SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 24 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Voyager.

Key Points

• The word "Voyager" refers to a person who travels to distant or unknown places, especially across seas or space. (यात्री)
• Example: The voyager set sail across the Atlantic in search of new lands.
• Voyager is the most appropriate word to describe someone who travels to distant lands with the intent of exploration or discovery. (यात्री)
• Example: Ancient voyagers played a crucial role in mapping the world.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Voyager.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Explorer (अन्वेषक): A person who travels to discover new places or investigate unknown areas.
• Example: The explorer ventured deep into the Amazon rainforest to study its biodiversity.
• Wanderer (भटकने वाला): A person who moves about aimlessly or without a fixed destination.
• Example: The wanderer roamed the streets, searching for inspiration for his next painting.
• Adventurer (साहसिक यात्री): A person who seeks excitement and takes risks, often in daring journeys or activities.
• Example: The adventurer climbed the highest peaks and crossed treacherous rivers during his expedition.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The error is in the phrase "saw it as essentials."
• The word "it" refers back to the "geometry class," which is a singular noun.
• In English, a singular complement should match the singular noun it describes. Therefore, the plural noun "essentials" should be replaced by the singular adjective "essential."
• Alternatively, if using a noun, one would say "as an essential," but the adjective form "essential" is the most natural fit in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "When asked why students had enrolled in the geometry class, 85% of them saw it as essential."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "When asked why students had enrolled" – This part is correct; the Past Perfect tense is used appropriately to describe an action (enrolling) that happened before the asking.
• Option 2: "in the geometry class," – This prepositional phrase is used correctly to specify the subject of enrollment.
• Agreement: Always ensure that pronouns (it) and their following descriptors (essential) agree in number with the antecedent (geometry class).

The correct answer is 'enigmatic'.

Key Points

• The word "enigmatic" means puzzling or mysterious, which fits the context of the professor's remarks being difficult to decipher.
• Options like "translucent" and "verbose" do not align with the idea of being hard to understand or mysterious.
• Arbitrary refers to something based on random choice or personal whim, which does not match the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "The professor's remarks were so enigmatic that even seasoned scholars found them difficult to decipher."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Translucent" refers to allowing light to pass through but not detailed shapes, which does not fit the sentence's meaning.
• Option 3: "Arbitrary" implies randomness or lack of reason, which does not match the context of the professor's remarks.
• Option 4: "Verbose" means using more words than necessary, which does not convey the idea of being difficult to decipher in a puzzling way.

The correct answer is: Reject.

Key Points

• The word "Renounce" means to formally give up or abandon something, such as a right, claim, or possession. (त्यागना)
• Example: He decided to renounce his inheritance and donate it to charity.
• "Reject" means to refuse to accept, agree to, or consider something. (अस्वीकार करना)
• Example: She rejected the job offer because it didn't align with her career goals.
• Both "Renounce" and "Reject" share similar meanings in the context of refusing or giving up something, making "Reject" the most appropriate synonym for "Renounce."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Reject.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Adopt (अपनाना): To take up or start to use or follow something, such as an idea, method, or behavior.
• Example: They adopted a new strategy to improve sales.
• Accept (स्वीकार करना): To consent to receive or agree to something.
• Example: He accepted the invitation to the wedding graciously.
• Welcome (स्वागत करना): To greet someone or something in a friendly and positive manner.
• Example: The host welcomed all the guests warmly.

The correct answer is 'lie'.

Key Points

• The word "lie" means to recline or rest in a horizontal position. It is the correct word in this context.
• The verb "lie" is intransitive, meaning it does not require a direct object.
• Option 2: "lye" is incorrect because "lye" refers to a chemical substance, not an action.
• Option 3: "lay" is incorrect because "lay" is a transitive verb that requires an object (e.g., "lay the book on the table").
• Option 4: "lei" is incorrect because "lei" refers to a Hawaiian garland of flowers, not an action.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "She decided to lie down and rest for a while."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "lye" is a noun referring to a chemical substance, not a verb.
• Option 3: "lay" is often confused with "lie." However, "lay" requires a direct object, whereas "lie" does not.
• Option 4: "lei" is a noun referring to a Hawaiian garland, and it does not fit the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is: Knowledge.

Key Points

• The word "Wisdom" refers to the quality of having experience, knowledge, and good judgment; it is a deep understanding of life and its complexities. (बुद्धिमत्ता)
• Example: The wise old man shared his wisdom about the importance of kindness.
• "Knowledge" signifies information, understanding, and skills acquired through experience or education. It is an integral part of wisdom. (ज्ञान)
• Example: Her vast knowledge of history helped her excel in her studies.
• Hence, the synonym of "Wisdom" is "Knowledge".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Knowledge.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Ignorance (अज्ञान): Lack of knowledge, understanding, or awareness.
• Example: His ignorance about the local customs caused a few misunderstandings.
• Cunning (चतुराई): Skill in achieving one's ends through deceit or evasion.
• Example: The fox is often depicted as a cunning animal in fables.
• Foolishness (मूर्खता): Lack of good sense or judgment; unwise behavior.
• Example: His foolishness led him to make impulsive decisions that he later regretted.

The correct answer is 'by 5 meters'.

Key Points

• The correct phrase for describing dimensions of a room is "by", which indicates width and length.
• The phrase "on" is incorrect for this context as it does not describe dimensions.
• The phrase "of" is also not suitable, as it does not convey the intended meaning.
• The phrase "at" is incorrect, as it refers to a location or point, not dimensions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "The room is 5 meters by 5 meters."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "of 5 meters" is incorrect as it suggests ownership or a characteristic, not dimensions.
• Option 3: "at 5 meters" is incorrect as it refers to a position or point, not dimensions.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence does not use the appropriate word.

The correct answer is 'with a knife'.

Key Points

• The preposition "with" is used to indicate the instrument or tool used to perform an action.
• The sentence describes an action ("opened the package") and specifies the tool ("a knife") used for this action.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "He opened the package with a knife."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "up a knife" is incorrect because "up" does not convey the intended meaning in this context.
• Option 3: "off a knife" is incorrect because "off" does not fit the sentence grammatically or contextually.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence uses the incorrect preposition "by," which should be replaced with "with."

The correct answer is: Option 3, i.e. Police busted a smuggling ring in the area.

Key Points

• The word "ring" is a homonym, which means it has multiple meanings but the same spelling and pronunciation. (समस्वर शब्द)
• English Meaning: A circular band, typically made of metal, worn as an ornament or a token of marriage or betrothal.
• Hindi Meaning: अंगूठी
• Example: She wore a diamond ring on her left hand.
• In the context of the correct option, "ring" refers to a group of people involved in criminal activities. (गैंग)
• English Meaning: A group or network, especially one engaging in illegal activities.
• Hindi Meaning: गिरोह
• Example: Police uncovered a drug smuggling ring operating in the city.
• Hence, the homonym of the highlighted word is correctly used in Option 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3, i.e. Police busted a smuggling ring in the area.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: She wore a diamond ring on her left hand. (अंगूठी)
• Meaning: A circular band worn as jewelry.
• Example: She bought a gold ring for her engagement.
• Option 2: He proposed with a beautiful engagement ring. (अंगूठी)
• Meaning: A circular band symbolizing commitment or marriage.
• Example: The engagement ring sparkled in the sunlight.
• Option 4: The golden ring sparkled under the lights. (अंगूठी)
• Meaning: A circular band made of gold, worn as jewelry.
• Example: The golden ring was a family heirloom.

The correct answer is: Daze.

Key Points

• The word "Daze" refers to a state of stunned confusion or bewilderment. (अचंभे की स्थिति)
• Example: After hearing the shocking news, she sat in a daze, unable to react.
• The word "Daze" is used to describe mental disorientation or a temporary inability to think clearly, often caused by shock or surprise. (स्तब्धता)
• Example: The sudden accident left him in a daze, struggling to process what had happened.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Daze.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Shock (झटका): A sudden or unexpected event causing emotional or physical disturbance.
• Example: The news of her resignation came as a shock to everyone.
• Surprise (आश्चर्य): A feeling of amazement or astonishment caused by something unexpected.
• Example: The surprise birthday party left her speechless.
• Stun (स्तब्ध करना): To shock or daze someone, often temporarily making them unable to react.
• Example: The loud explosion stunned everyone in the area.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Reporting Verb: "Said to" changes to "told" in indirect speech because it is followed by an object ("his wife").
• Conjunction: The comma and inverted commas are replaced by the conjunction "that".
• Pronoun Change: The first-person pronoun "I" (referring to the king) changes to the third-person "he".
• Tense Change: Since the reporting verb is in the past ("told"), the verbs in the reported speech must shift back:
• Present Perfect "have already conquered" changes to Past Perfect "had already conquered".
• Present Simple "possess" changes to Past Simple "possessed".

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "The king told his wife that he had already conquered all the neighbouring kingdoms and possessed all the wealth therein."

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect because it fails to change "has" (which should be "had") to the past perfect, even though it correctly changed "possessed".
• Option 3: Incorrect because it fails to change "possesses" to the past tense ("possessed").
• Option 4: Incorrect because it retains the present tense for both verbs ("has" and "possesses"), which is grammatically incorrect when the reporting verb is in the past.

The correct answer is 'in'.

Key Points

• The preposition "in" is used to describe being deeply engaged or absorbed in something, such as an activity or object.
• The sentence indicates that the subject was intensely focused on the book, which makes "in" the most appropriate choice.
• Option 1: "with" is incorrect because it does not convey the sense of deep absorption.
• Option 3: "at" is incorrect as it suggests a location or point, not absorption.
• Option 4: "for" is incorrect because it implies purpose or intention, not absorption.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "He was so absorbed in the book that he didn't notice the bell."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "with" is typically used to indicate accompaniment or a tool, and does not fit the context of absorption.
• Option 3: "at" is used to describe a location or target, which is not applicable here.
• Option 4: "for" is used to indicate purpose or benefit, which does not align with the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice using the Simple Past Tense ("was made").
• In the passive sentence, "The board" is the receiver of the action, and "a strong shareholder backlash" is the agent/cause of the action.
• Identify the Tense: The passive structure was/were + made corresponds to the Simple Past active verb "made."
• Structure Change:
• Passive: Object + was/were + made + to + infinitive + [agent].
• Active: Subject (Agent) + made + Object + bare infinitive (without "to").
• Note that when "make" is used in the active voice as a causative verb, the following verb (reconsider) does not take "to." Therefore, "was made to reconsider" becomes "made the board reconsider."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "A strong shareholder backlash made the board reconsider the proposal."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The board reconsidered..." – Incorrect because it removes the causative element ("made"), changing the meaning from being forced to acting independently.
• Option 3: "A strong shareholder backlash was made..." – Incorrect because it implies the backlash itself was being forced to reconsider, which is logically backwards.
• Option 4: "...the board was forced..." – Incorrect because this is still in the Passive Voice.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Reporting Verb: The reporting verb "said" remains unchanged as there is no specific object (listener) mentioned.
• Conjunction: The comma and inverted commas are removed, and the conjunction "that" is added to introduce the reported speech.
• Tense Change: When the reporting verb is in the past tense ("said"), the future continuous tense "will be installing" must be changed to its past equivalent, "would be installing".
• Sentence Structure: The rest of the sentence ("the workers" and "the new equipment") remains the same as there are no pronouns or time expressions that require shifting in this specific context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "The supervisor said that the workers would be installing the new equipment."

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect because it fails to backshift the modal "will" to "would".
• Option 3: Incorrect because it changes the tense to Past Perfect Continuous ("had been installing"), which would only be correct if the direct speech was in the Present Perfect Continuous or Past Continuous.
• Option 4: Incorrect because it changes the tense to Past Continuous ("were installing"), which alters the original future-focused meaning of the supervisor's statement.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Countanance'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Countenance'.
• The word 'Countenance' is a noun which means 'facial expression or support'. (चेहरा या समर्थन)
• For Example -
• Her calm countenance gave no hint of the stress she was under.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Countanance'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Presentiment - a feeling that something (usually bad) is about to happen (पूर्वाभास)
• Commensurate - corresponding in size, degree, or proportion (समानुपातिक)
• Deprecate - to express disapproval of (निंदा करना)

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The original sentence "They are building a new shopping mall" is in the Present Continuous Tense.
• Identify the Tense: The active form uses is/am/are + verb-ing. When converting this to the passive voice, the structure changes to is/am/are + being + V3 (past participle).
• Identify the Subject and Object:
• Subject: They
• Object: A new shopping mall
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "A new shopping mall" at the beginning. Since it is singular, use "is being built."
• Add the preposition "by" followed by the agent "them" (the objective case of 'they').

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "A new shopping mall is being built by them."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "A new shopping mall has been built..." – Incorrect because it changes the tense to Present Perfect.
• Option 3: "A new shopping mall is built..." – Incorrect because it changes the tense to Simple Present.
• Option 4: "A new shopping mall was being built..." – Incorrect because it changes the tense to Past Continuous.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The original sentence "Did she read the book?" is an Interrogative sentence in the Simple Past Tense.
• Identify the Tense: The active form uses Did + Subject + V1. In the passive voice, the Simple Past structure for questions is Was/Were + Subject + V3 (past participle) + by + Agent?
• Identify the Subject and Object:
• Active Subject: She (becomes the agent "her")
• Active Object: The book (becomes the passive subject)
• Since "the book" is singular, we use the auxiliary verb "Was."
• The past participle (V3) of "read" is also spelled "read" (pronounced "red").

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "Was the book read by her?"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The book was read by her?" – Incorrect because it follows an Assertive structure (Subject + Verb) instead of the Interrogative structure (Verb + Subject) required for a question.
• Option 2: "Had the book been read..." – Incorrect because it changes the tense to Past Perfect.
• Option 4: "Is the book read..." – Incorrect because it changes the tense to Simple Present.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The scientist told the students that light travels faster than sound.
• Universal Truth Rule: If the reported speech expresses a universal truth, scientific fact, or habitual action, the tense of the verb remains unchanged even if the reporting verb is in the past tense. Since "light travels faster than sound" is a scientific fact, the present tense is retained in both direct and indirect speech.
• Reporting Verb (Indirect to Direct): The verb "told" (followed by an object "the students") typically converts back to "said to" in direct speech.
• Punctuation: In direct speech, the conjunction "that" is removed, a comma is placed after the reporting clause, and the spoken words are enclosed in quotation marks starting with a capital letter.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "The scientist said to the students, 'Light travels faster than sound.'"

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because it changes the verb to "travelled" (Past Simple). Scientific facts should not be put into the past tense because they remain true in the present.
• Option 3: Incorrect because it uses "is traveling" (Present Continuous), which suggests a specific instance of travel rather than a general scientific property.
• Option 4: Incorrect because it uses "will travel" (Future Simple), which implies the fact only applies to the future.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'Present simple'.

Key Points

• The verb "deserve" is in the Present simple tense, which is used to state facts, general truths, or professional opinions that are true at any time.
• In the sentence, the subject "mental health conditions" is plural, so it takes the base form of the verb ("deserve") without an "-s".
• The Present simple tense is appropriate here as the author is presenting a logical comparison between physical and mental health as a universal principle.
• The word "would" in the first part of the sentence creates a conditional comparison, but the main declaration of the sentence remains in the present tense.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• Present perfect: This would require "have deserved" or "has deserved," indicating an action that started in the past and continues or has relevance to the present.
• Simple past: This would be "deserved," which would imply that the condition of deserving attention is over or happened at a specific past time.
• Future perfect: This would be "will have deserved," used for an action that will be completed before another point in the future.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'Active voice'.

Key Points

• In the sentence, the subject "many people" is performing the action of the verb "choose," which is the defining characteristic of the Active voice.
• The structure follows a standard Subject + Verb + Object/Complement pattern (People + choose + to suffer).
• The verb "choose" is in its base form, indicating that the focus is on the doer of the action rather than the action being done to the subject.
• Although the question asks for the "tense," the provided options refer to Voice (Active/Passive) and Mood (Imperative/Interrogative). Among these, Active voice is the only grammatically accurate description.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Passive voice: In passive voice, the subject receives the action (e.g., "Suffering is chosen by many people"). This is not the case in the original sentence.
• Imperative voice: This is a mood used for commands or requests (e.g., "Do not suffer in silence!").
• Interrogative voice: This refers to a sentence that asks a question (e.g., "Do many people choose to suffer in silence?").

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. A forbidden or socially unacceptable practice.

Key Points

• The word "taboo" means:
• Something that is prohibited or restricted by social custom; socially unacceptable or forbidden practice. (वर्जित)
• Example: Discussing personal salaries is often considered a taboo topic in many workplaces.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured him a perfect score.

Therefore, the correct answer is: A forbidden or socially unacceptable practice.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• A law (एक कानून): A system of rules recognized by a community or country.
• Example: The new law was passed to reduce pollution levels in the city.
• A tradition (एक परंपरा): A long-established custom or belief passed down through generations.
• Example: Lighting diyas during Diwali is a common tradition in India.
• A medical procedure (एक चिकित्सा प्रक्रिया): A specific action or set of actions performed for a medical reason.
• Example: The patient underwent a medical procedure to remove the tumor.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• A) 'Suffer in silence' refers to enduring mental distress without seeking external or professional help.
• This is shown in the passage where the author mentions that due to fear of social judgment and cultural beliefs, individuals "choose to suffer in silence" instead of visiting a psychiatrist.
• B) The phrase highlights the lack of communication regarding mental health struggles.
• This can be inferred as the passage contrasts this behavior with "seeking professional help" and "open conversations." It implies the pain is kept internal and hidden from the community.
• C) It is a consequence of the prevailing social stigma and taboo mentioned in the text.
• This is evident because the passage states that the "stigma attached to mental health persists, discouraging open conversations," leading people to hide their conditions.

Therefore, the correct answer is To hide one's pain and not seek help.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because "speaking openly" is the opposite of suffering in "silence."
• Option 2: Incorrect because the passage suggests that "suffering in silence" is an alternative to seeking treatment.
• Option 3: Incorrect because while some may rely on family, the specific phrase "suffer in silence" emphasizes the lack of any effective or professional outreach.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• A) Deep-rooted cultural beliefs and a lack of education act as primary barriers.
• This is explicitly stated in the first paragraph. The passage mentions that "Deep rooted cultural beliefs" and "lack of education about mental illnesses" prevent individuals from seeking help.
• B) Social stigma and the fear of judgment create a "taboo" around psychiatry.
• This is mentioned as a key reason for avoidance. The text states that the "fear of social judgment" and the "stigma attached to mental health" discourage open conversations and timely intervention.
• C) Societal attitudes lead people to rely on insufficient alternatives like "suffering in silence."
• This can be inferred from the passage, which notes that instead of professional help, people often rely on family advice or keep their struggles hidden due to these societal pressures.

Therefore, the correct answer is Cultural beliefs and fear of social judgment.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because the passage does not mention a preference for traditional medicine as a reason for avoiding psychiatrists.
• Option 2: Incorrect because the passage focuses on social and cultural barriers rather than the financial cost of treatment.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the text addresses the willingness to seek help rather than the availability of doctors.

The correct answer is: 3 i.e. Enduring.

Key Points

• The word "Evanescent" means something that is fleeting, vanishing, or lasting for a very short time. (क्षणभंगुर)
• Example: The beauty of a sunset is evanescent, disappearing as the night takes over.
• "Enduring" refers to something that lasts for a long time or is permanent, making it the antonym of evanescent. (स्थायी)
• Example: The enduring love between the couple was evident even after decades of marriage.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'evanescent' is 'enduring'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 3 i.e. Enduring.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Fleeting (क्षणिक): Something that lasts for a very short time, similar to evanescent.
• Example: Her fleeting smile lit up the room for a moment.
• Transient (अस्थायी): Refers to something temporary or short-lived, also similar to evanescent.
• Example: The transient nature of fame means it often fades quickly.
• Ephemeral (क्षणिक): Something that lasts for a brief period, making it synonymous with evanescent.
• Example: The flowers bloomed beautifully but were ephemeral, lasting only a day.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'empirecal'.

• The correct spelling would be 'empirical'.
• The word 'empirical' is an adjective that means 'based on observation or experience rather than theory or pure logic'. (अनुभवजन्य)
• For Example -
• The scientist provided empirical evidence to support his hypothesis.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'empirecal'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Specious - superficially plausible, but actually wrong (भ्रामक)
• Unsubstantiated - not supported or proven by evidence (अप्रमाणित)
• Well-structured - organized in a logical and effective way (सुसंगठित)

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 10 & 14 * 15 % 2 = ?

Now, if ‘*’ stands for ‘−’, ‘&’ stands for ‘×’, ‘%’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘@’ stands for ‘÷’, then:

⇒ 10 × 14 − 15 + 2 = ?

⇒ 140 − 15 + 2 = ?

⇒ 125 + 2 = ?

⇒ 127

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 4 ^ 9 % 8 % 6 = ?

Now, if ‘*’ stands for ‘+’, ‘@’ stands for ‘−’, ‘%’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘^’ stands for ‘÷’, then:

⇒ 4 ÷ 9 × 8 × 6 = ?

⇒ 4 ÷ 9 × 8 × 6

⇒ (4 × 8 × 6) ÷ 9

⇒ 192 ÷ 9

⇒ 64/3

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

Given: P × S - R + Q

It means:

P is the brother of S,

S is the wife of R,

R is the father of Q.

Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statements:

Some students are intelligent.

All intelligent are hard-working.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusions:

I. Some students are hard-working – True (Since some students are intelligent and all intelligent are hard-working, those students must be hard-working.)

II. No student is hard-working – False (This contradicts the given statement that some students are intelligent and hence hard-working.)

Hence, only conclusion I follows.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

Total trees = 55

Tree A = 19^th from left

Tree B = 21^st from right

Position of B from left:

Position of B from left = Total trees − Position from right + 1

= 55 − 21 + 1 = 35

Number of trees between A and B:

Number of trees between = Position of B from left − Position of A from left − 1

= 35 − 19 − 1 = 15

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: When a mirror is placed on the right side, the image and each letter is laterally inverted (horizontally flipped).

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: When a mirror is placed on the right side, the image and each letter is laterally inverted (horizontally flipped).

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "9" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each letter is shifted one step backward in the English alphabetical order.

DUCK →  CTBJ

Similarly,

ROBIN 

⇒ QNAHM

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is:

So, 'HPR' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The address given in the problem is,

Plot No. 20, Phase III, Industrial Area, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201305

Let's match this address with the given options one by one to figure out which one is exactly the same.

So, the address that is exactly the same as the given address is in option (4).

Hence, the correct option is "option (4)".

The address given in the problem is,

D-Block, House No. 12, Prahladpuri Colony, Near Main Market, Jaipur - 302001

Let's match this address with the given options one by one to figure out which one is exactly the same.

So, the address that is exactly the same as the given address is in option (3).

Hence, the correct option is "option (3)".

The logic is based on multiplication of the three numbers and adding 1.

Option 1: 62 – Does not satisfy the pattern.

Option 2: 63 – Incorrect as per rule.

Option 3: 64 – Missing the final +1 step.

Option 4: 65 – Correct as per the pattern.

Check pattern:

Row 1: 5 × 8 × 6 = 240 → 240 + 1 = 241

Row 3: 7 × 5 × 4 = 140 → 140 + 1 = 141

Apply to Row 2:

2 × 4 × 8 = 64 → 64 + 1 = 65

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic is based on the sum of squares of the three numbers.

Option 1: 55 – Does not satisfy the pattern.

Option 2: 65 – Correct as per the pattern.

Option 3: 75 – Incorrect calculation.

Option 4: 105 – Does not fit the rule.

Check pattern:

Row 1: 5² + 6² + 3² = 25 + 36 + 9 = 70 (not 95 → so try another pattern)

Now observe a better pattern:

Multiply first two numbers and add square of third:

Row 1: (5 × 6) + 3² = 30 + 9 = 39 (not 95)

Try: Multiply all and subtract something:

5 × 6 × 3 = 90 → 90 + 5 = 95 

Row 3: 3 × 5 × 7 = 105 → 105 + 5 = 110 

So pattern is:

(Product of three numbers) + 5

Apply to Row 2:

3 × 4 × 5 = 60 → 60 + 5 = 65

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

According to the given Venn diagram:

The diagram shows that Male and Female are separate groups, and Lawyer overlaps with both.

So, Lawyer intersects with both Male and Female, but Male and Female do not overlap with each other.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Add the numbers inside each required region of the diagram based on the given conditions.

Now,

For Spirit (Circle):

12 + 8 + 10 + 10 = 40 → Statement I is correct

For Tea but not Water (Triangle outside Rectangle):

54 + 10 = 64 → Statement II is correct

Hence, both statements are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Given:

R starts walking north. He takes 7 right turns and 5 left turns.

Stepwise Analysis:

Each right turn = +90° clockwise

Each left turn = -90° (anticlockwise)

Net turns = 7 right - 5 left = 2 right turns

Starting direction: North

1^st right → East

2^nd right → South

Hence, R is finally facing South.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Given Statements:

Either the meeting will be postponed or it will be held online.

The meeting will not be postponed.

The statement follows the logic: A or B, and Not A ⇒ Therefore, B

Conclusions:

I. The meeting might be held online – False (It is definite, not just a possibility.)

II. The meeting will definitely be held online – True (Since postponement is not possible, it must be held online.)

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The missing quadrant must contain two parallel diagonal lines sloping upwards from the bottom-left to the top-right to complete the central geometric symmetry.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: In each valid pair, the positions of shapes remain same but the directions (top/bottom or arrow direction) are reversed or flipped consistently.

Checking options:

Option 1:

Directions of arrows and circle positions are flipped 

Option 2:

Arrow directions and shapes are systematically reversed 

Option 3:

Shapes are inverted (top ↔ bottom) consistently 

Option 4:

The transformation is not consistent (shapes and directions change irregularly) 

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Horizontal and vertical lines are alternately added and removed in a sectional rotation (top-left → middle-right → bottom-left → …).

The next figure continues this toggle pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The "L" shape and the shaded semi-circle rotate clockwise around the four corners/positions, and the central symbol follows its alternating sequence.

The next figure continues this rotation pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 15 P 20 R 10 Q 5 S 2 = ?

Now, if ‘P’ means ‘+’, ‘Q’ means ‘÷’, ‘R’ means ‘−’ and ‘S’ means ‘×’, then:

⇒ 15 + 20 − 10 ÷ 5 × 2 = ?

⇒ 15 + 20 − 2 × 2 = ?

⇒ 15 + 20 − 4 = ?

⇒ 35 − 4 = ?

⇒ 31

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 45 × 5 ÷ 6 − 48 + 20 = ?

Now, if ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 45 ÷ 5 × 6 − 48 + 20 = ?

⇒ 9 × 6 − 48 + 20 = ?

⇒ 54 − 48 + 20 = ?

⇒ 6 + 20 = ?

⇒ 26

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

Marked price = Rs. 800

Discount = 25%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 - Discount ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Selling Price = 800 × (1 - 25 ÷ 100)

⇒ Selling Price = 800 × (1 - 0.25)

⇒ Selling Price = 800 × 0.75

⇒ Selling Price = Rs. 600

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 600.

Given:

Marked Price = Rs. 1200

Discount Percentage = 15%

Formula Used:

Discount Amount = (Marked Price × Discount Percentage) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount Amount = (1200 × 15) ÷ 100

⇒ Discount Amount = 18000 ÷ 100

⇒ Discount Amount = Rs. 180

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 180.

Given:

Sides of the parallelogram = (3x - 2) cm and (x + 4) cm

Perimeter = 48 cm

Formula Used:

Perimeter of a parallelogram = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Calculation:

⇒ 48 = 2 × [(3x - 2) + (x + 4)]

⇒ 48 = 2 × (3x - 2 + x + 4)

⇒ 48 = 2 × (4x + 2)

⇒ 48 / 2 = 4x + 2

⇒ 24 = 4x + 2

⇒ 24 - 2 = 4x

⇒ 22 = 4x

⇒ x = 22 / 4

⇒ x = 5.5

∴ The correct answer is 5.5.

Shortcut Trick

First, find the height (h): h = (3 × Volume) ÷ (π × r²) = (3 × 231) ÷ (22/7 × 3.5 × 3.5) = 18 cm.

Now, use the Pythagoras Theorem to find slant height (l): l = √(h² + r²).

l = √(18² + 3.5²) = √(324 + 12.25) = √336.25 ≈ 18.3 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 18.3 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Volume (V) of the cone-shaped nozzle = 231 cm³

Base radius (r) = 3.5 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of a cone (V) = (1/3) × π × r² × h

Slant height (l) = √(r² + h²)

Calculations:

⇒ 231 = (1/3) × (22/7) × (3.5)² × h

⇒ 231 = (1/3) × (22/7) × 12.25 × h

⇒ 231 = (22 × 1.75 / 3) × h

⇒ 231 = (38.5 / 3) × h

⇒ h = (231 × 3) / 38.5

⇒ h = 693 / 38.5 = 18 cm

⇒ l = √(3.5² + 18²)

⇒ l = √(12.25 + 324)

⇒ l = √336.25

⇒ l ≈ 18.337 cm

∴ The correct answer is 18.3 cm.

Additional Information

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a Cone

The area of the curved surface is given by the formula CSA = π × r × l, where l is the slant height.

Total Surface Area (TSA) of a Cone

The total surface area includes the base circle: TSA = π × r × (l + r).

Pythagorean Relationship in Cones

The radius (r), vertical height (h), and slant height (l) always form a right-angled triangle such that l² = r² + h².

Given:

Range = between 1 and 2

Formula used:

Property of irrational numbers

Calculations:

⇒ Between any two distinct real numbers, there are infinitely many irrational numbers

⇒ Between 1 and 2, examples: √2, √3, π/2, etc.

⇒ These are unlimited

∴ Number of irrational numbers = Infinite

Given:

Adjacent angles ratio = 5 : 4

Formula used:

In parallelogram, adjacent angles sum = 180°

Calculations:

Let angles = 5x and 4x

⇒ 5x + 4x = 180

⇒ 9x = 180

⇒ x = 20

⇒ Larger angle = 5x = 5 × 20 = 100°

∴ Larger angle = 100°

Given:

Area of triangle = 84 cm²

Semi-perimeter = 21 cm

Formula Used:

Inradius = Area / Semi-perimeter

Calculation:

⇒ Inradius = 84 / 21

⇒ Inradius = 4 cm

∴ The correct answer is 4 cm.

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle = 12 cm

Height of the pyramid = 8 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of pyramid = (1/3) × Base Area × Height

Base Area of equilateral triangle = (√3/4) × side²

Calculation:

⇒ Base Area = (√3/4) × 12 × 12

⇒ Base Area = (√3/4) × 144

⇒ Base Area = 36√3 cm²

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × 36√3 × 8

⇒ Volume = 96√3 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 96√3 cm³.

Given:

By selling 15 articles, gain = SP of 3 articles

Formula used:

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

Let SP of 1 article = 1 unit

⇒ SP of 15 articles = 15

⇒ Gain = SP of 3 articles = 3

⇒ Total CP of 15 articles = SP − Gain = 15 − 3 = 12

⇒ CP of 1 article = 12 ÷ 15 = 0.8

⇒ Profit per article = 1 − 0.8 = 0.2

⇒ Profit % = (0.2 ÷ 0.8) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 25%

∴ Profit = 25%

Shortcut Trick

Effective Rate of Interest for the first 2 years = 20 + 20 + (20 × 20)/100 = 44%.

Effective Rate for the remaining 1/2 year = 10%.

Total Effective Rate = 44 + 10 + (44 × 10)/100 = 58.4%.

Principal (P) = Compound Interest / 58.4% = 2920 / 0.584 = ₹5,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate (R) = 20% p.a., Time (n) = 2.5 years, Compound Interest (CI) = ₹2,920.

Formula:

Amount (A) = P × (1 + R/100)ⁿ¹ × (1 + (R × f)/100), where n1 is the complete years and f is the fraction of the year.

Calculations:

⇒ Total Time = 2 years + 1/2 year

⇒ Rate for the fractional part = 20% × (1/2) = 10%

⇒ Amount (A) = P × (1 + 20/100) × (1 + 20/100) × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ A = P × (6/5) × (6/5) × (11/10)

⇒ A = P × (396 / 250)

⇒ Interest (CI) = A − P = P(396/250 − 1) = P(146 / 250)

⇒ 2920 = P × (146 / 250)

⇒ P = (2920 × 250) / 146

⇒ P = 20 × 250 = ₹5,000

⇒ The Principal is ₹5,000, which corresponds to Option (3).

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,000.

Additional Information

Effective Rate for Fractional Time

When time is in fractions like t = n (a/b) years, use the rate R for n years and (a/b)×R for the remaining fraction of the year.

Successive Percentage Formula

For two successive changes of x% and y%, the net effective change is (x + y + (x × y)/100)%.

Compound Interest vs Simple Interest

The difference between CI and SI for 2 years is P(R/100)² and for 3 years is P(R/100)² × (3 + R/100).

Given:

Numbers = 14, 21, 28

Formula used:

Least number divisible by given numbers = LCM

Calculations:

14 = 2 × 7

21 = 3 × 7

28 = 2² × 7

⇒ LCM = 2² × 3 × 7

⇒ LCM = 4 × 3 × 7

⇒ LCM = 84

∴ Least number = 84

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of males to females = 60% : 40% = 3 : 2.

Using Weighted Average: [(3 × 170) + (2 × 160)] ÷ (3 + 2)

⇒ (510 + 320) ÷ 5 = 830 ÷ 5 = 166 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 166 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total faculty members = 600

Percentage of females = 40%

Average height of males = 170 cm

Average height of females = 160 cm

Calculations:

⇒ Number of females = 40% of 600 = (40 ÷ 100) × 600 = 240

⇒ Number of males = 600 − 240 = 360

⇒ Total height of males = 360 × 170 = 61200 cm

⇒ Total height of females = 240 × 160 = 38400 cm

⇒ Total height of all faculty members = 61200 + 38400 = 99600 cm

⇒ Average height = 99600 ÷ 600

⇒ Average height = 166 cm

∴ The correct answer is 166 cm.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

The weighted average is calculated as (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n represents the quantity and x represents the average value.

Deviation Method

Assume a base average (e.g., 160), calculate deviations for each group, and adjust: 160 + [60% × (170 − 160)] = 160 + 6 = 166 cm.

Ratio Property in Averages

When calculating combined averages, the actual numbers can be replaced by their simplest ratios to simplify the arithmetic.

Given:

Distance between the two cities = 300 km

Speed of the first bus = 50 km/h

Speed of the second bus = 70 km/h

Formula Used:

Time taken to meet = Distance ÷ (Speed of first bus + Speed of second bus)

Calculation:

⇒ Total speed = Speed of first bus + Speed of second bus

⇒ Total speed = 50 + 70

⇒ Total speed = 120 km/h

⇒ Time taken = Distance ÷ Total speed

⇒ Time taken = 300 ÷ 120

⇒ Time taken = 2.5 hours

∴ The correct answer is 2.5 hours.

Given:

Arjun's investment = 1,20,000

Beena's investment = 90,000

Charu's investment = 1,50,000

Total profit = 72,000

Formula Used:

Profit share = (Individual investment ÷ Total investment) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ Total investment = 1,20,000 + 90,000 + 1,50,000

⇒ Total investment = 3,60,000

⇒ Beena's profit share = (90,000 ÷ 3,60,000) × 72,000

⇒ Beena's profit share = (1 ÷ 4) × 72,000

⇒ Beena's profit share = 18,000

∴ The correct answer is 18,000.

Given:

Number = 7396

Formula used:

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²

Calculations:

⇒ 7396 = (80 + 6)²

⇒ (80 + 6)² = 80² + 2 × 80 × 6 + 6²

⇒ = 6400 + 960 + 36

⇒ = 7396

⇒ Square root = 80 + 6 = 86

∴ √7396 = 86

Given:

Total mixture = 60 litres

Ratio (Milk : Water) = 7 : 3

Removed = 12 litres mixture

Added = 12 litres milk

Formula used:

Removed मात्रा same ratio में घटेगी

Calculations:

⇒ Initial milk = (7/10) × 60 = 42 litres

⇒ Initial water = (3/10) × 60 = 18 litres

⇒ Removed milk = (7/10) × 12 = 8.4 litres

⇒ Removed water = (3/10) × 12 = 3.6 litres

⇒ Remaining milk = 42 − 8.4 = 33.6 litres

⇒ Remaining water = 18 − 3.6 = 14.4 litres

⇒ Add 12 litres milk:

⇒ New milk = 33.6 + 12 = 45.6 litres

⇒ Water = 14.4 litres

⇒ Ratio = 45.6 : 14.4

⇒ Divide by 14.4

⇒ Ratio = 3.166 : 1

⇒ Multiply by 6 ⇒ 19 : 6

∴ New ratio = 19 : 6

Given:

∠P = 60°

∠Q = 70°

Formula used:

Angle at incenter: ∠PIQ = 90° + (∠R ÷ 2)

Calculations:

⇒ ∠R = 180 − (60 + 70) = 50°

⇒ ∠PIQ = 90 + (50 ÷ 2)

⇒ ∠PIQ = 90 + 25 = 115°

∴ ∠PIQ = 115°

Given:

Line: 4x + 5y = 20

Formula used:

Slope of line ax + by = c ⇒ m = −a/b

Perpendicular slope ⇒ m₁ × m₂ = −1

Calculations:

⇒ Given line slope = −4/5

⇒ Perpendicular slope = 5/4

Now check options:

5x − 7y = 8 ⇒ slope = 5/7 ✖

4x + 5y = 12 ⇒ slope = −4/5 ✖

y = 5x/4 − 3 ⇒ slope = 5/4 ✔

y = −4x/5 + 1 ⇒ slope = −4/5 ✖

∴ Correct answer: y = 5x/4 − 3

Given:

Radius of larger circle (R) = 8 cm

Radius of smaller circle (r) = 2 cm

Distance between centers = 13 cm

Formula used:

Length of tangent from external point = √(d² − R²)

Calculations:

⇒ Length = √(13² − 8²)

⇒ = √(169 − 64)

⇒ = √105

∴ Length of tangent = √105 cm

Shortcut Trick

D = 500; C is 20% more ⇒ C = 600.

Sum (C + D) = 1100.

Sum (A + B) is 100% more than 1100 ⇒ A + B = 2200.

A is 200% more than B ⇒ A : B = 3 : 1.

A = (3/4) × 2200 = 1650.

∴ The correct answer is 1650.

Alternate Method

Given: D = 500, C = 120% of D, A + B = 200% of (C + D), A = 300% of B.

Formula: Value increased by x% = Base × (100 + x)/100.

⇒ C = 500 + 20% of 500 = 500 + 100 = 600

⇒ C + D = 600 + 500 = 1100

⇒ A + B = 1100 + 100% of 1100 = 1100 + 1100 = 2200

⇒ A = B + 200% of B = 3B

⇒ 3B + B = 2200 ⇒ 4B = 2200

⇒ B = 550

⇒ A = 3 × 550 = 1650

∴ The correct answer is 1650.

Additional Information

Percentage Increase vs Percentage Of

x% more than y means y × (1 + x/100), whereas x% of y means y × (x/100).

Ratio and Sums

If a sum S is divided in the ratio a:b, the parts are [a/(a+b)] × S and [b/(a+b)] × S.

Multiplication Factor

For a 100% increase, the factor is 2. For a 200% increase, the factor is 3.

Given:

Amount after 3 years = ₹5324

Amount after 5 years = ₹6442.04

Formula used:

A = P × (1 + r/100)^t

Calculations:

⇒ A₅ / A₃ = (1 + r/100)⁵ ÷ (1 + r/100)³

⇒ 6442.04 ÷ 5324 = (1 + r/100)²

⇒ 1.21 = (1 + r/100)²

⇒ 1.1 = (1 + r/100)

⇒ r = 10%

Now find Principal:

⇒ 5324 = P × (1.1)³

⇒ 5324 = P × 1.331

⇒ P = 5324 ÷ 1.331

⇒ P = 4000

∴ Principal = ₹4000

Given:

Rate of interest = 12% per annum

Difference in time = 7 years - 4 years = 3 years

Difference in simple interest = Rs. 72

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Difference in SI = (Principal × Rate × Difference in Time) ÷ 100

⇒ 72 = (Principal × 12 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ 72 = (Principal × 36) ÷ 100

⇒ Principal = (72 × 100) ÷ 36

⇒ Principal = 7200 ÷ 36

⇒ Principal = 200

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 200.

Given:

Selling price (SP) = 120% more than the value of the discount

Marked price (MP) = SP + Discount

Formula Used:

SP ÷ MP × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let the discount = x

⇒ SP = x + 120% of x = x + (120 ÷ 100) × x = x + 1.2x = 2.2x

⇒ MP = SP + Discount = 2.2x + x = 3.2x

⇒ SP ÷ MP × 100 = (2.2x ÷ 3.2x) × 100

⇒ (2.2 ÷ 3.2) × 100

⇒ 68.75%

∴ The correct answer is 68.75 percent.

Given:

P + Q = 24 days

Worked together = 8 days

Remaining work done by Q = 20 days

Formula used:

Work = LCM of days

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Calculations:

LCM of 24 and 20 = 120

⇒ Total work = 120 units

⇒ (P + Q) 1 day work = 120 ÷ 24 = 5 units

⇒ Work done in 8 days = 5 × 8 = 40 units

⇒ Remaining work = 120 − 40 = 80 units

⇒ Q completes 80 units in 20 days

⇒ Q’s 1 day work = 80 ÷ 20 = 4 units

⇒ (P + Q) = 5 units

⇒ P = 5 − 4 = 1 unit/day

⇒ Time taken by P alone = 120 ÷ 1 = 120 days

∴ P alone can complete the work in 120 days

Given:

P = 12 days

Q = 24 days

Work alternately, P starts first

Formula used:

Work = LCM of days

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Calculations:

LCM of 12 and 24 = 24

⇒ Total work = 24 units

⇒ P’s 1 day work = 24 ÷ 12 = 2 units

⇒ Q’s 1 day work = 24 ÷ 24 = 1 unit

⇒ In 2 days (P + Q): 2 + 1 = 3 units

⇒ In 16 days (8 cycles): 3 × 8 = 24 units

∴ Work will be completed in 16 days

The correct answer is Bengal and Gujarat.

Key Points

• The Zabt system was a land revenue system introduced during the reign of Akbar under the supervision of his finance minister Raja Todar Mal.
• The system involved the measurement of agricultural land and fixing the revenue based on the average produce and prices over the past 10 years.
• While the Zabt system was widely implemented in most provinces of the Mughal Empire, it could not be applied effectively in Bengal and Gujarat due to the following challenges:
• Bengal: The region had a complex riverine landscape, with frequent floods and shifting river courses making land measurement extremely difficult.
• Gujarat: The region had diverse agricultural practices and terrains, which posed challenges to the uniform application of the Zabt system.
• Instead of Zabt, other systems like Kankut or Nasaq were used in these areas to estimate land revenue.
• This highlights the adaptability of the Mughal administration in modifying their policies based on regional conditions.

Additional Information

• Zabt System:
• This system was a crucial part of Akbar's revenue reforms and was based on the principles of standardizing land revenue collection.
• The system required accurate land measurement, categorization of land based on fertility, and fixation of revenue rates based on average produce and prices.
• It aimed at maximizing revenue collection while ensuring fairness and reducing the burden on peasants.
• The assessment was conducted in a scientific manner, with records maintained for future references.
• Kankut System:
• The Kankut system was another land revenue assessment method used in regions where accurate land measurement was not feasible.
• Under this system, the estimation of revenue was done based on the inspection of standing crops or mutual agreements between farmers and revenue officers.
• It was less precise than Zabt but provided a flexible alternative in challenging terrains.
• Nasaq System:
• Nasaq was another revenue collection method employed in areas with irregular agricultural activities.
• Revenue was determined based on past practices or mutual agreements rather than strict measurement or assessments.
• This system was often used in Bengal and Gujarat, where local conditions demanded flexibility.
• Challenges in Bengal and Gujarat:
• Bengal: Frequent flooding, alluvial soil changes, and the deltaic region's dynamic geography made it difficult to implement Zabt.
• Gujarat: The diversity in agricultural practices, including cash crops like cotton, and the arid regions posed challenges to standardized revenue assessment.
• Both regions required alternative methods to ensure effective revenue collection and avoid overburdening the population.

Important Points

• Raja Todar Mal's Reforms:
• As Akbar's finance minister, Raja Todar Mal introduced several revenue reforms to streamline the administration.
• He emphasized accurate land measurement, categorized land based on fertility, and standardized revenue rates.
• Regional Variations:
• The Mughal administration showed remarkable adaptability in modifying revenue systems to suit regional conditions.
• This flexibility helped maintain stability and ensured efficient revenue collection across the empire.
• Legacy:
• The Zabt system and other revenue reforms laid the foundation for subsequent revenue systems during British rule in India.
• It demonstrated the importance of scientific and fair revenue practices in maintaining administrative efficiency and peasant welfare.

The correct answer is Union, State and Concurrent Lists.

Key Points

• The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List, which delineate the division of powers between the Union and State governments.
• The Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, banking, and communications. Only the Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate on these matters.
• The State List comprises subjects of local or state importance such as police, public health, agriculture, and irrigation. Only the State Legislature can make laws on these topics.
• The Concurrent List includes subjects of mutual interest to both the Union and States, such as education, forests, trade unions, and marriage. Both the Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on these matters. However, in case of a conflict, the law made by the Parliament prevails.
• The division of powers under the Seventh Schedule ensures the federal structure of India, where both the Union and State governments operate within their defined jurisdictions.

Additional Information

• Union List:
• It contains 100 subjects (originally 97), including areas of national importance like defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, and railways.
• Only the Parliament is empowered to make laws on these subjects.
• Examples: Currency, Citizenship, and International Trade.
• State List:
• It contains 61 subjects (originally 66), including areas of state and local importance like police, public health, and agriculture.
• The State Legislature has exclusive powers to legislate on these subjects.
• Examples: Law and Order, Fisheries, and Markets.
• Concurrent List:
• It contains 52 subjects (originally 47), which are of joint interest to both the Union and States.
• In case of a conflict between Union and State laws, the Union law prevails.
• Examples: Education, Marriage, and Bankruptcy.
• Residue Powers:
• Any subject not mentioned in the three lists falls under residuary powers, which are vested in the Union Government.
• Examples: Cyber Laws, Space Research, and Internet-based issues.

Important Points

• Amendments:
• The subjects in the lists can be amended by the Parliament under Article 368.
• For example, the 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred Education from the State List to the Concurrent List.
• Federal Structure:
• The Seventh Schedule is a cornerstone of India's quasi-federal structure, ensuring a balance between centralization and decentralization.
• Judicial Review:
• Any legislation passed by the Union or State that violates the distribution of powers can be challenged in the Supreme Court or High Courts.

The correct answer is 44^th Amendment Act, 1978.

Key Points

• The 44^th Amendment Act, 1978 replaced the term "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion" in Article 352 of the Constitution of India.
• This amendment was introduced to restrict the scope of declaring a national emergency, ensuring it could not be misused for political purposes.
• The term "internal disturbance" was considered vague and susceptible to misuse, whereas "armed rebellion" is more specific and denotes severe internal conflict involving armed forces.
• The change was part of the reforms aimed at safeguarding democratic principles after the misuse of emergency powers during the 1975-77 Emergency declared under the leadership of then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• The 44^th Amendment Act also introduced other provisions to make it harder to impose a national emergency, such as requiring the written recommendation of the Cabinet before the President could proclaim an emergency.

Additional Information

• National Emergency under Article 352:
• A national emergency can be declared by the President of India under Article 352 when the security of India or any part of its territory is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• During a national emergency, the federal structure of governance is altered, and the central government gains sweeping powers over the states.
• The fundamental rights under Article 19 are suspended during a national emergency.
• 44^th Amendment Act, 1978:
• This amendment was enacted to restore democracy and prevent the misuse of emergency provisions.
• It made the imposition of a national emergency more stringent by requiring the written recommendation of the Cabinet.
• It also ensured that the proclamation of emergency must be approved by both houses of Parliament within one month.
• The amendment also provided that the duration of a proclamation of emergency would cease to operate after six months unless renewed by Parliament.
• Comparison of Terms:
• "Internal Disturbance": A vague term that could include political unrest, protests, or social movements, making it prone to misuse.
• "Armed Rebellion": A specific term that denotes an organized uprising involving the use of arms against the state.
• Historical Context:
• The misuse of emergency provisions during the 1975-77 Emergency led to widespread criticism and calls for constitutional reforms.
• The 44^th Amendment Act was introduced under the leadership of Prime Minister Morarji Desai to address these concerns and protect democratic values.

Important Points

• Other Key Changes by the 44^th Amendment Act:
• Removed the ability to suspend the right to move the courts for enforcement of fundamental rights under Articles 20 and 21 during an emergency.
• Made it mandatory for the President to refer the proclamation of emergency to Parliament within one month.
• Introduced provisions to safeguard against the abuse of preventive detention laws.
• Reduced the maximum period of preventive detention without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board from three months to two months.
• Significance:
• The 44^th Amendment Act is considered a landmark legislation that strengthened the democratic framework of India.
• It ensured greater accountability and reduced the scope for authoritarian misuse of emergency powers.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Statement I: The Council of Ministers (COM) of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is indeed the highest decision-making body of the organization. It is composed of the Foreign Ministers of all the member states. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Statement II: The COM does not consist of the Finance Ministers of the member states. Instead, it comprises the Foreign Ministers who are responsible for policy-level decisions within the IORA framework. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• The COM meets annually to discuss and decide on key issues, approve the budget, review progress, and adopt resolutions that guide the organization.
• The IORA has 23 member states and 10 dialogue partners, and the COM plays a pivotal role in fostering regional cooperation among these countries.
• The decisions made by the COM are critical for promoting the objectives of the IORA, such as maritime security, trade, disaster risk management, and sustainable development.

Additional Information

• Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA):
• The IORA was established in 1997 and is headquartered in Mauritius.
• It is an intergovernmental organization aimed at strengthening regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region.
• The IORA focuses on key priority areas such as maritime safety and security, trade and investment, fisheries management, disaster risk management, and tourism promotion.
• Structure of IORA:
• The Council of Ministers (COM) is the highest decision-making body, followed by the Committee of Senior Officials (CSO).
• The IORA Secretariat supports the implementation of policies and initiatives approved by the COM.
• IORA Member States:
• The organization has 23 member states, including countries like India, Australia, South Africa, Indonesia, and Sri Lanka.
• It also has 10 dialogue partners, such as China, Japan, and the United States.
• IORA's Objectives:
• To promote sustainable economic growth and balanced development in the Indian Ocean region.
• To ensure the security and prosperity of the region through cooperation on maritime safety and disaster risk reduction.

Important Points

• The IORA’s vision is to create a peaceful, stable, and prosperous Indian Ocean region.
• India has played a significant role in the IORA, focusing on areas like blue economy, disaster management, and maritime security.
• In recent years, the IORA has emphasized addressing challenges like illegal fishing, climate change, and marine pollution.
• Annual COM meetings often include adopting declarations, such as the “Jakarta Concord” (2017), which reaffirmed the importance of the Indian Ocean region.

The correct answer is Bangkok.

Key Points

• The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, through the signing of the Bangkok Declaration (also known as the ASEAN Declaration).
• The founding members of ASEAN include Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, who signed the Bangkok Declaration to promote economic cooperation, cultural exchange, and regional stability.
• The Bangkok Declaration emphasized the principles of equality, partnership, and mutual respect among the member nations, forming the foundation for ASEAN’s objectives.
• The main goals of ASEAN are to accelerate economic growth, promote social progress, and ensure regional peace and stability.
• The ASEAN Secretariat, which facilitates the coordination of activities and implementation of decisions, is located in Jakarta, Indonesia.

Additional Information

• The Bangkok Declaration:
• The Bangkok Declaration is the founding document of ASEAN, signed on 8 August 1967.
• It laid the foundation for cooperation in various fields such as economic development, social progress, cultural exchange, and regional stability.
• It emphasized the importance of non-interference in the internal affairs of member states and the promotion of peaceful dispute resolution.
• ASEAN Member States:
• Initially, ASEAN had 5 founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
• Over time, additional countries joined ASEAN, including Brunei (1984), Vietnam (1995), Laos and Myanmar (1997), and Cambodia (1999), bringing the total membership to 10.
• Objectives of ASEAN:
• To accelerate economic growth, social progress, and cultural development in the region.
• To promote regional peace and stability through respect for justice and the rule of law.
• To foster collaboration in various sectors such as trade, agriculture, industry, transportation, and education.
• ASEAN Charter:
• The ASEAN Charter was signed in 2007 and came into effect in 2008.
• It provides a legal framework and institutional structure for ASEAN, making it a rules-based organization.
• It established key bodies such as the ASEAN Summit and the ASEAN Coordinating Council.
• Important Summits:
• The ASEAN Summit is held annually and involves the leaders of member states discussing regional issues and cooperation.
• Key agreements such as the establishment of the ASEAN Economic Community (AEC) have been signed during these summits.

Important Points

• Significance of Bangkok:
• Bangkok, the capital city of Thailand, holds historical importance as the birthplace of ASEAN.
• The signing of the Bangkok Declaration in this city laid the foundation for regional cooperation in Southeast Asia.
• ASEAN Economic Community (AEC):
• The AEC was established in 2015 to create a single market and production base among ASEAN countries.
• It aims to promote the free flow of goods, services, investment, skilled labor, and capital.
• ASEAN’s Global Influence:
• ASEAN has established partnerships with major global powers such as the United States, China, Japan, India, and the European Union.
• It plays a crucial role in regional forums like the East Asia Summit and ASEAN Regional Forum.

The correct answer is Azimul Haque.

Key Points

• Azimul Haque has been appointed as the CEO of the Delhi Waqf Board in January 2025. This appointment is significant as the Delhi Waqf Board plays a crucial role in managing waqf properties and ensuring their proper utilization.
• The Delhi Waqf Board is a statutory body established under the Waqf Act, 1995, which governs waqf properties and related matters in India.
• Azimul Haque is known for his extensive administrative experience and in-depth understanding of waqf properties, making him an ideal choice for this role.
• The CEO of the Waqf Board is responsible for overseeing the management, preservation, and development of waqf properties and ensuring their compliance with legal and administrative frameworks.
• This appointment aligns with the government's commitment to strengthening the functioning of statutory bodies like the Waqf Board and ensuring transparency and accountability in their operations.

Additional Information

• Delhi Waqf Board:
• The Delhi Waqf Board is responsible for managing waqf properties in the region, which include mosques, graveyards, dargahs, and other charitable institutions.
• It ensures that waqf properties are used for purposes aligned with Islamic principles, such as education, welfare, and religious activities.
• The Board also takes steps to prevent encroachments and misuse of waqf properties and ensures their proper maintenance and revenue generation.
• Waqf Act, 1995:
• The Waqf Act, 1995, is a central legislation enacted to provide for the administration and supervision of waqf properties in India.
• The Act defines waqf as a permanent dedication of movable or immovable property by a Muslim for religious, pious, or charitable purposes.
• It establishes Waqf Boards at the state level to manage and regulate waqf properties in their respective jurisdictions.
• Role of the CEO:
• The CEO of the Waqf Board is a key administrative position responsible for implementing policies, managing staff, and ensuring the proper functioning of the Board.
• The CEO also liaises with government agencies, legal authorities, and other stakeholders to address issues related to waqf properties.
• Challenges in Waqf Management:
• Encroachments on waqf properties and illegal occupation are major challenges faced by Waqf Boards across India.
• Limited financial resources and lack of skilled personnel often hinder the effective management and development of waqf properties.
• Efforts are being made to digitize records and introduce modern management practices to address these challenges.

Important Points

• Encroachment Issues: Waqf Boards in India have been facing challenges due to widespread encroachments on waqf properties. Ensuring proper legal action and recovery of these properties is a major priority for the Board.
• Digitization: The Government of India has initiated efforts to digitize waqf records under the Waqf Management System of India (WAMSI) to improve transparency and accountability.
• Role of Central Waqf Council: The Central Waqf Council provides guidance and oversight to state Waqf Boards and also supports them in capacity building and resolving disputes.
• Revenue Generation: Effective management of waqf properties can generate significant revenue, which can be utilized for community welfare and development programs.
• Community Welfare: Waqf properties are instrumental in funding educational institutions, healthcare facilities, and other welfare initiatives for the Muslim community in India.

The correct answer is Ministry of Education.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Education launched the Pradhan Mantri Yuva Udyamita Vikas Abhiyan (PM-YUVA) 3.0 in March 2025.
• This initiative aims at fostering a culture of entrepreneurship and innovation in India among the youth.
• The scheme provides support for training, capacity building, and handholding of aspiring entrepreneurs, especially among students in schools, colleges, and universities.
• It is a continuation and enhanced version of the earlier phases, PM-YUVA 1.0 and 2.0, which were successful in promoting entrepreneurial skills.
• The initiative aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes vocational training, skill development, and entrepreneurial education.

Additional Information

• PM-YUVA Scheme Objectives:
• The scheme focuses on creating an entrepreneurial ecosystem by encouraging innovation and startups among students and youth.
• It provides access to mentorship, financial assistance, and market linkages for aspiring entrepreneurs.
• It aims to integrate entrepreneurial education into the curriculum of educational institutions.
• It also seeks to promote social entrepreneurship to address societal challenges through innovative solutions.
• National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
• The NEP 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational training and skill development into mainstream education.
• It aims to create a holistic and multidisciplinary education system that nurtures critical thinking and problem-solving skills.
• The policy highlights the need for entrepreneurial thinking to prepare students for the challenges of the 21^st century.
• Previous Phases of PM-YUVA:
• PM-YUVA 1.0: Focused on skill-building and entrepreneurship training for students and young professionals.
• PM-YUVA 2.0: Expanded the scope to include more institutions and introduced digital learning platforms.
• Other Similar Initiatives by the Ministry of Education:
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): Promotes a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship through Atal Tinkering Labs in schools.
• Skill India Mission: Enhances employability and skill development for youth.
• Startup India Initiative: Provides support for startups, including easier compliance, funding opportunities, and incubation centers.

Important Points

• Age Group: PM-YUVA targets youth, primarily students in the age group of 15 to 29 years.
• Entrepreneurship Curriculum: The initiative introduces entrepreneurship-focused courses in schools and colleges.
• Digital Integration: The scheme uses online platforms for training and mentorship, making it accessible to a larger audience.
• Global Competitiveness: By fostering innovation, PM-YUVA contributes to making India a global leader in entrepreneurship.

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

• In May 2025, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi approved the establishment of 5 National Centres of Excellence for Skilling as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
• The aim of these centers is to enhance skilling infrastructure and provide high-quality, industry-relevant training to the youth of India.
• The initiative aligns with the Skill India Mission, which seeks to equip Indian youth with employable skills and bridge the gap between education and employment.
• The scheme is centrally sponsored, meaning the funding is shared between the central government and state governments, ensuring collaborative implementation.
• The focus of these centers will be on innovation, technology-driven learning, and industry partnerships to ensure maximum employability of trained individuals.

Additional Information

• Skill India Mission:
• Launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2015, the Skill India initiative aims to train over 40 crore individuals in various skills by 2022.
• It includes programs like Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and National Skill Development Mission.
• The mission focuses on improving vocational education, skill development, and entrepreneurship opportunities.
• National Centres of Excellence for Skilling:
• These centers are strategically set up to offer specialized training in emerging sectors such as Artificial Intelligence, Robotics, Renewable Energy, Healthcare, and IT.
• The centers will collaborate with industry experts to design curriculum and provide hands-on experience.
• The goal is to make India a global hub for skilled manpower, supporting economic growth and innovation.
• Centrally Sponsored Schemes:
• A Centrally Sponsored Scheme involves financial contributions from both the central and state governments.
• Examples include PMAY (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana), MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act), etc.
• These schemes aim to promote development and welfare across various sectors like education, health, and infrastructure.
• Importance of Skilling Initiatives:
• India has one of the youngest populations globally, with a median age of 28 years, making skilling programs critical for employment generation.
• Skilled manpower contributes to higher productivity, innovation, and economic growth.
• Initiatives like these help address challenges such as unemployment and underemployment.

Important Points

• Key Features of National Centres of Excellence for Skilling:
• Focus on high-demand sectors such as IT, Renewable Energy, Healthcare, and Industry 4.0 technologies.
• Promotes public-private partnerships for skill training and job placement.
• Emphasizes hands-on training to ensure industry readiness.
• Supports the Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives by creating a workforce aligned with global demands.
• Related Government Schemes:
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY): Offers free skill training to enhance employability.
• National Skill Development Mission: Focuses on improving overall skill development infrastructure.
• Skill India Digital Platform: Provides online learning resources for vocational training.

The correct answer is Badminton.

Key Points

• Badminton can be played both as an individual sport (singles) and as a team sport (doubles or mixed doubles).
• In singles, one player competes against another, focusing on individual skills, agility, and strategy.
• In doubles or mixed doubles, two players form a team and compete against another team, requiring coordination, communication, and teamwork.
• Badminton is a highly versatile sport and is governed by the Badminton World Federation (BWF) internationally.
• The format of the game, whether singles or doubles, remains consistent in terms of rules, court dimensions, and scoring system.

Additional Information

• Badminton Court Dimensions:
• The court is 13.4 meters long and 6.1 meters wide for doubles, while it is 5.18 meters wide for singles.
• The net is placed at a height of 1.55 meters at the edges and 1.524 meters in the center.
• Scoring System:
• Badminton follows a rally scoring system, where a point is scored in every rally regardless of who serves.
• A match is played in a best-of-three games format, with each game going up to 21 points.
• Equipment:
• The sport requires a shuttlecock and rackets, which vary in material and weight depending on player preferences.
• Feather shuttlecocks are commonly used in professional matches, while synthetic ones are used for recreational play.
• International Tournaments:
• Prominent tournaments include the All England Open Badminton Championships, Thomas Cup, Uber Cup, and the Olympic Games.
• India has produced exceptional players such as P. V. Sindhu, Saina Nehwal, and Kidambi Srikanth who have made significant contributions to the sport internationally.

Important Points

• Comparison with Other Sports:
• Basketball: A team sport that is not played individually.
• Cricket: Exclusively a team sport; no individual matches exist in competitive formats.
• Hockey: A team sport with no provision for individual play.
• Badminton Popularity:
• It is one of the fastest racket sports in the world, requiring high levels of fitness and precision.
• It is immensely popular in countries like China, India, Indonesia, Denmark, and Malaysia.