SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 22 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• Option 1: "All of the cities in California is being affected by the rain yesterday" is incorrect because:
• The sentence uses incorrect tense and subject-verb agreement.
• "Is being affected" is grammatically incorrect for past events. Instead, "were affected" should be used to indicate a completed action in the past.
• The correct form of the sentence would be: "All of the cities in California were affected by the rain yesterday."
• Option 2: "Seven people were rescued from the fire" is correct. The sentence uses proper past tense and is grammatically accurate.
• Option 3: "Half of the boxes are empty" is correct. It uses proper plural subject-verb agreement and is grammatically accurate.
• Option 4: "Some of the TV programs are very interesting" is correct. It uses proper plural subject-verb agreement and is grammatically accurate.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Subject-Verb Agreement:
• The verb must agree with the subject in both number and tense.
• For example:
• Correct: "He runs every morning." (Singular subject matches singular verb)
• Correct: "They run every morning." (Plural subject matches plural verb)
• Past Tense Usage:
• Past tense is used to describe actions that have already been completed.
• Example: "She walked to the park yesterday."

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To identify the sentence that is free from error, let's analyze the prepositional and structural rules in each option:

• Option 1: She is senior than me by two years.
• Adjectives ending in "-ior" (such as senior, junior, superior, inferior, prior) are followed by the preposition "to," not "than."
• The sentence is erroneous.
• The correct sentence would be: "She is senior to me by two years."
• Option 2: He was prevented to go out by the guard.
• The verb "prevented" must be followed by the preposition "from" and a gerund (verb+ing), not an infinitive ("to go").
• The sentence is erroneous.
• The correct sentence would be: "He was prevented from going out by the guard."
• Option 3: I look forward to meet you soon.
• In the phrase "look forward to," the word "to" is a preposition, not part of an infinitive. Therefore, it must be followed by a noun or a gerund.
• The sentence is erroneous.
• The correct sentence would be: "I look forward to meeting you soon."
• Option 4: The manager, as well as his assistants, was late.
• When a subject is connected by phrases like "as well as," "along with," or "together with," the verb agrees only with the first subject. Since "The manager" is singular, the singular verb "was" is correct.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• Therefore, out of the given options, only sentence 4 is free from grammatical error.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The idiomatic expression "for fear of" means "because of the fear that something unpleasant might happen."
• In the given sentence, the witness is reluctant to testify because he fears retaliation.
• Therefore, the preposition "for" correctly completes the sentence.
• The complete sentence is: "The witness was reluctant to testify for fear of retaliation."

Therefore, the correct answer is for.

 

Correct Sentence: "The witness was reluctant to testify for fear of retaliation."

 

Additional Information

• For fear of: An idiomatic expression meaning "to avoid something bad that one is afraid of."
• From – Indicates source or origin and is incorrect in this context.
• Of – Cannot independently complete the sentence.
• In fear of – Although grammatically possible in some contexts, "for fear of" is the standard idiomatic expression used here.

The correct answer is 'Even though'.

 

Key Points

• The conjunction "Even though" is used to introduce a contrast or unexpected outcome.
• In this sentence, despite the warning of heavy rain, the outdoor ceremony proceeded. This indicates a contrast, making "Even though" the appropriate choice.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 do not fit the context because they do not convey contrast:
• Option 2 ("Because"): Indicates cause-effect, which is incorrect here.
• Option 3 ("Unless"): Indicates a condition, which is irrelevant to the meaning of the sentence.
• Option 4 ("Since"): Indicates cause or time, which does not align with the sentence's context of contrast.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "Even though the forecast warned of heavy rain, the outdoor ceremony proceeded as planned."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Because" explains a reason or cause, but the sentence requires a contrast.
• Option 3: "Unless" introduces a condition, which is irrelevant in this context.
• Option 4: "Since" indicates a reason or time, but does not fit the contrasting nature of the sentence.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The correctly spelt word is 'Humorous'.

• Humorous is an adjective that means 'causing laughter and amusement; funny'. (मज़ेदार)
• This word is spelled with a single 'M' and ends with '-ous'.
• Incorrect Options:
• Option 1: Humonirous - Incorrect spelling as it contains an extra 'I' and misspells the root word.
• Option 2: Humorious - Incorrect spelling as it omits the 'E' and changes the word structure.
• Option 4: Hummorious - Incorrect spelling as it doubles the 'M' and alters the correct form.

Therefore, the correct spelling is 'Humorous'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the usage of the word 'Humorous':

• Example 1: The comedian gave a humorous speech that had the audience laughing nonstop.
• Example 2: She always finds a humorous side to every difficult situation.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. 'made from wood'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "made from" is used when the material undergoes a transformation to create the final product.
• The sentence mentions "wood" as the material that has been processed to make paper, so "made from wood" is the correct option.
• Option 1: "made of wood" is incorrect because "made of" is used when the material is still recognizable in the final product, which is not the case here.
• Option 2: "made up from wood" is incorrect because "made up from" is not a valid phrase in standard English for this context.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence is not grammatically accurate.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "This paper is made from wood."

 

Additional Information

• "Made of": Used when the material retains its form in the final product. Example: "The table is made of wood."
• "Made from": Used when the material undergoes a transformation. Example: "Wine is made from grapes."
• "Made up of": Describes the composition of something. Example: "The team is made up of skilled players."

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. He had to duck to avoid the low-hanging branch.

Key Points

• The word "duck" has two meanings in English:
• Meaning 1: A waterbird with a broad blunt bill, short legs, and webbed feet. (हंस/बतख)
• Example: The mother duck led her ducklings to the water.
• Meaning 2: To lower the head or body quickly to avoid something. (झुकना)
• Example: He had to duck to avoid the low-hanging branch.
• In the given sentence, the word duck is used as a verb (to lower the head or body quickly) in Option 3, which is the correct homonym for the highlighted word.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. He had to duck to avoid the low-hanging branch.

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Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: The mother duck led her ducklings to the water. (बतख)
• This uses duck as a noun, referring to the waterbird.
• Example: The duck swam gracefully across the pond.
• Option 2: The children loved to feed the ducks at the park. (बतखें)
• This also uses duck as a noun, referring to the waterbird in plural form.
• Example: Ducks often gather near lakes to be fed by visitors.
• Option 4: The artist painted a beautiful picture of a duck. (बतख)
• This uses duck as a noun again, referring to the bird being painted.
• Example: The painting of the duck won first prize in the art competition.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Reverent.

Key Points

• The word "Reverent" means showing deep respect and admiration for someone or something. (गंभीर सम्मान)
• Example: The audience was silent and reverent during the teacher's farewell speech.
• In this context, "Reverent" is the best one-word substitute for "showing deep respect."
• The Hindi meaning of "Reverent" is "श्रद्धालु" or "सम्मानजनक."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Reverent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Polite (शिष्ट): Behaving in a respectful and considerate manner.
• Example: She is always polite to everyone, regardless of their behavior.
• Courteous (विनम्र): Showing good manners and respect for others.
• Example: The courteous waiter ensured we had a pleasant dining experience.
• Deferential (आदरपूर्ण): Showing humble submission and respect toward someone.
• Example: He was deferential to his elders during the family meeting.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Harmless.

Key Points

• The word "Deleterious" means causing harm or damage. It is often used to describe something that is harmful to health or well-being. (हानिकारक)
• Example: Smoking has a deleterious effect on your lungs.
• The correct antonym of deleterious is "Harmless", which means not causing any harm or injury. (अहानिकर)
• Example: The medicine is completely harmless and safe for children.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'deleterious' is 'harmless'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Harmless.

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Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Dangerous (खतरनाक): Likely to cause harm or injury.
• Example: Driving at high speeds on wet roads is very dangerous.
• Toxic (विषाक्त): Poisonous or harmful, especially to health.
• Example: The factory released toxic gases into the environment.
• Poisonous (विषैला): Containing poison or being very harmful.
• Example: Some mushrooms are poisonous and should not be eaten.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: He said that the machine operates automatically but had malfunctioned that morning.
• Key Conversions from Indirect to Direct:
• General Truth/Permanent State:
• The verb "operates" remains in the simple present tense because it describes a general fact or a permanent characteristic of the machine. When a statement is a universal/permanent truth, the tense does not necessarily back-shift even if the reporting verb is in the past.
• Tense Change (Past Perfect to Simple Past):
• The past perfect "had malfunctioned" in indirect speech typically converts back to the simple past "malfunctioned" in direct speech to represent a completed action in the past.
• Time Expression:
• The phrase "that morning" is converted back to "this morning" in direct speech.
• Structure: The conjunction "that" is removed, and the speaker's exact words are enclosed in quotation marks, preceded by a comma.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "He said, 'The machine operates automatically, but malfunctioned this morning.'"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because it uses "operated" (changing a general fact to a past event) and fails to change "that morning" to "this morning."
• Option 2: Incorrect because it uses "operated," which would normally back-shift to "had operated" in indirect speech, unlike the original sentence.
• Option 4: Incorrect because it uses the present continuous "is operating," which would change to "was operating" in indirect speech.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'anotate'.

• The correct spelling would be 'annotate'.
• The word 'annotate' is a verb that means 'to add notes to a text or diagram giving explanation or comment'. (टिप्पणी करना)
• For Example -
• The students were asked to annotate the article with their thoughts and observations.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'anotate'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other options - 

• Option 1: The teacher asked the students to annotate the text.
• Correct spelling and usage. No error.
• Option 2: Please annotate any important points in the article.
• Correct spelling and usage. No error.
• Option 4: Use a pencil to annotate your notes neatly.
• Correct spelling and usage. No error.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Tense Identification: The original sentence "were made" is in the Simple Past Passive voice.
• Active Voice Rule: To convert Simple Past Passive to Active, the structure changes from "was/were made + to + V1" to "made + [Object] + V1 (bare infinitive)".
• Special Rule for "Make": In the passive voice, "make" is followed by a full infinitive (to write). However, in the active voice, "make" is a causative verb followed by a bare infinitive (write without "to").
• Subject Placement: Since the passive sentence does not specify who "made" the students do the work, a placeholder subject like "They" is introduced.
• Maintaining Meaning: Option 1 correctly applies the causative verb rule and maintains the original past tense context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "They made the students write a detailed summary of the complex text."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "The students wrote..." removes the causative element ("made"), changing the meaning from being forced to doing it voluntarily.
• Option 3: "made the students to write" is grammatically incorrect in the active voice; "make" requires the bare infinitive (no "to").
• Option 4: "The students were made that..." is an ungrammatical and awkward construction that does not follow standard English syntax.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Direct Speech: She said, "I have completed my task."
• Key Conversions:
• Pronoun Change:
• The first-person pronoun "I" changes to the third-person "she" because it refers to the speaker.
• The possessive adjective "my" changes to "her" to match the subject.
• Tense Change (Present Perfect to Past Perfect):
• Since the reporting verb is in the past tense ("said"), the present perfect "have completed" must be changed to the past perfect "had completed".
• Conjunction:
• The conjunction "that" is used to connect the reporting verb with the reported speech, and the quotation marks are removed.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "She said that she had completed her task."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because it keeps the present perfect tense ("has completed") instead of back-shifting to the past perfect.
• Option 3: Incorrect because it fails to change the first-person pronouns ("I" and "my"), which changes the meaning of who completed the task.
• Option 4: Incorrect because it fails to change the pronoun "I" and the tense "have completed."

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Tense Identification: The original sentence "Did... release" is an interrogative (question) form of the Simple Past tense.
• Passive Voice Rule: To convert a Simple Past question into Passive Voice, the structure is: Was/Were + Subject + V3 (Past Participle)?
• Subject-Object Swap: The object of the active sentence ("the highly anticipated sequel...") becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• Verb Conversion: The auxiliary "Did" is replaced by "Was" (because "sequel" is singular), and the base verb "release" changes to its V3 form, "released."
• Adverb Placement: The adverb "finally" is placed before the main verb "released" to maintain the flow and meaning of the original sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Was the highly anticipated sequel to his award-winning novel finally released by the renowned author?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Has... been finally released" changes the tense to Present Perfect, which is not the tense of the original sentence.
• Option 3: "Was... been released" is grammatically incorrect because "was" and "been" cannot be used together in this manner for the Simple Past.
• Option 4: "Did... be released" is an incorrect construction; "did" is not used as an auxiliary in standard passive voice transformations.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The sentence is originally affirmative: "It is essential for strong bones and teeth, and also plays a role in muscle contraction and nerve transmission."
• To form a negative interrogative, we use Isn't it for the first clause and Doesn't it for the second clause.
• Options 1 and 2 are negative statements, not interrogatives, so they are incorrect.
• Option 3 uses Shouldn't, which changes the meaning of the sentence.
• Option 4 correctly preserves both meaning and structure, making it the right choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Isn't it essential for strong bones and teeth, and doesn't it play a role in muscle contraction and nerve transmission?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "It isn't essential..." – This is a statement, not a question.
• Option 2: "It should not be essential..." – Incorrect modal usage, changes meaning.
• Option 3: "Shouldn't it be essential..." – Grammatically valid but shifts the sense of necessity.
• Option 4: "Isn't it essential... and doesn't it play..." – Correct negative interrogative form, matches the original meaning.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The original sentence is affirmative: "Copper aids in the formation of red blood cells."
• To form an interrogative, we use the auxiliary verb does with singular subjects like "copper."
• Option 1 ("Do copper aid...") is incorrect because "copper" is singular, so "do" should be replaced with "does."
• Option 2 ("Is copper aiding...") changes the tense to present continuous, which alters the meaning.
• Option 4 ("Has copper aided...") shifts the tense to present perfect, which is not equivalent to the original sentence.
• Option 3 correctly preserves the tense and meaning while forming a proper interrogative.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "Does copper aid in the formation of red blood cells?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Do copper aid..." – Incorrect subject-verb agreement.
• Option 2: "Is copper aiding..." – Changes tense to present continuous.
• Option 3: "Does copper aid..." – Correct interrogative form, matches original meaning.
• Option 4: "Has copper aided..." – Changes tense to present perfect, not equivalent.

The correct answer is: Option (1) i.e. Inadequate.

Key Points

• The word "sufficient" means enough to meet the needs or requirements. (पर्याप्त)
• The most appropriate antonym for "sufficient" is "inadequate", which means not enough to meet the needs or requirements. (अपर्याप्त)
• Example: The resources provided were inadequate to complete the project.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Inadequate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained:

• Abundant (प्रचुर):
• Example: The region is abundant in natural resources.
• Excessive (अत्यधिक):
• Example: Excessive consumption of sugar can lead to health problems.
• Absent (अनुपस्थित):
• Example: He was absent from the meeting due to illness.

The correct answer is: Option (3) i.e. Too much of a good thing.

Key Points

• The idiom "Too much of a good thing" means that something beneficial can become harmful if taken or consumed in excess. This idiom highlights the importance of moderation, especially in the context of consuming essential metals in the right amounts. (अच्छी चीज़ की अधिकता का नुकसान)
• Example: While vitamins are essential for health, too much of a good thing can lead to toxicity.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Too much of a good thing.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained:

• A bitter pill to swallow (कड़वा घूंट पीना):
• This idiom refers to an unpleasant fact or situation that is difficult to accept.
• Example: Receiving criticism was a bitter pill to swallow.
• A stitch in time saves nine (समय पर किया गया कार्य बाद में बड़ा नुकसान बचा सकता है):
• This idiom means that taking immediate action can prevent larger problems later on.
• Example: Repairing the roof before the rainy season can prevent major leaks; a stitch in time saves nine.
• Every cloud has a silver lining (हर बुराई में कुछ अच्छाई होती है):
• This idiom means that there is something positive even in difficult situations.
• Example: Although the project was canceled, it allowed us to explore new opportunities; every cloud has a silver lining.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• A) It strengthens bones and teeth.
• This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage states that calcium, not iron, is responsible for strengthening bones and teeth.
• B) It supports muscle relaxation.
• This cannot be inferred from the passage. Magnesium is linked to muscle and nerve function, not iron.
• C) It protects cells from damage.
• This cannot be inferred from the passage. Selenium, a trace metal, functions as an antioxidant protecting cells, not iron.
• D) It helps in the formation of hemoglobin which transports oxygen.
• This can be inferred from the passage. Iron is explicitly mentioned as a key component of hemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen throughout the body.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because calcium, not iron, strengthens bones and teeth.
• Option 2: Incorrect because magnesium, not iron, supports muscle relaxation.
• Option 3: Incorrect because selenium, not iron, protects cells from damage.
• Option 4: Correct because iron is essential for hemoglobin formation and oxygen transport.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph follows a chronological and logical sequence of building a primitive shelter, moving from foundation to completion.
• Sentence P is the first sentence as it establishes the starting point: finding a location and setting up the primary supports:
• "He started leaning big branches on a solid wood after discovering a natural hollow in the ground."
• Sentence Q follows as it describes the next logical step in construction—adding a secondary frame to the main supports:
• "He made a frame for the walls by weaving smaller branches between the major supports."
• Sentence R is the third sentence because it explains the finishing touches applied to the exterior for protection:
• "To provide insulation, he covered the structure with thick grass and leaf layers."
• Sentence S is the fourth as it describes the final result and the utility of the shelter once finished:
• "He was shielded from the rain and wind within the completed shelter."
• The correct sequence is PQRS.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"He started leaning big branches on a solid wood after discovering a natural hollow in the ground. He made a frame for the walls by weaving smaller branches between the major supports. To provide insulation, he covered the structure with thick grass and leaf layers. He was shielded from the rain and wind within the completed shelter."

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph follows a logical flow starting from the introduction of a project, its purpose, the effort required to build it, and finally its reception.
• Sentence P is the first sentence as it introduces the main subject—the city's new public transport system—and sets the context:
• "A wonder of contemporary urban planning was the city's new public transport system."
• Sentence Q follows as it uses the pronoun "It" to refer back to the transport system and explains the goals/objectives of the project:
• "It was intended to lessen traffic jams and enhance the city's air quality overall."
• Sentence R is the third sentence because it provides specific details about the implementation, such as the time frame and the investment required:
• "The project needed a significant government investment and took more than ten years to finish."
• Sentence S is the fourth as it concludes the narrative by describing the public's reaction and acknowledging the cost mentioned in the previous sentence:
• "The system was a massive hit with commuters, even if it was expensive."
• The correct sequence is PQRS.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"A wonder of contemporary urban planning was the city's new public transport system. It was intended to lessen traffic jams and enhance the city's air quality overall. The project needed a significant government investment and took more than ten years to finish. The system was a massive hit with commuters, even if it was expensive."

The correct answer is: 2) Melancholic.

Key Points

• The word "Sanguine" means optimistic or hopeful, especially in a difficult situation. (आशावादी)
• Example: Despite the financial challenges, she remained sanguine about the future.
• The correct antonym is "Melancholic," which refers to being sad, gloomy, or depressed. (उदासीन)
• Example: He had a melancholic expression after hearing the bad news.
• The two words have opposite meanings, where "sanguine" conveys positivity and "melancholic" conveys negativity or sadness.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 2) Melancholic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cheerful (प्रसन्न): Being noticeably happy and optimistic.
• Example: She was cheerful throughout the day, spreading joy to everyone around her.
• Confident (आत्मविश्वासी): Feeling or showing certainty about something.
• Example: He is confident that his team will win the match.
• Buoyant (उत्साहित): Able to stay positive or cheerful even in difficult times.
• Example: Despite the challenges, her buoyant attitude kept the team motivated.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Embarrassedly.

Key Points

• The word "shamefacedly" means feeling or showing shame or embarrassment. (शर्मिंदा होकर)
• Example: He admitted his mistake shamefacedly in front of the entire team.
• "Embarrassedly" refers to feeling self-conscious or awkward due to shame or discomfort. (शर्मिंदा होकर)
• Example: She smiled embarrassedly as she realized her mistake during the presentation.
• In the given sentence, the father laughed in a manner that showed he was feeling embarrassed, which makes "Embarrassedly" the correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Embarrassedly.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Boldly (साहसपूर्वक): Acting with confidence and without fear.
• Example: The soldier boldly stepped forward to protect his comrades.
• Arrogantly (घमंडी तरीके से): Behaving in a manner that shows an exaggerated sense of self-importance.
• Example: He arrogantly dismissed everyone's opinion during the meeting.
• Cheerfully (खुशी-खुशी): Acting in a happy and optimistic manner.
• Example: She cheerfully greeted everyone at the party.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. loon, lune.

Key Points

• The word "loon" refers to a large water bird known for its eerie, wailing calls. (पानी का पक्षी)
• Example: The haunting cry of the loon echoed across the lake in the early morning.
• The word "lune" refers to something shaped like a crescent or resembling the moon. (अर्धचंद्राकार या चंद्र के समान)
• Example: The pale lune of the moon cast a soft glow over the quiet landscape.
• In the given sentence, "loon" is used to describe the bird making a wailing sound, and "lune" is used to describe the crescent moon rising over the lake.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. loon, lune.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Lune, Loon (अर्धचंद्राकार, पानी का पक्षी): The words are swapped incorrectly in the given sentence, making this option unsuitable.
• Option 2: Loon, Loon (पानी का पक्षी, पानी का पक्षी): Using "loon" in both blanks doesn’t make sense in context as the second blank refers to the moon.
• Option 3: Lune, Lune (अर्धचंद्राकार, अर्धचंद्राकार): Using "lune" in both blanks doesn’t fit as the first blank refers to a bird, not the moon.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. A person who loves and enjoys food.

Key Points

• The word "gourmand" means a person who is extremely fond of eating and often eats excessively. (भोजन प्रेमी)
• Example: As a gourmand, she always seeks out the best restaurants in every city she visits.
• The correct word here is "gourmand", which specifically refers to someone who delights in good food and often indulges in it. (भोजन का आनंद लेने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: The gourmand savored every course of the elaborate meal prepared by the chef.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. A person who loves and enjoys food.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: A person who avoids food (भोजन से बचने वाला व्यक्ति): This refers to someone who deliberately avoids eating or has an aversion to food, which does not align with the meaning of "gourmand."
• Example: A person fasting for religious reasons may avoid food entirely during specific periods.
• Option 3: A type of exotic food (एक प्रकार का विदेशी भोजन): This option refers to unique or unusual types of food that are considered rare or luxurious, but it is unrelated to the meaning of "gourmand."
• Example: Truffles are considered an exotic food delicacy in many cuisines.
• Option 4: A type of cooking technique (पाक कला की एक प्रकार की तकनीक): This option suggests a specific method of preparing or cooking food, which does not match the definition of "gourmand."
• Example: Sous-vide is a cooking technique that involves vacuum-sealing food and cooking it at a precise temperature.

Given:

Decimal number = 0.45

Formula used:

Convert decimal to fraction and simplify

Calculation:

⇒ 0.45 = 45/100

⇒ Divide numerator and denominator by 5

⇒ 45/100 = 9/20

∴ Simplest form = 9/20

Given: A person walks 10 km north, then 25 km west, and finally 10 km south.

Thus, the person is 25 km from his starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: M, O, Q, S, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, U will complete the sequence.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: A politician wants to win votes by promising unrealistic freebies. What’s the responsible approach?

1. Make those promises anyway to gain short-term support → Does not follow (Because it is unethical and unsustainable.)
2. Avoid campaigning → Does not follow (Because it avoids responsibility rather than addressing the issue.)
3. Blame previous administrations → Does not follow (Because it shifts responsibility instead of providing solutions.)
4. Communicate realistic benefits and phased implementation → Follows (Promoting honesty, transparency, and practical planning reflects responsible leadership.)

Thus, 'Communicate realistic benefits and phased implementation' is the best course of action.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 4:64::5:?

The logic followed here is:

Logic: a : a²

4 : 64 → 4² = 64

Similarly,

5 : ? → 52 = 125

⇒ ? = 125

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The first quantity is related to its unit of measurement.

Magnetic flux : Weber → Magnetic flux is measured in Weber.

Similarly,

Resistance : Ohm → Resistance is measured in Ohm.

Thus, Resistance is related to Ohm.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: GERMAN :NAMREG :: INDONESIA:?

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Thus, INDONESIA is related to  AISENODNI.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

RATS : STAR

YXALG : ?

Logic used:

Rearrangement (reverse order pattern)

⇒ RATS → STAR (letters reversed)

⇒ Apply same to YXALG

⇒ YXALG → GLAXY

∴ Required answer = GLAXY

Given: MARIGOLD: DMARIGOL:: JASMINE:?

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Thus, JASMINE is related to EJASMIN.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: 1012 1214 1416 

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 1618 is the correct options from the given alternatives.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Deepak is 10^th from the left.

Sachin is 15^th from the right.

Number of boys between them = 8

So, positions gap = 8 + 1 = 9

Total number of boys = 10 + 15 + 8 = 33

Thus, the total number of boys in the row is 33.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

The pattern followed here is:

Pattern: +0, -1

1. DDC 

The letter-cluster follows the pattern +0, -1.

2. FFE 

The letter-cluster follows the pattern +0, -1.

3. HHG

The letter-cluster follows the pattern +0, -1.

4. KKI 

The letter-cluster does not follow the pattern +0, -1.

Thus, KKI is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Thus, option 1 is exactly the same as the one given.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Thus, option 3 is exactly the same as the one given.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: You are interviewing a candidate who answers perfectly but behaves arrogantly.

1. Only knowledge → Does not follow (Because attitude is also important in professional settings.)
2. Only attitude → Does not follow (Because competence and knowledge are essential for the role.)
3. A balance of both competence and humility → Follows (A good candidate should have both skills and a professional attitude.)
4. Personal dislike for arrogance → Does not follow (Personal bias should not influence professional decisions.)

Thus, 'A balance of both competence and humility' is the best criterion.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: Length of 5 rectangles J, K, L, M and N is compared. Length of no two rectangles is same.

1. Length of no rectangle is less than M.

__ > __ > __ > __ > M

2. Length of K is less than only three rectangles.

__ > __ > __ > K > M

3. Length of L is not more than N but more than J.

N > L > J > K > M

Thus, length of 3 rectangles is less than L.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a row facing south (not necessarily in the same order).

1. P is fifth to the right of U. 2. P is to the immediate right of T.

3. S is fifth to the left of T.

The above statement cannot be satisfied in case I, so it is eliminated.

4. V is an immediate neighbour of P.

The above statement cannot be satisfied in case III, so it is eliminated.

5. W is third to the right of S.
6. Only two girls sit between Q and V.

R, the only person left will occupy the vacant position.

 

Thus, W is sitting to the immediate right of R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: G started walking straight from a point X. He turned 3 times right during his journey. Finally, he is facing towards west.

Thus, he started from North direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: R walks 20 meters in east direction. He turns left and walks 7 meters. He turns right and walks 15 meters. He finally turns right and walks 7 meters.

Thus, he is 35 m in the east direction from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: A and R started walking from a same point. A walks 8 km towards north. R walks 7 km towards south. A turns right and walks 8 km.

Distance between A and R =   

 = 17 km

Thus, A is 17 km to the North-east of R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

BODMAS Rule:

Given equation: 5 × 7 + 1 - 9 ÷ 3 = ?

Now after replacing the numbers 1 and 5, we get:

⇒ 1 × 7 + 5 - 9 ÷ 3 = ? 

⇒ 1 × 7 + 5 - 3 = ?   

⇒ 7 + 5 - 3 = ?   

⇒ 12 - 3 = ?

⇒ 9 = ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

BODMAS Rule:

Given equations: 

I. 7 × 3 + 2 - 6 ÷ 1 = 9

After interchanging 2 and 7, we get: 

⇒  2 × 3 + 7 - 6 ÷ 1 = 9 

⇒  2 × 3 + 7 - 6 = 9 

⇒  6 + 7 - 6 = 9 

⇒  13 - 6 = 9 

⇒  7 ≠ 9 

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

II. 2 × 8 + 7 - 9 ÷ 3 = 40

After interchanging 2 and 7, we get: 

⇒ 7 × 8 + 2 - 9 ÷ 3 = 40

⇒ 7 × 8 + 2 - 3 = 40

⇒ 56 + 2 - 3 = 40

⇒ 58 - 3 = 40

⇒ 55 ≠ 40

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Thus, both I and II equation will NOT be correct by interchanging the given two numbers.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

'SHIRT' is coded as '59'

'WATCH' is coded as '78'. 

Similarly,

Thus, 'RING' is coded as 58 in that code language.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: NIGHT

1. THING → NIGHT → Can be formed.
2. HINGE → NIGHT → Cannot be formed as 'T' is missing.
3. KNIGHT → NIGHT → Can be formed.
4. THRINGE → NIGHT → Can be formed.

Thus, NIGHT cannot be formed using the letters of the given word HINGE.

Hence, the correct option is “Option 2”.

Given: GUARD

1. GUAREN → GUARD → Cannot be formed as 'D' is missing. 2. ARGUED → GUARD → Can be formed. 3. DRAUGE → GUARD → Can be formed. 4. AROUGED → GUARD → Can be formed.

Thus, GUARD cannot be formed using the letters of the word GUAREN.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Shortcut Trick

To find the point of intersection, equate the two expressions for y.

−x + 10 = x − 4

⇒ 2x = 14 ⇒ x = 7

Substitute x = 7 into the second equation: y = 7 − 4 = 3.

The intersection point is (7, 3).

∴ The correct answer is (7, 3).

Alternate Method

Given:

Equation of first drone path: y = −x + 10

Equation of second drone path: y = x − 4

Formula Used:

The intersection point of two lines is the set of coordinates (x, y) that satisfies both linear equations simultaneously.

Calculations:

Let Equation 1 be: x + y = 10

Let Equation 2 be: x − y = 4

Add both equations to eliminate y:

⇒ (x + y) + (x − y) = 10 + 4

⇒ 2x = 14

⇒ x = 7

Substitute the value of x in Equation 1:

⇒ 7 + y = 10

⇒ y = 10 − 7

⇒ y = 3

The coordinates are (7, 3).

∴ The correct answer is (7, 3).

Additional Information

Slope-Intercept Form

The equation y = mx + c represents a line where m is the slope and c is the y-intercept.

Perpendicular Lines

Two lines are perpendicular if the product of their slopes is −1. Here, m₁ = −1 and m₂ = 1, so (−1) × 1 = −1.

Simultaneous Equations

Solving a system of linear equations yields the coordinates of the common point where the lines cross on a graph.

Given:

Number = 15876

Formula Used:

Unit digit of square root depends on unit digit of perfect square

Calculation:

⇒ 126 × 126 = 15876

⇒ Square root = 126

⇒ Unit digit = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Given:

A's investment = ₹2000

B's investment = ₹3000

Total profit = ₹1000

Formula Used:

Profit share ratio = Investment of A : Investment of B

B's share = (B's ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ Profit share ratio = 2000 : 3000

⇒ Profit share ratio = 2 : 3

⇒ Total ratio = 2 + 3 = 5

⇒ B's share = (3 ÷ 5) × 1000

⇒ B's share = ₹600

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Given:

A's investment = ₹6000

A's time = 6 months

B's investment = ₹8000

B's time = 4 months

Formula Used:

Profit-sharing ratio = (Investment of A × Time of A) : (Investment of B × Time of B)

Calculation:

⇒ A's contribution = ₹6000 × 6

⇒ A's contribution = ₹36000

⇒ B's contribution = ₹8000 × 4

⇒ B's contribution = ₹32000

⇒ Ratio = ₹36000 : ₹32000

⇒ Ratio = 36000 ÷ 4000 : 32000 ÷ 4000

⇒ Ratio = 9 : 8

∴ The correct answer is 9 : 8.

Given:

Number of observations = 20

Incorrect average = 35

Wrong value = 25

Correct value = 45

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of observations

Calculation:

⇒ Incorrect sum = 35 × 20 = 700

⇒ Correct sum = 700 - 25 + 45

⇒ Correct sum = 720

⇒ Correct average = 720 ÷ 20

⇒ Correct average = 36

∴ The correct answer is 36.

Given:

First increase = 25%

Second increase = 20%

Formula Used:

Net increase % = a + b + (a × b ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Net increase = 25 + 20 + (25 × 20 ÷ 100)

⇒ Net increase = 45 + (500 ÷ 100)

⇒ Net increase = 45 + 5

⇒ Net increase = 50%

∴ The correct answer is 50%.

Given:

Present population = 24200

Rate = 10%

Time = 2 years

Formula Used:

Present = Past × (1 + r/100)^t

Calculation:

⇒ 24200 = P × (1.1)²

⇒ 24200 = P × 1.21

⇒ P = 24200 ÷ 1.21

⇒ P = 20000

∴ The correct answer is 20000.

Given:

30% of first = 45% of second

Formula Used:

Percentage = (value ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ (30 ÷ 100) × First = (45 ÷ 100) × Second

⇒ 30 × First = 45 × Second

⇒ First ÷ Second = 45 ÷ 30

⇒ First ÷ Second = 3 ÷ 2

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2.

Shortcut Trick

Use the Ratio Method for successive discounts:

10% discount = 1/10 ⇒ Ratio is 10 : 9

5% discount = 1/20 ⇒ Ratio is 20 : 19

Overall Ratio = (10 × 20) : (9 × 19) = 200 : 171

200 units = ₹1200 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹6

171 units = 171 × 6 = ₹1026

∴ The correct answer is ₹1026.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹1200

First Discount (D₁) = 10%

Second Discount (D₂) = 5%

Formula Used:

Final Price = MP × (100 − D₁)/100 × (100 − D₂)/100

Calculations:

⇒ Price after 10% discount = 1200 − (10% of 1200)

⇒ Price after 10% discount = 1200 − 120 = ₹1080

⇒ Price after 5% discount = 1080 − (5% of 1080)

⇒ Price after 5% discount = 1080 − 54

⇒ Final Price = ₹1026

∴ The final purchase price of the article is ₹1026, which matches Option (2).

∴ The correct answer is ₹1026.

Additional Information

Single Equivalent Discount

For two successive discounts of a% and b%, the single effective discount is calculated as [a + b − (a × b / 100)]%.

Marked Price (MP) and Selling Price (SP)

Selling Price is the final amount paid after deducting all discounts from the Marked Price: SP = MP − Discount.

Discount Percentage

Discount % = (Total Discount / Marked Price) × 100.

Given:

Discount = 15%

Selling Price = Rs. 850

Formula Used:

Marked Price = Selling Price ÷ (1 - Discount ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Marked Price = 850 ÷ (1 - 15 ÷ 100)

⇒ Marked Price = 850 ÷ (1 - 0.15)

⇒ Marked Price = 850 ÷ 0.85

⇒ Marked Price = Rs. 1000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1000.

Given:

Length of train = 120 m

Speed of man = 6 km/h

Time = 6 s

Formula Used:

Relative speed = Distance ÷ Time

1 km/h = 5/18 m/s

Calculation:

⇒ Relative speed = 120 ÷ 6 = 20 m/s

⇒ Speed of man = 6 × 5 ÷ 18 = 5/3 m/s

⇒ Speed of train = 20 + 5/3

⇒ Speed of train = (60 + 5) ÷ 3 = 65/3 m/s

⇒ Speed of train = 65/3 × 18 ÷ 5

⇒ Speed of train = 78 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 78.

Given:

Speed = 72 km/h

Time = 20 s

Length of tunnel = 200 m

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Total distance = Length of train + Length of tunnel

1 km/h = 5/18 m/s

Calculation:

⇒ Speed = 72 × 5 ÷ 18 = 20 m/s

⇒ Distance = 20 × 20 = 400 m

⇒ Length of train = 400 - 200

⇒ Length of train = 200 m

∴ The correct answer is 200.

Given:

Radius = 3.5 m

Formula Used:

Curved surface area of hemisphere = 2 × π × r²

Calculation:

⇒ Area = 2 × 3.14 × (3.5)²

⇒ Area = 2 × 3.14 × 12.25

⇒ Area = 2 × 38.465

⇒ Area = 76.93 m²

∴ The correct answer is 76.93.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the base and the perpendicular height of the parallelogram from the given coordinates.

The base AB lies on the x-axis from x = 0 to x = 4, so Base (b) = 4 − 0 = 4 units.

The vertices C(5,3) and D(1,3) have a y-coordinate of 3, while A and B have a y-coordinate of 0.

Height (h) = 3 − 0 = 3 units.

⇒ Area = Base × Height = 4 × 3 = 12 sq. units.

∴ The correct answer is 12 sq. units.

Alternate Method

Given: Coordinates of the plot are A(0,0), B(4,0), C(5,3), and D(1,3).

Formula Used: Area of a polygon with coordinates (x₁, y₁), (x₂, y₂)... is given by the Shoelace Formula: 0.5 × |(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₄ + x₄y₁) − (y₁x₂ + y₂x₃ + y₃x₄ + y₄x₁)|

Applying the Shoelace Formula:

⇒ Sum1 = (0×0) + (4×3) + (5×3) + (1×0) = 0 + 12 + 15 + 0 = 27

⇒ Sum2 = (0×4) + (0×5) + (3×1) + (3×0) = 0 + 0 + 3 + 0 = 3

⇒ Area = 0.5 × |27 − 3|

⇒ Area = 0.5 × 24

⇒ Area = 12 sq. units.

∴ The correct answer is 12 sq. units.

Additional Information

Properties of a Parallelogram

Opposite sides are equal and parallel. The area is simply the product of any base and its corresponding altitude (Base × Height).

Distance Formula

The distance between two points (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) is given by d = √((x₂ − x₁)² + (y₂ − y₁)²).

Coordinate Geometry Area

For any quadrilateral with vertices (x₁, y₁) to (x₄, y₄), the area can be found by splitting it into two triangles or using the determinant-based Shoelace theorem.

Given:

Length of hall = 6 m

Breadth of hall = 4 m

Tile size = 60 cm × 40 cm

Formula Used:

Number of tiles = Area of hall ÷ Area of one tile

Calculation:

⇒ Area of hall = 6 × 4 = 24 m²

⇒ Tile size = 0.6 m × 0.4 m

⇒ Area of tile = 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.24 m²

⇒ Number of tiles = 24 ÷ 0.24

⇒ Number of tiles = 100

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Given:

Large block = 60 cm × 40 cm × 20 cm

Small block = 10 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm

Formula Used:

Number of blocks = (L ÷ l) × (B ÷ b) × (H ÷ h)

Calculation:

⇒ 60 ÷ 10 = 6

⇒ 40 ÷ 10 = 4

⇒ 20 ÷ 10 = 2

⇒ Number of blocks = 6 × 4 × 2

⇒ Number of blocks = 48

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Given:

Length = 1.2 m

Breadth = 1 m

Depth = 0.6 m

Time = 1.5 hours = 90 minutes

Formula Used:

Volume = Length × Breadth × Depth

Rate = Volume ÷ Time

1 m³ = 1000 liters

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = 1.2 × 1 × 0.6

⇒ Volume = 0.72 m³

⇒ Volume = 0.72 × 1000 = 720 liters

⇒ Rate = 720 ÷ 90

⇒ Rate = 8 liters per minute

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Given:

Side of square base = 5 m

Slant height = 6 m

Formula Used:

Lateral surface area of square pyramid = $\frac{1}{2} × Perimeter of base × Slant height$

Perimeter of square = 4 × Side

Calculation:

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × 5 = 20

⇒ Lateral surface area = $\frac{1}{2} × 20 × 6$

⇒ Lateral surface area = 10 × 6

⇒ Lateral surface area = 60 m²

∴ The correct answer is 60 m².

Given:

Base of the triangular concrete: sides 10 m, 10 m, 12 m

Height of the pyramid: 6 m

Formula Used:

Area of triangle = √[s(s - a)(s - b)(s - c)], where s = (a + b + c) ÷ 2

Volume of pyramid = (1/3) × Base Area × Height

Calculation:

⇒ s = (10 + 10 + 12) ÷ 2 = 16 m

⇒ Area of triangle = √[16(16 - 10)(16 - 10)(16 - 12)]

⇒ Area of triangle = √[16 × 6 × 6 × 4]

⇒ Area of triangle = √[2304]

⇒ Area of triangle = 48 m²

⇒ Volume of pyramid = (1/3) × 48 × 6

⇒ Volume of pyramid = 96 m³

∴ The correct answer is 96 m³.

Given:

Curved surface area = 330 cm²

Radius = 7 cm

Formula Used:

Curved surface area of cone = π × r × l

l² = r² + h²

Calculation:

⇒ 330 = π × 7 × l

⇒ 330 = 22/7 × 7 × l

⇒ 330 = 22 × l

⇒ l = 330 ÷ 22 = 15

⇒ l² = 225

⇒ r² = 49

⇒ h² = 225 - 49 = 176

⇒ h = √176

⇒ h = 13.26 cm

∴ The correct answer is 13.26.

Given:

Sides of triangular base = 6 cm, 8 cm, 10 cm

Height of prism = 15 cm

Formula Used:

Area of triangle = 1/2 × base × height

Volume of prism = Area of base × height

Calculation:

⇒ 6² + 8² = 36 + 64 = 100

⇒ √100 = 10

⇒ Area = 1/2 × 6 × 8

⇒ Area = 24 cm²

⇒ Volume = 24 × 15

⇒ Volume = 360 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 360.

Given:

Side of cube = a

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = 4/3 × π × r³

Radius of inscribed sphere in cube = a/2

Radius of circumscribed sphere about cube = (√3 × a)/2

Calculation:

⇒ Inner radius = a/2

⇒ Outer radius = (√3 × a)/2

⇒ Ratio = (a/2)³ ÷ ((√3 × a)/2)³

⇒ Ratio = (a³/8) ÷ (3√3 × a³/8)

⇒ Ratio = a³ ÷ (3√3 × a³)

⇒ Ratio = 1 ÷ 3√3

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 3√3.

Given:

First value = 2

Second value = 6

Third value = 4

Formula Used:

Fourth proportional = (Second value × Third value) ÷ First value

Calculation:

⇒ Fourth proportional = (6 × 4) ÷ 2

⇒ Fourth proportional = 24 ÷ 2

⇒ Fourth proportional = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Shortcut Trick

The average of the squares of the first 10 natural numbers is given by A = [(n + 1)(2n + 1)] ÷ 6.

For n = 10, A = (11 × 21) ÷ 6 = 38.5.

If each number is multiplied by a factor k, its square is multiplied by k².

Here, numbers are doubled (k = 2), so each square becomes 2² = 4 times the original square.

New Average = 4 × A = 4 × 38.5 = 154.

∴ The correct answer is 154.

Alternate Method

Given: First 10 natural numbers (1, 2, 3, ..., 10), Average of squares = A.

Formula Used: Sum of squares of first n natural numbers = [n(n + 1)(2n + 1)] ÷ 6.

⇒ Sum of squares of first 10 numbers = [10 × (10 + 1) × (2 × 10 + 1)] ÷ 6

⇒ Sum = (10 × 11 × 21) ÷ 6 = 385

⇒ Original Average A = 385 ÷ 10 = 38.5

⇒ When each number (x) is doubled and squared, the term becomes (2x)² = 4x²

⇒ New Sum = 4 × (1² + 2² + ... + 10²) = 4 × 385 = 1540

⇒ New Average = 1540 ÷ 10 = 154

∴ The correct answer is 154.

Additional Information

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of first n natural numbers is calculated using the formula S_n = n(n + 1) ÷ 2.

Sum of Cubes of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of the cubes of the first n natural numbers is the square of their sum: [n(n + 1) ÷ 2]².

Effect of Scaling on Average

If every observation in a data set is multiplied by a constant k, the mean (average) is also multiplied by k.

Given:

Number of people = 4

Increase in average = 2

Age of person leaving = 24

Formula Used:

Total = Average × Number of people

Calculation:

⇒ Increase in total age = 2 × 4 = 8

⇒ New total = Old total + 8

⇒ New total = Old total − 24 + New person's age

⇒ Old total − 24 + New person's age = Old total + 8

⇒ New person's age − 24 = 8

⇒ New person's age = 32

∴ The correct answer is 32.

The correct answer is Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The inscription of Pratihara king Nagabhata was discovered in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh. This inscription is of historical importance as it provides insights into the achievements and reign of the Pratihara dynasty.
• The inscription highlights the military conquests of Nagabhata I, who was a key ruler of the Pratihara dynasty. He is credited with successfully defending his territories against Arab invasions.
• The Pratiharas, also known as Gurjara-Pratiharas, played a crucial role in the early medieval period of Indian history, particularly in northern India. They were known for their contributions to art, architecture, and culture.
• The Gwalior inscription is written in Sanskrit and provides valuable information about the socio-political and economic conditions of the time, as well as the administrative capabilities of the Pratihara rulers.
• Gwalior, located in present-day Madhya Pradesh, served as a significant political and cultural center during the reign of the Pratiharas and is renowned for its historic monuments and inscriptions.

Additional Information

• Pratihara Dynasty:
• The Pratihara dynasty was a prominent ruling dynasty in northern India during the 8^th–11^th centuries. They are also known as the Gurjara-Pratiharas.
• Their empire extended from Gujarat to Bengal at its peak, and they were known for their military strength in resisting Arab invasions.
• They contributed significantly to temple architecture, particularly in regions like Khajuraho and Kannauj.
• Gwalior:
• Gwalior is a historic city in Madhya Pradesh, known for its rich cultural heritage and architectural marvels like the Gwalior Fort and ancient temples.
• The Gwalior inscription of Nagabhata I is one of the many historical records found in this city, shedding light on India's medieval history.
• Other Options:
• Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh: Known for its Buddhist stupas and sculptures, Amaravati was not associated with the Pratihara dynasty.
• Agra, Uttar Pradesh: While historically significant, Agra is not linked to inscriptions of the Pratihara dynasty.
• Kandahar, Afghanistan: Kandahar has historical significance due to its role in ancient and medieval trade routes but is unrelated to the Pratihara inscriptions.
• Significance of Inscriptions:
• Inscriptions serve as primary sources of historical information, providing details about rulers, their achievements, and the socio-economic conditions of their times.
• The Gwalior inscription of Nagabhata I is a testament to the administrative and military prowess of the Pratihara dynasty.

The correct answer is Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.

Key Points

• The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is a permanent organ of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), which is focused on addressing terrorism, separatism, and extremism in the region.
• The headquarters of RATS is located in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, and it plays a pivotal role in fostering regional cooperation on security matters.
• RATS promotes intelligence sharing, joint counter-terrorism exercises, and the coordination of operations between member states to combat transnational threats.
• SCO, established in 2001, is an intergovernmental organization that primarily aims to enhance political, economic, and security cooperation among its members, which include countries like China, Russia, India, Pakistan, and others.
• Through RATS, SCO member states work together to counter issues such as terrorist financing, cyberterrorism, and the proliferation of extremist ideologies.

Additional Information

• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
• The SCO is a political, economic, and security alliance originally founded by China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Tajikistan in 2001. It later expanded to include India and Pakistan in 2017.
• SCO's goals include promoting peace, stability, and development in the region, as well as combating terrorism, drug trafficking, and organized crime.
• It is considered one of the world's largest regional organizations, covering a significant portion of the Eurasian continent.
• RATS Structure and Functions:
• RATS acts as a coordination center for member states to combat terrorism, separatism, and extremism.
• It facilitates regular meetings, the exchange of intelligence, and the development of joint strategies to counter regional security challenges.
• RATS also focuses on issues related to cybersecurity, such as addressing cyberterrorism and ensuring safe digital communication.
• Key SCO Initiatives:
• Joint military exercises such as the “Peace Mission” drills, aimed at strengthening counter-terrorism capabilities.
• Promotion of regional economic connectivity through initiatives like the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) and regional trade agreements.
• Cultural and educational exchanges to foster mutual understanding and cooperation among member states.
• Important Points about Other Options:
• BRICS: A group of five major emerging economies – Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa – focused on economic cooperation and development but not directly associated with RATS.
• Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC): Comprises 57 member states and is focused on promoting solidarity among Islamic countries; it does not have a specific anti-terror body like RATS.
• SAARC: The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation aims to promote development and cooperation in South Asia but has no direct affiliation with RATS.

Important Points

• SCO Member States: The organization consists of eight permanent members: China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Observer states include Iran, Afghanistan, Belarus, and Mongolia.
• RATS Achievements: RATS has contributed to enhancing regional security through intelligence sharing, capacity building, and joint counter-terrorism operations.
• Significance of SCO: With its focus on security and economic integration, SCO plays a critical role in stabilizing Central Asia and fostering cooperation between Eurasian nations.
• Challenges: Despite its achievements, SCO faces challenges such as differing political ideologies among members and the complex geopolitical environment of the region.

The correct answer is Chinese.

Key Points

• The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) recognizes two official languages: Chinese and Russian. Among these, Chinese is one of the most prominently used languages.
• The inclusion of Chinese as an official language reflects the geopolitical influence of China, as it is one of the founding members of the SCO and a major regional power.
• The SCO was founded in 2001 in Shanghai, and its official languages were established to facilitate communication among member states.
• The language is used for official documentation, meetings, and communications within the organization, ensuring inclusivity for Chinese-speaking nations.
• Countries like China, which is a permanent member, actively promote the use of Chinese as a medium to strengthen their diplomatic and cultural ties with other member nations.

Additional Information

• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
• The SCO is a political, economic, and security alliance comprising eight member countries: China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
• The organization was officially established on 15 June 2001, and its headquarters are located in Beijing, China.
• The SCO focuses on promoting regional cooperation in areas such as security, trade, culture, and development.
• The observer states of the SCO include Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran, and Mongolia, while countries like Turkey and Sri Lanka are dialogue partners.
• Official Languages of the SCO:
• The SCO recognizes Chinese and Russian as its official languages for all its operations and communications.
• These languages were chosen due to the significant role played by China and Russia in the formation and functioning of the SCO.
• Both languages are used for documentation, translations, and official meetings within the organization.
• China's Role in the SCO:
• China is one of the founding members of the SCO and plays a key role in shaping its agenda and priorities.
• The country's economic and diplomatic influence is evident in its promotion of Chinese language and culture within the organization.
• China also contributes significantly to the SCO's economic and security initiatives.
• Importance of Official Languages:
• The use of official languages like Chinese and Russian ensures effective communication and collaboration among member states.
• It allows for the standardization of documents and facilitates better understanding during multilateral meetings.
• These languages also reflect the cultural and political influence of the founding member countries.

Important Points

• Russian as an Official Language:
• In addition to Chinese, Russian is also an official language of the SCO, reflecting the significant role of Russia in the organization.
• Russia uses the SCO platform to enhance its regional influence and foster cooperation with Central Asian countries.
• Multilingual Cooperation:
• Despite the official use of Chinese and Russian, member countries often collaborate in other languages for bilateral or multilateral initiatives.
• This multilingual approach promotes inclusivity and respects the linguistic diversity of member and observer states.

The correct answer is Mithun Chakraborty.

Key Points

• Mithun Chakraborty was honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2022. This award is one of the most prestigious recognitions in the Indian film industry.
• The Dadasaheb Phalke Award was instituted in 1969 and is regarded as the highest award in Indian cinema, named after the "Father of Indian Cinema," Dadasaheb Phalke.
• Mithun Chakraborty, popularly known as "Disco King," is a legendary actor, producer, and politician who has contributed immensely to Indian cinema, particularly in Bollywood, as well as in Bengali cinema.
• He is renowned for his roles in iconic films such as "Disco Dancer," "Mrigayaa" (for which he won a National Award), and many other hits that established him as a versatile actor.
• The Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award recognizes his outstanding contribution to Indian cinema over the decades, celebrating his career spanning more than four decades.

Additional Information

• Dadasaheb Phalke Award:
• It is the highest award in Indian cinema and is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony. The award is administered by the Directorate of Film Festivals, under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
• The recipient of the award receives a Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) medallion, a shawl, and a cash prize.
• Prominent past recipients include legendary personalities like Prithviraj Kapoor, Satyajit Ray, Raj Kapoor, Lata Mangeshkar, and Amitabh Bachchan.
• Mithun Chakraborty:
• Born on June 16, 1950, in Barisal, Bangladesh (formerly East Pakistan), Mithun Chakraborty is one of the most celebrated actors in Indian cinema.
• He made his debut in the 1976 film "Mrigayaa," which earned him his first National Film Award for Best Actor.
• He rose to fame with his dance performances and his role in "Disco Dancer" (1982), a film that made him a global icon, especially in countries like the Soviet Union.
• In addition to acting, Mithun is also a producer and a former Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha.
• Other Nominees or Contenders:
• Nagarjuna: A prominent actor in Telugu cinema, known for his versatility and iconic performances in films like "Annamayya" and "Shiva."
• Paresh Rawal: A veteran actor known for his comic roles and powerful dramatic performances in Bollywood films like "Hera Pheri" and "OMG: Oh My God!"
• Salman Khan: A Bollywood superstar recognized for his blockbuster hits such as "Bajrangi Bhaijaan" and "Sultan."
• Significance of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award:
• The award celebrates the lifetime achievements of individuals who have made significant contributions to the growth and development of Indian cinema.
• It highlights the importance of Indian cinema as a cultural and creative force globally.
• The recognition inspires artists and filmmakers to strive for excellence in their craft.

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

• Nayab Singh Saini was elected as the Chief Minister of Haryana in October 2024. This marked a significant political development in the state, showcasing a shift in leadership.
• Haryana, a state in northern India, is known for its significant contributions to agriculture, sports, and industrial growth. It has been a politically active state with frequent leadership changes.
• The election of Nayab Singh Saini highlights his growing popularity and the trust of the people in his leadership and policies.
• Haryana has been a key state in India's political landscape, and its leadership plays a crucial role in shaping regional and national policies, especially in areas like agriculture and industry.
• The decision to elect Nayab Singh Saini as Chief Minister reflects the political dynamics and priorities of the state electorate in 2024.

Additional Information

• About Haryana:
• Haryana was carved out of Punjab in 1966 and is one of India's youngest states.
• The state is often referred to as the "Breadbasket of India" because of its significant contribution to India's agriculture, especially wheat and rice production.
• Haryana is also known for its industrial hubs like Gurugram and Faridabad, which contribute to India's economic growth.
• The state has been a leader in sports, producing several Olympians and world champions in wrestling, boxing, and other disciplines.
• Nayab Singh Saini:
• Nayab Singh Saini is a prominent politician in Haryana known for his grassroots connection and focus on development.
• He has held various political positions before becoming the Chief Minister, showcasing his administrative capabilities and leadership skills.
• His political career has been marked by efforts to improve infrastructure, education, and healthcare in the state.
• Other States in the Options:
• Meghalaya: A northeastern state known for its scenic beauty and tribal culture. The state capital is Shillong.
• Karnataka: A southern state with Bengaluru as its capital. Known for IT hubs and cultural heritage.
• Andhra Pradesh: A southern state known for its rich history, cultural landmarks, and the city of Amaravati as its capital.
• Haryana's Political Importance:
• The state's proximity to Delhi makes it a politically significant region in India.
• Haryana often plays a crucial role in national politics due to its strategic location and economic contributions.

Important Points

• Chief Minister's Role:
• The Chief Minister is the head of the state government and is responsible for the implementation of state policies and administration.
• The CM also plays a key role in coordinating with the central government on various schemes and policies.
• Political Landscape in Haryana:
• Haryana has seen a mix of political leadership from various parties, reflecting a diverse political culture.
• Key issues in the state include agriculture, industrial development, and employment generation.

The correct answer is Sanjeev Kumar Singla.

Key Points

• Sanjeev Kumar Singla has been appointed as the Ambassador of India to France in October 2024.
• Sanjeev Kumar Singla is a senior officer from the Indian Foreign Service (IFS), which is responsible for managing India’s external relations.
• Previously, he served as the Ambassador of India to Israel, where he played a critical role in strengthening India-Israel relations.
• His appointment to France comes at a time when India and France are deepening their strategic partnership, particularly in the areas of defense, space, energy, and technology.
• The role of an Ambassador is crucial in representing India’s interests in bilateral and multilateral dialogues with France, one of India’s key allies in Europe.

Additional Information

• India-France Relations:
• India and France have a strategic partnership established in 1998 focusing on defense, nuclear energy, and space cooperation.
• France has been a key supplier of defense equipment to India, including the Rafale fighter jets.
• Both countries collaborate closely on climate change initiatives and were key partners in the International Solar Alliance (ISA).
• France is one of India’s top trading partners in Europe, with significant bilateral trade in sectors like aerospace, pharmaceuticals, IT, and agriculture.
• Role of an Ambassador:
• An Ambassador represents the interests of their country in the host nation and works to strengthen bilateral relations.
• They also play a critical role in facilitating economic, cultural, and political exchanges between nations.
• They act as a liaison between the host government and their own government, addressing diplomatic issues and fostering cooperation.
• Indian Foreign Service (IFS):
• The IFS is one of the central civil services of India, responsible for managing India’s external affairs.
• IFS officers are trained to handle diverse aspects of foreign policy, such as trade negotiations, cultural diplomacy, and consular services.
• France’s Global Importance:
• France is a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC), making it a significant player in global diplomacy.
• It is a leading member of the European Union (EU), contributing heavily to its economic and political policies.
• France is also a part of major international forums like the G7, G20, and NATO.

Important Points

• France’s Role in India’s Energy Security:
• France has been a key partner in India’s nuclear energy program through agreements on civil nuclear cooperation.
• The Jaitapur Nuclear Power Project in Maharashtra, developed in collaboration with France, is one of the largest nuclear power projects in the world.
• India-France Space Collaboration:
• Both nations have collaborated on numerous space missions, including satellite development and launch vehicle technology.
• The ISRO-CNES partnership (CNES being the French space agency) has been instrumental in Earth observation and climate monitoring.

The correct answer is Kerala High Court.

Key Points

• Kerala High Court: In March 2025, a division bench of the Kerala High Court comprising Justice C S Sudha raised concerns about the extent of state interference in regulating violence depicted in visual media. This query emerged due to debates about balancing artistic freedom and societal impact.
• Freedom of Expression: The court highlighted the significance of Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the freedom of speech and expression, while also questioning whether this freedom can be curtailed to limit violent imagery in visual media.
• Social Responsibility: The bench emphasized the potential impact of violence in visual media on societal behavior, particularly its influence on young and impressionable minds, sparking debates on ethical filmmaking and censorship.
• Regulatory Framework: The court explored the role of existing regulatory mechanisms like the Cinematograph Act, 1952, and the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) in maintaining a balance between creative freedom and societal interests.
• Kerala's Cultural Perspective: Kerala, known for its vibrant film industry, often engages in debates around the intersection of culture, media, and law. The High Court's observations reflect this ongoing discourse on responsible filmmaking and media representation.

Additional Information

• Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution:
• Guarantees freedom of speech and expression to citizens of India.
• While this freedom is fundamental, it is subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) for purposes such as public order, decency, morality, and sovereignty of India.
• Cinematograph Act, 1952:
• This Act governs the certification of films for public exhibition in India.
• The Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is the regulatory authority that determines the suitability of a film for public viewing based on various criteria, including depictions of violence.
• It plays a crucial role in implementing censorship guidelines.
• Impact of Visual Media:
• Visual media, including films and television, has a profound influence on societal behavior and norms.
• Studies indicate that prolonged exposure to violent content can normalize aggression and desensitize audiences to real-world violence.
• Debates around media regulation often center on the need to balance creative freedom with social responsibility.
• Kerala's Film Industry:
• Kerala is renowned for its progressive and socially conscious cinema, often addressing themes like caste, gender, and political issues.
• The state's filmmakers frequently navigate the intersection of artistic expression and societal impact, making it a hub for discussions on media ethics.

Important Points

• Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC):
• The CBFC classifies films into categories like U (Universal), UA (Parental Guidance), and A (Adult), based on their content.
• It aims to ensure that films adhere to cultural and legal norms while respecting creative liberties.
• Judicial Oversight:
• Indian courts often intervene in cases where freedom of expression and public interest clash, ensuring that both are upheld in balance.
• Judgments like the Kerala High Court's observations contribute to the evolving discourse on media regulation.
• Relevance of Media Ethics:
• Media ethics emphasize the responsibility of creators to produce content that is socially constructive.
• This includes adhering to standards of decency, accuracy, and fairness, particularly in visual media.

The correct answer is Ministry of Finance.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is a flagship financial inclusion program launched by the Government of India on 28^th August 2014.
• The scheme aims to provide universal access to banking facilities, including basic savings bank accounts, financial literacy, and access to credit, insurance, and pension services.
• The Ministry of Finance oversees its implementation, ensuring effective coordination across banks, financial institutions, and other stakeholders.
• The program is specifically designed to target the unbanked population in rural and urban areas, helping them integrate into the formal financial system.
• Under PMJDY, beneficiaries receive zero-balance savings accounts, a RuPay debit card, and accidental insurance cover of up to Rs. 2 lakhs. Additionally, an overdraft facility of up to Rs. 10,000 is provided to eligible account holders.

Additional Information

• Key Features of PMJDY:
• The scheme is aimed at providing universal access to banking services for every household in the country.
• It includes benefits such as direct benefit transfers (DBT), social security schemes like PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and PM Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), and pension schemes like the Atal Pension Yojana (APY).
• Accounts opened under PMJDY have grown substantially over the years, with over 50 crore beneficiaries as of 2023.
• Ministry of Finance:
• The Ministry of Finance is one of the key ministries in the Government of India, responsible for managing the country's economic policy, government finances, and financial regulations.
• It oversees various departments, including the Department of Financial Services, which plays a pivotal role in implementing schemes like PMJDY.
• The Ministry also ensures the success of financial inclusion initiatives by collaborating with public sector banks, private banks, and regional rural banks (RRBs).
• Impact of PMJDY:
• PMJDY has significantly contributed to financial inclusion by bringing millions of unbanked individuals into the formal banking system.
• It has facilitated the implementation of direct benefit transfers, reducing leakages in subsidy disbursements and promoting transparency.
• The scheme has also empowered women and rural populations by providing them with access to financial services, enabling economic empowerment.
• Other Relevant Ministries:
• Ministry of Home Affairs: Responsible for internal security and law enforcement.
• Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare: Oversees agricultural development and welfare schemes for farmers.
• Ministry of Defence: Manages the defense and security of the nation.

Important Points

• The PMJDY scheme is considered the world's largest financial inclusion program, recognized globally for its scale and impact.
• It has played a crucial role in implementing the JAM trinity (Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile), which is central to India's digital economy framework.
• The scheme has been instrumental in providing financial stability to economically weaker sections, especially during crises like the COVID-19 pandemic.
• PMJDY accounts are integrated with Aadhaar, ensuring the authenticity of beneficiaries and reducing duplication.