SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 25 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. To deal with a difficult situation.

Key Points

• The phrase "To take the bull by the horns" means to confront a problem or a difficult situation directly and with courage. (किसी कठिन परिस्थिति का साहसपूर्वक सामना करना)
• Example: She decided to take the bull by the horns and confront her boss about the unfair workload.
• The correct meaning of this idiom reflects the idea of addressing a challenge head-on without hesitation. (सीधे और साहसपूर्वक चुनौती का सामना करना)
• Example: Instead of avoiding his financial issues, he took the bull by the horns and started budgeting carefully.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. To deal with a difficult situation.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To deal with a dangerous prisoner (एक खतरनाक कैदी से निपटना) - This is unrelated to the meaning of the idiom.
• Example: The police officer was trained to deal with dangerous prisoners, but this is not related to "taking the bull by the horns."
• Option 2: To deal with a hopeless student (एक निराशाजनक छात्र से निपटना) - This option also does not capture the essence of the idiom.
• Example: The teacher tried to motivate the hopeless student, but this situation doesn't align with the idiom's meaning.
• Option 3: To deal with an annoying person (एक परेशान करने वाले व्यक्ति से निपटना) - This option is incorrect as the idiom refers to facing a challenging situation, not a specific person.
• Example: She ignored the annoying person instead of confronting him, which is not equivalent to "taking the bull by the horns."

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The error in the sentence is two-fold: it involves Subject-Verb Agreement and Voice/Tense construction.
• The subject of the sentence is "The psychological actions," which is a plural noun phrase. Therefore, the singular auxiliary verb "was" is incorrect; it should be plural.
• Furthermore, the construction "was thoroughly upset Mr. Amith" is grammatically nonsensical. "Upset" here acts as the main verb. If the actions are the cause, the sentence should be in the active voice: "upset Mr. Amith" or "have thoroughly upset Mr. Amith."
• If the intention was to use the past tense, the correct plural form would be "thoroughly upset Mr. Amith" (without "was").
• Thus, the error is located in Option 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The psychological actions of his wife thoroughly upset Mr. Amith."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The psychological actions" – This is a correct plural subject phrase.
• Option 3: "of his wife" – This is a correct prepositional phrase identifying the source of the actions.
• Option 2: "No error" – This is incorrect because the verb phrase in Option 4 is fundamentally broken in terms of both number and structure.
• Confusing 'Upset': Note that "upset" can be an adjective (He is upset), a noun (a major upset), or a verb (The news upset him). In this sentence, it is used as a verb.

The correct answer is '2 i.e. recondite.

 

Key Points

• The word "recondite" means profound, obscure, or difficult to understand, which fits the context of the sentence describing the philosopher's ideas as challenging conventional understanding.
• The other options do not match the context:
• Option 1: "pedestrian" means ordinary or lacking inspiration, which is the opposite of the intended meaning.
• Option 3: "literal" means taking words in their most basic sense, which does not fit the description of abstract or profound ideas.
• Option 4: "didactic" means intended to teach, which does not align with the notion of challenging conventional understanding.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The philosopher's ideas were so recondite that they challenged conventional understanding of time and existence."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "pedestrian" implies something unremarkable or dull, which is the opposite of profound or challenging ideas.
• Option 3: "literal" refers to the most basic or explicit meaning, which is not relevant to the context of complex philosophical ideas.
• Option 4: "didactic" suggests an instructional tone, which does not imply profound or abstract thinking.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Infinite.

Key Points

• The word "Eternal" means something that lasts forever, without an end or beginning. (अनंत, शाश्वत)
• Example: Love for family is often considered eternal and unconditional.
• "Infinite" refers to something limitless or endless in extent or size, impossible to measure or calculate. (अनंत, असीमित)
• Example: The universe is said to be infinite in size and full of mysteries.
• As both "Eternal" and "Infinite" convey the idea of something that has no end or limit, the most appropriate synonym for "Eternal" is "Infinite."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Infinite.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Temporary (अस्थायी): Something that lasts for only a limited time; not permanent.
• Example: The repairs to the road are only temporary until a permanent solution is found.
• Fleeting (क्षणिक): Something that happens or exists only for a very short time.
• Example: He caught a fleeting glimpse of the bird before it flew away.
• Brief (संक्षिप्त): Of short duration or concise in expression.
• Example: She gave a brief summary of the project during the meeting.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The correctly spelled word is 'Palate'.

• Palate refers to the roof of the mouth in humans and other vertebrates.
• It is also used metaphorically to describe a person’s ability to distinguish between and appreciate different flavors and tastes.
• For Example: The dish was designed to please a sophisticated palate.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Palate'.

Additional Information

Let’s understand the meanings of the other options:

• Palete: Incorrect spelling, no meaning.
• Palet: Incorrect spelling, no meaning.
• Pelate: Incorrect spelling, no meaning.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The correctly spelled word is 'Questionnaire'.

• Questionnaire is a noun which refers to a set of written or printed questions with a choice of answers, devised for the purposes of a survey or statistical study.
• Example: The researchers distributed a questionnaire to gather feedback on the new product.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Questionnaire'.

Additional Information

Let's review the other options:

• Option 1: Questionair - This is an incorrect spelling.
• Option 2: Questionayre - This is another incorrect spelling.
• Option 4: Questionere - This is also an incorrect spelling.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. 'further up the valley'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "further up the valley" is correct because it properly describes the location in the valley in a natural and grammatically sound way.
• The preposition "up" is used to indicate movement or position in the valley, which is geographically accurate and contextually appropriate.
• Options 2 and 3 are incorrect as the prepositions "ahead" and "on" do not fit the context of describing the valley's location.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the original phrase does not convey the intended meaning as effectively as "further up the valley."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The village is further up the valley, nestled among the hills."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "further ahead the valley" is incorrect because the preposition "ahead" is not used to describe geographic location within a valley.
• Option 3: "further on the valley" is incorrect because "on" is not the correct preposition to describe movement or position within a valley.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence does not use the most accurate phrase to describe the position of the village.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. 'throughout the procedure'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "throughout the procedure" is correct as it indicates something happening during the entire duration of the procedure.
• Options 1 and 2 ("across" and "along") are contextually incorrect as they do not fit the meaning of the sentence.
• Option 4 ("No substitution") is incorrect because the original phrase "by the procedure" is grammatically and contextually wrong.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "She remained calm throughout the procedure."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "across the procedure" is incorrect because "across" refers to a physical movement or position and does not convey the idea of duration.
• Option 2: "along the procedure" is incorrect because "along" refers to movement in a linear direction and is not appropriate in this context.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original phrase "by the procedure" does not make sense in English.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• The active sentence is: "Always keep in mind that truth pervades the whole universe."
• To convert to passive voice: Begin with "Let it always be kept in mind."
• Retain the phrase "the whole universe" and change the verb "pervades" to the passive form "is pervaded by."
• Ensure the sentence maintains its meaning in the passive voice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Let it always be kept in mind that the whole universe is pervaded by truth."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Let always be kept in mind that the whole universe is pervaded by truth." – Incorrect word order ("Let always" instead of "Let it always").
• Option 2: "Let it always kept in mind that the whole universe is pervaded by truth." – Missing "be" before "kept."
• Option 3: "Let it always be kept in mind that the whole universe pervaded truth." – Incorrect verb form ("pervaded" instead of "is pervaded by").
• Option 4: "Let it always be kept in mind that the whole universe is pervaded by truth." – Correct structure and meaning.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: When converting a direct question into indirect speech, the question format is changed into a statement format, and the tense changes appropriately.
• Key Conversions:
• "Why didn’t you inform" becomes "why she had not informed":
• The past tense "didn’t inform" is changed to the past perfect "had not informed" to fit the rules of indirect speech.
• The pronoun "you" is changed to "she" to align with the perspective of the speaker.
• "the problem you were facing" becomes "the problem she had been facing":
• The past continuous tense "were facing" is changed to the past perfect continuous "had been facing" in indirect speech.
• The pronoun "you" is replaced with "she" to match the subject in indirect speech.
• Reporting verb "said to" becomes "asked":
• Since the direct speech is a question, the reporting verb "said to" is changed to "asked" in indirect speech.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Quotation marks are removed, and the sentence is presented in a declarative format.
• No question mark is used in the indirect statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: Seema asked Meera why she had not informed her father about the problem she had been facing in the hostel.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Seema told Meera why she had not informed her father about the problem she had been facing in the hostel."
• Incorrect because the reporting verb "told" is used instead of "asked," which changes the context of the sentence.
• Option 3: "Seema asked Meera why she had not informed her father about the problem she was facing in the hostel."
• Incorrect because "was facing" should be in the past perfect continuous tense ("had been facing") in indirect speech.
• Option 4: "Seema asked Meera why she did not inform her father about the problem she was facing in the hostel."
• Incorrect because "did not inform" does not follow the tense rules for indirect speech and should be changed to "had not informed."

The correct answer is: Separate.

Key Points

• The word "Concomitant" refers to something that naturally accompanies or follows something else, often in a simultaneous or related manner. (सहगामी)
• Example: The rise in unemployment was concomitant with the economic downturn.
• "Separate" means existing apart or distinct from something else, often implying division or independence. (अलग)
• Example: They decided to live in separate houses after the argument.
• Hence, the antonym of 'Concomitant' is 'Separate'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Separate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Related (संबंधित): Connected or associated with something.
• Example: The two topics are closely related and should be discussed together.
• Independent (स्वतंत्र): Free from outside control or influence; not dependent on anyone else.
• Example: She is an independent thinker who makes her own decisions.
• Detached (अलग-थलग): Not connected or emotionally involved.
• Example: The investigator remained detached and objective during the interview.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• To change the sentence from passive to active voice, identify the subject, verb, and object in the passive sentence.
• In the given sentence, "The new law was passed by the parliament," the subject is "the parliament," the verb is "passed," and the object is "the new law."
• Rearrange the sentence so that the subject ("the parliament") comes first, followed by the verb ("passed"), and then the object ("the new law").
• Ensure that the verb tense remains consistent. In this case, "was passed" in the passive voice becomes "passed" in the active voice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The parliament passed the new law."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The new law passed the parliament." – Incorrect as the subject-verb agreement is not logical in this context.
• Option 2: "The parliament passes the new law." – Incorrect tense; the original sentence is in the past tense.
• Option 4: "The new law has been passed by the parliament." – This is still in the passive voice and in the present perfect tense, not the active voice.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: She said that by the next month, she would have been living in Paris for five years.
• Key Conversions:
• "would have been living" becomes "will have been living"
• In direct speech, the future perfect continuous tense is used to indicate an ongoing action that will be completed by a certain point in the future.
• The modal verb "would" is replaced by "will" to reflect direct speech.
• "she" becomes "I"
• Pronoun change is necessary to match the perspective of the speaker in direct speech.
• "by the next month" remains "by next month"
• The time expression is simplified for natural usage in direct speech.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• Starts with a capital letter "By" and ends with a period "." inside the quotation marks.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "By next month, I will have been living in Paris for five years."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "By next month, I would be living in Paris for five years."
• Incorrect tense: "would be living" is not the correct future perfect continuous form.
• Option 3: "By next month, I have been living in Paris for five years."
• Tense mismatch: "have been living" is present perfect continuous, not future perfect continuous.
• Option 4: "By the next month, I will live in Paris for five years."
• Incorrect tense: "will live" does not convey the ongoing action as required in future perfect continuous.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's break down each sentence to identify the voice (active or passive) used in each:

• 1. Sleep disturbances are often caused by excessive mobile use.
• This sentence focuses on the recipient of the action (sleep disturbances).
• This sentence is in the passive voice because it uses the auxiliary verb "are" + the past participle "caused," and the doer (mobile use) follows the word "by."
• 2. Real-life conversations are being replaced by virtual interactions.
• This sentence focuses on what is happening to the conversations.
• This sentence is in the passive voice. It uses the continuous passive form "are being replaced."
• 3. Experts suggest setting boundaries for mobile use.
• This sentence focuses on the doer (Experts) performing the action (suggest).
• This sentence is in the active voice. The subject "Experts" is performing the action directly, and there is no "be" verb combined with a past participle to indicate passivity.
• 4. Notifications are checked constantly by people of all ages.
• This sentence focuses on the object being acted upon (Notifications).
• This sentence is in the passive voice. It follows the structure: Object + "are" + past participle "checked" + "by" + Subject.
• So, out of the given sentences, options 1, 2, and 4 are written in the passive voice, while option 3 is written in the active voice.
• Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Active voice structure: The "doer" of the action (the agent) becomes the subject of the sentence.
• In the original passive sentence: "Uninterrupted personal time is often disturbed by mobile notifications," the agent is "mobile notifications."
• To convert to active voice: Place the agent "mobile notifications" at the beginning as the subject.
• Change the passive verb form "is... disturbed" (present simple passive) to the active form "disturb" (present simple active).
• Place the original subject "uninterrupted personal time" in the object position after the verb.
• Maintain the adverb "often" before the main verb to keep the original frequency of the action.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Mobile notifications disturb uninterrupted personal time."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Mobile notifications are often disturbing uninterrupted personal time." – This uses the present continuous tense, which changes the original simple present meaning.
• Option 3: "Uninterrupted personal time disturbs mobile notifications." – This reverses the logic of the sentence, making the time the "doer."
• Option 4: "Uninterrupted personal time has been disturbed by mobile notifications" – This is still in the passive voice and changes the tense to present perfect.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Broken into pieces.

Key Points

• The word "fragmented" means:
• Broken into separate parts or pieces; not whole or complete. (टुकड़ों में बंटा हुआ)
• Example: After the earthquake, the city was left fragmented with many buildings destroyed.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured her a perfect score.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Broken into pieces.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Whole and complete (पूरा और समग्र): Intact; not broken or divided.
• Example: He found the puzzle piece that made the picture whole and complete.
• Peaceful (शांतिपूर्ण): Calm and free from disturbance or conflict.
• Example: The lake was peaceful and serene, perfect for relaxation.
• Deeply focused (गहन रूप से केंद्रित): Concentrating with intensity on a particular task or subject.
• Example: She was deeply focused on her studies, preparing for the upcoming exams.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Staying connected excessively.

Key Points

• The word "hyper-connectivity" means:
• The state of being overly connected or having excessive communications through various digital means, such as mobile phones and the internet. (अत्यधिक जुड़ाव)
• Example: In an age of hyper-connectivity, people often struggle to find time away from their digital devices.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured him a perfect score.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Staying connected excessively.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Lack of internet (इंटरनेट की कमी): The state of not having internet access.
• Example: Due to the lack of internet, he was unable to join the online meeting.
• Limited communication (सीमित संचार): Restricted or minimal interactions.
• Example: In remote areas, people often face limited communication due to poor network coverage.
• Using only traditional phones (केवल पारंपरिक फोन का उपयोग): The act of using basic, non-smartphone devices exclusively for communication.
• Example: Some elderly people prefer using only traditional phones for their simplicity.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• A) Excessive mobile use leads to physical and mental health issues.
• This is mentioned in the passage. The text explicitly states that excessive use leads to sleep disturbances, reduced concentration, and increased anxiety levels.
• B) Constant connectivity is necessary to maintain modern relationships.
• This is contradicted by the passage. The text suggests that virtual interactions are replacing face-to-face conversations and that people struggle to maintain real-life connections because of mobile phones.
• C) Experts recommend setting boundaries and taking breaks to restore balance.
• This is the main suggestion given in the passage. The text states that experts suggest "setting boundaries for mobile use, such as taking regular breaks and turning off unnecessary notifications" to regain focus and improve health.

Therefore, the correct answer is Set boundaries and take breaks from mobile use.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because the passage links nighttime use to sleep disturbances.
• Option 2: Incorrect because experts suggest turning off unnecessary notifications, not checking them more often.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the passage suggests that "learning to unplug" (spending less time online) is the key to a calmer mind.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Composed.

Key Points

• The word "self-possessed" means being calm, confident, and in control of one's emotions or behavior. (स्वयं पर नियंत्रण रखना)
• Example: Despite the difficult situation, the speaker remained self-possessed and handled the questions with grace.
• The word "composed" is closest in meaning to self-possessed as it also means calm, serene, or in control of emotions. (शांत और नियंत्रित)
• Example: She appeared composed even during the stressful interview.
• Hence, we can conclude that "composed" is the correct answer.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Composed.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Nervous (घबराया हुआ): Easily agitated or distressed, especially in the face of anxiety or fear.
• Example: He was nervous before giving his first public speech.
• Rude (असभ्य): Lacking respect or courtesy in behavior or speech.
• Example: The waiter was rude and did not attend to the customers properly.
• Silent (चुप): Not speaking or making noise; quiet or reserved.
• Example: The room fell silent when the teacher entered.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Special benefits.

Key Points

• The word "advance" has multiple meanings, depending on its context. Below are its meanings with explanations:
• Move forward (आगे बढ़ना): This refers to physically or metaphorically moving ahead in position or progress.
• Example: The soldiers were ordered to advance towards the enemy's position.
• Progress (प्रगति): It signifies improvement or development in a particular aspect.
• Example: The advance in technology has made communication much easier.
• Ahead of time (समय से पहले): This refers to doing or planning something before it is required or due.
• Example: She made the payment in advance to secure her reservation.
• However, Special benefits (विशेष लाभ) is NOT a meaning of the word "advance." This eliminates Option 3 as the correct answer.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Special benefits.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Move forward (आगे बढ़ना): Refers to making physical or figurative progress.
• Example: The team decided to move forward with their plan despite the challenges.
• Progress (प्रगति): Refers to development or improvement in a particular field or situation.
• Example: The progress in medical research has saved countless lives.
• Ahead of time (समय से पहले): Refers to completing or planning something earlier than required.
• Example: We prepared the presentation ahead of time to avoid last-minute stress.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. A written agreement between two companies involved in a merger.

Key Points

• The word "Resolution" has multiple meanings depending on the context. Below are its primary meanings:
• Meaning 1: A firm decision to do or not to do something. (दृढ़ निश्चय)
• Example: She made a resolution to exercise daily and stick to a healthy diet.
• Meaning 2: The quality of an image or screen, especially in terms of clarity. (छवि या स्क्रीन की स्पष्टता)
• Example: The new smartphone has a resolution of 1080p, providing crystal-clear visuals.
• Meaning 3: The act of solving a problem, dispute, or contentious matter. (समस्या या विवाद का समाधान)
• Example: The resolution of the conflict between the two countries was achieved through diplomatic talks.
• Explanation of the Correct Answer: The phrase "A written agreement between two companies involved in a merger" is NOT one of the meanings of "Resolution." (यह "Resolution" का अर्थ नहीं है।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. A written agreement between two companies involved in a merger.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A firm decision to do or not to do something (दृढ़ निश्चय)
• Example: My resolution for the new year is to save more money and reduce unnecessary expenses.
• Option 2: The quality of an image or screen, especially in terms of clarity (छवि या स्क्रीन की स्पष्टता)
• Example: The 4K resolution of the TV makes the visuals appear lifelike.
• Option 4: The act of solving a problem, dispute, or contentious matter (समस्या या विवाद का समाधान)
• Example: The resolution of the team's internal issues helped them perform better in the tournament.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The word stoichiometric refers to the precise measurement of reactants and products in chemical reactions.
• It is derived from the Greek words "stoicheion" (element) and "metron" (measure).
• The correct spelling is stoichiometric, which is commonly used in chemistry to describe reactions involving specific quantitative relationships.
• The other options contain incorrect spellings:
• Option 2: stiochiometric - Incorrect placement of "i".
• Option 3: stoichometric - Missing the "io" sequence.
• Option 4: stiochimetric - Incorrect arrangement of letters.

Correct sentence: The chemist published a paper on stoichiometric reactions.

Additional Information

• The term stoichiometry is essential in chemistry, particularly in reaction equations, as it helps calculate the proportions of reactants and products.
• For example:
• In the reaction 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, the stoichiometric ratio of hydrogen to oxygen is 2:1.
• Understanding stoichiometry is crucial in fields like chemical engineering, environmental science, and pharmaceuticals.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The correct word to complete the given sentence is "jejune."
• Meaning of 'jejune': It is an adjective that means 'naive, simplistic, and superficial' or 'dull and uninteresting'.
• In this context, the critic is describing the novel as dull and therefore, 'jejune' is the appropriate word.

Correct sentence: The critic dismissed the novel as jejune and dull.

Additional Information

• Option 2: jejuen - This is an incorrect spelling.
• Option 3: jejoon - This is an incorrect spelling.
• Option 4: jejeun - This is an incorrect spelling.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Autograph.

Key Points

• The word "Autograph" refers to a signature, especially that of a famous person, written as a memento for a fan or admirer. (हस्ताक्षर, विशेष रूप से किसी प्रसिद्ध व्यक्ति का)
• Example: The fans waited for hours to get the celebrity's autograph on their books.
• A "Signature" is a person's name written in a distinctive way as a form of identification in authorizing a document or agreement. (हस्ताक्षर, किसी दस्तावेज़ को प्रमाणित करने के लिए)
• Example: Please provide your signature at the bottom of the form.
• However, the term "Autograph" is specifically used when referring to a famous person's signature as a keepsake.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Autograph.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Signature (हस्ताक्षर): A person's written name to signify authorization.
• Example: The document is invalid without your signature.
• Initial (आरंभिक अक्षर): The first letter of someone's name, typically used as an abbreviation.
• Example: Please write your initials next to the corrections you made.
• Emblem (प्रतीक): A symbolic design or representation.
• Example: The national emblem is a symbol of the country's pride and culture.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Biography.

Key Points

• The word "Biography" refers to the written account of a person's life story, usually written by someone else. (जीवनी)
• Example: The biography of Mahatma Gandhi, written by Louis Fischer, provides deep insights into his life and philosophy.
• Autobiography refers to a person writing their own life story. (आत्मकथा)
• Example: "Wings of Fire" is an autobiography of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

Hence, the word "Biography" is correct as it describes the writing of a person's life story by someone else. (जीवनी)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Biography.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Autobiography (आत्मकथा): A person's life story written by themselves.
• Example: "The Story of My Experiments with Truth" is Mahatma Gandhi's autobiography.
• Memoir (संस्मरण): A historical account or biography written from personal knowledge or special sources.
• Example: Michelle Obama's "Becoming" is a memoir that details her personal experiences.
• Journal (डायरी): A daily record of news, events, or personal experiences.
• Example: Anne Frank's "The Diary of a Young Girl" is a famous journal written during World War II.

<br> <br>

Family tree,

He is Brother of Deepika.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

 

• Qualities projected in this situation: (Empathy, Courage, Responsibility, and Social Awareness)

<br>

The correct answer is "option(3)".

Additional Information

Supporting someone being bullied in a safe and thoughtful way helps create a positive environment and discourages such behaviour in the future.

<br>

BODMAS Table: 

Given expression: 4 * 12 % 9 % 10 = ?

Substituting symbols:

 

⇒ 4 + 12 × 9 × 10 = ?

⇒ 4 + 12 × 9 × 10 = ?

⇒ 4 + 108 × 10 = ?

⇒ 4 + 1080 = ?

⇒ 1084

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Statement:

All books are pens.

Some pens are erasers.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

<br>

 I. Some books are erasers → Does not follow (There is no relation given between book and eraser. so, it is possible not definite).

<br>

II. No book is an eraser → Does not follow (There is no relation given between book and eraser. so, it is possible not definite).

Since both conditions cannot be false at the same time (either books overlap with erasers or they don't), one of them must be true.

Correct Answer: Either conclusion I or II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

Here, -975 is wrong term.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

11 × 3 + 3 = 36

<br>

36 × 4 + 3 = 147

<br>

147 × 3 + 3 = 444

<br>

444 × 4 + 3 = 1779

<br>

1779 × 3 + 3 = 5340

<br>

5340 × 4 + 3 = 21363

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 10 @ 3 @ 4 # 14 = ?

<br>

Now, replacing the symbols:

⇒ 10 × 3 × 4 + 14 = ?

⇒ 10 × 3 × 4 + 14 = ?

⇒ 30 × 4 + 14 = ?

⇒ 120 + 14 = ?

⇒ 134.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Statements:

Some Tribe is Old.

All Old is Ancient.

No Old is Vedic.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

<br>

I. Some Tribe is Vedic → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between Tribe and Vedic. so, it is possible not definite).

<br>

II. Some Tribe is not Vedic → Follow (As Some tribe is old and No old is Vedic. SO, some tribe which are old are not Vedic).

Only conclusion II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Peter is 12th from the left.

John is 16th from the right.

There are 4 people between them.

As given there is no overlapping.

So,

Total number of people = 12 + 16 + 4 = 32

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Mistake Points

According to the question, we have to check the address in terms of formatting, punctuation, spelling, and structure.

Since, in option (4), there is a full stop (.) at the end of the address. So it cannot be an exact match with the Master address.

Thus, the correct answer is option (3).

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given word:  BIODIVERSITY

Word I: DEORBITS → Can be formed

Word II: STEROID → Can be formed

Word III: VISITER → Can be formed

All the words can be formed using the letters only once.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Statement: Students who complete the summer program receive priority registration. David received priority registration. 

 

• Qualities projected in this situation: (Logical Reasoning and Analytical Thinking)

The correct answer is "option(2)".

Additional Information

From the statement: Completing summer program → Priority registration. This does not imply the reverse (Priority registration → Completed program), hence only a possibility can be inferred.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

B + 4 = F

F + 5 = K

K + 6 = Q

Q + 7 = X

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

BODMAS Rule:

Given Equation: 5 × 4 + 2 - 8 ÷ 4 = ?

(After interchanging 2 and 5)

⇒ 2 × 4 + 5 - 8 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 8 + 5 - 2 = ?

⇒ 13 - 2 = ?

⇒ 11 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

BODMAS Rule:

Given Equations after interchanging 9 and 7:

I. 7 × 2 + 9 - 6 ÷ 3 

II. 9 × 3 + 7 - 8 ÷ 2 

Checking Equation I:

⇒ 7 × 2 + 9 - 6 ÷ 3 

⇒  7 × 2 + 9 - 2

⇒  14 + 9 - 2

⇒ 23 - 2 = 21

LHS = RHS

Checking Equation II:

⇒ 9 × 3 + 7 - 8 ÷ 2 

⇒  9 × 3 + 7 - 4

⇒  27 + 7 - 4

⇒ 34 - 4 = 30

LHS = RHS

Both equations remain correct after interchanging.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4.

<br> <br>

(1) AH720 - FN1090

(2) EM640 - JS1010

(3) TF810 - YL1180

(4) VH530 - AM900

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

(1) AH720 - FN1090

(2) EM640 - JS1010

(3) TF810 - YL1180

(4) VH530 - AM900

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

(1) 11408-10818 

11408 − 10818 = 590

(2) 10806-10216

10806 − 10216 = 590

(3) 9762-9182

9762 − 9182 = 580 

(4) 8644-8054

8644 − 8054 = 590

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br> <br>

'RAKED' is coded as 'GINEU',

'DELVE' is coded as 'HZOIG'.

Similarly,

'CARRY' be coded as,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

'INDICT' is coded as 'YGLIRL'

<br> <br>

'NEATLY' is coded as 'DPWFIQ'.

Similarly,

'DIALOG' be coded as

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

25% of number = 80

Formula used:

Percentage = (Value/100) × Number

Calculations:

⇒ 25/100 × x = 80

⇒ 1/4 × x = 80

⇒ x = 80 × 4 = 320

Now find 40%:

⇒ 40/100 × 320

⇒ = 0.4 × 320 = 128

∴ 40% of the number = 128

Given:

Original price = ₹200

Increase = 10%

Decrease = 5%

Formula Used:

Final price = Original price × (1 + Increase%) × (1 - Decrease%)

Calculation:

⇒ Final price = ₹200 × (1 + 10/100) × (1 - 5/100)

⇒ Final price = ₹200 × 1.10 × 0.95

⇒ Final price = ₹220 × 0.95

⇒ Final price = ₹209

∴ The correct answer is ₹209.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 45

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 60

Formula Used:

Profit % = [(SP - CP) ÷ CP] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ SP - CP = 60 - 45

⇒ Profit = Rs. 15

⇒ Profit % = (15 ÷ 45) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 33.33%

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Height of both cylinders = h

Diameter of cylinder 1 = d

Diameter of cylinder 2 = 2d

Formula Used:

Volume of cylinder = π × (radius²) × height

Calculation:

⇒ Radius of cylinder 1 = d ÷ 2

⇒ Radius of cylinder 2 = (2d) ÷ 2 = d

⇒ Volume of cylinder 1 = π × (d ÷ 2)² × h

⇒ Volume of cylinder 1 = π × (d² ÷ 4) × h

⇒ Volume of cylinder 2 = π × (d)² × h

⇒ Volume of cylinder 2 = π × d² × h

⇒ Ratio of volumes = Volume of cylinder 1 ÷ Volume of cylinder 2

⇒ Ratio = [π × (d² ÷ 4) × h] ÷ [π × d² × h]

⇒ Ratio = (d² ÷ 4) ÷ d²

⇒ Ratio = 1 ÷ 4

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 4.

Given:

Profit = ₹68

Discount = 15%

Profit % = 10%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (1 + profit/100)

SP = MP × (1 - discount/100)

Calculations:

⇒ Let Cost Price = x

⇒ SP = x × 110/100 = 1.1x

⇒ Profit = SP - CP = 1.1x - x = 0.1x

⇒ 0.1x = 68

⇒ x = 680

⇒ SP = 1.1 × 680 = 748

⇒ SP = MP × 85/100

⇒ 748 = MP × 85/100

⇒ MP = 748 × 100 / 85

⇒ MP = 880

∴ List Price = ₹880

Given:

Base edge = 5.5 cm

Height = 12 cm

Cost of painting = ₹22.5 per cm²

$\sqrt{3} \approx 1.732$

Formula Used:

Lateral surface area of hexagonal prism = Perimeter of base × Height

Perimeter of base = 6 × Base edge

Total painting cost = Lateral surface area × Cost per cm²

Calculation:

⇒ Perimeter of base = 6 × 5.5

⇒ Perimeter of base = 33 cm

⇒ Lateral surface area = 33 × 12

⇒ Lateral surface area = 396 cm²

⇒ Total painting cost = 396 × 22.5

⇒ Total painting cost = ₹8910

∴ The correct answer is ₹8910.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹60,000

Rate (r) = 15% per annum

Time (t) = 4 years

Formula used:

A = P × (1 + r/100)^t

Calculations:

A = 60000 × (1.15)⁴

⇒ (1.15)² = 1.3225

⇒ (1.15)³ = 1.520875

⇒ (1.15)⁴ = 1.74900625

⇒ A = 60000 × 1.74900625

⇒ A = ₹104940.375 ≈ ₹1,04,940.38

∴ Total amount =​ ₹1,04,940.38 .

Given:

Loan amount = Rs. 8000

Rate of compound interest per annum = 10%

Duration = 3 years

Repayment after 1st year = Rs. 4000

Repayment after 3rd year = Remaining amount

Formula Used:

Compound Interest = Principal × (1 + Rate/100)^Time - Principal

Calculation:

⇒ Amount after 1st year = 8000 × (1 + 10/100)¹

⇒ Amount after 1st year = 8000 × 1.1 = 8800

⇒ Interest for 1st year = 8800 - 8000 = 800

⇒ Remaining principal after 1st repayment = 8800 - 4000 = 4800

⇒ Amount after 3rd year = 4800 × (1 + 10/100)²

⇒ Amount after 3rd year = 4800 × 1.1² = 4800 × 1.21 = 5808

⇒ Interest for 2nd and 3rd year = 5808 - 4800 = 1008

⇒ Total interest = 800 + 1008 = 1808

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1808.

Shortcut Trick

Combine the ratios A : B (3 : 4) and B : C (5 : 9) by equalizing B.

A : B : C = (3 × 5) : (4 × 5) : (4 × 9) = 15 : 20 : 36

Total ratio parts = 15 + 20 + 36 = 71 units

71 units = ₹ 71,000 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹ 1,000

A's share = 15 × 1,000 = ₹ 15,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 15000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of A : B = 3 : 4

Ratio of B : C = 5 : 9

Total Profit = ₹ 71,000

Calculations:

To find the combined ratio, multiply the first ratio by 5 and the second by 4:

⇒ A : B = (3 × 5) : (4 × 5) = 15 : 20

⇒ B : C = (5 × 4) : (9 × 4) = 20 : 36

⇒ A : B : C = 15 : 20 : 36

⇒ Sum of ratios = 15 + 20 + 36 = 71

⇒ A's share = (15 ÷ 71) × 71,000

⇒ A's share = 15 × 1,000

⇒ A's share = ₹ 15,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 15000.

Additional Information

Combined Ratio Calculation

If a : b and b : c are given, then a : b : c can be calculated as (a × b_new) : (b_old × b_new) : (b_old × c).

Profit Distribution Rule

In a partnership, Profit Share = Capital × Time. Since time is equal here, profit is shared in the ratio of investments or provided ratios.

Ratio and Proportion

To find the value of a single share, divide the Total Amount by the Sum of Ratio Parts.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of three numbers = 5 : 7 : 9

Difference between largest (9) and smallest (5) = 4 units

Given, 4 units = 20 ⇒ 1 unit = 5

Middle number (7 units) = 7 × 5 = 35

∴ The correct answer is 35.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of numbers = 5 : 7 : 9

Difference between largest and smallest = 20

Calculations:

⇒ Let the numbers be 5x, 7x, and 9x.

⇒ According to the problem: Largest − Smallest = 20

⇒ 9x − 5x = 20

⇒ 4x = 20

⇒ x = 20 ÷ 4 = 5

⇒ Middle number = 7x = 7 × 5 = 35

∴ The correct answer is 35.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion Basics

A ratio a : b : c represents quantities as ax, bx, and cx, where x is the common proportionality constant.

Comparison of Terms

The difference between any two terms in a ratio is proportional to the difference of their ratio parts. Difference = (b − a) × x.

Sum of Ratio Parts

The sum of the numbers is given by (a + b + c) × x. In this case, Sum = (5 + 7 + 9) × 5 = 21 × 5 = 105.

Given:

Mixture 1 contains 35% milk

Mixture 2 contains m% milk

Mixtures are combined in equal proportions

Resulting mixture contains 50% milk

Formula Used:

Final Milk Percentage = (Milk in Mixture 1 + Milk in Mixture 2) / Total Volume

Calculation:

⇒ Final Milk Percentage = (35 + m) / 2

⇒ (35 + m) / 2 = 50

⇒ 35 + m = 50 × 2

⇒ 35 + m = 100

⇒ m = 100 - 35

⇒ m = 65

∴ The correct answer is 65%.

Given:

First mixture = 72% oil

Second mixture = 48% oil

Ratio = 6 : 16

Formula used:

Weighted average = (a × x + b × y) ÷ (x + y)

Calculations:

⇒ Percentage = (72 × 6 + 48 × 16) ÷ (6 + 16)

⇒ = (432 + 768) ÷ 22

⇒ = 1200 ÷ 22

⇒ = 54.55%

∴ Percentage of oil = 54.55%

Given:

x = √3 + √2

Formula used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculations:

⇒ x² = (√3 + √2)²

⇒ = 3 + 2 + 2√6

⇒ = 5 + 2√6

Now,

⇒ x² − 2√6 = (5 + 2√6) − 2√6

⇒ = 5

∴ Answer = 5

Given:

(√6 + √2)² − (√6 − √2)²

Formula used:

(a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab

Calculations:

⇒ (√6 + √2)² − (√6 − √2)² = 4 × √6 × √2

⇒ = 4 × √12

⇒ = 4 × 2√3

⇒ = 8√3

∴ Answer = 8√3

Given:

Radius of sphere = 30 cm

External radius of bowl = 10 cm

Thickness = 1 cm ⇒ Internal radius = 10 − 1 = 9 cm

Formula used:

Volume of sphere = (4/3) × π × r³

Volume of hemispherical shell = (2/3) × π × (R³ − r³)

Calculations:

Volume of sphere = (4/3) × π × 30³

⇒ = (4/3) × π × 27000

⇒ = 36000π

Volume of one bowl = (2/3) × π × (10³ − 9³)

⇒ = (2/3) × π × (1000 − 729)

⇒ = (2/3) × π × 271

⇒ = 180.67π

Number of bowls = Total volume ÷ Volume of one bowl

⇒ = 36000π ÷ 180.67π

⇒ ≈ 199.3 ≈ 199

∴ Number of bowls ≈ 199

Given:

Conditions:

i) Number is irrational

ii) 2 < number < 3

iii) Square is also irrational

Formula used:

Check each option

Calculations:

1. √5 ≈ 2.236 ✔ between 2 and 3

⇒ (√5)² = 5 (rational) ✘

2. √10 − 1 ≈ 3.162 − 1 = 2.162 ✔ between 2 and 3

3. 2.5 (rational) ✘

4. √7.5 ≈ 2.738 ✔ between 2 and 3

⇒ (√7.5)² = 7.5 (rational) ✘

∴ Correct answer = √10 − 1

Given:

Rice bought = 4(3/5) kg

Rice used = 2(7/8) kg

Bags = 3

Formula used:

Remaining = Total − Used

Each bag = Remaining ÷ 3

Calculations:

⇒ Rice bought = 4(3/5) = 23/5

⇒ Rice used = 2(7/8) = 23/8

⇒ Remaining = 23/5 − 23/8

⇒ LCM = 40

⇒ = (184 − 115) ÷ 40

⇒ = 69/40

⇒ Each bag = (69/40) ÷ 3

⇒ = 69/120

⇒ = 23/40 kg

∴ Rice in each bag = 23/40 kg

Given:

A invests = ₹50,000 for 12 months

B invests = ₹1,00,000 for 12 months

C invests = ₹1,50,000 for 6 months

Total profit = ₹4,50,000

Formula used:

Profit ∝ Investment × Time

Calculations:

⇒ A’s share = 50000 × 12 = 600000

⇒ B’s share = 100000 × 12 = 1200000

⇒ C’s share = 150000 × 6 = 900000

⇒ Ratio = 600000 : 1200000 : 900000

⇒ Divide by 300000 ⇒ 2 : 4 : 3

Total ratio = 2 + 4 + 3 = 9

⇒ C’s share = (3/9) × 450000

⇒ = 150000

∴ C receives = ₹1,50,000

Given:

Track length = 2 km

A's speed = 8 km/h

B's speed = 12 km/h

Start time = 7:00 a.m.

Formula Used:

Relative speed = Speed of A + Speed of B (since they are running in opposite directions)

Time to meet = Track length ÷ Relative speed

Total time for the nth meeting = n × Time to meet

Calculation:

⇒ Relative speed = 8 + 12

⇒ Relative speed = 20 km/h

⇒ Time to meet = 2 ÷ 20

⇒ Time to meet = 1/10 hour

⇒ Time for the 10th meeting = 10 × (1/10)

⇒ Time for the 10th meeting = 1 hour

⇒ Meeting time = 7:00 a.m. + 1 hour

⇒ Meeting time = 8:00 a.m.

∴ The correct answer is 8:00 a.m.

Shortcut Trick

To keep the average of n numbers as zero, the sum of all numbers must be zero.

To maximize the count of negative numbers, we can have (n − 1) negative numbers and one large positive number that equals the absolute sum of all those negative numbers.

Maximum negative numbers = Total numbers − 1

⇒ 500 − 1 = 499

∴ The correct answer is 499.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total count of real numbers (n) = 500

Average of these 500 numbers = 0

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations

Calculations:

⇒ Sum = Average × n

⇒ Sum = 0 × 500 = 0

⇒ Let 499 numbers be negative. Let their sum be −S (where S > 0).

⇒ To make the total sum zero, the 500^th number must be +S.

⇒ −S + S = 0

⇒ Since at least one number must be positive (or zero) to balance the negative values, we can have at most 499 negative numbers.

⇒ If all 500 were negative, the sum would be strictly less than 0, contradicting the average being 0.

∴ The correct answer is 499.

Additional Information

Properties of Average

If the average is zero, it implies that the sum of positive deviations from zero must equal the sum of negative deviations from zero.

Maximum Positive Numbers

Similarly, for n numbers with an average of zero, at most (n − 1) numbers can be positive, with the remaining one being negative to balance the sum.

Deviation Sum

The sum of deviations of all observations from their Arithmetic Mean is always zero. ∑(x_i − x̄) = 0.

Given:

Original Price = ₹1500

Discounts = 5%, 10%, 20%

Formula Used:

Final Price = Original Price × (1 - Discount1) × (1 - Discount2) × (1 - Discount3)

Calculation:

⇒ Final Price = ₹1500 × (1 - 0.05) × (1 - 0.10) × (1 - 0.20)

⇒ Final Price = ₹1500 × 0.95 × 0.90 × 0.80

⇒ Final Price = ₹1500 × 0.684

⇒ Final Price = ₹1026

∴ The correct answer is ₹1026.

Given:

Pages = 240, 300, 280, 260, 320

Wrong value = 260

Correct value = 360

Formula used:

Correct sum = Wrong sum − Wrong value + Correct value

Average = Total ÷ Number of items

Calculations:

⇒ Wrong sum = 240 + 300 + 280 + 260 + 320 = 1400

⇒ Correct sum = 1400 − 260 + 360 = 1500

⇒ Average = 1500 ÷ 5 = 300

∴ Correct average = 300 pages

Given:

$\frac{(25)^4+1250+1-(25)^2}{(25)^2+26}$

Formula Used:

$\frac{a+b}{c}$

Calculation:

⇒ (25)⁴ = 390625

⇒ (25)² = 625

⇒ Numerator: 390625 + 1250 + 1 - 625 = 391251

⇒ Denominator: 625 + 26 = 651

⇒ $\frac{391251}{651} = 601$

∴ The correct answer is 601.

Shortcut Trick

Total interest percentage = Rate × Time

Total interest % = 2% × 8 = 16%

Simple Interest = 16% of Principal

SI = 16% of 1600 = 16 × 16 = 256

∴ The correct answer is ₹256.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹1600

Time (T) = 8 years

Rate (R) = 2% per annum

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI = (1600 × 2 × 8) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (1600 × 16) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 16 × 16

⇒ SI = 256

∴ The correct answer is ₹256.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total Amount (A) received after the time period is the sum of Principal and Simple Interest: A = P + SI.

Compound Interest (CI)

For Compound Interest, interest is calculated on the initial principal and also on the accumulated interest of previous periods: A = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ.

SI vs CI for 1 Year

If the interest is compounded annually, the Simple Interest and Compound Interest for the first year are always equal.

Rate of Interest Calculation

The Rate (R) can be found if other variables are known using the formula: R = (SI × 100) ÷ (P × T).

Given:

A + B + C = 9 min

B + C = 12 min

C + A = 18 min

Formula used:

Work = LCM of times

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Calculations:

LCM of 9, 12, 18 = 36

⇒ Total work = 36 units

⇒ (A + B + C) 1 min work = 36 ÷ 9 = 4 units

⇒ (B + C) 1 min work = 36 ÷ 12 = 3 units

⇒ (C + A) 1 min work = 36 ÷ 18 = 2 units

Now,

⇒ A = (A + B + C) − (B + C) = 4 − 3 = 1 unit

⇒ B = (A + B + C) − (C + A) = 4 − 2 = 2 units

⇒ Time taken by B = 36 ÷ 2 = 18 min

∴ Pipe B alone fills the tank in 18 minutes

The correct answer is Rajaraja I.

Key Points

• Rajendra I, one of the most prominent rulers of the Chola dynasty, was the son of Rajaraja I, the great Chola emperor who laid the foundation for the Chola Empire’s expansion and administrative reforms.
• Rajaraja I ruled from 985–1014 CE and is credited with consolidating and strengthening the Chola dynasty into a formidable empire.
• Under Rajaraja I’s reign, the Chola Empire witnessed significant territorial expansion, including conquests in Sri Lanka, the Maldives, and parts of South India, which Rajendra I later expanded further.
• Rajaraja I was instrumental in initiating large-scale temple constructions, including the renowned Brihadeeswarar Temple at Thanjavur, which is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site. His architectural patronage was a legacy continued by his son, Rajendra I.
• Rajendra I succeeded his father in 1014 CE and carried forward his legacy by further expanding the empire to include regions like Southeast Asia and the Gangetic plains.

Additional Information

• Rajaraja I’s Achievements:
• He established a highly organized and efficient administrative system, dividing the empire into provinces called mandalams for better governance.
• He introduced a systematic revenue collection system and ensured the prosperity of the empire through trade and agriculture.
• Rajaraja I’s military campaigns led to the annexation of northern Sri Lanka, which he renamed Mummudi Chola Mandalam.
• He was a patron of art and architecture and played a significant role in the development of Dravidian temple architecture.
• Rajendra I’s Contributions:
• Rajendra I is known for his naval expeditions, particularly the conquest of the Srivijaya Empire (modern-day Indonesia and Malaysia), marking the Chola Empire as a maritime power.
• He built a new capital city called Gangaikonda Cholapuram to commemorate his victory over the Ganga dynasty.
• Under his reign, the Chola Empire became one of the most powerful empires in Asia, with influence spreading across Southeast Asia.
• Rajendra I also constructed numerous temples and irrigation systems, further strengthening the empire’s infrastructure.
• Other Options Explained:
• Vijayalaya: He was the founder of the Chola dynasty in the 9th century CE, but he was not the father of Rajendra I.
• Parantaka Chola I: He was an earlier ruler of the Chola dynasty (907–950 CE) and a significant figure in its early expansion but not directly related to Rajendra I.
• Kulothunga: He was a later Chola ruler who reigned in the 11th century CE, long after Rajendra I’s time.

Important Points

• Brihadeeswarar Temple: Built by Rajaraja I, this temple remains a masterpiece of Chola architecture and is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
• Chola Navy: The Chola dynasty developed one of the most powerful navies in ancient India, which played a crucial role in their conquests under Rajendra I.
• Trade and Economy: Both Rajaraja I and Rajendra I encouraged maritime trade, especially in the Indian Ocean region, fostering economic prosperity.
• Inscriptional Evidence: The reigns of Rajaraja I and Rajendra I are well-documented through inscriptions, which provide valuable insights into their governance and achievements.

The correct answer is 15.

Key Points

• The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations (UN) and is responsible for maintaining international peace and security.
• As of 31st July 2025, the UNSC comprises a total of 15 members, which include both permanent and non-permanent members.
• The UNSC has 5 permanent members with veto power: China, France, Russia, United Kingdom, and United States.
• The remaining 10 non-permanent members are elected for a two-year term by the United Nations General Assembly, with seats allocated based on geographical representation.
• The non-permanent members represent regions such as Asia-Pacific, Africa, Latin America, Eastern Europe, and Western Europe.

Additional Information

• Permanent Members and Veto Power:
• The 5 permanent members are often referred to as the P5 or Permanent Five.
• Each permanent member has the power to veto any substantive resolution, effectively blocking its adoption.
• This veto power is a significant feature of the UNSC and has often been a subject of debate regarding fairness and reform.
• Non-Permanent Members:
• The 10 non-permanent members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for a two-year term.
• They are chosen to ensure equitable geographical representation, with specific numbers of seats allocated to different regions.
• For example, 3 seats are allocated to Africa, 2 to Asia-Pacific, 2 to Latin America and the Caribbean, 1 to Eastern Europe, and 2 to Western Europe and others.
• Functions of the UNSC:
• The UNSC has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
• It can authorize the deployment of peacekeeping forces, impose sanctions, and approve military action to address threats to peace.
• The council also recommends the appointment of the UN Secretary-General and the admission of new members to the UN.
• Reforms and Criticism:
• The structure and functioning of the UNSC have been criticized for being outdated and unrepresentative, particularly with regard to the permanent membership.
• There have been calls for reforms, such as expanding the number of permanent members to include countries like India, Brazil, Germany, and Japan (often collectively referred to as the G4 nations).

Important Points

• Historical Background:
• The UNSC was established in 1945 following the conclusion of World War II as part of the United Nations.
• It replaced the League of Nations, which had failed to prevent global conflict.
• Voting System:
• For a resolution to pass, it requires the affirmative votes of 9 out of 15 members, including the consent of all 5 permanent members.
• If any permanent member casts a veto, the resolution cannot be adopted.
• Peacekeeping Operations:
• The UNSC plays a critical role in authorizing and overseeing peacekeeping missions across the globe.
• These missions are conducted in conflict zones to maintain ceasefires, protect civilians, and support political processes.

The correct answer is Amrit Mohan Prasad.

Key Points

• Amrit Mohan Prasad was appointed as the Director General of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) in September 2024.
• The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is one of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) of India, responsible for guarding the borders of India with Nepal and Bhutan.
• Amrit Mohan Prasad is a distinguished officer with extensive experience in the field of law enforcement and border security.
• He succeeds the outgoing Director General and has been tasked with ensuring the effective functioning of the SSB and maintaining the security of India’s borders.
• The appointment of the Director General of SSB is a significant decision as it directly impacts the operational efficiency and strategic planning of India’s border security system.

Additional Information

• Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB):
• The SSB was established in 1963 in the wake of the Chinese aggression and was initially tasked with fostering a sense of security among the people living in border areas.
• It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• The SSB’s primary duties include border guarding, counter-insurgency operations, and providing assistance during natural disasters.
• Role of the Director General:
• The Director General (DG) is the highest-ranking official in the SSB and oversees all operations, planning, and administration.
• The DG is responsible for implementing government policies and ensuring the operational preparedness of the force.
• Other Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF):
• In addition to the SSB, India has several other CAPFs, including the Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), and Central Industrial Security Force (CISF).
• Each of these forces is tasked with specific responsibilities, ranging from border security to industrial safety and counter-terrorism.
• Key Challenges Faced by SSB:
• Securing borders with porous boundaries shared with Nepal and Bhutan.
• Combating illegal immigration, smuggling, and human trafficking across the borders.
• Maintaining peace and order in sensitive border regions and fostering community development programs.

Important Points

• The Director General of SSB is generally appointed from the Indian Police Service (IPS), ensuring that the officer has extensive knowledge and experience in law enforcement and border management.
• The SSB also plays a vital role in humanitarian efforts during natural disasters and emergencies in border regions.
• India’s border security strategy is continuously evolving, with a focus on adopting modern technology and improving infrastructure in border areas.
• Effective leadership in the SSB is crucial to maintaining the integrity of India’s borders and ensuring the safety of border communities.

The correct answer is 2028.

Key Points

• The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched by the Government of India in 2019 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti to provide functional tap water connections to every rural household.
• The scheme's primary goal is to ensure safe and adequate drinking water for all rural homes through individual household tap connections by 2024.
• During the Union Budget 2025-26, the Finance Minister announced the extension of the Jal Jeevan Mission until 2028. This decision is intended to address the challenges and ensure the scheme's comprehensive success.
• The extension aims to cover any remaining gaps in rural areas and enhance the sustainability of water supply systems.
• This extended timeline reflects the government's commitment to achieving universal access to clean drinking water in rural areas while addressing infrastructure and resource challenges.

Additional Information

• Jal Jeevan Mission Objectives:
• To provide adequate and safe drinking water to every household in rural areas through tap connections.
• To promote the judicious use of water and enhance the sustainability of water resources.
• To ensure the functioning and maintenance of water supply systems through community participation.
• Key Features of Jal Jeevan Mission:
• Focus on source sustainability measures such as recharge and reuse through greywater management.
• Emphasis on the convergence of other schemes like MGNREGA and Swachh Bharat Mission to create water resource structures.
• Capacity building and training for village-level institutions to manage water supply infrastructure.
• Budget Allocation:
• The Government of India allocated Rs. 60,000 crore for the Jal Jeevan Mission in the 2023-24 budget.
• This reflects the government's prioritization of water security and rural development.
• Achievements So Far:
• As of 2023, over 11 crore rural households have been provided with tap water connections under the Jal Jeevan Mission.
• Several states, such as Goa, Telangana, and Haryana, have achieved 100% coverage.

Important Points

• Challenges in Implementation:
• Ensuring water availability in water-stressed areas and regions with limited resources.
• Addressing issues of quality such as contamination by fluoride, arsenic, and other pollutants.
• Promoting community ownership and participation for the sustainable operation of water systems.
• Global Perspective:
• The Jal Jeevan Mission aligns with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 6, which aims to ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
• Similar initiatives like the Safe Water Network and Water.org work towards clean water access globally.

The correct answer is Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

Key Points

• The District Project Management Units (DPMUs) initiative under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme was launched in July 2025 to empower artisans and craftsmen across India.
• This scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), which is responsible for promoting, developing, and enhancing the skills of small and medium-scale entrepreneurs in India.
• The PM Vishwakarma Scheme aims to support traditional artisans and craftsmen such as carpenters, blacksmiths, potters, and cobblers, among others, to enhance their productivity and improve their livelihoods.
• Under this initiative, DPMUs act as implementation units at the district level, ensuring effective delivery of scheme benefits, including skill training, financial support, and market linkages for artisans.
• The Ministry of MSME plays a crucial role in achieving the objectives of this scheme by coordinating with state governments and local bodies to address the challenges faced by artisans and small-scale entrepreneurs.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME):
• The MSME Ministry is responsible for formulating policies and implementing various programs to promote and support the growth of micro, small, and medium enterprises in India.
• It also oversees schemes like Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme, PMEGP (Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme), and Skill India Programme to support entrepreneurs.
• The Ministry plays a vital role in employment generation and contributes significantly to India's GDP.
• PM Vishwakarma Scheme:
• The scheme is designed to empower traditional artisans and craftsmen by providing financial assistance, training, and infrastructure support.
• It aims to preserve India's rich heritage of traditional skills and promote self-reliance (Aatmanirbhar Bharat).
• The scheme also includes provisions for subsidized loans, raw material procurement, and access to advanced tools and technology.
• DPMUs (District Project Management Units):
• These units are established at the district level to ensure the smooth implementation of government schemes like PM Vishwakarma.
• They provide essential services such as beneficiary identification, monitoring, and support for training and capacity building of artisans.
• The units also act as a bridge between the government and artisans, ensuring effective communication and addressing grievances.
• Other Ministries and Schemes:
• Ministry of Rural Development: Focuses on rural employment and infrastructure development, such as MGNREGA and PMAY (Gramin).
• Ministry of Commerce: Responsible for trade and export promotion, often dealing with initiatives like SEZs (Special Economic Zones).
• Ministry of Agriculture: Oversees schemes like PM-KISAN and focuses on the welfare of farmers and agricultural productivity.

Important Points

• PM Vishwakarma Scheme: Launched to support artisans and craftsmen in improving their skills and access to modern technologies, ensuring better livelihoods.
• Skill Development: The scheme includes training modules for artisans to enhance their traditional skills and adapt to modern market demands.
• Economic Impact: By empowering traditional artisans, the scheme contributes to the growth of the MSME sector, which is a backbone of India's economy.
• Implementation: The DPMUs, under the Ministry of MSME, ensure that the scheme benefits reach the grassroots level effectively and efficiently.

The correct answer is Basketball.

Key Points

• Basketball was invented by Dr. James Naismith in 1891. It was originally designed as an indoor sport to keep athletes active during the winter months.
• Naismith, a Canadian-American physical educator, created the game while working at the International YMCA Training School in Springfield, Massachusetts, USA.
• The original game consisted of throwing a soccer ball into a peach basket that was nailed to a balcony, hence the name "Basketball."
• The first game of basketball was played on December 21, 1891, with 13 basic rules that Naismith had formulated.
• Over time, the sport evolved, leading to the development of modern rules, professional leagues like the NBA (National Basketball Association), and widespread global popularity.

Additional Information

• Dr. James Naismith:
• Born on November 6, 1861, in Almonte, Ontario, Canada.
• He was a physician, teacher, and coach with a deep interest in physical education.
• In addition to inventing basketball, Naismith also introduced the first football helmet.
• Development of Basketball:
• The first professional basketball league, the National Basketball League (NBL), was established in 1898.
• The NBA was formed in 1949 after a merger between the NBL and the Basketball Association of America (BAA).
• Basketball became an Olympic sport in 1936, with the first Olympic event held in Berlin, Germany.
• Comparison with Other Sports:
• Cricket: Originated in England during the 16th century and is widely popular in countries like India, Australia, and England.
• Hockey: The modern version of field hockey originated in England in the mid-19th century and is the national sport of India and Pakistan.
• Polo: A sport with ancient roots, played on horseback, originating in Persia (modern-day Iran) as early as the 6th century BCE.
• Significance of Basketball:
• It is one of the most popular sports globally, with millions of fans and players across continents.
• The sport promotes physical fitness, teamwork, strategic thinking, and social interaction.
• Key tournaments include the NBA Finals, FIBA World Cup, and Olympic Games.

Important Points

• Global Reach: Basketball is played in over 200 countries, and its governing body, FIBA (International Basketball Federation), oversees global regulations and competitions.
• NBA Stars: Legendary players like Michael Jordan, LeBron James, and Kobe Bryant have contributed to the sport's immense popularity.
• Women's Basketball: The WNBA (Women's National Basketball Association) was founded in 1996 and has been a platform for female athletes to showcase their talents.
• Paralympics: Basketball is also a popular sport in the Paralympic Games, played as wheelchair basketball.

The correct answer is Amrit Mohan Prasad.

Key Points

• Amrit Mohan Prasad was appointed as the Director General of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) in September 2024, succeeding the previous DG of the paramilitary force.
• The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is one of India's Central Armed Police Forces responsible for guarding the India-Nepal and India-Bhutan borders.
• Amrit Mohan Prasad is a senior officer with extensive experience in border security and internal security operations. His leadership is expected to enhance the operational efficiency of the SSB.
• The appointment of the Director General is made by the Government of India based on the officer's merit, experience, and capability to lead a paramilitary force effectively.
• The SSB plays a vital role in ensuring national security, preventing trans-border crimes, and maintaining peace and tranquility along India's borders with Nepal and Bhutan.

Additional Information

• Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB):
• The SSB was established in 1963 after the Sino-Indian War to strengthen India's border security.
• It is tasked with ensuring the security of the India-Nepal and India-Bhutan borders, covering an area of approximately 1,751 km and 699 km, respectively.
• The force also assists in providing disaster management, conducting civic action programs, and supporting the local population in border areas.
• Role of Director General in SSB:
• The Director General oversees the overall functioning, strategy formulation, and operational planning of the force.
• He ensures that the force is equipped and trained to handle challenges such as cross-border infiltration, smuggling, and maintaining border peace.
• Other Key Appointments in Border Security Forces:
• India's border security forces include the Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), and Assam Rifles, each led by their respective Director Generals.
• Appointments to these roles are typically made from the Indian Police Service (IPS) or other senior paramilitary officers.
• Importance of Border Security:
• India shares borders with seven neighboring countries, making border security a vital aspect of national security.
• Forces like the SSB play a crucial role in preventing illegal immigration, smuggling, and infiltration while fostering friendly relations with neighboring countries.

Important Points

• Organizational Structure of SSB:
• The SSB functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• It comprises various battalions and formations deployed along the borders and in other parts of the country.
• Recent Initiatives by SSB:
• Implementation of advanced surveillance technology and drones for better border monitoring.
• Collaboration with local communities to enhance intelligence gathering and ensure border area development.

The correct answer is The game of judo was invented in the year 1882..

Key Points

• Judo is a modern martial art created by Dr. Jigoro Kano in the year 1882 in Japan.
• The term "Judo" translates to "The Gentle Way" in English, emphasizing the art's focus on skill and technique rather than brute force.
• Dr. Jigoro Kano founded the Kodokan Judo Institute in Tokyo, Japan, to teach and promote Judo as both a sport and a way of life.
• Judo was developed as a refinement of traditional Japanese jujutsu techniques, focusing on throws, grapples, and submissions.
• It became an Olympic sport in 1964, debuting at the Tokyo Summer Olympics, further solidifying its global popularity.

Additional Information

• Development of Judo:
• Dr. Jigoro Kano, born in 1860, was an educator and athlete who sought to modernize martial arts by creating a discipline that combined physical education, mental discipline, and moral education.
• Judo prioritizes techniques such as throws (nage-waza), pins (osaekomi-waza), and submission techniques (shime-waza and kansetsu-waza).
• Unlike many martial arts, Judo avoids strikes and weapon techniques, focusing on unarmed combat and using an opponent's strength against them.
• Global Popularity:
• Judo is now practiced worldwide, with millions of practitioners across various countries.
• The International Judo Federation (IJF), founded in 1951, oversees competitive Judo globally, organizing events such as the World Judo Championships.
• Judo's inclusion in the Olympics in 1964 marked a turning point in its international recognition and popularity.
• Philosophy and Values:
• Judo promotes the principles of mutual welfare and benefit, along with maximum efficiency in the use of energy.
• It emphasizes respect, discipline, and personal growth, aligning with its roots in traditional Japanese culture.
• Historical Context:
• Judo evolved from jujutsu, which was practiced by Japanese samurai as a means of self-defense.
• Dr. Kano refined jujutsu techniques to create Judo, removing dangerous and outdated methods to ensure safety and accessibility for practitioners.

Important Points

• Modern Judo Competitions:
• Judo matches are conducted on a mat called a tatami, where competitors aim to score points through throws, pins, and submissions.
• Scoring in Judo includes Ippon (full point), Waza-ari (half point), and Yuko (minor score), with Ippon being the ultimate goal for victory.
• Weight classes ensure fair competition among participants, making Judo accessible to individuals of different body types.
• Educational Impact:
• Judo is widely taught in schools and universities, especially in Japan, as a means of physical education and moral development.
• It is recognized as a way to improve physical fitness, mental resilience, and social values.
• Judo Uniform:
• Practitioners wear a uniform called a judogi, consisting of a jacket, pants, and a belt that signifies rank and skill level.
• Belt colors range from white (beginner) to black (advanced), with additional ranks such as dan levels for experienced practitioners.

The correct answer is Indore.

Key Points

• India's first Public Private Partnership (PPP) Green Waste Processing Plant was established in Indore, Madhya Pradesh.
• Indore is known for its commitment to cleanliness and has consistently topped the Swachh Survekshan rankings, making it an ideal location for such a sustainable initiative.
• The plant focuses on processing green waste, including organic waste from gardens, parks, and agricultural areas, to generate compost and bio-energy.
• The facility was developed under a PPP model, where the Indore Municipal Corporation collaborated with private entities to ensure efficient waste management and recycling practices.
• The initiative aims to tackle the issue of waste management by converting biodegradable waste into useful resources, contributing to India's sustainable development goals and waste-to-energy efforts.

Additional Information

• Public-Private Partnership (PPP):
• PPP is a collaboration between government bodies and private sector companies to deliver public services or infrastructure efficiently.
• It enables shared responsibility, where the private sector brings expertise and investment while the government ensures regulatory compliance and public welfare.
• PPP models are widely used in sectors like transportation, energy, healthcare, and waste management.
• Indore's Achievements in Waste Management:
• Indore has been ranked as India's cleanest city in the Swachh Survekshan rankings for several consecutive years due to its innovative waste management strategies.
• The city has implemented initiatives like segregation of waste at source, door-to-door waste collection, and composting units.
• It has set an example for other cities in India to adopt sustainable waste management practices.
• Green Waste Processing:
• Green waste refers to biodegradable waste from plants, gardens, and agricultural sources.
• Processing green waste involves converting it into compost, mulch, or bio-energy, minimizing its environmental impact.
• Such initiatives reduce the burden on landfills and contribute to circular economy practices.
• Swachh Survekshan:
• Swachh Survekshan is an annual survey conducted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to assess the cleanliness and sanitation of cities across India.
• The rankings are based on parameters like waste segregation, processing, and public feedback.
• Indore has consistently topped the rankings, showcasing its dedication to cleanliness and waste management.

Important Points

• Role of PPP in Waste Management:
• PPP models are crucial for addressing urban challenges like waste management by combining public oversight with private innovation.
• They ensure cost-effective and efficient solutions, leveraging private sector expertise.
• Global Examples of Green Waste Processing Plants:
• Countries like Sweden, Germany, and Japan have advanced facilities for green waste processing, contributing to their high recycling rates.
• India is gradually adopting similar technologies to achieve sustainable waste management goals.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Mando is a traditional Goan form of lyrical music and dance that expresses themes of love, tragedy, social injustice, and political resistance. It is an integral part of Goan culture.
• The origins of Mando can be traced back to the 19th century, during the Portuguese colonial period in Goa. It combines Indian and Western musical elements, reflecting the cultural fusion of the time.
• Mando songs are typically slow and melodious, with verses and refrains. They are performed with an ensemble of musical instruments such as the violin, guitar, and Ghumat (a traditional Goan percussion instrument).
• The dance associated with Mando is graceful and elegant, often performed by couples dressed in traditional Goan attire. It showcases the rich heritage of Goa.
• Mando serves as a medium to highlight the socio-political struggles of Goans during colonial rule, making it not just an art form but also a historical narrative.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Mando Music:
• Mando songs are typically written in the Konkani language, the official language of Goa.
• The themes of Mando often reflect the emotions of love, heartbreak, and longing, as well as the social issues faced by Goan society.
• The music is slow-paced, with a melancholic tone that evokes deep emotional responses.
• Traditional instruments like the violin, guitar, and percussion are used to create a harmonious blend of melodies.
• Historical Context:
• The Mando evolved during the Portuguese rule in Goa, combining Indian and European musical traditions. The colonial influence is evident in the use of Western instruments.
• It was popularized among the Goan elite as a form of artistic expression and gradually spread to the masses.
• During the freedom struggle and social movements, Mando songs were used to express political resistance and critique social injustices.
• Other Cultural Forms of Goa:
• Goa is known for its vibrant cultural heritage, including forms like Dekhni, Fugdi, and Dashavatar.
• The Dekhni dance represents a blend of Western and Indian music, performed during festive occasions.
• Fugdi is a folk dance performed primarily by women during religious and social celebrations.
• Dashavatar is a theatrical performance depicting the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu, showcasing Goa's deep spiritual traditions.
• Other States Mentioned:
• Uttarakhand: Known for its folk music like Jagar and Pandav Nritya, which are rooted in spiritual and mythological themes.
• Bihar: Famous for Bhojpuri folk music and dances like Jat-Jatin and Sohar, which depict rural life and culture.
• Tamil Nadu: Renowned for classical music and dance forms like Bharatanatyam and Carnatic music, which have ancient origins.

Important Points

• UNESCO Recognition: Efforts have been made to preserve Mando as a part of Goa’s cultural heritage, and it is being considered for recognition as an Intangible Cultural Heritage by UNESCO.
• Festivals: Mando performances are an integral part of Goan festivals like Shigmo and Carnival, which highlight the region's unique traditions.
• Preservation: Organizations and artists in Goa actively work to preserve and promote Mando through workshops, performances, and documentation.
• Global Appeal: The fusion of Indian and Western elements in Mando has garnered international interest, showcasing Goa's rich cultural diversity.

The correct answer is Arundhati Roy.

Key Points

• Arundhati Roy is the author of the book 'War Talk'. This book is a collection of essays written by her, addressing issues like war, politics, and human rights.
• 'War Talk' was published in 2003. It critically examines the global and local politics surrounding war, with a focus on the United States' foreign policy and India's socio-political environment.
• Arundhati Roy is a renowned Indian author and activist, best known for her novel 'The God of Small Things', which won the Booker Prize in 1997.
• She is also a prominent voice in advocating for human rights, environmental justice, and against corporate globalization.
• The essays in 'War Talk' reflect her opposition to militarism and her critique of the global war on terror post-9/11, making the book a significant work in contemporary political literature.

Additional Information

• Arundhati Roy:
• Born on November 24, 1961, in Shillong, India, she is a celebrated writer and social activist.
• Her debut novel 'The God of Small Things' brought her international acclaim, winning the Man Booker Prize for Fiction in 1997.
• She has written extensively on political issues, including India's nuclear policies, environmental concerns, and human rights.
• 'War Talk' Themes:
• The book examines the impact of globalization, wars, and the increasing militarization of societies.
• It critiques the hegemonic foreign policy of powerful nations, particularly the United States, and its repercussions on countries like India.
• It also delves into the consequences of communalism and religious nationalism in India.
• Other Works by Arundhati Roy:
• Besides 'War Talk', she has authored books such as 'Field Notes on Democracy', 'Capitalism: A Ghost Story', and 'The Ministry of Utmost Happiness'.
• Her works often blend literary art with sharp political commentary.
• Other Options:
• Anita Desai: A renowned Indian novelist, known for works like 'Clear Light of Day' and 'In Custody', but not associated with 'War Talk'.
• Shobhaa De: A popular Indian author, primarily known for her writings on urban Indian society and relationships, such as 'Socialite Evenings'.
• Githa Hariharan: An award-winning Indian author, recognized for her novel 'The Thousand Faces of Night', but not linked to 'War Talk'.

Important Points

• Arundhati Roy's Activism: She has been vocal about numerous social and political issues, including the Narmada Bachao Andolan, anti-globalization movements, and critiques of neoliberal policies.
• Recognition: In addition to the Booker Prize, she has received numerous accolades for her literary and activist contributions, including the Norman Mailer Prize for Distinguished Writing in 2011.
• Relevance of 'War Talk': The book remains highly relevant as it addresses issues of war, peace, and justice, resonating in the context of ongoing global conflicts and socio-political challenges.