SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 19 Feb, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given series: _ _ L M _ G _ L _ D _ P L _

Option 1) MGGDPPM → M G L M G G D L P D P P L M → (It doesn't follow any pattern)

Option 2) DPNPDMG → D P L M N G P L D D M P L G → (It doesn't follow any pattern)

Option 3) GPDPMGM → G P L M D G P L M D G P L M → (It follows the pattern of: GPLM - D - GPLM - D - GPLM)

Option 4) PMGDPDM → P M L M G G D L P D D P L M → (It doesn't follow any pattern)

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given word: 'IDENTITY'

After arranging in reverse English alphabetical order:

 

The alphabet "N" and the alphabet "I" remain unchanged when the letters in the word 'IDENTITY' are arranged in reverse English alphabetical order.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

1. The elements shift clockwise subsequently.

2. Each element is replaced by new element.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: 69 − 2 ÷ 7 + 35 × 7 = ?

According to the question, after ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged:

69 − 2 ÷ 7 + 35 × 7 = ? ⇒ 69 + 2 × 7 − 35 ÷ 7 = ?

⇒ 69 + 2 × 7 − 35 ÷ 7 = ?

⇒ 69 + 2 × 7 − 5 = ?

⇒ 69 + 14 − 5 = ?

⇒ 83 − 5 = ?

⇒ 78 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) EFC

Option 2) LMJ

Option 3) ONL

​Option 4) FGD

Thus, out of all 'ONL' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre

​​1) G is sitting to the immediate left of B. 

2) D is sitting to the immediate right of B.

3) F is sitting to the immediate right of D and the immediate left of A.

4) E is sitting to the immediate left of G.

5. C is sitting to the immediate left of E.

Thus, A is sitting to the immediate left of C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is :-

From the given two different cubes the adjacent sides are as shown below :

As 6 is common on both the dices, it is clear that 5, 4, 1, and 3 are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. 2 will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

4 → 3

5 → 1

6 → 2

So, the opposite side of "2" will be side "6".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes is shown below :

Shoe, Jacket and Bow are three different items.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

According to the question:

​​

Thus, 'T' is coded as '3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: G, H, I, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table.

​​1) Only one person sits between M and L when counted from the right of M. 

2) Only one person sits between M and H.

3) Only two people sit between K and I.

4) Only one person sits between L and I.

5. Only one person sits between J and H.

After positioning all only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. G.

Thus, M and H sits to the immediate right and left of G respectively.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

According to the question:

​​

Thus, 'math' is coded as 'ef'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

​​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Here, option figure 3 shows the mirror image of the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

OQUT is related to QSWV

And,

IKON is related to KMQP

Similarly,

ZBFE is related to

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Expression: C - D x E ÷ F + G

C - D → C is the wife of D. 

D x E → D is the brother of E.

E ÷ F → E is the daughter of F.

F + G → F is the father of G. 

Thus, F is C's husband’s father.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The figure that will when the given paper is unfolded is shown below:

Thus, Option figure 3 will appear when unfolded the given paper.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer

The logic followed here is:

PQTU is related to LMPQ

And,

EHLN is related to ADHJ

Similarly,

FMRW is related to

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I): No coat is a trouser → Does not follow (As all pants are trousers, no pant is a shirt and all shirts are coats. As no direct relation is given between coat and trouser, therefore it is false.)

(II): Some coats are pants → Does not follow (As no pant is a shirt and all shirts are coats. So it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows. ​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is HD Kumaraswamy.

Key Points

• HD Kumaraswamy is a senior Indian politician and a former Chief Minister of Karnataka. He is a prominent leader of the Janata Dal (Secular) (JD(S)) political party.
• As of September 2024, he holds the position of the Union Cabinet Minister of Steel. His appointment reflects the government’s focus on enhancing the steel industry in India.
• The Ministry of Steel is responsible for formulating policies related to the growth, development, and regulation of the steel industry in India. It ensures the availability of steel for various sectors, including construction, infrastructure, and manufacturing.
• HD Kumaraswamy has been actively working to promote the domestic steel industry, ensuring the production of high-quality steel and encouraging investments from private and public sectors. Hence, this makes him the correct option for the question.

Additional Information

• Union Ministry of Steel:
• The Ministry of Steel was established to oversee the development and regulation of the steel industry in India. It formulates policies to ensure the growth of the sector.
• India is the second-largest producer of steel globally, making the role of the Ministry crucial in maintaining this position and ensuring sustainability in production and innovation.
• Functions of the Ministry of Steel:
• The Ministry ensures adequate production and distribution of steel to meet the demands of various sectors like infrastructure, defense, and manufacturing.
• It supports research and development (R&D) to encourage innovative technologies that enhance production efficiency and reduce environmental impact.
• It regulates and coordinates efforts to maintain the international competitiveness of India’s steel industry.
• About HD Kumaraswamy:
• HD Kumaraswamy was born on 16 December 1959 in Karnataka. He is the son of former Prime Minister H.D. Deve Gowda.
• He served as the Chief Minister of Karnataka on two occasions, displaying strong administrative skills and a focus on rural development.
• As a politician, he has been known for his focus on promoting industries, infrastructure development, and enhancing the welfare of farmers and the rural population.

Important Points

• India’s Steel Industry:
• India’s steel industry plays a pivotal role in the country’s economic growth, contributing significantly to GDP and employment generation.
• India has a production capacity of around 154 million tonnes of steel as of 2023. The government is actively working on initiatives to achieve 300 million tonnes of steel production capacity by 2030.
• Global Context:
• India is a major player in the global steel market, competing with nations like China, Japan, and the United States in terms of production and exports.
• The National Steel Policy of 2017 aims to make India self-reliant in steel production while maintaining sustainability and environmental efficiency.

The correct answer is Decreasing the household income.

Key Points

• Microfinance institutions (MFIs) play a crucial role in providing financial services to underserved populations, particularly in rural and semi-urban areas of India.
• The primary objectives of MFIs include promoting socio-economic development, empowering women, and achieving financial inclusion. These aims are achieved by enabling access to small loans, savings, insurance, and other financial products. Hence, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
• MFIs often focus on promoting women empowerment, as women are considered crucial drivers of socio-economic progress. Loans provided to women help improve household income, education, and healthcare access. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• One of the critical goals of MFIs is to achieve financial self-sufficiency. This ensures that the institution can sustain itself while offering affordable financial services to the needy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• MFIs contribute to socio-economic development by improving the standard of living, enabling entrepreneurship, and reducing poverty in underserved areas. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• However, the statement "Decreasing the household income" does not align with the objectives of MFIs. In fact, MFIs aim to enhance household income and improve financial stability, not decrease it. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is 4) Decreasing the household income.

Additional Information

• Definition of Microfinance Institutions:
• Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) are financial organizations that provide small loans and other financial services to low-income individuals or groups who lack access to traditional banking services.
• MFIs are crucial in addressing poverty by facilitating income generation, education, and healthcare in underserved communities.
• Promoting Socio-Economic Development:
• MFIs contribute to socio-economic development by enabling entrepreneurship, reducing poverty, and improving the standard of living in India.
• The loans provided by MFIs are often used for starting small businesses, purchasing agricultural tools, or improving housing conditions.
• Example: Organizations like SKS Microfinance and Grameen Bank have played significant roles in uplifting marginalized communities.
• Women Empowerment in Microfinance:
• MFIs focus on empowering women by providing them with financial resources to improve their economic independence.
• Studies show that women borrowers tend to invest loans in productive activities such as small businesses or education for their children.
• Empowered women often act as agents of change, contributing to the overall economic growth of their communities.
• Financial Self-Sufficiency of MFIs:
• Achieving financial self-sufficiency is essential for MFIs to operate effectively and sustainably.
• This is achieved through interest income from loans, grants, and support from governments or international organizations.

Important Points

• Key Features of Microfinance:
• Loan Size: Typically small loans ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹50,000, depending on the borrower’s needs.
• Target Audience: Low-income individuals, especially women, rural populations, and small entrepreneurs.
• Services Offered: Savings accounts, insurance, and financial literacy programs alongside loans.
• Examples of MFIs in India:
• Bandhan Bank: One of the largest MFIs in India, focusing on financial inclusion for the unbanked population.
• Grameen Koota: Provides microloans to promote self-employment and socio-economic development.
• Spandana Sphoorty: Focuses on empowering women and small entrepreneurs in rural areas.

The correct answer is Khond Porja.

Key Points

• The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2024 seeks to amend the list of Scheduled Tribes in Andhra Pradesh. One of the notable additions is the inclusion of the Khond Porja tribe.
• The Khond Porja is an indigenous tribal community living predominantly in Andhra Pradesh. They are known for their unique traditions, culture, and social practices.
• The recognition of Khond Porja as a Scheduled Tribe provides them access to specific constitutional safeguards, reservations, and welfare schemes aimed at improving the socio-economic conditions of tribal communities. Hence, the correct option is Khond Porja.
• The addition of Khond Porja to the Scheduled Tribes list will ensure improved representation in government jobs, educational institutions, and legislative bodies, as per the provisions under Article 342 of the Indian Constitution.
• The list of Scheduled Tribes in each state is periodically revised to include or exclude communities based on their socio-economic status and cultural practices.

Additional Information

• Scheduled Tribes and Constitutional Provisions:
• Scheduled Tribes are recognized under Article 342 of the Constitution of India. It defines Scheduled Tribes as specific communities that are deemed to require special attention and support from the government.
• The President of India specifies the Scheduled Tribes list for each state and union territory through public notification. Parliament may later amend this list.
• Khond Porja Tribe:
• The Khond Porja tribe is one of the many indigenous communities residing in Andhra Pradesh. They are primarily engaged in agricultural activities and exhibit distinct cultural practices.
• The inclusion of the Khond Porja tribe under Scheduled Tribes status will facilitate access to welfare schemes such as scholarships, healthcare, housing, and job reservations.
• Example: Welfare schemes like the Post-Matric Scholarship for Scheduled Tribe students aim to promote higher education among tribal communities.
• Significance of Scheduled Tribes List:
• The Scheduled Tribes list ensures the protection and preservation of tribal culture, languages, and rights while addressing socio-economic disparities.
• Being included in the Scheduled Tribes list enables communities like Khond Porja to demand representation in policy-making and governance structures.
• The government’s focus on tribal welfare is strengthened through measures like the Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana and other development programs.

Important Points

• Role of Article 342:
• Article 342 empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Tribes in various states and union territories after consulting with the respective state governments.
• Parliament holds the authority to amend the Scheduled Tribes list as required to address changing socio-economic dynamics.
• Scheduled Tribes Welfare in India:
• Various constitutional safeguards and programs like Article 15(4) and Article 46 ensure the promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Tribes.
• The formation of tribal-dedicated ministries like the Ministry of Tribal Affairs has strengthened tribal welfare efforts in India.
• Legislative measures such as the Forest Rights Act (2006) aim to protect the rights of Scheduled Tribes over forest land and resources.

The correct answer is Article 15(3).

Key Points

• Article 15(3) of the Indian Constitution permits the State to make special provisions for women and children.
• This article is part of Article 15, which generally prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. However, Clause (3) provides an exception by allowing the State to create provisions for their welfare.
• The goal of Article 15(3) is to ensure the upliftment of women and children, who are often vulnerable and marginalized in society. Hence, this statement is correct.
• The provision aligns with the broader principles of social justice and equality, ensuring that the state can take affirmative measures to protect the rights and welfare of women and children.
• Examples of such provisions include reservation of seats in educational institutions for women, special schemes for child welfare, and protection laws for women like the Maternity Benefits Act. Hence, the correct statement is Article 15(3).

Additional Information

• Article 15 of the Indian Constitution:
• Article 15 is a fundamental right that prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• It includes specific clauses, such as Article 15(3), which allows the State to make special provisions for women and children, and Article 15(4), which focuses on the advancement of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and socially and educationally backward classes.
• Significance of Article 15(3):
• It plays a crucial role in promoting gender equality and protecting the rights of women and children.
• The provision enables the State to implement laws such as the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses Act (POCSO), and special employment or educational schemes for women.
• Example: The reservation for women in Panchayati Raj institutions or the National Nutrition Mission focusing on child and maternal health.
• Comparison with other Articles:
• Article 14: Provides for equality before the law and equal protection of laws.
• Article 19: Focuses on the right to freedom of speech and expression, but does not specifically mention provisions for women and children.
• Article 21: Guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, but Article 15(3) is more specific regarding affirmative actions for women and children.

Important Points

• Legal Framework Supporting Article 15(3):
• Several laws and schemes like the Maternity Benefits Act, Equal Remuneration Act, and Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) are derived from the provisions of Article 15(3).
• Reservation for women: Many educational institutions and government jobs reserve seats for women to ensure their inclusion and empowerment.
• Global Perspective:
• Similar provisions for women and children exist in international frameworks like the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) and United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC).

The correct answer is Article 131.

Key Points

• Article 131 of the Indian Constitution provides the Supreme Court with original jurisdiction in cases of disputes between the Centre and State(s), or between two or more states.
• This jurisdiction is exclusive and allows the Supreme Court to directly entertain such cases without requiring them to be initiated at lower courts.
• Disputes under Article 131 typically involve issues of constitutional interpretation, such as conflicts over legislative powers, financial matters, or administrative authority. Hence, the correct option is Article 131.
• Article 130 refers to the seat of the Supreme Court and its ability to function anywhere in India as decided by the Chief Justice of India with the President’s approval. This is not related to original jurisdiction. Hence, it is incorrect.
• Article 135 deals with the power of the Supreme Court to entertain cases under pre-Constitution laws unless Parliament provides otherwise. This does not pertain to original jurisdiction over Centre-State or inter-State disputes. Hence, it is incorrect.
• Article 134 relates to appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in criminal cases, not original jurisdiction. Hence, this option is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Article 131 of the Indian Constitution:
• Article 131 empowers the Supreme Court to adjudicate disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between states.
• The disputes must involve legal rights and obligations, not political disagreements or policy matters.
• For example, the Supreme Court has exercised its jurisdiction under this Article in cases involving water-sharing disputes between states like Punjab and Haryana.
• Other Articles Related to Supreme Court Jurisdiction:
• Article 130: Determines the seat of the Supreme Court.
• Article 134: Deals with appellate jurisdiction in criminal cases.
• Article 135: Grants the Supreme Court jurisdiction over pre-Constitution laws.
• Important Examples of Disputes:
• State of Karnataka vs State of Andhra Pradesh: A dispute regarding water-sharing of the Krishna River.
• Disputes regarding taxation powers between the Centre and States have also been resolved under Article 131.

Important Points

• Conditions for invoking Article 131:
• The dispute must involve legal rights, not political or administrative issues.
• The Supreme Court cannot entertain cases under Article 131 unless the matter directly relates to a constitutional provision.
• Significance of Article 131:
• Ensures the federal balance by resolving disputes between the Centre and States.
• Helps in maintaining the constitutional framework and interpreting laws effectively.
• Strengthens the role of the Supreme Court as the guardian of the Constitution.

The correct answer is Chlorine.

Key Points

• Chlorine is a chemical element represented by the symbol Cl and has an atomic number of 17. It belongs to the group 17 elements, also known as the halogens.
• Chlorine is characterized as a yellow-green dense gas, which is highly reactive and has a distinctive choking smell. This smell is a result of its high reactivity and toxicity.
• It is widely used as a disinfectant in water treatment due to its ability to kill bacteria and other pathogens. Hence, the statement correctly identifies chlorine as the element.
• Chlorine was discovered in 1774 by Swedish chemist Carl Wilhelm Scheele. He obtained it by reacting hydrochloric acid with manganese dioxide.
• Chlorine is a crucial element used in various industries, including the production of PVC (polyvinyl chloride), solvents, and other chemicals. Hence, chlorine is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Halogens (Group 17 Elements):
• Group 17 elements are known as halogens, which include fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine, and astatine.
• Halogens are highly reactive non-metals and are often found in compounds rather than in their elemental forms due to their high reactivity.
• They form salts when they react with metals, which is why their name "halogen" means "salt-former" in Greek.
• Uses of Chlorine:
• Chlorine is extensively used in water purification to make drinking water safe by killing harmful microorganisms.
• It is a key component in the production of PVC, which is used in pipes, cables, and construction materials.
• Chlorine compounds are used in the manufacturing of pesticides, solvents, and medicines.
• Physical and Chemical Properties of Chlorine:
• Chlorine is a diatomic molecule (Cl₂) in its elemental form. It has a pungent smell and yellow-green color.
• It is highly reactive and combines with many elements and compounds. It is also a strong oxidizing agent.
• Chlorine is produced industrially via the chlor-alkali process, where sodium chloride solution is electrolyzed to produce chlorine gas.

Important Points

• Comparison of Options:
• Krypton: Krypton is an inert gas and does not have a yellow-green color or a choking smell. It is used in lighting and photography.
• Argon: Argon is another inert gas and is used primarily in welding and lighting. It lacks the yellow-green color and choking smell characteristic of chlorine.
• Helium: Helium is a colorless, odorless gas, used in balloons and as a coolant. It does not match the description provided in the question.
• Historical Usage:
• Chlorine gas was used in World War I as a chemical weapon due to its toxic properties.
• Today, its controlled usage in water purification and industrial processes makes it invaluable.

The correct answer is Mohenjo-Daro.

 Key Points

• Mohenjo-Daro is one of the major urban centers of the Indus Valley Civilisation, which is considered one of the world’s earliest urban civilizations.
• It is located in present-day Sindh province of Pakistan and was rediscovered in 1922 by archaeologist R.D. Banerji.
• Mohenjo-Daro is known for its advanced urban planning, including a grid system layout, sophisticated drainage system, and well-constructed residential and public buildings. Hence, it is directly linked to the Indus Valley Civilisation.
• Other sites like Ajanta, Sanchi, and Bhimbetka are significant for Indian history but belong to different historical periods and are not associated with the Indus Valley Civilisation.
• Ajanta: Known for its Buddhist cave paintings and sculptures, dating back to 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE.
• Sanchi: Famous for its Buddhist stupas, especially the Great Stupa, constructed during Emperor Ashoka’s reign (3rd century BCE).
• Bhimbetka: Known for its rock shelters and cave paintings, which date back to the Paleolithic and Mesolithic ages.
• These sites are historically significant but are not connected to the Indus Valley Civilisation. Hence, the correct answer is Mohenjo-Daro.

Additional Information

• Indus Valley Civilisation:
• The Indus Valley Civilisation (also known as Harappan Civilisation) existed from approximately 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE. It was primarily located in the northwestern regions of the Indian subcontinent.
• The civilization is notable for its urban planning, advanced drainage systems, standardized weights and measures, and trade networks.
• Major sites include Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, Dholavira, Lothal, Kalibangan, and Rakhigarhi.
• Mohenjo-Daro:
• The name Mohenjo-Daro translates to "Mound of the Dead" in Sindhi.
• Key features include the Great Bath, which is believed to have been used for ritualistic purposes, and the Granary, which indicates organized storage and trade.
• Artifacts like seals, beads, tools, and pottery found here provide insights into the life and culture of the Harappan people.
• Other Sites:
• Ajanta: Located in Maharashtra, it is renowned for its Buddhist art and cave architecture.
• Sanchi: Situated in Madhya Pradesh, it is a key site for Buddhist architectural heritage, particularly from the Mauryan Empire.
• Bhimbetka: Found in Madhya Pradesh, it houses prehistoric cave paintings and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Important Points

• Rediscovery of Mohenjo-Daro:
• Discovered in 1922 by R.D. Banerji during excavations led by the Archaeological Survey of India.
• It is one of the best-preserved urban sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
• Decline of Indus Valley Civilisation:
• Factors like climate change, shifts in river courses, and possibly invasions contributed to its decline around 1300 BCE.
• However, the exact reasons for its decline remain a subject of ongoing research.

The correct answer is Prime Minister of India.

Key Points

• The Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan was launched on June 20, 2020, by the Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi. This initiative was aimed at providing immediate employment opportunities to migrant workers who had returned to their home states due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• The program was implemented in 116 districts across six states: Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Odisha, and Jharkhand. These districts were selected based on the concentration of migrant workers.
• The initiative aimed to ensure the economic empowerment of migrant workers by providing them with local employment opportunities through various government schemes. Hence, the correct answer is Prime Minister of India.
• Under this program, 25 types of infrastructure projects were undertaken, including construction of roads, housing, plantation, water conservation, and community development, among others. These projects were carried out under different central and state government schemes.
• An estimated Rs. 50,000 crores was allocated for the implementation of the scheme, ensuring both employment generation and the creation of durable infrastructure.
• The program also provided a platform for skilled, semi-skilled, and unskilled workers to find employment opportunities in their home states, thereby reducing their dependency on jobs in urban centers.

Additional Information

• Objectives of Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan:
• The primary objective of the program was to provide immediate employment to returning migrant workers affected by the COVID-19 lockdown.
• It aimed to create durable assets in rural areas, which would contribute to the long-term development and infrastructure improvement in these regions.
• Implementation and Monitoring:
• The initiative was coordinated by 12 ministries of the central government, ensuring the convergence of various schemes.
• The program was monitored using geo-tagging and mobile applications to track the progress of projects and ensure accountability.
• Key Features:
• The initiative focused on promoting self-reliance by providing skill development opportunities to migrant workers.
• It also emphasized the importance of local employment generation, which reduced the need for migration to urban areas for work.

Important Points

• Significance of the Abhiyan:
• The scheme played a vital role in addressing the challenges posed by the reverse migration of workers during the pandemic.
• It contributed to improving livelihood opportunities in rural areas, thereby reducing economic distress among migrant workers.
• Impact:
• The program created employment opportunities for millions of workers and helped in the development of infrastructure in rural districts.
• It highlighted the importance of converging government schemes to achieve comprehensive development goals.

The correct answer is Neeti Mohan.

Key Points

• Neeti Mohan is a renowned Indian playback singer who gained significant recognition for her song 'Ishq Wala Love', which was released in the movie Student of the Year in 2012.
• She is known for her melodious voice and versatility in singing across different genres like Bollywood, classical, and pop.
• 'Ishq Wala Love' became immensely popular among audiences, contributing to Neeti Mohan's rise to fame. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• Neeti Mohan has received critical acclaim for her singing and has won multiple awards for her contribution to Indian music, including the Filmfare RD Burman Award for New Music Talent in 2013.
• She is also a trained classical singer and has performed in numerous concerts across the globe, showcasing her talent and versatility.
• The song 'Ishq Wala Love' was composed by Vishal-Shekhar and became one of the highlights of the movie Student of the Year, directed by Karan Johar.
• The movie was a commercial success, and the song played a significant role in establishing Neeti Mohan as a notable playback singer in Bollywood. Hence, the correct answer is Neeti Mohan.

Additional Information

• Neeti Mohan's Career:
• Neeti Mohan started her career after winning the reality show Popstars. She became part of the band Aasma, which gained popularity in the early 2000s.
• She transitioned into playback singing and became a household name with hit songs like 'Jiya Re' from Jab Tak Hai Jaan and 'Saadi Galli Aaja' from Nautanki Saala.
• Neeti has collaborated with various renowned music directors like A.R. Rahman, Vishal-Shekhar, and Pritam, showcasing her ability to adapt to different musical styles.
• About the Song 'Ishq Wala Love':
• The song is a romantic number from the movie Student of the Year, which starred Alia Bhatt, Varun Dhawan, and Sidharth Malhotra.
• It was composed by Vishal-Shekhar and beautifully sung by Neeti Mohan, Shekhar Ravjiani, and Salim Merchant.
• The lyrics were penned by Anvita Dutt, and the song's relatable theme resonated with young audiences, making it a chartbuster.
• Other Options Explained:
• Alka Yagnik: A legendary playback singer known for her melodious voice and iconic songs like 'Taal Se Taal Mila' and 'Agar Tum Saath Ho'. However, she did not sing 'Ishq Wala Love'.
• Sunidhi Chauhan: Another celebrated singer known for her energetic and versatile singing style. She has sung songs like 'Sheila Ki Jawani' and 'Dhoom Machale', but she is not associated with 'Ishq Wala Love'.
• Jasleen Royal: A contemporary singer and songwriter known for songs like 'Din Shagna Da' and 'Nachde Ne Saare'. She did not sing 'Ishq Wala Love' either.

Important Points

• Recognition for 'Ishq Wala Love':
• The song 'Ishq Wala Love' became a defining moment for Neeti Mohan's career, earning her widespread recognition and appreciation.
• It showcased her ability to deliver a soft and melodious romantic track, contrasting her previous energetic numbers.
• Neeti Mohan's Achievements:
• She has won several accolades, including the Filmfare RD Burman Award, and has been nominated for multiple awards for her performances.
• Apart from playback singing, Neeti is actively involved in live performances and has represented India on international platforms.

The correct answer is 1986.

Key Points

• Kathak dancer Birju Maharaj is one of the most renowned and legendary artists in Indian classical dance. His contributions to Kathak are globally recognized.
• Birju Maharaj received the prestigious Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian honor, in 1986. Hence, this is the correct answer.
• Padma Vibhushan is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service in various fields, including arts, literature, sports, public affairs, etc.
• Birju Maharaj's achievements and mastery in Kathak earned him national and international acclaim, paving the way for him to receive this honor in 1986.
• He is known for blending traditional dance forms with contemporary narratives, showcasing his versatility and creative vision. Hence, his recognition with the Padma Vibhushan was well-deserved.

Additional Information

• About Birju Maharaj:
• Brijmohan Nath Mishra, popularly known as Birju Maharaj, was born on February 4, 1938, in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
• He belonged to the Lucknow Gharana of Kathak, which is one of the major schools of Kathak dance in India.
• He was not only a dancer but also a singer, composer, and choreographer, contributing significantly to Indian classical arts.
• Padma Awards:
• Padma Vibhushan is awarded by the Government of India and is the second-highest civilian award after the Bharat Ratna.
• It recognizes exceptional service and contributions in various fields such as arts, literature, science, and public service.
• Birju Maharaj's recognition in 1986 underlines his extraordinary work in Kathak and his efforts to bring Indian classical dance to international audiences.
• Kathak Dance:
• Kathak is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, originating from northern India.
• It is characterized by intricate footwork, graceful movements, and storytelling, often depicting mythological and historical themes.
• Birju Maharaj has been instrumental in modernizing Kathak while preserving its traditional essence.

The correct answer is Paragliding World Cup.

Key Points

• Bir village, located in Himachal Pradesh, India, is renowned for its stunning natural beauty and favorable conditions for adventure sports like paragliding.
• In 2015, Bir village hosted the Paragliding World Cup for the first time, marking a significant milestone in India's adventure sports scene.
• The Paragliding World Cup is an international competition where skilled paragliders from different parts of the world participate.
• This event was organized by the Paragliding World Cup Association (PWCA), which is responsible for promoting and managing paragliding competitions globally.
• Bir village is considered the paragliding capital of India, thanks to its favorable geography, including clear skies, ideal wind patterns, and scenic landscapes. Hence, the statement is correct.
• Hosting the Paragliding World Cup helped Bir gain recognition as a premier destination for adventure sports, boosting local tourism and economic growth.

Additional Information

• Bir village and its significance:
• Bir village is located in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh, India. It is a hub for eco-tourism and adventure sports, especially paragliding.
• The village is situated at an altitude of approximately 1,525 meters above sea level, making it an ideal spot for paragliding enthusiasts.
• Billing, a nearby location, serves as the take-off site for paragliding, while Bir acts as the landing area.
• Paragliding World Cup:
• The Paragliding World Cup Association (PWCA) organizes this event globally to promote paragliding and encourage international participation.
• During the 2015 World Cup, Bir attracted participants from over 30 countries, showcasing its world-class infrastructure for hosting such events.
• The competition featured multiple rounds and challenges, testing the skills, strategy, and endurance of participants.
• Impact of the event:
• The event significantly boosted local tourism, attracting thousands of spectators and adventure enthusiasts to Bir.
• It also highlighted India's potential as a destination for international adventure sports, paving the way for similar events in the future.
• The Paragliding World Cup contributed to the economic development of the region by creating opportunities for local businesses and service providers.

Important Points

• Adventure sports in Himachal Pradesh:
• Himachal Pradesh is a popular destination for adventure sports like trekking, river rafting, skiing, and paragliding.
• Bir-Billing is internationally recognized as a premier paragliding site, offering world-class facilities and breathtaking landscapes.
• Global recognition:
• Hosting the Paragliding World Cup in 2015 helped India gain recognition as a destination for international adventure sports.
• The event placed Bir village on the global map, attracting adventure enthusiasts and tourists worldwide.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, Delhi has the largest Jain population among union territories in India.
• The Jain community is primarily concentrated in urban areas, and being the capital, Delhi has a significant number of Jain residents.
• Other union territories such as Daman and Diu, Puducherry, and Lakshadweep have relatively smaller populations, including their Jain communities. Hence, the correct option is Delhi.
• Jains in Delhi are engaged in various professions, including business, education, and administration, contributing to the city's cultural and socio-economic diversity.
• The presence of Jain temples and institutions in Delhi reflects the community's significant population and cultural influence. Hence, Delhi is an important hub for Jains.

Additional Information

• Census of India 2011:
• The Census of India is conducted every 10 years to collect demographic, socio-economic, and cultural data. The 2011 census provides key insights into population distribution based on religion, language, and other factors.
• Jains represent a small percentage of the Indian population (approximately 0.37%), but they are economically and socially influential.
• Union Territories and Jain Population:
• Delhi: The union territory with the largest Jain population, reflecting the urban-centric nature of the community.
• Daman and Diu: Known for its coastal areas and small population, the Jain community is not as prominent here.
• Puducherry: A union territory with its own unique cultural blend, but the Jain population is relatively small.
• Lakshadweep: This island territory has a predominantly Muslim population, with minimal representation of Jains.
• Jain Community in India:
• Historical Significance: Jains are followers of Lord Mahavira, and their religion emphasizes non-violence, truth, and asceticism.
• Economic Contributions: Jains are known for their business acumen and have played a significant role in India's trade and commerce sectors.
• Religious Sites: Jain temples and institutions, such as the Lal Mandir in Delhi, showcase their religious and cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Kullu Dussehra.

Key Points

• Kullu Dussehra is a renowned festival celebrated in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India.
• This festival is unique in comparison to Dussehra celebrations in other parts of India as it does not involve the burning of Ravana effigies.
• The celebrations take place in Kullu Valley, specifically at the Dhalpur Maidan, and last for seven days, starting on the day of Vijayadashami.
• The festival is marked by a grand procession in which the local deities from villages in the valley are carried to the Dhalpur Maidan, symbolizing their assembly under the presiding deity, Lord Raghunath.
• The event attracts a large number of devotees, tourists, and cultural enthusiasts from across the world, making it a significant cultural spectacle.
• The festival is believed to have started in the 17th century when Raja Jagat Singh of Kullu installed an idol of Lord Raghunath as the ruling deity of the valley.
• The week-long celebration includes vibrant folk music, dance performances, and fairs, showcasing the rich cultural heritage of Himachal Pradesh.
• Hence, the correct answer is Kullu Dussehra.

Additional Information

• Madikeri Dussehra:
• Celebrated in Coorg (Kodagu), Karnataka, Madikeri Dussehra is known for its elaborate processions of decorated temples and folk performances.
• The festival reflects the unique culture of the region, characterized by the Kodava community's traditions.
• Bastar Dussehra:
• This 75-day-long festival is celebrated in Bastar, Chhattisgarh, and is considered one of the longest Dussehra celebrations in the world.
• It is deeply rooted in tribal culture and involves rituals dedicated to local deities like Danteshwari Devi.
• Kota Dussehra:
• Celebrated in Kota, Rajasthan, this version of Dussehra is famous for its fairs, cultural performances, and the burning of Ravana effigies.
• It showcases the rich heritage of Rajasthan through traditional folk dances, music, and handicrafts.

Important Points

• Significance of Dussehra:
• Dussehra marks the victory of Lord Rama over Ravana, symbolizing the triumph of good over evil.
• It is celebrated across India with diverse traditions and rituals, reflecting the cultural richness of the country.
• Unique Characteristics of Kullu Dussehra:
• Unlike other Dussehra celebrations, Kullu Dussehra does not involve the burning of Ravana effigies. Instead, it focuses on the assembly of local deities.
• The festival serves as a platform for the people of Kullu Valley to express their devotion and showcase their vibrant cultural heritage.

The correct answer is Rash Behari Bose.

Key Points

• Rash Behari Bose, a prominent revolutionary leader, was involved in the attempt to assassinate Lord Hardinge in Delhi during the ceremonial procession of transferring the capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1912.
• The assassination attempt was carried out using a bomb, which was thrown at the elephant carrying Lord Hardinge. Though Lord Hardinge was injured, he survived the attack.
• The attack was orchestrated by Rash Behari Bose, who played a significant role in revolutionary activities against the British rule in India. Hence, the correct option is Rash Behari Bose.
• Rash Behari Bose was closely associated with other revolutionary leaders and was instrumental in organizing several anti-British movements, including the Ghadar Movement and later the formation of the Indian National Army.
• The attempt to assassinate Lord Hardinge was a bold act that showcased the growing resistance against British rule during the early 20th century. Hence, Rash Behari Bose's involvement in revolutionary activities is well documented.

Additional Information

• Rash Behari Bose:
• Born: Rash Behari Bose was born on 25th May 1886 in West Bengal.
• He was a key figure in revolutionary activities in India and later in Japan, where he worked to garner support for Indian independence.
• Contribution: He was involved in the Delhi Conspiracy Case (assassination attempt on Lord Hardinge) and played a pivotal role in the Ghadar Movement.
• Lord Hardinge:
• Designation: Lord Hardinge served as the Viceroy of India from 1910 to 1916.
• During his tenure, the capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in 1912.
• Revolutionary Activities in India:
• The early 20th century saw the rise of revolutionary movements in India aimed at overthrowing British rule.
• Key Figures: Leaders like Rash Behari Bose, Chandra Shekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, and Khudiram Bose were involved in various revolutionary activities.

Important Points

• Delhi Conspiracy Case:
• The case involved the attempt to assassinate Lord Hardinge in Delhi during the transfer of the capital.
• Though the attempt failed, it highlighted the growing discontent against British rule.
• Legacy of Rash Behari Bose:
• Rash Behari Bose later moved to Japan, where he continued to work for Indian independence and laid the foundation for the Indian National Army.
• He is remembered as a visionary leader who inspired many to join the freedom struggle.

The correct answer is Fourth Five-Year Plan.

Key Points

• The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74) formally emphasized family planning as a major national objective to control population growth.
• It strengthened the existing programme by promoting modern contraceptive methods and expanding family welfare services.
• The plan linked population stabilisation with economic development and poverty reduction, recognising its significance for national growth.
• Major thrust was given to institution-based programs, community health workers, and improved distribution of contraceptives.
• The plan also aimed to create awareness campaigns to encourage responsible family planning practices across rural and urban India.

Additional Information

• First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
• India became the first nation to launch an official family planning programme in 1952.
• Focus on maternal and child health services and awareness-based FP approach.
• Laid foundation for population control measures post-Independence.
• Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61)
• Strengthened family planning clinics and distribution of birth control measures.
• Introduced target-based approach for early family planning initiatives.
• National Population Policy (2000)
• Aimed to achieve stable population by 2045.
• Focus on reproductive health, education, and girl-child empowerment.
• Stressed voluntary and informed choice in family planning services.

The correct answer is MS Swaminathan.

Key Points

• MS Swaminathan is widely regarded as the 'Father of the Green Revolution in India'.
• He is credited with spearheading efforts to improve agricultural productivity in India during the mid-20th century, a period when the country was facing severe food shortages.
• Swaminathan's work focused on introducing high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice, which helped transform India from a food-deficient country to one that is self-sufficient in food production. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• He collaborated with Norman Borlaug, who is known globally for his work in revolutionizing agriculture and is often referred to as the 'Father of the Green Revolution' worldwide.
• The Green Revolution in India was marked by the use of modern agricultural techniques, including irrigation, fertilizers, pesticides, and high-yield variety seeds.

Additional Information

• MS Swaminathan's contributions:
• MS Swaminathan played a pivotal role in introducing genetically superior crops that could withstand adverse conditions and provide higher yields.
• He was instrumental in creating policies that supported farmers in adopting advanced farming techniques and technologies.
• His efforts helped India achieve food self-sufficiency, thus preventing mass famines and food shortages during the 1960s and beyond.
• Norman Borlaug:
• While Norman Borlaug is credited with the Green Revolution globally, his work influenced agricultural practices in India, particularly in collaboration with Swaminathan.
• Norman Borlaug was an American agronomist who developed disease-resistant wheat varieties, which were adapted for Indian conditions by MS Swaminathan.
• Impact of the Green Revolution in India:
• The Green Revolution led to a significant increase in agricultural production, especially in wheat and rice, transforming India into a major food producer.
• It helped India achieve self-sufficiency in food grains, reducing dependence on imports and ensuring food security for its growing population.
• The revolution also paved the way for the development of agricultural infrastructure such as irrigation systems, storage facilities, and rural electrification.

Important Points

• Other notable figures:
• Verghese Kurien: Known as the 'Father of the White Revolution' in India, he revolutionized dairy farming and milk production in the country through the Operation Flood programme.
• Jawaharlal Nehru: The first Prime Minister of India, he focused on industrialization and scientific development but was not directly linked to the Green Revolution.
• Key achievements of the Green Revolution:
• The Green Revolution in India began in the 1960s, addressing food shortages and improving the livelihoods of farmers.
• It resulted in the increased use of fertilizers, pesticides, and irrigation, though it also led to environmental concerns like soil degradation and water scarcity.
• The revolution had a significant impact on the economic stability of rural India, though it also highlighted the need for sustainable agricultural practices.

The correct answer is Mitochondria - Lipid metabolism.

Key Points

• Nucleus - Storage of genetic information:
• The nucleus is the control center of the cell and contains the cell's genetic material in the form of DNA.
• It regulates gene expression and mediates the replication of DNA during the cell cycle.
• This statement is correct.
• Ribosome - Protein synthesis:
• Ribosomes are responsible for synthesizing proteins by translating messenger RNA (mRNA) into amino acid sequences.
• They are found floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum (referred to as rough ER).
• This statement is correct.
• Lysosome - Suicidal bags:
• Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain enzymes capable of breaking down cellular debris and waste.
• They are often referred to as "suicidal bags" because they can digest the cell itself in case of severe damage or infection.
• This statement is correct.
• Mitochondria - Lipid metabolism:
• Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouses of the cell" because they are primarily responsible for cellular respiration and energy production in the form of ATP.
• While mitochondria play a role in lipid metabolism, they are not primarily responsible for lipid metabolism. Lipid metabolism predominantly occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) and the cytoplasm.
• This statement is incorrect, as mitochondria are not the primary site for lipid metabolism.

Additional Information

• Nucleus:
• The nucleus contains chromosomes, which are made up of DNA and proteins. DNA holds the instructions for making proteins, which determine the structure and function of the cell.
• The nucleus also contains a smaller structure called the nucleolus, which is involved in ribosome production.
• Ribosomes:
• They can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, though their structure differs slightly between the two types.
• Ribosomes are made up of RNA and proteins and are essential for translating genetic information into functional proteins.
• Lysosomes:
• They contain hydrolytic enzymes that digest unwanted cellular materials, including damaged organelles and pathogens.
• Lysosomes are essential for maintaining cellular health and recycling cellular components, a process known as autophagy.
• Mitochondria:
• Mitochondria are double-membraned organelles responsible for producing adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the energy currency of the cell, through oxidative phosphorylation.
• They also play an important role in cell signaling, cellular differentiation, and apoptosis (programmed cell death).
• While mitochondria are involved in some steps of lipid metabolism, such as fatty acid β-oxidation, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the primary site for lipid synthesis and metabolism.

Important Points

• Other key organelles in a cell:
• Golgi apparatus: Modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for storage or transport out of the cell.
• Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER):
• Rough ER: Studded with ribosomes and involved in protein synthesis and modification.
• Smooth ER: Synthesizes lipids, metabolizes carbohydrates, and detoxifies drugs and poisons.
• Peroxisomes: Break down fatty acids and detoxify harmful substances.
• Chloroplasts (in plant cells): Sites of photosynthesis where sunlight is converted into chemical energy.
• Functions of lipids in the cell:
• Serve as energy storage molecules.
• Act as structural components of cell membranes (phospholipids).
• Play a role in cell signaling and as precursors for hormones.

The correct answer is Lithosphere.

Key Points

• Asthenosphere: The asthenosphere is a mechanically weak and highly viscous layer of the Earth's upper mantle. It lies directly beneath the lithosphere, which consists of the crust and the rigid uppermost part of the mantle.
• Seismic Characteristics: The asthenosphere is characterized by low seismic wave velocities and high attenuation. This means seismic waves slow down significantly and lose energy as they pass through this layer. This phenomenon occurs due to the presence of partially molten rocks in the asthenosphere.
• Location: The asthenosphere extends roughly from 100 km to 250 km below the Earth's surface, depending on the region. It acts as a ductile and deformable layer that allows tectonic plates above it to move. Hence, the correct option is 4) Lithosphere.
• Role in Plate Tectonics: The asthenosphere plays a critical role in the movement of tectonic plates. Its ductile nature enables the plates of the lithosphere to float and move over it, leading to processes such as continental drift, earthquakes, and volcanic activity.
• Composition: The asthenosphere is composed primarily of peridotite, a rock rich in magnesium and iron. The temperature and pressure conditions in this layer partially melt the rock, contributing to its plasticity.

Additional Information

• Understanding Earth's Layers:
• Exosphere: The outermost layer of Earth's atmosphere, located above the thermosphere. This layer is where particles escape into space. It is unrelated to the asthenosphere.
• Ionosphere: A region of Earth's upper atmosphere where ions and free electrons exist due to solar radiation. It facilitates radio communication but does not interact with the Earth's mantle.
• Troposphere: The lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, where weather phenomena occur. It is unrelated to the Earth's internal structure.
• Lithosphere: The rigid outer layer of Earth, comprising the crust and the upper mantle. The lithosphere floats on the asthenosphere and interacts directly with it.
• Applications in Earth Sciences:
• Plate Tectonics: The asthenosphere is crucial to understanding plate tectonics, which explains phenomena like earthquakes, mountain formation, and oceanic trench formation.
• Volcanism: The movement of magma from the asthenosphere to the surface leads to volcanic eruptions.
• Geothermal Energy: Heat from the asthenosphere contributes to geothermal energy sources, used for renewable energy generation.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu has won the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy the maximum number of times as of 2023. It is considered one of the strongest teams in domestic cricket tournaments.
• The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is a domestic Twenty20 cricket championship in India, organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). It is named after Syed Mushtaq Ali, a legendary Indian cricketer.
• Tamil Nadu has consistently performed well in this tournament, showcasing its depth in cricket talent and strong team management. Hence, Tamil Nadu holds the record for maximum wins.
• Other teams like Vidarbha, Jharkhand, and Punjab have also participated actively, but Tamil Nadu's dominance is unmatched in terms of tournament victories.
• The tournament provides a platform for budding cricketers to showcase their skills and earn recognition at the national and international levels.
• Tamil Nadu's achievements in this tournament highlight the state's strong cricketing infrastructure and talent development programs.
• Hence, the correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information

• Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy:
• Introduced in 2006, the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is India's premier domestic T20 cricket tournament. It serves as a crucial preparatory ground for players aspiring to join the Indian Premier League (IPL) and the national team.
• Teams from various Indian states compete in this tournament, which has a format similar to international T20 matches. It encourages aggressive gameplay and provides exposure to young talent.
• Performance of Tamil Nadu:
• Tamil Nadu has won the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy multiple times, including in 2021, showcasing its consistency and strength in domestic cricket.
• The team is known for its star players, such as Dinesh Karthik and Washington Sundar, who have also represented India at the international level.
• Example: Tamil Nadu's victory in the 2021 final against Baroda was marked by a stunning performance and excellent teamwork.
• Other Teams:
• While teams like Vidarbha, Punjab, and Jharkhand have made notable contributions, their win count in the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is less compared to Tamil Nadu.
• For example, Vidarbha is more prominent in longer formats like the Ranji Trophy, while Tamil Nadu excels in the shorter T20 format.
• Punjab and Jharkhand also have strong cricketing setups, but they have not matched Tamil Nadu's dominance in this specific tournament.

Important Points

• Cricketing Infrastructure:
• Tamil Nadu has invested significantly in cricketing infrastructure, including training facilities, academies, and coaching programs, contributing to its dominance in domestic tournaments.
• The state also hosts several domestic matches and IPL games, providing players with exposure to high-pressure situations.
• Impact of the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy:
• The tournament acts as a feeder system for the IPL and national team selection, with scouts closely monitoring players' performances.
• Several players from Tamil Nadu, including Ravichandran Ashwin and T Natarajan, have used the platform to earn IPL contracts and represent India internationally.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

• Abhinaya Darpana is a highly regarded text authored by Nandikesvara, focusing on the art of expression in classical Indian dance.
• The text serves as one of the foundational sources for understanding the technique and grammar of body movements in classical Indian dance forms, particularly Bharatanatyam.
• It elaborates on different aspects of dance, such as mudras (hand gestures), postures, and facial expressions, which are integral to classical dance performances. Hence, Bharatanatyam is directly linked to this text.
• Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest and most prominent classical dance forms of India, deeply rooted in Tamil Nadu's culture and tradition. Its techniques align closely with the principles described in the Abhinaya Darpana.
• The dance is known for its rigorous footwork, precise hand gestures, and expressive facial movements, all of which are extensively discussed in Nandikesvara's text. Hence, Bharatanatyam is the correct answer.
• Other classical dance forms like Manipuri, Odissi, and Kathak have their own distinctive styles and techniques. While they may share certain elements with Bharatanatyam, they are not primarily associated with the Abhinaya Darpana.
• Hence, the correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Additional Information

• About Abhinaya Darpana:
• Abhinaya Darpana is a crucial text authored by Nandikesvara, focusing on the art of expression and the grammar of body movements.
• It provides detailed insights into mudras (hand gestures), rasas (emotions), and bhavas (expressions), which are essential for classical dance performances.
• Bharatanatyam:
• Origin: Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu and is considered one of the oldest classical dance forms.
• Features: It is characterized by intricate footwork, elaborate hand gestures, and expressive facial movements.
• Application: Traditionally performed in temples as a form of devotion, it has evolved into a popular stage art.
• Other Dance Forms:
• Manipuri: Originated in Manipur, characterized by graceful movements and devotion-centric themes.
• Odissi: Originated in Odisha, known for its lyrical movements and strong connection to temple sculptures.
• Kathak: Originated in North India, characterized by storytelling through rhythmic footwork and spins.

Important Points

• Connection of Abhinaya Darpana with Bharatanatyam:
• Bharatanatyam aligns closely with the principles described in the Abhinaya Darpana, especially in the use of mudras, rasas, and bhavas.
• The text provides a detailed foundation for understanding the expressive elements integral to Bharatanatyam.
• Historical Relevance:
• Classical texts: Texts like Natya Shastra by Bharata and Abhinaya Darpana by Nandikesvara have played a significant role in shaping Bharatanatyam.
• Temple dance tradition: Bharatanatyam was performed in South Indian temples as an offering to the deities.

Given:

Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-15) + (-4) × 9

Formula used:

Follow BODMAS (Bracket, Order, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

Calculation:

⇒ (-9) - [(-60) ÷ (-15)] + [(-4) × 9]

⇒ (-9) - 4 + (-36)

⇒ -9 - 4 - 36

⇒ -49

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Shortcut Trick

Weight of Mohammad = (Total weight of Mohan & Mohammad) + (Total weight of Mohammad & Ashish) − (Total weight of all three)

⇒ Mohammad's weight = (2 × 43) + (2 × 46) − (3 × 45)

⇒ Mohammad's weight = 86 + 92 − 135

⇒ Mohammad's weight = 178 − 135 = 43 kg

∴ The correct answer is 43 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average weight of Mohan, Mohammad and Ashish = 45 kg

Average weight of Mohan and Mohammad = 43 kg

Average weight of Mohammad and Ashish = 46 kg

Mohan + Mohammad + Ashish = 135 kg

Mohan + Md = 86 kg

Md + Ashish = 92 kg

Overlap = Mohammad

Calculations:

Total weight of Mohan, Mohammad and Ashish:

⇒ Mohan + Mohammad + Ashish = 45 × 3 = 135 kg   ... (Equation 1)

Total weight of Mohan and Mohammad:

⇒ Mohan + Mohammad = 43 × 2 = 86 kg   ... (Equation 2)

Total weight of Mohammad and Ashish:

⇒ Mohammad + Ashish = 46 × 2 = 92 kg   ... (Equation 3)

Adding Equation 2 and Equation 3:

⇒ (Mohan + Mohammad) + (Mohammad + Ashish) = 86 + 92

⇒ Mohan + 2 × Mohammad + Ashish = 178

⇒ (Mohan + Mohammad + Ashish) + Mohammad = 178

Substituting the sum of all three from Equation 1:

⇒ 135 + Mohammad = 178

⇒ Mohammad = 178 − 135

⇒ Mohammad = 43 kg

∴ The correct answer is 43 kg.

Additional Information

Basic Average

Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations.

Overlapping Groups

When one item is included in two different overlapping sets, its value can be easily found by using the formula: Overlap Value = Sum of both sub-groups − Total sum of the combined group.

Combined Average

Combined Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is the number of items and A is their respective average.

Shortcut Trick

Convert units to standard forms: r = 3.5 cm, and l = 0.21 m = 21 cm.

Use the direct formula for Lateral Surface Area = π × r × l

Area = (22/7) × 3.5 × 21 = 11 × 21 = 231 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 231 cm².

Alternate Method

l = 21 cm r = 3.5 cm

Given:

Radius of the base (r) = 3.5 cm

Slant height of the cone (l) = 0.21 m

Formula Used:

Lateral Surface Area of a right circular cone = πrl

Calculations:

⇒ First, convert slant height into centimeters: l = 0.21 × 100 = 21 cm

⇒ Substitute the values into the lateral surface area formula.

⇒ L.S.A. = (22/7) × 3.5 × 21

⇒ L.S.A. = 22 × 0.5 × 21

⇒ L.S.A. = 11 × 21

⇒ L.S.A. = 231 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 231 cm².

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of a Cone

It is the total sum of the lateral surface area and the circular base area: TSA = πr(l + r).

Volume of a Cone

The volume represents the capacity enclosed inside the conical surface: V = (1/3)πr²h.

Slant Height Relationship

The slant height, radius, and perpendicular height form a right triangle which follows Pythagoras theorem: l = √(r² + h²).

Given: 

Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-15) + (-4) × 7

Formula used:

Follow the BODMAS rule: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

Calculation:

⇒ (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-15) + (-4) × 7

⇒ (-9) - [(-60) ÷ (-15)] + [(-4) × 7]

⇒ (-9) - 4 + (-28)

⇒ -9 - 4 - 28

⇒ -41

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Shortcut Trick

When expenditure is constant, reduction % in consumption = [R / (100 + R)] × 100

Given R = 22.5%

Reduction % = [22.5 / (100 + 22.5)] × 100

Reduction % = (22.5 / 122.5) × 100 = (9 / 49) × 100

Reduction % = 900 / 49 ≈ 18.37%

∴ The correct answer is 18.37%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Price increase = 22.5%

Expenditure remains the same.

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Price × Consumption

100

122.5

Price: +22.5%

Consumption: −18.37%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial price be 100 units.

⇒ New price = 100 + 22.5 = 122.5 units

⇒ Ratio of Initial Price to New Price = 100 : 122.5 = 40 : 49

⇒ Since expenditure is constant, Consumption ∝ 1 / Price

⇒ Ratio of Initial Consumption to New Consumption = 49 : 40

⇒ Reduction in consumption = 49 − 40 = 9 units

⇒ Percentage reduction = (9 / 49) × 100

⇒ Percentage reduction = 900 / 49 ≈ 18.367%

⇒ Rounding to two decimal places, we get 18.37%

∴ The correct answer is 18.37%.

Additional Information

Price and Consumption Rule

If the price of an item increases by R%, the reduction in consumption to keep expenditure constant is [R / (100 + R)] × 100.

Price Decrease Case

If the price decreases by R%, the increase in consumption to keep expenditure constant is [R / (100 − R)] × 100.

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is changed by A% and then by B%, the net percentage change is A + B + (A × B)/100.

Base Change Property

If A is x% more than B, then B is [x / (100 + x)] × 100 less than A.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in Principal = ₹9400 − ₹5400 = ₹4000

Difference in Simple Interest for 5 years = ₹600

Simple Interest on the difference for 1 year = ₹600 ÷ 5 = ₹120

Rate % = (Interest for 1 year ÷ Difference in Principal) × 100

Rate % = (120 ÷ 4000) × 100 = 3%

∴ The correct answer is 3%.

Alternate Method

Amit: ₹5400

Gopal: ₹9400

Difference: ₹4000 Extra SI = ₹600

SI on ₹4000 for 5 years = ₹600

Given:

Principal for Amit (P₁) = ₹5400

Principal for Gopal (P₂) = ₹9400

Time (T) = 5 years

Difference in Simple Interest = ₹600

Let the rate of interest be R% per annum.

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI of Gopal − SI of Amit = ₹600

⇒ [(P₂ × R × T) ÷ 100] − [(P₁ × R × T) ÷ 100] = 600

⇒ [(P₂ − P₁) × R × T] ÷ 100 = 600

⇒ [(9400 − 5400) × R × 5] ÷ 100 = 600

⇒ (4000 × R × 5) ÷ 100 = 600

⇒ 20000R ÷ 100 = 600

⇒ 200R = 600

⇒ R = 600 ÷ 200

⇒ R = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI)

Simple Interest is calculated only on the initial principal amount. The interest earned remains constant for every year if the rate and principal are unchanged. Formula: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Difference in Simple Interest

When the interest rate and time period are the same, the difference in interest earned on two distinct principal amounts is exactly equal to the simple interest calculated on the difference between those principals.

Compound Interest (CI)

Unlike Simple Interest, Compound Interest is calculated on the initial principal as well as the accumulated interest of previous periods. Formula: Amount = P × (1 + R/100)^T.

Shortcut Trick

If two amounts invested at R% CI for T₁ and T₂ years respectively yield the same amount, their investment ratio is (1 + R/100)^{|T₁ − T₂|}.

Ratio of Piyush's share to Manoj's share = (1 + 10/100)^{19 − 18} = 11/10.

Total parts = 11 + 10 = 21 parts.

Manoj's share = (10 / 21) × 1218 = ₹580.

∴ The correct answer is ₹580.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount = ₹1218

Rate of interest (R) = 10% compounded annually

Time for Piyush (T₁) = 18 years

Time for Manoj (T₂) = 19 years

Total: ₹1218

Piyush (P) Time: 18 years

Manoj (M) Time: 19 years

10% CI

10% CI

Same Amount (A)

Formula Used:

Amount in Compound Interest, A = P(1 + R/100)^T

Calculations:

Let the amount given to Piyush be P and the amount given to Manoj be M.

⇒ P + M = 1218

According to the question, the amounts received by both are equal after their respective periods:

⇒ P(1 + 10/100)¹⁸ = M(1 + 10/100)¹⁹

⇒ P(1.1)¹⁸ = M(1.1)¹⁹

⇒ P / M = (1.1)¹⁹ / (1.1)¹⁸

⇒ P / M = 1.1 = 11 / 10

This means their investments are in the ratio 11 : 10.

⇒ Total ratio parts = 11 + 10 = 21

The amount given to Manoj (M) corresponds to 10 parts:

⇒ M = (10 / 21) × 1218

⇒ M = 10 × 58

⇒ M = 580

∴ The correct answer is ₹580.

Additional Information

Compound Interest Formula

The total amount after T years at rate R% is calculated using A = P(1 + R/100)^T, where interest is compounded annually.

Ratio of Investments for Equal Amounts

If two sums invested at a constant CI rate yield equal final amounts, the principal invested for a shorter duration must be proportionately larger to compensate for the lesser time it compounds.

Effective Compound Rate

The effective interest rate for 2 years at R% compounded annually can be quickly found using the successive percentage formula: (2R + R²/100)%.

Simple vs Compound Interest

For the first year, SI and CI are equal. For exactly 2 years, the difference between CI and SI on the same principal is P(R/100)².

Shortcut Trick

Fractional value of 12.5% = 1 ÷ 8

Let Cost Price (CP) = 8 units, then Profit = 1 unit.

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 8 + 1 = 9 units.

9 units = ₹216 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹216 ÷ 9 = ₹24.

Cost Price (CP) = 8 units = 8 × 24 = ₹192.

∴ The correct answer is ₹192.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) of the article = ₹216

Gain (Profit) Percentage = 12.5%

Formula Used:

SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

CP = ?

SP = ₹216

• 12.5% Profit

CP + 12.5% of CP = ₹216

Calculation:

⇒ 216 = CP × (100 + 12.5) ÷ 100

⇒ 216 = CP × 112.5 ÷ 100

⇒ 216 = CP × 9 ÷ 8

⇒ CP = 216 × 8 ÷ 9

⇒ CP = 24 × 8

⇒ CP = 192

∴ The correct answer is ₹192.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

Loss is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP). Formula: Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always given on the Marked Price (MP). Formula: Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount.

Successive Discounts

For two successive discounts of a% and b%, the net equivalent discount is given by: Net Discount = (a + b − ab÷100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Effective rate of Simple Interest for 2 years at 4% = 4% + 4% = 8%

Effective rate of Compound Interest for 2 years at 4% = 4% + 4% + (4 × 4)/100 = 8.16%

Given Compound Interest (8.16%) = ₹280.5

Simple Interest (8%) = (280.5 × 8) ÷ 8.16 = ₹275

∴ The correct answer is ₹275.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate of Interest (R) = 4% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Compound Interest (CI) = ₹280.5

Formula Used:

Direct relation between CI and SI for 2 years: CI = SI × (1 + R/200)

Principal (P)

Year 1: ₹137.5

Year 2: ₹137.5

4% on Interest

Extra: ₹5.5

Total CI = ₹280.5 | Total SI = ₹275

Calculations:

⇒ CI = SI × (1 + 4/200)

⇒ 280.5 = SI × (1 + 1/50)

⇒ 280.5 = SI × (51/50)

⇒ SI = (280.5 × 50) ÷ 51

⇒ SI = 14025 ÷ 51

⇒ SI = 275

∴ The correct answer is ₹275.

Additional Information

Difference between CI and SI

For 2 years, the difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a certain principal can be directly calculated by the formula: Difference = P × (R/100)².

Effective Rate Method

For a given rate R% per annum, the effective compound interest rate for 2 years is (2R + R²/100)%, whereas the simple interest rate is exactly 2R%. Comparing these effective rates is the fastest way to switch between CI and SI values.

Rule of 72

A mathematical shortcut used to estimate the number of years required to double the invested money at a given annual fixed compound interest rate: Years ≈ 72 ÷ Rate.

Given:

$[\dfrac{49}{7} × { \dfrac{57}{3} + \dfrac{19}{7} × (9-2) }]$

Formula used:

Follow BODMAS Rule: Brackets → Orders → Division → Multiplication → Addition → Subtraction

Calculation:

$[\dfrac{49}{7} × { \dfrac{57}{3} + \dfrac{19}{7} × (9-2) }]$

⇒ $[7 × { 19 + \dfrac{19}{7} × 7 }]$

⇒ $[7 × { 19 + 19 }]$

⇒ 7 × (38)

⇒ 266

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Shortcut Trick

Discount = Marked Price − Selling Price = 3500 − 2800 = 700

Discount % = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100

Discount % = (700 ÷ 3500) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹3,500

Selling Price (SP) = ₹2,800

Formula Used:

Discount = MP − SP

Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100

Marked Price (MP) = ₹3500

Selling Price = ₹2800

Discount

₹700

Calculations:

⇒ Discount = 3500 − 2800

⇒ Discount = ₹700

⇒ Discount % = (700 ÷ 3500) × 100

⇒ Discount % = (1 ÷ 5) × 100

⇒ Discount % = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP)

It is the price printed or tagged on an article. All percentage discounts are always calculated on the Marked Price, not on the Cost Price.

Successive Discounts

When two individual discounts d₁% and d₂% are given one after another, the net equivalent discount percent is given by: (d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂) / 100)%.

Mark-up Percentage

This is the percentage by which a shopkeeper prices an item above its Cost Price (CP) to set the Marked Price. Formula: Mark-up % = ((MP − CP) ÷ CP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Total CP of 400 pears = 4 × 1250 = ₹5000

Total SP of 400 pears = 5000 + 900 = ₹5900

SP of 1 pear = 5900 ÷ 400 = 59/4

SP of 1 dozen (12 pears) = (59/4) × 12 = 59 × 3 = 177

∴ The correct answer is ₹177.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of pears bought = 400

Rate of purchase = ₹1250 per 100 pears

Total profit earned = ₹900

Formula Used:

Total SP = Total CP + Profit

SP per dozen = (Total SP ÷ Total Quantity) × 12

Total CP ₹5000 (for 400 pears)

Total SP ₹5900 (for 400 pears)

• Profit ₹900

SP per dozen = ₹177

Calculations:

⇒ Total CP for 400 pears = (400 ÷ 100) × 1250

⇒ Total CP = 4 × 1250 = ₹5000

⇒ Total SP = Total CP + Profit

⇒ Total SP = 5000 + 900 = ₹5900

⇒ SP of 1 pear = 5900 ÷ 400 = 59/4

⇒ SP per dozen = (59/4) × 12 = 59 × 3 = ₹177

∴ The correct answer is ₹177.

Additional Information

Profit & Loss Percentage

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 | Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. Profit and loss are always calculated on Cost Price (CP) unless specified.

Unitary Method for Pricing

To find the cost of a specific quantity (like a dozen), calculate the cost of a single unit first: Price of 1 Unit = Total Price ÷ Total Quantity.

Marked Price & Discount

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) − Discount. Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in ratio parts = 23 − 16 = 7 parts

7 parts = 224 ⇒ 1 part = 32

Smaller number = 16 parts = 16 × 32 = 512

∴ The correct answer is 512.

Alternate Method

Given:

The ratio of the two numbers = 16 : 23

The difference between the two numbers = 224

16 parts (Smaller) Num 1

23 parts (Larger) Num 2

Diff: 7 parts = 224

1 part = 32 → 16 parts = 512

Calculations:

⇒ Let the two numbers be 16x and 23x respectively.

⇒ Difference between the numbers = 23x − 16x

⇒ 7x = 224

⇒ x = 224 ÷ 7

⇒ x = 32

⇒ The smaller number = 16x

⇒ 16 × 32 = 512

∴ The correct answer is 512.

Additional Information

Proportion Rule

When two ratios are in proportion (a : b :: c : d), the product of the extremes is always equal to the product of the means: a × d = b × c.

Compound Ratio

The compound ratio of two different ratios a : b and c : d is calculated by multiplying the respective terms together to form ac : bd.

Duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a basic ratio a : b is defined as the ratio of their squares, which is written as a² : b².

Shortcut Trick

For inverse square variation, the product of the first variable and the square of the second variable remains constant.

x₁ × y₁² = x₂ × y₂²

6 × 5² = x × 4²

150 = 16 × x

x = 150 ÷ 16 = 9.375

∴ The correct answer is 9.375.

Alternate Method

Given:

x varies inversely to the square of y.

Initial values: x = 6 when y = 5

New condition: Find x when y = 4

Formula Used:

x ∝ 1 ÷ y² ⇒ x = k ÷ y² (where k is the constant of proportionality)

Case 1 x₁ = 6 y₁ = 5

Case 2 x₂ = ? y₂ = 4

x₁ × y₁² = x₂ × y₂² Inverse Square Variation

Calculations:

⇒ First, find the value of constant k using Case 1:

⇒ 6 = k ÷ 5²

⇒ 6 = k ÷ 25

⇒ k = 6 × 25 = 150

⇒ Now, substitute k and the value of y for Case 2 to find x:

⇒ x = 150 ÷ 4²

⇒ x = 150 ÷ 16

⇒ x = 75 ÷ 8 = 9.375

∴ The correct answer is 9.375.

Additional Information

Direct Variation

When one variable increases proportionally with another, they are in direct variation. Formula: x ∝ y ⇒ x ÷ y = k.

Inverse Variation

When one variable increases while the other decreases proportionally, they are in inverse variation. Formula: x ∝ 1 ÷ y ⇒ x × y = k.

Joint Variation

When a variable depends directly or inversely on the product of two or more other variables. Example: x ∝ y × z ⇒ x = k × y × z.

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM(20, 30, 36) = 180 units

Efficiency: X = 9, Y = 6, Z = 5

Work done by Y and Z in 5 days = (6 + 5) × 5 = 55 units

Remaining work = 180 − 55 = 125 units

Days taken by X = 125 ÷ 9 = 13.88 ≈ 14 days

∴ The correct answer is 14 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by X = 20 days

Time taken by Y = 30 days

Time taken by Z = 36 days

Y and Z start the work and leave after 5 days.

Method Used:

We will use the LCM method to find the total work and the individual efficiencies.

Calculations:

⇒ Total work = LCM(20, 30, 36) = 180 units.

⇒ Efficiency of Y and Z working together = 6 + 5 = 11 units/day.

⇒ Work done by Y and Z in 5 days = 11 × 5 = 55 units.

⇒ Remaining work = 180 − 55 = 125 units.

⇒ Time taken by X to complete the remaining work = Remaining work ÷ Efficiency of X

⇒ Time taken by X = 125 ÷ 9 = 13.88 days.

⇒ Since 13 whole days will only cover 117 units of work, X will need an additional part of the 14th day to finish the remaining 8 units.

⇒ Thus, the number of complete days needed to fully finish the job is 14 days.

∴ The correct answer is 14 days.

Additional Information

Total Work Approach

Total work is generally considered as the LCM of the time taken by each individual. Efficiency is then calculated as Total Work ÷ Time taken.

Pipes and Cisterns

This concept works on the identical principle of Time & Work. The only variation is that an outlet pipe or a leak performs negative work as it empties the tank.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual amount of work done by each person. If everyone works for the same number of days, the wages can be distributed directly in the ratio of their efficiencies.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of number of students in the two groups = 12 : 8 = 3 : 2.

Let the assumed average be the smaller average, 33.

Deviation of the second group from the assumed average = 45 − 33 = +12 marks per student.

Net increase in average = (Deviation × Ratio parts) ÷ Total Ratio parts = (12 × 2) ÷ (3 + 2) = +24 ÷ 5 = +4.8.

Combined average = Assumed Average + Net increase = 33 + 4.8 = 37.8.

∴ The correct answer is 37.8 marks.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of students in first group (n₁) = 12

Average marks of first group (A₁) = 33

Number of students in second group (n₂) = 8

Average marks of second group (A₂) = 45

Formula Used:

Combined Average = (n₁ × A₁ + n₂ × A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂)

12 Students Avg Marks = 33

8 Students Avg Marks = 45

Total: 20 Students Combined Avg = 37.8

Calculations:

⇒ Total marks of the first 12 students = 12 × 33 = 396

⇒ Total marks of the next 8 students = 8 × 45 = 360

⇒ Total sum of marks of the class = 396 + 360 = 756

⇒ Total number of students in the class = 12 + 8 = 20

⇒ Average marks of the class = 756 ÷ 20 = 37.8

∴ The correct answer is 37.8 marks.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When combining two or more sets of data, the combined average is the sum of the weighted values divided by the total number of terms: A = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Deviation Method

To simplify calculations, select an assumed average. The true average is found by adding the net average deviation to the assumed base: True Avg = Assumed Avg + (Total Deviation ÷ Total Elements).

Alligation Method

The rule of alligation allows you to easily find the combined average when given the individual averages and the ratio of elements: (A₂ − Combined Avg) : (Combined Avg − A₁) = n₁ : n₂.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance to cross = 370 + 330 = 700 m

Relative speed (same direction) = 150 − 90 = 60 km/h

Speed in m/min = (60 × 1000) ÷ 60 = 1000 m/min

Time taken = Distance ÷ Speed = 700 ÷ 1000 = 0.7 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 0.7 minutes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of slower train (L₁) = 370 m

Length of faster train (L₂) = 330 m

Speed of slower train (S₁) = 90 km/h

Speed of faster train (S₂) = 150 km/h

370 m 90 km/h →

330 m 150 km/h →

Total Distance = 700 m

Formula Used:

Time = Total Distance ÷ Relative Speed

Relative Speed (same direction) = S₂ − S₁

Speed in m/s = Speed in km/h × (5 ÷ 18)

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 370 + 330 = 700 m

⇒ Relative Speed = 150 − 90 = 60 km/h

⇒ Relative Speed in m/s = 60 × (5 ÷ 18) = 50 ÷ 3 m/s

⇒ Time taken in seconds = 700 ÷ (50 ÷ 3)

⇒ Time taken = (700 × 3) ÷ 50 = 42 seconds

⇒ Convert seconds to minutes = 42 ÷ 60

⇒ Time taken = 0.7 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 0.7 minutes.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference between their individual speeds: S_relative = |S₁ − S₂|.

Relative Speed in Opposite Direction

When two objects move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: S_relative = S₁ + S₂.

Crossing Objects with Length

When a train crosses another train, a platform, or a bridge, the total distance covered is equal to the sum of the lengths of the train and the object.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by (5 ÷ 18). To convert speed from m/s to km/h, multiply by (18 ÷ 5).

Shortcut Trick

Let the original price of the fuel be 100.

Applying the multiplying fraction method for successive changes: −20% → 4/5 | −35% → 13/20 | +50% → 3/2

Final Price = 100 × (4/5) × (13/20) × (4/5) × (3/2)

Final Price = 100 × (624 ÷ 1000) = 62.4

Overall percentage change = 100 − 62.4 = 37.6% decrease

∴ The correct answer is 37.6% decrease.

Alternate Method

Given:

Price decreases successively by 20%, 35%, and 20%, then increases by 50% in the fourth month.

Formula Used:

Final Value = Initial Value × (1 − R₁/100) × (1 − R₂/100) ... × (1 + R_n/100)

100

80

52

41.6

62.4

−20%

−35%

−20%

+50%

Overall Change: −37.6%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial price of fuel be 100.

⇒ Price after 1st month = 100 × (1 − 0.20) = 80

⇒ Price after 2nd month = 80 × (1 − 0.35) = 80 × 0.65 = 52

⇒ Price after 3rd month = 52 × (1 − 0.20) = 52 × 0.80 = 41.6

⇒ Price after 4th month = 41.6 × (1 + 0.50) = 41.6 × 1.50 = 62.4

⇒ Total decrease = Original Price − Final Price = 100 − 62.4 = 37.6

⇒ Percentage decrease = (37.6 ÷ 100) × 100 = 37.6%

∴ The correct answer is 37.6% decrease.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a quantity changes by a% and then successively by b%, the effective net percentage change is given by the formula: Net Change = a + b + (a × b) / 100. Always use positive signs for increase and negative signs for decrease.

Multiplying Factor Method

To quickly calculate multiple percentage changes, convert each percentage change into a fraction multiplier (e.g., −20% = 80/100 = 4/5) and multiply them consecutively with the initial base value.

Equal Successive Increase and Decrease

If any base value is first increased by x% and then decreased by the exact same x%, the final outcome is always a net decrease equal to (x² ÷ 100)%.

Shortcut Trick

When the distance traveled is constant, the average speed for the entire journey is calculated as: 2xy ÷ (x + y)

Given speeds are x = 20 km/hr and y = 30 km/hr.

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 20 × 30) ÷ (20 + 30)

⇒ Average speed = 1200 ÷ 50 = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed from Surat to Jaipur = 20 km/hr

Speed from Jaipur to Surat = 30 km/hr

Distance covered in both directions is equal. Let the one-way distance be d.

Surat

Jaipur

20 km/hr

30 km/hr

Distance = d

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = d + d = 2d

⇒ Time for onward journey = d ÷ 20

⇒ Time for return journey = d ÷ 30

⇒ Total Time = (d / 20) + (d / 30)

⇒ Total Time = (3d + 2d) ÷ 60

⇒ Total Time = 5d ÷ 60 = d ÷ 12

⇒ Average Speed = 2d ÷ (d / 12)

⇒ Average Speed = 2d × 12 ÷ d

⇒ Average Speed = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed for 3 Equal Distances

If a person covers three equal distances at speeds x, y, and z, the average speed for the whole journey is given by: 3xyz ÷ (xy + yz + zx).

Relative Speed

When two bodies move in the same direction, relative speed = |x − y|. When they move in opposite directions, relative speed = (x + y).

Average Speed vs Arithmetic Mean

Average speed is the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. It is never the simple arithmetic mean (x + y)/2 unless the time traveled at both speeds happens to be equal.

Shortcut Trick

To find the greatest dividing number, subtract the remainders from the given numbers and find their HCF.

Required Number = HCF of (2340 − 40) and (1551 − 33)

⇒ HCF of 2300 and 1518

⇒ HCF of (23 × 100) and (23 × 66)

⇒ 23 × 2 = 46

∴ The correct answer is 46.

Alternate Method

Given:

Dividends = 2340 and 1551

Remainders = 40 and 33

Formula Used:

Greatest number = HCF of (Dividend₁ − Remainder₁) and (Dividend₂ − Remainder₂)

Calculations:

⇒ First exact divisible number = 2340 − 40 = 2300

⇒ Second exact divisible number = 1551 − 33 = 1518

⇒ Prime factorization of 2300 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 5 × 23 = 2² × 5² × 23

⇒ Prime factorization of 1518 = 2 × 3 × 11 × 23

⇒ The Highest Common Factor (HCF) is the product of the lowest powers of all common prime factors.

⇒ Common factors are 2 and 23.

⇒ HCF = 2¹ × 23¹ = 46

∴ The correct answer is 46.

Additional Information

Greatest Dividing Number leaving Same Remainder

If a number divides x, y, and z leaving the same remainder in each case, the required number is the HCF of |x − y|, |y − z|, and |z − x|.

Relation Between HCF and LCM

For any two numbers A and B, the product of their HCF and LCM is equal to the product of the numbers themselves. Formula: HCF × LCM = A × B.

Least Number Leaving Same Remainder

The smallest number which when divided by x, y, and z leaves remainder r in each case is: LCM of (x, y, z) + r.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The highlighted phrase "is writing" is incorrect in the context of the sentence.
• The sentence indicates a past event, so the verb tense must align with the past tense.
• The correct tense is "was writing," which shows that Neha was in the middle of writing the letter when the call occurred.
• Thus, the correct substitution for the highlighted phrase is "was writing" (Option 3).

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Neha was writing a letter when I called her."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "is being written" – This is grammatically incorrect because it suggests passive voice, which does not fit the context.
• Option 2: "writes" – This is incorrect because it refers to a habitual action, whereas the sentence describes a specific past event.
• Option 4: "No correction" – This is incorrect because the original sentence contains a tense error.
• Option 3: "was writing" – This is the correct option as it uses the past continuous tense to describe the action happening at the time of the call.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "piece by logic piece" is incorrect because it is awkward and deviates from standard phrasing.
• The correct expression should be "piece by piece" to convey clarity and precision.
• Including "logic" disrupts the established idiomatic structure and makes the sentence grammatically and stylistically incorrect.
• Thus, the error is located in Option 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively and with surgical precision, dismantling the opposition's case piece by piece."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "dismantling the opposition's case" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 2: "and with surgical precision," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 4: "The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'meticulos'.

• The correct spelling would be 'meticulous'.
• The word 'meticulous' is an adjective which means 'showing great attention to detail; very careful and precise'. (अति सावधा���)
• For Example -
• She is always meticulous in her work.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'meticulos'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Unparalleled - having no equal; exceptional (अतुलनीय)
• Aesthetic - concerned with beauty or the appreciation of beauty (सौंदर्य संबंधी)
• Conferred - granted or bestowed (प्रदान किया)

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The question tag must agree with the main verb and subject of the sentence.
• Here, the main verb is "helps," which is in the present tense, and the subject is "Camila," a singular noun.
• The correct question tag for a positive statement with a singular subject in the present tense is "doesn't she."
• Thus, "doesn't she" is the appropriate replacement for the underlined segment.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Camila helps her mother in cooking dinner, doesn't she?" asked Veronica.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: hasn't she – Incorrect as it refers to the present perfect tense, which doesn't match the sentence.
• Option 3: don't she – Incorrect because "don't" does not agree with a singular subject.
• Option 4: wasn't she – Incorrect as it refers to the past tense, while the sentence is in the present tense.

The correct answer is 'launched'.

 

Key Points

• The verb "launched" is the simple past tense form of the verb "launch."
• The sentence describes an action that occurred in the past ("last year"), so the past tense "launched" is required.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The organization launched a major campaign to promote sustainable living last year."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "launching" is incorrect because it is the present participle form and does not fit the past tense context.
• Option 2: "launches" is incorrect because it is the present tense form and does not fit the past tense context.
• Option 4: "launch" is incorrect because it is the base form of the verb and does not fit the past tense context.

The correct answer is: Hold.

Key Points

• The word "Hasten" means to move or act quickly, or to accelerate the progress of something. (जल्दी करना, तेज करना)
• Example: She hastened to finish her assignment before the deadline.
• "Hold" refers to pausing, restraining, or stopping something from moving forward or progressing. (रोकना, थामना)
• Example: The referee asked the players to hold their positions until the whistle was blown.
• Since "Hold" implies the opposite of moving or acting quickly, it is the most appropriate antonym of "Hasten."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Hold.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Urge (प्रेरित करना): To strongly encourage or persuade someone to do something.
• Example: The teacher urged the students to complete their projects on time.
• Encourage (प्रोत्साहित करना): To give support or confidence to someone.
• Example: His parents encouraged him to pursue his passion for painting.
• Serious (गंभीर): Showing deep thought or sincerity; not playful or joking.
• Example: The manager had a serious discussion about the company's future plans.

The correct answer is 'quality'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "quality time" is a common collocation used to describe meaningful or valuable time spent with loved ones.
• The context of the sentence indicates that Vichu spent meaningful time with his wife, making "quality" the most appropriate word.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 do not fit the context or form a meaningful collocation in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Vichu spent quality time with his wife in Goa for about three days."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "wise time" is incorrect because "wise" does not collocate with "time" in this context.
• Option 3: "brave time" is incorrect because "brave" is unrelated to the context of the sentence.
• Option 4: "costly time" is incorrect because it does not form a meaningful collocation in this context.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence "Quickly does he watch television" contains an adverb-usage error.
• The placement of the adverb "Quickly" is incorrect, as it disrupts the natural word order in English.
• In standard English, the correct phrasing would be "He watches television quickly" or "Quickly, he watches television."
• Thus, the error lies in Option 2, which includes the incorrect usage of the adverb.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Teacher Grace remarked, 'He watches television quickly.'"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "remarked" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "Teacher Grace" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 4: "watch television'" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is: Careful with spending.

Key Points

• The word "Frugal" refers to someone who is economical or careful with their spending and resources. (मितव्ययी)
• Example: She leads a frugal lifestyle by avoiding unnecessary expenses and saving money for the future.
• "Careful with spending" implies the act of being mindful and wise about using money and resources efficiently. (धन खर्च करने में सावधान)
• Example: Despite earning a good salary, he is careful with spending and avoids wasting money on luxuries.
• Hence, the meaning of "Frugal" aligns with "Careful with spending".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Careful with spending.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Impulsive and reckless (अप्रत्याशित और लापरवाह): Acting without thinking or planning, often leading to careless behavior.
• Example: His impulsive and reckless decisions often land him in trouble.
• Extravagant and lavish (आयासपूर्ण और भव्य): Spending money excessively or living in luxury without concern for costs.
• Example: Their wedding was an extravagant and lavish celebration with no expense spared.
• Dishonest and deceitful (बेईमान और कपटी): Behaving in a way that is not truthful or fair.
• Example: The dishonest and deceitful salesman tricked customers into buying faulty products.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'prolifarate'.

• The correct spelling would be 'proliferate'.
• The word 'proliferate' is a verb which means 'to increase rapidly in numbers or multiply'. (तेजी से बढ़ना)
• For Example -
• Small businesses tend to proliferate in a thriving economy.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'prolifarate'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words -

• Prolific - producing many works, results, or offspring (उत्पादक)
• Prodigal - spending money or resources freely and recklessly (अपव्ययी)
• Prolong - extend the duration of (लंबा करना)

The correct answer is: Confused or puzzled.

Key Points

• The word "Perplexed" means feeling completely baffled or very confused. (उलझन में या हैरान)
• Example: She looked perplexed when she saw the complex math problem on the board.
• "Confused or puzzled" refers to a state of not being able to think clearly or understand something. (भ्रमित या हैरान)
• Example: The students were confused and puzzled by the unexpected twist in the story.
• Hence, the word "Perplexed" aligns best with "Confused or puzzled."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Confused or puzzled.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Confident and sure (आत्मविश्वासी और निश्चित): Feeling certain about one's abilities or the correctness of something.
• Example: He was confident and sure about his decision to start his own business.
• Happy and relieved (खुश और राहत महसूस करना): Feeling joy and a sense of relief.
• Example: She was happy and relieved when she found her lost wallet.
• Calm and relaxed (शांत और आरामदायक): Free from stress, agitation, or excitement.
• Example: After a long day, he felt calm and relaxed while listening to soothing music.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Involving).

Key Points

• The word "engrossing" means extremely interesting and captivating, capable of holding one's attention completely. (रोमांचक, ध्यान खींचने वाला)
• Example: The engrossing story kept me awake all night, eager to know what happens next.
• "Involving" refers to something that engages or captures attention deeply, making the audience feel a part of the experience. (शामिल करने वाला, दिलचस्प)
• Example: The involving movie plot kept the viewers glued to their seats till the very end.
• Hence, "engrossing" is synonymous with "involving."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Involving).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Rancid (बासी): Refers to food or substances that have gone bad, often having an unpleasant smell or taste.
• Example: The butter had turned rancid after being left out in the heat.
• Malodorous (दुर्गंधयुक्त): Something that has a bad smell.
• Example: The malodorous garbage was unbearable in the summer heat.
• Musty (सीलनयुक्त): Refers to something stale or damp-smelling, typically associated with old places or items.
• Example: The musty smell in the basement made it unpleasant to stay there.

The correct answer is: Magnificence.

Key Points

• The word "Grandeur" refers to impressive or outstanding beauty, splendor, or magnificence. It signifies greatness in appearance or style. (भव्यता)
• Example: The grandeur of the royal palace left the visitors in awe.
• "Magnificence" is used to describe something that is extremely beautiful, impressive, or splendid, which perfectly aligns with the meaning of grandeur. (शानदारता)
• Example: The magnificence of the sunset over the mountains was breathtaking.
• Hence, the most appropriate synonym for "Grandeur" is "Magnificence".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Magnificence.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Dominance (प्रभुत्व): The power to control or influence others.
• Example: His dominance in the game was evident from the very beginning.
• Reality (वास्तविकता): The state of things as they actually exist, as opposed to an idealized version.
• Example: The reality of the situation is much harsher than we anticipated.
• Integrity (अखंडता): The quality of being honest and having strong moral principles.
• Example: His integrity is what sets him apart as a leader.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "To work late into the night".

Key Points

• The idiom "To burn the midnight oil" means to work late into the night, especially in order to complete a task or achieve something. (रात देर तक काम करना)
• Example: The students burned the midnight oil to prepare for their final exams.
• In this context, it refers to putting in extra effort and working beyond normal hours to complete a task or assignment.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To sleep early (जल्दी सोना): Refers to going to bed early, typically to maintain a healthy routine.
• Example: He decided to sleep early to wake up fresh for the meeting tomorrow.
• Option 2: To waste time (समय बर्बाद करना): Refers to spending time unproductively or in a way that does not yield meaningful results.
• Example: Stop wasting time on social media and focus on your studies.
• Option 4: To be energetic during the day (दिन के समय ऊर्जावान होना): Refers to being active and full of energy during the daytime.
• Example: She is always energetic during the day and completes all her tasks efficiently.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The issue in the sentence lies in the incorrect verb form "don’t knew." The correct verb form should be "don’t know."
• "Don’t" is the contraction of "do not," which is used with the base form of the verb. "Knew" is the past tense of "know," making the sentence grammatically incorrect.
• The correct form is "don’t know," which ensures proper subject-verb agreement and tense consistency.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "She said she would join us later, but I don’t know if she will make it on time."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "but I doesn’t know" – This is incorrect because "doesn't" is used with singular subjects, and the subject "I" is plural.
• Option 3: "but I didn’t known" – This is incorrect because "didn't" should be followed by the base form of the verb "know," not "known."
• Option 4: "but I won’t be knowing" – This is incorrect as it changes the tense and meaning of the sentence unnecessarily.

The correct answer is 'among'.

 

Key Points

• The passage highlights India's efforts to address issues of nutritional deprivation, ill-health, and lost potential, particularly for women and children.
• The blank requires a preposition that connects the record of deprivation to the group of citizens affected.
• "Among" is the best fit, as it denotes the presence of these issues within the population of Indian citizens.
• Other options ("to", "by", "from") do not convey the intended relationship between the problems and the affected group.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) mentioned in its report how effectively India has used its newly created wealth to alter a dismal record of nutritional deprivation, ill-health and lost potential among its citizens, particularly women and children. Given the steady growth in real per capita GDP since the 1980s, and the progress made since Independence in overcoming severe undernourishment, enlightened policy approaches could have brought about a giant leap from 1992-93, when the first NFHS was conducted, so that no child or woman was left behind in the quest for health for all. Evidently, the Indian state has not viewed the situation as constituting a national crisis, even at the height of a prosperous phase of economic growth when a decade ago 39% of children under the age of five remained underweight. It comes as no surprise, therefore, that this failure to assume responsibility for child nutrition has left 34% of children in that age group underweight today. There is also a lot of evidence to show that the poorest sections of India’s children have low weight even at birth due to the general neglect of women’s nutrition and well-being. It is imperative that the coming data lead to the charting of a new policy course that makes access to nutrition and health a right for all.

 

Additional Information

• To: Indicates direction or movement, not suitable for describing conditions present within a group.
• By: Refers to agency or means, which does not fit the context here.
• From: Implies origin or separation, which is not the intended meaning in this sentence.

The correct answer is 'ensuring'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the positive outcomes that could have resulted from enlightened policy approaches after the first NFHS was conducted.
• The blank requires a word that shows the result or aim of these actions, which is that no child or woman is left behind in health efforts.
• "Ensuring" is the most appropriate word, as it indicates making certain that all individuals benefit from health initiatives.
• Other options like "suggesting", "searching", and "avoiding" do not fit the context of guaranteeing positive outcomes for all.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) mentioned in its report how effectively India has used its newly created wealth to alter a dismal record of nutritional deprivation, ill-health and lost potential among its citizens, particularly women and children. Given the steady growth in real per capita GDP since the 1980s, and the progress made since Independence in overcoming severe undernourishment, enlightened policy approaches could have brought about a giant leap from 1992-93, when the first NFHS was conducted, ensuring that no child or woman was left behind in the quest for health for all. Evidently, the Indian state has not viewed the situation as constituting a national crisis, even at the height of a prosperous phase of economic growth when a decade ago 39% of children under the age of five remained underweight. It comes as no surprise, therefore, that this failure to assume responsibility for child nutrition has left 34% of children in that age group underweight today. There is also a lot of evidence to show that the poorest sections of India’s children have low weight even at birth due to the general neglect of women’s nutrition and well-being. It is imperative that the coming data lead to the charting of a new policy course that makes access to nutrition and health a right for all.

 

Additional Information

• Suggesting: Means proposing an idea, which does not guarantee a result.
• Searching: Means looking for something, which does not fit the context of achieving a result.
• Avoiding: Means keeping away from something, not guaranteeing all will benefit.

The correct answer is 'deprived'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the health and nutrition status of different groups of children in India.
• The blank refers to those sections of children who are most affected by poor nutrition and well-being.
• "Deprived" fits best, as it denotes children who lack basic necessities, including nutrition and health care.
• Other options ("benefitted", "conjured", "gifted") do not fit the context of describing children who suffer from undernourishment and neglect.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) mentioned in its report how effectively India has used its newly created wealth to alter a dismal record of nutritional deprivation, ill-health and lost potential among its citizens, particularly women and children. Given the steady growth in real per capita GDP since the 1980s, and the progress made since Independence in overcoming severe undernourishment, enlightened policy approaches could have brought about a giant leap from 1992-93, when the first NFHS was conducted, ensuring that no child or woman was left behind in the quest for health for all. Evidently, the Indian state has not viewed the situation as constituting a national crisis, even at the height of a prosperous phase of economic growth when a decade ago 39% of children under the age of five remained underweight. It comes as no surprise, therefore, that this failure to assume responsibility for child nutrition has left 34% of children in that age group underweight today. There is also a lot of evidence to show that the deprived sections of India’s children have low weight even at birth due to the general neglect of women’s nutrition and well-being. It is imperative that the coming data lead to the charting of a new policy course that makes access to nutrition and health a right for all.

 

Additional Information

• Benefitted: Means those who have received benefits, which is opposite of the intended meaning.
• Conjured: Means created by magic or imagination, not relevant here.
• Gifted: Means talented or having gifts, which does not fit the context of deprivation.

The correct answer is 'neglect'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses the poor nutritional status of children, particularly among deprived sections.
• The blank refers to the cause behind low birth weight among these children, pointing to a lack of attention to women's nutrition and well-being.
• "Neglect" fits perfectly, as it denotes a failure to care for or give proper attention, which results in poor outcomes for women's health and, consequently, children's health.
• Other options ("manage", "approve", "accept") do not convey the sense of carelessness or lack of attention required by the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: The National Family Health Survey (NFHS) mentioned in its report how effectively India has used its newly created wealth to alter a dismal record of nutritional deprivation, ill-health and lost potential among its citizens, particularly women and children. Given the steady growth in real per capita GDP since the 1980s, and the progress made since Independence in overcoming severe undernourishment, enlightened policy approaches could have brought about a giant leap from 1992-93, when the first NFHS was conducted, ensuring that no child or woman was left behind in the quest for health for all. Evidently, the Indian state has not viewed the situation as constituting a national crisis, even at the height of a prosperous phase of economic growth when a decade ago 39% of children under the age of five remained underweight. It comes as no surprise, therefore, that this failure to assume responsibility for child nutrition has left 34% of children in that age group underweight today. There is also a lot of evidence to show that the deprived sections of India’s children have low weight even at birth due to the general neglect of women’s nutrition and well-being. It is imperative that the coming data lead to the charting of a new policy course that makes access to nutrition and health a right for all.

 

Additional Information

• Manage: Means to handle or control, which does not fit the negative context of the sentence.
• Approve: Means to officially agree or accept, unrelated to the context of lack of care.
• Accept: Means to receive willingly, which does not fit the context of the sentence.