SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 28 Apr, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is,

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Thus, the missing term in the series is 124.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1';

The logic followed here is,

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Thus, the missing term in the series is −23693.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1';

The logic followed in this pattern is a combination of alphabetical shifts and opposite letter relationships.

For 'EN' related to 'YM':

For 'DP' related to 'XK':

Applying the same logic to find the cluster related to 'DJ':

Thus, JQ is related to DJ.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed in this pattern is a consistent alphabetical shift between consecutive letter clusters within each set. Each subsequent cluster is formed by adding +2 to the first letter and +5 to the second letter of the preceding cluster.

For the set '(PO, RT, TY)':

For the set '(TQ, VV, XA)':

Applying the same logic to the group '(BQ, DV, FA)':

Thus, the group (BQ, DV, FA) follows the same logic as the given sets.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given: 21 July 1999 was a Wednesday.

Target Date: 21 November 1999.

Calculating the total number of days from 21 July 1999 to 21 November 1999:

Days remaining in July: 31 − 21 = 10 days

Days in August: 31 days

Days in September: 30 days

Days in October: 31 days

Days in November: 21 days (up to the 21st)

Total number of days = 10 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 21 = 123 days

To find the number of odd days, we divide the total number of days by 7:

123 ÷ 7 = 17 weeks and 4 days remainder.

So, there are 4 odd days.

Now, count 4 days forward from Wednesday:

1 day after Wednesday = Thursday

2 days after Wednesday = Friday

3 days after Wednesday = Saturday

4 days after Wednesday = Sunday

Therefore, the day on 21 November 1999 was Sunday.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given that there are 5 cars A, B, M, S and T with different speeds.

From the clues, we can deduce the following relationships:

1. Speed of only three cars is more than A.

→ A is faster than only one car, so A is the 2nd slowest.

→ _ > _ > _ > A > _

2. Speed of S is more than at least four cars.

→ Since there are only 5 cars, S is faster than all the other four cars.

→ S is the fastest.

→ S > _ > _ > A > _

3. Speed of T is less than M and S.

→ M > T and S > T.

4. Speed of T is not the least.

→ T cannot be the slowest. Since A is already the 2nd slowest, T must be above A.

→ S > M > T > A > B

Thus, the final order from fastest to slowest is:

→ S > M > T > A > B

Thus, the least speed is of Car B.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

7 children P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. V is second to the right of R.
2. S and T are next to each other.
3. S is not the immediate neighbour of R or V.
4. Q is third to the left of P.
5. T is third to the right of U.
6. Q is the immediate neighbour of T.

P is immediate left of R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given word: ENDANGERED

(1) DECREE → Can not be formed as it requires the letter "C", which is not present in the given word.

(2) EARNED → Can be formed as all the letters are present in the given word in the required quantity.

(3) GARDENS → Can not be formed as it requires the letter "S", which is not present in the given word.

(4) DANGEROUS → Can not be formed as it requires the letters "O, U" and "S", which are not present in the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given word: CALENDAR

(1) LEND → Can be formed as all the letters (L, E, N, D) are present in the given word.

(2) CARD → Can be formed as all the letters (C, A, R, D) are present in the given word.

(3) DENTAL → Can not be formed as the letter "T" is not present in the given word.

(4) CARNAL → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word (A appears twice in CALENDAR).

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is,

1. Temperature on Day 1 = 24.0

2. Temperature on Day 2 = 24.0 + 1.5 = 25.5

3. Temperature on Day 3 = 25.5 + 1.7 = 27.2

4. Temperature on Day 4 = 27.2 + 1.9 = 29.1

5. Temperature on Day 5 = 29.1 + (1.9 + 0.2) = 29.1 + 2.1 = 31.2

6. Temperature on Day 6 = 31.2 + (2.1 + 0.2) = 31.2 + 2.3 = 33.5

Thus, the expected temperature on the 6th day in the series is 33.5 degreeC.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3';

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

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For, AL220 : MB240

For, JK330 : LK350

Similarly,

ST110 : ?

 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

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DZ155 : GG355

BK605 : ER805

Similarly,

? : DZ445

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 54

For the third and fourth numbers 5191 : 5245

⇒ 5191 + 54 = 5245.

For the fifth and sixth numbers 8259 : 8313

⇒ 8259 + 54 = 8313.

Applying the same logic to the first and second numbers

7084 : ?

⇒ 7084 + 54 = 7138.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number − 2)³

For the first pair 14 : 1728

⇒ (14 − 2)³

⇒ 12³ = 1728.

For the second pair 19 : 4913

⇒ (19 − 2)³

⇒ 17³ = 4913.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

29 : ?

⇒ (29 − 2)³

⇒ 27³ = 19683.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

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FIRE is coded as IMNZ →

POLE is coded as SSHZ →

Similarly,

let us find the code for HIYA:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given:

Therefore, 'teach prime' be coded in that code language as "xl ta".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

According to the problem:

The clock gains 6 minutes every hour.

The duration of time elapsed is 18 hours.

The time currently shown on the clock is 8 PM.

Total gain = 18 × 6 minutes

Total gain = 108 minutes

Next, we convert this gain from minutes into hours and minutes:

108 minutes = 60 minutes + 48 minutes

108 minutes = 1 hour 48 minutes

The actual time is determined by subtracting this total gain from the displayed time (8 PM):

Actual time = 8:00 PM − 1 hour 48 minutes

Step 1: 8:00 PM − 1 hour = 7:00 PM

Step 2: 7:00 PM − 48 minutes = 6:12 PM

Therefore, the actual time is 6:12.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• The Governor of a state has the constitutional authority under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution to recommend the imposition of President’s Rule (also known as State Emergency).
• This recommendation is made when the Governor is satisfied that the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, signifying a breakdown of constitutional machinery.
• While the President is the authority who officially issues the proclamation, they generally act based on a formal report submitted by the Governor, though the President can also act independently if a grave situation arises.
• Upon the imposition of President’s Rule, the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister is dismissed, and the state administration comes under the direct control of the Union Government through the Governor.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework:
• Article 356: Inspired by Section 93 of the Government of India Act, 1935, it allows the Center to take over state administration.
• Parliamentary Approval: Every proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by both houses of Parliament within two months (60 days) by a simple majority.
• Duration: Once approved, it continues for six months and can be extended up to a maximum of three years with periodic parliamentary approval every six months.
• Judicial Oversight:
• S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994): A landmark Supreme Court judgement that established the power of judicial review over the President’s proclamation to prevent the arbitrary dismissal of state governments.
• The court ruled that the floor test in the State Legislative Assembly is the only valid way to check the majority of a government.
• Related Emergency Provisions:
• Article 352: Relates to National Emergency due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• Article 360: Relates to Financial Emergency, which has never been declared in India to date.

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• According to Article 164 of the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor of the state.
• While the Governor normally appoints the leader of the party that secures a majority in the State Legislative Assembly, they exercise situational discretion when no single party or alliance has a clear majority.
• In the event of a hung assembly, the Governor is responsible for appointing a person who is most likely to command the confidence of the house to ensure a stable government.
• The Governor generally invites the leader of the single largest party or a post-poll alliance to form the ministry and prove their majority on the floor of the house through a vote of confidence.
• This discretionary power is a vital constitutional function meant to prevent a constitutional breakdown or political instability within the state executive.

 Additional Information

• President:
• The President of India appoints the Prime Minister under Article 75 but does not have the authority to appoint a State Chief Minister.
• The President acts as the nominal head of the Union, whereas the Governor acts as the nominal head of the state.
• Speaker of the Assembly:
• The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Vidhan Sabha, elected by its members.
• The Speaker’s role is limited to legislative proceedings and maintaining house decorum; they hold no executive power to appoint the Chief Minister.
• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister is the real executive head of the Union Government.
• While the PM may influence political decisions through the party hierarchy, the Constitution does not grant the PM any formal power in the appointment process of a Chief Minister.

The correct answer is Human origin and elements like sound, tone, and rhythm.

Key Points

• To study the history of Indian music, one must trace back to the human origin, as music is intrinsically linked to the biological and psychological development of mankind.
• The fundamental element of music is Nada (Sound); ancient Indian musicology identifies it as the primordial vibration from which the universe emerged, often termed Nada Brahma.
• Swar (Tone) is the melodic foundation that differentiates musical sound from noise; historical study begins with how humans transitioned from monotone vocalizations to the structured Sama Veda chants.
• Laya (Rhythm) represents the temporal aspect of music, derived from natural phenomena like the heartbeat or the seasons, which provided the first rhythmic frameworks for early humans.
• Understanding these three pillars (Sound, Tone, and Rhythm) is essential before analyzing the complex Raga-Tala systems found in texts like the Natya Shastra by Bharat Muni.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of Related Concepts:
• Human Evolution and Technical Skills: While technical skills are necessary for instrument making, they are considered secondary developments that occurred after the realization of vocal tone and rhythm.
• Civilization and Language: Language is a medium of literal communication, whereas music is a universal language of sound that existed prior to the formalization of scripts and complex grammars.
• Instruments and Dance: In the classical definition of Sangeetam (Gitam Vadyam tatha Nrityam), Gitam (vocal/sound) is the primary element that directs the Vadyam (instruments) and Nrityam (dance).
• Historical Foundations:
• Shruti: The history of Indian music relies on the 22 Shrutis (microtones), which are the smallest audible frequencies perceived by the human ear.
• Vedic Music: The transition from Archik (one note) and Gathik (two notes) to Samik (three notes) represents the earliest tonal history of the Indian subcontinent.

The correct answer is Becomes 36 times smaller.

Key Points

• Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation states that every particle attracts every other particle in the universe with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.
• The fundamental formula for this force is F = G × (m₁ × m₂) / r², where F is the gravitational force, G is the universal gravitational constant, m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the two objects, and r is the distance between them.
• The relationship between force and distance is defined by the Inverse Square Law, which implies that the force F is proportional to 1/r².
• When the distance between the two objects is increased to six times the original distance (new distance = 6r), the new force F′ is determined by squaring the factor of change in distance.
• By substituting the new distance into the formula: F′ ∝ 1 / (6r)², which simplifies to F′ ∝ 1 / 36r². This demonstrates that the gravitational force is reduced to 1/36 of its original value, effectively becoming 36 times smaller.

 Additional Information

• Universal Gravitational Constant (G):
• The value of G is constant throughout the universe and is approximately 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N⋅m²/kg².
• Unlike acceleration due to gravity (g), which changes based on location (such as on different planets), G remains the same regardless of where the objects are located.
• Properties of Gravitational Force:
• It is the weakest of the four fundamental forces in nature but has an infinite range.
• It is a central force, meaning it acts along the line joining the centers of the two masses.
• It is always attractive in nature, never repulsive, unlike electromagnetic forces.

The correct answer is Memories of Midnight.

Key Points

• Memories of Midnight is the direct sequel to the global bestseller The Other Side of Midnight (1973), written by the celebrated American author Sidney Sheldon and published in 1990.
• The novel picks up the narrative threads from the first book, which concluded with a high-profile trial in Greece leading to the execution of Noelle Page and Larry Douglas for a crime they did not technically commit in the manner described.
• The sequel focuses on Catherine Alexander, Larry's wife, who was believed to be dead but survived, though suffering from profound amnesia. She becomes a central figure in the continuing power struggle involving the vengeful billionaire Constantin Demiris.
• Set against the backdrop of post-World War II Europe and the Greek islands, the story explores themes of manipulation, remorse, and divine retribution as Demiris attempts to eliminate the last witnesses of his past crimes.
• The book further develops the character of Constantin Demiris, establishing him as one of the most formidable antagonists in Sheldon's literary universe, driven by an insatiable need for total control.

 Additional Information

• Master of the Game (1982):
• This novel follows the Blackwell family over several generations, starting with Jamie McGregor and his diamond-mining ventures in South Africa.
• While it remains a standalone work by Sheldon, a sequel titled 'Sidney Sheldon's Mistress of the Game' was later penned by Tilly Bagshawe.
• Bloodline (1977):
• This thriller revolves around Elizabeth Roffe, who inherits a pharmaceutical empire and must identify which of her family members is trying to assassinate her.
• It was adapted into a major motion picture in 1979 starring Audrey Hepburn.
• Morning, Noon & Night (1995):
• The plot concerns the death of billionaire Harry Stanford and the ensuing legal and personal battles among his children over a massive inheritance.
• The novel showcases Sheldon's signature style of suspense and intricate plot twists involving the wealthy elite.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Malwa Plateau is a prominent physiographic division of India located in the west-central part of the country, primarily occupying the western region of Madhya Pradesh.
• Geologically, the plateau is of volcanic origin and forms a part of the Deccan Traps, which were created by fissure eruptions of basaltic lava during the Cretaceous period.
• The region is bounded by the Vindhya Range to the south and the Madhya Bharat Pathar and Bundelkhand to the north and northeast, serving as a transitional landform between the Indo-Gangetic Plain and the Deccan Plateau.
• The plateau is characterized by a rolling surface with an average elevation ranging between 500 to 600 meters above sea level, sloping generally towards the north and northeast.
• The drainage system of the plateau includes major rivers such as the Chambal, Kali Sindh, Shipra, Parbati, and Betwa, all of which eventually join the Yamuna or the Ganga.

 Additional Information

• Soil and Agriculture:
• The plateau is covered with fertile Black Soil (also known as Regur soil), which is highly moisture-retentive and rich in iron and magnesium.
• This soil type makes the region a hub for the production of Soybean, Wheat, Cotton, and Gram.
• Regional Extensions:
• Rajasthan: While primarily in Madhya Pradesh, the southeastern portion of Rajasthan, known as the Hadoti region (including Kota, Bundi, and Jhalawar), is a part of this plateau system.
• Gujarat and Maharashtra: These states share boundaries with the plateau region but do not house the primary expanse of the Malwa landform itself.
• Climate: The region experiences a tropical climate with moderate temperatures, largely influenced by its inland location and elevation.

The correct answer is Himalayan foothills.

Key Points

• The Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging between 8 to 16 km in width, lying parallel to the Shiwalik foothills at the break-of-slope.
• It is the northernmost stretch of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, forming the transition zone where the Himalayan rivers descend from the mountains and deposit heavy materials.
• The region is characterized by the accumulation of pebbles, gravel, and rock debris, making the soil structure extremely porous.
• Due to this high porosity, smaller rivers and streams disappear underground in this zone, flowing beneath the surface of the pebble-studded bed.
• The Bhabar belt extends from the Indus river in the west to the Teesta river in the east, marking the edge of the extra-peninsular mountain system.

 Additional Information

• Terai Region:
• Located south of the Bhabar belt, where the underground streams re-emerge on the surface.
• It is a wet, swampy, and marshy zone characterized by thick forest cover and high biological diversity.
• Bhangar:
• It represents the older alluvium of the Northern Plains, situated above the flood level of the rivers.
• The soil in this region often contains calcareous deposits known as Kankar.
• Khadar:
• It consists of newer, younger alluvium deposits found in the lower floodplains.
• This soil is extremely fertile and is naturally replenished every year by river floods, making it ideal for intensive farming.
• Peninsular Plateau:
• This is the oldest landmass of India, composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks like granite and gneiss, distinct from the alluvial deposits of the Himalayan foothills.

The correct answer is Economist Intelligence Unit.

Key Points

• The Global Liveability Index is an annual report published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU), which provides a comprehensive assessment of the living conditions in 173 global cities.
• The index measures the relative comfort for residents based on 30 qualitative and quantitative factors divided across five distinct categories.
• The evaluation framework includes Stability (25%), Healthcare (20%), Culture and Environment (25%), Education (10%), and Infrastructure (20%).
• Each city is assigned a rating between 1 and 100, where a score of 100 represents ideal living conditions and a score of 1 represents intolerable conditions.
• The report is widely used by multinational corporations to determine relocation packages and hardship allowances for expatriates moving to different urban centers.

 Additional Information

• Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU):
• Established in 1946, it is the research and analysis division of The Economist Group.
• In addition to liveability, it is well-known for producing the Democracy Index and various World Cost of Living reports.
• United Nations Development Programme (UNDP):
• This agency is responsible for publishing the Human Development Index (HDI), which ranks countries based on health, education, and income levels.
• It focuses primarily on ending poverty, reducing inequalities, and building resilience to achieve Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• World Economic Forum (WEF):
• An international non-governmental organization based in Cologny, Switzerland, famous for its annual meeting in Davos.
• It publishes critical global assessments such as the Global Competitiveness Report, Global Gender Gap Report, and Global Risks Report.
• World Bank:
• A global financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and middle-income countries.
• It regularly publishes the World Development Report and the Global Economic Prospects report.

The correct answer is 1932.

Key Points

• World Archery was originally established as the Fédération Internationale de Tir à l'Arc (FITA) on September 4, 1931, in Lwow, Poland (now Lviv, Ukraine).
• The federation was founded by seven nations: France, Czechoslovakia, Italy, Hungary, Poland, Sweden, and the United States of America.
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) officially recognized FITA as the international governing body for archery in 1932, granting it authority over the sport's regulations and its role within the Olympic Movement.
• The primary objective of the federation at its inception was to create standardized international rules and competition formats to facilitate the return of archery to the Olympic Games program.
• Upon its recognition, FITA became responsible for the technical management of the sport, including the organization of the World Archery Championships, the first of which was held in 1931 with 21 competitors.

 Additional Information

• Olympic Reinstatement (1972):
• While the governing body was recognized in 1932, archery did not return to the Olympic program until the Munich 1972 Games.
• Before this 52-year hiatus, archery had been featured in the 1900, 1904, 1908, and 1920 Olympics.
• Organization Evolution:
• The federation is headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland, the same city as the IOC headquarters.
• In 2011, the organization officially rebranded from FITA to World Archery during its 49th Congress in Turin, Italy.
• Today, it oversees more than 160 member associations and manages major events such as the Archery World Cup and the World Archery Para Championships.

The correct answer is NISAR.

Key Points

• NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, which is a joint Earth-observing mission between the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• The mission utilizes Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) technology, which works by transmitting microwave signals and measuring the reflection. Since microwaves can penetrate atmospheric moisture, the satellite can monitor Earth's surface through clouds, fog, and smoke.
• As an active sensor system, SAR provides its own source of illumination, allowing the satellite to capture high-resolution imagery during both day and night, independent of solar light.
• It is the first satellite mission to employ dual frequencies, specifically the L-band (provided by NASA) and the S-band (provided by ISRO), to observe subtle changes in Earth's surface.
• The primary scientific objective is to track crustal deformation, ice-sheet collapses, and changes in terrestrial biomass, mapping the entire globe once every 12 days.

 Additional Information

• Chandrayaan-3
• This was India's third lunar exploration mission designed to demonstrate a soft landing on the lunar south pole.
• It successfully deployed the Vikram lander and Pragyan rover to conduct chemical analysis of the lunar surface.
• XPoSat
• The X-ray Polarimeter Satellite is India's first dedicated mission to study the polarization of cosmic X-rays.
• It targets high-energy celestial entities such as black holes, neutron stars, and pulsar wind nebulae using its payloads, POLIX and XSPECT.
• EOS-09
• This is part of ISRO's Earth Observation Satellite series intended for applications like agriculture, forestry, and disaster management support.
• While these satellites provide critical data, NISAR is the specific collaborative radar-focused mission described in the scenario.

The correct answer is GSLV MK III.

Key Points

• The GSLV Mk III (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III) is the most powerful and heaviest launch vehicle designed and operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• It earned the nickname 'Fat Boy' due to its massive lift-off weight of approximately 640 tonnes and its distinctively bulky appearance, primarily caused by the two large S200 solid strap-on boosters.
• The rocket is a three-stage vehicle comprising two solid propellant boosters, a core liquid propellant stage (L110), and a powerful cryogenic upper stage (C25) featuring the indigenous CE-20 engine.
• It is engineered to carry 4-tonne class satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) and roughly 10 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• This launch vehicle was instrumental in India's major space milestones, including the Chandrayaan-2 mission in 2019 and the successful Chandrayaan-3 lunar landing mission in 2023.
• ISRO has recently rebranded the GSLV Mk III as LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark III) to signify its versatility in reaching various orbits beyond just the geosynchronous orbit.

 Additional Information

• PSLV:
• Known as the 'Workhorse of ISRO', the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle is a highly reliable, medium-lift four-stage rocket.
• It is primarily used to deliver satellites into Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits and was used for the Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter) and Chandrayaan-1 missions.
• ASLV:
• The Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle was a five-stage solid fuel rocket developed to increase payload capacity to 150 kg for LEO.
• It served as a crucial technology demonstrator during the late 1980s and early 1990s before the advent of PSLV.
• SSLV:
• The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (mistyped as SSLP in options) is designed for on-demand launches of small satellites weighing up to 500 kg.
• It aims to provide low-cost access to space with a quick turnaround time of only 72 hours for integration.

The correct answer is Lt. Cmdr Yashasvi Solanki.

Key Points

• Lieutenant Commander Yashasvi Solanki achieved a historic milestone in May 2024 by being appointed as the first woman Navy officer to serve as an Aide-de-Camp (ADC) to the President of India.
• She was appointed to the personal staff of President Droupadi Murmu, who is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces, marking the first time female officers have held this prestigious position at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• Alongside her, Major Greeshma from the Indian Army was also appointed as an ADC, representing a major shift towards gender inclusivity within the highest levels of military protocol.
• The duties of an ADC involve managing the President's official ceremonies, coordinating protocol during state visits, and providing administrative support to the head of state.
• This appointment signifies the Indian Navy's commitment to the Nari Shakti initiative, encouraging women to take on operational and high-profile administrative roles.

 Additional Information

• Aide-de-Camp (ADC) Role:
• In India, the President is typically assisted by five ADCs: three from the Army, one from the Navy, and one from the Air Force.
• The position is highly selective, requiring an exemplary service record, professional competence, and strict adherence to military discipline and etiquette.
• Other Notable Firsts for Women:
• Squadron Leader Manisha Padhi: She became India's first woman Aide-de-Camp to a Governor (Governor of Mizoram) in December 2023.
• Lieutenant Commander Prerna Deosthale: She made history as the first woman officer to command an Indian Navy warship, specifically INS Trinkat.
• Captain Shiva Chouhan: She was the first woman officer to be operationally deployed at Siachen, the world's highest battlefield, in early 2023.

The correct answer is 1977 Industrial Policy.

Key Points

• The 1977 Industrial Policy was announced by the Janata Party Government, marking a significant departure from the previous emphasis on heavy industries towards employment-oriented growth.
• It gave a major thrust to the small-scale sector, cottage industries, and village industries to promote decentralized industrialization and rural development.
• The policy introduced the concept of the Tiny Sector, targeting units with low investment in machinery and equipment to support the smallest entrepreneurs.
• A crucial institutional mechanism introduced was the District Industries Centers (DICs), designed to provide all integrated services and support to small-scale industries at the district level under a single roof.
• The number of items reserved exclusively for the small-scale sector was drastically increased from 180 to 807 items to protect them from competition with large-scale units.

 Additional Information

• 1948 Industrial Policy:
• This was the first industrial policy of independent India, which established the framework for a Mixed Economy.
• It classified industries into four categories: Strategic, Key, Important, and Other industries.
• 1956 Industrial Policy:
• Known as the Economic Constitution of India, it was based on the Mahalanobis Model of development.
• It prioritized the Public Sector and the development of heavy and basic industries.
• 1980 Industrial Policy:
• This policy aimed to promote the concept of Economic Federation and focused on industrial licensing liberalization.
• It sought to increase productivity and correct the distortions introduced by previous policy regimes while re-emphasizing the 1956 resolution.

The correct answer is Digboi.

Key Points

• The first oil refinery in India was established at Digboi, located in the Tinsukia district of Assam, and was commissioned on December 11, 1901.
• It was set up by the Assam Oil Company Limited following the discovery of crude oil in the region in 1889, marking the beginning of the organized petroleum industry in India.
• Digboi is famously known as the Oil City of Assam and holds the distinction of being the oldest operating oil refinery in Asia and one of the oldest in the world.
• The refinery was established to process crude oil sourced from the Digboi oil field, which was the first commercially productive oil field in the Indian subcontinent.
• Today, the refinery is a unit of the Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), specifically under its Assam Oil Division, and continues to produce a wide range of petroleum products.

 Additional Information

• Haldia
• Located in West Bengal, this refinery was commissioned in 1975.
• It plays a vital role in supplying petroleum products to the Eastern and North-Eastern parts of India.
• Koyali
• Commonly known as the Gujarat Refinery, it is situated near Vadodara and was established in 1965.
• It was built with technical assistance from the Soviet Union and is currently one of the largest refineries operated by IOCL.
• Barauni
• Situated in the Begusarai district of Bihar, it was commissioned in 1964.
• This refinery was also developed in collaboration with the USSR and Romania to process crude oil from the Naharkatiya and Moran oil fields in Assam.

The correct answer is High inflation.

Key Points

• Nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the total value of all goods and services produced within a country at current market prices, meaning it accounts for both changes in production volume and changes in prices.
• Real GDP measures the economic output adjusted for price changes (inflation or deflation) by using constant prices from a designated base year, providing a clearer picture of actual production growth.
• The divergence between these two metrics is captured by the GDP Deflator, a price index calculated as $(\text{Nominal GDP} / \text{Real GDP}) \times 100$, which serves as a broad measure of inflation.
• When Nominal GDP rises faster than Real GDP, the growth in the nominal figure is not solely due to increased output but is heavily influenced by a significant rise in the general price level.
• This scenario directly indicates High inflation, as the cost of goods and services is increasing rapidly, causing the nominal value of the economy to swell even if the physical quantity of goods produced remains relatively stable or grows slowly.

 Additional Information

• Inflation and Deflation:
• Deflation: Characterized by a general decline in prices; in this case, Real GDP growth would typically exceed Nominal GDP growth.
• Falling Inflation: Often called disinflation, this refers to a reduction in the rate at which prices increase, rather than a total decline in price levels.
• Economic Growth Metrics:
• Zero Growth: A state where the Real GDP remains constant over time, indicating no improvement in the country's productive capacity or standard of living.
• Purchasing Power: During periods of high inflation, the purchasing power of the domestic currency declines, requiring more money to buy the same amount of goods as in the previous year.

The correct answer is Persistent trade deficit due to imports.

Key Points

• India's Balance of Trade (BoT) is primarily characterized by a structural and persistent trade deficit, which occurs when the total monetary value of merchandise imports consistently exceeds the value of merchandise exports.
• The single largest contributor to this gap is Petroleum, Oil, and Lubricants (POL); India relies on imports for approximately 85% of its domestic crude oil demand, making the trade balance highly sensitive to global oil price fluctuations.
• Non-oil imports also play a major role, specifically Gold and Electronic Goods, where high domestic demand for investment assets and consumer technology leads to a significant outflow of foreign exchange.
• While India maintains a significant trade surplus in services (driven by IT and consultancy), it is often insufficient to fully offset the massive merchandise trade deficit, leading to a negative impact on the overall Current Account Balance.

 Additional Information

• Service Sector Surplus:
• This refers to the positive balance in Invisibles, where India is a global leader in exporting software services and BPM (Business Process Management).
• While a strength, this surplus is typically not large enough to bridge the visible trade gap created by essential raw material imports.
• Trading Partner Dynamics:
• India has diversified its trade significantly across regions like the UAE, USA, and European Union, reducing overdependence on any single nation.
• However, a massive bilateral trade deficit persists with China, primarily due to the heavy import of Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) and industrial machinery.
• High Tariff Structure:
• Tariffs are custom duties used as a policy tool to promote the Make in India initiative and protect MSMEs from foreign dumping.
• While high tariffs can be a trade barrier, they are a regulatory feature rather than the core structural drawback of the Trade Balance itself.

The correct answer is PM-DAKSH Scheme.

Key Points

• The PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in 2020-21.
• The government has approved the implementation of this social development scheme for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 with a total financial outlay of Rs. 450.25 Crores.
• The primary objective of the scheme is to enhance the competency levels of the target groups to make them employable for both self-employment and wage-employment.
• The target beneficiaries include Scheduled Castes (SCs), Other Backward Classes (OBCs) with annual income below Rs. 3 Lakh, Economically Backward Classes (EBCs), De-notified Tribes (DNTs), and Safai Karamcharis.
• Training programs offered under the scheme include Up-skilling/Reskilling, Short-term Training, Entrepreneurship Development Programs, and Long-term Training.

 Additional Information

• SMILE Scheme:
• Stands for Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise.
• It has been allocated an outlay of Rs. 365 Crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26.
• The scheme focuses on the comprehensive rehabilitation of transgender persons and persons engaged in the act of begging.
• NAMASTE Scheme:
• Stands for National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem.
• This initiative aims to ensure zero fatalities in sanitation work in India and provide sustainable livelihoods for sanitation workers.
• Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyan:
• Launched on August 15, 2020, this campaign aims to address the issue of drug abuse.
• It focuses on community mobilization and awareness generation in vulnerable districts across the country.

The correct answer is Malabar.

Key Points

• The kingdom of Mysore rose to prominence in South India under the leadership of powerful rulers such as Haidar Ali (reigned 1761–1782) and his son Tipu Sultan (reigned 1782–1799).
• Mysore strategically controlled the highly profitable trade along the Malabar coast, a region famous for its production of premium spices.
• The English East India Company was a major buyer of pepper and cardamom from this region, which formed a significant part of their commercial revenue.
• In 1785, Tipu Sultan restricted the trade by stopping the export of sandalwood, pepper, and cardamom through the ports of his kingdom.
• He also prohibited local merchants from trading with the British, seeking to establish direct state control over the economy and modernizing his military with the help of the French.
• This economic defiance, coupled with Mysore’s military strength, posed a major threat to British political and commercial interests in India, leading to the Anglo-Mysore Wars.

 Additional Information

• Malabar Coast:
• Stretches along the southwestern coast of the Indian peninsula, primarily in the state of Kerala.
• It is historically renowned as the Spice Coast and was the landing site for Vasco da Gama in 1498.
• Coromandel Coast:
• Refers to the southeastern coastal region of India between the Kaveri delta and the Krishna River.
• Major colonial trade centers like Madras (British) and Pondicherry (French) were located here.
• Hooghly:
• A significant river port in Bengal; the first English factory was established here in 1651 on the banks of the River Hooghly.
• Bombay:
• Located on the Konkan Coast, it was handed over to the British by the Portuguese as dowry in 1661 and became their primary naval and commercial base in Western India.

The correct answer is Rangoon.

Key Points

• Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last ruler of the Mughal Dynasty, was proclaimed the symbolic leader of the Revolt of 1857 by the rebel Indian sepoys.
• After British forces successfully recaptured Delhi in September 1857, the emperor was apprehended by Major William Hodson at Humayun’s Tomb.
• Following his capture, he was tried at the Red Fort for his involvement in the uprising and was subsequently convicted of treason and conspiracy against the British Crown.
• In 1858, the British authorities exiled him to Rangoon (modern-day Yangon) in Burma (now Myanmar), effectively terminating the Mughal Empire.
• He remained in confinement in Rangoon until his death on November 7, 1862, at the age of 87, and was buried there.

 Additional Information

• Andaman Islands:
• These islands became infamous for the Cellular Jail (Kala Pani), where the British exiled many political prisoners, including V.D. Savarkar, but it was not used for the last Mughal Emperor.
• Dhaka:
• A prominent city in the Bengal Presidency, Dhaka was an important administrative and manufacturing center but did not serve as a place of exile for Bahadur Shah Zafar.
• Shanghai:
• A major port in China, Shanghai was a site of British commercial interest following the Opium Wars, but it had no historical involvement in the detention of leaders from the 1857 revolt.
• Poetic Legacy:
• An accomplished Urdu poet, Zafar composed many verses expressing his grief and longing for his homeland during his years of exile in Burma.

The correct answer is 1996.

Key Points

• Atal Bihari Vajpayee served as the 10th Prime Minister of India and assumed the office for the first time in 1996.
• Following the 11th General Elections held in May 1996, the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) emerged as the single largest party in the Lok Sabha with 161 seats.
• President Shankar Dayal Sharma invited Vajpayee to form the government, and he was sworn in on May 16, 1996.
• His first tenure is historically significant for being one of the shortest in Indian history, lasting only 13 days.
• Vajpayee resigned on June 1, 1996, after failing to secure support from other regional parties to prove a majority before a vote of confidence could take place.

 Additional Information

• Subsequent Tenures:
• He served a second term from 1998 to 1999 (13 months) and a third full term from 1999 to 2004.
• He was the first non-Congress Prime Minister to complete a full five-year term in office.
• Major Achievements:
• He oversaw the Pokhran-II nuclear tests in May 1998, establishing India as a nuclear-armed state.
• He launched the Golden Quadrilateral project to connect major Indian metros via high-speed highways.
• He led the country during the Kargil War of 1999 against Pakistan.
• Honors and Legacy:
• He was conferred with the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 2015.
• His birth anniversary, December 25, is celebrated across India as Good Governance Day.

Shortcut Trick

Solve using the BODMAS rule by prioritising brackets and multiplication.

Calculate Bracket: (41 + 23) = 64.

Calculate Multiplication: 64 × 2 = 128.

Final expression: 56 + 74 − 52 + 128 − 96 = 110.

∴ The correct answer is 110.

Alternate Method

Given: 56 + 74 − 52 + (41 + 23) × 2 − 96

Rule Used: BODMAS (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 56 + 74 − 52 + (64) × 2 − 96

⇒ 56 + 74 − 52 + 128 − 96

⇒ (56 + 74 + 128) − (52 + 96)

⇒ 258 − 148

⇒ 110

∴ The correct answer is 110.

Additional Information

The BODMAS Rule

It defines the order of operations: Brackets (), Of (orders like powers/roots), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Left-to-Right Rule

When operators of the same priority level appear (like + and −), solve the expression from left to right to maintain accuracy.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the expression using the BODMAS rule by identifying operations in order.

72 + 38 − (96 ÷ 12) + 29 of 2 − 14

⇒ 72 + 38 − 8 + 58 − 14

⇒ 110 + 50 − 14

⇒ 160 − 14 = 146

∴ The correct answer is 146.

Alternate Method

Given:

72 + 38 − (96 ÷ 12) + 29 of 2 − 14

Formula Used:

Apply the VBODMAS rule (Vinculum, Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

Calculations:

⇒ 72 + 38 − 8 + 29 of 2 − 14 (Solving Bracket: 96 ÷ 12 = 8)

⇒ 72 + 38 − 8 + 58 − 14 (Solving Of: 29 × 2 = 58)

⇒ 110 − 8 + 58 − 14 (Solving Addition: 72 + 38 = 110)

⇒ 102 + 58 − 14 (Solving Subtraction: 110 − 8 = 102)

⇒ 160 − 14 (Solving Addition: 102 + 58 = 160)

⇒ 146 (Solving Subtraction: 160 − 14 = 146)

∴ The correct answer is 146.

Additional Information

VBODMAS Rule

The order of priority is Vinculum (bar), Brackets (), Of (multiplication), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

'Of' Operator

The 'of' operator is treated as multiplication but must be performed before Division and Multiplication according to standard mathematical hierarchy.

Left-to-Right Rule

When operations of the same priority (like Addition and Subtraction) appear, it is best to solve them from left to right to avoid confusion.

Shortcut Trick

Separate Whole Numbers and Fractions: (7 + 9 − 5) + (2/7 + 1/3 − 3/4)

Integer part: 11

Fraction part: LCM(7, 3, 4) = 84

Fractional sum: (24 + 28 − 63) / 84 = −11/84

Combine: 11 − 11/84 = 10 + (1 − 11/84) = 10(73/84)

∴ The correct answer is 10(73/84).

Alternate Method

Given: 7(2/7) + 9(1/3) − 5(3/4)

Method: Mixed fraction decomposition into Integer and Proper Fraction.

⇒ (7 + 2/7) + (9 + 1/3) − (5 + 3/4) ⇒ (7 + 9 − 5) + (2/7 + 1/3 − 3/4) ⇒ 11 + [(2 × 12 + 1 × 28 − 3 × 21) / 84] ⇒ 11 + [(24 + 28 − 63) / 84] ⇒ 11 + [−11 / 84] ⇒ 11 − 11/84 ⇒ 10 + 1 − 11/84 ⇒ 10 + (84 − 11) / 84 ⇒ 10 + 73/84 ⇒ 10(73/84)

∴ The correct answer is 10(73/84).

Additional Information

Mixed Fractions

A mixed fraction is the sum of a non-zero integer and a proper fraction. For any mixed fraction A(b/c), it is calculated as (A × c + b) / c.

LCM of Denominators

When performing addition or subtraction of fractions, a common denominator must be established using the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the given denominators.

Negative Fractional Parts

If the sum of fractional parts is negative, borrow 1 from the integer part (1 = c/c) to make the resulting fractional part positive.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the square roots first: √0.09 = 0.3 and √0.36 = 0.6.

Substitute back: (0.3/0.6) × (0.4/0.6) × (1.8/0.6).

Simplify each fraction: (1/2) × (2/3) × 3.

Multiply the simplified values: 0.5 × 2 = 1.

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Alternate Method

Given: (√0.09/0.6) × (0.4/√0.36) × (1.8/√0.36)

Method: BODMAS and Square Root simplification

⇒ Step 1: Find the square roots of the decimals.

⇒ √0.09 = √(9/100) = 3/10 = 0.3

⇒ √0.36 = √(36/100) = 6/10 = 0.6

⇒ Step 2: Substitute values into the expression.

⇒ Result = (0.3/0.6) × (0.4/0.6) × (1.8/0.6)

⇒ Step 3: Simplify the ratios.

⇒ Result = (1/2) × (2/3) × 3

⇒ Result = (1/2) × 2 = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Additional Information

Square Root of Decimals

To find the square root of a decimal, express it as a fraction (e.g., 0.09 = 9/100) and then take the square root of both numerator and denominator.

BODMAS Rule

Always follow the BODMAS order: Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division and Multiplication (left to right), and Addition and Subtraction.

Fraction Simplification

When dealing with decimal fractions, you can remove decimals by multiplying the numerator and denominator by 10ⁿ, where n is the number of decimal places.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the expression under the square root by calculating the square and products first.

18² = 324, 8 × 8 = 64, and 5 × 22 = 110.

Combine the results: 324 + 64 − 110 + 11 = 289.

The square root of 289 is 17.

∴ The correct answer is 17.

Alternate Method

Given: √(18² + 8 × 8 − 5 × 22 + 11)

Formula Used: BODMAS Rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ √(324 + 64 − 110 + 11)

⇒ √(388 − 110 + 11)

⇒ √(278 + 11)

⇒ √289

⇒ 17

∴ The correct answer is 17.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

The BODMAS acronym defines the correct sequence for solving mathematical operations: Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Perfect Squares

Memorizing perfect squares from 1 to 30 (e.g., 17² = 289, 18² = 324) is crucial for improving speed in simplification and quantitative aptitude sections.

Square Root Calculation

The square root (√) is the inverse operation of squaring a number; if x² = y, then √y = x.

Shortcut Trick

Second diagonal (d₂) = (2 × 216) ÷ 18 = 24 cm.

Half-diagonals are 9 cm and 12 cm.

Using the Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5) scaled by 3 → (9, 12, 15).

Therefore, the side of the rhombus = 15 cm.

Perimeter = 4 × 15 = 60 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 60 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Area of rhombus = 216 cm² and one diagonal (d₁) = 18 cm.

Formula: Area = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂

⇒ 216 = (1/2) × 18 × d₂

⇒ 216 = 9 × d₂

⇒ d₂ = 216 ÷ 9 = 24 cm.

The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at right angles (90°).

⇒ Side (s) = √((d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²)

⇒ s = √(9² + 12²) = √(81 + 144) = √225 = 15 cm.

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × s = 4 × 15 = 60 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 60 cm.

Additional Information

Diagonal Properties

The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at 90° and bisect the vertex angles.

Side-Diagonal Relation

The relationship between the side (s) and diagonals is given by: 4s² = d₁² + d₂².

Rhombus Area

Area of a rhombus can also be calculated as Base × Height if those values are known.

Shortcut Trick

Area of rhombus = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂

384 = (1/2) × 24 × d₂ ⇒ d₂ = 32 cm.

Half-diagonals are 12 and 16. Using Pythagorean Triplet (3, 4, 5) scaled by 4 ⇒ Side = 20 cm.

Perimeter = 4 × Side = 4 × 20 = 80 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 80 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Area = 384 cm², Diagonal 1 (d₁) = 24 cm.

Formula Used:

1. Area = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂
2. Side (a) = √((d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²)
3. Perimeter = 4a

Calculations:

⇒ Area = (1/2) × 24 × d₂

⇒ 384 = 12 × d₂

⇒ d₂ = 384 ÷ 12 = 32 cm

⇒ Side a = √((24/2)² + (32/2)²)

⇒ Side a = √(12² + 16²)

⇒ Side a = √(144 + 256) = √400

⇒ Side a = 20 cm

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × 20 = 80 cm

∴ The correct answer is 80 cm.

Additional Information

Properties of Rhombus

A rhombus is a quadrilateral with all sides equal. Its diagonals bisect each other at 90°.

Relation between Side and Diagonals

The side 'a' and diagonals 'd₁' and 'd₂' are related by the equation 4a² = d₁² + d₂².

Area of Rhombus

Area can also be calculated as Base × Height if the altitude is known.

Shortcut Trick

The Least Common Multiple (LCM) follows the associative property, which states that LCM(A, B, C, D) = LCM[LCM(A, B), LCM(C, D)].

⇒ Given LCM(A, B) = 20 and LCM(C, D) = 30.

⇒ Required LCM = LCM(20, 30).

⇒ The smallest number divisible by both 20 and 30 is 60.

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Alternate Method

Given:

LCM of A and B = 20

LCM of C and D = 30

Formula Used:

LCM(a, b, c, d) = LCM(LCM(a, b), LCM(c, d))

Calculations:

⇒ We need to find the LCM of 20 and 30.

⇒ Prime factorization of 20 = 2 × 2 × 5 = 2² × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 30 = 2 × 3 × 5

⇒ LCM is the product of the highest powers of all prime factors involved.

⇒ LCM = 2² × 3 × 5

⇒ LCM = 4 × 3 × 5 = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Additional Information

Associative Property of LCM

The LCM of a set of numbers can be found by grouping them: LCM(a, b, c) = LCM(a, LCM(b, c)).

Relationship between HCF and LCM

For any two positive integers a and b: HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b) = a × b.

LCM of Fractions

LCM of (a/b, c/d) = LCM of numerators (a, c) ÷ HCF of denominators (b, d).

Shortcut Trick

The Highest Common Factor (HCF) of any set of numbers is always a factor of their Least Common Multiple (LCM).

Given LCM = 90, the potential HCF must divide 90 exactly without a remainder.

Checking options: 90 ÷ 28 (No) | 90 ÷ 24 (No) | 90 ÷ 36 (No) | 90 ÷ 15 = 6 (Yes).

Since only 15 is a factor of 90, it is the only possible HCF.

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Alternate Method

Given:

LCM of two numbers = 90

Formula/Property:

For any two integers, LCM = HCF × k (where k is a positive integer representing the product of the non-common prime factors).

Calculations:

⇒ Let the HCF be 'h'. Then 90/h must be an integer.

⇒ Option 1: 90 ÷ 28 ≈ 3.21 (Not an integer)

⇒ Option 2: 90 ÷ 24 = 3.75 (Not an integer)

⇒ Option 3: 90 ÷ 36 = 2.5 (Not an integer)

⇒ Option 4: 90 ÷ 15 = 6 (Integer)

⇒ Since 15 divides 90 perfectly, it can be the HCF.

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Additional Information

Fundamental Relation

For any two positive integers a and b: Product of numbers = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

HCF vs LCM Magnitude

The HCF is always less than or equal to the LCM. Specifically, HCF ≤ smaller number ≤ larger number ≤ LCM.

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime, their HCF is 1 and their LCM is simply the product of the two numbers.

Divisibility Rule

The LCM of a set of numbers is the smallest number that is divisible by all the numbers in that set.

Shortcut Trick

To find 10% of any value, simply divide the number by 10 or shift the decimal point one place to the left.

Profit = 480 ÷ 10

Profit = Rs. 48

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 48.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of the article = Rs. 480

Profit Percentage = 10%

Formula Used:

Profit = (Profit% ÷ 100) × Cost Price

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = (10 ÷ 100) × 480

⇒ Profit = 0.1 × 480

⇒ Profit = Rs. 48

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 48.

Additional Information

Selling Price (SP) Calculation

The selling price is the sum of cost price and profit: SP = CP + Profit. In this case, SP = 480 + 48 = Rs. 528.

Loss Calculation

If the article is sold for less than the CP, a loss occurs. Loss = CP − SP. Loss% = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Direct SP Formula

To find SP directly when Profit% is known: SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

When x% of x = k, the value of x is directly calculated as 10 × √k.

Here, k = 225.

⇒ x = 10 × √225

⇒ x = 10 × 15 = 150.

∴ The correct answer is 150.

Alternate Method

Given:

The expression is x percent of x is equal to 225.

Calculations:

⇒ (x ÷ 100) × x = 225

⇒ x² ÷ 100 = 225

⇒ x² = 225 × 100

⇒ x² = 22500

⇒ x = √22500

⇒ x = 150

∴ The correct answer is 150.

Additional Information

Basic Percentage Formula

The percentage of a number is calculated as: Value = (Percentage × Total) ÷ 100.

Square Root Calculation

To find the value from its square, take the square root. For example, √(a × b) = √a × √b. Here, √22500 = √225 × √100 = 15 × 10 = 150.

Percentage and Fractions

Any percentage x% can be written as a fraction x/100 or a decimal 0.01x.

Shortcut Trick

25% = 1/4 (fractional value).

Loss is calculated on Selling Price (SP), so let SP = 4 units and Loss = 1 unit.

Cost Price (CP) = SP + Loss = 4 + 1 = 5 units.

Loss percentage on Cost Price = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100 = (1 ÷ 5) × 100.

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Loss percentage on Selling Price = 25%

Formula Used:

Loss = Selling Price × (Loss% on SP ÷ 100)

Cost Price = Selling Price + Loss

Loss% on Cost Price = (Loss ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Selling Price (SP) be ₹100.

⇒ Loss = 25% of ₹100 = (25 ÷ 100) × 100 = ₹25.

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = SP + Loss = 100 + 25 = ₹125.

⇒ Loss% on CP = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

⇒ Loss% = (25 ÷ 125) × 100.

⇒ Loss% = (1 ÷ 5) × 100 = 20%.

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Base for Profit and Loss

Profit or loss is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless the question explicitly mentions it is calculated on the selling price.

Profit Percentage Formula

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100, where Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price.

Cost Price Conversion

If loss is x% on SP, then loss % on CP = [x ÷ (100 + x)] × 100. If profit is x% on SP, then profit % on CP = [x ÷ (100 − x)] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of P : Q : R = 75 : 100 : 60 = 15 : 20 : 12

Total sum = 15 + 20 + 12 = 47 units

Given: 47 units = 1410 → 1 unit = 1410 ÷ 47 = 30

Difference (Q − R) = 20 − 12 = 8 units

Required difference = 8 × 30 = 240

∴ The correct answer is 240 marks.

Alternate Method

Given:

P = Q − 25% of Q

R = Q − 40% of Q

Sum of P, Q, and R = 1410

Formula Used:

Total Marks = P + Q + R

Difference = Q − R

⇒ Let the marks of Q be 100x.

⇒ Marks of P = 100x − 25% of 100x = 75x

⇒ Marks of R = 100x − 40% of 100x = 60x

⇒ Total Marks = 75x + 100x + 60x = 235x

⇒ 235x = 1410

⇒ x = 1410 ÷ 235 = 6

⇒ Difference between Q and R = 100x − 60x = 40x

⇒ Value of difference = 40 × 6 = 240

∴ The correct answer is 240 marks.

Additional Information

Percentage Base Rule

Always identify the base value (denominator) which typically follows keywords like 'than' or 'of' to set it as 100%.

Ratio Method for Percentages

Converting percentages to fractions (e.g., 25% = 1/4, 40% = 2/5) helps in establishing quick ratios between multiple entities.

Relative Percentage Change

If A is x% less than B, then the difference in their values is calculated as (x ÷ 100) × B.

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency of C = Efficiency (A + B + C) − Efficiency (A + B)

Total Work = LCM of (18, 24) = 72 units

Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 72 ÷ 18 = 4 units/day

Efficiency of (A + B) = 72 ÷ 24 = 3 units/day

Efficiency of C = 4 − 3 = 1 unit/day

∴ The correct answer is 72 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A, B, and C together = 18 days

Time taken by A and B together = 24 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Time taken × Efficiency

Calculations:

⇒ Let the total work be the LCM of 18 and 24 = 72 units.

⇒ Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 72 ÷ 18 = 4 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of (A + B) = 72 ÷ 24 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of C = Efficiency(A + B + C) − Efficiency(A + B)

⇒ Efficiency of C = 4 − 3 = 1 unit/day.

⇒ Time taken by C alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of C

⇒ Time taken by C alone = 72 ÷ 1 = 72 days.

∴ The correct answer is 72 days.

Additional Information

Work and Efficiency Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work. Efficiency = 1 ÷ Time.

Combined Work Formula

If X takes 'a' days and Y takes 'b' days, then together they take (a × b) ÷ (a + b) days.

Pipes and Cisterns

The concept is identical to Time & Work, where an inlet pipe does positive work and an outlet pipe does negative work.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the Efficiency of the workers (or work done) when they work for the same duration.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of efficiencies (X : Y : Z) = (1/12) : (1/18) : (1/36) = 3 : 2 : 1.

Since they work together, Wage ∝ Efficiency.

Given X wage = 3 units = ₹4800 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹1600.

Difference = |(Y + Z) − (X + Z)| = |Y − X| = |2 − 3| = 1 unit.

Value of 1 unit = ₹1600.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by X = 12 days, Y = 18 days, Z = 36 days.

Wages of X = ₹4800.

Formula Used:

Total Work = LCM of individual days.

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time taken.

Wage Share = (Individual Efficiency ÷ Total Efficiency) × Total Wage.

Calculations:

⇒ Total wages are distributed in the ratio of efficiencies X : Y : Z = 3 : 2 : 1.

⇒ Wage of X = 3 units = ₹4800.

⇒ Value of 1 unit = 4800 ÷ 3 = ₹1600.

⇒ Wage of Y = 2 × 1600 = ₹3200.

⇒ Wage of Z = 1 × 1600 = ₹1600.

⇒ Total wages of (Y + Z) = 3200 + 1600 = ₹4800.

⇒ Total wages of (X + Z) = 4800 + 1600 = ₹6400.

⇒ Absolute Difference = |4800 − 6400| = ₹1600.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1600.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Rule

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual work done by each person. If they work for the same duration, the wage ratio is identical to the efficiency ratio.

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. Efficiency = 1 ÷ Time.

Pipes and Cisterns

The same LCM and efficiency logic applies to pipes filling or emptying a tank, where inlet efficiency is positive and outlet efficiency is negative.

Shortcut Trick

Relative Speed in same direction = 75 − 25 = 50 km/hr.

Total Distance to cover = Sum of lengths = 120 + 130 = 250 m.

Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Time = 250 ÷ (50 × 5/18) = 250 × 18 ÷ 250 = 18 sec.

∴ The correct answer is 18 sec.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of Faster Train (L₁) = 130 m

Length of Slower Train (L₂) = 120 m

Speed of Faster Train (S₁) = 75 km/hr

Speed of Slower Train (S₂) = 25 km/hr

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (Same direction) = S₁ − S₂

Time = (L₁ + L₂) ÷ Relative Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Total Length to be crossed = 130 + 120 = 250 m

⇒ Relative Speed = 75 − 25 = 50 km/hr

⇒ Convert Speed to m/s = 50 × (5 ÷ 18) = 250 ÷ 18 m/s

⇒ Time taken = 250 ÷ (250 ÷ 18)

⇒ Time taken = 250 × (18 ÷ 250) = 18 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 18 sec.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S₁ − S₂. When they move in the opposite direction, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5 ÷ 18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18 ÷ 5.

Crossing Distance

When a train crosses another train or a bridge, the total distance covered is the sum of their lengths (L₁ + L₂).

Shortcut Trick

By definition, the Upstream speed of a boat is the difference between its speed in still water and the speed of the stream.

The question asks for this exact difference: (Speed of boat in still water − Speed of stream).

Given Upstream speed = 15 km/hr.

Required difference = 15 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 15 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Downstream Speed (D) = 25 km/hr

Upstream Speed (U) = 15 km/hr

Formula Used:

Speed of boat in still water (x) = (D + U) ÷ 2

Speed of stream (y) = (D − U) ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ Speed of boat in still water (x) = (25 + 15) ÷ 2

⇒ x = 40 ÷ 2 = 20 km/hr

⇒ Speed of stream (y) = (25 − 15) ÷ 2

⇒ y = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 km/hr

⇒ Required Difference = x − y

⇒ Required Difference = 20 − 5 = 15 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 15 km/hr.

Additional Information

Downstream Speed

The speed of the boat when traveling with the current: Speed in Still Water + Speed of Current.

Upstream Speed

The speed of the boat when traveling against the current: Speed in Still Water − Speed of Current.

Speed of Boat Formula

Speed of boat in still water is calculated as (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Speed of Current Formula

Speed of stream or current is calculated as (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Use the ratio relation: CP / MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%)

CP : MP = (100 − 40) : (100 + 50) = 60 : 150 = 2 : 5

Given CP = 2 units = Rs. 1000 ⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 500

Marked Price (MP) = 5 units = 5 × 500 = Rs. 2500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2500.

Alternate Method

Given: Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 1000, Discount = 40%, Profit = 50%.

Formula Used: SP = CP × (1 + Profit/100) and SP = MP × (1 − Discount/100).

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 1000 + 50% of 1000

⇒ SP = 1000 + 500 = Rs. 1500

⇒ According to discount, SP = MP × (100 − 40)/100

⇒ 1500 = MP × 0.6

⇒ MP = 1500 ÷ 0.6 = Rs. 2500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2500.

Additional Information

Relation between MP and CP

A very useful direct relation is MP/CP = (100 + Profit%) / (100 − Discount%). This eliminates the need to calculate SP separately.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of d₁% and d₂% are given, the single equivalent discount is (d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100)%.

Markup Percentage

The percentage by which Marked Price is higher than Cost Price is Markup% = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Let Cost Price (CP) = 4 units. For 25% Loss, Selling Price (SP) = 3 units.

Discount = (5/9) × SP = (5/9) × 3 = 5/3 units.

Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount = 3 + 5/3 = 14/3 units.

Ratio of MP to CP = (14/3) ÷ 4 = 14/12 = 7/6.

∴ The correct answer is (7/6) of cost price.

Alternate Method

Given:

Loss Percentage = 25%

Discount = (5/9) × Selling Price (SP)

Formula Used:

SP = CP × (100 − Loss%)/100

MP = SP + Discount

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) be C.

⇒ SP = C × (100 − 25)/100 = (75/100)C = (3/4)C

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount

⇒ MP = SP + (5/9)SP = (14/9)SP

⇒ Substituting SP = (3/4)C:

⇒ MP = (14/9) × (3/4)C

⇒ MP = (42/36)C = (7/6)C

∴ The correct answer is (7/6) of cost price.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP, MP, Profit and Discount

The formula relating CP and MP is CP/MP = (100 − Discount%)/(100 + Profit%). In case of loss, replace +Profit% with −Loss%.

Marked Price (MP)

MP is the maximum retail price (MRP) set by the seller. Discount is always calculated as a percentage of the MP: SP = MP × (100 − D%)/100.

Cost Price (CP) and Selling Price (SP)

Profit or loss is determined by the difference between SP and CP. If SP > CP, there is a Profit. If SP < CP, there is a Loss.

Shortcut Trick

Selling Price (SP) = 70% of Marked Price (MP)

⇒ SP = 0.70 × 1000 = 700

Profit = SP − Cost Price (CP)

⇒ Profit = 700 − 520 = 180

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 180.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 1000

Discount = 30%

Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 520

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) − Discount

Profit = Selling Price (SP) − Cost Price (CP)

Calculations:

⇒ Discount Amount = (30/100) × 1000 = Rs. 300

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 1000 − 300 = Rs. 700

⇒ Profit = 700 − 520

⇒ Profit = Rs. 180

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 180.

Additional Information

Profit Percentage

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100. It measures the gain relative to the investment.

Discount Percentage

Discount % = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100. Discounts are always calculated on the Marked Price.

Relation between CP and MP

MP ÷ CP = (100 + Profit%) ÷ (100 − Discount%). This direct ratio is useful for finding mark-up percentages.

The correct answer is 'walk the talk'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom 'walk the talk' means to show by your actions that you mean what you say or to do what you have promised to do.
• It is often used in political or professional contexts where a person in a position of power is expected to back up their words with real action.
• In the given sentence, it implies that politicians must fulfill their commitments to maintain their dignity and popularity among the public.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Politicians ought to walk the talk to retain their dignity and popularity.

Additional Information

• Talk the talk: This phrase means to speak in a way that sounds convincing or impressive, but it does not necessarily mean the person will follow through with actions.
• Talk the walk: This is an incorrect reversal of the standard idiom.
• Wake the talk: This phrase is nonsensical and does not exist as a standard English idiom.

The correct answer is 'viper in the bosom'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom 'viper in the bosom' (or 'snake in one's bosom') refers to a person who betrays the kindness, trust, or shelter given to them by another.
• In the context of the sentence, the speaker is expressing surprise and disappointment that someone they trusted turned out to be treacherous by stealing their belongings ('taken to his heels with all my belongings').
• The phrase originates from Aesop's Fables, specifically the story of a farmer who rescues a frozen snake only to be bitten by it once it warms up.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: It was not known to me that he will be a viper in the bosom in the long run to have taken to his heels with all my belongings.

Additional Information

• Snake in the grass: A person who pretends to be your friend but is actually a treacherous or deceitful enemy. (Option 1 seems to be a distorted version of this).
• Dog in the manger: A person who prevents others from using or enjoying something that they themselves have no use for. (Option 4 seems to be a distorted version of this).
• Taken to one's heels: To run away or flee from a situation.

Question 1

The correct answer is 'Option(3)' i.e. 'Hope'.

Key Points

• The word 'expectation' refers to a strong belief that something will happen or be the case in the future. (उम्मीद)
• Example: High expectations can sometimes lead to pressure if they are not managed properly.
• 'Hope' refers to a feeling of expectation and desire for a particular thing to happen; it is often used as a synonym for expectation when referring to positive outcomes. (आशा)
• Example: We are full of hope that the project will be completed on time.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'expectation' is 'hope'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Hope.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Surprise (आश्चर्य): An unexpected or astonishing event, fact, or thing that often catches someone off guard.
• Example: It was a pleasant surprise to see my old friend at the party.
• Disappointment (निराशा): The feeling of sadness or dissatisfaction when one’s hopes or expectations are not fulfilled.
• Example: The team’s loss was a big disappointment to all the fans.
• Memory (स्मृति): The faculty by which the mind stores and remembers past information or experiences.
• Example: He has a very vivid memory of his first day at school.

The correct answer is: Enthusiastic.

Key Points

• The word 'eager' refers to a person strongly wanting to do or have something; it suggests a state of keen interest or impatient expectancy. (उत्सुक)
• Example: The children were eager to open their Christmas presents.
• 'Enthusiastic' means having or showing intense and eager enjoyment, interest, or approval. It is the closest synonym as both words describe a positive and high-energy attitude toward an activity or subject. (उत्साही)
• Example: She received an enthusiastic welcome from her colleagues on her first day.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'eager' is 'enthusiastic'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Enthusiastic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Reluctant (अनिच्छुक): Unwilling and hesitant to do something; it is the opposite of being eager.
• Example: Many parents are reluctant to let their children go out late at night.
• Bored (ऊबा हुआ): Feeling weary and restless through lack of interest in one's current activity.
• Example: He was bored with the repetitive nature of his daily chores.
• Careless (लापरवाह): Not giving enough attention or thought to avoiding mistakes or harm.
• Example: A careless error in the report led to a major misunderstanding.

The correct answer is: xerogrIphy.

Key Points

• The word 'xerogrIphy' is a misspelt word referring to the technique of making photocopies using a dry process. (शुष्क प्रतिलिपिकरण)
• Example: The spelling 'xerogrIphy' is incorrect because it uses the letter 'i' instead of the letter 'a'.
• 'Xerography' is the correct spelling, which is a photocopying process that uses static electricity and dry powder (toner) to reproduce documents. (ज़ेरोग्राफी)
• Example: The invention of xerography revolutionized the business world by allowing documents to be duplicated instantly.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word among the options is 'xerogrIphy'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: xerogrIphy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Xenophobic (विदेशी लोगों से नफरत करने वाला): Having or showing a dislike of or prejudice against people from other countries.
• Example: The city implemented new educational programs to combat xenophobic attitudes and promote inclusivity.
• Xylophone (काष्ठतरंग): A musical instrument consisting of a row of wooden bars of graduated length to produce different notes when struck with mallets.
• Example: The young musician played a lively melody on the xylophone during the school concert.
• Xenolithic (विजातीय शिलाखंड संबंधी): Relating to a xenolith, which is a piece of rock of different origin from the igneous rock in which it is embedded.
• Example: The geology team discovered xenolithic fragments within the volcanic rock that provided clues about the Earths crust.

The correct answer is: Durable.

Key Points

• The word 'perishable' refers to something (especially food) that is likely to decay or go bad quickly if not kept in certain conditions. (नश्वर / जल्द खराब होने वाला)
• Example: Many fresh fruits and vegetables are highly perishable and must be refrigerated.
• 'Durable' refers to something that is able to withstand wear, pressure, or damage; it is long-lasting and remains in good condition for a long time, which is the opposite of being perishable. (टिकाऊ)
• Example: These hiking boots are made of durable leather designed to last for years.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate antonym of 'perishable' is 'durable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Durable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Soft (कोमल / नरम): Something that is easy to mold, cut, compress, or fold; not hard or firm.
• Example: She likes to sleep on a soft pillow.
• Edible (खाद्य / खाने योग्य): Something that is fit or safe to be eaten.
• Example: The chef decorated the cake with edible flowers.
• Breakable (टूटने योग्य / भंगुर): Something that is fragile and capable of being broken easily.
• Example: The box was filled with breakable glass ornaments.

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e. Montage.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A series of shots put together sequentially to narrate something within a film' refers to a cinematic editing technique where multiple short clips are edited into a sequence to condense space, time, or information. (फिल्म में कुछ बयान करने के लिए दृश्यों की एक श्रृंखला को क्रमिक रूप से लगाना)
• Example: The movie used a training montage to show the protagonist becoming a champion over several months.
• 'Montage' is the process or technique of selecting, editing, and piecing together separate sections of film to form a continuous whole. (मोंटाज / दृश्य-संयोजन)
• Example: The opening montage of the film perfectly captured the chaotic life in the city.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct one-word substitute for the given description is 'Montage'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Montage

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Trailer (ट्रेलर / विज्ञापन फिल्म): A series of extracts from a film or television program, used for advance publicity.
• Example: The trailer for the new sci-fi movie has already received millions of views online.
• Preview (पूर्वावलोकन): An inspection or viewing of something before it is bought or becomes generally available.
• Example: The gallery held a private preview of the artist's latest paintings for selected guests.
• Flashback (फ्लैशबैक / पूर्ववृत्त): A scene in a movie or novel set in a time earlier than the main story.
• Example: A flashback in the middle of the chapter explained how the two rivals first met.

The correct answer is Option(1) i.e. Ambidextrous.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A person who can use both hands well' refers to an individual who possesses the ability to use both the right and left hands with equal ease and proficiency. (दोनों हाथों का कुशलता से उपयोग करने वाला)
• Example: Being ambidextrous allows the surgeon to perform complex procedures more effectively by switching hands when necessary.
• 'Ambidextrous' is the specific one-word substitution for someone who is not naturally biased towards one hand but can use either hand for tasks like writing or drawing. (उभयहस्त)
• Example: The legendary artist was ambidextrous, often painting with both hands simultaneously.
• Therefore, the correct answer is- Ambidextrous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Ambivert (उभयमुखी): A person whose personality has a balance of extrovert and introvert features.
• Example: As an ambivert, he enjoys social gatherings but also values his quiet time alone to recharge.
• Ambivalent (द्विधायुक्त/अस्पष्ट): Having mixed feelings or contradictory ideas about something or someone.
• Example: She felt ambivalent about the new job offer because it offered a high salary but required a long commute.
• Divergent (भिन्न/अपसारी): Tending to be different or develop in different directions; deviating from a standard or common point.
• Example: The two political parties have divergent views on how to manage the national economy.

The correct answer is 'In keeping with'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'in keeping with' is a prepositional phrase that means consistent with, in agreement with, or following a particular custom, rule, or tradition.
• The sentence discusses the act of continuing to celebrate the festivals of Odisha as a way to honor or follow a tradition.
• Therefore, 'In keeping with' is the most appropriate choice to describe actions that are aligned with established cultural practices.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 do not fit the contextual or grammatical requirements of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: 'In keeping with our tradition, we should continue to celebrate the different festivals of Odisha.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'Because of' is used to indicate a reason or cause. While traditions provide a reason, 'in keeping with' specifically highlights the harmony between the action and the custom.
• Option 2: 'As far as' is used to talk about the extent or degree of something (e.g., 'As far as I know...'). It is incomplete here without 'is concerned'.
• Option 3: 'So as to' is a conjunctional phrase used to express purpose and must be followed by a verb, not a noun phrase like 'our tradition'.

The correct answer is Will the new bridge be opened for traffic next week?.

Key Points

• The given sentence is an interrogative sentence in the Simple Future Tense (Future Indefinite).
• In Active Voice, the structure for an interrogative simple future sentence is: Will/Shall + Subject + Verb (Base Form/V1) + Object?
• To convert this into Passive Voice, the structure changes to: Will/Shall + Object (new subject) + be + Past Participle (V3) + (by + agent)?
• The subject in the active sentence is the new bridge, and the main verb is open.
• When converting to passive, the verb open must be changed to its Past Participle form, which is opened.
• Following the rule, the passive construction becomes: Will + the new bridge + be + opened + for traffic next week?.
• This perfectly aligns with the grammatical requirements for maintaining the future timeline and the interrogative mood.

 Additional Information

• The other options are incorrect because they change the tense of the original sentence:
• Is the new bridge opened... represents the Simple Present Passive, which is used for facts or habitual actions, not future intentions.
• Has the new bridge been opened... represents the Present Perfect Passive, which denotes an action completed in the immediate past.
• Was the new bridge opened... represents the Simple Past Passive, which refers to an action that occurred at a specific time in the past.
• The auxiliary verb (will) must remain consistent with the future time marker (next week) provided in the context.

The correct answer is Do the mentors provide proper guidance to all newly admitted students?.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the Passive Voice and follows the Interrogative Form of the Simple Present Tense. The structure used is Is/Am/Are + Object + V3 (Past Participle) + by + Subject.
• To convert this into Active Voice, the Object of the passive sentence (the mentors) must become the Subject of the active sentence, and the Subject of the passive sentence (proper guidance) must become the Object.
• In the Simple Present Tense, the interrogative active structure is Do/Does + Subject + V1 (Base Form) + Object. Since the new subject 'the mentors' is plural, the auxiliary verb 'Do' is required.
• The main verb 'provided' (V3) is converted back to its base form, 'provide' (V1), to satisfy the grammatical requirements of the Active Voice in this tense.
• The remaining prepositional phrase 'to all newly admitted students' remains unchanged and is placed at the end of the clause to maintain the original meaning.

 Additional Information

• Rules for Voice Change across Tenses:
• Simple Past Tense: The active form uses 'Did' while the passive uses 'Was/Were + V3'. For example, 'Did they provide guidance?' becomes 'Was guidance provided by them?'
• Present Perfect Tense: The active form uses 'Has/Have + V3' while the passive uses 'Has/Have + been + V3'. This explains why the option starting with 'Have' is incorrect for a simple present passive sentence.
• Simple Future Tense: The active form uses 'Will + V1' while the passive uses 'Will + be + V3'. This distinguishes the Future Tense from the Simple Present Tense used in the question.
• Subject-Verb Agreement: It is critical to match the auxiliary verb (Do/Does) with the number of the subject. 'Do' is used with I, You, We, They and plural nouns, whereas 'Does' is used with He, She, It and singular nouns.

The correct answer is 'for'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition 'for' is used to indicate a period of time or duration.
• In the given sentence, 'the summer' represents a specific duration of time that the politician intends to spend at his rural estate.
• Therefore, 'for' is the grammatically correct choice to show how long the stay will last.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 do not correctly describe a period of duration in this specific sentence structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The politician is going to his rural estate for the summer.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'of' is generally used to show possession, belonging, or origin (e.g., the owner of the estate).
• Option 3: 'since' is used to indicate a specific point in time when an action started, typically used with perfect tenses (e.g., He has been there since June).
• Option 4: 'from' is used to denote a starting point in time or space (e.g., He is traveling from the city).

The correct answer is conducive to innovation or inclusivity.

Key Points

• The primary error in the original sentence lies in the prepositional collocation. In standard English, the adjective conducive is strictly followed by the preposition to when indicating that a situation or environment makes a particular outcome likely.
• The phrase conducive of is considered non-standard or archaic in modern usage; therefore, the replacement must utilize the to-infinitive structure or a prepositional phrase starting with to.
• The sentence requires parallelism, a grammatical principle where items in a series must share the same grammatical form. In the correct option, innovation and inclusivity are both abstract nouns, maintaining the logical balance of the sentence.
• While the original sentence used the conjunction and, the option conducive to innovation or inclusivity is the only one that corrects the fundamental idiomatic error while preserving the noun-noun parallel structure.
• In the context of economic and social reforms, creating an atmosphere that is conducive to progress is a common idiomatic expression used to describe facilitating growth or development.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of Incorrect Options:
• conducive of innovations with inclusiveness: This option fails because it retains the incorrect preposition of and changes the meaning by using with, which does not effectively link the two goals to the atmosphere being created.
• conducive to innovate and inclusivity: This choice violates the rule of parallelism. It attempts to pair the verb innovate with the noun inclusivity. For a sentence to be grammatically sound, both elements linked by and or or should be of the same part of speech (i.e., both nouns).
• No improvement required: This is incorrect because the original phrase conducive of is a grammatical error that must be corrected to conducive to.
• Key Definitions:
• Innovation: The practical implementation of ideas that result in the introduction of new goods or services or improvement in offering goods or services.
• Inclusivity: The policy or practice of providing equal access to opportunities and resources for people who might otherwise be excluded or marginalized.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes a transition from a physical setting to an internal emotional shift in the character Elliot.
• S1 is the fixed opening sentence that sets the scene: The grey afternoon had softened into night, and it was snowing.
• Sentence A follows S1 as it continues the atmospheric description of the snow and establishes the physical location: The falling snow whirled like a furious mist in the headlight beams on Route 7 and settled implacably on Elliot's cheeks and eyelids.
• Sentence C is the third sentence, transitioning from the external environment to the protagonist's immediate internal reaction: His heart, for no good reason, leaped up in childlike expectation.
• Sentence D is the fourth sentence as it provides the abstract reasoning for his hopeful state: He had run away from a dream and encountered possibility.
• Sentence B is the fifth sentence because it further defines the possibility as a concrete feeling of a promise: He felt in possession of a promise.
• S2 is the fixed closing sentence showing the character taking action based on his internal state: He began to walk toward the roadside lights.
• The correct logical sequence is ACDB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

The grey afternoon had softened into night, and it was snowing. The falling snow whirled like a furious mist in the headlight beams on Route 7 and settled implacably on Elliot's cheeks and eyelids. His heart, for no good reason, leaped up in childlike expectation. He had run away from a dream and encountered possibility. He felt in possession of a promise. He began to walk toward the roadside lights.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The primary error in the sentence is the incorrect use of an apostrophe in the possessive pronoun 'theirs'.
• Possessive pronouns such as theirs, ours, yours, hers, and its never take an apostrophe.
• The word 'theirs' functions as a possessive pronoun here, standing in for the phrase 'their production plan' to avoid repetition.
• The use of the comparative degree 'more sustainable' is appropriate because the sentence compares two distinct production plans.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: 'I am confident that our production plan is more sustainable than theirs.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'their' is a possessive adjective and requires a noun immediately following it (e.g., 'more sustainable than their plan').
• Option 3: 'most' is the superlative form, used when comparing three or more things; here, only two are being compared. Additionally, 'theirs'' is not a valid word in English.
• Possessive Pronouns vs. Adjectives: Possessive pronouns (mine, ours, yours, his, hers, its, theirs) replace a noun phrase, while possessive adjectives (my, our, your, his, her, its, their) modify a noun that follows them.

The correct answer is 'trigger'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses Asthma, a respiratory condition, and how various environmental factors affect it.
• In the sentence, the word 'triggers' is used as a noun to refer to allergens like dust, pollen, and pollution.
• The blank requires a verb that describes what these factors do to asthma symptoms.
• The verb 'trigger' means to cause a sudden reaction or to initiate an event, which perfectly fits the context of allergens causing a flare-up of symptoms.
• The resulting difficulty in breathing indicates that these factors provoke rather than help the condition.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by episodes of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness, which occur when the airways become inflamed and constricted. The exact cause of asthma remains unclear, but it is believed to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Certain triggers, such as dust, pollen, pet dander, and air pollution, can A. trigger asthma symptoms, making it difficult for sufferers to breathe. Managing asthma involves both preventative and rescue measures. Medications such as inhalers are commonly used to reduce inflammation and open the airways. However, these medications alone are not enough. It is important for individuals with asthma to identify their B. known triggers and avoid them whenever possible. Additionally, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and a healthy diet can help strengthen the immune system and improve lung function. Despite advances in treatment, asthma can still be a debilitating condition. In severe cases, it may lead to hospitalization or even death. This makes early diagnosis and proper management C. very essential for those affected by the disease. Furthermore, public awareness about asthma is crucial to help people understand the severity of the condition and seek prompt medical attention. The lack of awareness can lead to D. life-threatening consequences, including inadequate treatment and mismanagement of asthma attacks. Moreover, it is important to remember that asthma is a E. chronic condition that requires long-term care and vigilance.

Additional Information

• Relieve: This means to alleviate or reduce pain or distress, which is the opposite of what an allergen does to symptoms.
• Prevent: This means to keep something from happening. Allergens do not prevent symptoms; they cause them.
• Treat: This involves medical care to improve a condition. Dust and pollen are not medical treatments for asthma.

The correct answer is 'known'.

Key Points

• The sentence focuses on how individuals with asthma can manage their condition by recognizing and staying away from substances that cause attacks.
• The word required for blank (B) must describe the 'triggers' that a patient has already identified through diagnosis or experience.
• 'Known' is the most logical fit because it implies that once a person identifies which specific factors (like pollen or dust) affect them, those triggers become 'known', allowing the person to avoid them.
• Grammatically, an adjective is needed to modify the noun 'triggers', and contextually, identification leads to knowledge.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by episodes of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness, which occur when the airways become inflamed and constricted. The exact cause of asthma remains unclear, but it is believed to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Certain triggers, such as dust, pollen, pet dander, and air pollution, can 1. trigger asthma symptoms, making it difficult for sufferers to breathe. Managing asthma involves both preventative and rescue measures. Medications such as inhalers are commonly used to reduce inflammation and open the airways. However, these medications alone are not enough. It is important for individuals with asthma to identify their 2. known triggers and avoid them whenever possible. Additionally, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and a healthy diet can help strengthen the immune system and improve lung function. Despite advances in treatment, asthma can still be a debilitating condition. In severe cases, it may lead to hospitalization or even death. This makes early diagnosis and proper management 3. very essential for those affected by the disease. Furthermore, public awareness about asthma is crucial to help people understand the severity of the condition and seek prompt medical attention. The lack of awareness can lead to 4. life-threatening consequences, including inadequate treatment and mismanagement of asthma attacks. Moreover, it is important to remember that asthma is a 5. chronic condition that requires long-term care and vigilance.

Additional Information

• Immediate: Refers to something happening instantly; while triggers can cause immediate reactions, the goal of management is to identify the specific sources, not just the timing.
• Unknown: Refers to things that are not identified; one cannot actively avoid a trigger if it remains unknown.
• Knowingly: This is an adverb meaning in a way that shows one has knowledge; it does not grammatically fit as a descriptor for the noun 'triggers' in this context.

The correct answer is 'very'.

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the significance of early diagnosis and proper management of asthma to prevent severe consequences like hospitalization or death.
• The word 'essential' is an adjective that means absolutely necessary or extremely important.
• To emphasize this necessity, an intensifier is required. In general English usage, 'very' is a common intensifier used to strengthen the meaning of an adjective.
• The phrase 'very essential' underscores the critical nature of managing the condition promptly.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by episodes of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness, which occur when the airways become inflamed and constricted. The exact cause of asthma remains unclear, but it is believed to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Certain triggers, such as dust, pollen, pet dander, and air pollution, can trigger asthma symptoms, making it difficult for sufferers to breathe. Managing asthma involves both preventative and rescue measures. Medications such as inhalers are commonly used to reduce inflammation and open the airways. However, these medications alone are not enough. It is important for individuals with asthma to identify their known triggers and avoid them whenever possible. Additionally, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and a healthy diet can help strengthen the immune system and improve lung function. Despite advances in treatment, asthma can still be a debilitating condition. In severe cases, it may lead to hospitalization or even death. This makes early diagnosis and proper management very essential for those affected by the disease. Furthermore, public awareness about asthma is crucial to help people understand the severity of the condition and seek prompt medical attention. The lack of awareness can lead to life-threatening consequences, including inadequate treatment and mismanagement of asthma attacks. Moreover, it is important to remember that asthma is a chronic condition that requires long-term care and vigilance.

Additional Information

• More: This is used for comparisons (e.g., 'more essential than X') and does not fit the structure of the sentence.
• Much: This is typically used with comparative adjectives (e.g., much better) or uncountable nouns, rather than directly before a positive degree adjective like 'essential'.
• So: Usually requires a result clause (e.g., 'so essential that...') or is used in an exclamatory sense, which is not the case here.

The correct answer is 'life-threatening'.

Key Points

• The passage focuses on the severity and management of asthma, a respiratory condition.
• The sentence containing blank (D) refers to the potential results of a lack of awareness and mismanagement of the condition.
• The previous paragraph specifically mentions that in severe cases, asthma can lead to hospitalization or even death.
• 'Life-threatening' is the most appropriate adjective as it directly relates to the risk of death mentioned earlier, emphasizing the serious nature of the consequences.
• Other options like 'recurrent', 'sporadic', or 'rare' do not align with the context of extreme danger or severity established in the text.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by episodes of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness, which occur when the airways become inflamed and constricted. The exact cause of asthma remains unclear, but it is believed to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Certain triggers, such as dust, pollen, pet dander, and air pollution, can 1. trigger asthma symptoms, making it difficult for sufferers to breathe. Managing asthma involves both preventative and rescue measures. Medications such as inhalers are commonly used to reduce inflammation and open the airways. However, these medications alone are not enough. It is important for individuals with asthma to identify their 2. known triggers and avoid them whenever possible. Additionally, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and a healthy diet can help strengthen the immune system and improve lung function. Despite advances in treatment, asthma can still be a debilitating condition. In severe cases, it may lead to hospitalization or even death. This makes early diagnosis and proper management 3. very essential for those affected by the disease. Furthermore, public awareness about asthma is crucial to help people understand the severity of the condition and seek prompt medical attention. The lack of awareness can lead to 4. life-threatening consequences, including inadequate treatment and mismanagement of asthma attacks. Moreover, it is important to remember that asthma is a 5. chronic condition that requires long-term care and vigilance.

Additional Information

• Recurrent: Occurring often or repeatedly; while asthma attacks can be recurrent, it is less suitable for describing the severity of 'consequences' in this context.
• Sporadic: Occurring at irregular intervals or only in a few places; scattered or isolated.
• Rare: Not occurring very often; this word would downplay the actual danger of mismanaged asthma described in the text.

The correct answer is 'chronic'.

Key Points

• The sentence indicates that asthma is a condition that requires long-term care and vigilance.
• The word 'chronic' refers to a medical condition or illness that is persistent or otherwise long-lasting in its effects or a disease that comes with time.
• The passage itself begins by defining asthma as a 'chronic respiratory condition', which confirms that the blank should be filled with 'chronic'.
• Other options like 'acute' (short-term/sudden), 'temporary' (non-permanent), and 'preventable' do not logically align with the requirement for long-term care in the context of a permanent respiratory condition.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by episodes of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness, which occur when the airways become inflamed and constricted. The exact cause of asthma remains unclear, but it is believed to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Certain triggers, such as dust, pollen, pet dander, and air pollution, can A. trigger asthma symptoms, making it difficult for sufferers to breathe. Managing asthma involves both preventative and rescue measures. Medications such as inhalers are commonly used to reduce inflammation and open the airways. However, these medications alone are not enough. It is important for individuals with asthma to identify their B. known triggers and avoid them whenever possible. Additionally, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and a healthy diet can help strengthen the immune system and improve lung function. Despite advances in treatment, asthma can still be a debilitating condition. In severe cases, it may lead to hospitalization or even death. This makes early diagnosis and proper management C. very essential for those affected by the disease. Furthermore, public awareness about asthma is crucial to help people understand the severity of the condition and seek prompt medical attention. The lack of awareness can lead to D. life-threatening consequences, including inadequate treatment and mismanagement of asthma attacks. Moreover, it is important to remember that asthma is a E. chronic condition that requires long-term care and vigilance.

Additional Information

• Acute: Refers to a condition that is severe and sudden in onset but lasts for a short period.
• Temporary: Lasting for only a limited period of time; not permanent.
• Preventable: Able to be stopped or kept from happening. While asthma attacks can be prevented, the underlying condition itself is generally managed rather than prevented once developed.

शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है - दीपिका

Key Points

• दिए गए विकल्पों में 'दीपिका' शब्द की वर्तनी व्याकरणिक रूप से शुद्ध है।
• 'दीपिका' शब्द का सामान्य अर्थ 'छोटा दीपक', 'प्रकाशिका' या 'चाँदनी' होता है।
• हिंदी भाषा में शब्दों को लिखने के लिए वर्णों के व्यवस्थित समूह को वर्तनी (Spelling) कहा जाता है।
• लिखने में होने वाली अशुद्धियाँ प्रायः उच्चारण दोष या व्याकरणिक नियमों की जानकारी न होने के कारण होती हैं।

Additional Informationकुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है - ईद

Key Points

• विकल्पों में दिया गया शब्द 'ईद' वर्तनी की दृष्टि से पूर्णतः शुद्ध है।
• ईद मुस्लिम समुदाय का एक प्रमुख धार्मिक त्योहार है, जिसे हर्षोल्लास के साथ मनाया जाता है।
• वर्तनी का अर्थ लिखने की रीति से है। हिंदी में ध्वन्यात्मकता होने के कारण जैसा उच्चारण किया जाता है, वैसा ही लिखा जाता है।
• अन्य तीनों विकल्प (इद, ईद्द, इद्द) मानक हिंदी वर्तनी के अनुसार त्रुटिपूर्ण हैं।

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

अशुद्ध शब्द है - आशिर्वाद

Key Points

• दिए गए विकल्पों में 'आशिर्वाद' की वर्तनी अशुद्ध है। इसका शुद्ध रूप 'आशीर्वाद' होता है।
• आशीर्वाद का अर्थ दुआ, आशीष या किसी के प्रति की गई मंगलकामना होता है।
• वर्तनी संबंधी नियम: व्याकरण के अनुसार, यदि 'र्' (रेफ) का उच्चारण जिस वर्ण से पहले होता है, वह उसी वर्ण के ऊपर लगाया जाता है। 'आशीर्वाद' में 'र्' का उच्चारण 'व' से पहले हो रहा है, इसलिए इसे 'व' के ऊपर लगाया जाना चाहिए।
• वर्तनी का अर्थ किसी शब्द को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के क्रम से है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

शुद्ध शब्द है - तपस्या

Key Points

• विकल्पों में दिया गया 'तपस्या' शब्द व्याकरण की दृष्टि से शुद्ध है।
• तपस्या शब्द का अर्थ मन, वाणी और शरीर को संयमित कर कठिन साधना या धर्म-कर्म करना होता है।
• लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी या अक्षरी कहते हैं। यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होता है, तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध हो जाती है।
• अन्य तीनों विकल्प (तपश्या, तपष्या, तापश्या) वर्तनी की दृष्टि से त्रुटिपूर्ण हैं क्योंकि इनमें 'स' वर्ण के स्थान पर अन्य वर्णों या मात्राओं का गलत प्रयोग हुआ है।

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

सही उत्तर है- आरोप-पत्र

Key Points

• अंग्रेजी शब्द 'Charge-sheet' का सही हिंदी अर्थ 'आरोप-पत्र' हो���ा है।
• जब पुलिस किसी आपराधिक मामले की जांच (Investigation) पूरी कर लेती है और आरोपी के विरुद्ध पर्याप्त साक्ष्य पाए जाते हैं, तब न्यायालय में जो अंतिम रिपोर्ट पेश की जाती है, उसे आरोप-पत्र कहा जाता है।
• आरोप-पत्र दंड प्रक्रिया संहिता (CrPC) की धारा 173 के तहत तैयार और दाखिल किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण के तौर पर: 'The police filed a charge-sheet against the accused.' (पुलिस ने आरोपी के खिलाफ आरोप-पत्र दाखिल किया।)

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 पारिभाषिक शब्दावली के मुख्य क्षेत्र-

1. विधिक शब्दावली: कानून और न्यायालयों में प्रयुक्त होने वाले शब्द, जैसे- अभियुक्त (Accused), साक्ष्य (Evidence)।
2. प्रशासनिक शब्दावली: सरकारी कार्यालयों और कामकाज में प्रयुक्त शब्द, जैसे- अधिसूचना (Notification)।
3. वाणिज्यिक शब्दावली: व्यापार और वाणिज्य से संबंधित शब्द, जैसे- परिसंपत्ति (Asset)।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- अनुशासनहीनता

Key Points

• किसी भी कार्यालय या संगठन में बिना अनुमति के या निर्धारित समय से पहले ड्यूटी छोड़ना स्पष्ट रूप से अनुशासनहीनता (Indiscipline) माना जाता है।
• अनुशासनहीनता का अर्थ है संस्था द्वारा निर्धारित नियमों, विनियमों और आचार संहिता का उल्लंघन करना।
• जब कोई कर्मचारी समय से पहले कार्यस्थल छोड़ता है, तो यह न केवल कार्यक्षमता को प्रभावित करता है बल्कि अन्य कर्मचारियों के मनोबल और संगठन की उत्पादकता पर भी नकारात्मक प्रभाव डालता है।
• ऐसी स्थिति में कर्मचारी के विरुद्ध अनुशासनात्मक कार्रवाई की जा सकती है, जिसमें चेतावनी, जुर्माना या निलंबन शामिल हो सकता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 कार्यस्थल पर अनुशासन के महत्वपूर्ण पहलू-

1. आचरण नियमावली (Code of Conduct): यह कर्मचारियों के व्यवहार के लिए बनाए गए औपचारिक दिशा-निर्देशों का समूह है।
2. समय प्रबं���न (Time Management): समय का सही उपयोग करना और कार्यालय अवधि का पूर्ण सम्मान करना।
3. उत्तरदायित्व (Accountability): अपने सौंपे गए कार्यों और ड्यूटी के प्रति जवाबदेह होना।

Additional Information

‘जब वरिष्ठ अधिकारी अचानक आकर कार्य की समीक्षा करें’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - निरीक्षण।

Key Points

• ‘जब वरिष्ठ अधिकारी अचानक आकर कार्य की समीक्षा करें’ वाक्यांश के लिए सही शब्द ‘निरीक्षण’ है।
• ‘निरीक्षण’ का अर्थ है — किसी कार्य, वस्तु या स्थिति की सावधानीपूर्वक जाँच-परख करना ताकि उसकी गुणवत्ता या नियमों के पालन की पुष्टि की जा सके।
• जब किसी विस्तृत वाक्यांश अथवा अनेक शब्दों के स्थान पर एक ही सार्थक शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है, तो उसे ‘वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द’ कहते हैं। इससे भाषा संक्षिप्त और प्रभावशाली बनती है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

सही उत्तर है- पास असली है या नहीं, जाँचें

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्य 'गेट पास की पुष्टि करें' में 'पुष्टि' शब्द का अर्थ किसी तथ्य या वस्तु की सत्यता को प्रमाणित करना होता है।
• जब हम किसी पास की पुष्टि (Confirm/Verify) करते हैं, तो हम यह जाँचते हैं कि वह वैध (Valid) है या नकली।
• प्रशासनिक और सुरक्षा संबंधी कार्यों में सत्यापन या पुष्टि एक अनिवार्य प्रक्रिया है।
• उदाहरण: 'कृपया अपने दस्ताव���जों की पुष्टि करें।' (यहाँ अर्थ है कि दस्तावेजों की सत्यता की जाँच करें।)

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 'पुष्टि' शब्द के विभिन्न संदर्भ-

1. प्रमाणन: किसी वस्तु के असली होने का प्रमाण देना।
2. स्वीकृति: किसी प्रस्ताव या निर्णय को मंजूरी देना।
3. दृढ़ीकरण: किसी विचार या विश्वास को और अधिक मजबूत करना।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- बहु-स्तरीय सुरक्षा व्यवस्था

Key Points

• सुरक्षा चक्र (Suraksha Chakra) का तात्पर्य एक ऐसी व्यवस्था से है जिसमें किसी व्यक्ति, स्थान या वस्तु की रक्षा के लिए एक से अधिक सुरक्षा परतों का उपयोग किया जाता है।
• यह शब्द मुख्य रूप से VVIP सुरक्षा (जैसे राष्ट्रपति, प्रधानमंत्री) और राष्ट्रीय महत्व के संस्थानों के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है।
• इस व्यवस्था में विभिन्न सुरक्षा बल जैसे SPG, NSG, अर्धसैनिक बल और स्थानीय पुलिस मिलकर एक सुरक्षा कवच तैयार करते हैं।
• इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य किसी भी संभावित खतरे को अलग-अलग स्तरों पर रोकना और पूर्ण सुरक्षा सुनिश्चित करना है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 सुरक्षा चक्र की प्रमुख परतें-

1. आंतरिक घेरा: यह सुरक्षा का सबसे नजदीकी और संवेदनशील घेरा होता है, जहाँ कमांडो तैनात होते हैं।
2. मध्य घेरा: इसमें सुरक्षा बलों द्वारा निगरानी और प्रवेश नियंत्रण किया जाता है।
3. बाहरी घेरा: यह भीड़ को नियंत्रित करने और आसपास के क्षेत्र को सुरक्षित रखने के लिए होता है।

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