Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 22 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Choose the one word substitute for the below sentence.

Rohit generously supported those in need, always finding joy in Offering help through his thoughtful gifts and financial assistance.

  1. AOption (a)

    Philanthropist

  2. BOption (b)

    Benefactor

  3. COption (c)

    Sponsor

  4. DOption (d)

    Donor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Philanthropist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Philanthropist.

Key Points

  • The word "Philanthropist" refers to a person who seeks to promote the welfare of others, especially by donating money to charitable causes. (परमार्थी)
  • Example: The billionaire was a well-known philanthropist who donated millions to education and healthcare initiatives.
  • In the given sentence, Rohit is described as someone who supports those in need and enjoys offering help through thoughtful gifts and financial assistance. This aligns perfectly with the qualities of a philanthropist.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Philanthropist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Benefactor (सहायक): A person who gives money or other help to a person or cause.
  • Example: The benefactor of the new hospital wing wished to remain anonymous.
  • Sponsor (प्रायोजक): A person or organization that provides funds for a project or activity, often for promotional purposes.
  • Example: The sports event was made possible by a generous sponsor.
  • Donor (दाता): A person who donates something, especially money or blood.
  • Example: The blood donor saved the life of an accident victim.

Question 2

Identify the incorrect sentence.

  1. AOption (a)

    Eating too much his health was spoiled.

  2. BOption (b)

    Most people don't like being disturbed while they are working.

  3. COption (c)

    For a long time people thought that the world was fiat and that people could fall off the edge.

  4. DOption (d)

    You have to be a millionaire to shop in Harrods. Everything is so expensive there.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Eating too much his health was spoiled.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To identify the incorrect sentence, let's analyze the grammatical structure and context of each option:

  • Option 1: Eating too much his health was spoiled.
  • This sentence contains a dangling participle. The phrase "Eating too much" suggests that "his health" was doing the eating, which is logically impossible. A participle phrase at the beginning of a sentence must describe the subject that immediately follows.
  • The sentence is erroneous.
  • The correct sentence would be: "Because he ate too much, his health was spoiled" or "Eating too much, he spoiled his health."
  • Option 2: Most people don't like being disturbed while they are working.
  • This sentence uses the passive gerund "being disturbed" correctly to describe a general preference.
  • This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
  • Option 3: For a long time people thought that the world was flat and that people could fall off the edge.
  • This sentence correctly uses the past tense to describe a historical belief. (Note: "fiat" in the prompt is a common typo for "flat," but the grammatical structure remains sound).
  • This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
  • Option 4: You have to be a millionaire to shop in Harrods. Everything is so expensive there.
  • This sentence uses a common hyperbole to describe the high prices at a well-known department store.
  • This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
  • Therefore, out of the given options, only sentence 1 is grammatically incorrect.

Question 3

Identify the grammatical error in the sentence below.

The borrower must return the book will done with reading.

  1. AOption (a)

    The borrower

  2. BOption (b)

    done with reading

  3. COption (c)

    must return

  4. DOption (d)

    the book will

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

the book will

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The grammatical error is located in the phrase "the book will."
  • In this sentence, "will" is used incorrectly as a conjunction to join the two parts of the sentence.
  • "Will" is a modal verb that typically indicates future tense and must be followed by a base verb, which is not the case here.
  • To fix the error, "will" should be replaced with a temporal conjunction such as "when" or "once."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The borrower must return the book when done with reading."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "The borrower" – This is the correct subject of the sentence and contains no errors.
  • Option 2: "done with reading" – This phrase functions correctly as a reduced adverbial clause modifying the time of the action.
  • Option 3: "must return" – This uses the modal verb "must" followed by the base verb "return" correctly to express obligation.

Question 4

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition:

The new regulation was aimed _______ reducing carbon emissions in urban areas.

  1. AOption (a)

    on

  2. BOption (b)

    at

  3. COption (c)

    to

  4. DOption (d)

    for

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

at

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. at.

 

Key Points

  • The correct preposition to use with "aimed" is "at."
  • The phrase "aimed at" is used to specify the target or purpose of an action, goal, or regulation.
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not fit the context or standard usage with "aimed."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The new regulation was aimed at reducing carbon emissions in urban areas."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "on" is incorrect because "aimed on" is not a valid phrase in this context.
  • Option 3: "to" is incorrect because "aimed to" is used to indicate intent to perform an action, not the purpose of a regulation.
  • Option 4: "for" is incorrect because "aimed for" is not commonly used to describe the purpose of a regulation.

Question 5

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate phrasal verb:

When the scandal broke, the minister tried to _______ responsibility and blame his aides.

  1. AOption (a)

    frown upon

  2. BOption (b)

    brush off

  3. COption (c)

    pass the buck

  4. DOption (d)

    touch on

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

pass the buck

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. pass the buck.

Key Points

  • The phrase "pass the buck" means to shift responsibility or blame for something to someone else instead of taking it yourself. (जिम्मेदारी टालना)
  • Example: The manager tried to pass the buck to his subordinates when the project failed.
  • In the given sentence, the minister is attempting to avoid accountability and is blaming others for the scandal, which aligns with the meaning of "pass the buck." (जिम्मेदारी दूसरों पर डालना)
  • Example: When the scandal broke, the minister tried to pass the buck and blame his aides.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. pass the buck.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Frown upon (नापसंद करना): To disapprove of something or view it negatively.
  • Example: Most people frown upon littering in public places.
  • Brush off (अनदेखा करना): To dismiss something or someone as unimportant or irrelevant.
  • Example: She brushed off the criticism and continued with her work.
  • Touch on (संक्षेप में चर्चा करना): To briefly discuss or mention a subject.
  • Example: The speaker touched on the importance of mental health during his talk.

Question 6

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: MYTHOPOEIC

  1. AOption (a)

    Destructive

  2. BOption (b)

    Scientific

  3. COption (c)

    Myth-making

  4. DOption (d)

    Realistic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Myth-making

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Myth-making.

Key Points

  • The word "Mythopoeic" refers to something related to the creation or making of myths. (मिथकों का निर्माण करने वाला)
  • Example: His novel has a mythopoeic quality, weaving fantastical elements into a captivating story.
  • "Myth-making" is a synonym of "mythopoeic," as it directly refers to the process of creating myths. (मिथक-निर्माण)
  • Example: The ancient poets were known for their myth-making abilities, crafting stories that explained the mysteries of the universe.
  • Thus, the most appropriate synonym of "Mythopoeic" is "Myth-making."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Myth-making.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Destructive (विनाशकारी): Causing great and irreparable harm or damage.
  • Example: The hurricane was destructive, leaving a trail of devastation in its path.
  • Scientific (वैज्ञानिक): Based on or characterized by the methods and principles of science.
  • Example: The scientific community continues to make groundbreaking discoveries in the field of medicine.
  • Realistic (यथार्थवादी): Representing things in a way that is true to life.
  • Example: The artist is known for her realistic paintings that capture everyday life.

Question 7

Choose the best option to replace the underlined part to improve the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select 'No substitution.'

My sister is very good at children.

  1. AOption (a)

    Good for children

  2. BOption (b)

    Good with children

  3. COption (c)

    Good in children

  4. DOption (d)

    No substitution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Good with children

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'Good with children'.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "good with children" is the correct usage to describe someone who interacts well and is skilled at dealing with children.
  • The prepositions "for" and "in" do not convey the intended meaning in this context, making options 1 and 3 incorrect.
  • Option 4 (No substitution) is incorrect because the original sentence uses an incorrect preposition ("at").

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "My sister is very good with children."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Good for children" suggests that something benefits children, but it does not describe a person’s ability to interact effectively with them.
  • Option 3: "Good in children" is grammatically incorrect and does not make logical sense in this context.
  • Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect, as the original sentence needs improvement to use the correct preposition.

Question 8

Which of the following sentences uses the word "arm" with a different meaning from the others?

  1. AOption (a)

    He broke his arm while playing football.

  2. BOption (b)

    The army's personnel developed advanced arms and missile systems.

  3. COption (c)

    During the conflict, both sides used highly advanced arms.

  4. DOption (d)

    The nation's defense unit was trained to use scientifically advanced arms.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

He broke his arm while playing football.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "He broke his arm while playing football."

Key Points

  • The word "arm" has multiple meanings in English. One of the meanings refers to the upper limb of the human body, which extends from the shoulder to the hand. (हाथ/भुजा)
  • Example: He broke his arm while playing football.
  • The other meaning of "arm" refers to weapons or military equipment used for defense or attack. (हथियार)
  • Example: The army's personnel developed advanced arms and missile systems.
  • In the correct answer, the word "arm" is used to denote the physical body part, while in the other options, "arms" refers to weapons. Thus, the meaning of "arm" in Option 1 is different from the meaning in the other options.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "He broke his arm while playing football."

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 2: "The army's personnel developed advanced arms and missile systems."
  • In this sentence, "arms" refers to weapons or military tools. (हथियार)
  • Example: The arms used by the soldiers were state-of-the-art technology.
  • Option 3: "During the conflict, both sides used highly advanced arms."
  • Here, "arms" also means weapons or tools used in combat. (हथियार)
  • Example: Both nations invested heavily in advanced arms during the war.
  • Option 4: "The nation's defense unit was trained to use scientifically advanced arms."
  • In this sentence, "arms" again refers to weapons or military equipment. (हथियार)
  • Example: The soldiers were equipped with the latest arms and technology.

Question 9

From the alternatives given below, select the correct passive voice of the following sentence.

Why has Purusottam driven Parshuram out of Mainak's house?

  1. AOption (a)

    Why has Purusottam been driven out of Mainak's house by Parshuram?

  2. BOption (b)

    Why has Mainak been driven out of Purusottam's house by Parshuram?

  3. COption (c)

    Why has Purusottam been driven out by Parshuram of Mainak's house?

  4. DOption (d)

    Why has Parshuram been driven out of Mainak's house by Purusottam?

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why has Parshuram been driven out of Mainak's house by Purusottam?

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Tense Identification: The original sentence "Why has... driven" is in the Present Perfect interrogative form.
  • Passive Voice Rule: To convert a Present Perfect question into Passive Voice, the structure is: Wh-word + has/have + Object + been + V3 (Past Participle) + by + Subject?
  • Subject-Object Swap: In the active voice, "Purusottam" is the subject and "Parshuram" is the object. In the passive voice, "Parshuram" must become the subject.
  • Verb Conversion: The active form "has driven" becomes "has been driven" in the passive form.
  • Phrase Maintenance: The prepositional phrase "out of Mainak's house" should remain attached to the action "driven" for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Why has Parshuram been driven out of Mainak's house by Purusottam?"

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrectly swaps the roles, suggesting Purusottam was the one driven out.
  • Option 2: Incorrectly introduces "Mainak" as the one being driven out, which changes the meaning of the original sentence.
  • Option 3: While grammatically closer, the placement of "by Parshuram" and "of Mainak's house" is awkward and incorrectly identifies Parshuram as the agent (the one doing the driving).

Question 10

Choose the correct indirect narration of the following statement from the given alternatives:

The man said to his wife, "What have I done to you that you are treating me so cruelly?"

  1. AOption (a)

    The man asked his wife that what he did to her that she was treating him so cruelly.

  2. BOption (b)

    The man asked his wife what he had done to her that she treated him so cruelly.

  3. COption (c)

    The man asked his wife what he had been doing to her that she was treating him so cruelly.

  4. DOption (d)

    The man asked his wife what he had done to her that she was treating him so cruelly,

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The man asked his wife what he had done to her that she was treating him so cruelly,

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • Direct Speech: The man said to his wife, "What have I done to you that you are treating me so cruelly?"
  • Key Conversions:
  • Reporting Verb:
  • Since the sentence is a question, the reporting verb "said to" is changed to "asked".
  • Conjunction:
  • In "Wh-" questions (starting with what, where, why, etc.), the question word itself acts as the connector. The conjunction "that" is never used before the "Wh-" word in indirect speech.
  • Tense Changes:
  • Present Perfect ("have done") changes to Past Perfect ("had done").
  • Present Continuous ("are treating") changes to Past Continuous ("was treating").
  • Pronoun Changes:
  • The first-person "I" and "me" (referring to the man) change to "he" and "him".
  • The second-person "you" (referring to the wife) changes to "she" and "her".
  • Sentence Structure:
  • The interrogative structure (Verb + Subject) changes to an assertive structure (Subject + Verb) in indirect speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The man asked his wife what he had done to her that she was treating him so cruelly."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect because it uses "that" before the "Wh-" word ("that what") and uses the simple past "did" instead of the past perfect "had done."
  • Option 2: Incorrect because it changes the second part of the sentence to simple past ("treated") instead of maintaining the continuous aspect ("was treating").
  • Option 3: Incorrect because it changes "have done" to "had been doing," which alters the original perfect aspect to perfect continuous.

Question 11

Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Hegemony

  1. AOption (a)

    Subordination

  2. BOption (b)

    Leadership

  3. COption (c)

    Equality

  4. DOption (d)

    Authority

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Subordination

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Subordination.

Key Points

  • The word “Hegemony” means dominance or leadership, especially by one state or group over others. (प्रभुत्व या आधिपत्य)
  • Example: The country's cultural hegemony was evident in its influence over neighboring nations.
  • “Subordination” refers to the act of placing someone or something in a lower rank or position, opposing the concept of dominance. (आधीनता)
  • Example: His subordination to his superior was evident in his work ethic and obedience.
  • Hence, the antonym of ‘Hegemony’ is ‘Subordination’.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Subordination.


Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Leadership (नेतृत्व): The act of leading or guiding a group or organization.
  • Example: Her strong leadership skills made her the ideal candidate for the project manager position.
  • Equality (समानता): The state of being equal, especially in rights, status, and opportunities.
  • Example: The movement aimed to promote equality among all members of society.
  • Authority (अधिकार): The power or right to give orders, make decisions, and enforce obedience.
  • Example: The teacher has the authority to discipline students for misbehavior.

Question 12

Change the following sentence into the Active form.

The company's decision was made known to the public through a press release.

  1. AOption (a)

    A press release made the company's decision known to the public.

  2. BOption (b)

    The public was made known to the company's decision.

  3. COption (c)

    The company made its decision known to the public through a press release.

  4. DOption (d)

    A press release was used to make the company's decision known.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The company made its decision known to the public through a press release.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Tense Identification: The original sentence "was made known" is in the Simple Past Passive voice.
  • Active Voice Rule: To convert Simple Past Passive to Active, the structure changes from "was/were + V3" to the Simple Past (V2) form of the verb.
  • Identifying the Logical Subject: Although the passive sentence focuses on "The company's decision," the logical "doer" of the action is "The company." Option 3 correctly identifies the company as the subject.
  • Verb Conversion: The passive "was made known" becomes the active "made... known."
  • Completeness: Option 3 includes all the original information, including the method ("through a press release") and the target audience ("to the public").

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The company made its decision known to the public through a press release."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: While grammatically active, it makes "A press release" the subject. While logically possible, Option 3 is a more direct transformation of the original sentence's intent.
  • Option 2: This is still in the passive voice ("was made known") and incorrectly suggests the public was the thing being "made known."
  • Option 4: This is also in the passive voice ("was used") and simplifies the sentence too much, losing the specific "to the public" context.

Question 13

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:

This aspects will be tested while dealing with the emerging scenario in our western neighbourhood.

  1. AOption (a)

    This aspects will be testing while dealing

  2. BOption (b)

    This aspects will be tester while dealing

  3. COption (c)

    This aspects would be tested while dealing

  4. DOption (d)

    These aspects will be tested while dealing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

These aspects will be tested while dealing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '4' i.e. 'These aspects will be tested while dealing'.

 

Key Points

  • The subject of the sentence is "aspects," which is plural.
  • For plural subjects, the correct demonstrative pronoun to use is "these."
  • The verb "will be tested" is correct as it indicates a future passive action.
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect due to grammatical errors in subject-verb agreement or incorrect tense usage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "These aspects will be tested while dealing with the emerging scenario in our western neighbourhood."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "This aspects will be testing while dealing" is incorrect because "this" is singular, which does not match the plural subject "aspects." Additionally, "will be testing" is not appropriate in this context.
  • Option 2: "This aspects will be tester while dealing" is incorrect due to the use of "this" (singular) and "tester," which is grammatically incorrect as it is not a verb.
  • Option 3: "This aspects would be tested while dealing" is incorrect because of the mismatch between "this" (singular) and "aspects" (plural). Additionally, "would" is not appropriate for a definite future scenario.

Question 14

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct voice.

He said that he had finished his work.

  1. AOption (a)

    He said, "I have finished his work."

  2. BOption (b)

    He said, "He has finished my work."

  3. COption (c)

    He said, "I have finished my work."

  4. DOption (d)

    He said, "He had finished his work."

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

He said, "I have finished my work."

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

  • Indirect Speech: He said that he had finished his work.
  • Key Conversions from Indirect to Direct:
  • Pronoun Change:
  • The third-person pronoun "he" (acting as the subject in the reported clause) refers to the speaker, so it changes back to the first-person "I" in direct speech.
  • The possessive adjective "his" changes back to "my" to correspond with the subject "I."
  • Tense Change (Past Perfect to Present Perfect):
  • When converting from indirect to direct speech, the past perfect "had finished" is typically reverted to the present perfect "have finished".
  • Removal of Conjunction:
  • The conjunction "that" is removed and replaced by a comma and quotation marks.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "He said, 'I have finished my work.'"

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect because it uses "his work," which would imply the speaker finished someone else's work.
  • Option 2: Incorrect because it uses "He" and "my," suggesting a different person finished the speaker's work.
  • Option 4: Incorrect because it maintains the past perfect tense and third-person pronouns, which is not how a person would naturally state their own action in direct speech.

Read the passage and answer the following question:

Women's fashion in India has undergone remarkable transformation over the decades, mirroring changes in society, culture, and global influences. Traditionally, Indian women wore sarees, ghagras, and salwar suits that varied greatly from region to region, reflecting local craftsmanship and cultural identity. Clothing often indicated a woman's marital status, community,  and social standing.

In the post-independence era, education, urbanization, and exposure to cinema and international trends reshaped  fashion choices. By the 1960s and 70s, urban women started adopting Western attire like skirts and trousers for daily wear, while still preserving traditional outfits for festivals and ceremonies. 

Today, women's fashion in India is an eclectic mix of old and new. Fusion wear combining Western cuts with traditional fabrics has become increasingly popular. Designers are reimagining the saree, giving it modern drapes and pairing it with crop tops or jackets. Fashion is now seen as a means of self expression, representing confidence, individuality, and cultural pride world. in an ever-changing world.

Question 15

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Identify the correct use of a compound adjective from the passage.

Which of the following phrases from the passage is a compound adjective used to modify a noun?

  1. AOption (a)

    Urban women

  2. BOption (b)

    Crop tops

  3. COption (c)

    Post-independence era

  4. DOption (d)

    Traditional outfits.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Post-independence era

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'Post-independence era'.

Key Points

  • The phrase "post-independence" is a compound adjective formed by joining two words with a hyphen to describe the noun "era".
  • Compound adjectives are used to give precise meaning and clarity by combining two or more words to modify a noun.
  • Other options like "urban women" or "traditional outfits" contain single adjectives, not compound ones.
  • Therefore, "post-independence era" is the correct example of a compound adjective modifying a noun.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

  • Urban women: "Urban" is a single adjective modifying "women", not a compound adjective.
  • Crop tops: This is a noun phrase, not an adjective modifying another noun.
  • Traditional outfits: "Traditional" is a single adjective modifying "outfits", not a compound adjective.

Question 16

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which sentence from the passage contains a relative clause?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fashion is now seen as a means of self-expression.

  2. BOption (b)

    Designers are reimagining the saree, giving it modern drapes.

  3. COption (c)

    Clothing often indicated a woman's marital status, community, and social standing.

  4. DOption (d)

    Traditionally, Indian women wore sarees, ghagras, and salwar suits that varied greatly from region to region.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Traditionally, Indian women wore sarees, ghagras, and salwar suits that varied greatly from region to region.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e 'Traditionally, Indian women wore sarees, ghagras, and salwar suits that varied greatly from region to region'.

Key Points

  • A relative clause begins with a relative pronoun such as "who, which, that" and provides additional information about a noun.
  • In this sentence, the clause "that varied greatly from region to region" modifies the noun "sarees, ghagras, and salwar suits".
  • This makes it a clear example of a relative clause functioning as an adjective clause.
  • The other options do not contain relative pronouns or clauses; they are simple or participial constructions.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 4.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "Fashion is now seen as a means of self-expression." → Simple sentence, no relative clause.
  • Option 2: "Designers are reimagining the saree, giving it modern drapes." → Contains a participial phrase, not a relative clause.
  • Option 3: "Clothing often indicated a woman's marital status, community, and social standing." → Descriptive, but no relative pronoun or clause.
  • Option 4: Correct, because the clause "that varied greatly from region to region" is a relative clause modifying the noun phrase.

Question 17

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The word "eclectic" means:

  1. AOption (a)

    Expensive

  2. BOption (b)

    Carefully chosen

  3. COption (c)

    Purely traditional

  4. DOption (d)

    Drawing ideas from many sources

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Drawing ideas from many sources

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option (4) i.e. Drawing ideas from many sources.

Key Points

  • Eclectic means having a diverse range of sources, styles, or ideas. It typically refers to an approach that combines elements from a variety of different cultures, genres, or methodologies. (विविध स्रोतों से विचार लेना)
  • Example: Her music taste is eclectic, ranging from classical to jazz to hip-hop.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Drawing ideas from many sources.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained:

  • Expensive (महंगा):
  • This word means costing a lot of money.
  • Example: The luxury car was quite expensive.
  • Carefully chosen (ध्यानपूर्वक चुना हुआ):
  • This phrase means selected with attention and care.
  • Example: The ingredients for the recipe were carefully chosen.
  • Purely traditional (केवल पारंपरिक):
  • This phrase means strictly adhering to traditional or established ways.
  • Example: The ceremony was purely traditional, with no modern elements.

Question 18

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What does "craftsmanship" mean in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Poor quality

  2. BOption (b)

    Traditional dance

  3. COption (c)

    Skill in making things

  4. DOption (d)

    Imported materials

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Skill in making things

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3) Skill in making things.

Key Points

  • The word "craftsmanship" means the quality and skill involved in making something, especially with care and artistry. (कौशल/हुनर)
  • Example: The craftsmanship of the handwoven saree impressed everyone at the exhibition.
  • "Skill in making things" refers to the ability to create or produce objects with expertise and precision. (चीजें बनाने का कौशल)
  • Example: His skill in making wooden furniture shows true dedication to his craft.
  • Hence, in the passage, "craftsmanship" clearly refers to skill in making things, highlighting the artistry of traditional Indian clothing.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3) Skill in making things.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Poor quality (खराब गुणवत्ता): Refers to something that is not well-made or lacks standard.
  • Example: The poor quality of the fabric made the dress look cheap.
  • Traditional dance (पारंपरिक नृत्य): Refers to cultural or folk dances passed down through generations.
  • Example: Bharatanatyam is a famous traditional dance of Tamil Nadu.
  • Imported materials (आयातित सामग्री): Refers to goods or raw materials brought from another country.
  • Example: The company uses imported materials to manufacture luxury handbags.

Question 19

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What does the passage suggest about the role of fashion in modern India?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is strictly influenced by Western culture.

  2. BOption (b)

    It has remained unchanged over the years.

  3. COption (c)

    It reflects a blend of tradition, modernity, and personal expression.

  4. DOption (d)

    It discourages the use of traditional clothing.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It reflects a blend of tradition, modernity, and personal expression.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

  • Option 1: It is strictly influenced by Western culture.
  • This cannot be inferred from the passage. While Western attire has influenced fashion, the passage emphasizes fusion wear and preservation of traditional clothing, not strict Western dominance.
  • Option 2: It has remained unchanged over the years.
  • This cannot be inferred. The passage clearly highlights transformation over decades, showing that fashion has evolved significantly.
  • Option 3: It reflects a blend of tradition, modernity, and personal expression.
  • This can be inferred. The passage describes fusion wear, modernized sarees, and fashion as self-expression, combining tradition with modernity.
  • Option 4: It discourages the use of traditional clothing.
  • This cannot be inferred. The passage mentions that traditional outfits are still worn during festivals and ceremonies, showing they are valued, not discouraged.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect because fashion is not strictly Western; it blends tradition and modernity.
  • Option 2: Incorrect because the passage highlights transformation over time.
  • Option 4: Incorrect because traditional clothing is still valued and worn during cultural occasions.

Question 20

What is the antonym of "Contumacious"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rebellious

  2. BOption (b)

    Obedient

  3. COption (c)

    Unruly

  4. DOption (d)

    Stubborn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Obedient

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Obedient.

Key Points

  • The word "Contumacious" refers to someone who is stubbornly or willfully disobedient to authority. (हठी या उद्दंड)
  • Example: The contumacious student refused to follow the teacher's instructions, leading to disciplinary action.
  • The correct antonym for "contumacious" is "Obedient", which means someone who complies or follows orders willingly and does not resist authority. (आज्ञाकारी)
  • Example: The obedient child followed all the rules set by her parents without any complaints.
  • Thus, "Obedient" is the opposite of "Contumacious."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Obedient.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Rebellious (विद्रोही): Showing a desire to resist authority, control, or convention.
  • Example: The rebellious teenager often argued with his parents and broke curfew.
  • Unruly (अविनीत): Disorderly and disruptive; not easily controlled or disciplined.
  • Example: The unruly crowd caused chaos during the protest.
  • Stubborn (जिद्दी): Having or showing dogged determination not to change one's attitude or position on something.
  • Example: Despite being wrong, he remained stubborn and refused to admit his mistake.

Question 21

Which word is closest in meaning to dupe?

He had come prepared to dupe the public with his elaborate setup.

  1. AOption (a)

    Help

  2. BOption (b)

    Deceive

  3. COption (c)

    Praise

  4. DOption (d)

    Inform

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Deceive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2, i.e., Deceive.

Key Points

  • The word "dupe" means to trick or deceive someone into believing something false. (धोखा देना)
  • Example: He managed to dupe his friend into lending him money by making false promises.
  • The meaning of the word "deceive" is to cause someone to believe something that is not true, typically to gain a personal advantage. (छल करना)
  • Example: The con artist deceived the elderly couple into buying a fake painting.
  • Hence, the word "dupe" is closest in meaning to "deceive".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2, i.e., Deceive.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Help (सहायता करना): To assist or aid someone in achieving a task.
  • Example: The teacher helped the students complete their assignments on time.
  • Praise (प्रशंसा करना): To express approval or admiration for someone or something.
  • Example: The coach praised the team for their excellent performance in the match.
  • Inform (सूचित करना): To give someone facts or information; to tell.
  • Example: Please inform the manager about the changes in the meeting schedule.

Question 22

Which part of the following sentence contains a spelling error?

The government's conciliatory (1) tone during negotiations (2) belied its intransigance (3) on key policy reforms (4).

  1. AOption (a)

    (4)

  2. BOption (b)

    (1)

  3. COption (c)

    (2)

  4. DOption (d)

    (3)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(3)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'intransigance'.

  • The correct spelling would be 'intransigence'.
  • The word 'intransigence' is a noun that means 'refusal to change one's views or to agree about something'. (अड़ियलपन)
  • For Example -
  • The intransigence of both parties made it impossible to reach a compromise.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'intransigance'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

  • Conciliatory - intended or likely to placate or pacify (मित्रतापूर्ण)
  • Negotiations - discussions aimed at reaching an agreement (वार्ता)
  • Policy Reforms - changes or improvements made to official rules or principles (नीतिगत सुधार)

Question 23

Which part of the following sentence contains a spelling error?

Her cullinary repertoire (1) included delicacies from Persia, the Levant (2), and the Iberian peninsula (3), dazzling the judges (4).

  1. AOption (a)

    (2)

  2. BOption (b)

    (1)

  3. COption (c)

    (4)

  4. DOption (d)

    (3)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(1)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word in the sentence is 'cullinary'.

  • The correct spelling is 'culinary'.
  • The word 'culinary' is an adjective which means 'related to cooking or the kitchen'. (खानपान या रसोई से स��बंधित)
  • For Example - She enrolled in a culinary school to become a professional chef.

Therefore, the corrected sentence is: Her culinary repertoire included delicacies from Persia, the Levant, and the Iberian peninsula, dazzling the judges.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of some key words in the sentence:

  • Repertoire - a stock of skills, knowledge, or pieces that a person is ready to perform or use (प्रदर्शन या उपयोग के लिए तैयार कौशल या ज्ञान).
  • Delicacies - rare and expensive food items that are considered highly desirable (सुविधाजनक या दुर्लभ खाद्य पदार्थ).
  • Iberian Peninsula - a geographical region in southwestern Europe that includes Spain and Portugal.

Question 24

Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word.

The astronomer presented data on ________ phenomena.

  1. AOption (a)

    extragalactic

  2. BOption (b)

    extrgalactic

  3. COption (c)

    extragallactic

  4. DOption (d)

    extrgallactic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

extragalactic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • The correct spelling is "extragalactic."
  • "Extragalactic" refers to anything related to or beyond the galaxy, especially in the context of astronomy.
  • The other options—"extrgalactic," "extragallactic," and "extrgallactic"—contain spelling errors and do not represent the correct form of the word.

Correct sentence: The astronomer presented data on extragalactic phenomena.

Additional Information

  • Extragalactic: Beyond the galaxy or related to objects or phenomena outside our galaxy.
  • Example: Scientists study extragalactic stars to understand the universe's structure.
  • Common Usage: Used frequently in astronomy to describe phenomena or objects that are not within the Milky Way galaxy.

Question 25

Which of the following describes "alma mater"?

  1. AOption (a)

    A place where one works

  2. BOption (b)

    A school or college that one one has attended

  3. COption (c)

    A close friend

  4. DOption (d)

    A foreign language

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A school or college that one one has attended

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. A school or college that one has attended.

Key Points

  • The term "alma mater" is a Latin phrase that translates to "nourishing mother" in English. It refers to the school, college, or university where one has studied and graduated. (हिंदी में: जिस विद्यालय या कॉलेज में किसी ने पढ़ाई की हो)
  • Example: Harvard University is his alma mater, where he completed his graduation in 2005.
  • It is a term often used with a sense of pride and affection for the institution where a person received their education. (हिंदी में: यह शब्द आमतौर पर शिक्षा प्राप्त करने वाले संस्थान के प्रति गर्व और स्नेह के भाव को व्यक्त करता है।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. A school or college that one has attended.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: A place where one works (हिंदी में: वह स्थान जहां कोई काम करता है): This refers to someone's workplace or office, not their educational institution.
  • Example: She spends most of her day at the place where she works, which is a software company.
  • Option 3: A close friend (हिंदी में: एक करीबी दोस्त): This refers to a person with whom one shares a strong bond of friendship, not an educational institution.
  • Example: He considers John his close friend because they have known each other for years.
  • Option 4: A foreign language (हिंदी में: एक विदेशी भाषा): This refers to a language that is not native to a person or their country, not an educational institution.
  • Example: She is fluent in Spanish, which is a foreign language in her country.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

A bus covers a certain distance at 60 km/h and returns at 40 km/h. If the total time is 5 hours, what is the distance of the one-way trip?

  1. AOption (a)

    100 km

  2. BOption (b)

    120 km

  3. COption (c)

    150 km

  4. DOption (d)

    180 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

120 km

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Let the one-way distance be x km. Time = Distance ÷ Speed. Total time = Time going + Time returning.

Calculation:

Time going = x ÷ 60

Time returning = x ÷ 40

Total time = x ÷ 60 + x ÷ 40 = 5 hours

Find LCM of 60 and 40 = 120

(x ÷ 60) + (x ÷ 40) = (2x/120) + (3x/120) = 5x/120 = 5

5x = 600

x = 120 km

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 27

In this type of questions, question is provided with substitutes for various mathematical symbols, followed by a question involving calculation of an expression or choosing the correct/incorrect equation. You have to put the real signs in the given equation and then solve the questions as required.

If '%' stands for 'x', '#' stands for '÷', '^' stands for '-', '!' stands for '+', then find the value of: 7 ! 10 ^ 3 ! 4 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    19

  4. DOption (d)

    17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

18

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 7 ! 10 ^ 3 ! 4

Now, if ‘%’ stands for ‘×’, ‘#’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘^’ stands for ‘−’, and ‘!’ stands for ‘+’, then:

⇒ 7 + 10 − 3 + 4

⇒ 7 + 10 = 17

⇒ 17 − 3 = 14

⇒ 14 + 4 = 18

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 28

In this type of questions, question is provided with substitutes for various mathematical symbols, followed by a question involving calculation of an expression or choosing the correct/incorrect equation. You have to put the real signs in the given equation and then solve the questions as required.

If '@' stands for '+', '&' stands for 'x', '$' stands for '-', '~' stands for '÷', then find the value of:

12 10 10 6 @ 15 = $?

  1. AOption (a)

    13

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

11

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 12 10 10 6 @ 15

Now, if ‘@’ stands for ‘+’, ‘&’ stands for ‘×’, ‘$’ stands for ‘−’, and ‘~’ stands for ‘÷’, then:

⇒ 12 − 10 − 6 + 15

⇒ 12 − 10 = 2

⇒ 2 − 6 = -4

⇒ -4 + 15 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4$.

Question 29

A person walks 8 km south, then 6 km east, and finally 8 km north. In which direction is he from his starting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    North 

  2. BOption (b)

    South

  3. COption (c)

    East

  4. DOption (d)

    West

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

East

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The person walks 8 km south, then 6 km east, and finally 8 km north.

Stepwise Analysis:

Vertical displacement: 8 km south – 8 km north = 0 km → same latitude as starting point

Horizontal displacement: 6 km east → 6 km east of starting point

Hence, the person is 6 km east from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 30

A person walks 3 km north, then 4 km west, and finally 3 km south. How far is he from his starting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    3 km

  2. BOption (b)

    4 km

  3. COption (c)

    5 km

  4. DOption (d)

    6 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4 km

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The person walks 3 km north, then 4 km west, and finally 3 km south.

Stepwise Analysis:

Vertical displacement: 3 km north − 3 km south = 0 km → no net vertical movement

Horizontal displacement: 4 km west → 4 km west of starting point

Distance from starting point = 4 km

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 31

In three of the following pairs are same by same pattern except one pair. Which pair does not follow this pattern?

  1. AOption (a)

    8:9

  2. BOption (b)

    27:28

  3. COption (c)

    64:65

  4. DOption (d)

    125:127

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

125:127

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is number + 1.

Option 1) 8 → 9  

→ number + 1

Option 2) 27 → 28 

→ number + 1

Option 3) 64 → 65  

→ number + 1

Option 4) 125 → 127

→(here +2, not +1) 

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 32

Directions

Pick the correct options from from the given alternatives

423 : 312 ::  612 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    601

  2. BOption (b)

    501

  3. COption (c)

    701

  4. DOption (d)

    801

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

501

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is based on subtracting 111 from the number.

423 − 111 = 312 

Similarly,

612 − 111 = 501

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 33

Directions

Pick the correct options from the given alternatives

SHILONG : GNOLIHS :: GUWAHATI: ?

  1. AOption (a)

    ITAHAWOG

  2. BOption (b)

    RUPINAM

  3. COption (c)

    ITAHAWUG

  4. DOption (d)

    DISPUR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ITAHAWUG

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is reversing the word.

SHILONG → GNOLIHS 

Similarly,

GUWAHATI → ITAHAWUG

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 34

Choose odd one out from given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    Dispur- Assam 

  2. BOption (b)

    Panaji- Goa 

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra- Mumbai

  4. DOption (d)

    Shillong- Meghalaya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maharashtra- Mumbai

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is based on the correct pairing of state with its capital city.

Option 1) Dispur → Assam 

Option 2) Panaji → Goa 

Option 3) Maharashtra → Mumbai (Mumbai is the capital of Maharashtra, but the order here is reversed compared to others: it lists the state first, not the city first)

Option 4) Shillong → Meghalaya 

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 35

Directions

Select the related letter from the given alternatives.

SIKIM : YOQOS :: FRANCE : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    MIKIS

  2. BOption (b)

    ECNARF

  3. COption (c)

    LXGTKI

  4. DOption (d)

    LXGTIK

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

LXGTIK

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is based on shifting each letter forward by 6 positions in the English alphabet.

SIKIM → YOQOS

Similarly, applying the same rule to FRANCE:

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 36

Directions

Select the related letter from the given alternatives

SOFTWARE : OFTWARES :: HARDWARE : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    ARDWAREA

  2. BOption (b)

    ARDWAREH

  3. COption (c)

    ARDWAREE

  4. DOption (d)

    HARDERAW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ARDWAREH

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is moving the first letter of the word to the end.

SOFTWARE → OFTWARES

 

Similarly, HARDWARE → ARDWAREH

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 37

Directions

Select the correct options from the given alternatives

200  110  205  100  210  90  215  ?

  1. AOption (a)

    70

  2. BOption (b)

    220

  3. COption (c)

    80

  4. DOption (d)

    100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

80

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern alternates between decreasing numbers and increasing numbers.

Next number: Following the decreasing step, 215 − 145 = 70

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 38

Complete the following series from the given options.

nopm_opmn_pmno

  1. AOption (a)

    mnop

  2. BOption (b)

    nnop

  3. COption (c)

    mnpp

  4. DOption (d)

    mnnp

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

mnop

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given Sequence: nopm_opmn_pmno

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the options one by one:

Option 1) mnop → mnopnopmopmnpmnom

→ mnop / nopm / opmn / pmno 

Option 2) nnop → nnopnopmopmnpmnon

→ nnop / nopm / opmn / pmno  (pattern breaks at start)

Option 3) mnpp → mnppnopmopmnpmnop

→ mnpp / nopm / opmn / pmno  (extra p, not cyclic)

Option 4) mnnp → mnnpnopmopmnpmnop

→ mnnp / nopm / opmn / pmno (letters not in correct order)

Here, “mnop → nopm → opmn → pmno” follows a cyclic pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 39

Which of the following options will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

xxoxxx, xxxoxx, xxxxox, xxxxxo, (?)

  1. AOption (a)

    oxxxxx

  2. BOption (b)

    xoxxxx

  3. COption (c)

    xxxxxo

  4. DOption (d)

    oxoxxx

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

oxxxxx

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given series:

xxoxxx, xxxoxx, xxxxox, xxxxxo

Pattern: The letter ‘o’ shifts one place to the right in each step.

Positions of ‘o’:

3rd → 4th → 5th → 6th

Next, it will move to the 1st position (cycle repeats).

So, next term = oxxxxx

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 40

Instructions: Carefully examine the Reference Statement. Then, identify the single option among the four alternatives (a, b, c, d) that is an EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement. Pay exceptionally close attention to every character, number, symbol, space, and punctuation mark.

Reference: Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.

  1. AOption (a)

    Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.

  2. BOption (b)

    Kolkata: 2025-1-23, Thursday.

  3. COption (c)

    Kolk_ata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.

  4. DOption (d)

    Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Friday.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.

Why this answer is correct

Given Reference Statement: Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Thursday. Let's compare each option carefully.

OptionStatement in OptionReference StatementComment
(1)Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.The statement is exactly the same as the reference.
(2)Kolkata: 2025-1-23, Thursday.Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.Month format is incorrect ('01' changed to '1').
(3)Kolk_ata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.Extra character '_' in 'Kolkata'.
(4)Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Friday.Kolkata: 2025-01-23, Thursday.Day is incorrect.

So, the statement that is exactly the same as the reference is in option (1).

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 41

Instructions: For the question below, carefully examine the Reference Statement. Then, identify the single option among the four alternatives (a, b, c, d) that is an EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement. Pay exceptionally close attention to every character, number, symbol, space, and punctuation mark.

Reference: Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1960.

  1. AOption (a)

    Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1960.

  2. BOption (b)

    Lagos, Nigeria. Oct. 1st, 1960.

  3. COption (c)

    Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1906.

  4. DOption (d)

    Lagos, Nigeeria. Oct 1st, 1960.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1960.

Why this answer is correct

Given Reference Statement: Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1960. Let's compare each option carefully.

OptionStatement in OptionReference StatementComment
(1)Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1960.Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1960.The statement is exactly the same as the reference.
(2)Lagos, Nigeria. Oct. 1st, 1960.Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1960.Extra full stop after 'Oct'.
(3)Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1906.Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1960.Year is incorrect.
(4)Lagos, Nigeeria. Oct 1st, 1960.Lagos, Nigeria. Oct 1st, 1960.Spelling mistake in 'Nigeria'.

So, the statement that is exactly the same as the reference is in option (1).

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 42

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

737148
48397
256?
  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    59

  3. COption (c)

    61

  4. DOption (d)

    64

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

61

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern in each row is multiply the first three numbers and then add 1 to get the fourth number.

Here,

Row 1: 7 × 3 × 7 = 147 → 147 + 1 = 148 

Row 2: 4 × 8 × 3 = 96 → 96 + 1 = 97 

Row 3: 2 × 5 × 6 = 60 → 60 + 1 = 61 

So, the missing number is 61.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 43

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

45233
78?48
36542
  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: In each row, add the first three numbers and then multiply the sum by 3 to get the fourth number.

Stepwise Analysis: 

Row 1: (4 + 5 + 2) × 3 = 11 × 3 = 33 

Row 2: (7 + 8 + ?) × 3 = 48 → 15 + ? = 16 → ? = 1 

Row 3: (3 + 6 + 5) × 3 = 14 × 3 = 42 

So, the missing number is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 44

How many triangles are there in the given figure?

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

9

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Count all the triangles formed by individual small sections and by combining them into larger triangles.

Total triangles = 5 + 2 + 2 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 45

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

House, Door, Window

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

According to the given Venn diagram:

The diagram shows that House contains Door and Window as separate parts.

So, Door and Window are inside the House but do not overlap with each other.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 46

In the following figure series, select the figure which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: One arc flips from outward to inward in each consecutive step, moving clockwise from the top-right.

So far, the top-right, right-middle, and bottom-right arcs have flipped.

The next figure will flip the bottom-left arc inward, continuing the clockwise pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 47

In a certain coded language 'AZAR' is coded as 'UECE' and 'MNPW' is coded as 'ZTQQ'. How will 'FRCX' be coded in the same code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    AGUJ

  2. BOption (b)

    AHUJ

  3. COption (c)

    BGUJ

  4. DOption (d)

    CHUJ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

AGUJ

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Given:

AZAR → UECE

MNPW → ZTQQ

Now apply the same to FRCX:

So, the code becomes AGUJ

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 48

In a certain coded language 'BASAL' is coded as 'XVOVH' and 'TITAN' is coded as 'PVPDJ'. How will 'BETEL' be coded in the same code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    XZPZH

  2. BOption (b)

    WBPAI

  3. COption (c)

    YARZJ

  4. DOption (d)

    ZXPXJ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

XZPZH

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each letter is shifted −4 positions in the alphabet.

Verification:

BASAL → XVOVH

TITAN → PVPDJ

Now apply the same to BETEL:

So, the code becomes XAPAH.

Closest matching option pattern → XZPZH

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 49

In a certain coded language 'PANELS' is coded as 'YQITFT' and 'HACKED' is coded as 'JJOIFL'. How will 'QUIRES' be coded in the same code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    ZLWOZW

  2. BOption (b)

    XIUNZW

  3. COption (c)

    YJVOZU

  4. DOption (d)

    ALWQXV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

YJVOZU

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Here,

PANELS → YQITFT

HACKED → JJOIFL

Now apply the same pattern to QUIRES:

So, the code becomes YJVOZU

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 50

A word has been given in the question. This word CANNOT be formed by using the letters of the word given in one of the alternatives only. Select that alternative.

FINEST

  1. AOption (a)

    INFEST

  2. BOption (b)

    NIFTYS

  3. COption (c)

    FIENTS

  4. DOption (d)

    ENCSTIF

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

NIFTYS

Why this answer is correct

Given word: FINEST

Rule: A word can be formed only if all required letters (with correct frequency) are available in the given word.

Letters in FINEST:

F I N E S T

Now, checking each option:

Option 1: INFEST

I, N, F, E, S, T → All letters available 

Option 2: NIFTYS

N, I, F, T, Y, S → ‘E’ is NOT present 

Option 3: FIENTS

F, I, E, N, T, S → All letters available 

Option 4: ENCSTIF

E, N, C, S, T, I, F → All letters available 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (2).

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

The average of 9 numbers is 72. The difference between the highest and lowest number is 54. If the highest number is excluded, the average of the remaining 8 numbers drops by 3. What is the lowest number?

  1. AOption (a)

    42

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    33

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

42

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Average of 9 numbers = 72

Difference between highest and lowest = 54

Average of 8 numbers (excluding highest) = 72 − 3 = 69

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

Highest − Lowest = Difference

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of 9 numbers = 72 × 9 = 648

⇒ Sum of 8 numbers = 69 × 8 = 552

⇒ Highest number = 648 − 552 = 96

⇒ Lowest number = 96 − 54

⇒ Lowest number = 42

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Question 52

What is the smallest number that should be added to 1235 to make it a perfect square?

  1. AOption (a)

    61

  2. BOption (b)

    71

  3. COption (c)

    81

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

61

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Find the perfect squares nearest to 1235: 352 = 1225 and 362 = 1296.

Since we need to add a number, we must reach the next perfect square, which is 1296.

Required number = 1296 − 1235 = 61.

∴ The correct answer is 61.

Alternate Method

Given: Number = 1235

To find the square root of 1235 by estimation:

⇒ √1225 < √1235 < √1296

⇒ 35 < √1235 < 36

⇒ The next perfect square is 362 = 1296.

⇒ Smallest number to be added = 362 − 1235

⇒ Smallest number to be added = 1296 − 1235 = 61.

∴ The correct answer is 61.

Additional Information

Perfect Square Ending Digits

A perfect square always ends in 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, or 9. It can never end in 2, 3, 7, or 8.

Long Division Method

For adding/subtracting problems, use long division. The remainder helps determine what to subtract, and the next square determines what to add.

Square of Numbers ending in 5

To square a number ending in 5 (e.g., 35), multiply the first digit by the next integer (3 × 4 = 12) and append 25 → 1225.

Question 53

What is the value of (121+49)2(\sqrt{121} + \sqrt{49})^2

  1. AOption (a)

    289

  2. BOption (b)

    169

  3. COption (c)

    484

  4. DOption (d)

    324

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

324

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Calculate the square roots of the given numbers: √121 = 11 and √49 = 7.

Add the values: 11 + 7 = 18.

Find the square of the sum: 182 = 324.

∴ The correct answer is 324.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression = (√121 + √49)2

Formula Used:

Basic Arithmetic Operations and Square Roots.

⇒ (√121 + √49)2

⇒ (11 + 7)2

⇒ (18)2

⇒ 18 × 18

⇒ 324

∴ The correct answer is 324.

Additional Information

Perfect Squares and Roots

A perfect square is an integer that is the square of an integer; for example, 121 is 112 and 49 is 72.

Algebraic Identity

The expression can also be expanded using (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab, where a = √121 and b = √49.

Common Squares

Memorizing squares up to 30 helps in fast calculation: 172 = 289, 182 = 324, 192 = 361, 202 = 400.

Question 54

What is the square root of 0.0009?

  1. AOption (a)

    0.0003

  2. BOption (b)

    0.3

  3. COption (c)

    0.03

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0.03

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Value to find square root of: 0.0009

Formula Used:

Square root of a number: √x

Calculation:

⇒ √0.0009

⇒ √(9 × 10-4)

⇒ √9 × √10-4

⇒ 3 × 10-2

⇒ 0.03

∴ The correct answer is 0.03.

Question 55

If 7A = 5B, what is A:B?

  1. AOption (a)

    5:7

  2. BOption (b)

    7:5

  3. COption (c)

    1:1

  4. DOption (d)

    2:3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5:7

Why this answer is correct

Given:

7A = 5B

Formula Used:

A:B = B coefficient : A coefficient

Calculation:

⇒ A:B = 5 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 5:7.

Question 56

If a:b = 5:7 and b:c = 3:4 then a:b:c = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    15:21:28

  2. BOption (b)

    05:07:04

  3. COption (c)

    05:03:04

  4. DOption (d)

    15:07:04

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

15:21:28

Why this answer is correct

Given:

a : b = 5 : 7

b : c = 3 : 4

Formula Used:

Equalize the common term in ratios

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 7 and 3 = 21

⇒ a : b = 5 × 3 : 7 × 3 = 15 : 21

⇒ b : c = 3 × 7 : 4 × 7 = 21 : 28

⇒ a : b : c = 15 : 21 : 28

∴ The correct answer is 15 : 21 : 28.

Question 57

In a school, the ratio of boys to girls is 7:5. If 30 more girls join, the ratio becomes 7:6. Find the number of boys.

  1. AOption (a)

    210

  2. BOption (b)

    280

  3. COption (c)

    350

  4. DOption (d)

    420

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

210

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Ratio of boys to girls = 7:5

If 30 more girls join, new ratio = 7:6

Formula Used:

Number of boys = 7x

Number of girls = 5x

New number of girls = 5x + 30

New ratio = Boys : Girls = 7 : 6

Calculation:

⇒ (7x) / (5x + 30) = 7 / 6

⇒ 6 × 7x = 7 × (5x + 30)

⇒ 42x = 35x + 210

⇒ 42x - 35x = 210

⇒ 7x = 210

⇒ x = 30

⇒ Number of boys = 7x = 7 × 30 = 210

∴ The correct answer is 210.

Question 58

If a:b= 3:5 and b = 15, find a.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    10

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9

Why this answer is correct

Given:

a:b = 3:5

b = 15

Formula Used:

a:b = a ÷ b

a = (a:b) × b

Calculation:

⇒ a:b = 3:5

⇒ a = (3/5) × 15

⇒ a = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Question 59

If average of x, x + 2, x + 4 is 10, find x.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Average = 10

Numbers: x, x + 2, x + 4

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of terms) ÷ Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ (x + (x + 2) + (x + 4)) ÷ 3 = 10

⇒ (3x + 6) ÷ 3 = 10

⇒ 3x + 6 = 30

⇒ 3x = 30 − 6

⇒ 3x = 24

⇒ x = 24 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Question 60

A student's average marks in 4 subjects is 75. What should be his score in the fifth subject to get an overall average of 78?

  1. AOption (a)

    90

  2. BOption (b)

    93

  3. COption (c)

    96

  4. DOption (d)

    99

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

90

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Average of 4 subjects = 75

Required average of 5 subjects = 78

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of 4 subjects = 75 × 4 = 300

⇒ Total sum for 5 subjects = 78 × 5 = 390

⇒ Marks in 5th subject = 390 − 300

⇒ Marks in 5th subject = 90

∴ The correct answer is 90.

Question 61

If a shopkeeper gives 10% discount on Rs. 2,000, what is the amount of discount?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 150

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 180

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 200

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 220

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 200

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Original price = Rs. 2,000

Discount percentage = 10%

Formula Used:

Discount amount = (Original price × Discount percentage) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount amount = (2,000 × 10) ÷ 100

⇒ Discount amount = 20,000 ÷ 100

⇒ Discount amount = Rs. 200

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 200.

Question 62

A merchant marks his goods at 100% above the cost price and offers two successive discounts of 30% and 20%. Find the profit percentage.

  1. AOption (a)

    4%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    12%

  4. DOption (d)

    14%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

12%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Marked price = 100% above cost price

First discount = 30%

Second discount = 20%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 − d1) × (1 − d2)

Profit % = ((SP − CP) ÷ CP) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let CP = 100

⇒ MP = 100 + 100% of 100 = 200

⇒ After 30% discount: 200 × 0.7 = 140

⇒ After 20% discount: 140 × 0.8 = 112

⇒ SP = 112

⇒ Profit = 112 − 100 = 12

⇒ Profit % = (12 ÷ 100) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 12%

∴ The correct answer is 12%.

Question 63

A and B together can complete a job in 10 days. A alone can complete it in 15 days. How long will B take to complete the work alone?

  1. AOption (a)

    20 days

  2. BOption (b)

    25 days

  3. COption (c)

    30 days

  4. DOption (d)

    24 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30 days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

If A and B together take 'x' days and A alone takes 'y' days, then B alone takes (y × x) ÷ (y − x) days.

Given: x = 10 days, y = 15 days.

Time taken by B = (15 × 10) ÷ (15 − 10)

Time taken by B = 150 ÷ 5 = 30 days.

∴ The correct answer is 30 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A + B = 10 days

Time taken by A = 15 days

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A + B1030 (LCM)3
A152

Calculations:

⇒ Total work (LCM of 10 and 15) = 30 units

⇒ Efficiency of A + B = 3 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of A = 2 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of B = Efficiency of (A + B) − Efficiency of A

⇒ Efficiency of B = 3 − 2 = 1 unit/day

⇒ Time taken by B alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of B

⇒ Time taken by B alone = 30 ÷ 1 = 30 days

∴ The correct answer is 30 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work. Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

One Day's Work

If a person completes work in 'n' days, then their one day's work is 1/n of the total work.

Pipes and Cisterns

The same logic applies to pipes filling a tank, where an outlet pipe performs negative work (draining).

Question 64

Two friends sit at points A and B on the edge of a circular fountain. The arc between them subtends 100° at the center. What is the angle subtended by arc AB at a point on the opposite side of the circle?

  1. AOption (a)

    40o

  2. BOption (b)

    45o

  3. COption (c)

    50o

  4. DOption (d)

    55o

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

50o

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Angle at center = 100°

Formula Used:

Angle at circumference = 1/2 × Angle at center (same arc)

Calculation:

⇒ Angle at point on opposite side = 1/2 × 100°

⇒ Angle = 50°

∴ The correct answer is 50°.

Question 65

Two circular gears of radius 4 and 2 units are mounted so that their centers are 6 units apart. How many common tangents do they have?

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of first circle = 4

Radius of second circle = 2

Distance between centers = 6

Formula Used:

If distance between centers = sum of radii, circles touch externally

Number of common tangents for externally touching circles = 3

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of radii = 4 + 2 = 6

⇒ Distance between centers = 6

⇒ Circles touch externally

⇒ Number of common tangents = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Question 66

A basketball is shaped like a hemisphere and has a radius of 7 cm. What is the curved surface area of the basketball?

  1. AOption (a)

    154 cm²

  2. BOption (b)

    308 cm²

  3. COption (c)

    462 cm²

  4. DOption (d)

    616 cm²

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

308 cm²

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius = 7 cm

Formula Used:

Curved surface area of hemisphere = 2 × π × r2

Calculation:

⇒ Curved surface area = 2 × π × 72

⇒ = 2 × π × 49

⇒ = 98π

⇒ = 98 × 22 ÷ 7

⇒ = 14 × 22

⇒ = 308 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 308 cm2.

Question 67

An optical chip grid is formed using a regular polygonal pattern where each internal angle is 162°. How many sides does each polygonal sensor pad have?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

20

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Interior angle = 162°

Formula Used:

Interior angle of regular polygon = ((n − 2) × 180) ÷ n

Calculation:

⇒ ((n − 2) × 180) ÷ n = 162

⇒ 180n − 360 = 162n

⇒ 180n − 162n = 360

⇒ 18n = 360

⇒ n = 360 ÷ 18

⇒ n = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Question 68

A 2 m person casts a 1.5 m shadow. A nearby skyscraper casts a 15 m shadow. Find the height of the skyscraper.

  1. AOption (a)

    25 m

  2. BOption (b)

    20 m

  3. COption (c)

    18 m

  4. DOption (d)

    19 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

20 m

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

At the same time of day, the ratio between an object's height and its shadow length is constant.

Shadow length increases from 1.5 m to 15 m (a 10-fold increase).

Therefore, the height must also increase by the same factor: 2 m × 10 = 20 m.

∴ The correct answer is 20 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Height of the person (H1) = 2 m

Shadow of the person (S1) = 1.5 m

Shadow of the skyscraper (S2) = 15 m

Formula Used:

In similar triangles formed by the sun's rays:

Height1 ÷ Shadow1 = Height2 ÷ Shadow2

Calculations:

⇒ 2 ÷ 1.5 = Height of skyscraper ÷ 15

⇒ Height of skyscraper = (2 × 15) ÷ 1.5

⇒ Height of skyscraper = 30 ÷ 1.5

⇒ Height of skyscraper = 20 m

∴ The correct answer is 20 m.

Additional Information

Properties of Similar Triangles

When two triangles are similar, the ratios of their corresponding sides are equal. This is the basis for shadow-based height calculations.

Trigonometric Relation

The ratio of height to shadow is equal to tan θ, where θ is the angle of elevation of the sun. At a specific time, θ is constant for all objects in the same vicinity.

Direct Proportion

Height and shadow length are in direct proportion (y = kx). If the shadow length doubles, the actual height of the object is also twice as much.

Question 69

A table is marked at Rs. 20,000 is sold at Rs. 14,000. What is the percentage of discount given?

  1. AOption (a)

    32%

  2. BOption (b)

    28%

  3. COption (c)

    25%

  4. DOption (d)

    30%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Marked Price = Rs. 20,000

Selling Price = Rs. 14,000

Formula Used:

Discount = Marked Price − Selling Price

Discount Percentage = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount = 20,000 − 14,000

⇒ Discount = 6,000

⇒ Discount Percentage = (6,000 ÷ 20,000) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = 30%

∴ The correct answer is 30%.

Question 70

If a book costs Rs. 800 and is sold with a profit of 10% and discount of 12% then the marked price is:

  1. AOption (a)

    1100

  2. BOption (b)

    950

  3. COption (c)

    1000

  4. DOption (d)

    1200

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost price = Rs. 800

Profit = 10%

Discount = 12%

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = Selling Price (SP) ÷ (1 - Discount/100)

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (1 + Profit/100)

Calculation:

⇒ SP = 800 × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ SP = 800 × 1.1

⇒ SP = Rs. 880

⇒ MP = 880 ÷ (1 - 12/100)

⇒ MP = 880 ÷ 0.88

⇒ MP = Rs. 1000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1000.

Question 71

A wheel makes 560 revolutions to cover a distance of 1.76 kilometers. Find the radius of the wheel in centimeters. (Use π = 3.1416)

  1. AOption (a)

    50.07 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    48.96 cm

  3. COption (c)

    52.13 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    55.20 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

50.07 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total distance = 1.76 km = 176000 cm

Number of revolutions = 560

Formula Used:

Distance = Number of revolutions × Circumference

Circumference = 2 × π × r

Calculation:

⇒ Circumference = 176000 ÷ 560

⇒ Circumference = 314.2857

⇒ 2 × 3.1416 × r = 314.2857

⇒ r = 314.2857 ÷ (2 × 3.1416)

⇒ r = 314.2857 ÷ 6.2832

⇒ r = 50.07 cm

∴ The correct answer is 50.07 cm.

Question 72

If the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 29 cm and the difference between its other two sides is 1 cm, then find the sum of the other two sides of the triangle.

  1. AOption (a)

    22 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    50 cm

  3. COption (c)

    33 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    41 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

41 cm

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the standard Pythagorean Triplet where the largest number (hypotenuse) is 29.

The common triplet is (20, 21, 29).

Verify the condition: The difference between the sides is 21 − 20 = 1 cm (Matches given condition).

Calculate the required sum: 20 + 21 = 41 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 41 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Hypotenuse (c) = 29 cm

Difference between other two sides = 1 cm

Formula Used:

By Pythagoras Theorem: a2 + b2 = c2

Also, (a + b)2 + (a − b)2 = 2(a2 + b2)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the sides be a and b.

⇒ a2 + b2 = 292 = 841

⇒ a − b = 1

⇒ (a + b)2 + (a − b)2 = 2(841)

⇒ (a + b)2 + 12 = 1682

⇒ (a + b)2 = 1682 − 1 = 1681

⇒ a + b = √1681

⇒ a + b = 41 cm

∴ The correct answer is 41 cm.

Additional Information

Pythagorean Triplets

Sets of three positive integers (a, b, c) such that a2 + b2 = c2. Examples: (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), (20, 21, 29).

Algebraic Identity for Sides

In any triangle, the sum of two sides is always greater than the third side: (a + b) > c.

Area of Right-Angled Triangle

Area = 1/2 × Base × Height. For the given triangle, Area = 1/2 × 20 × 21 = 210 cm2.

Question 73

Simplify the expression: (sinx + cosx)2

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    sin2x + cos2x

  3. COption (c)

    1 + sinx + cosx

  4. DOption (d)

    1+ 2sinxcosx

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1+ 2sinxcosx

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(sinx + cosx)2

Formula Used:

(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab

sin2x + cos2x = 1

Calculation:

⇒ (sinx + cosx)2 = sin2x + cos2x + 2sinxcosx

⇒ (sinx + cosx)2 = 1 + 2sinxcosx

∴ The correct answer is 1 + 2sinxcosx.

Question 74

A surveillance camera is placed at the edge of a circular campus. If it captures an angle of 30° across two points on the perimeter, what is the angle subtended at the center?

  1. AOption (a)

    50o

  2. BOption (b)

    60o

  3. COption (c)

    70o

  4. DOption (d)

    80o

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60o

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Angle at circumference = 30

Formula Used:

Angle at center = 2 × Angle at circumference

Calculation:

⇒ Angle at center = 2 × 30

⇒ Angle at center = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Question 75

A and B together finish a job in 9 days. If A alone takes 18 days, how many days will B alone take?

  1. AOption (a)

    12 days

  2. BOption (b)

    15 days

  3. COption (c)

    18 days

  4. DOption (d)

    20 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

18 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A + B = 9 days

A alone = 18 days

Formula Used:

Work = LCM of days

Efficiency = Work ÷ Days

B's efficiency = (A + B) − A

B's time = Work ÷ B's efficiency

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 9 and 18 = 18

⇒ Total work = 18

⇒ (A + B) efficiency = 18 ÷ 9 = 2

⇒ A's efficiency = 18 ÷ 18 = 1

⇒ B's efficiency = 2 − 1 = 1

⇒ B's time = 18 ÷ 1 = 18

∴ The correct answer is 18.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

In which year did Babur defeat Ibrahim Lodi?

  1. AOption (a)

    1515

  2. BOption (b)

    1526

  3. COption (c)

    1530

  4. DOption (d)

    1535

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1526

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1526.

Key Points

  • Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, defeated Ibrahim Lodi, the last Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate, in the Battle of Panipat on 21st April 1526.
  • This battle marked the end of the Lodi Dynasty and established Mughal rule in India.
  • The Battle of Panipat was a decisive conflict fought near the town of Panipat in modern-day Haryana.
  • Babur employed superior tactics, including the use of field artillery, which played a critical role in his victory over Ibrahim Lodi's much larger army.
  • The battle is considered a turning point in Indian history as it led to the establishment of the Mughal Empire, which ruled India for over 300 years.

Additional Information

  • Babur:
  • Babur was born in 1483 in Fergana Valley (modern-day Uzbekistan).
  • He was a descendant of Timur on his father's side and Genghis Khan on his mother's side.
  • Babur initially ruled over parts of Central Asia but later turned his attention to India.
  • He wrote the famous autobiography called the Baburnama, which provides insights into his life and reign.
  • Ibrahim Lodi:
  • Ibrahim Lodi was the last ruler of the Lodi Dynasty, which was established by Bahlul Lodi.
  • His rule was marked by internal conflicts and rebellions, weakening the Sultanate's position.
  • He ascended the throne in 1517 but faced opposition from nobles and regional powers.
  • His defeat in the Battle of Panipat marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • Battle of Panipat (1526):
  • It was fought between Babur's army, consisting of approximately 12,000 soldiers, and Ibrahim Lodi's forces, which numbered around 40,000 to 100,000.
  • Babur's use of advanced military tactics, such as the "Tulughma" (flanking maneuver) and artillery, gave him a significant advantage.
  • The battle ended with the death of Ibrahim Lodi and the establishment of the Mughal Empire.
  • Significance of the Mughal Empire:
  • The Mughal Empire introduced centralized administration, Persian culture, and architectural innovations in India.
  • Prominent rulers like Akbar, Shah Jahan, and Aurangzeb contributed significantly to India's history.
  • It remained a dominant power in India until the British colonization in the 18th century.

Important Points

  • Other Battles of Panipat:
  • The Second Battle of Panipat (1556) was fought between Akbar and Hemu, marking Akbar's consolidation of Mughal rule.
  • The Third Battle of Panipat (1761) was fought between the Marathas and the Afghan ruler Ahmad Shah Abdali, resulting in a significant defeat for the Marathas.
  • Babur’s Contribution:
  • Babur introduced Persianate culture and the use of gunpowder weapons in India.
  • He laid the foundation for a unified and centralized empire in northern India.

Question 77

Who was the first female Jawan in the Indian Army?

  1. AOption (a)

    Punita Arora 

  2. BOption (b)

    Shanti Tigga

  3. COption (c)

    Anjali Gupta

  4. DOption (d)

    Navjot Kaur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Shanti Tigga

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shanti Tigga.

Key Points

  • Shanti Tigga was the first woman to join the Indian Army as a soldier (Jawan), breaking gender barriers in a male-dominated field.
  • She joined the Indian Army in the year 2011 at the age of 35, after clearing all tests and physical examinations.
  • Shanti Tigga was a mother of two and worked as a railway employee before joining the Territorial Army.
  • She outperformed her male counterparts in physical tests, completing a 1.5 km run in just 5 minutes and 5 seconds, a remarkable achievement.
  • Her selection marked a significant moment in Indian history, as she became a symbol of women’s empowerment and courage.

Additional Information

  • Punita Arora:
  • She was the first woman in India to become a Lieutenant General in the Indian Army and later served as the Vice Admiral in the Indian Navy.
  • Punita Arora is known for her significant contributions in the field of military medicine.
  • Anjali Gupta:
  • Anjali Gupta was the first woman officer in the Indian Air Force to be court-martialed. She served as an administrative officer.
  • Her case raised discussions about the challenges faced by women officers in the armed forces.
  • Navjot Kaur:
  • Navjot Kaur is not related to the Indian Army but is known for her contributions in the field of sports as an Indian hockey player.
  • She became the first Indian woman hockey player to score a hat-trick in the prestigious Women’s Asia Cup in 2017.
  • Women in the Indian Armed Forces:
  • Women were first inducted in the Indian Armed Forces as officers in 1992 under the Short Service Commission (SSC).
  • In 2020, the Supreme Court of India directed the government to grant permanent commission to women officers in the Indian Army, marking a landmark victory for gender equality.
  • Women are now serving in combat and leadership roles across various branches of the armed forces.

Important Points

  • Territorial Army:
  • The Territorial Army is a part-time volunteer force that serves as a backup for the Indian Army during emergencies.
  • It is composed of individuals who have civilian jobs but can be called upon for military service as needed.
  • Significance of Shanti Tigga’s Achievement:
  • Her selection as the first female Jawan challenged traditional gender norms and encouraged more women to join the armed forces.
  • It highlighted the growing inclusivity of the Indian Army and its willingness to recognize talent irrespective of gender.

Question 78

Pankaj Advani received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2006. He is associated with which sport?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chess 

  2. BOption (b)

    Billiards and Snooker

  3. COption (c)

    Table Tennis

  4. DOption (d)

    Tennis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Billiards and Snooker

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Billiards and Snooker.

Key Points

  • Pankaj Advani is an internationally renowned Indian player in the field of Billiards and Snooker. He has made significant contributions to this sport, earning him numerous accolades.
  • He was honored with the prestigious Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, India’s highest sporting award, in the year 2006, which recognizes outstanding achievements by sportspersons.
  • Advani has an exceptional record in both English Billiards and Snooker, making him one of the few players to excel in both formats of cue sports. His achievements include multiple world titles in these disciplines.
  • He is the only cueist in the world to have achieved a unique feat of winning the World and Asian Championships in both Billiards and Snooker formats.
  • His exemplary career and dedication to the sport have made him a role model for aspiring players in India and around the globe.

Additional Information

  • Achievements of Pankaj Advani:
  • Pankaj Advani has won 25 World Championships in Billiards and Snooker, making him one of the most successful cueists in the history of the sport.
  • He has been conferred with other prestigious awards like the Arjuna Award (2004), Padma Shri (2009), and Padma Bhushan (2018).
  • Advani has consistently represented India on the global stage, bringing laurels to the country by defeating top-ranked international players.
  • Overview of Billiards and Snooker:
  • Billiards is a cue sport played on a rectangular table covered with cloth, featuring three balls: a red object ball and two cue balls.
  • Snooker is another cue sport played on a larger table with 21 object balls and a white cue ball. The objective is to score points by potting the balls in the correct sequence.
  • Billiards and Snooker require a combination of precision, strategy, and control, making them highly skill-intensive sports.
  • Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award:
  • This award was instituted in 1991-92 and is India’s highest sporting honor.
  • It recognizes outstanding performance by sportspersons over a period of four years and includes a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize.
  • Renamed as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021, it continues to be a symbol of excellence in Indian sports.
  • Other Sports Personalities Honored with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna:
  • Cricketer Sachin Tendulkar, tennis player Leander Paes, and shuttler P.V. Sindhu are among other notable recipients.
  • The award highlights India’s diverse sporting talent across disciplines like cricket, badminton, hockey, and wrestling.

Important Points

  • Key Characteristics of Billiards and Snooker:
  • Both sports are played indoors, making them less influenced by external weather conditions.
  • They are governed by international bodies like the World Professional Billiards and Snooker Association (WPBSA).
  • The sports demand intense concentration and mental composure, apart from physical skill.
  • Development of Cue Sports in India:
  • India has a rich history in cue sports, with champions like Wilson Jones (the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title in 1958).
  • The sport has seen significant growth in India due to increased media coverage, sponsorships, and the success of players like Pankaj Advani.

Question 79

In 2025, Shri Jayant Chaudhary launched _______, a Women Entrepreneurship Programme.

  1. AOption (a)

    Mahila Samridhi Yojana 

  2. BOption (b)

    Udyogini

  3. COption (c)

    Stree Shakti

  4. DOption (d)

    Swavalambini

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Swavalambini

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Swavalambini.

Key Points

  • In 2025, Shri Jayant Chaudhary introduced the Swavalambini programme as a specialized initiative to promote women entrepreneurship in India.
  • The Swavalambini programme aims to encourage and empower women by providing them with financial assistance, mentorship, and skill development opportunities to establish and run their own businesses.
  • It specifically targets women from rural and semi-urban areas who face financial and social barriers in accessing entrepreneurship opportunities.
  • Through this initiative, women are offered low-interest loans, subsidies, and access to training programs in various fields such as handicrafts, agriculture, technology, and small-scale industries.
  • The Swavalambini programme is a step towards achieving gender equality in the workforce and promoting socio-economic development through women-led enterprises.

Additional Information

  • Mahila Samridhi Yojana:
  • Launched in 1993, this scheme aimed to empower rural women through microcredit financing.
  • It provided financial assistance to women for starting income-generating activities such as dairy farming, tailoring, and handicrafts.
  • This initiative was specifically targeted at women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
  • Udyogini:
  • A scheme introduced to support rural women entrepreneurs by providing them with micro-loans and subsidies.
  • It focuses on small-scale business ventures such as tailoring, cattle rearing, and grocery shops.
  • The scheme is implemented by various state governments and NGOs.
  • Stree Shakti:
  • Launched to empower women in villages by forming Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
  • It provides financial assistance and skill training to women for income-generating activities.
  • The scheme also promotes financial literacy among rural women.
  • Swavalambini:
  • This programme emphasizes inclusive growth by targeting women entrepreneurs from marginalized communities.
  • It combines financial assistance with mentorship, creating a comprehensive ecosystem for women entrepreneurs to thrive.
  • Special focus is given to skill development in areas such as technology, agriculture, and renewable energy.

Important Points

  • Women Entrepreneurship in India:
  • India has seen a significant rise in women entrepreneurs, with government schemes playing a pivotal role in this development.
  • As of 2023, women account for approximately 20% of the total entrepreneurs in India.
  • Key challenges faced by women entrepreneurs include lack of financial resources, social stigma, and limited access to markets.
  • Initiatives like Swavalambini aim to address these barriers by creating a supportive ecosystem for women-led enterprises.

Question 80

The National Mission on Natural Farming, which was launched in November 2024 aims to promote chemical-free farming among _______ crores farmers.

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 crore.

Key Points

  • The National Mission on Natural Farming was launched in November 2024 by the Government of India. It focuses on promoting chemical-free farming practices.
  • The mission aims to encourage natural farming techniques among 1 crore farmers across India, reducing dependence on synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.
  • Natural farming emphasizes the use of locally sourced, eco-friendly inputs like cow dung, cow urine, and bio-compost to enhance soil fertility and sustainability.
  • This initiative is part of India's broader commitment to achieving sustainable agricultural practices and reducing the harmful environmental impacts of chemical farming.
  • The program also focuses on enhancing farmer income by reducing input costs and promoting the production of healthier, organic produce.

Additional Information

  • What is Natural Farming?
  • Natural farming is a chemical-free agricultural practice that relies on traditional knowledge and natural inputs like farmyard manure, bio-inoculants, and crop residues.
  • It improves soil health, conserves biodiversity, and reduces the carbon footprint of agriculture.
  • Key techniques include mulching, crop rotation, and the use of bio-pesticides.
  • Importance of Chemical-Free Farming:
  • Reduces soil and water pollution caused by synthetic chemicals.
  • Enhances the nutritional quality of crops and promotes human health.
  • Contributes to combating climate change by lowering greenhouse gas emissions from fertilizers and pesticides.
  • Government's Role:
  • The Government of India has been actively promoting organic and natural farming through programs like the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) and the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana.
  • Financial assistance and training programs are being provided to farmers to adopt natural farming techniques.
  • Global Examples:
  • Countries like Japan and South Korea have successfully implemented natural farming practices, leading to increased environmental sustainability.
  • Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is an innovative approach in India, developed by agriculturist Subhash Palekar, which has gained significant attention globally.

Important Points

  • Economic Benefits: Natural farming reduces costs for farmers by eliminating the need for expensive synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.
  • Environmental Impact: It helps in restoring soil fertility, conserving water, and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
  • Challenges: Transitioning from chemical-based to natural farming requires significant efforts in farmer education, infrastructure development, and market support for organic produce.
  • Consumer Demand: With increasing awareness about health and sustainability, the demand for organic and naturally farmed products is rising globally.

Question 81

India ranks ________ in the Energy Transition Index 2025.

  1. AOption (a)

    9th

  2. BOption (b)

    46th

  3. COption (c)

    71st

  4. DOption (d)

    59th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

71st

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 71st.

Key Points

  • India's rank in the Energy Transition Index (ETI) 2025 is 71st, reflecting its progress and challenges in transitioning to a sustainable energy system.
  • The Energy Transition Index (ETI) is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF) in collaboration with Accenture.
  • The index evaluates countries based on their energy system performance and their readiness for transition to clean and sustainable energy sources.
  • The ETI ranking is determined by analyzing factors such as energy security, affordability, environmental sustainability, and economic development.
  • India's rank of 71st highlights its significant efforts in renewable energy deployment but also points to areas requiring improvement, such as reducing dependence on coal and enhancing energy efficiency.

Additional Information

  • Energy Transition Index (ETI):
  • The ETI ranks countries on the basis of their energy transition readiness and system performance.
  • It focuses on a country's ability to build a sustainable, secure, and inclusive energy system.
  • The index takes into account factors such as policy frameworks, investment in renewables, technological innovation, and public-private collaboration.
  • India's Renewable Energy Initiatives:
  • India has set a target of achieving 500 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2030, which includes solar, wind, biomass, and hydroelectric power.
  • It is among the top 5 countries in terms of renewable energy capacity installation globally.
  • Initiatives like the National Solar Mission and the International Solar Alliance (ISA) underscore India's commitment to clean energy.
  • Challenges in Energy Transition:
  • High dependency on coal for power generation, which accounts for over 50% of India's energy mix.
  • Limited grid infrastructure and storage capacity for renewable energy.
  • Balancing economic growth with environmental sustainability remains a complex challenge.
  • Global Leaders in ETI:
  • Countries like Sweden, Norway, and Denmark consistently rank at the top of the ETI due to their advanced clean energy systems, policy frameworks, and high levels of investment in sustainable technologies.
  • These nations have successfully reduced their reliance on fossil fuels and prioritized environmental sustainability.

Important Points

  • World Economic Forum (WEF):
  • The WEF is a global organization that engages business, political, academic, and other leaders to shape global, regional, and industry agendas.
  • It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and is well-known for hosting the annual Davos Summit.
  • India's Energy Mix:
  • Coal is the dominant source of energy, contributing to around 55% of the power generation.
  • Renewables, including solar and wind, contribute approximately 25% to the energy mix.
  • The government aims to achieve net zero carbon emissions by 2070.
  • Energy Transition Goals:
  • Developing countries like India face unique challenges in transitioning to cleaner energy systems while ensuring equitable access and economic growth.
  • Strengthening public-private partnerships and fostering innovation are key to achieving sustainable energy targets.

Question 82

India Meteorological Department officially adopted the Bharat Forecast System on 26 May 2025. It has been developed by _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    IIT Kanpur

  2. BOption (b)

    IIT Kharagpur

  3. COption (c)

    IIT Bombay

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology.

Key Points

  • India Meteorological Department (IMD) officially adopted the Bharat Forecast System (BFS) on 26 May 2025. This system signifies a major upgrade in India's weather forecasting capabilities.
  • The Bharat Forecast System has been developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India.
  • The system leverages advanced Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP) models to provide accurate and reliable weather forecasts for various sectors like agriculture, disaster management, and aviation.
  • The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) is located in Pune, Maharashtra, and is renowned for its research in atmospheric sciences and climate modeling.
  • The BFS represents a significant technological leap for India, as it integrates global meteorological data, satellite inputs, and machine learning techniques to enhance forecasting accuracy.

Additional Information

  • Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM):
  • The IITM was established in 1962 and operates under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India.
  • The institute focuses on advanced research in weather prediction, monsoon variability, climate change, and air quality modeling.
  • It plays a key role in developing India’s weather forecasting technologies and is a global leader in tropical meteorology studies.
  • In addition to BFS, IITM also contributes to projects like the Monsoon Mission and the development of Earth System Models (ESMs).
  • India Meteorological Department (IMD):
  • The IMD, established in 1875, is the principal government agency responsible for weather forecasting, meteorological observations, and seismology in India.
  • It provides critical weather updates, monsoon predictions, and disaster warnings for the public and various industries.
  • IMD works closely with IITM and other research institutions to adopt cutting-edge technologies like BFS for enhanced meteorological services.
  • Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP):
  • NWP is a scientific method of weather forecasting that uses mathematical models of the atmosphere and oceans to simulate weather conditions.
  • The Bharat Forecast System utilizes high-resolution NWP models to achieve improved accuracy in short-term and long-term forecasts.
  • Applications of Bharat Forecast System:
  • Agriculture: Helps farmers plan sowing, irrigation, and harvesting by providing precise weather predictions.
  • Disaster Management: Assists in early warning systems for cyclones, floods, and other natural disasters, reducing loss of life and property.
  • Aviation: Provides accurate weather data for safe and efficient flight operations.
  • Urban Planning: Contributes to better infrastructure planning by predicting extreme weather events and climate trends.

Important Points

  • The Bharat Forecast System aligns with India’s vision to enhance its climate resilience and disaster preparedness by improving its meteorological capabilities.
  • The collaboration between IMD and IITM highlights the importance of integrating research and operations for national benefits.
  • India has been progressively adopting advanced technologies like machine learning and artificial intelligence to improve weather predictions.
  • Such advancements are critical for supporting India’s economic growth, disaster management systems, and food security.

Question 83

Which state topped in the Management effectiveness evaluation of protected areas for 2020-2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sikkim

  2. BOption (b)

    Tripura

  3. COption (c)

    Manipur

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Kerala topped the Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) of protected areas for the period 2020-2025. This evaluation is an important tool to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of protected areas in achieving conservation goals.
  • The Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) is carried out by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India, in collaboration with various conservation organizations.
  • Kerala's achievement is attributed to its strong implementation of conservation measures, effective management of protected areas, and community participation in biodiversity preservation.
  • The MEE process evaluates key parameters such as planning, management, resources, community participation, and outcomes in protected areas like National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Tiger Reserves.
  • Kerala's focus on sustainable tourism, habitat restoration, and wildlife protection policies has significantly contributed to this recognition in the national evaluation.

Additional Information

  • Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE):
  • The MEE framework was developed by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and adapted by India to suit its specific context for protected areas.
  • The evaluation includes a five-point scale—very good, good, fair, poor, and very poor—based on 30 indicators categorized into six elements: context, planning, inputs, process, outputs, and outcomes.
  • The MEE process is globally recognized as a critical tool for assessing the efficiency of protected areas and improving their management.
  • Kerala's Protected Areas:
  • Kerala is home to several prominent protected areas, including Periyar Tiger Reserve, Silent Valley National Park, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • The state has a rich biodiversity, housing endemic species and serving as part of the Western Ghats, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • Efforts such as eco-tourism initiatives, anti-poaching measures, and habitat restoration have strengthened Kerala’s conservation framework.
  • Significance of Protected Areas:
  • Protected areas like National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Biosphere Reserves play a vital role in conserving biodiversity, protecting endangered species, and mitigating climate change.
  • India has a network of over 900 protected areas, which include 106 National Parks and 564 Wildlife Sanctuaries.
  • These areas contribute to ecosystem services such as carbon sequestration, water purification, and soil conservation.
  • Other States in the Evaluation:
  • States like Sikkim, Tripura, and Manipur have also performed well, showcasing their efforts in improving biodiversity management.
  • However, Kerala's consistent focus on integrating conservation with sustainable development gave it an edge in the MEE rankings.

Important Points

  • Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC):
  • The MoEFCC is the nodal ministry for formulating policies and implementing programs related to the conservation of natural resources and biodiversity in India.
  • The ministry also oversees international conventions like the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  • Western Ghats:
  • The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri Hills, are one of the eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity in the world.
  • It extends across six Indian states, including Kerala, and is known for its high endemism and unique ecosystems.
  • The region plays a crucial role in regulating monsoon patterns and supporting agriculture in peninsular India.
  • Biodiversity Conservation Challenges:
  • Illegal activities like poaching, deforestation, and encroachment threaten India’s protected areas.
  • Climate change impacts, such as habitat shifts and species migration, add to the complexity of managing biodiversity effectively.
  • Strengthening community participation and ensuring adequate funding are essential for long-term conservation success.

Question 84

Who wrote the autobiography 'Childhood Days: A Memoir'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Satyajit Ray 

  2. BOption (b)

    Amartya Sen

  3. COption (c)

    Soumitra Chatterjee

  4. DOption (d)

    Rabindranath Tagore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Satyajit Ray 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Satyajit Ray.

Key Points

  • Satyajit Ray was a renowned Indian filmmaker, screenwriter, author, music composer, and graphic designer. He is widely regarded as one of the greatest filmmakers of all time.
  • The autobiography "Childhood Days: A Memoir" was written by Satyajit Ray, offering insights into his early life, education, and creative journey.
  • The book reflects Ray's experiences growing up in Kolkata, his family's cultural background, and the influences that shaped his artistic vision.
  • Satyajit Ray was born on 2nd May 1921 and belonged to an illustrious family of writers and artists. His grandfather, Upendrakishore Ray, and father, Sukumar Ray, were both prominent literary figures.
  • "Childhood Days: A Memoir" provides readers with a glimpse into Ray's formative years, emphasizing his keen observation and intellectual curiosity.

Additional Information

  • Satyajit Ray's Contributions to Cinema:
  • Ray directed iconic films such as Pather Panchali (1955), Aparajito (1956), and The World of Apu (1959), collectively known as the Apu Trilogy.
  • His films often explored themes of social realism, human relationships, and cultural conflicts.
  • Ray received several prestigious awards, including an Honorary Academy Award in 1992 for his lifetime achievements in cinema.
  • Other Works by Satyajit Ray:
  • Ray was an accomplished writer and created the popular detective character Feluda, featured in a series of novels and short stories.
  • He also wrote science fiction stories, including those featuring the character Professor Shonku.
  • Ray's literary works are widely celebrated for their imaginative storytelling and depth of character.
  • Recognition and Legacy:
  • Satyajit Ray was honored with the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 1992.
  • His contributions to Indian and global cinema have earned him a permanent place in cinematic history.
  • Ray's meticulous attention to detail and innovative techniques continue to inspire filmmakers worldwide.
  • Other Prominent Figures in Indian Literature and Culture:
  • Amartya Sen: An economist and philosopher known for his work on welfare economics and the theory of social justice.
  • Rabindranath Tagore: A Nobel laureate poet, writer, and philosopher who composed India’s national anthem.
  • Soumitra Chatterjee: A celebrated Bengali actor who collaborated extensively with Satyajit Ray.

Question 85

Harappan cities had a ________ grid pattern of layout with roads that cut each other at right angles.

  1. AOption (a)

    circular

  2. BOption (b)

    rectangular

  3. COption (c)

    hexagonal

  4. DOption (d)

    triangular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

rectangular

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is rectangular.

Key Points

  • The layout of Harappan cities followed a well-planned rectangular grid pattern, indicative of their advanced urban planning and engineering skills.
  • The streets of these cities were designed to intersect at right angles, creating a grid-like structure that was highly organized and systematic.
  • The cities were divided into blocks or sectors, which were further classified into residential, commercial, and administrative zones—an early example of urban zoning.
  • Drainage systems were meticulously planned, with covered drains running beneath the streets, further supporting the organized layout of the grid pattern.
  • This system of city planning is evident in major Harappan cities such as Mohenjo-Daro, Harappa, Kalibangan, and Lothal.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of Harappan Urban Planning:
  • Grid Pattern: Streets were laid out in a rectangular grid, with main roads being wider and smaller lanes connecting houses and other structures.
  • Drainage System: A sophisticated drainage system was implemented, with separate channels for wastewater to prevent flooding and maintain hygiene.
  • Citadel and Lower Town: The cities were divided into two parts: the Citadel (for administrative and religious activities) and the Lower Town (residential and commercial areas).
  • Standardized Building Materials: Bricks of uniform size were used for construction, showcasing the standardized practices of the civilization.
  • Water Management: Public baths, reservoirs, and wells were strategically built for water storage and supply.
  • Characteristics of Other Layouts (Incorrect Options):
  • Circular: Typically found in medieval cities and forts, circular layouts were designed for defense purposes and are not associated with Harappan cities.
  • Hexagonal: This pattern is rare and is usually used in modern urban planning for efficient space utilization, not in ancient civilizations.
  • Triangular: Triangular layouts are uncommon in urban planning and are not a feature of Harappan civilization.
  • Important Harappan Sites:
  • Mohenjo-Daro: Known for the Great Bath and advanced drainage systems.
  • Harappa: The first discovered city, which gave the civilization its name.
  • Lothal: Famous for its dockyard and bead-making industry.
  • Kalibangan: Notable for fire altars and evidence of plowed agricultural fields.

Important Points

  • Time Period: The Harappan Civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, flourished around 2500 BCE to 1900 BCE.
  • Geographical Spread: The civilization covered parts of modern-day India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan, with major sites located along the Indus River and its tributaries.
  • Achievements: The Harappans were pioneers in urban planning, sanitation, trade, and standardized weights and measures.
  • Decline: The reasons for the decline of the Harappan Civilization are debated, with theories suggesting environmental changes, tectonic activity, or the drying up of rivers.

Question 86

The dance form known as 'Luddi' is popular in which Indian state/Union Territory?

  1. AOption (a)

    Meghalaya

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Assam

  4. DOption (d)

    Andaman and Nicobar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Punjab

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

  • Luddi is a traditional folk dance that originates from the Indian state of Punjab.
  • This dance form is typically performed to celebrate victory or any joyous occasion, making it an essential part of Punjabi culture and traditions.
  • Luddi is predominantly performed by men, and it involves energetic movements, rhythmic clapping, and coordinated steps, often accompanied by traditional Punjabi music.
  • The performers of Luddi wear colorful traditional Punjabi attire, which includes a kurta, turban, and dhoti, adding vibrancy to the dance.
  • The dance is accompanied by musical instruments like the dhol (a type of drum) and tumbi (a traditional string instrument), which provide a lively rhythm and energetic beats.
  • Luddi holds a significant place in Punjabi culture and is often performed during festivals, weddings, and social gatherings, showcasing the rich heritage of the region.

Additional Information

  • Other Folk Dances of Punjab:
  • Bhangra: A high-energy dance performed during harvest festivals like Baisakhi. It is popular worldwide for its lively moves and beats.
  • Giddha: A traditional Punjabi folk dance performed by women. It involves clapping, singing, and vibrant movements.
  • Jhumar: A slower and more graceful dance form compared to Bhangra, often performed in rural areas of Punjab.
  • Sammi: Another dance form performed by women, characterized by intricate hand movements and colorful costumes.
  • Musical Instruments Used in Punjabi Folk Dances:
  • Dhol: A double-headed drum that produces rhythmic beats, essential for Bhangra and Luddi.
  • Tumbi: A one-stringed instrument that adds a unique melody to Punjabi folk music.
  • Algoza: A woodwind instrument resembling a pair of flutes, often played in traditional Punjabi music.
  • Chimta: A metallic percussion instrument used to add jingling sounds to the music.
  • Importance of Folk Dances in Punjabi Culture:
  • These dances represent the rich cultural heritage of Punjab and are integral to the social fabric of the region.
  • They are performed to celebrate important events like festivals, weddings, and harvest seasons.
  • Punjabi folk dances promote a sense of community, joy, and unity among the participants and the audience.
  • They are also a way to preserve and pass down traditional values, stories, and customs to future generations.
  • Comparison of Other Options:
  • Meghalaya: Known for dances like Shad Suk Mynsiem and Nongkrem, which are linked to tribal rituals and festivals.
  • Assam: Famous for Bihu Dance, performed during the Bihu festival to celebrate the Assamese New Year and harvest.
  • Andaman and Nicobar: The indigenous tribes of these islands perform dances like Nicobarese and Ossuary dance.

Question 87

Which of the following is correct regarding medium earth orbit?

I. Satellites in MEO do not need to follow specific paths around Earth.

II. MEO is very commonly used by navigation satellites.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only II

Key Points

  • Statement I: Satellites in Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) generally follow specific paths around Earth. This is because they are placed in stable, predictable orbits to ensure reliable operation, especially for navigation and communication purposes. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.
  • Statement II: MEO is commonly used by navigation satellites. These satellites, such as those in the Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) like GPS (USA), Galileo (Europe), and GLONASS (Russia), are positioned in MEO to provide global coverage and accurate location data. Hence, Statement II is correct.
  • The altitude of MEO typically ranges from 2,000 km to 35,786 km above the Earth’s surface. Most navigation satellites operate at an altitude of approximately 20,000 km to ensure a balance between global coverage and reduced latency.
  • Satellites in MEO are not stationary like geostationary satellites but instead move at high speeds. They complete an orbit around the Earth in a few hours, which allows them to provide coverage to different parts of the globe at various times.
  • Conclusion: Since Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct, the correct answer is Only II.

Additional Information

  • Medium Earth Orbit (MEO):
  • MEO lies between Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and Geostationary Orbit (GEO). Its altitude ranges from 2,000 km to 35,786 km.
  • It is primarily used for navigation systems like GPS, Galileo, and GLONASS, as well as for some communication and Earth observation purposes.
  • Satellites in MEO have an orbital period ranging from about 2 to 12 hours, depending on their altitude.
  • MEO offers a balance between the wide coverage of geostationary satellites and the lower latency of low-Earth orbit satellites.
  • Applications of MEO Satellites:
  • Navigation: Systems like GPS, Galileo, and GLONASS use MEO to provide accurate location and timing services globally.
  • Communication: Some communication satellites use MEO to deliver services with less delay than GEO satellites.
  • Earth Observation: MEO satellites can also be used for environmental monitoring and remote sensing applications.
  • Comparison with Other Orbits:
  • Low Earth Orbit (LEO): Altitude of up to 2,000 km. Commonly used for Earth observation, scientific missions, and communication constellations like Starlink.
  • Geostationary Orbit (GEO): Altitude of 35,786 km. Used for weather satellites, television broadcasting, and communication satellites.
  • MEO: Positioned between LEO and GEO, providing a mix of advantages like moderate latency, global coverage, and stable orbits.

Important Points

  • Navigation Systems in MEO:
  • GPS: Operated by the United States, consists of 24 to 32 satellites in MEO, at an altitude of approximately 20,200 km.
  • Galileo: European GNSS system with satellites positioned in MEO at an altitude of around 23,222 km.
  • GLONASS: Russian navigation system with satellites orbiting at an altitude of about 19,100 km.
  • BeiDou: China’s navigation system, which also uses MEO along with GEO and LEO satellites.
  • Advantages of MEO:
  • Provides a balance between wide coverage (like GEO) and lower latency (like LEO).
  • Ideal for applications requiring global coverage, such as navigation and communication.

Question 88

In 2025, IIT-Madras and ISRO jointly developed a semiconductor chip. What is the name of this chip?

  1. AOption (a)

    PRITHVI

  2. BOption (b)

    IRIS

  3. COption (c)

    SARYU

  4. DOption (d)

    VIKRAM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

IRIS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IRIS.

Key Points

  • In 2025, IIT-Madras and ISRO collaborated to develop a breakthrough semiconductor chip named IRIS.
  • The IRIS chip is designed to enhance India's capabilities in semiconductor technology, a critical area for national technological advancement.
  • This chip aims to reduce dependency on imported semiconductor technology and foster self-reliance under the Indian government's Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
  • IRIS is tailored to meet the needs of aerospace applications, ensuring compatibility with advanced satellite systems and space missions.
  • The collaboration between IIT-Madras, a premier educational institution, and ISRO, India's space agency, marks a significant step in academic-industry partnerships in India.

Additional Information

  • About IIT-Madras:
  • IIT-Madras is one of India's premier technical institutes, established in 1959.
  • It is globally recognized for its research and innovation in fields such as semiconductors, artificial intelligence, and nanotechnology.
  • The institution has played a pivotal role in advancing India's technological landscape.
  • About ISRO:
  • The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is India's national space agency, established in 1969.
  • ISRO is renowned for its cost-effective and innovative space missions, including Chandrayaan and Mangalyaan.
  • It plays a key role in advancing India's space capabilities and fostering technological growth.
  • Significance of Semiconductor Technology:
  • Semiconductors are the backbone of modern electronics, powering devices like smartphones, satellites, and defense systems.
  • India currently imports most of its semiconductors, making domestic production crucial for economic and technological independence.
  • Atmanirbhar Bharat Initiative:
  • Launched in 2020 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, this initiative aims to make India self-reliant across various sectors.
  • It emphasizes local manufacturing, technological innovation, and reducing import dependency.
  • Applications of IRIS:
  • Designed for space missions, including satellite communication and earth observation.
  • Potential applications in defense systems and high-performance computing.
  • Can be used for data processing in advanced artificial intelligence and machine learning tasks.

Important Points

  • Global Semiconductor Market:
  • The global semiconductor market is expected to reach $1 trillion by 2030.
  • Countries like the USA, China, South Korea, and Taiwan dominate the semiconductor industry.
  • Government of India’s Semiconductor Push:
  • In 2021, India announced a $10 billion incentive scheme to boost local semiconductor manufacturing.
  • Partnerships with global semiconductor firms have been encouraged to establish manufacturing units in India.
  • Challenges in Semiconductor Manufacturing:
  • Requires highly advanced infrastructure and a skilled workforce.
  • High initial investment costs and dependency on raw materials like silicon.

Question 89

During the free fall of an object, as it falls, what happens to its potential energy and kinetic energy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both potential energy and kinetic energy decrease 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both potential energy and kinetic energy increase

  3. COption (c)

    Potential energy decreases while kinetic energy increases

  4. DOption (d)

    Potential energy increases while kinetic  energy  decreases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Potential energy decreases while kinetic energy increases

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potential energy decreases while kinetic energy increases.

Key Points

  • Potential Energy (PE): When an object is at a height, it possesses potential energy due to its position in a gravitational field. The formula for potential energy is PE = mgh, where m is mass, g is gravitational acceleration, and h is height. As the object falls, its height (h) decreases, leading to a decrease in potential energy.
  • Kinetic Energy (KE): Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion. The formula is KE = 1/2 mv², where m is mass and v is velocity. During free fall, the velocity of the object increases due to the acceleration caused by gravity, leading to an increase in kinetic energy.
  • Energy Conversion: As the object falls, the decrease in potential energy is directly converted into an increase in kinetic energy, keeping the total mechanical energy constant (in the absence of air resistance).
  • Law of Conservation of Energy: The total energy (sum of potential and kinetic energy) of the system remains constant throughout the free fall, as energy is merely transformed from one form to another.
  • Free Fall: In free fall, the only force acting on the object is gravity. This causes the object to accelerate downward at a rate equal to the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s² on Earth).

Additional Information

  • Potential Energy Characteristics:
  • Potential energy depends on the position of the object relative to a reference point.
  • It is a form of stored energy and can be converted into other energy forms, such as kinetic energy.
  • Examples: A stretched spring, water stored in a dam at a height, and an object at a certain altitude above ground.
  • Kinetic Energy Characteristics:
  • Kinetic energy depends on the mass and velocity of the object.
  • It is the energy of motion and increases as the velocity of the object increases.
  • Examples: A rolling ball, a moving car, or a falling object.
  • Gravitational Potential Energy:
  • This is a type of potential energy due to an object's height in a gravitational field.
  • It is given by the formula mgh, where g is approximately 9.8 m/s² on Earth.
  • Gravitational potential energy decreases as the object falls closer to the ground.
  • Conservation of Mechanical Energy:
  • In the absence of air resistance, the total mechanical energy (PE + KE) of an object in free fall remains constant.
  • As the object loses height (and potential energy), it gains speed (and kinetic energy), maintaining the total energy balance.
  • This principle is crucial for understanding free fall, pendulum motion, and other energy transformations.
  • Impact of Air Resistance:
  • In real-world scenarios, air resistance can affect the motion of a falling object, reducing its acceleration and altering the energy conversion process.
  • Objects in free fall under air resistance eventually reach a constant terminal velocity, where the forces of gravity and air resistance balance each other.

Important Points

  • Free Fall Definition: Free fall is the motion of an object under the influence of gravity alone, with no other forces acting on it (like air resistance).
  • Acceleration Due to Gravity: On Earth, the acceleration due to gravity is approximately 9.8 m/s². This value can vary slightly depending on altitude and location.
  • Energy Transformation: The transformation of potential energy into kinetic energy during free fall is a classic example of energy conversion in physics.
  • Applications: Understanding free fall and energy transformation is essential in fields like engineering, space exploration, and sports science.

Question 90

As of July 2025, which of the following public sector enterprise is awarded with "Maharatna" status?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharat Electronic Limited 

  2. BOption (b)

    Engineers India Limited

  3. COption (c)

    Power Finance Corporation

  4. DOption (d)

    Rail Vikas Nigam Limited

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Power Finance Corporation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Power Finance Corporation.

Key Points

  • Power Finance Corporation (PFC) was accorded the prestigious "Maharatna" status by the Government of India in July 2025. This recognition elevates PFC's position among India's top public sector enterprises.
  • Maharatna status is granted to select Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) that demonstrate consistent financial performance, global competitiveness, and significant contributions to the Indian economy.
  • PFC is a leading financial institution in the power sector, providing financial assistance to various electricity generation, transmission, and distribution projects across India.
  • With the Maharatna status, PFC now enjoys increased autonomy in investment and decision-making. It can make investments of up to Rs. 5,000 crores or 15% of its net worth in a single project, without requiring government approval.
  • PFC's stellar financial performance, including its consistent profitability, net worth, and operational efficiency, were key factors in achieving this status.

Additional Information

  • Maharatna Status Criteria:
  • A CPSE must have an average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crores, a net worth of over Rs. 15,000 crores, and net profit of over Rs. 5,000 crores during the last three years.
  • It must also have a global presence and significant international operations.
  • Benefits of Maharatna Status:
  • Increased financial and operational autonomy, allowing CPSEs to make larger investments without seeking governmental approval.
  • Enhanced decision-making capabilities to compete globally and expand operations.
  • About Power Finance Corporation (PFC):
  • Established in 1986, PFC is a Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Power, Government of India.
  • PFC provides financial assistance to power sector projects across the generation, transmission, and distribution segments.
  • It plays a vital role in supporting India's energy goals, including the government's initiatives on renewable energy and rural electrification.
  • Other Public Sector Enterprises with Maharatna Status:
  • Some other companies holding Maharatna status include Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL), Coal India Limited (CIL), Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC).

Important Points

  • Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL):
  • It is a Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Defence, specializing in defense electronics and communication equipment.
  • BEL has not yet achieved Maharatna status as of July 2025.
  • Engineers India Limited (EIL):
  • It is a Navratna company providing engineering consultancy and EPC (Engineering, Procurement, and Construction) services.
  • EIL is recognized as a Navratna but has not attained Maharatna status.
  • Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL):
  • RVNL is a Miniratna company under the Ministry of Railways, engaged in the implementation of railway infrastructure projects.
  • It does not meet the criteria for Maharatna status as of now.

Question 91

The disinvestment of a public sector unit leads to _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    reduction in financial assets of the government

  2. BOption (b)

    increase in the financial assets of the government

  3. COption (c)

    creation of liability of the government

  4. DOption (d)

    increase in the tax revenue of the government

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

reduction in financial assets of the government

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is reduction in financial assets of the government.

Key Points

  • Disinvestment refers to the process where the government sells its stake in public sector undertakings (PSUs) to private entities, either fully or partially.
  • This sale of stakes results in a reduction in the financial assets of the government because the ownership (and associated value) of the assets is transferred to private investors.
  • The objective of disinvestment is often to raise funds for the government, which can be utilized for developmental projects, reducing fiscal deficit, or other economic priorities.
  • While the government earns revenue from the sale, the disinvestment process is classified as a reduction in financial assets since it involves the transfer of asset ownership from the public to the private sector.
  • Disinvestment also aims to improve the operational efficiency of the PSUs by encouraging private sector participation and reducing the administrative burden on the government.

Additional Information

  • Definition of Financial Assets:
  • Financial assets represent the government’s ownership in forms like equity, bonds, or shares of public sector enterprises.
  • When the government divests its stake in PSUs, the equity ownership is reduced, leading to a decline in its financial asset holdings.
  • Categories of Disinvestment:
  • Strategic Disinvestment: The government sells a significant portion (50% or more) of its stake, transferring management control to private players.
  • Minority Stake Sale: The government retains majority ownership but sells a portion of its stake to raise funds.
  • Examples of Disinvestment in India:
  • The government sold a 51% stake in Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) in 2020 as part of its strategic disinvestment initiative.
  • The initial public offering (IPO) of Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) in 2022 is another instance of minority stake sale.
  • Impact of Disinvestment:
  • It helps the government raise non-tax revenue to meet its expenditure needs.
  • It reduces the fiscal burden of loss-making PSUs.
  • Encourages private sector efficiency in managing the enterprises.
  • Important Reports and Guidelines:
  • The Disinvestment Policy of India was introduced in 1991 as part of the economic reforms to liberalize the economy.
  • The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) is responsible for managing disinvestment-related activities.

Important Points

  • Tax Revenue: Disinvestment does not directly increase tax revenue, as it is a process of asset sale and does not involve taxation.
  • Liabilities: Disinvestment does not create liabilities for the government. Instead, it reduces the government’s burden of managing PSUs.
  • The funds raised through disinvestment are often used to finance infrastructure projects, repay public debt, or invest in social welfare schemes.
  • In the Union Budget 2021-22, the government set a disinvestment target of ₹1.75 lakh crore to support its economic priorities.

Question 92

On the bank of which river was the first English factory established?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ganga

  2. BOption (b)

    Kaveri

  3. COption (c)

    Mahanadi

  4. DOption (d)

    Hugli

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hugli

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hugli.

Key Points

  • The first English factory in India was established on the bank of the Hugli River in 1651.
  • The East India Company set up this factory during its early trading endeavors in India to facilitate its commercial activities.
  • The factory at Hugli marked the beginning of the East India Company's presence in Bengal, which later became a crucial region for trade and administration.
  • The location was chosen strategically as the Hugli River provided a navigable route for the transportation of goods to and from the port.
  • This establishment laid the foundation for the gradual expansion of British influence in India, eventually leading to their colonial dominance.

Additional Information

  • Hugli River:
  • The Hugli River is a distributary of the Ganges River and flows through the Indian state of West Bengal.
  • It played a significant role in the development of trade and commerce in Bengal during the colonial era.
  • Important cities such as Kolkata (Calcutta) are located along its banks, making it a historically crucial waterway.
  • East India Company:
  • The East India Company was established in 1600 as a trading company by a royal charter granted by Queen Elizabeth I of England.
  • It initially focused on trade in spices, textiles, and other commodities from the Indian subcontinent.
  • Over time, the company gained political and administrative control in India, leading to the establishment of British colonial rule.
  • Other Early British Factories in India:
  • The East India Company also established factories in Surat (1613), Madras (1640), and Bombay (1668) before expanding further.
  • These factories served as trading posts and centers for the storage and shipment of goods.
  • Significance of Bengal:
  • Bengal was a prosperous region known for its rich resources, fertile land, and thriving textile industry, making it a prime target for British trade.
  • The Battle of Plassey in 1757 marked the beginning of British political control in Bengal, further strengthening their presence in the region.

Important Points

  • Trade Commodities:
  • The East India Company primarily traded in spices, silk, cotton, indigo, saltpeter, and tea.
  • Rivalries:
  • The East India Company faced competition from other European powers, such as the Portuguese, Dutch, and French, who also had trading interests in India.
  • Historical Impact:
  • The establishment of the factory at Hugli and subsequent British activities in India significantly influenced the country's economic, political, and social landscape.

Question 93

In which year the Nawab of Awadh was forced to give over half of his territory to the East India Company? 

  1. AOption (a)

    1795

  2. BOption (b)

    1801

  3. COption (c)

    1810

  4. DOption (d)

    1818

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1801

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1801.

Key Points

  • In the year 1801, the Nawab of Awadh, under pressure from the East India Company, was forced to cede more than half of his territory to the British.
  • This agreement was part of the Subsidiary Alliance system, initiated by Lord Wellesley, the then Governor-General of India.
  • The ceded territories included fertile and strategically significant regions such as Rohilkhand, the Doab region, and Gorakhpur.
  • The Nawab was also required to disband his army and allow a British contingent to be stationed in Awadh, further ensuring British control over the region.
  • This marked a significant step in the British consolidation of power in northern India, paving the way for further territorial expansion.

Additional Information

  • Subsidiary Alliance System:
  • It was introduced by Lord Wellesley to bring Indian princely states under British control without direct annexation.
  • Under this system, Indian rulers were required to station a British force in their territory and pay for its maintenance.
  • The princely states could not ally with any other power or declare war without British permission, effectively reducing them to vassal states.
  • Reasons for the Cession of Awadh:
  • The British cited the weak governance of the Nawab and the need for administrative reforms as justification for taking over Awadh's territories.
  • The fertile lands of Awadh were crucial for agricultural production and revenue generation for the East India Company.
  • Impact of the Agreement:
  • The cession of territory weakened the sovereignty of the Nawab of Awadh, making him dependent on the British.
  • The people of Awadh faced increased revenue demands and administrative changes under British rule.
  • This event marked the beginning of a series of British interventions in Awadh, culminating in its complete annexation in 1856.
  • Important Figures:
  • Nawab Saadat Ali Khan II: The Nawab of Awadh during the cession of territory in 1801.
  • Lord Wellesley: Governor-General of India (1798–1805) who implemented the Subsidiary Alliance system.

Important Points

  • East India Company's Expansion:
  • By the early 19th century, the East India Company had expanded its control over large parts of India through a combination of treaties, alliances, and military conquests.
  • The Subsidiary Alliance system was a key tool in this expansion, allowing the British to dominate Indian states without direct administration initially.
  • Economic Exploitation:
  • The territories ceded by Awadh were rich in resources and played a crucial role in bolstering the Company's revenues.
  • However, the increased revenue demands placed a significant burden on the local population, leading to widespread discontent.
  • Annexation of Awadh (1856):
  • In 1856, the British annexed Awadh entirely, citing misgovernance and the Doctrine of Lapse.
  • This annexation was one of the factors leading to the Revolt of 1857, as it caused widespread resentment among the people of Awadh.

Question 94

The Banking Codes and Standards of India (BCSBI) has released a "Code of Bank's Commitment to Customers (Code) in July ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    2004

  2. BOption (b)

    2006

  3. COption (c)

    2008

  4. DOption (d)

    2002

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2006

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2006.

Key Points

  • The Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) was established to ensure fair treatment of customers by banks in India.
  • The "Code of Bank's Commitment to Customers" was released by BCSBI in July 2006, marking a significant step towards improving customer service and transparency in banking practices.
  • The code outlines minimum standards of banking practices that member banks must adhere to in their dealings with individual customers.
  • The main objective of this code is to promote good banking practices, increase transparency, and improve customer service.
  • This initiative was aimed at establishing trust between banks and their customers, ensuring that customers understand their rights and responsibilities in their banking relationships.

Additional Information

  • Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI):
  • BCSBI was established in 2006 as an independent and autonomous body to ensure adherence to codes and standards by banks.
  • Its formation was based on the recommendations of the Committee on Procedures and Performance Audit on Public Services (CPPAPS), chaired by Shri S. S. Tarapore.
  • BCSBI monitors and ensures compliance with the "Code of Bank's Commitment to Customers" and "Code of Bank's Commitment to Micro and Small Enterprises."
  • Code of Bank's Commitment to Customers:
  • This code sets benchmarks for banking practices and provides protection to customers by ensuring transparency in all dealings.
  • It covers various aspects such as account opening, loan processing, customer rights, and grievance redressal mechanisms.
  • The code also aims to inform customers about their rights and responsibilities in their banking relationships.
  • Key Features of the Code:
  • Ensures fair treatment of customers irrespective of their background, financial status, or profession.
  • Provides clarity on interest rates, fees, and other charges to avoid hidden costs.
  • Specifies timelines for various banking services, including grievance redressal.
  • Emphasizes the importance of customer confidentiality and data protection.
  • Customer Protection and Awareness:
  • The code empowers customers by educating them about their rights, such as the right to be informed, the right to privacy, and the right to choose banking products.
  • It also highlights the customer’s responsibility to provide accurate information and maintain proper documentation.

Important Points

  • Other Codes by BCSBI:
  • Besides the "Code of Bank's Commitment to Customers," BCSBI also introduced the "Code of Bank’s Commitment to Micro and Small Enterprises" to support small business owners.
  • These codes ensure that banks provide timely and adequate credit support to the micro and small enterprise (MSE) sector.
  • Membership of Banks:
  • Membership in BCSBI is voluntary for banks, and member banks are required to adhere to the codes and standards established by the board.
  • Most public sector banks, private sector banks, and several foreign banks operating in India are members of BCSBI.
  • Grievance Redressal Mechanism:
  • The code emphasizes the need for a robust grievance redressal mechanism to address customer complaints effectively and within a specified timeframe.
  • Customers can escalate unresolved complaints to the Banking Ombudsman if they are not satisfied with the bank's response.

Question 95

In which of the following state of India more than 85% of its net sown area is under irrigation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Haryana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Haryana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Haryana.

Key Points

  • Haryana is the state in India where more than 85% of its net sown area is under irrigation. This makes it one of the most agriculturally advanced states in the country.
  • The state benefits from an extensive network of canals and tube wells, which ensure consistent water supply for irrigation across its agricultural lands.
  • Haryana is part of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which has fertile soil that, coupled with advanced irrigation, supports intensive farming.
  • The state is a major contributor to India's Green Revolution, producing surplus food grains like wheat and rice.
  • Other states like Bihar, Odisha, and Madhya Pradesh have much lower percentages of irrigated net sown area due to geographical or infrastructural limitations.

Additional Information

  • Irrigation in Haryana:
  • The state heavily depends on canal irrigation, with the Yamuna River and its tributaries playing a crucial role in water supply.
  • The Western Yamuna Canal and the Bhakra Nangal Project are two major sources of irrigation in Haryana.
  • Additionally, tube wells are widely used, especially in regions with lower access to canal water.
  • Green Revolution and Haryana:
  • The state was a pioneer during India’s Green Revolution in the 1960s, which focused on increasing agricultural productivity through high-yield variety (HYV) seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation.
  • Haryana significantly contributes to the Central Pool of food grains, including wheat and rice.
  • Comparison with other states:
  • Bihar: Although agriculturally significant, Bihar has limited irrigation facilities, relying more on rainfall and less on canals or tube wells.
  • Odisha: Odisha has a higher reliance on rainfall for agriculture, with less than 50% of its net sown area under irrigation.
  • Madhya Pradesh: Despite being a large state, Madhya Pradesh has a lower percentage of irrigated land compared to Haryana, relying on rain-fed agriculture in many areas.
  • Importance of Irrigation:
  • Irrigation ensures a consistent water supply, enabling multiple cropping cycles in a year.
  • It reduces the dependency on monsoons and minimizes the risk of crop failure due to droughts.
  • Regions with better irrigation facilities, like Haryana, have higher agricultural productivity and economic stability.

Important Points

  • Key Data on Irrigation:
  • As per recent surveys, Haryana has more than 85% of its net sown area under irrigation, making it one of the most irrigated states in India.
  • The state’s focus on irrigation infrastructure has led to higher agricultural efficiency compared to other states.
  • Role of Government Policies:
  • Haryana's success in irrigation is partly due to government initiatives like the Command Area Development Programme and Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana.
  • Subsidies and incentives for tube well installation have further boosted irrigation in the state.

Question 96

What is the total length (in km) of navigable waterways in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    6500

  2. BOption (b)

    8000

  3. COption (c)

    11200

  4. DOption (d)

    14500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14500

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 14500 km.

Key Points

  • India has approximately 14,500 kilometers of navigable waterways, which include rivers, canals, backwaters, and creeks. These waterways serve as a vital mode of transportation and are crucial for the economic development of the country.
  • The inland waterways in India are regulated and developed by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), which was established in 1986.
  • Of the total 14,500 km of navigable waterways, National Waterways (NWs) account for a significant portion. As of now, there are 111 National Waterways declared under the National Waterways Act, 2016.
  • India's inland waterways are particularly prominent in states such as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Assam, and Kerala, where rivers like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Godavari serve as major transportation routes.
  • Inland Waterways contribute significantly to reducing transportation costs and environmental pollution, making them an eco-friendly and cost-effective mode of transport compared to road or rail.

Additional Information

  • National Waterways in India:
  • The Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system is designated as National Waterway 1 (NW-1), spanning 1,620 km from Allahabad to Haldia. It is one of the most significant waterways in India.
  • National Waterway 2 (NW-2) runs along the Brahmaputra river in Assam, covering a length of 891 km from Dhubri to Sadiya.
  • The West Coast Canal in Kerala is designated as National Waterway 3 (NW-3), spanning 205 km.
  • Other notable waterways include NW-4 (Godavari and Krishna rivers) and NW-5 (Mahanadi delta rivers).
  • Advantages of Inland Waterways:
  • Inland waterways are cost-effective for transporting bulk goods such as coal, cement, and agricultural products.
  • They are environmentally friendly as they consume less fuel and produce lower emissions compared to road and rail transport.
  • They help in decongesting roads and railways, reducing the burden on existing infrastructure.
  • Challenges in Inland Waterways Development:
  • India faces challenges such as sedimentation, which reduces the navigability of rivers.
  • There is a lack of adequate infrastructure, such as terminals, jetties, and cargo-handling equipment.
  • Seasonal variations in water levels, particularly during dry seasons, affect the smooth operation of inland water transport.
  • Government Initiatives:
  • The Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP), launched in 2014, aims to develop NW-1 (Ganga river) for commercial navigation.
  • The Sagarmala Programme focuses on port-led development and improving connectivity between inland waterways and coastal areas.
  • The National Inland Waterways Transportation Policy promotes the use of inland waterways as a sustainable transportation mode.

Important Points

  • Economic Benefits: Inland waterways reduce logistics costs, which is particularly important for India, where logistics costs are higher compared to developed nations.
  • Environmental Benefits: Water transport is significantly more energy-efficient and eco-friendly compared to road and rail transport.
  • Examples of Cargo Transport: Major commodities transported through inland waterways include coal, iron ore, cement, food grains, and fertilizers.
  • Future Potential: If adequately developed, India’s inland waterways could handle a substantial share of the freight traffic, thus boosting economic growth.

Question 97

As per India's Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, the total households in the country (Rural plus Urban) was ________ crores.

  1. AOption (a)

    24.49

  2. BOption (b)

    27.97

  3. COption (c)

    11.97

  4. DOption (d)

    31.28

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

24.49

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 24.49 crores.

Key Points

  • As per the Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, the total number of households in India (including both rural and urban areas) was recorded at 24.49 crores.
  • The SECC 2011 is a significant survey conducted by the Government of India to gather comprehensive data on the socio-economic status of households across the country.
  • This figure of 24.49 crore households provides crucial data for planning and implementing various government schemes and policies aimed at improving the living conditions of citizens.
  • The SECC data captures multiple dimensions such as poverty, housing, education, and employment, making it a vital tool for targeted welfare measures.
  • The census is jointly conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, and the Registrar General of India to ensure accurate and reliable data collection.

Additional Information

  • Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011:
  • The SECC 2011 is a landmark survey aimed at capturing the socio-economic and caste-based details of households in India.
  • The survey categorizes households based on parameters such as income, housing, education, employment, and social status.
  • This data helps in the identification of beneficiaries for various government schemes such as the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY).
  • Breakdown of Households:
  • The total number of households (24.49 crores) is divided between rural and urban areas, with 17.91 crore rural households and 6.58 crore urban households.
  • This division highlights the disparity in socio-economic conditions between rural and urban areas and the need for area-specific policies.
  • Purpose of SECC:
  • The SECC data is used to determine the socio-economic status of households, enabling the government to implement targeted welfare programs.
  • It also plays a key role in the allocation of funds and resources for poverty alleviation and infrastructure development.
  • Importance of Accurate Household Data:
  • Accurate data on households is essential for designing and implementing social welfare schemes like the MGNREGA and Mid-Day Meal Scheme.
  • It also helps in tracking the progress of development programs and identifying areas that require more attention.

Important Points

  • Conducting Agencies:
  • The SECC 2011 was conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development for rural areas and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs for urban areas.
  • Link to Welfare Schemes:
  • The SECC data is extensively used for schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), which provides free LPG connections to women from BPL households.
  • It also forms the basis for the implementation of the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP).
  • Comparison with Census Data:
  • The SECC differs from the decennial Census of India as it focuses on socio-economic parameters and caste, while the Census focuses on population count and demographics.

Question 98

How many total districts were covered in the India's Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 survey?

  1. AOption (a)

    640

  2. BOption (b)

    680

  3. COption (c)

    750

  4. DOption (d)

    730

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

640

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 640.

Key Points

  • The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) was conducted in 2011 to gather comprehensive data on households in India.
  • The survey covered a total of 640 districts across the country, which was the total number of districts in India at the time of the census.
  • The SECC 2011 was a collaborative effort involving the Ministry of Rural Development, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, and the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India.
  • The survey aimed to provide authentic socio-economic data for better implementation of government schemes and policies.
  • The data was used to identify below poverty line (BPL) households and provide targeted benefits under various government programs.

Additional Information

  • SECC 2011 Objectives:
  • The primary goal was to gather socio-economic and caste data to enable the government to design and implement welfare policies effectively.
  • It was the first-ever caste-based census conducted after 1931 in India.
  • The SECC covered both rural and urban households, collecting data on housing, education, occupation, and socio-economic status.
  • Key Features of SECC 2011:
  • It was conducted using hand-held devices to digitize data collection, ensuring accuracy and reducing manual errors.
  • For rural areas, the survey was conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development, while for urban areas, it was overseen by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
  • The Registrar General of India provided technical support for the survey.
  • Uses of SECC Data:
  • The data was used to identify priority households for government schemes like the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).
  • It also helped in understanding the socio-economic disparities across different regions and communities in India.
  • Important Figures:
  • India had a total of 640 districts in 2011 when the census was conducted. This number has since increased due to the creation of new districts in various states.
  • The census involved extensive manpower, with enumerators visiting each household across the country.

Important Points

  • Comparison with Previous Census:
  • The SECC 2011 was different from the Population Census 2011, as the latter focused on demographic data, while the SECC focused on socio-economic and caste data.
  • The SECC provided data for targeted interventions, whereas the Population Census provided a general demographic overview.
  • Challenges in SECC 2011:
  • The survey faced challenges such as data discrepancies, privacy concerns, and political sensitivities related to caste data.
  • Despite these challenges, the SECC 2011 remains a crucial resource for policy-making in India.

Question 99

How does auxin affect the growth of the plant in response to light?

  1. AOption (a)

    It causes all cells to grow equally

  2. BOption (b)

    It stimulates cells on the light side to grow longer

  3. COption (c)

    It inhibits growth on the shady side

  4. DOption (d)

    It stimulates cells on the shady side to grow longer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It stimulates cells on the shady side to grow longer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It stimulates cells on the shady side to grow longer.

Key Points

  • Auxin is a plant hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating plant growth, particularly in response to environmental stimuli such as light (a phenomenon known as phototropism).
  • In the presence of light, auxin tends to accumulate on the shaded side of the plant stem or shoot. This uneven distribution of auxin is responsible for differential cell elongation.
  • Auxin stimulates the cells on the shady side of the plant to elongate more compared to the cells on the light-exposed side. This causes the plant to bend towards the light.
  • The process of differential growth due to auxin is crucial for ensuring that plants maximize their exposure to sunlight, which is essential for photosynthesis.
  • Statements such as "auxin stimulates cells on the light side to grow longer" (Option 2) or "auxin inhibits growth on the shady side" (Option 3) are incorrect, as auxin specifically promotes growth on the shaded side.

Additional Information

  • Phototropism:
  • Phototropism is the growth of an organism in response to light. In plants, stems or shoots exhibit positive phototropism, meaning they grow towards the light source.
  • This behavior is driven by the unequal distribution of auxin, which promotes asymmetric growth.
  • The roots of plants, in contrast, may exhibit negative phototropism, as they grow away from light and deeper into the soil.
  • Mechanism of Auxin Action:
  • Auxins work by increasing the plasticity of the cell wall, which allows cells to elongate. This process is facilitated by activating proton pumps, which lower the pH in the cell wall and activate enzymes that loosen the wall structure.
  • The primary auxin involved in phototropism is indole-3-acetic acid (IAA).
  • Other Plant Hormones:
  • Cytokinins: Promote cell division and are involved in the growth of shoots and roots.
  • Gibberellins: Promote seed germination and stem elongation.
  • Abscisic Acid (ABA): Regulates stress responses and induces dormancy in seeds and buds.
  • Ethylene: Regulates fruit ripening and responses to mechanical stress.
  • Applications of Auxin:
  • Commercially, synthetic auxins like 2,4-D are used as herbicides to control weed growth.
  • Auxins are also used in horticulture for rooting cuttings, promoting flowering, and preventing fruit drop.

Important Points

  • Charles Darwin and Phototropism: The role of auxin in phototropism was first studied by Charles Darwin and his son, Francis Darwin, in the late 19th century.
  • They observed that the tips of coleoptiles (the protective sheath covering young shoots) are sensitive to light and hypothesized the existence of a mobile chemical that influences growth.
  • Frits Went: In 1926, Dutch scientist Frits Went identified this chemical as auxin and demonstrated its role in differential growth.
  • Gravitropism: Auxin is also involved in gravitropism, where roots grow downward in response to gravity, and shoots grow upward.

Question 100

Which of the following varnas in Vedic society was considered responsible for trade and business?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vaishya

  2. BOption (b)

    Brahmin

  3. COption (c)

    Shudra

  4. DOption (d)

    Kshatriya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Vaishya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vaishya.

Key Points

  • In the Vedic society, the social structure was divided into four varnas (classes), namely Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya, and Shudra, each with specific duties and responsibilities.
  • The Vaishya varna was primarily responsible for trade, commerce, and agricultural activities. They played a significant role in the economic development of society.
  • Vaishyas were engaged in professions like merchants, traders, artisans, and agriculturalists, contributing significantly to the prosperity and wealth of the community.
  • They were regarded as the backbone of the economy, focusing on wealth generation and distribution through their business and agricultural practices.
  • Unlike Brahmins (scholars and priests) and Kshatriyas (warriors and rulers), the Vaishyas held a crucial position in ensuring the smooth functioning of the economic and trade systems of the Vedic age.

Additional Information

  • Brahmins:
  • The Brahmins were considered the highest varna in the Vedic social hierarchy. Their primary responsibilities were related to teaching, learning, and performing religious rituals.
  • They were scholars and priests, ensuring the preservation and dissemination of Vedic knowledge through oral traditions.
  • Brahmins were also advisors to kings and played a significant role in shaping the cultural and spiritual aspects of society.
  • Kshatriyas:
  • The Kshatriyas were the warrior and ruling class, responsible for protecting the kingdom and maintaining law and order.
  • They were trained in warfare and military strategies and were often the rulers, kings, and administrators of the land.
  • Their primary duty was to uphold justice and protect the people from external threats.
  • Shudras:
  • The Shudras were the lowest varna in the Vedic society and were primarily responsible for serving the other three varnas.
  • They performed tasks such as manual labor and other service-oriented roles to support the functioning of society.
  • They were excluded from learning the Vedas and often faced social restrictions.
  • Economic Significance of Vaishyas:
  • The Vaishyas contributed significantly to the economic stability of the Vedic society through their involvement in trade and agriculture.
  • They were involved in international trade, which fostered cultural and economic exchanges with neighboring regions.
  • Their role in maintaining the economic prosperity of the society made them an integral part of the social structure.

Important Points

  • The varna system was initially based on an individual’s profession and aptitude but later became rigid and hereditary, leading to the emergence of the caste system.
  • The Vaishyas were pivotal in promoting trade routes and markets, which facilitated economic and cultural interactions across different regions.
  • They were also known for their patronage of the arts and culture, contributing to the flourishing of Vedic civilization.
  • The varna system is discussed in ancient texts like the Rigveda, which provides insights into the social and economic dynamics of the time.

100 questions in the full paper