid the peak heat of the day. (दोपहर का आराम)
• Example: After a long lunch, he decided to have a siesta before returning to work.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitution for 'a short nap taken in the afternoon' is 'siesta'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- siesta.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Faux Pas (सामाजिक भूल): An embarrassing or tactless act or remark in a social situation.
• Example: Arriving at the formal party in casual jeans was a major faux pas.
• Rendezvous (मिलन-स्थल): A meeting at an agreed time and place, typically between two people.
• Example: The two friends agreed on a rendezvous at the local cafe at 5 PM.
• Kitsch (दिखावटी या फूहड़ कला): Art, objects, or design considered to be in poor taste because of excessive garishness or sentimentality.
• Example: The living room was decorated with cheap plastic statues and other bits of kitsch.

The correct answer is: Hypochondriac.

Key Points

• The phrase 'One who thinks they are ill all the time' refers to a person who suffers from health anxiety and is constantly worried that they have a serious medical condition, despite having little or no medical evidence. (वह व्यक्ति जो हर समय खुद को बीमार समझता हो)
• Example: My cousin is a hypochondriac who believes that every minor headache is the symptom of something dangerous.
• 'Hypochondriac' refers to a person who is abnormally anxious about their health and frequently imagines they are suffering from various diseases. (रोगभ्रमी)
• Example: Even after the doctor gave him a clean bill of health, the hypochondriac remained convinced he was ill.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitution for the given description is 'Hypochondriac'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Hypochondriac.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Misanthrope (मानवद्वेषी): A person who dislikes humankind and avoids human society.
• Example: The old misanthrope lived alone in the mountains and never welcomed visitors.
• Narcissist (आत्ममुग्ध ): A person who has an excessive interest in or admiration of themselves and their physical appearance.
• Example: The narcissist spent hours talking about his own achievements without ever asking about anyone else.
• Chiropodist (पादचिकित्सक): A specialist who treats minor disorders and ailments of the feet.
• Example: I had to visit a chiropodist to treat a painful corn on my foot.

The correct answer is 'by'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition 'by' is used to identify the method, means, or agency through which an action is performed.
• The phrase 'by unfair means' is a common idiomatic expression used to indicate that someone is using dishonest or unethical ways to achieve a result.
• In the context of earning money, 'by' correctly connects the action to the method used.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 do not fit grammatically or idiomatically with the word 'means' in this sentence structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: 'A few people dislike earning money by unfair means.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'on' is generally used to denote position on a surface or specific days and dates.
• Option 3: 'in' is used for enclosed spaces, geographic locations, or months/years.
• Option 4: 'for' typically indicates purpose, duration, or reason.

The correct answer is Several endangered species have been saved by the conservation team this year..

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the Active Voice and uses the Present Perfect Tense. The structure follows: Subject + has/have + Past Participle (V3) + Object.
• In the original sentence, The conservation team is the Subject, has saved is the Verb, and several endangered species is the Object.
• To convert a Present Perfect sentence into Passive Voice, the structure used is: New Subject (Original Object) + has/have + been + Past Participle (V3) + by + New Object (Original Subject).
• The phrase several endangered species is plural; therefore, the auxiliary verb have must be used instead of has to maintain Subject-Verb Agreement.
• The Past Participle form of the verb save is saved, which remains the same in the passive construction.
• The adjunct of time, this year, is placed at the end of the sentence to maintain the original meaning and flow.

 Additional Information

• Review of incorrect options based on Tense:
• Simple Present Passive: Uses is/am/are + V3. Option 1 is incorrect because it changes the Present Perfect to Simple Present.
• Simple Past Passive: Uses was/were + V3. Option 2 is incorrect because it shifts the tense to the Past.
• Past Perfect Passive: Uses had been + V3. Option 3 is incorrect because it uses the Past Perfect tense instead of Present Perfect.
• General Rule for Passive Voice:
• The Subject and Object interchange their positions.
• The preposition by is typically used before the agent (the doer of the action).
• The Passive Voice always requires a form of the verb to be followed by the Past Participle.

The correct answer is Will her thesis have been submitted before mine is?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Future Perfect Tense in its Interrogative form. The active voice structure for this tense is: Will + Subject + have + V3 (Past Participle) + Object?
• To convert a sentence from the Future Perfect Active to Passive Voice, the structure must change to: Will + Object (as new subject) + have been + V3 + (by + Subject)?
• In the provided sentence, she is the Subject, submitted is the Verb, and her thesis is the Direct Object.
• During conversion, the object her thesis moves to the front of the sentence (after the auxiliary Will), and the verb phrase have submitted transforms into have been submitted.
• The phrase before mine is functions as an Adverbial Clause of Time and remains unchanged in the passive construction.
• In Passive Voice, the agent (by her) is often omitted if the focus is entirely on the action or the object, which is consistent with the most grammatically accurate option provided.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of incorrect options:
• Option 1 is incorrect because it uses the Future Indefinite Passive structure (be submitted) instead of the Future Perfect.
• Option 3 is grammatically flawed as it omits the auxiliary verb have, which is required before been in the perfect tense.
• Option 4 is incorrect because it lacks the necessary auxiliary verbs have been and uses incorrect syntax in the terminal clause.
• Voice Conversion Rules:
• The Past Participle form of the verb is mandatory in all passive voice sentences.
• The Tense of the sentence must never change during the transformation from active to passive.
• In Interrogative sentences, the Auxiliary Verb (Will) must remain at the beginning of the sentence to maintain the question format.

The correct answer is Don't keep the guests waiting at the gate..

Key Points

• The provided sentence is a Negative Imperative sentence currently in the Passive Voice. The grammatical structure of such sentences usually follows the pattern: Let + Object + not + be + V3 (Past Participle).
• In this sentence, the guests is the Direct Object, not is the negative particle, and kept is the Past Participle of the verb keep.
• To convert a negative imperative from Passive to Active Voice, the word Let and the auxiliary verb be are removed. The sentence must then begin with the negative auxiliary Don't (or Do not) to maintain the imperative mood.
• In the Active Voice, the verb must return to its Base Form (V1). Therefore, the participle kept is transformed back into the root verb keep.
• The final structure for the active conversion is: Don't + Base Verb + Object + Complement. Following this rule results in: Don't keep the guests waiting at the gate.

 Additional Information

• Imperative Mood and Voice:
• Imperative Sentences are used to convey commands, requests, or prohibitions. In these sentences, the subject You is always implied but rarely explicitly stated in the Active Voice.
• In Active Voice, a positive command starts directly with the verb (e.g., Keep the gate shut), whereas in Passive Voice, it typically starts with Let (e.g., Let the gate be kept shut).
• Transformation of Negation:
• In the Active Voice, the prohibition is signaled by Don't at the beginning of the sentence.
• In the Passive Voice, the word not is positioned between the object and the auxiliary be. Incorrect options often fail to maintain this specific relationship or alter the tense and mood of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'to'.

 

Key Points

• The verb apologize is commonly used with the preposition to when it refers to the person receiving the apology.
• The general grammatical structure followed is: apologize + to + someone + for + something.
• In the given sentence, Ravi is the person being apologized to, so the preposition to is required to complete the phrase correctly.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 do not fit the grammatical requirement for identifying the recipient in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: 'Tina must apologize to Ravi for her misbehaviour.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'with' is incorrect because we do not apologize 'with' a person to express regret; it implies accompaniment.
• Option 2: 'for' is used to indicate the reason for the apology (e.g., apologize for the delay), which already appears later in the sentence (for her misbehaviour).
• Option 4: 'al' is not a standard English preposition and is grammatically irrelevant.

The correct answer is groundbreaking research in genetics.

Key Points

• The term groundbreaking is a compound adjective that characterizes scientific research or pioneering discoveries that represent a significant innovation; it metaphorically refers to breaking new ground in a specific academic discipline.
• Genetics is the biological science that studies heredity, genes, and genetic variation in organisms; the term was formally coined by the British biologist William Bateson in 1905.
• In formal English, research is typically treated as an uncountable noun, and the prepositional phrase in genetics correctly identifies the scientific field or domain of the scientist's work.
• The original sentence is grammatically sound as the word groundbreaking is the most idiomatic and formal choice for describing award-winning research, making this phrase the correct choice for the sentence.

 Additional Information

• Groundshaking and Genetic
• Groundshaking: This adjective usually describes literal seismic activity (earthquakes) or metaphorical shocks that cause great surprise, but it is not the standard collocation used for academic research.
• Genetic: This is an adjectival form (e.g., genetic engineering); when referring to the entire field of study, the noun genetics (with the -ics suffix) must be used.
• Common Errors
• Orthographic Errors: Terms like groundbraking are misspellings; braking refers to slowing down a vehicle, while breaking refers to shattering or opening something.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Sentence S1 is the fixed starting sentence which introduces the setting: the walls were filled with pictures and calendars.
• Sentence D is the second sentence as it provides a detailed description of the various photographs and pictures mentioned in S1, specifically describing an old couple and a man with bushy eyebrows.
• Sentence A follows D because Mrs. Connin identifies the man described in the previous sentence as Mr. Connin, commenting that the picture does not look like him anymore.
• Sentence C is the fourth sentence as it describes the protagonist, Bevel, turning his attention away from Mr. Connin to a different coloured picture located over the bed, featuring a man in a white sheet.
• Sentence B follows C by providing the visual details of the man in the white sheet, mentioning long hair, a gold circle (halo), and the act of sawing on a board.
• Sentence S2 is the fixed concluding sentence which explains that Bevel was about to ask about the identity of the man in the carpentry scene when he was interrupted.
• The correct sequence is DACB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'The walls were filled with pictures and calendars. There were two round photographs of an old man and woman with collapsed mouths and another picture of a man whose eyebrows dashed out of two bushes of hair and clashed in a heap on the bridge of his nose; the rest of his face stuck out like a bare cliff to fall from. 'That's Mr. Connin,' Mrs. Connin said, standing back from the stove for a sec to admire the face with him, 'but it don't favor him anymore.' Bevel turned from Mr. Connin to a coloured picture over the bed of a man wearing a white sheet. He had long hair and a gold circle around his head and he was sawing on a board while some children stood watching him. He was going to ask who that was when the three boys came in again and motioned for him to follow them.'

The correct answer is 'boarded'.

Key Points

• The passage is a narrative written in the past tense, as indicated by the opening phrase 'It was a rainy evening'.
• The sequence of events follows a specific timeline in the past. After 'It was a rainy evening', the next action is that Rohan got onto the bus.
• To describe a completed action in the past, we use the Simple Past Tense. The simple past form of the verb 'board' is 'boarded'.
• The following sentence uses the past perfect 'had just finished', which supports the context that the entire story is set in the past.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: It was a rainy evening when Rohan 1. boarded a crowded city bus. He had just finished his tuition classes and was eager to reach home. As he searched for his ticket, he 2. suddenly realized his wallet was missing. His heart began to race. Had he dropped it, or had someone stolen it? 'Don’t panic, think carefully,' he told himself. He remembered using the wallet 3. at a small tea stall near the bus stop. Could it still be there? What if someone else had already picked it up? When the bus stopped at the next signal, Rohan quickly got down. 'Please hurry, I must go back!' he whispered under his breath. He ran in the rain, splashing through puddles, his mind full of fear and hope. To his surprise, the tea vendor smiled and said, 'Young man, you left this behind.' He held out the wet but safe wallet. What a 4. relief it was! Rohan almost shouted with joy. He thanked the vendor again and again. This small 5. incident taught Rohan a big lesson. He realized that not everyone in the world is dishonest, and kindness often appears when least expected. As he walked home in the rain, he thought, 'I will never be careless with my belongings again!'

Additional Information

• 'Board' is the base form/present tense, which does not match the established past tense of the story.
• 'Boards' is the third-person singular present tense; it is grammatically incorrect for a past narrative.
• 'Has boarded' is the present perfect tense, used for actions that happened at an unspecified time or have current relevance, which does not fit a story describing specific past events.

The correct answer is 'suddenly'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence describes a moment of discovery where Rohan reaches for his ticket and finds his wallet missing.
• A realization of this nature, especially one that causes a person's heart to race, happens in an instant.
• "Suddenly" is an adverb that means quickly and unexpectedly, which perfectly fits the narrative of a shocking discovery.
• The other options do not fit: 'Gradually' implies a slow process, 'Eventually' suggests it happened after a long time, and 'Rarely' describes frequency rather than the timing of a single event.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: It was a rainy evening when Rohan 1. boarded a crowded city bus. He had just finished his tuition classes and was eager to reach home. As he searched for his ticket, he 2. suddenly realized his wallet was missing. His heart began to race. Had he dropped it, or had someone stolen it? “Don’t panic, think carefully,” he told himself. He remembered using the wallet 3. at a small tea stall near the bus stop. Could it still be there? What if someone else had already picked it up? When the bus stopped at the next signal, Rohan quickly got down. “Please hurry, I must go back!” he whispered under his breath. He ran in the rain, splashing through puddles, his mind full of fear and hope. To his surprise, the tea vendor smiled and said, “Young man, you left this behind.” He held out the wet but safe wallet. What a 4. relief it was! Rohan almost shouted with joy. He thanked the vendor again and again. This small 5. incident taught Rohan a big lesson. He realized that not everyone in the world is dishonest, and kindness often appears when least expected. As he walked home in the rain, he thought, “I will never be careless with my belongings again!”

 

Additional Information

• Gradually: means taking place or moving by small degrees; slowly.
• Eventually: means in the end, especially after a long delay, dispute, or series of events.
• Rarely: means not often; seldom.

The correct answer is 'at'.

Key Points

• The sentence requires a preposition to indicate the specific location where Rohan last used his wallet.
• 'At' is used to denote a specific point, location, or place (e.g., at the corner, at the door, at the shop).
• 'A small tea stall' serves as a precise point in space where the action occurred, making 'at' the most grammatically correct choice.
• Other options like 'on' (indicating a surface), 'into' (indicating movement inside), and 'by' (indicating proximity or method) do not fit the context of being present at a specific spot.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage: It was a rainy evening when Rohan 1. boarded a crowded city bus. He had just finished his tuition classes and was eager to reach home. As he searched for his ticket, he 2. suddenly realized his wallet was missing. His heart began to race. Had he dropped it, or had someone stolen it? 'Don’t panic, think carefully,' he told himself. He remembered using the wallet 3. at a small tea stall near the bus stop. Could it still be there? What if someone else had already picked it up? When the bus stopped at the next signal, Rohan quickly got down. 'Please hurry, I must go back!' he whispered under his breath. He ran in the rain, splashing through puddles, his mind full of fear and hope. To his surprise, the tea vendor smiled and said, 'Young man, you left this behind.' He held out the wet but safe wallet. What a 4. relief it was! Rohan almost shouted with joy. He thanked the vendor again and again. This small 5. incident taught Rohan a big lesson. He realized that not everyone in the world is dishonest, and kindness often appears when least expected. As he walked home in the rain, he thought, 'I will never be careless with my belongings again!'

Additional Information

• On: Usually refers to a position on a surface (e.g., The book is on the table).
• Into: Suggests movement from the outside to the inside of a three-dimensional space (e.g., He walked into the house).
• By: Often means 'near' or 'next to', or indicates the person/thing performing an action (e.g., I sat by the window).

The correct answer is 'Comfort'.

Key Points

• The word 'relief' refers to a feeling of reassurance and relaxation following the release from anxiety or distress.
• In the context of the story, Rohan is extremely worried about his lost wallet. When he finds it safe with the tea vendor, his worry is replaced by a sense of peace.
• 'Comfort' is the most suitable synonym here as it denotes a state of physical or mental ease and the alleviation of anxiety.
• The other options do not fit: 'Anxiety' is an antonym (worry); 'Burden' refers to a heavy load or hardship; and 'Pressure' refers to stress or physical force.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: It was a rainy evening when Rohan 1. boarded a crowded city bus. He had just finished his tuition classes and was eager to reach home. As he searched for his ticket, he 2. suddenly realized his wallet was missing. His heart began to race. Had he dropped it, or had someone stolen it? "Don’t panic, think carefully," he told himself. He remembered using the wallet 3. at a small tea stall near the bus stop. Could it still be there? What if someone else had already picked it up? When the bus stopped at the next signal, Rohan quickly got down. "Please hurry, I must go back!" he whispered under his breath. He ran in the rain, splashing through puddles, his mind full of fear and hope. To his surprise, the tea vendor smiled and said, "Young man, you left this behind." He held out the wet but safe wallet. What a 4. relief it was! Rohan almost shouted with joy. He thanked the vendor again and again. This small 5. incident taught Rohan a big lesson. He realized that not everyone in the world is dishonest, and kindness often appears when least expected. As he walked home in the rain, he thought, "I will never be careless with my belongings again!"

Additional Information

• Anxiety: A feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease, typically about an imminent event or something with an uncertain outcome.
• Burden: A duty or misfortune that causes hardship, anxiety, or grief.
• Pressure: The use of persuasion, influence, or intimidation to make someone do something, or the state of being stressed.

The correct answer is 'A small event or occurrence'.

Key Points

• The word 'incident' is used in the passage to describe the sequence of events involving Rohan losing his wallet and finding it again.
• In English, an 'incident' refers to an individual occurrence or event, often one that is minor or serves as a specific example of something.
• Within the context of the story, the experience at the tea stall is a specific situation that happened once, making it a small event rather than a habit or a major catastrophe.
• Therefore, the most suitable definition among the given choices is 'A small event or occurrence'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: It was a rainy evening when Rohan 1. boarded a crowded city bus. He had just finished his tuition classes and was eager to reach home. As he searched for his ticket, he 2. suddenly realized his wallet was missing. His heart began to race. Had he dropped it, or had someone stolen it? 'Don’t panic, think carefully,' he told himself. He remembered using the wallet 3. at a small tea stall near the bus stop. Could it still be there? What if someone else had already picked it up? When the bus stopped at the next signal, Rohan quickly got down. 'Please hurry, I must go back!' he whispered under his breath. He ran in the rain, splashing through puddles, his mind full of fear and hope. To his surprise, the tea vendor smiled and said, 'Young man, you left this behind.' He held out the wet but safe wallet. What a 4. relief it was! Rohan almost shouted with joy. He thanked the vendor again and again. This small 5. incident taught Rohan a big lesson. He realized that not everyone in the world is dishonest, and kindness often appears when least expected. As he walked home in the rain, he thought, 'I will never be careless with my belongings again!'

Additional Information

• Major accident: Refers to a significant, often destructive or harmful event (e.g., a car crash).
• Repeated habit: Something that a person does regularly or frequently.
• Planned action: An event that was intended or organized in advance; Rohan did not plan to lose his wallet.

अशुद्ध शब्द है - निरसता

Key Points

• दिए गए विकल्पों में निरसता अशुद्ध शब्द है, इसका शुद्ध रूप नीरसता होता है।
• नीरसता का अर्थ रसहीनता, उत्साह का अभाव या फीकापन होता है।
• इस शब्द में न वर्ण में ई (बड़ी ई) की मात्रा का प्रयोग होना चाहिए, जबकि विकल्प में इ (छोटी इ) का प्रयोग किया गया है।
• लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी या अक्षरी कहते हैं। यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होता है, तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध हो जाती है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

शुद्ध शब्द है - रामचंद्र

Key Points

• दिए गए विकल्पों में 'रामचंद्र' की वर्तनी पूर्णतः शुद्ध है।
• यह शब्द 'राम' और 'चंद्र' के संयोग से बना है, जिसका अर्थ है राम रूपी चंद्रमा।
• उच्चारण के आधार पर वर्णों के सही विन्यास और मात्राओं के उचित प्रयोग को वर्तनी कहा जाता है।
• हिंदी में पंचमाक्षर के स्थान पर अनुस्वार (ं) का प्रयोग मानक माना जाता है, इसलिए 'रामचंद्र' सही रूप है।

Additional Informationकुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

शुद्ध शब्द है - संशोधित

Key Points

• दिए गए विकल्पों में 'संशोधित' शब्द की वर्तनी पूर्णतः शुद्ध है।
• यह शब्द 'सं' (उपसर्ग) + 'शोध' (मूल शब्द) + 'इत' (प्रत्यय) के मेल से बना है।
• इसका अर्थ 'सुधारा हुआ', 'परिमार्जित' या 'जिसका शोधन किया गया हो' होता है।
• वर्तनी: लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं। यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होता है, तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध हो जाती है।

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है - वेशभूषा

Key Points

• वेशभूषा शब्द की वर्तनी व्याकरणिक रूप से शुद्ध है।
• इसका अर्थ व्यक्ति का पहनावा, वस्त्र या बाहरी रूप-रंग होता है।
• शब्दों में वर्णों के निश्चित क्रम को वर्तनी या अक्षरी कहते हैं। शुद्ध वर्तनी के लिए शब्दों का सही उच्चारण आवश्यक है।
• इस शब्द में तालव्य 'श' और मूर्धन्य 'ष' का प्रयोग उनके सही स्थान पर किया गया है, तथा 'भू' में दीर्घ उकार की मात्रा का प्रयोग हुआ है।

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

सही उत्तर है- हिरासत

Key Points

• अंग्रेजी शब्द 'Custody' का सही हिंदी पारिभाषिक अर्थ 'हिरासत' या 'अभिरक्षा' होता है।
• कानूनी संदर्भ में, जब किसी व्यक्ति को पुलिस या किसी अन्य प्राधिकारी द्वारा कानूनी तौर पर कैद में रखा जाता है, तो उसे हिरासत कहा जाता है।
• उदाहरण के तौर पर: 'The suspect is currently in police custody.' (संदिग्ध वर्तमान में पुलिस की हिरासत में है।)
• इसका उपयोग देखभाल या संरक्षण (जैसे बच्चों के मामले में) के लिए भी किया जाता है: 'The mother was awarded custody of the child.' (माता को बच्चे की अभिरक्षा/हिरासत प्रदान की गई।)

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 प्रशासनिक शब्दावली का महत्व-

1. शुद्धता: प्रशासनिक और कानूनी कार्यों में शब्दों का सटीक अर्थ होना अनिवार्य है ताकि कोई भ्रम न हो।
2. एकरूपता: सरकारी दस्तावेजों में पूरे देश में एक ही अर्थ वाले शब्दों का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
3. विधिक मान्यता: 'हिरासत' जैसे शब्द भारतीय दंड संहिता (IPC) और अन्य कानूनों में विशिष्ट अर्थ रखते हैं।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- साक्ष्य

Key Points

• अंग्रेजी शब्द 'Evidence' का सही हिंदी पारिभाषिक अर्थ 'साक्ष्य' होता है।
• विधिक और प्रशासनिक संदर्भ में, किसी तथ्य या दावे को सिद्ध करने के लिए प्रस्तुत किए जाने वाले तथ्यों, आंकड़ों या सामग्रियों को साक्ष्य कहा जाता है।
• उदाहरण के तौर पर: 'The police are looking for more evidence.' (पुलिस और अधिक साक्ष्य की तलाश कर रही है।)
• एक अन्य उदाहरण: 'There is no evidence to support your claim.' (आपके दावे का समर्थन करने के लिए कोई साक्ष्य नहीं है।)

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 पारिभाषिक शब्दावली के बारे में-

1. विधिक शब्दावली: न्यायालय और कानून की प्रक्रिया में प्रयोग होने वाले विशिष्ट शब्द।
2. प्रशासनिक शब्दावली: सरकारी कामकाज, कार्यालयों और पत्राचार में प्रयुक्त होने वाले शब्द।
3. साक्ष्य और प्रमाण में सूक्ष्म अंतर है; 'साक्ष्य' प्रक्रिया का हिस्सा है जबकि 'प्रमाण' अंतिम निष्कर्ष या पुष्टि है।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- अपराध डाटाबेस

Key Points

• अपराध डाटाबेस (Crime Database) एक ऐसी डिजिटल प्रणाली है जिसका उपयोग कानून प्रवर्तन एजेंसियों द्वारा अपराधियों से संबंधित व्यापक जानकारी एकत्र करने और प्रबंधित करने के लिए किया जाता है।
• इस प्रणाली में अपराधी का नाम, पता, फोटो, उंगलियों के निशान (Fingerprints), और उनके द्वारा किए गए अपराधों का पूरा इतिहास दर्ज होता है।
• डिजिटल होने के कारण, इस जानकारी को बहुत कम समय में कहीं से भी एक्सेस किया जा सकता है, जो जांच और पहचान की प्रक्रिया को तेज बनाता है।
• भारत में CCTNS (Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems) इसी प्रकार की एक महत्वपूर्ण डिजिटल प्रणाली है जो देश भर के पुलिस स्टेशनों को जोड़ती है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 डिजिटल पुलिसिंग के लाभ-

1. त्वरित पहुँच: अपराधियों की पहचान के लिए देशव्यापी डेटा तक त्वरित पहुँच प्राप्त होती है।
2. डेटा सुरक्षा: भौतिक फाइलों की तुलना में डिजिटल डेटा अधिक सुरक्षित और स्थायी होता है।
3. विश्लेषण: अपराध के पैटर्न को समझने के लिए डेटा एनालिटिक्स का उपयोग किया जा सकता है।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- प्रतिपरीक्षा

Key Points

• कानूनी शब्दावली में अंग्रेजी शब्द 'Cross-examination' का हिंदी अर्थ 'प्रतिपरीक्षा' होता है।
• जब किसी गवाह द्वारा मुख्य परीक्षा (Examination-in-chief) में दिए गए बयानों की सत्यता को परखने के लिए विपक्षी दल का वकील उससे सवाल पूछता है, तो उसे प्रतिपरीक्षा कहा जाता है।
• इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य गवाह की विश्वसनीयता को चुनौती देना और छिपे हुए तथ्यों को बाहर लाना होता है।
• भारतीय साक्ष्य अधिनियम (Indian Evidence Act) की धारा 137 (अब नए कानूनों के तहत प्रासंगिक धाराएं) में गवाहों की परीक्षा का क्रम बताया गया है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 न्यायालय में गवाहों की परीक्षा के प्रकार:

1. मुख्य परीक्षा (Examination-in-chief): जिस पक्ष ने गवाह को बुलाया है, उसके द्वारा की जाने वाली परीक्षा।
2. प्रतिपरीक्षा (Cross-examination): विपक्षी पक्ष द्वारा गवाह से की जाने वाली पूछताछ।
3. पुनः परीक्षा (Re-examination): प्रतिपरीक्षा के बाद, यदि आवश्यक हो, तो बुलाने वाले पक्ष द्वारा गवाह से की जाने वाली परीक्षा।

Additional Information

‘ऐसा स्थान जहाँ अधिक सुरक्षा चाहिए’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - संवेदनशील क्षेत्र।

Key Points

• ‘ऐसा स्थान जहाँ अधिक सुरक्षा चाहिए’ वाक्यांश के लिए सही एक शब्द ‘संवेदनशील क्षेत्र’ है।
• ‘संवेदनशील क्षेत्र’ (Sensitive Area) का आशय उस भौगोलिक या सामाजिक स्थान से है जो सुरक्षा, सामरिक महत्व या किसी विशेष खतरे की दृष्टि से अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण होता है और जहाँ विशेष निगरानी की आवश्यकता होती है।
• जब किसी बड़े विचार या वाक्यांश को एक संक्षिप्त और प्रभावशाली शब्द में समेटा जाता है, तो उसे ‘वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द’ कहा जाता है।
• इसका प्रयोग करने से भाषा में स्पष्टता, संक्षिप्तता और गंभीरता आती है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -