SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 24 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Misanthrope.

Key Points

• The word "Misanthrope" refers to a person who dislikes humankind and avoids human society. (मानवजाति से घृणा करने वाला)
• Example: After years of betrayal, he became a misanthrope, preferring solitude over social gatherings.
• The word "Disdain" in the question aligns with the qualities of a misanthrope, as disdain means a feeling of contempt or scorn for others. (अवमानना)
• Example: Ravi's disdain for humanity was evident in the way he isolated himself from society.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Misanthrope.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Misogynist (स्त्रीद्वेषी): A person who dislikes or is strongly prejudiced against women.
• Example: His misogynist views were evident in his discriminatory remarks about women in leadership roles.
• Cynic (निंदक): A person who believes people are motivated purely by self-interest rather than acting for honorable reasons.
• Example: As a cynic, he never trusted anyone's intentions, always assuming they had selfish motives.
• Narcissist (आत्ममोहित व्यक्ति): A person who has an excessive interest in or admiration of themselves.
• Example: A narcissist often prioritizes their needs over others, seeking constant validation and admiration.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "To get something over with because it is inevitable".

Key Points

• The idiom "bite the bullet" means to endure a difficult or unpleasant situation with courage because it is unavoidable. (मुश्किल या अप्रिय स्थिति का साहसपूर्वक सामना करना)
• Example: He knew the surgery would be painful, but he decided to bite the bullet and go through with it.
• The correct meaning of "To get something over with because it is inevitable" aligns perfectly with the meaning of "bite the bullet". (किसी ऐसी चीज को पूरा करना जो अनिवार्य है)
• Example: She bit the bullet and took the exam despite feeling unprepared.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "To get something over with because it is inevitable".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "To avoid getting into something at all" (किसी चीज में बिल्कुल भी शामिल होने से बचना)
• Example: She decided to avoid the argument altogether and left the room.
• Option 3: "To keep the past hanging with you always" (अतीत को हमेशा अपने साथ बनाए रखना)
• Example: He could not move on because he was keeping the memories of his past failures alive.
• Option 4: "To not get over with anything in life at all" (जीवन में किसी भी चीज़ को बिल्कुल भी खत्म न करना)
• Example: He lived in constant procrastination, unable to finish anything he started.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Work hard for a long time.

Key Points

• The phrase "burn the midnight oil" means to work late into the night or work hard for a long time. (रातभर मेहनत करना)
• Example: She burned the midnight oil to complete her project before the deadline.
• The word "work hard for a long time" aligns with the meaning of "burn the midnight oil" as it refers to putting in extended effort, especially at night. (लंबे समय तक कड़ी मेहनत करना)
• Example: Students often burn the midnight oil during exam preparation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Work hard for a long time.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Work for a few minutes (कुछ मिनटों तक काम करना): Refers to working for a very short duration.
• Example: He worked for a few minutes and then took a break.
• Option 3: Go early to bed (जल्दी सोने जाना): Refers to sleeping early at night.
• Example: She prefers to go early to bed to wake up fresh in the morning.
• Option 4: Wake up very early (बहुत जल्दी उठना): Refers to rising early in the morning.
• Example: Farmers often wake up very early to start their work.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The error is in the phrase "boys have."
• When a sentence begins with "Neither of," "Either of," or "Each of," the subject is considered singular because it refers to the individuals one at a time.
• According to the rules of Subject-Verb Agreement, a singular subject must be followed by a singular verb.
• Therefore, the plural verb "have" should be replaced with the singular verb "has."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "Neither of the two boys has completed his homework."

Additional Information

• Singular Pronouns: Since "Neither" is singular, the possessive pronoun that follows must also be singular. In this sentence, "his" is already correctly used, reinforcing that the verb should also be singular.
• Option 1 & 4: These parts are grammatically correct. "Neither of the two" correctly sets up the choice between two individuals.
• Distinction: Don't be confused by the plural noun "boys." While the noun following "of" is plural, the real subject is "Neither," which is singular.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The error is in the phrase "has arrived."
• When two subjects are joined by "Neither... nor" or "Either... or," the verb must agree with the subject nearest to it. This is known as the Rule of Proximity.
• In this sentence, there are two subjects: "the captain" (singular) and "the players" (plural).
• Since the plural subject "the players" is closer to the verb, the verb must also be plural. Therefore, "has" should be replaced with "have."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "Neither the captain nor the players have arrived yet."

Additional Information

• Rule of Proximity: If the subjects were reversed ("Neither the players nor the captain"), the singular verb "has" would then be correct because "captain" would be the closest subject.
• Distinction: Do not confuse this with "Neither of..." (from the previous question), which always takes a singular verb because "Neither" acts as the lone singular subject. In "Neither... nor," there are two distinct subjects to consider.
• Option 4: "yet" – This is an adverb correctly used in a negative sentence to indicate an expected action has not happened.

The correct answer is 'unanimous'.

Key Points

• The word "unanimous" refers to complete agreement or consensus among all members of a group.
• In the context of the sentence, the legislation was passed with full support from all parties, making "unanimous" the most appropriate choice.
• Option 1: "partisan" is incorrect as it refers to support that is biased or favoring one side.
• Option 3: "perfunctory" is incorrect as it refers to something done in a routine or careless manner, which does not fit the context.
• Option 4: "nominal" is incorrect as it refers to something being minimal or insignificant, which is not suitable here.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "The legislation was passed with unanimous support, uniting parties across the political spectrum."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "partisan" implies support that is biased or strongly favoring one group over another, which does not align with the idea of unity in the sentence.
• Option 3: "perfunctory" suggests a lack of enthusiasm or interest, which does not match the context of strong support.
• Option 4: "nominal" implies something minimal or in name only, which does not describe the situation of full agreement.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• The phrase "angry with you" is the correct expression to use when referring to being upset or annoyed with someone.
• "Angry on you" is grammatically incorrect in English.
• "Angry about you" is also incorrect, as the preposition "about" is used for objects or situations, not people.
• The original sentence uses the phrase "angry at you," which is commonly used but less precise than "angry with you" in standard English.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "I am angry with you for losing my book."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "angry on you" is incorrect because "on" is not the appropriate preposition for expressing anger towards a person.
• Option 3: "angry about you" is incorrect because "about" is used to express anger regarding situations or objects, not individuals.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the phrase "angry at you" can be improved to "angry with you" for better clarity and grammatical accuracy.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "The nuns have to leave the door of the church open..."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the door of the church" at the beginning.
• The verb structure "have to + verb" becomes "has/have to + be + past participle" in the passive.
• Change "have to leave" to "has to be left" (we use "has" because the new subject "the door" is singular).
• The adjective "open" remains as it describes the state of the door, and the agent "by the nuns" is added.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "The door of the church has to be left open by the nuns for all the parishioners to get in."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The door of the church has been left..." – Incorrect because it changes the modal "have to" to the present perfect tense, losing the sense of obligation.
• Option 3: "...has to be left opened..." – Incorrect because "open" is used as an adjective here to describe the state; "opened" would imply the action of opening it was done, rather than leaving it in an open state.
• Option 4: Incorrect word order. Placing "by the nuns" after "all the parishioners" makes it sound as though the parishioners are being accompanied by the nuns to get in, rather than the nuns being the ones who left the door open.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Reporting Verb: The reporting verb "said" remains "said" in the indirect speech as there is no listener mentioned to change it to "told."
• Conjunction: The comma and inverted commas are removed, and the conjunction "that" is used to introduce the reported clause.
• Pronoun Change: The first-person pronoun "I" (referring to the child) changes to the third-person "he" (or "she," but "he" is the standard convention in these options).
• Tense Change: When the reporting verb is in the past tense ("said"), the Simple Present tense ("am") in direct speech changes to the Simple Past tense ("was") in indirect speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "The child said that he was ten years old."

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because it uses "has been" (Present Perfect), which is the wrong tense shift for a simple present statement.
• Option 2: Incorrect because it uses "had been" (Past Perfect), which would only be correct if the direct speech was in the Simple Past ("I was ten").
• Option 4: Incorrect because it retains the Present Simple ("is"), which is only acceptable if the statement is a universal truth or if the situation is still exactly the same at the moment of reporting (though standard grammar rules require the backshift to "was").

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice using the Present Continuous tense ("is being claimed").
• When a sentence starts with "It is being [verb-ed]," it is an impersonal passive. To change it to Active Voice, we introduce an indefinite subject like "Someone" or "They."
• Match the Tense: The passive form "is being claimed" (Present Continuous Passive) must be converted to "is claiming" (Present Continuous Active).
• The clause following "that" ("a new species has been discovered...") is a separate passive construction that provides the content of the claim. In Option 1, this clause remains consistent with the original statement's focus.
• The structure becomes: Subject (Someone) + is claiming + that + [the rest of the information].

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "Someone is claiming that a new species has been discovered in the Amazon."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "A new species has been discovered..., it is being claimed." – This is simply a rearrangement of the passive voice, not a conversion to active form.
• Option 3: "Someone claims..." – Incorrect because it changes the tense from Present Continuous to Simple Present.
• Option 4: "Someone is claiming that they have discovered..." – This unnecessarily changes the second part of the sentence ("a new species has been discovered") into active voice, which might not be accurate if the "someone" claiming it isn't the one who discovered it.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'continum'.

• The correct spelling would be 'continuum'.
• The word 'continuum' is a noun which means 'a continuous sequence in which adjacent elements are not perceptibly different from each other, although the extremes are quite distinct'. (निरंतरता)
• For Example -
• Time is often considered a continuum stretching infinitely in both directions.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'continum'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other sentences to provide clarity - 

• Option 1: The artist's work exists on a continuum between abstract and realistic styles. (Correct usage of 'continuum')
• Option 3: They viewed time as a continuum stretching infinitely in both directions. (Correct usage of 'continuum')
• Option 4: The debate placed various opinions along a broad continuum of perspectives. (Correct usage of 'continuum')

The correct answer is 'he worked very hard'.

Key Points

• The sentence uses the past tense to describe an action ("worked very hard") that occurred in the past, as Gagan wanted to be selected in the team.
• The word "so" is redundant in the given sentence, as it breaks the grammatical flow.
• Option 2 ("he worked very hard") is correct because it correctly follows the subject-verb-object structure without unnecessary conjunctions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "As Gagan wanted to be selected in the team, he worked very hard."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "so he work very hard" is incorrect as "work" is in present tense and does not align with the past tense of the sentence.
• Option 3: "and he worked very hard" is incorrect as "and" changes the intended meaning of the sentence.
• Option 4: "because he worked very hard" is incorrect as it does not fit with the cause-and-effect relationship implied in the original sentence.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The original sentence "What are they building?" is an Interrogative sentence in the Present Continuous Tense.
• Identify the Tense: The active form uses is/am/are + verb-ing. The passive form for this tense requires is/am/are + being + V3 (past participle).
• Structure for Interrogative Passive: Question word (What) + is/are + being + V3 + by + agent.
• Since "What" acts as the object being asked about (and is treated as singular here), we use "is being built."
• The subject "they" changes to the object "them" after the preposition "by."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "What is being built by them?"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "What has been built..." – Incorrect because it changes the tense to Present Perfect.
• Option 3: "What was built..." – Incorrect because it changes the tense to Simple Past.
• Option 4: "What were they building?" – Incorrect because it is still in the Active Voice (Past Continuous) and merely changes the tense.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The historian concluded that the ancient civilization had developed advanced irrigation techniques long before its demise.
• Tense Change (Indirect to Direct): In indirect speech, the Past Perfect tense ("had developed") is used to report an action that was already in the Simple Past ("developed") in the original direct speech. When converting back to direct voice, we shift the tense forward.
• Reporting Verb: The reporting verb "concluded" in indirect speech can be represented by "said" in direct speech while maintaining the core meaning.
• Conjunction: The conjunction "that" is removed, and the original statement is placed within quotation marks.
• Context: Since the historian is talking about a completed historical event, the Simple Past ("developed") is the most natural and grammatically correct form for the original statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "The historian said, 'The ancient civilization developed advanced irrigation techniques long before its demise.'"

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because it retains "had developed" (Past Perfect). While technically possible for very specific sequences of past events, "had developed" in indirect speech is almost always a backshifted "developed" (Simple Past) from the direct version.
• Option 3: Incorrect because it uses "develops" (Simple Present), which suggests a habitual action or a current state, which does not fit a historical demise.
• Option 4: Incorrect because it uses "has developed" (Present Perfect), which implies a connection to the present that is inconsistent with a civilization that has already met its demise.

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e 'Noun'.

Key Points

• The word "flexibility" is a noun because it refers to a quality or a state of being, specifically the ability to be easily modified.
• In the sentence, "flexibility" acts as the direct object of the verb "offers," answering the question of what remote work provides.
• The suffix "-ity" is a common indicator of a noun in English (e.g., activity, purity, responsibility).
• Nouns typically follow verbs like "offer," "provide," or "give" when those verbs are used to describe features or benefits.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 4.

Additional Information

• Adjective: The adjective form is "flexible," which would be used to describe a noun (e.g., "a flexible schedule").
• Adverb: The adverb form is "flexibly," which would modify a verb or adjective (e.g., "to work flexibly").
• Verb: While "flex" is a related verb, "flexibility" itself cannot express an action; it only names the quality.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'Descriptive adjective'.

Key Points

• The word "psychological" is a descriptive adjective because it describes the nature or kind of the noun "impact."
• Descriptive adjectives (also known as qualitative adjectives) add a quality or characteristic to the noun they modify, answering the question "What kind?"
• In this context, it specifies that the impact is related to the mind or mental state, rather than being a physical or financial impact.
• The suffix "-ical" is a common ending for adjectives derived from nouns (e.g., biology to biological, psychology to psychological).

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Demonstrative adjective: These point out specific nouns (e.g., this factor, that impact, these reasons).
• Quantitative adjective: These describe the quantity or "how much" of a noun (e.g., some impact, much factor).
• Interrogative adjective: These are used with nouns to ask questions (e.g., Which factor? What impact?).

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• A) 'Boosts motivation' is a direct collocation used in the text.
• This is found in the passage. In the third paragraph, the text states: "...working with colleagues boosts motivation and creates a sense of belonging." A collocation is a pair of words that naturally go together.
• B) Other options use verbs that are not paired with those specific nouns in the text.
• This can be inferred by reviewing the passage. For example, the text says remote work "offers flexibility" (not builds) and workplace culture "thrives" (not maintains).
• C) Collocations help maintain the natural flow and professional tone of the writing.
• This can be inferred from the context of the passage, which uses standard professional English to describe workplace dynamics and psychological impacts.

Therefore, the correct answer is Boosts motivation.

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect because while the passage discusses "workplace culture," it states that it "thrives better" in person rather than using the word "maintains."
• Option 3: Incorrect because the passage mentions "stronger teamwork" being "promoted" by face-to-face interactions, not "created."
• Option 4: Incorrect because the passage states that remote work "offers flexibility," not that it "builds" it.

The correct answer is 'Quick'.

Key Points

• According to the passage, "Face to face interactions promote quick problem-solving..." which directly identifies the correct word.
• The word "quick" is an adjective used here to describe the speed and efficiency of solving problems in an in-person setting.
• While other options relate to time, "Quick" is the specific term used in the text to contrast with the difficulty of virtual replication.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "Face-to-face interactions promote quick problem-solving and stronger teamwork."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Brief" refers to something short in duration but does not imply the speed of resolution.
• Option 2: "Instant" suggests something happening immediately, which is stronger than what the text describes.
• Option 4: "Sudden" implies something unexpected or without warning, which is contextually inappropriate for problem-solving.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• A) The passage highlights the professional and social benefits of a physical workspace.
• This can be inferred from the text, which discusses how offices provide structure, promote teamwork through face-to-face interaction, and help maintain discipline by reducing home-based distractions.
• B) There is a focus on the psychological and developmental advantages of office work.
• This is mentioned in the passage, noting that the office routine boosts motivation, creates a sense of belonging, and allows managers to support employees more effectively.
• C) While acknowledging remote work, the text emphasizes the "key role" of the traditional office.
• This can be seen in the concluding sentences, where the author argues that the office is still essential for productivity, mental well-being, and professional development.

Therefore, the correct answer is Working in an office has clear advantages over working from home.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because the passage explicitly argues that office work remains "more effective" for several reasons.
• Option 2: Incorrect because the passage notes that remote workers sometimes experience "isolation" and "distractions."
• Option 4: Incorrect because the passage is about the location and method of work, not the cessation of work entirely.

The correct answer is: 3) Clear.

Key Points

• The word "Abstruse" means something that is difficult to understand or obscure. (दुर्बोध)
• Example: The professor's explanation of quantum physics was so abstruse that few students could follow it.
• The word "Clear" refers to something that is easy to understand or transparent, without any ambiguity. (स्पष्ट)
• Example: Her instructions were clear, leaving no room for confusion.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'Abstruse' is 'Clear'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 3) Clear.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cryptic (रहस्यमय): Something that is mysterious or hidden, often intentionally difficult to understand.
• Example: The cryptic message left behind by the spy baffled the detectives.
• Obscure (अस्पष्ट): Something that is not clear or difficult to perceive.
• Example: Many ancient texts are written in obscure languages that are hard to decode.
• Incomprehensible (असमझनीय): Something that cannot be understood or is beyond comprehension.
• Example: The scientist's formula seemed incomprehensible to those without a strong background in mathematics.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. phase; faze.

Key Points

• The word "phase" refers to a distinct stage or period in a process of change or development. (चरण)
• Example: She is going through a challenging phase of her life, but she remains optimistic.
• The word "faze" means to disturb, disconcert, or cause someone to be unsettled. (घबराना)
• Example: Despite the criticism, it did not faze her, and she continued working diligently.
• The sentence uses the correct pair of homonyms "phase" (a challenging period) and "faze" (to disturb emotionally) to convey its intended meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. phase; faze.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1 - model; modal (मॉडल; मोडल):
• "Model" refers to a representation or example of something. (आदर्श)
• Example: The architect created a model of the building before construction began.
• "Modal" refers to auxiliary verbs that express necessity or possibility. (सहायक क्रिया)
• Example: Modal verbs like "can" and "must" are essential in grammar.

Incorrect: These words do not fit the context of the sentence.

• Option 2 - modal; model (मोडल; मॉडल):
• As explained above, "modal" and "model" are grammatically correct words, but they do not align with the meaning of the sentence.

Incorrect: These do not fit the blanks appropriately.

• Option 4 - faze; phase (घबराना; चरण):
• This pair swaps the correct order of the words. The sentence requires "phase" to describe the period and "faze" to describe the emotional disturbance.

Incorrect: The order of usage is misplaced.

The correct answer is: Skeptically.

Key Points

• The word "dubiously" means in a doubtful or uncertain way, often implying skepticism or hesitation. (संदेहजनक रूप से)
• Example: She looked dubiously at the offer, unsure if it was genuine.
• "Skeptically" refers to doubting or questioning the truth or reliability of something, which matches the meaning of "dubiously." (संदेहपूर्वक)
• Example: He skeptically listened to the explanation, unconvinced by the reasoning.
• Hence, we can infer that the word nearest in meaning to 'dubiously' is 'skeptically'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Skeptically.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Confidently (आत्मविश्वासपूर्वक): Acting with strong belief in oneself or certainty in a situation.
• Example: She confidently presented her ideas during the meeting.
• Definitely (निश्चित रूप से): Without doubt or hesitation; something that is certain.
• Example: He definitely knows the answer to the question.
• Gladly (खुशी से): In a cheerful and willing manner.
• Example: She gladly accepted the invitation to the party.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Threatening.

Key Points

• The word "ominous" means giving the impression that something bad or harmful is going to happen; it is often associated with a sense of danger or foreboding. (अशुभ)
• Example: The dark clouds in the sky looked ominous, signaling an approaching storm.
• "Threatening" refers to something that suggests harm or danger, which aligns closely with the meaning of "ominous". (धमकी देना)
• Example: The growling dog had a threatening posture, warning us to stay away.
• Hence, the word closest in meaning to "ominous" is "Threatening".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Threatening.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cheerful (प्रसन्न): Refers to being noticeably happy and optimistic.
• Example: She greeted everyone with a cheerful smile that brightened the room.
• Uplifting (प्रेरणादायक): Something that inspires or boosts a person's mood or spirit.
• Example: The uplifting speech motivated the audience to pursue their dreams.
• Harmless (नुकसान रहित): Something that causes no harm or damage.
• Example: The insect looked scary but was completely harmless.

The correct answer is option 4, i.e. anthropomorphous.

Key Points

• Anthropomorphous is the correctly spelled word.
• The word anthropomorphous is an adjective that means 'having human characteristics or form'.
• Usage Example: The philosopher elaborated on anthropomorphous tendencies in human behavior.

Additional Information

• Explanation of Incorrect Options:
• Option 1: anthropomorphus - Incorrect spelling, missing the 'o' before 'us'.
• Option 2: anthropomorhous - Incorrect spelling, missing the 'p' after 'mor'.
• Option 3: anthropamorphous - Incorrect spelling, 'anthropa' instead of 'anthropo'.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'well-recieved'.

• The correct spelling would be 'well-received'.
• The word 'received' is a verb which means 'to be given or presented with something'. (प्राप्त करना)
• The phrase 'well-received' means something that has been positively accepted or approved. (अच्छी तरह स्वीकार किया गया)

Correct sentence: The physicist's controversial treatise on quantum vacuums was surprisingly well-received by the academic board.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Physicist - a scientist who specializes in physics (भौतिक विज्ञानी)
• Controversial - giving rise or likely to give rise to public disagreement (विवादास्पद)
• Treatise - a written work dealing formally and systematically with a subject (निबंध)
• Quantum Vacuums - a scientific concept referring to the lowest energy state of a quantum field (क्वांटम निर्वात)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The area of the path = Area of the larger rectangle (garden + path) − Area of the garden.

Calculation:

Length of larger rectangle = 20 + 2 + 2 = 24 meters

Width of larger rectangle = 15 + 2 + 2 = 19 meters

Area of larger rectangle = 24 × 19 = 456 sq m

Area of garden = 20 × 15 = 300 sq m

Area of path = 456 − 300 = 156 sq m

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The side of a square = Perimeter ÷ 4. Area of a square = side × side.

Calculation:

Side = 48 ÷ 4 = 12 meters

Area = 12 × 12 = 144 sq m

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: In a professional and social setting, the appropriate reaction to an accident is to be empathetic, helpful, and reassuring. Ignoring, laughing, or making sarcastic remarks would be unprofessional and hurtful.

Option 1: Help clean up and reassure them it was accidental

 – This is the professional and empathetic response. It shows responsibility, kindness, and awareness of others’ feelings, and helps maintain a positive team environment.

Option 2: Ignore and walk away

– This is insensitive and unprofessional. It can hurt the junior’s feelings and create tension. 

Option 3: Laugh at the junior

– This is disrespectful and humiliating. It can damage relationships and is socially inappropriate. 

Option 4: Make a sarcastic remark

– This is mocking and unprofessional. It can embarrass the junior and negatively affect team morale. 

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 8 $ 2 & 4 ^ 7

Now, if ‘%’ stands for ‘+’, ‘&’ stands for ‘−’, ‘$’ stands for ‘÷’, and ‘^’ stands for ‘×’, then:

⇒ 8 ÷ 2 − 4 × 7

⇒ 8 ÷ 2 = 4

⇒ 4 × 7 = 28

⇒ 4 − 28 = -24

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each letter is shifted +1 forward in the alphabet.

Here,

APPLE → BQQMF

Now apply the same to MANGO:

So, the code becomes NBOHP.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The series contains perfect squares except for one number.

Stepwise Analysis:

4 → 2² 

9 → 3² 

16 → 4²

20 → Not a perfect square 

25 → 5² 

Hence, the odd one out is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

The relationship is between an international organisation and the city where its headquarters (or a primary administrative office) is located:

BRICS: The New Development Bank (established by BRICS) is headquartered in Shanghai, China.

SAARC: The SAARC Secretariat is headquartered in Kathmandu, Nepal.

Hence, the correct answer is 4) Kathmandu.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is based on reversing the letters of the word.

NEPAL → LAPEN (all letters reversed)

JAPAN → NAPAJ (all letters reversed)

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

For, VENUS → SBKQO

Similarly, EARTH → BXOPD

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "46" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Given: Six people are seated around a circular table facing inwards.

Q is seated to the immediate right of S.

U is seated to the immediate right of P.

T is seated to the immediate right of R.

Q and T are not seated opposite to each other.

U and R are not immediate neighbors.

Here, the person seated third to the left of P is Q.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The address given in the problem is,

Shop No. G-12, City Centre Mall, 100 Ft. Road, Jayanagar, Bengaluru - 560041

Let's match this address with the given options one by one to figure out which one is exactly the same.

So, the address that is exactly the same as the given address is in option (4).

Hence, the correct option is "option (4)".

The address given in the problem is,

45/B, K.P. Towers, Anna Salai (Mount Road), Chennai - 600002

Let's match this address with the given options one by one to figure out which one is exactly the same.

So, the address that is exactly the same as the given address is in option (2).

Hence, the correct option is "option (2)".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: This is the Fibonacci series, where each number is the sum of the previous two numbers.

Stepwise Analysis:

Hence, the next number in the series is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: A fair judgement requires objectivity and verification of facts from both sides, rather than bias or avoidance.

Now, Checking the given options:

Option 1: Based on personal bias → Not rational 

Option 2: Based on intuition only → Not reliable 

Option 3: Compare both sides and verify facts → Logical and fair 

Option 4: Avoid judgement → Does not solve the issue 

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic is based on humanitarian priority and vulnerability during emergencies.

Option 1: First come, first serve – This ignores urgency and vulnerability of individuals.

Option 2: Adults to help others later – While helpful, it overlooks those at higher immediate risk.

Option 3: Elderly and children – These groups are more vulnerable and need immediate assistance.

Option 4: Random selection – This is unfair and does not consider need or risk.

Among these, prioritizing the elderly and children is the most appropriate in a flood emergency.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each number is the sum of the previous two numbers.

thus, "21" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "132" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Given: Eight boys B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6, B7 and B8 are sitting in a row facing north.

B1 is fifth to the left of B6.

B4 is fifth to the right of B5.

B1 is to the immediate left of B5.

Only two boys are sitting between B8 and B4.

B2 is third to the right of B7.

B7 is an immediate neighbour of B1.

Third from the right end: B3

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

M walks 15 km straight (assume north),

then turns right (east) and walks 8 km.

Vertical displacement = 15 km

Horizontal displacement = 8 km

Distance from starting point = √(vertical² + horizontal²)

= √(15² + 8²)

= √(225 + 64)

= √289

= 17 km

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is based on adding 952 to each number.

7429 + 952 = 8381

3897 + 952 = 4849

So,

? + 952 = 4172

⇒ ? = 4172 − 952 = 3220

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 49 + 7 − 11 × 2 ÷ 4 = ?

Now, if ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘−’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘−’ and ‘÷’ means ‘×’, then:

⇒ 49 ÷ 7 + 11 − 2 × 4 = ?

⇒ 7 + 11 − 8 = ?

⇒ 18 − 8 = ?

⇒ 10

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 44 + 11 ÷ 14 − 8 × 2 = ?

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 44 ÷ 11 + 14 − 8 × 2 = ?

⇒ 4 + 14 − 16 = ?

⇒ 18 − 16 = ?

⇒ 2

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

BODMAS Table: 

Given: Numbers 4 and 9 are interchanged.

I. 9 × 2 + 4 − 6 ÷ 3 = 14

After interchange → 4 × 2 + 9 − 6 ÷ 3 = ?

⇒ 4 × 2 + 9 − 6 ÷ 3

⇒ 4 × 2 + 9 − 2

⇒ 8 + 9 - 2

⇒ 17 - 2 = 15 ≠ 14 

II. 8 × 3 + 9 − 4 ÷ 3 = 25

After interchange → 8 × 3 + 4 − 9 ÷ 3 = ?

⇒ 8 × 3 + 4 − 9 ÷ 3

⇒ 8 × 3 + 4 − 3

⇒ 24 + 4 - 3

⇒ 28 - 3 = 25 

So, only statement I is not correct after interchange.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given word: WASTE

Original word: W A S T E

Available letters: W, A, S, T, E

WHEAT requires letter H which is not present.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Given:

First value = 4

Second value = 16

Formula Used:

Mean proportion = √(First value × Second value)

Calculation:

⇒ Mean proportion = √(4 × 16)

⇒ Mean proportion = √64

⇒ Mean proportion = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Given:

First number = 11

Total numbers = 8

Formula Used:

Average of consecutive numbers = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2

n^th term = First term + (n − 1) × Common difference

Calculation:

⇒ Last term = 11 + (8 − 1) × 2

⇒ Last term = 11 + 14 = 25

⇒ Average = (11 + 25) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 36 ÷ 2 = 18

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Given:

Initial increase = 20%

Subsequent decrease = 20%

Formula Used:

Overall percentage change = (x + y + (x × y) ÷ 100)%

Calculation:

⇒ x = +20, y = -20

⇒ Overall percentage change = (20 + (-20) + (20 × -20) ÷ 100)%

⇒ Overall percentage change = (0 - 400 ÷ 100)%

⇒ Overall percentage change = -4%

∴ The correct answer is 4% decrease.

Given:

Initial increase: 30%

Subsequent decrease: 30%

Formula Used:

Net percentage change = [(Increase × Decrease) ÷ 100]

Calculation:

⇒ Increase = 30%

⇒ Decrease = 30%

⇒ Net percentage change = [(30 × 30) ÷ 100]

⇒ Net percentage change = 900 ÷ 100= 9%

∴ The Net percentage change is 9%.

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 1,500

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 1,200

Formula Used:

Discount = MP - SP

Discount Percentage = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount = 1,500 - 1,200

⇒ Discount = 300

⇒ Discount Percentage = (300 ÷ 1,500) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = 0.2 × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Given:

Time = 4 hours

Speed = 55 km/h

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

⇒ Distance = 55 × 4

⇒ Distance = 220 km

∴ The correct answer is 220 km.

Shortcut Trick

Total Height = Height of Cuboid + Height of Pyramid = 0.5 m + 1.5 m = 2 m.

Effective Volume Height = Cuboid Height + (Pyramid Height ÷ 3) = 0.5 + (1.5 ÷ 3) = 1 m.

Total Volume = Base Area × Effective Height = (1.2 × 1.2) × 1 = 1.44 m³.

∴ The correct answer is 2 m, 1.44 m³.

Alternate Method

Given:

Dimensions of Cuboidal Base: Length = 1.2 m, Width = 1.2 m, Height (h₁) = 0.5 m

Dimensions of Square Pyramid: Base = 1.2 m × 1.2 m, Height (h₂) = 1.5 m

Formula Used:

Volume of Cuboid = Length × Width × Height

Volume of Pyramid = (1/3) × Base Area × Height

Calculations:

⇒ Total Height of monument = Height of Cuboid + Height of Pyramid

⇒ Total Height = 0.5 m + 1.5 m = 2 m

⇒ Base Area = 1.2 m × 1.2 m = 1.44 m²

⇒ Volume of Cuboidal Base = 1.44 × 0.5 = 0.72 m³

⇒ Volume of Pyramid = (1/3) × 1.44 × 1.5

⇒ Volume of Pyramid = 1.44 × 0.5 = 0.72 m³

⇒ Total Volume = 0.72 + 0.72 = 1.44 m³

∴ The correct answer is 2 m, 1.44 m³.

Additional Information

Volume of Composite Solids

The total volume of a combined object is the sum of the volumes of its individual parts: V_total = V₁ + V₂ + ... + V_n.

Pyramid Properties

For any pyramid, the volume is always exactly one-third of the volume of a prism (like a cuboid or cylinder) having the same base and height.

Total Height Calculation

When shapes are stacked vertically, the total height is the arithmetic sum of the vertical heights of each component shape.

Given:

Statement: Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

Formula Used:

1. Integers are a subset of rational numbers.
2. Irrational numbers are not expressible as fractions.

Calculation:

⇒ Integers like 1, -2, and 0 can be written as fractions (e.g., 1 = 1/1, -2 = -2/1, 0 = 0/1).

⇒ This makes every integer a rational number.

⇒ Statement "Every integer is irrational" contradicts the definition of integers and rational numbers.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Given:

Side of cube = a

Height of cylinder = a

Radius of cylinder = a ÷ 2

Formula Used:

Volume of cube = a³

Volume of cylinder = π × r² × h

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of cube = a³

⇒ Volume of cylinder = π × (a ÷ 2)² × a

⇒ Volume of cylinder = π × (a² ÷ 4) × a

⇒ Volume of cylinder = (πa³) ÷ 4

⇒ Ratio = a³ : (πa³ ÷ 4)

⇒ Ratio = 1 : (π ÷ 4)

⇒ Ratio = 4 : π

∴ The correct answer is 4 : π.

Given:

Average of first two events = 152.5

Average of next two events = 198.5

Correction in first group = +12

Correction in second group = −9

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

New average = Corrected total sum ÷ Total number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of first two events = 152.5 × 2 = 305

⇒ Sum of next two events = 198.5 × 2 = 397

⇒ Total original sum = 305 + 397 = 702

⇒ Corrected total sum = 702 + 12 − 9

⇒ Corrected total sum = 705

⇒ Corrected average = 705 ÷ 4

⇒ Corrected average = 176.25

∴ The correct answer is 176.25.

Given:

Number = 900

Formula Used:

(a × 10ⁿ)² = a² × 10²ⁿ

Calculation:

⇒ 900 = 9 × 10²

⇒ 900² = (9 × 10²)²

⇒ = 9² × 10⁴

⇒ = 81 × 10⁴

⇒ = 810000

⇒ Number of zeros = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Given:

cos²θ − sin²(90° − θ)

Formula Used:

sin(90° − θ) = cosθ

cos²θ − sin²θ = cos2θ

Calculation:

⇒ sin(90° − θ) = cosθ

⇒ sin²(90° − θ) = cos²θ

⇒ cos²θ − cos²θ

⇒ = 0

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Given:

Principal = 22400

Rate = 16% per annum

Time = 4 months

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Time in years = 4 ÷ 12 = 1 ÷ 3

⇒ SI = (22400 × 16 × 1 ÷ 3) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (22400 × 16) ÷ 300

⇒ SI = 358400 ÷ 300

⇒ SI = 1194.67

⇒ Amount = 22400 + 1194.67

⇒ Amount = 23594.67

∴ The correct answer is 23594.67.

Given:

Principal 1 = x + 500

Rate 1 = 32%

Time 1 = 4 years

Principal 2 = x − 500

Rate 2 = 20%

Time 2 = 2 years

Ratio of interests = 64 : 11

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Compound Interest = P[(1 + R/100)ⁿ − 1]

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (x + 500) × 32 × 4 ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (x + 500) × 128 ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (x + 500) × 1.28

⇒ CI = (x − 500)[(1.2)² − 1]

⇒ CI = (x − 500)(1.44 − 1)

⇒ CI = (x − 500) × 0.44

⇒ Ratio = (1.28(x + 500)) ÷ (0.44(x − 500)) = 64 ÷ 11

⇒ (32(x + 500)) ÷ (11(x − 500)) = 64 ÷ 11

⇒ 32(x + 500) = 64(x − 500)

⇒ 32x + 16000 = 64x − 32000

⇒ 16000 + 32000 = 64x − 32x

⇒ 48000 = 32x

⇒ x = 48000 ÷ 32

⇒ x = 1500

∴ The correct answer is 1500.

Given:

Principal = 30000

Rate = 10%

Time = 4 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Compound Interest = P[(1 + R/100)ⁿ − 1]

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (30000 × 10 × 4) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 12000

⇒ CI = 30000[(1.1)⁴ − 1]

⇒ (1.1)⁴ = 1.4641

⇒ CI = 30000(1.4641 − 1)

⇒ CI = 30000 × 0.4641

⇒ CI = 13923

⇒ Difference = 13923 − 12000

⇒ Difference = 1923

∴ The correct answer is 1923.

Given:

Ratio of orange juice : water = 3 : 1

Mixture removed = 70 litres

Water added = 20 litres

Final water percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Quantity based on ratio

Percentage = (Part ÷ Total) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let initial mixture = x litres

⇒ Water initially = (1 ÷ 4)x

⇒ Mixture removed = 70 litres

⇒ Water removed = 70 × (1 ÷ 4) = 17.5

⇒ Water left = (x ÷ 4) − 17.5

⇒ Water added = 20

⇒ Final water = (x ÷ 4) − 17.5 + 20

⇒ Final water = (x ÷ 4) + 2.5

⇒ Final total mixture = x − 70 + 20

⇒ Final total mixture = x − 50

⇒ ((x ÷ 4) + 2.5) ÷ (x − 50) = 30 ÷ 100

⇒ ((x ÷ 4) + 2.5) ÷ (x − 50) = 3 ÷ 10

⇒ 10((x ÷ 4) + 2.5) = 3(x − 50)

⇒ (10x ÷ 4) + 25 = 3x − 150

⇒ (5x ÷ 2) + 25 = 3x − 150

⇒ Multiply by 2

⇒ 5x + 50 = 6x − 300

⇒ 50 + 300 = 6x − 5x

⇒ 350 = x

∴ The correct answer is 350 litres.

Given:

38 men can complete a piece of work in 10 days.

Work needs to be done thrice.

Number of men = 10.

Formula Used:

Work = Men × Days.

Days required = (Total Work ÷ Men).

Calculation:

⇒ Work for 38 men in 10 days = 38 × 10 = 380 units.

⇒ Total work (thrice) = 380 × 3 = 1140 units.

⇒ Days required by 10 men = 1140 ÷ 10 = 114 days.

∴ The correct answer is 114 days.

Given:

sinθ + cosθ = √2

Formula Used:

(sinθ + cosθ)² = sin²θ + cos²θ + 2sinθcosθ

sin²θ + cos²θ = 1

sin⁴θ + cos⁴θ = (sin²θ + cos²θ)² − 2sin²θcos²θ

Calculation:

⇒ (√2)² = 1 + 2sinθcosθ

⇒ 2 = 1 + 2sinθcosθ

⇒ 2sinθcosθ = 1

⇒ sinθcosθ = 1 ÷ 2

⇒ sin²θcos²θ = (1 ÷ 2)²

⇒ = 1 ÷ 4

⇒ sin⁴θ + cos⁴θ = 1² − 2 × (1 ÷ 4)

⇒ = 1 − 1 ÷ 2

⇒ = 1 ÷ 2

∴ The correct answer is 1 ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

The total solid is formed by a hemisphere and a cylinder joined at their flat faces.

Visible area = (Curved Surface Area of Hemisphere) + (Curved Surface Area of Cylinder) + (Area of one Base).

TSA = 2πr² + 2πrh + πr²

TSA = 3πr² + 2πrh

∴ The correct answer is 3πr² + 2πrh.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Base radius of hemisphere and cylinder = r

⇒ Height of the cylinder = h

Formula Used:

⇒ Curved Surface Area (CSA) of hemisphere = 2πr²

⇒ Curved Surface Area (CSA) of cylinder = 2πrh

⇒ Area of a circular base = πr²

Calculations:

⇒ When the hemisphere is joined to the cylinder, the two flat faces at the junction are hidden.

⇒ Total Surface Area = (CSA of hemisphere) + (CSA of cylinder) + (Area of the bottom face of the cylinder)

⇒ Total Surface Area = 2πr² + 2πrh + πr²

⇒ Total Surface Area = (2πr² + πr²) + 2πrh

⇒ Total Surface Area = 3πr² + 2πrh

∴ The correct answer is 3πr² + 2πrh.

Additional Information

Volume of Combined Solid

The total volume is the sum of individual volumes: V = (2/3)πr³ + πr²h.

Surface Area of Sphere

A full sphere has a total surface area of 4πr² and has no flat faces.

Total Surface Area of Cylinder

For a standalone solid cylinder, TSA = 2πrh + 2πr² (curved area + two circular bases).

Total Surface Area of Hemisphere

For a standalone solid hemisphere, TSA = 2πr² + πr² = 3πr².

Given:

Number of books = 20

Pages per book = 200

Printing cost per page = 25

Binding cost per book = 80

Advertising cost = 2000

Supply cost per book = 50

Selling price per book = 7500

Formula Used:

Total cost = Sum of all expenses

Total revenue = Selling price × Number of books

Profit = Total revenue − Total cost

Calculation:

⇒ Printing cost per book = 200 × 25 = 5000

⇒ Total printing cost = 5000 × 20 = 100000

⇒ Total binding cost = 80 × 20 = 1600

⇒ Total supply cost = 50 × 20 = 1000

⇒ Total cost = 100000 + 1600 + 1000 + 2000

⇒ Total cost = 104600

⇒ Total revenue = 7500 × 20 = 150000

⇒ Profit = 150000 − 104600

⇒ Profit = 45400

∴ The correct answer is 45400.

Given:

a : b = 5 : 7

b : c = 3 : 4

Formula Used:

Equalize the common term to combine ratios

Calculation:

⇒ a : b = 5 : 7

⇒ b : c = 3 : 4

⇒ LCM of 7 and 3 = 21

⇒ a : b = 15 : 21

⇒ b : c = 21 : 28

⇒ a : b : c = 15 : 21 : 28

∴ The correct answer is 15 : 21 : 28.

Given:

Ratio of investments = 5 : 3 : 2

Total profit = Rs. 150,000

Formula Used:

Share of an individual = (Individual's ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ Total ratio = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10

⇒ B's share = (3 ÷ 10) × 150,000

⇒ B's share = 45,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 45,000.

Given:

Rate = 18

Time = 1.5

Compound interest = 2862

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + Rate ÷ 100)¹ × (1 + Rate ÷ 200)

CI = Amount - Principal

Calculation:

⇒ Amount = P × (1 + 18 ÷ 100) × (1 + 18 ÷ 200)

⇒ = P × 1.18 × 1.09

⇒ = P × 1.2862

⇒ CI = P(1.2862 - 1)

⇒ 2862 = P × 0.2862

⇒ P = 2862 ÷ 0.2862

⇒ P = 10000

∴ The correct answer is 10000.

Given:

Value = 14 + 6√5

Formula Used:

(√a + √b)² = a + b + 2√ab

Calculation:

⇒ Let √(14 + 6√5) = √a + √b

⇒ (√a + √b)² = a + b + 2√ab

⇒ a + b = 14

⇒ 2√ab = 6√5

⇒ √ab = 3√5

⇒ ab = 45

⇒ a = 9, b = 5

⇒ √(14 + 6√5) = √9 + √5

⇒ = 3 + √5

∴ The correct answer is 3 + √5.

Given:

Radius of cylinder = 7

Initial height = 40

Radius of sphere = 7

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × r³

Volume of cylinder = π × r² × h

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × 7³

⇒ = (4 ÷ 3) × π × 343

⇒ = 1372 ÷ 3 × π

⇒ Increase in height = Volume ÷ (π × 7²)

⇒ = (1372 ÷ 3 × π) ÷ (49π)

⇒ = 1372 ÷ (3 × 49)

⇒ = 1372 ÷ 147

⇒ = 28 ÷ 3

⇒ New height = 40 + 28 ÷ 3

⇒ = 120 ÷ 3 + 28 ÷ 3

⇒ = 148 ÷ 3 = 49.33 cm

∴ The correct answer is 49.33 cm.

The correct answer is Tribhuvana-chakravartin.

Key Points

• Tribhuvana-chakravartin is a Sanskrit term that translates to "Lord of the Three Worlds." It signifies a ruler whose dominion encompasses the entire earth, heaven, and the underworld.
• This title was historically used by Indian monarchs to denote their supreme sovereignty and universal rule over these realms, symbolizing both spiritual and political authority.
• The concept of "Three Worlds" is rooted in ancient Indian cosmology, where the world is divided into three planes of existence: earth (prithvi), heaven (swarga), and the underworld (patala).
• The title "Tribhuvana-chakravartin" was often claimed by emperors during the Gupta Empire and other prominent dynasties to assert their supremacy as universal rulers.
• This title also carried immense religious significance, aligning with Hindu beliefs of cosmic order and the ruler's role as the protector of dharma (universal law).

Additional Information

• Maharaja-adhiraja:
• This title translates to "Great King of Kings" and was used to denote supreme rulers in ancient India.
• It emphasized the ruler's authority over subordinate kings and vassals rather than universal dominion.
• For example, rulers of the Gupta Empire and other dynasties often adopted this title to assert their political dominance.
• Ekrat-Samrat:
• "Ekrat" means "sole ruler," and "Samrat" refers to "emperor." Together, this title indicates an unchallenged ruler of a specific region or empire.
• It was used by Indian kings to signify their absolute authority within their territories.
• This title does not imply control over the "Three Worlds" and is more regionally confined.
• Devraja:
• "Devraja" translates to "King of Gods" and primarily refers to the divine status of the ruler.
• This title was closely linked to the notion of divine kingship, where the monarch was considered an earthly representative of the gods.
• It was prominently used in Southeast Asia, especially in kingdoms like the Khmer Empire.
• Tribhuvana-chakravartin:
• This title signifies universal sovereignty and is deeply rooted in Indian cosmological and spiritual traditions.
• It encompasses control over the three realms: earth, heaven, and the underworld, symbolizing both spiritual and political supremacy.
• It was widely used during the reigns of powerful dynasties such as the Cholas, Guptas, and Mauryas to reflect their aspirations of global and cosmic rule.

Important Points

• Historical Usage:
• The title "Tribhuvana-chakravartin" was not merely political; it had religious significance as rulers were seen as upholders of dharma.
• It was used by emperors like Samudragupta and Rajaraja Chola to assert their universal rule and divine favor.
• Cultural Context:
• The idea of "Three Worlds" aligns with Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain cosmology, emphasizing the interconnectedness of earthly, divine, and spiritual realms.
• Rulers adopting this title were often portrayed in inscriptions and art as supreme protectors and benefactors of their subjects.

The correct answer is 61st Amendment Act, 1989.

Key Points

• The 61st Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution, enacted in 1989, reduced the minimum voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years.
• This amendment modified Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the elections to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and to the Legislative Assemblies of States.
• The rationale behind this amendment was to empower the youth of India by giving them the right to vote and participate in the democratic process at an earlier age.
• The change was aimed at recognizing the maturity and decision-making ability of individuals aged 18 years and above, enabling them to contribute to shaping the country's governance.
• The amendment was passed under the leadership of then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, showcasing a significant step towards increasing political participation among younger citizens.

Additional Information

• Article 326:
• This article in the Indian Constitution lays down that elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States shall be based on adult suffrage.
• It specifies that every citizen of India who is not less than 18 years of age and is not otherwise disqualified by law is eligible to vote.
• The 61st Amendment Act changed the voting age mentioned in this article from 21 years to 18 years.
• Reason for Reducing the Voting Age:
• Providing a platform for the youth to express their opinions and participate in the democratic process.
• Recognizing that individuals aged 18 years possess sufficient maturity and understanding to make informed electoral choices.
• Increasing political awareness and encouraging civic engagement among young citizens.
• Impact of the 61st Amendment:
• The amendment significantly increased the number of eligible voters in India, making it one of the largest democracies in the world in terms of voter population.
• It empowered the youth, who form a major demographic segment, to directly influence government policies and decision-making.
• This change also encouraged political parties to engage with younger voters and address their concerns in election campaigns.
• Other Significant Constitutional Amendments Related to Elections:
• 42nd Amendment Act: Introduced changes to the functioning of the Election Commission of India.
• 84th Amendment Act: Related to delimitation of constituencies based on population data.
• 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts: Focused on elections at the Panchayat and Municipality levels.

Important Points

• Voting Eligibility in India:
• Every citizen of India who is 18 years or older is eligible to vote, provided they are not otherwise disqualified by law (e.g., due to criminal conviction or unsound mind).
• Voter registration is mandatory to exercise the right to vote.
• Role of the Election Commission of India:
• The Election Commission is a constitutional body responsible for conducting free and fair elections in India.
• It oversees elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the offices of the President and Vice President of India.
• Global Context:
• Many countries have set the minimum voting age at 18 years, including the United States, the United Kingdom, and Australia.
• Some countries, like Austria, have a lower voting age of 16 years for certain elections.

The correct answer is 101st Amendment Act, 2016.

Key Points

• The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, introduced the Goods and Services Tax (G.S.T.), marking a significant reform in India’s tax system.
• The Act paved the way for the creation of a unified indirect tax regime by subsuming multiple indirect taxes like excise duty, service tax, VAT, and others into a single tax structure.
• The amendment added Articles 246A, 269A, and 279A to the Constitution, granting the central and state governments the concurrent power to legislate on GST.
• The GST Council, established under Article 279A, was given the authority to recommend rates, exemptions, and other related policies for the smooth implementation of GST.
• The President of India gave his assent to the bill on 8th September 2016, following its passage by both Houses of Parliament.
• GST was officially launched on 1st July 2017, replacing the complex indirect tax structure and fostering ease of doing business across the country.

Additional Information

• Goods and Services Tax (GST):
• GST is a destination-based consumption tax, meaning the tax revenue accrues to the state where the goods or services are consumed.
• It is implemented in four tax slabs: 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%, with certain essential items being exempted.
• GST is divided into three types: CGST (Central GST), SGST (State GST), and IGST (Integrated GST), ensuring revenue distribution between the central and state governments.
• This tax reform aimed to eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, thereby reducing the overall tax burden on consumers.
• India adopted a dual GST model, which is unique compared to other countries implementing GST.
• Articles Introduced by the 101st Amendment:
• Article 246A: Grants the central and state governments simultaneous powers to legislate on GST.
• Article 269A: Specifies the levy and collection of GST on inter-state transactions by the central government, with revenue shared between the center and states.
• Article 279A: Establishes the GST Council, comprising the Union Finance Minister and state finance ministers, to recommend GST policies.
• GST Council:
• Comprises the Union Finance Minister (Chairperson), Union Minister of State for Finance, and representatives from all state governments.
• Decides on critical matters such as tax rates, exemptions, registration procedures, and dispute resolution mechanisms.
• Ensures harmonized tax practices across states to promote uniformity and simplicity.
• Impact of GST:
• Encouraged formalization of businesses and improved tax compliance.
• Reduced the overall tax burden by eliminating overlapping taxes and simplifying the tax structure.
• Boosted economic growth by fostering ease of doing business and attracting foreign investments.
• Ensured seamless movement of goods across state borders by eliminating check-post delays.

Important Points

• Previous Constitutional Amendments:
• 100th Amendment Act: Ratified the India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement in 2015.
• 102nd Amendment Act: Granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes in 2018.
• 103rd Amendment Act: Introduced 10% reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) in 2019.
• GST in Other Countries:
• First introduced in France in 1954, GST has been adopted by over 160 countries worldwide.
• Countries like Canada and Australia follow a dual GST model similar to India.
• Challenges in GST Implementation:
• Initial technical glitches in the GST portal hindered smooth compliance.
• Complexity in classification of goods and services under different tax slabs.
• Delay in refund processing for exporters created cash flow issues.

The correct answer is Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• Honorary Order of Freedom of Barbados Award: This prestigious award is given by the government of Barbados to individuals for their outstanding contributions to global leadership and fostering international relations.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi: Shri Pabitra Margherita received the award on behalf of Prime Minister Narendra Modi in March 2025, recognizing his efforts in strengthening diplomatic ties between India and Barbados.
• Significance of the award: It highlights the growing influence of India on the international stage and acknowledges the leadership of PM Modi in promoting unity and collaboration among nations.
• International recognition: PM Narendra Modi has been celebrated globally for his initiatives like the International Solar Alliance and promoting sustainable development, which align with Barbados' goals of renewable energy and environmental conservation.
• Barbados-India relations: The award symbolizes the deepening of relations between India and Barbados, reflecting shared values of democracy, development, and global peace.

Additional Information

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi:
• Born on 17th September 1950 in Vadnagar, Gujarat, PM Modi is India's 14th Prime Minister, serving since May 2014.
• Known for his global initiatives, such as Yoga Day, International Solar Alliance, and Climate Change Action, which resonate with global values.
• Has received several international awards, including the Order of St. Andrew the Apostle (Russia) and the Legion of Merit (United States).
• Barbados:
• A Caribbean island nation known for its parliamentary democracy and strong commitment to renewable energy and sustainability.
• In November 2021, Barbados became a republic, removing the British monarchy as its head of state.
• The country shares diplomatic ties with India, focusing on areas like trade, renewable energy, and cultural exchange.
• International Solar Alliance:
• Founded by India and France during COP21 in 2015, this global initiative aims to promote solar energy adoption worldwide.
• Barbados is a member of the alliance, aligning with its goals for sustainable energy development.
• Importance of Awards:
• International awards like the Honorary Order of Freedom of Barbados highlight global leaders' contributions to diplomacy, sustainability, and development.
• They foster stronger bilateral relations and enhance mutual respect between nations.

Important Points

• Barbados and India Diplomatic Relations: Diplomatic ties include cooperation in areas like trade, renewable energy, and tourism.
• Global Leadership Recognition: Awards like these underscore the importance of international collaboration and India's growing influence on global policies.
• PM Modi's Leadership: His leadership has been instrumental in fostering international partnerships and advocating for global issues like climate change and sustainable development.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• Integration of TB services within the public health system is a crucial step for ensuring equitable and universal health coverage, as it allows for accessible and affordable treatment for tuberculosis patients, particularly in underserved areas. Statement II is correct.
• Equitable and universal health coverage is one of the goals of the Indian government under the Ayushman Bharat Program and other health initiatives, aiming to provide comprehensive healthcare services to all citizens irrespective of their socioeconomic status.
• Statement I, concerning the eradication of malaria, is unrelated to the integration of TB services. Malaria eradication requires separate strategies such as vector control, distribution of insecticide-treated nets, and antimalarial drugs. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.
• The integration of TB services ensures that TB patients receive timely diagnosis, free-of-cost treatment, and follow-up care through the public health system. This contributes to reducing the disease burden and aligns with the goal of achieving universal health coverage.
• The World Health Organization (WHO) has recognized the importance of integrating TB services into public health systems to meet global targets for TB elimination by 2030 under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

Additional Information

• Tuberculosis (TB):
• TB is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis and primarily affects the lungs but can also affect other parts of the body.
• India has the highest burden of TB cases globally, accounting for nearly 26% of the world's TB cases as per the Global TB Report 2022.
• The Government of India aims to eliminate TB by 2025, five years ahead of the global SDG target of 2030.
• National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP):
• Formerly known as the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Program (RNTCP), it was renamed in 2020 to reflect the goal of eliminating TB in India.
• The program focuses on early diagnosis, free treatment, and reducing stigma associated with TB through awareness campaigns.
• It also includes innovations such as Nikshay Poshan Yojana, which provides nutritional support of Rs. 500 per month to TB patients.
• Universal Health Coverage (UHC):
• UHC ensures that all individuals and communities have access to essential health services without financial hardship.
• It is a core component of the World Health Organization's (WHO) Global Health Strategy and is part of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG 3.8).
• India's UHC efforts include programs like Ayushman Bharat, which provides health insurance coverage of Rs. 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
• Malaria Eradication:
• Malaria eradication involves strategies like the distribution of insecticide-treated bed nets (ITNs), indoor residual spraying (IRS), and the use of antimalarial drugs.
• India aims to eliminate malaria by 2030, as part of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) 2016-2030.
• While TB and malaria are both significant public health challenges, their eradication strategies are different and require separate interventions.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDG 3 focuses on ensuring healthy lives and promoting well-being for all at all ages.
• Under this goal, the target is to end the epidemics of AIDS, tuberculosis, malaria, and neglected tropical diseases by 2030.
• India's efforts to integrate TB services into the public health system are aligned with achieving this target.

The correct answer is Jalvahak.

Key Points

• Jalvahak is a scheme launched by the Union Government in December 2024 to incentivize cargo movement via inland waterways.
• The scheme aims to promote the use of environmentally friendly and cost-effective modes of transport for cargo, reducing dependence on road and rail networks.
• By utilizing inland waterways, the government seeks to reduce carbon emissions and enhance the efficiency of the logistics and transportation sector.
• The scheme is implemented under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways, which focuses on leveraging the potential of India's vast network of rivers for cargo transportation.
• It offers financial incentives and subsidies to cargo operators who use inland waterways for freight movement, thereby making the mode economically viable and competitive.

Additional Information

• Inland Waterways in India:
• India has a network of 111 National Waterways (NW), covering rivers, canals, backwaters, and creeks.
• The National Waterway-1 (NW-1), stretching along the Ganga River, is one of the most prominent inland waterways in India.
• Other notable waterways include National Waterway-2 (Brahmaputra River), National Waterway-3 (Kerala Backwaters), and National Waterway-16 (Barak River).
• Benefits of Inland Waterway Transport:
• It is a cost-efficient mode of transport compared to road and rail, especially for bulk cargo.
• Inland waterways have low energy consumption and produce fewer carbon emissions, contributing to sustainable development.
• They can reduce congestion on roads and railways, improving the overall efficiency of the logistics sector.
• Sagarmala Project:
• The Sagarmala initiative, launched by the Government of India, aims to enhance the port-led development and integrate coastal and inland waterways for cargo movement.
• It emphasizes modernizing ports, developing infrastructure, and promoting the use of inland waterways.
• Challenges in Inland Waterways:
• Issues such as dredging and sedimentation in rivers impact the navigability of waterways.
• Limited infrastructure and operational facilities for cargo handling and storage along waterways.
• Seasonal variations in water levels, especially during monsoons and dry seasons, affect the reliability of inland water transport.

Important Points

• Financial Support: The government provides financial incentives to operators using inland waterways, including subsidies for vessel operations and infrastructure development.
• Environmental Impact: Inland waterway transport significantly reduces pollution and carbon emissions compared to road and rail transport.
• Strategic Importance: Developing inland waterways enhances regional connectivity, especially in the North-Eastern states and areas with limited road and rail networks.
• Logistics Integration: The scheme aligns with India's efforts to create a robust and integrated logistics network for economic growth and development.

The correct answer is SDG India Index.

Key Points

• The SDG India Index is the world's first government-led sub-national measure of progress toward achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• It was launched by NITI Aayog, the policy think tank of the Government of India, in December 2018.
• The SDG India Index aims to measure the progress of Indian states and Union Territories (UTs) towards achieving the 17 SDGs adopted by the United Nations in 2015.
• The index is based on a set of nationally defined indicators derived from the 17 SDGs and their associated targets, ensuring alignment with global standards while addressing national priorities.
• It helps benchmark and track the performance of states and UTs, encouraging them to take ownership of the SDG agenda and foster healthy competition.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs are a set of 17 global goals adopted by all UN member states in 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• These goals address key global challenges, including poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice.
• Examples of SDGs include No Poverty (Goal 1), Quality Education (Goal 4), Gender Equality (Goal 5), and Climate Action (Goal 13).
• Role of NITI Aayog:
• NITI Aayog is responsible for monitoring and implementing the SDG framework in India and works in collaboration with states and UTs for the same.
• The organization acts as a policy think tank and provides technical support for achieving SDG targets in line with national priorities.
• Key Features of the SDG India Index:
• The index is updated annually to reflect the progress and challenges of states and UTs in achieving the SDGs.
• It uses a composite score between 0 and 100, where a higher score indicates better performance.
• Performance is categorized as Aspirant (0-49), Performer (50-64), Front Runner (65-99), and Achiever (100).
• Other Indices Inspired by SDG India Index:
• The methodology and approach of the SDG India Index have inspired similar indices at global and regional levels to monitor SDG progress.
• Examples include the SDG EU Index and other country-specific initiatives to track sustainable development.

Important Points

• Global SDG Monitoring:
• The Sustainable Development Report by the UN tracks global progress toward achieving the SDGs, ranking countries based on their performance.
• India’s SDG India Index complements this global effort by providing a localized perspective on SDG implementation.
• State and UT Contributions:
• Indian states and UTs play a critical role in implementing and achieving SDG targets, especially in areas like health, education, and infrastructure development.
• The SDG India Index fosters collaborative governance between the central and state governments to ensure progress.

The correct answer is Palak Gulia.

Key Points

• Palak Gulia, representing India, won the gold medal in the 10 m Air Pistol event (Women) at the Asian Games 2023, showcasing her exceptional shooting skills.
• The event took place in Hangzhou, China, as part of the 19th Asian Games, which saw participation from top shooters across Asia.
• Palak Gulia demonstrated a remarkable performance, achieving a score that surpassed all her competitors and secured the top podium position.
• This victory added to India’s medal tally at the Asian Games 2023, further highlighting the country’s prowess in shooting sports.
• The 10 m Air Pistol event is a precision shooting competition where participants aim at a target 10 meters away using an air pistol, requiring immense focus, control, and consistency.

Additional Information

• Asian Games 2023:
• The 19th Asian Games were held in Hangzhou, China, from September 23 to October 8, 2023.
• It featured athletes from various countries competing in 40 sports and 61 disciplines.
• India achieved a historic milestone, winning over 100 medals, including gold, silver, and bronze.
• The shooting events were one of the highlights of India’s performance, with several shooters delivering exceptional results.
• Palak Gulia:
• Palak Gulia is a young and talented shooter from India, who specializes in precision shooting disciplines such as the 10 m Air Pistol event.
• Her victory at the Asian Games 2023 marked her debut gold medal at a major international event.
• She has been trained under expert coaches and has participated in national and international shooting competitions prior to her Asian Games triumph.
• Other Indian Shooters at Asian Games 2023:
• Esha Singh: Another promising shooter from India, who has represented the country in various shooting events and contributed to India’s medal tally.
• Ramita: Known for her participation in shooting events, she has also showcased potential in international competitions.
• India’s shooting contingent performed exceptionally well in rifle, pistol, and shotgun events, contributing significantly to the overall medal tally.
• Shooting as a Sport:
• Shooting is categorized into rifle, pistol, and shotgun events, with various distances and formats.
• It requires athletes to demonstrate precision, stability, and mental strength under pressure.
• India has a strong tradition in shooting sports, producing Olympians and world champions such as Abhinav Bindra, Manu Bhaker, and Rahi Sarnobat.

Important Points

• 10 m Air Pistol Event:
• The event involves shooting at a target placed 10 meters away using an air pistol.
• It is conducted under strict regulations by organizations like the International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF).
• Athletes are judged based on accuracy, precision, and total score over a series of rounds.
• India has been investing in developing shooting infrastructure and coaching facilities, leading to improved performances in international competitions.
• Asian Games Medal Tally:
• India’s performance at the Asian Games 2023 was historic, crossing the 100-medal mark for the first time.
• Shooting, athletics, wrestling, and badminton were among the sports where India excelled.
• This achievement has boosted the morale of Indian athletes and strengthened India’s position in Asian sports.

The correct answer is 71.

Key Points

• The 2024 Paris Olympics marked a historic event for global sports, featuring athletes from over 200 countries competing across various disciplines.
• India's position on the medal tally at the Paris Olympics 2024 was recorded as 71st, reflecting its performance in terms of overall medals won among the participating nations.
• India secured a total of 12 medals, including 3 golds, 4 silvers, and 5 bronzes, showcasing commendable performances in sports such as archery, wrestling, and track events.
• The improvement in India's medal tally compared to previous Olympics was attributed to enhanced training facilities, government initiatives, and athlete-centric programs under schemes like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS).
• While India's ranking was 71st, countries like the United States, China, and Japan dominated the top positions on the medal table.

Additional Information

• Paris Olympics 2024:
• The 33rd Summer Olympics were held in Paris, France, from 26 July to 11 August 2024.
• This was the third time Paris hosted the event, having previously hosted the Olympics in 1900 and 1924.
• Over 10,500 athletes participated across 329 events in 32 sports categories.
• India's Performance in Olympics:
• India's best-ever performance at the Olympics came during the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, where it secured a total of 7 medals, including a historic gold in men's javelin by Neeraj Chopra.
• At the Paris 2024 Olympics, India continued its upward trajectory by winning 12 medals, reflecting the growing success of Indian athletes on the global stage.
• Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS):
• Launched by the Government of India in 2014, TOPS aims to provide financial and infrastructural support to elite athletes.
• It played a crucial role in preparing Indian athletes for the 2024 Paris Olympics, ensuring access to international training, coaching, and competitive exposure.
• Key Sports for India:
• India performed well in sports such as archery, boxing, wrestling, and hockey, which have traditionally been strongholds for the country.
• The inclusion of new events, such as breakdancing, also provided opportunities for Indian athletes to compete in unconventional disciplines.

Important Points

• Olympic Medal Table Rankings:
• The rankings are determined based on the number of gold medals won by a country, followed by silver and bronze medals.
• In the case of a tie, the total number of medals is considered for ranking.
• Host Country's Performance:
• France, as the host country, performed exceptionally well, finishing in the top 5 on the medal table.
• Hosting nations often invest heavily in sports infrastructure and athlete preparation, which boosts their performance.
• Historical Context:
• The Paris Olympics marked the 100th anniversary of the 1924 Paris Games, adding historical significance to the event.
• The 2024 Games also emphasized sustainability, with a commitment to reducing carbon emissions and promoting eco-friendly practices.

The correct answer is 3 phases.

Key Points

• Track events in athletics are categorized into sprints, middle-distance, and long-distance races, among others. These events are governed by distinct rules and consist of specific phases essential for athletes to follow.
• The key rules in track events revolve around 3 main phases: the starting phase, running phase, and finishing phase.
• Starting Phase: Athletes must start from a designated position, adhering to the rules specific to their event (e.g., crouch start for sprints). A false start can lead to disqualification.
• Running Phase: Athletes must stay in their lanes (for lane races) or follow the event’s specific rules (e.g., maintaining pace or position in long-distance races).
• Finishing Phase: Athletes must cross the finish line in accordance with the rules, ensuring their torso crosses first for a valid finish.
• These three phases—starting, running, and finishing—are integral to understanding track events and their rules.

Additional Information

• Starting Phase Details:
• In sprint events like 100m, 200m, and 400m, a crouch start is used, and athletes push off from blocks for maximum acceleration.
• A false start occurs if an athlete reacts to the starting gun in less than 0.1 seconds, leading to disqualification under World Athletics rules.
• Running Phase Details:
• Athletes in lane events must not step outside their assigned lanes. Doing so can result in disqualification.
• In middle- and long-distance races, athletes can move to the inner track after the first bend but must avoid interfering with others.
• Finishing Phase Details:
• The athlete's torso (not arms, legs, or head) must cross the finish line first to determine the winner.
• Photo-finish technology is often used in competitive races to ensure accurate results.
• Types of Track Events:
• Sprints: Short-distance races like 100m, 200m, and 400m.
• Middle Distance: Races like 800m and 1500m.
• Long Distance: Races like 5000m and 10,000m.
• Hurdles: Events like 110m hurdles (men) and 100m hurdles (women).
• Relays: Events like 4x100m and 4x400m relays.

Important Points

• Historical Significance: Track and field events date back to ancient Greece, with the Olympic Games being a prominent platform for these events.
• Modern Rules: Governed by World Athletics (formerly IAAF), which sets global standards for competition.
• Technological Advancements: Use of starting blocks, photo-finish technology, and electronic timing systems to ensure fairness and accuracy in modern track events.

The correct answer is To detect water pollutants.

Key Points

• The device "AroTrack" was launched by IIT Bombay in December 2024 to address critical environmental concerns.
• The primary function of AroTrack is to detect water pollutants, helping in monitoring and analyzing water quality in real-time.
• The device utilizes advanced sensors and IoT (Internet of Things) technology to identify contaminants, such as heavy metals, chemicals, and organic pollutants, in various water bodies.
• AroTrack is designed to promote sustainable water management by providing actionable data to authorities, industries, and researchers to mitigate pollution.
• This initiative aligns with India’s commitment to achieving clean water and sanitation under the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDG-6).

Additional Information

• Water Pollution in India:
• India faces severe water pollution issues, with contaminants such as industrial discharge, agricultural runoff, and untreated sewage entering water bodies.
• According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), over 70% of surface water in India is unfit for consumption.
• Pollutants like arsenic, lead, and nitrates pose significant health risks, leading to diseases such as cholera, diarrhea, and cancer.
• Technology Used in AroTrack:
• The device employs IoT-based sensors to monitor physical, chemical, and biological parameters of water quality.
• It can detect pollutants such as pH levels, turbidity, dissolved oxygen, and specific toxins in real-time.
• Data collected by AroTrack is transmitted to a centralized server, allowing for remote monitoring and analysis.
• Applications of AroTrack:
• Useful for municipalities to ensure the supply of safe drinking water to households.
• Helps industrial units comply with government pollution control norms.
• Plays a vital role in research and development for developing new water treatment techniques.
• Similar Initiatives in India:
• The Namami Gange Programme aims to rejuvenate the Ganga river by reducing pollution and ensuring water quality.
• The National Water Quality Monitoring Programme (NWQMP) monitors water quality across India’s rivers and lakes.
• The Jal Shakti Abhiyan focuses on water conservation, rainwater harvesting, and cleaning of water bodies.

Important Points

• Significance of Water Quality Monitoring:
• Regular monitoring helps identify pollution sources and trends over time.
• It supports decision-making for effective water resource management and policy formulation.
• Ensures compliance with national and international water quality standards, such as those outlined by the World Health Organization (WHO).
• Challenges in Water Pollution Control:
• Lack of adequate infrastructure for wastewater treatment.
• High costs associated with implementing advanced monitoring systems like AroTrack.
• Need for greater public awareness and participation in reducing pollution at the source.