SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 21 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is '2' i.e. the promotion to manager was .

Key Points

• The grammatical error lies in part 2, "the promotion to manager was".
• The sentence starts with "Having been a part of the team for five years,", which sets the context for the subject of the sentence. However, part 2 incorrectly makes "the promotion" the subject.
• Instead, the subject should be "he" or the person being referred to, as the promotion is related to him.

Correct sentence: Having been a part of the team for five years, he found the promotion to manager unexpected but much appreciated.

Additional Information

• Subject-Verb Agreement: Ensure the subject of the sentence aligns correctly with the verb.
• Misplaced Modifiers: Avoid making the wrong part of the sentence the subject when a modifier sets a different context.
• Clarity: Revising for clarity ensures the sentence conveys the intended meaning accurately.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. in.

Key Points

• The sentence requires the most appropriate preposition to complete the statement logically and grammatically.
• The preposition "in" is used to indicate proficiency or expertise in a particular field or area.
• The word "proficient" is commonly followed by "in" when referring to skills or knowledge areas.

Correct sentence: She is proficient in several programming languages, including Python and Java.

Additional Information

• Usage of other options:
• "at": Typically used for indicating location or specific points in time, not for proficiency.
• "on": Used for indicating position or topics but not for proficiency.
• "with": Used for tools or instruments, but "proficient with" is less commonly used than "proficient in."
• Prepositions often depend on the context and the verb or adjective used in the sentence.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. otherwise .

Key Points

• The given sentence is a conditional sentence that presents two choices: taking the early train or waiting for the afternoon one.
• The most appropriate conjunction to fill in the blank is "otherwise", as it implies a consequence or alternative action.
• Using "otherwise" helps establish the relationship between the choices effectively.

Correct sentence: You can take the early train, otherwise you'll have to wait for the afternoon one.

Additional Information

• Conjunctions Explained:
• And: Used to connect similar ideas or actions. Example: I like tea and coffee.
• Unless: Indicates a condition under which something will happen. Example: You won't pass unless you study.
• Otherwise: Indicates an alternative or consequence. Example: Hurry up; otherwise, you'll miss the train.
• Although: Used to show contrast. Example: Although it was raining, we went out.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Idealistic .

Key Points

• The word quixotic means exceedingly idealistic, unrealistic, and impractical.
• Option 2, Idealistic, is the closest synonym of the word quixotic as it refers to being visionary or having high ideals, often without considering practicality.
• Options 1, 3, and 4—Practical, Realistic, and Sensible—are antonyms of quixotic, as they describe grounded and pragmatic qualities.

Correct sentence: The most appropriate synonym of "quixotic" is idealistic.

Additional Information

• Synonyms: Words with similar meanings to quixotic include "romantic," "visionary," and "unrealistic."
• Antonyms: Words opposite in meaning to quixotic include "practical," "realistic," and "sensible."
• Usage in a sentence: His plans to build a utopian society were dismissed as quixotic by the critics.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Colonel .

Key Points

• Option 1, Colonel, is the correct spelling of the word.
• It refers to a rank in the military.
• The other options are incorrect spellings:
• Collonel (Option 2): Incorrect as it contains an extra 'l'.
• Colonal (Option 3): Incorrect as the vowel 'o' is misplaced.
• Cornel (Option 4): Incorrect as it is a completely different spelling.

Additional Information

• Colonel is pronounced as “kər-nəl”, which is different from its spelling.
• The word originated from the French word “colonel” and the Italian word “colonnello”, leading to the unique pronunciation.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Important .

Key Points

• The word "Trivial" means something of little importance or value.
• To find the antonym, we need to select the word that conveys the opposite meaning, i.e., something significant or of great importance.
• Among the given options:
• Option 1: Insignificant - Synonym of "trivial," meaning something unimportant. (Incorrect)
• Option 2: Minor - Similar in meaning to "trivial," also meaning less important. (Incorrect)
• Option 3: Important - Opposite of "trivial," meaning something of great significance. (Correct)
• Option 4: Commonplace - Similar to "trivial," meaning something ordinary or not special. (Incorrect)

Correct Answer: Important, as it is the most appropriate antonym of "Trivial".

Additional Information

• Antonyms are words that have opposite meanings. For example:
• Bright and Dark
• Fast and Slow
• Synonyms are words with similar meanings. For example:
• Happy and Joyful
• Trivial and Insignificant

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Lexicographer .

Key Points

• The word 'Lexicographer' refers to a person who compiles or writes dictionaries.
• It is derived from the word 'lexicon', which means a dictionary or a collection of words.
• Other options do not correctly describe someone who writes dictionaries:
• Editor: A person who edits content, typically books, articles, or other forms of written work.
• Novelist: A person who writes novels.
• Author: A general term for someone who writes books, articles, or other pieces of literature.

Correct definition: A Lexicographer is a person who compiles and writes dictionaries.

Additional Information

• Usage of Lexicography:
• Lexicography is the art or craft of writing dictionaries.
• It involves the selection of words, their definitions, examples of usage, and other relevant linguistic information.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. hardly any food .

Key Points

• The given sentence highlights the incorrect placement of the words "hardly" and "only" in the phrase, making it grammatically incorrect.
• The word "hardly" is an adverb and should be followed by "any food" to correctly express the idea of eating very little food.
• The correct phrase is "hardly any food," which makes the sentence grammatically accurate and meaningful.

Correct sentence: Paresh eats hardly any food.

Additional Information

• Hardly: This word is used to mean "almost not" or "barely." When used, it is typically followed by a noun or a pronoun.
• The placement of "hardly" is crucial in a sentence, as incorrect placement can lead to ambiguity or grammatical errors.
• The phrase "hardly any food" is commonly used to indicate that someone consumes very little food.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Depressed.

Key Points

• The word ebullient means extremely enthusiastic, cheerful, or joyful.
• To find the antonym, we need a word that conveys the opposite meaning. The correct antonym for "ebullient" is "depressed."
• Depressed refers to a state of sadness or lack of enthusiasm, which is the opposite of ebullient.

Correct sentence: The most appropriate antonym of the word "ebullient" is depressed.

Additional Information

• Synonyms of Ebullient:
• Cheerful
• Joyful
• Enthusiastic
• Antonyms of Ebullient:
• Depressed
• Sad
• Melancholy

The correct answer is '2' i.e. He said, "While I was writing the report, my laptop suddenly shut down."

Key Points

• The given sentence is in Reported Speech, which needs to be converted into Direct Speech.
• In the Direct Speech format, the tense used depends on the context and the tense of the original statement.
• From the sentence in Reported Speech:
• Original tense: "had been writing" (past perfect continuous) → converted to "was writing" (past continuous) for Direct Speech.
• The event "laptop suddenly shut down" is in simple past tense ("shut down").
• Option 2 correctly reflects the tense consistency and retains the original meaning of the sentence.

Correct sentence: He said, "While I was writing the report, my laptop suddenly shut down."

Additional Information

• Direct Speech:
• Direct Speech is used to quote the exact words of the speaker.
• It is enclosed in quotation marks (" ").
• Example: He said, "I am going to the market."
• Reported Speech:
• Reported Speech is used to convey the meaning of what the speaker said, without quoting their exact words.
• It typically involves a shift in tense and no quotation marks.
• Example: He said that he was going to the market.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. cumulative .

Key Points

• The word "cumulative" is correctly spelled and represents something that increases or builds up over time by accumulation.
• All other options (1, 2, and 4) are misspelled forms of the word "cumulative."
• The correct sentence reads: "The scientist emphasized that the cumulative effects of small daily habits can significantly influence long-term health outcomes."

Additional Information

• The word "cumulative" is derived from the Latin word "cumulare," meaning "to heap up."
• It is often used in contexts relating to the accumulation of effects, data, or results over time.
• For example:
• The cumulative rainfall this year exceeded last year's levels.
• Her cumulative efforts over the semester earned her a high grade.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Do they expect to implement the new policy immediately across all departments? .

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the passive voice. To change it to the active voice, we need to identify the implied subject, which in this case is “they.”
• The sentence structure in active voice should follow the pattern: Subject + Verb + Object.
• The correct option, Option 3, rephrases the sentence in the active form as: Do they expect to implement the new policy immediately across all departments?
• The other options are incorrect because:
• Option 1: Are they expecting to implement the new policy immediately across all departments? - Incorrect because it uses the present continuous, which is not needed here.
• Option 2: Is the new policy implementing immediately across all departments? - Incorrect because it remains in the passive form and is grammatically incorrect.
• Option 4: They expect to implement the new policy immediately across all departments? - Incorrect because it is not in the interrogative form as required by the original question.

Correct sentence: Do they expect to implement the new policy immediately across all departments?.

Additional Information

• Active vs Passive Voice:
• Active voice: The subject performs the action (e.g., “They expect to implement the policy.”).
• Passive voice: The subject receives the action (e.g., “The policy is expected to be implemented.”).
• While changing from passive to active voice, always identify the doer of the action and restructure the sentence accordingly.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. My mother said that she would help me with my homework .

Key Points

• The given sentence is in direct speech and needs to be converted into indirect speech.
• In indirect speech, the tense of the verb changes to reflect the fact that the statement is being reported.
• Here, the direct speech statement “I will help you with your homework” is in the future tense.
• When converting to indirect speech, the future tense ‘will’ changes to ‘would’.
• Thus, the correct indirect speech sentence is “My mother said that she would help me with my homework.”

Correct sentence: My mother said that she would help me with my homework.

Additional Information

• Rules for Changing Direct to Indirect Speech:
• Pronouns: Pronouns are adjusted based on the subject and object of the reporting sentence.
• Verb Tense: The verb tense is shifted back one step in time (e.g., present to past, future to conditional).
• Time and Place Words: Words indicating time and place are changed to match the perspective of the speaker (e.g., “now” becomes “then,” “here” becomes “there”).
• Examples:
• Direct: She said, “I am going to the market.”
• Indirect: She said that she was going to the market.
• Direct: He said, “I will finish the project tomorrow.”
• Indirect: He said that he would finish the project the next day.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. desert .

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the word "dessert" is mistakenly used in place of "desert".
• Dessert refers to a sweet dish served at the end of a meal.
• Desert refers to a dry, barren area of land, usually covered with sand and having little or no vegetation.
• Since the sentence is describing "a dry piece of land," the correct word is "desert."

Correct sentence: The desert is a dry piece of land.

Additional Information

• Common Confusion:
• Dessert: A sweet course or dish typically eaten at the end of a meal.
• Desert: A barren, dry region with little vegetation.
• Example:
• I love eating chocolate cake for dessert. (Correct usage of "dessert")
• The Sahara is the world's largest hot desert. (Correct usage of "desert")

The correct answer is '1' i.e. By whom was the Mona Lisa painted?

Key Points

• The sentence given in the active voice is “Who painted the Mona Lisa?”.
• To transform it into the passive voice, the subject becomes the object, and the verb form is adjusted.
• In passive voice, the structure becomes By whom was the Mona Lisa painted?, correctly following the grammar rules.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect or awkward in construction.

Correct sentence: By whom was the Mona Lisa painted?

Additional Information

• Active Voice: The subject performs the action of the verb. Example: Who painted the Mona Lisa?
• Passive Voice: The subject receives the action of the verb. Example: By whom was the Mona Lisa painted?
• When converting a question in active voice to passive voice, the question format should remain intact while restructuring the sentence grammatically.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Active Voice Identification: In the active voice, the subject of the sentence performs the action. Here, "The compulsion..." is the subject acting upon the object, "professionals".
• Verb Analysis: The verb "compels" is in its active form. It does not use auxiliary verbs like "is/are" combined with a past participle (e.g., "are compelled"), which would indicate a passive construction.
• Sentence Structure: The sentence follows a clear Subject + Verb + Object pattern, emphasizing the direct impact of work pressure on individuals.

Additional Information

• Passive Conversion: To change this to passive voice, the object would become the subject: "Professionals are frequently compelled by the compulsion to deliver...".
• Contextual Meaning: The passage highlights the deleterious effects of incessant work, such as cardiac arrests and strokes, which are often ignored due to societal stigma.
• Clarion Call: The author concludes that the rising mortality among CAs is a clarion call for systemic reforms and institutional accountability.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Finite Verb Definition: A finite verb is a verb that has a specific subject and shows tense (past, present, or future) and number (singular or plural). It acts as the main verb of a clause.
• Analysis of "Aggravated": In the sentence, "aggravated" is the finite verb because it is the main action performed by the subject ("The pandemic") and is in the simple past tense.
• Non-Finite Verbs: The words transitioning, blurring, and extending are present participles (gerunds/participles acting as objects of the preposition "by"). They do not show tense on their own and do not have a direct subject-verb agreement in this structure, making them non-finite.

Additional Information

• Identifying Finite Verbs: You can identify a finite verb by checking if it changes when you change the tense (e.g., "The pandemic aggravates...") or the subject number.
• Contextual Vocabulary: The word "aggravated" in the passage means to make a problem or injury worse or more serious.
• Sentence Structure: The subject is "The pandemic," the finite verb is "aggravated," and the rest of the sentence provides additional information through participial phrases.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Contextual Meaning: In the passage, the word "deleterious" is used to describe the effects of incessant work pressures that lead to grave health repercussions like cardiac arrests and strokes. These consequences are inherently negative and damaging.
• Definition: Deleterious means causing harm or damage. It is often used in formal or technical contexts to describe something that has a destructive effect on health or systems.
• Synonyms: Common synonyms include harmful, detrimental, injurious, and damaging. In this context, "harmful" is the most direct and accurate substitute.

Additional Information

• Antonym: The opposite of deleterious is beneficial (Option 1) or advantageous, which clearly does not fit the context of life-threatening health conditions.
• Insignificant: Option 3 is incorrect because the passage emphasizes that these effects are "grave" and "life-threatening," making them highly significant.
• Usage in Passage: The author uses strong vocabulary like exacerbated (made worse) and deleterious to underscore the severity of the crisis facing Chartered Accountants in India.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Definition: A "clarion call" is a strong, clear, and loud request or demand for action to be taken regarding a specific situation.
• Etymology: Historically, a "clarion" was a shrill-sounding trumpet used in war to signal soldiers. In a modern literary context, it signifies an urgent appeal that cannot be ignored.
• Contextual Application: In the passage, the author uses this phrase to emphasize that the rising mortality among CAs is not just a minor issue but an urgent demand for systemic reforms and institutional accountability.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options: "Gentle suggestion" (Option 1) and "quiet warning" (Option 4) lack the intensity and urgency required by the word "clarion." "Ambiguous statement" (Option 3) is the opposite of a clarion call, which must be unmistakably clear.
• Tone of the Passage: The author uses powerful adjectives such as "alarming," "deleterious," and "burgeoning" to set a serious tone, making a "loud and clear demand" the most appropriate meaning.
• Synonyms: Other synonyms for a clarion call include an ultimatum, a battle cry, or an urgent appeal.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Regulatory Inaction: The passage explicitly states that regulatory bodies and firms have been "slow to implement effective measures to mitigate occupational hazards." This indicates that there is a lack of strict enforcement of workload limits.
• Contributing Factors: Options 1, 2, and 4 are all directly mentioned as contributing to the crisis:
• Chronic sleep deprivation: Mentioned as a result of "protracted hours" and "intense mental exertion".
• Virtual work platforms: The transition to virtual work during the pandemic blurred personal-professional boundaries and extended hours.
• Societal stigma: Described as a factor that "dissuades many from obtaining necessary mental health support".

Additional Information

• Financial Ecosystem: The text highlights that despite being "pivotal" to India's financial stability, the well-being of these professionals is frequently forsaken.
• Fiscal Year Pressures: Workloads are noted to intensify "manifold" during specific periods like tax filing seasons.
• Call for Reform: The author suggests that "institutional accountability" and "systemic reforms" are needed to change this high-pressure landscape.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. P, Q, R, S .

Key Points

• The sentence parts need to be arranged in a sequence that forms a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
• Step 1 (P): The paragraph begins with the action of taking a thin slice of a tissue sample and placing it on a glass slide.
• Step 2 (Q): Following this, a single drop of staining solution is added to make the cells visible.
• Step 3 (R): After that, a thin cover slip is carefully placed over the sample to protect it.
• Step 4 (S): Finally, the slide is placed under the microscope to begin the examination.

Correct paragraph: He took a very thin slice of a tissue sample and placed it on a glass slide. He added a single drop of a staining solution to make the cells visible. He carefully placed a thin cover slip over the sample to protect it. He placed the slide under the microscope to begin his examination.

Additional Information

• When rearranging sentences, it is important to identify the logical sequence of actions or events.
• In this case, the sequence follows the steps of a process, starting from the preparation of the sample to its examination under the microscope.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. P, R, Q, S .

Key Points

• The paragraph describes the creation of a robot by students as part of their final assignment.
• The logical sequence starts with introducing the robot's purpose (P).
• Next, their combined engineering, programming, and design abilities (R) are highlighted.
• The process of coding over weeks (Q) is mentioned afterward.
• Finally, the robot's flawless performance (S) showcases their commitment and teamwork.

Correct sequence: P, R, Q, S.

Additional Information

• In questions related to rearranging sentences, always look for a logical flow or connection between ideas.
• Identify introductory sentences (often providing context) and concluding sentences (highlighting outcomes or results).
• Ensure grammatical correctness and coherence in the final arrangement.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. Customer .

Key Points

• The word "client" refers to someone who purchases goods or services from a professional or a business.
• In the given context, the sentence mentions a man approaching an astrologer, which implies a professional-client relationship.
• Among the options provided:
• Leader: Refers to someone who guides or inspires others.
• Stranger: Refers to someone unknown or unfamiliar.
• Rival: Refers to a competitor or opponent.
• Customer: Refers to someone who buys goods or services, which is closest in meaning to "client."

Correct Explanation: The astrologer knew that the man in front of him was no ordinary client. Here, "client" is synonymous with "customer," which fits the context of the sentence..

Additional Information

• Understanding Synonyms:
• Synonyms are words with similar meanings.
• Choosing the correct synonym depends on the context in which the word is used.
• Examples of "Client" Usage:
• The lawyer discussed the case with her client.
• The IT firm provided services to international clients.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. bore, bore .

Key Points

• The sentence uses two different meanings of the homonym “bore” to complete the blanks.
• The first “bore” is used as the past tense of the verb “bear,” meaning to endure or tolerate patiently.
• The second “bore” means to cause someone to feel weary or uninterested.
• For example:
• She bore the obligation of attending the kitty party with patience.
• Soon the mindless chatter began to bore her.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because they use the word "boar," which refers to a wild pig and does not fit the context of the sentence.

Correct sentence: She bore the obligation of attending the kitty party with patience, but soon the mindless chatter began to bore her.

Additional Information

• Homonyms:
• Homonyms are words that are spelled or pronounced the same but have different meanings.
• Examples of homonyms include:
• Bank (a financial institution) and bank (the side of a river).
• Bat (an animal) and bat (a piece of sports equipment).

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Anarchy .

Key Points

• The term Anarchy refers to a state of society where there is no governing authority or government.
• It represents complete freedom from rules or laws imposed by a governing body.
• This is distinct from other forms of government like Democracy (rule by the people), Monarchy (rule by a king or queen), or Oligarchy (rule by a small group of individuals).

Correct sentence: The absence of government is referred to as Anarchy.

Additional Information

• Democracy: A form of government where the power lies with the people who elect representatives.
• Monarchy: A system where a monarch (king or queen) rules over the state.
• Oligarchy: A government where a small group of people hold power.

Given: 45 students

Aman is 21st from the left end.

Position from right = Total number of students – Position form left + 1

Position form right = 45 - 21 + 1 = 25

So, Aman’s position from the right end is 25th.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

​Student scored 75 out of 120 marks in an exam.

Percentage score = (Obtained marks / Total marks) × 100

= (75 / 120) × 100

= 62.5%

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) No dog is a bird → Does not follow (As there is no direct relation between dog and bird, so they can be related. It is possible but not definite.)

(II) Some birds are not dogs → Does not follow (As there is no direct relation between bird and dog, so all birds can be dogs. It is possible but not definite.)

Here, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given, Candles are arranged in a row

The middle candle is 8th from both ends.

Middle candle (8)

So, there are 7 candles on the left of the middle candle and 7 candles on the right of the middle candle.

Total number of candles = 7+1+7 = 15

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1“.

6 km west and 6 km east cancel each other

⇒ Net horizontal displacement = 0

Vertical movement

⇒ 8 km north

⇒ Final position = 8 km north of starting point

∴ He is in the North direction from his starting point.

6 km north and 6 km south cancel each other

⇒ Net vertical displacement = 0

Horizontal displacement

⇒ 8 km east

⇒ Shortest distance = 8 km

∴ The shortest distance between starting and ending point is 8 km.

​Given, 544361" 19 = 563 and 882231" 21 = 893.

So, 627~133" 7 

The operation can be interpreted as

a ~ b”c = a + b ÷ c

Checking the given equations, 

544 +361 ÷ 19 = 544 +19 = 563 . The given logic is correct.

882 + 231 ÷ 21 = 882 + 11 = 893. the given logic is correct.  

So, 627 + 133 ÷ 7 = 627 + 19 = 646.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1“.

​Given, Choose the next in: E, H, K, N, Q, ?

So, follows +3 steps in the alphabet:

E(5) → H(8) → K(11) → N(14) → Q(17) → T(20).

Correct Option – 2 (T)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2“.

​Reasoning:- Option 1 ignores customers’ needs and can lead to loss of loyalty.

Option 2 shifts blame but doesn’t solve the customer experience.

Option 3 deceives customers and raises prices, damaging trust.

Option 4 builds trust through honesty and provides solutions, keeping customers satisfied.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4–( Inform customers transparently and offer alternatives)".

The logic followed here is: 

Logic:

The pattern is that in that in three of the pairs the first number is exactly twice the second number. ( second number × 2 = first number)

Checking each pair :

Option 1)  18 : 9 =  9 × 2 ⇒ 18

Option 2) 14 : 7 = 7 × 2 ⇒ 14

Option 3) 30 : 14 = 14 × 2  ⇒ 28 ≠ 30

Option 4) 22 : 11 = 11 × 2  ⇒  22

 The pair that does not follow the pattern is (3) 30:14

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

​Given , Keyboard: Typing :: Paintbrush:?

• A keyboard is a tool used for typing.
• Similarly, a paintbrush is a tool used for painting.

So, the related word is( 3). Painting. 

The correct option is 3.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The middle two digits of the first number are interchanged to get the second number.

Now,

For, 1101 : 1011

⇒ 1 (10) 1 → Interchange middle digits (1,0) → 1 (01) 1 = 1011.

Similarly, for 2125 : ?

⇒ 2 (12) 5

⇒ Interchange middle digits (1, 2) → 2 (21) 5

⇒ 2215

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

 Given Sequence ::m_nnm_nnnm_nnn_:

Now, putting the letters in the blank spaces given in the option one by one:

Option 1). nmmn = mnnnmmnnnmmnnnn

Option 2**). nmmm** = mnnnmmnnnmmnnnm

Here, ‘mnnnm' followed a pattern.

Option 3). nmnm = mnnnmmnnnmnnnnm

Option 4). mmmm = mmnnmmnnnmmnnnm

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

In a queue, Ram is 15th from the front and Shyam is 18th from the back. If there are 7 people between them.

                                                                  Ram (15)                  Shyam(18)

The Maximum possible number of people in the queue = Possible of Ram + Possible of shyam + Between people

 = 15 + 18 + 7 = 40

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given, Scenario: In a row of 60 cars, a green car is 25th from the left.

Position from right = Total items – Green car position from left + 1

60 – 25 + 1 = 36

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The Reference Statement given in the problem is,

Jaipur. Mar. 20th, 2026 (Thursday).

So, the statement that exactly matches the Reference Statement is option (1).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

The Reference Statement given in the problem is,

Lima, Peru. 28 July 1821.

So, the statement that exactly matches the Reference Statement is option (1).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

​Given:

Propeller: Airplane:: ?: Radia

The analogy is Propeller : Airplane

A propeller is a device that drives or powers an airplane.

Similarly,

An antenna is a device used to transmit or receive signals for a radio.

Correct answer: 3. Antenna.

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 132.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

​The sequence is: 100, 25, 6.25, 1.5625, ?

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 1st number ÷  4 = 2nd number. 2nd number ÷ 4  = 3rd number.

Now, 

100 ÷ 4 = 25

25 ÷  4 = 6.25

6.25 ÷  4 = 1.5625

1.5625 ÷ 4 = 0.390625

So, the next number is 0.390625

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

8 boys A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing south.

A and H are at extreme ends of the row.

F is to the immediate left of A. Since they are facing south, A must be at the left end (from our perspective) so that F can be to his left.

E and F are immediate neighbours of B. 

C is fourth to the left of B.

D is not the immediate neighbour of C.

Thus, A is sitting third to the right of E(all are facing south)

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

To find the direction in which W started walking,

Each left turn cancels out a right turn because they are opposite directions.

Right turns: 9 (right)

Left turns: 8 (left)

Net result: right turns - left turns = 9 - 8 = 1 right turn

This means that after all the walking and turning, W’s final direction is the same as if she had started walking and made just one right turn.

We know her final direction is South. To find her starting direction, we need to reverse the net turn (instead of a right turn, we go left from the final direction):

Final Direction: South

Reverse of 1 Right Turn: 1 Left Turn

If you are facing South and turn Left, you will face East.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

​Given,:

P walks 40 km towards north. He turns right and walks 80 km. He again turns right and walks 40 km.

Thus, he is 80 km away from the starting point in the East direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The question is a logical deduction problem.

Statement: Every student who studies regularly passes the exam. Maria passed the exam. 

You need to decide which conclusion can be logically deduced.

1. Maria studies regularly – invalid. The statement only says regular study ⇒ pass, not pass ⇒ regular study.
2. Maria might have studied regularly – valid. Since passing can be due to regular study or other reasons, this is a possible inference.
3. Only students who study regularly pass exams – invalid. The original statement does not imply exclusivity.
4. Maria is the only student who passed – invalid. No information is given about other students.

Correct answer: (2). Maria might have studied regularly.

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, we need to interchange the numbers 3 and 7 and identify which of the following equations will NOT be correct.

I. 7 × 9 + 3 - 8 ÷ 2 = 30

New Equation: 3 × 9 + 7 - 8 ÷ 2 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

⇒ 3 × 9 + 7 - (8 ÷ 2)

⇒ (3 × 9) + 7 - 4

⇒ (27 + 7) - 4

⇒ 34 - 4

⇒ 30

30 = 30 (Equation I is Correct)

II. 2 × 3 + 7 - 4 ÷ 1 = 13

New Equation: 2 × 7 + 3 - 4 ÷ 1 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

⇒ 2 × 7 + 3 - (4 ÷ 1)

⇒ (2 × 7) + 3 - 4

⇒ (14 + 3) - 4

⇒ 17 - 4

⇒ 13

13 = 13 (Equation II is Correct)

Since both equations I and II are correct after the interchange, neither of them is "not correct".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Average of 8 numbers = 26

Average of 7 numbers (excluding one number) = 25

Formula Used:

Sum of numbers = Average × Number of terms

Excluded number = Total sum of 8 numbers - Total sum of 7 numbers

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum of 8 numbers = 26 × 8 = 208

⇒ Total sum of 7 numbers = 25 × 7 = 175

⇒ Excluded number = 208 - 175 = 33

∴ The correct answer is 33.

Given:

√15 = 3.88

Formula Used:

√(a ÷ b) = √a ÷ √b

√(a × b) = √a × √b

Calculation:

⇒ √(5 ÷ 3) = √5 ÷ √3

⇒ √15 = √(5 × 3)

⇒ √15 = √5 × √3

⇒ 3.88 = √5 × √3

⇒ √5 = 3.88 ÷ √3

⇒ √(5 ÷ 3) = (3.88 ÷ √3) ÷ √3

⇒ √(5 ÷ 3) = 3.88 ÷ (√3 × √3)

⇒ √(5 ÷ 3) = 3.88 ÷ 3

⇒ √(5 ÷ 3) = 1.2933

∴ The correct answer is 1.2933.

Given:

x = (√2 + 1) ÷ (√2 − 1)

y = (√2 − 1) ÷ (√2 + 1)

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

(a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab

(a + b)(a − b) = a² − b²

Calculation:

⇒ x × y = ((√2 + 1) ÷ (√2 − 1)) × ((√2 − 1) ÷ (√2 + 1))

⇒ x × y = 1

⇒ x + y = ((√2 + 1) ÷ (√2 − 1)) + ((√2 − 1) ÷ (√2 + 1))

⇒ x + y = ((√2 + 1)² + (√2 − 1)²) ÷ ((√2 − 1)(√2 + 1))

⇒ (√2 + 1)² = 2 + 1 + 2√2

⇒ (√2 − 1)² = 2 + 1 − 2√2

⇒ Numerator = (3 + 2√2) + (3 − 2√2)

⇒ Numerator = 6

⇒ Denominator = 2 − 1

⇒ Denominator = 1

⇒ x + y = 6

⇒ x² + y² = (x + y)² − 2xy

⇒ x² + y² = 6² − 2 × 1

⇒ x² + y² = 36 − 2

⇒ x² + y² = 34

∴ The correct answer is 34.

Given:

Investment ratio of A, B, and C = 2:3:5

Total profit = ₹10,000

Formula Used:

B's share = (B's ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ Total ratio = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10

⇒ B's share = (3 ÷ 10) × 10,000

⇒ B's share = 3,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,000.

Given:

Investment ratio = 2:3:5

Total profit = ₹10000

Formula Used:

A's share = (A's ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ Total ratio = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10

⇒ A's share = (2 ÷ 10) × 10000

⇒ A's share = 0.2 × 10000

⇒ A's share = ₹2000

∴ The correct answer is ₹2000.

Given:

A : B = 2 : 3

B : C = 4 : 5

Formula Used:

If A : B = m : n and B : C = p : q, make the common term equal by multiplying with LCM.

Calculation:

⇒ B values are 3 and 4

⇒ LCM of 3 and 4 = 12

⇒ Multiply 2 : 3 by 4

⇒ A : B = 8 : 12

⇒ Multiply 4 : 5 by 3

⇒ B : C = 12 : 15

⇒ A : B : C = 8 : 12 : 15

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 12 : 15.

Shortcut Trick

Total sum of 4 numbers = Average × Total count

Total sum = 8 × 4 = 32

Sum of known numbers = 4 + 6 + 10 = 20

Value of x = Total sum − Sum of known numbers = 32 − 20 = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers are 4, 6, x, 10 and their Average is 8.

Formula Used: Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

⇒ Average = (4 + 6 + x + 10) ÷ 4

⇒ 8 = (20 + x) ÷ 4

⇒ 8 × 4 = 20 + x

⇒ 32 = 20 + x

⇒ x = 32 − 20

⇒ x = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Additional Information

Sum of Deviations

The sum of the deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero. For example: (4−8) + (6−8) + (12−8) + (10−8) = −4 − 2 + 4 + 2 = 0.

Weighted Average

When groups have different sizes, the combined average is calculated as (n₁×A₁ + n₂×A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Effect of Constant

If a constant 'k' is added to or subtracted from every observation, the new average will also increase or decrease by 'k'.

Given:

Average of four numbers = 44

Average of first and second numbers = 40

Average of third and fourth numbers = 48

First number = 36

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of values) ÷ (Number of values)

Sum of values = Average × Number of values

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of four numbers = 44 × 4 = 176

⇒ Sum of first and second numbers = 40 × 2 = 80

⇒ Sum of third and fourth numbers = 48 × 2 = 96

⇒ Second number = Sum of first and second numbers − First number

⇒ Second number = 80 − 36 = 44

∴ The correct answer is 44.

Given:

Marks scored = 72

Percentage = 60%

Formula Used:

Total marks = (Marks scored × 100) ÷ Percentage

Calculation:

⇒ Total marks = (72 × 100) ÷ 60

⇒ Total marks = 7200 ÷ 60

⇒ Total marks = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 100

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 120

Formula Used:

Profit = SP - CP

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Profit = 120 - 100

⇒ Profit = 20

⇒ Profit Percentage = (20 ÷ 100) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 250

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 300

Formula Used:

Profit = SP - CP

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Profit = 300 - 250

⇒ Profit = 50

⇒ Profit Percentage = (50 ÷ 250) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 0.2 × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Given:

First discount = 20%

Second discount = 10%

Formula Used:

Equivalent single discount = 100 - [(100 - d₁) × (100 - d₂) ÷ 100]

Calculation:

⇒ Equivalent single discount = 100 - [(100 - 20) × (100 - 10) ÷ 100]

⇒ Equivalent single discount = 100 - [80 × 90 ÷ 100]

⇒ Equivalent single discount = 100 - [7200 ÷ 100]

⇒ Equivalent single discount = 100 - 72

⇒ Equivalent single discount = 28%

∴ The correct answer is 28%.

Given:

First solution concentration = 30%

Second solution concentration = 60%

Required concentration = 50%

Formula Used:

Required ratio = (Higher concentration − Mean concentration) : (Mean concentration − Lower concentration)

Calculation:

⇒ Ratio = (60 − 50) : (50 − 30)

⇒ Ratio = 10 : 20

⇒ Ratio = 1 : 2

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 2.

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 5750

Simple Interest (SI) = Rs. 2620.50

Time (T) = 5 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Rate of Interest (R) = (SI × 100) ÷ (P × T)

Calculation:

⇒ R = (2620.50 × 100) ÷ (5750 × 5)

⇒ R = 262050 ÷ 28750

⇒ R ≈ 9.11%

∴ The correct answer is 9.11%.

Shortcut Trick

Outer surface area (CSA) of a hemispherical bell = 2πr².

Total Cost = Area × Rate = (2 × π × 2²) × 0.75.

Cost = 8 × π × 0.75 = 6 × π = 6 × 3.14159 ≈ ₹18.85.

∴ The correct answer is ₹18.85.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) = 2 cm

Polishing Rate = ₹0.75 per cm²

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of Hemisphere = 2πr²

Total Polishing Cost = CSA × Rate

Calculations:

⇒ CSA = 2 × (22/7) × 2 × 2

⇒ CSA = 2 × (22/7) × 4 = 176/7 cm²

⇒ Total Cost = (176/7) × 0.75

⇒ Total Cost = (176/7) × (3/4)

⇒ Total Cost = (44 × 3) / 7 = 132/7

⇒ Total Cost ≈ ₹18.857...

∴ The correct answer is ₹18.85.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA) of a Hemisphere

The TSA includes the curved surface and the flat circular base: TSA = 3πr².

Volume of a Hemisphere

The amount of space occupied by a hemisphere: Volume = (2/3)πr³.

Sphere Formulas

For a full sphere, Surface Area = 4πr² and Volume = (4/3)πr³.

Shortcut Trick

The sum of all internal angles of a regular polygon is calculated as (n − 2) × 180°.

For a 9-sided polygon (n = 9):

Sum = (9 − 2) × 180°

Sum = 7 × 180° = 1260°.

∴ The correct answer is 1260°.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of sides of the regular polygon (n) = 9

Formula Used:

Total sum of internal angles = (n − 2) × 180°

Calculations:

⇒ Total sum = (9 − 2) × 180°

⇒ Total sum = 7 × 180°

⇒ Total sum = 1260°

∴ The correct answer is 1260°.

Additional Information

Sum of Exterior Angles

The sum of the exterior angles of any convex polygon is always 360°, regardless of the number of sides.

Individual Interior Angle

For a regular polygon with n sides, each interior angle is given by [(n − 2) × 180°] ÷ n.

Interior and Exterior Relationship

At any vertex of a polygon, the sum of the interior angle and its corresponding exterior angle is always 180° (Linear Pair).

Given:

Each interior angle = 165°

Formula Used:

Sum of interior angles of a polygon = (n - 2) × 180°

Each interior angle = Sum of interior angles ÷ n

Calculation:

⇒ Each interior angle = (n - 2) × 180° ÷ n

⇒ 165 = (n - 2) × 180 ÷ n

⇒ 165n = 180(n - 2)

⇒ 165n = 180n - 360

⇒ 180n - 165n = 360

⇒ 15n = 360

⇒ n = 360 ÷ 15

⇒ n = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24.

Given:

Radius of cone = r

Radius of hemisphere = r

Volume of cone = Volume of hemisphere

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = (1 ÷ 3) × π × r² × h

Volume of hemisphere = (2 ÷ 3) × π × r³

Calculation:

⇒ (1 ÷ 3) × π × r² × h = (2 ÷ 3) × π × r³

⇒ π × r² × h = 2 × π × r³

⇒ r² × h = 2 × r³

⇒ h = 2r

∴ The correct answer is 2r.

Given:

Radius of large sphere = 4 m

Number of smaller spheres = 64

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × r³

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of large sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × 4³

⇒ Volume of large sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × 64

⇒ Let radius of smaller sphere = r

⇒ Volume of one smaller sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × r³

⇒ Total volume of 64 smaller spheres = 64 × (4 ÷ 3) × π × r³

⇒ (4 ÷ 3) × π × 64 = 64 × (4 ÷ 3) × π × r³

⇒ 4³ = 64r³

⇒ 64 = 64r³

⇒ r³ = 1

⇒ r = 1

∴ The correct answer is 1 m.

Given:

Decimal number = 0.090909...

Formula Used:

If x = 0.̅a (repeating), then x = a ÷ 9

For two-digit repeating decimal, x = repeating digits ÷ 99

Calculation:

⇒ Let x = 0.090909...

⇒ 100x = 9.090909...

⇒ 100x − x = 9.090909... − 0.090909...

⇒ 99x = 9

⇒ x = 9 ÷ 99

⇒ x = 1 ÷ 11

∴ The correct answer is 1/11.

Shortcut Trick

Total cost = (80 × 15) + (52.5 × 12.5) = 1200 + 656.25 = ₹1856.25.

Ratio of Sender to Receiver = 2 : 3 (Total = 5 parts).

Receiver share = (3 ÷ 5) × 1856.25 = 0.6 × 1856.25 = ₹1113.75.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1113.75.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Distance = 132.5 km

Rate 1 (upto 80 km) = ₹15 per km

Rate 2 (above 80 km) = ₹12.5 per km

Split Ratio (Sender : Receiver) = 2 : 3

Calculations:

⇒ Cost for first 80 km = 80 × 15 = ₹1200

⇒ Remaining distance = 132.5 − 80 = 52.5 km

⇒ Cost for remaining distance = 52.5 × 12.5 = ₹656.25

⇒ Total transportation cost = 1200 + 656.25 = ₹1856.25

⇒ Total ratio parts = 2 + 3 = 5 parts

⇒ Value of 1 part = 1856.25 ÷ 5 = ₹371.25

⇒ Amount paid by receiver (3 parts) = 3 × 371.25 = ₹1113.75

∴ The correct answer is ₹1113.75.

Additional Information

Ratio Distribution

To find a specific share from a total, multiply the total by (target ratio ÷ sum of all ratio parts).

Tiered Pricing Calculation

In tiered systems, each segment of the quantity is multiplied by its specific rate before summing them up for the final total.

Weighted Average Price

The average cost per km can be found by Total Cost ÷ Total Distance, which is useful for comparing different logistics providers.

Shortcut Trick

In a right-angled triangle, if tan θ = 3/4, the Pythagorean triplet is 3, 4, and 5.

Here, the perpendicular (p) = 3, base (b) = 4, and hypotenuse (h) = 5.

Calculate sin θ = p/h = 3/5 and cos θ = b/h = 4/5.

Apply the identity: sin 2θ = 2 × sin θ × cos θ.

⇒ sin 2θ = 2 × (3/5) × (4/5) = 24/25.

∴ The correct answer is 24/25.

Alternate Method

Given:tan θ = 3/4

Formula Used:sin 2θ = (2 tan θ) / (1 + tan² θ)

Calculations:

⇒ sin 2θ = [2 × (3/4)] / [1 + (3/4)²]

⇒ sin 2θ = (3/2) / [1 + 9/16]

⇒ sin 2θ = (3/2) / [(16 + 9) / 16]

⇒ sin 2θ = (3/2) / (25/16)

⇒ sin 2θ = (3/2) × (16/25)

⇒ sin 2θ = (3 × 8) / 25

⇒ sin 2θ = 24/25

∴ The correct answer is 24/25.

Additional Information

Double Angle Identities

The double angle formula for sine is sin 2θ = 2sin θ cos θ and for cosine is cos 2θ = cos² θ − sin² θ.

Tangent Half-Angle Substitution

Sine and cosine can be expressed in terms of tangent: sin 2θ = 2tan θ / (1 + tan² θ) and cos 2θ = (1 − tan² θ) / (1 + tan² θ).

Pythagorean Triplets

Common triplets like (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17) frequently appear in trigonometry problems to simplify calculations.

Given:

x : y = 3 : 4

y : z = 2 : 5

Formula Used:

If a : b = m : n and b : c = p : q, make the common term equal by multiplying with LCM.

Calculation:

⇒ y values are 4 and 2

⇒ LCM of 4 and 2 = 4

⇒ Multiply 2 : 5 by 2

⇒ y : z = 4 : 10

⇒ x : y = 3 : 4

⇒ x : z = 3 : 10

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 10.

Given:

Principal (P): Original sum of money.

Time (T): 15 years.

Final Amount (A): Double the principal (2P).

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI): SI = P × R × T ÷ 100

Final Amount (A): A = P + SI

Calculation:

⇒ A = 2P

⇒ SI = A - P = 2P - P = P

⇒ SI = P × R × T ÷ 100

⇒ P = P × R × 15 ÷ 100

⇒ R × 15 ÷ 100 = 1

⇒ R = 100 ÷ 15

⇒ R = 6.67%

∴ The correct answer is 6.67%.

Shortcut Trick

In trigonometry, we know that if cos θ = 1/2, then the angle θ = 60°.

Here, let θ = 2A. Therefore, 2A = 60°.

The question asks for the value of sin 2A.

Substituting the value of 2A: sin 2A = sin 60°.

From the standard trigonometric table, sin 60° = √3 / 2.

∴ The correct answer is √3 / 2.

Alternate Method

Given: cos 2A = 1/2

Formula Used: sin²θ + cos²θ = 1

⇒ sin² 2A + cos² 2A = 1

⇒ sin² 2A + (1/2)² = 1

⇒ sin² 2A + 1/4 = 1

⇒ sin² 2A = 1 − 1/4

⇒ sin² 2A = 3/4

⇒ sin 2A = √(3/4)

⇒ sin 2A = √3 / 2

∴ The correct answer is √3 / 2.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Identity

The fundamental identity sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 is valid for all real values of θ.

Double Angle Formulas

Other useful forms for cos 2A include 1 − 2sin²A and 2cos²A − 1.

Standard Angle Values

Standard values for sine and cosine include sin 30° = 1/2, sin 45° = 1/√2, and cos 30° = √3/2.

The correct answer is Todar Mal.

Key Points

• Raja Todar Mal was the Finance Minister or Revenue Minister in the court of Mughal Emperor Akbar. He is renowned for his administrative and revenue reforms.
• He introduced the Zabt system, which is considered one of the most systematic land revenue systems in Indian history. This system ensured uniformity and fairness in tax collection.
• Todar Mal played a key role in the implementation of the land survey and measurement system. This involved dividing agricultural land into units based on productivity and fixing revenue rates accordingly.
• He standardized the revenue collection process, ensuring that farmers were not exploited by local officials. The revenue was collected in cash or kind depending on the region's agricultural produce.
• The reforms introduced by Todar Mal under Akbar's administration greatly enhanced the efficiency of the empire's financial system, contributing significantly to the prosperity of the Mughal Empire.

Additional Information

• Zabt System:
• Under Todar Mal's guidance, the Zabt system was implemented, which calculated revenue based on the measured productivity of the land. This system was used in areas where agricultural output was uniform and predictable.
• Land was categorized into three types: Polaj (cultivated annually), Parauti (cultivated intermittently), and Chachar (cultivated after long intervals).
• The system ensured accurate measurement of land and proper documentation of land ownership and revenue liabilities.
• Akbar's Administrative Reforms:
• Akbar introduced several administrative reforms to centralize and strengthen the Mughal Empire. Todar Mal's revenue reforms were a cornerstone of this effort.
• The administrative system was divided into provinces or Subahs, each headed by a governor, ensuring efficient governance and tax collection.
• Other Ministers in Akbar's Court:
• Birbal: Known for his wit and intelligence, Birbal was one of the nine jewels (Navratnas) in Akbar’s court. He advised Akbar on matters of diplomacy and cultural integration.
• Raja Man Singh: A trusted general and statesman, Raja Man Singh was instrumental in expanding Akbar's empire through military conquests.
• Raja Bharmal: Raja Bharmal was the father of Akbar's wife, Jodha Bai, and played a role in establishing alliances between the Mughal Empire and Rajput states.
• Significance of Todar Mal's Reforms:
• The revenue system introduced by Todar Mal served as a model for subsequent rulers in India, including the British colonial administration.
• It emphasized transparency, accountability, and fairness, which reduced corruption and exploitation in the collection of taxes.

Important Points

• Comparison with Other Revenue Systems:
• The Zabt system was based on accurate measurement and documentation, unlike earlier systems that relied on arbitrary assessments.
• It laid the foundation for modern revenue systems and inspired the British Revenue Settlement during their rule in India.
• Historical Legacy:
• Todar Mal's reforms are considered a landmark in the history of Indian administration. His contribution to Akbar’s reign established a legacy of efficient governance.
• His reforms ensured that peasants were not burdened unnecessarily, and the state received consistent revenue, fostering economic stability.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Statement I: Russian is one of the official languages of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO). The SCO was established in 2001, and Russian has remained a key language for communication and documentation within the organization. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• Statement II: Hindi is not an official language of the SCO. While India became a full member of the SCO in 2017, Hindi has not been designated as an official language for communication or documentation within the organization. Hence, Statement II is incorrect.
• The two official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese. These languages are used for all official communication and documentation within the organization.
• The use of Russian as an official language reflects the historical influence of Russia and its central role in the organization.
• India, despite its active participation in SCO activities, does not have Hindi as an official language in the organization. Instead, India contributes using English for most international engagements.

Additional Information

• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
• The SCO is an intergovernmental organization founded in 2001 in Shanghai, China.
• Its founding members include China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
• The organization focuses on regional security, counter-terrorism, economic cooperation, and cultural exchange.
• India and Pakistan became full members of the SCO in 2017.
• The SCO has expanded its scope over the years, addressing issues such as cybersecurity, trade, and connectivity.
• Official Languages of SCO:
• The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese.
• Russian is widely used due to the historical and political influence of Russia in the region.
• Chinese reflects China's role as a founding member and its growing global influence.
• These languages are used for official documents, meetings, and communication within the SCO.
• India's Role in SCO:
• India joined the SCO as a full member in June 2017 during the Astana summit.
• India's involvement in the SCO focuses on regional security, counter-terrorism, economic development, and connectivity projects.
• Despite being a full member, Hindi is not recognized as an official language within the organization.
• India actively participates in SCO discussions using English or other accepted mediums.
• Important Points:
• The SCO's official languages reflect the geopolitical influence of its founding members, Russia and China.
• Efforts to introduce additional languages require approval from all member states, which is a complex process.
• India has proposed initiatives within the SCO framework to address terrorism, energy security, and trade but has not sought to make Hindi an official language.

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

• The East Asia Summit (EAS) was established in 2005 as a forum for regional cooperation and dialogue in the Asia-Pacific region.
• The inaugural East Asia Summit was held on 14 December 2005 in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
• It was initiated as a platform for leaders from the Asia-Pacific region to discuss strategic, political, and economic issues of mutual interest and concern.
• The EAS comprises 18 members: the ten ASEAN countries (Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam), along with China, Japan, South Korea, India, Australia, New Zealand, the United States, and Russia.
• The Summit focuses on strategic cooperation in areas such as energy, trade, disaster management, global health, and maritime security.

Additional Information

• Historical Context:
• The EAS was first proposed by ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) during its summit in 2004.
• The Summit reflects the growing importance of Asia-Pacific in global geopolitics and aims to foster regional integration and cooperation.
• Membership criteria include significant global influence, economic interdependence with the region, and active participation in ASEAN-led mechanisms.
• Objectives of the EAS:
• The Summit works on strengthening regional security and stability.
• It aims to enhance cooperation in areas such as economic growth, environmental sustainability, energy, and disaster management.
• The EAS also addresses pressing global challenges like climate change, terrorism, and public health crises.
• Key Developments:
• Over time, the EAS has expanded its scope to include partnerships in education, connectivity, and sustainable development.
• In 2010, the United States and Russia officially joined the EAS, enhancing its strategic importance.
• In recent years, the Summit has emphasized maritime security and the Indo-Pacific strategy, reflecting global shifts in geopolitics.
• Important Facts:
• The ASEAN Secretariat plays a pivotal role in coordinating the Summit’s agenda.
• The EAS operates as a leaders-led forum, meaning heads of state or government participate directly in discussions.
• Key agreements and initiatives are often developed collaboratively with other regional and global organizations.

Important Points

• ASEAN’s Role: The ASEAN nations serve as the foundation of the EAS, ensuring continuity and adherence to regional priorities.
• Strategic Significance: The EAS is seen as a key diplomatic instrument for promoting peace and stability in the Asia-Pacific.
• Economic Impact: The Summit fosters collaboration among major global economies, enhancing regional trade and investment opportunities.
• Annual Meetings: The EAS is held annually, alongside the ASEAN Summit, allowing leaders to discuss pressing issues and formulate collective responses.
• Global Influence: The EAS is instrumental in shaping global policies on issues like climate change, sustainable development, and international security.

The correct answer is Rudyard Kipling.

Key Points

• 'The Jungle Book' was written by Rudyard Kipling and published in the year 1894.
• The book is a collection of stories, featuring the adventures of Mowgli, a human child raised by wolves in the jungle.
• Rudyard Kipling was born on 30th December 1865 in Bombay (now Mumbai), India, and is known for his works that explore themes of British colonialism.
• Kipling’s mastery in storytelling brought to life the rich fauna of the Indian jungle, such as Bagheera (the panther), Baloo (the bear), and Shere Khan (the tiger).
• The book is widely regarded as a classic of children’s literature and has been adapted into numerous films, plays, and animations.

Additional Information

• Rudyard Kipling:
• He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1907, making him the youngest recipient of the prize at the time.
• His other famous works include 'Kim', 'The Man Who Would Be King', and poems like 'If—' and 'Gunga Din'.
• Kipling's writing style is characterized by vivid descriptions, moral lessons, and the integration of British imperial themes.
• About 'The Jungle Book':
• The book contains a total of seven stories, many of which revolve around Mowgli, while some feature other characters like Rikki-Tikki-Tavi, a brave mongoose.
• It explores themes such as the importance of family, loyalty, and identity.
• The "Law of the Jungle" is a recurring motif, symbolizing rules and ethics in a complex society.
• Other Options:
• William Shakespeare: He was a famous English playwright and poet from the Elizabethan era, known for works like 'Hamlet', 'Macbeth', and 'Romeo and Juliet'. He did not write 'The Jungle Book'.
• Stephen Alter: An Indian-American author known for books on Himalayan ecology and culture, but he is not connected to 'The Jungle Book'.
• Edgar Allan Poe: An American writer famous for his gothic tales and poems such as 'The Raven' and 'The Tell-Tale Heart'. He did not write 'The Jungle Book'.

Important Points

• Inspiration for 'The Jungle Book': Kipling was inspired by his childhood in India, particularly the wildlife and culture he observed.
• Legacy: Disney adapted 'The Jungle Book' into an animated movie in 1967, and a live-action remake was released in 2016.
• Impact: The book has been used as a teaching tool for children to understand moral values and the importance of coexistence with nature.

The correct answer is Shailendra Nath Gupta.

Key Points

• Shailendra Nath Gupta assumed the office of Director General of Defence Estates on May 31, 2025. This position is critical for managing defence land and cantonments in India.
• The Director General of Defence Estates (DGDE) is the head of the Defence Estates Organization (DEO), which works under the Ministry of Defence in India.
• The DEO is responsible for managing over 17.57 lakh acres of defence land, including cantonments, military stations, and other defence-related establishments.
• Shailendra Nath Gupta's appointment reflects his vast experience and expertise in handling administrative and defence-related matters.
• The DGDE also plays a key role in ensuring compliance with policies related to land acquisition, leasing, and urban planning within cantonment areas.

Additional Information

• Director General of Defence Estates (DGDE):
• The DGDE is the apex authority in the Defence Estates Organization (DEO), which was established in 1926.
• It oversees the management, planning, and administration of all defence lands and cantonments across the country.
• The DGDE also ensures that defence lands are utilized effectively and in accordance with the national interest.
• Responsibilities of the Defence Estates Organization (DEO):
• Management of defence lands, including acquisitions and disposals.
• Implementation of urban development policies in 62 cantonments across India.
• Ensuring compliance with environmental and land-use regulations in defence areas.
• Providing governance and civic amenities for residents in cantonments.
• Cantonment Boards:
• Cantonment Boards are autonomous bodies under the Ministry of Defence, tasked with municipal administration in cantonments.
• They provide essential services like water supply, sanitation, education, and healthcare for civilians and military personnel residing in these areas.
• There are four categories of cantonment boards (I, II, III, and IV), depending on the population size.
• Significance of Defence Land Management:
• Efficient management of defence land ensures optimal utilization for military operations and infrastructure development.
• Proper maintenance of cantonments contributes to the welfare of defence personnel and their families.
• The DGDE plays a key role in preventing encroachments and unauthorized use of defence land.

Important Points

• Eligibility for DGDE: The appointment of the Director General of Defence Estates is typically made from senior officers with substantial experience in administration and land management.
• Related Legislative Framework: The functioning of DEO and Cantonment Boards is governed by the Cantonments Act, 2006, which replaced earlier legislations.
• Historical Context: The Defence Estates Organization was established to streamline land management in the colonial era and has undergone significant reforms post-Independence.
• Challenges: Key challenges include preventing illegal encroachments, balancing urban development with defence needs, and addressing environmental concerns.

The correct answer is 50.

Key Points

• PM-YUVA 3.0 (Pradhan Mantri Yuva Utsav) is the third edition of the scheme, aimed at promoting young authors in India.
• The initiative is part of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes fostering critical thinking, creativity, and writing skills among youth.
• A total of 50 authors will be selected under this program to encourage young talent in the literary field.
• The selected authors will be provided with training and mentorship to develop their literary works, which will also be published.
• This program is targeted at Indian citizens aged 30 and below, ensuring a focus on nurturing young talent across the country.

Additional Information

• Theme of PM-YUVA 3.0:
• The theme for this edition is centered around Indian culture, heritage, and vision for the future.
• The focus is to create a platform for young voices to articulate the rich diversity and traditions of India.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Applicants must be Indian citizens aged 30 years or younger.
• They should submit a manuscript or concept note for consideration.
• Benefits for Selected Authors:
• The selected participants will receive mentorship from renowned authors and literary experts.
• Their works will be published and promoted by the Government of India.
• A financial grant will be provided for the development of their manuscripts.
• Implementation:
• The program is being managed by the National Book Trust (NBT), India.
• It aligns with the vision of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations to commemorate 75 years of India’s independence.
• Significance:
• It aims to cultivate new literary talent in India and promote reading and writing habits among the youth.
• The initiative also helps in fostering a greater appreciation of India’s culture and heritage.

Important Points

• Previous Editions:
• PM-YUVA 1.0 and 2.0 focused on identifying young talent and publishing their works across various genres.
• These editions also emphasized inculcating the habit of reading and promoting intellectual growth among youth.
• National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
• The policy underlines the importance of creative expression and the development of critical thinking.
• It supports programs like PM-YUVA to align with its vision of fostering holistic learning.
• Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav:
• This initiative is part of the Government of India’s celebrations to mark 75 years of independence.
• It aims to showcase India’s rich heritage, achievements, and aspirations for the future.

The correct answer is 358.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 is a significant legal document introduced to replace the colonial-era Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860.
• The BNS comprises a total of 358 sections, which aim to modernize and restructure India's criminal justice system to meet contemporary needs.
• The new legislation emphasizes the principles of justice, fairness, and equality while addressing issues with the older IPC that were deemed outdated or inadequate.
• The Government of India introduced this bill as part of broader reforms in criminal laws, including changes to the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) and the Evidence Act.
• The BNS incorporates provisions for stricter punishments for crimes such as terrorism, organized crime, and crimes against women and children, reflecting the evolving socio-political landscape of the country.

Additional Information

• Purpose of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS):
• The BNS aims to replace the outdated Indian Penal Code, ensuring that legal provisions align with modern societal values and international standards.
• It emphasizes a victim-centric approach, ensuring justice for victims of crime while safeguarding the rights of the accused.
• Clearer definitions of offenses and the inclusion of new categories of crimes address gaps in the previous legal framework.
• Significance of the Reform:
• The IPC was drafted during the British colonial era and reflected the priorities of that time. The BNS seeks to address the present-day needs of Indian society.
• It incorporates provisions for crimes like cybercrimes, financial frauds, and human trafficking, which were not adequately addressed in the IPC.
• The legislation also aims to expedite the legal process, reducing delays in the criminal justice system.
• Comparison with the Indian Penal Code (IPC):
• The IPC had a total of 511 sections, compared to the BNS’s 358 sections, reflecting efforts to streamline and simplify the legal framework.
• The BNS eliminates provisions considered obsolete or redundant while introducing new sections for crimes relevant to modern times.
• Impact on Justice Delivery:
• The BNS promotes alternative dispute resolution mechanisms and community policing to reduce the burden on courts.
• Provisions for stricter penalties and reforms in sentencing aim to deter crimes and ensure proportional justice.
• Key Features of BNS:
• Inclusion of provisions for gender equality and protection of marginalized communities.
• Focus on reducing delays through technology-driven solutions like online filing of complaints and virtual court hearings.
• Enhanced safeguards against misuse of laws, ensuring a balance between enforcement and individual rights.

Important Points

• Introduction of the Bill: The BNS, along with two other bills aimed at reforming criminal laws, was introduced in August 2023 by the Union Home Minister.
• Scope of Reforms: The reforms aim to address not just substantive criminal law but also procedural aspects, ensuring a comprehensive overhaul of the criminal justice system.
• Public Participation: The government sought feedback from various stakeholders, including legal experts and the general public, to make the reforms inclusive and representative.
• Implementation Challenges: The transition from the IPC to the BNS requires extensive training for law enforcement agencies and judiciary members.

The correct answer is 18-40 years.

Key Points

• Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a government-backed pension scheme launched in May 2015 by the Government of India to provide pension benefits to workers in the unorganized sector.
• The eligible age group for enrolling in the scheme is 18-40 years. Hence, individuals within this age bracket can subscribe to the scheme.
• Subscribers to APY are required to contribute regularly to their pension accounts until the age of 60 years to avail of pension benefits.
• The scheme is targeted at individuals who do not have any formal social security benefits, such as workers in the unorganized sector.
• The pension amount provided under APY ranges between ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month, depending on the contribution made during the subscription period.

Additional Information

• Features of Atal Pension Yojana:
• The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9th May 2015, under the Ministry of Finance.
• Under APY, the government guarantees a fixed pension to subscribers after the age of 60 years.
• The scheme is primarily targeted at the unorganized workforce, such as domestic workers, laborers, and self-employed individuals.
• Subscribers can choose their contribution amount based on the desired pension amount (₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000).
• The contributions to the scheme are eligible for tax benefits under Section 80CCD of the Income Tax Act.
• Eligibility Criteria:
• Individuals must be between 18-40 years of age to enroll in APY.
• The subscriber must have a savings bank account or a post office account for contributions.
• Only citizens of India are eligible for this scheme.
• The individual must not be covered under any other statutory social security scheme.
• Government Contribution:
• For eligible subscribers, the government contributes 50% of the total contribution or ₹1,000 per year, whichever is lower, for a period of 5 years.
• The government contribution is applicable for subscribers who joined APY between June 2015 and December 2015.
• Significance of APY:
• APY aims to address the lack of pension coverage among workers in the unorganized sector.
• The scheme supports financial inclusion and provides old-age security to millions of Indians.
• It helps promote a culture of savings for retirement among the unorganized workforce.

Important Points

• Key Statistics:
• As of October 2023, the Atal Pension Yojana has over 5 crore subscribers, showcasing its widespread adoption.
• The scheme is managed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
• Nomination Facility:
• Subscribers can nominate a beneficiary under APY, ensuring financial security for their family members.
• Nomination details are required at the time of enrollment.
• Exit Policy:
• Premature exit before 60 years is allowed only under exceptional circumstances, such as death or terminal illness.
• In such cases, the subscriber’s accumulated contributions are returned to the nominee.

The correct answer is 4th.

Key Points

• The Global University Employability Ranking is an annual ranking system that evaluates universities based on their ability to produce employable graduates.
• In the 2025 Global University Employability Ranking, Harvard University secured the 4th position, highlighting its strong academic reputation and industry connections.
• The ranking is determined by surveys conducted with employers worldwide, measuring factors such as academic performance, industry collaboration, and graduate skills.
• The top institutions in this ranking are known for their focus on practical education, internship opportunities, and close ties with the industry.
• The consistent inclusion of Harvard University in the top tier demonstrates its global prestige and the quality of education it imparts to students.

Additional Information

• Global University Employability Ranking:
• This ranking is conducted by Times Higher Education (THE) in collaboration with Emerging HR Consultancy.
• It is based on surveys of over 10,000 recruiters and senior executives from leading companies across 20+ countries.
• The surveys assess criteria such as the relevance of the curriculum, research output, and employability skills of graduates.
• Harvard University:
• Located in Cambridge, Massachusetts, USA, Harvard is one of the oldest and most prestigious universities in the world, established in 1636.
• It offers a range of programs in arts, sciences, engineering, and professional studies.
• Harvard is known for its global alumni network and its focus on innovation, research, and leadership development.
• Rankings and Criteria:
• The top universities in this ranking include MIT, Stanford, and the University of Cambridge, which often compete with Harvard for the top positions.
• Universities are evaluated for their ability to adapt to changing job market trends and provide students with skills for future challenges.
• Other Notable Institutions in 2025 Rankings:
• Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT): Known for its focus on technology and engineering, often ranked 1st.
• Stanford University: Renowned for entrepreneurship and innovation, consistently ranked in the top 3.
• University of Cambridge: Recognized for its academic rigor and history, often ranks in the top 5.

Important Points

• Importance of Employability Rankings:
• These rankings provide insights into the quality of education and industry relevance of university programs.
• They help prospective students make informed decisions about their education and career paths.
• Employers use these rankings to identify institutions producing top talent for recruitment.
• Factors Influencing Rankings:
• Criteria such as internship opportunities, research collaborations, and global partnerships play significant roles in determining rankings.
• Universities with strong ties to industries often perform better in these rankings.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra, an Indian javelin thrower, won the gold medal in the 2020 Summer Olympics, held in Tokyo, Japan. The event was conducted in August 2021 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• He achieved this historic feat in the men's javelin throw final on 7th August 2021, with a best throw of 87.58 meters.
• Neeraj Chopra’s gold medal was India’s first-ever Olympic medal in athletics, marking a historic moment in Indian sports history.
• His performance made him the second Indian individual gold medalist in Olympic history, after Abhinav Bindra, who won gold in shooting in 2008.
• This victory contributed to India’s overall performance in the Tokyo Olympics, where the country secured a total of 7 medals, its highest-ever tally in the Olympics.

Additional Information

• Neeraj Chopra’s Background:
• He was born on 24th December 1997, in Khandra village, Haryana, India.
• Neeraj is a Subedar in the Indian Army, having joined in 2016 under the sports quota.
• He is a World Junior Champion, having won gold at the 2016 IAAF World U20 Championships with a world junior record throw of 86.48 meters.
• The Tokyo 2020 Olympics:
• The Tokyo Olympics were originally scheduled for 2020 but were postponed to 2021 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• They were held from 23rd July to 8th August 2021 in Tokyo, Japan.
• India’s performance included 1 gold, 2 silver, and 4 bronze medals, marking its best-ever performance in Olympic history.
• Javelin Throw:
• Javelin throw is a track and field event where athletes throw a spear-like implement called the javelin as far as possible.
• The men’s javelin weighs 800 grams and measures between 2.6 and 2.7 meters in length.
• The event requires a combination of speed, strength, and technique to achieve long throws.
• India’s Olympic History:
• Neeraj Chopra’s gold in Tokyo was the first in athletics in India’s 121-year Olympic history.
• India’s first-ever individual Olympic gold was won by Abhinav Bindra in 2008 (shooting).
• India has a strong Olympic tradition in hockey, having won multiple gold medals between 1928 and 1980.

Important Points

• Neeraj Chopra is the first Asian athlete to win an Olympic gold medal in javelin throw.
• His victory in Tokyo ended India’s long wait for an Olympic medal in athletics, a sport in which the country had come close to success several times in the past.
• Neeraj’s achievement has inspired a new generation of athletes in India and boosted the popularity of athletics in the country.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri and Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in recognition of his historic achievement.