SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 20 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is '3' i.e. a fastly runner .

Key Points

• The word “fastly” is grammatically incorrect. The correct adverb form of “fast” is simply “fast”, as “fast” does not take an additional suffix like “-ly.”
• Hence, the phrase “a fastly runner” contains the error.

Correct sentence: My grandfather is not only a fast runner, but also a great swimmer.

Additional Information

• Adverbs describe how an action is performed. Not all adjectives take the suffix “-ly” to become adverbs, e.g., “fast” remains “fast” as an adverb.
• For example:
• Incorrect: He runs fastly.
• Correct: He runs fast.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. He are one of the .

Key Points

• The error lies in part A, "He are one of the."
• The subject "He" is singular and should be followed by the singular verb "is" instead of the plural verb "are."
• The correct phrase should be "He is one of the."

Correct sentence: He is one of the few researchers whom I believe has the potential to make a significant breakthrough in this field.

Additional Information

• Subject-verb agreement is an essential rule in grammar, where the verb must agree in number (singular/plural) with the subject.
• Examples of correct subject-verb agreement:
• Singular: She is a great artist.
• Plural: They are great artists.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. problems since

Key Points

• The phrase "the last two years" is incorrect in the given context because it is preceded by the word "since", which requires a specific point in time (e.g., "since 2021") rather than a duration.
• The correct word to use with a duration like "the last two years" would be "for".
• The corrected sentence should be: The company has been experiencing a lot of problems for the last two years.

Correct sentence: The company has been experiencing a lot of problems for the last two years.

Additional Information

• Usage of "since":
• Since is used to refer to a specific point in time in the past (e.g., since 2020).
• Example: I have been working here since 2015.
• Usage of "for":
• For is used to refer to a duration of time (e.g., for two years).
• Example: I have been working here for two years.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. at .

Key Points

• The correct preposition to use in this context is "at."
• The phrase "arrive at a decision" is an idiomatic expression that means to reach or conclude a decision.
• Other prepositions like "in," "on," or "into" do not fit the context or the structure of this sentence.

Correct sentence: The committee arrived at a unanimous decision after hours of deliberation.

Additional Information

• The use of prepositions can change the meaning of a sentence. For example:
• "Arrive at": Used for reaching abstract decisions or conclusions (e.g., "arrive at a decision").
• "Arrive in": Used for reaching a large geographical location (e.g., "arrive in London").
• "Arrive on": Rarely used, but can refer to reaching a surface (e.g., "arrive on a platform").

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Origin .

Key Points

• The word PROVENANCE refers to the origin or source of something, especially in the context of art, antiques, or historical items.
• Among the given options:
• Fabrication: Refers to making or constructing something, often implying falsification.
• Origin: Refers to the starting point or source of something, which is the exact synonym of "provenance."
• Prediction: Refers to forecasting or foretelling future events, unrelated to "provenance."
• Imitation: Refers to copying or mimicking something, unrelated to "provenance."

Correct sentence: The provenance of the artifact suggests it dates back to the 18th century.

Additional Information

• Usage in Context: The term "provenance" is often used in art and history to trace the history and ownership of an object.
• Example: The painting's provenance was meticulously documented, proving its authenticity.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. a shot in the dark .

Key Points

• The phrase "a shot in the dark" refers to an action or idea that is based on guesswork or has little chance of success.
• The sentence mentions that the manager dismissed the idea outright, implying that the idea was not well thought out or lacked a solid foundation, which aligns with the meaning of "a shot in the dark."
• Other options do not fit the context:
• A storm in a teacup: Refers to an exaggerated reaction to something insignificant.
• A bone of contention: Means a subject of disagreement or dispute.
• A blessing in disguise: Refers to something that seems bad initially but turns out to be good later.

Correct sentence: The manager dismissed the idea outright, calling it a shot in the dark without any substantial benefit.

Additional Information

• It is important to choose a phrase that aligns with the tone and meaning of the sentence provided.
• Understanding idioms and their meanings is crucial for answering such questions correctly.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Recession.

Key Points

• The word Recession is correctly spelt and refers to a period of economic decline.
• Other options provided are incorrectly spelt:
• Recission: Incorrect spelling of the word.
• Recesion: Missing an 's'.
• Recessiom: Incorrect ending with 'm'.

Additional Information

• Recession: A term used in economics to denote a temporary period of economic decline during which trade and industrial activity are reduced.
• Correct Usage: "The country is facing a serious recession due to economic policies."

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Secretariat.

Key Points

• Among the options provided, Secretariat is the correctly spelt word.
• Other options like Secretarite, Secretaritat, and Secretarirat are misspelled forms of the word.
• Secretariat refers to a department or office responsible for administrative tasks, often in an organization or government.

Additional Information

• Definition: The word Secretariat is commonly used in administrative contexts to describe offices or departments responsible for handling official tasks.
• Usage Example: The secretariat managed the coordination of the international conference.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Having similar ideas and understanding each other well .

Key Points

• The idiom "On the same wavelength" means that two people share similar ideas, opinions, or ways of thinking and can understand each other well.
• This phrase is often used in the context of teamwork, relationships, or conversations where mutual understanding is evident.

Additional Information

• Example of Usage:
• John and Sarah work well together because they are always on the same wavelength.
• Similar Idioms:
• See eye to eye: To agree completely with someone.
• Be on the same page: To share the same understanding or agreement about something.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Honorees .

Key Points

• The word Disgracers refers to people who bring shame or dishonor.
• The antonym of Disgracers would be a word that signifies people who bring honor or are honored.
• Among the given options, Honorees fits this definition, as it refers to people who are celebrated or honored for their achievements.

Additional Information

• Outcasts: Refers to people who are rejected or excluded from society, which is not an antonym of Disgracers.
• Rejects: Refers to discarded or refused individuals, also not an antonym of Disgracers.
• Insulters: Refers to people who offend or insult others, which is closely related to Disgracers rather than being an antonym.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. Importune .

Key Points

• The term "Importune" means to repeatedly or persistently harass someone to do something.
• "Coerce" implies forcing someone to act through threats or pressure, but it is not the correct one-word substitute for persistent harassment.
• "Convince" means to persuade someone to agree or believe, but it does not involve harassment.
• "Persuade" refers to convincing someone by reasoning, which is different from harassment.

Correct explanation: The word "Importune" accurately describes the act of persistent harassment to do something..

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Mediocre.

Key Points

• The word Sublime refers to something of great beauty or excellence that inspires awe and admiration.
• An antonym for Sublime would describe something ordinary or unimpressive.
• Mediocre fits as the best antonym because it means average or unremarkable, which contrasts sharply with the meaning of Sublime.
• Other options like Exalted, Glorious, and Supreme are synonymous with Sublime rather than antonyms.

Correct sentence: The most appropriate antonym of Sublime is Mediocre.

Additional Information

• Synonyms of Sublime: Exalted, Glorious, Supreme.
• Antonyms of Sublime: Mediocre, Ordinary, Average.
• Example Sentence: The view of the mountains was sublime, in stark contrast to the mediocre scenery of the city.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. They will have translated the manuscript by the time the expedition returns.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the passive voice and needs to be converted into the active voice.
• In active voice, the subject performing the action is explicitly stated.
• The structure of the active voice in this sentence is Subject + will have + past participle + by the time + clause.
• In this case, "They" is the subject performing the action of translating the manuscript.

Correct sentence: They will have translated the manuscript by the time the expedition returns.

Additional Information

• Active vs Passive Voice:
• Active Voice: The subject performs the action. Example: "He wrote the book."
• Passive Voice: The subject receives the action. Example: "The book was written by him."
• Passive voice sentences can be converted to active voice by identifying the subject performing the action and restructuring the sentence accordingly.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. They have to handle the ancient manuscript with extreme care. .

Key Points

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• The given sentence is in Passive Voice (Object + has to be + V3). To convert it into Active Voice, we must identify or supply a subject.
• Since the "agent" (the person handling the manuscript) is not mentioned in the passive sentence, we use an indefinite subject like "They," "One," or "Someone."
• Structural Change:
• Passive: Object + has to be + V3 (handled)
• Active: Subject + have/has to + V1 (handle) + Object
• Option 3 correctly maintains the modal obligation "have to" and uses the base form of the verb "handle."

Additional Information

• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1: Incorrectly makes "Extreme care" the subject (Care cannot handle a manuscript).
• Option 2: Changes the tense from an obligation (has to be) to a simple present fact (is handled).
• Option 4: Changes the modal from "have to" to "must." While the meaning is similar, in transformation exercises, we must stick as closely as possible to the original helping verbs.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. Joviel is spelled incorrectly.

Key Points

• The word Joviel is spelled incorrectly. The correct spelling is Jovial.
• Taciturn, Decadence, Pernicious are spelled correctly.

Additional Information

• Taciturn: Means reserved or uncommunicative in speech.
• Decadence: Refers to moral or cultural decline characterized by excessive indulgence.
• Pernicious: Means having a harmful effect, especially in a gradual or subtle way.
• Jovial: Describes someone who is cheerful and friendly.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. most certainly .

Key Points

• The phrase "most sure" is incorrect in the sentence because it is grammatically awkward and not a recognized collocation in English.
• The correct phrase to use in this context is "most certainly" as it aligns with the intended meaning of strong affirmation and suits the sentence structure better.
• "Most surely" (Option 1) and "very certainly" (Option 2) are grammatically correct, but they are less natural in this context compared to "most certainly."

Correct sentence: The trend of wearing boots is something that has most certainly come around this season.

Additional Information

• Adverbs of Certainty:
• Used to express the degree of certainty about an event or action.
• Examples include certainly, surely, undoubtedly, definitely.
• In this context, "most certainly" is the most natural and widely used phrase to express strong affirmation.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The nation will have been addressed about the critical matter by the head of state.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the active voice and needs to be converted to the passive voice.
• The sentence is in the future perfect tense ("will have already addressed").
• In passive voice, the object of the active sentence (the nation) becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The correct structure for transforming a future perfect sentence into the passive voice is: Subject + will have been + past participle + by + agent.

Correct transformation: The nation will have been addressed about the critical matter by the head of state.

Additional Information

• Active voice: The subject performs the action (e.g., "The head of state will have already addressed the nation").
• Passive voice: The subject receives the action (e.g., "The nation will have been addressed by the head of state").
• In passive voice, the focus shifts from the doer (the head of state) to the receiver of the action (the nation).

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The final report is supposed to be submitted to the department head by the end of the week by us.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the active voice: We are supposed to submit the final report to the department head by the end of the week.
• To convert it into passive voice, the subject ("We") is omitted or placed after "by," and the object ("the final report") becomes the subject of the sentence.
• The structure of the passive voice is: Object + is/are + supposed to be + past participle + by + subject.
• Here, "The final report" becomes the subject, followed by "is supposed to be," and the verb "submitted" is in its past participle form.

Correct transformation: The final report is supposed to be submitted to the department head by the end of the week by us.

Additional Information

• The passive voice is used when the focus is on the action or the object receiving the action, rather than the doer of the action.
• The phrase "by us" can be omitted if the doer is not important or obvious from the context.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The question requires converting a sentence with two clauses from Active Voice to Passive Voice.
• Active Voice: Families (Subject) can enjoy (Verb) technology (Object) while safeguarding (Verb) their youngest members (Object).
• In the first clause, "technology" becomes the subject, and "can enjoy" becomes "can be enjoyed."
• In the second clause, "youngest members" becomes the subject, and the participle "safeguarding" is converted to the passive form "are safeguarded."
• Option 1 correctly transforms both parts of the sentence while maintaining the original meaning and tense (present/modal capability).

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

 

Grammar Insight: When converting a sentence with a modal verb like "can," the passive structure is Subject + modal + be + Past Participle (V3). Similarly, the continuous/participle action "safeguarding" must be reflected as a state in the passive voice to indicate that the protection is being provided to the members.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Uses "is enjoyed," which changes the modal "can" to a simple present statement, losing the sense of "possibility" or "ability."
• Option 3: Uses "will be enjoyed," which changes the tense to future, and incorrectly suggests the members are safeguarding the families.
• Option 4: Uses "has been enjoyed," which incorrectly changes the tense to the Present Perfect.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The question requires transforming an Assertive Sentence into an Interrogative Sentence while maintaining the original tense and meaning.
• The original sentence is in the Simple Present Tense: "Education (Subject) + plays (Verb + s) + a vital role."
• To form a question in the Simple Present Tense for a singular subject (Education), we use the auxiliary verb "Does" followed by the base form of the main verb (play).
• Option 2 correctly uses this structure: "Does education play a vital role?"

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

 

Grammar Insight: When converting to an interrogative form using "do" or "does," the main verb always reverts to its base form (infinitive without 'to'). Even though "education" is singular, we do not say "Does education plays..."; the 's' is transferred to the auxiliary "do," making it "does."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Simply adds a question mark to an assertive statement. While used in casual speech, it is not the correct grammatical transformation into an interrogative structure.
• Option 3: Changes the tense to Present Continuous ("is playing"), which alters the original meaning of a general fact.
• Option 4: Changes the tense to Present Perfect ("Has played"), which suggests the action is completed rather than being a constant truth.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• A collocation is a pair or group of words that are habitually used together in a language to sound natural to native speakers.
• In the final paragraph of the passage, the author concludes: "Through vigilant supervision, proper maintenance, and informed habits, families can enjoy technology..."
• The word "vigilant" means keeping careful watch for possible danger or difficulties, which perfectly complements "supervision" in the context of household safety.
• Option 3 directly uses the exact phrase (collocation) found in the text.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

 

Analytical Insight: While "watchful monitoring" or "strict supervision" might convey a similar meaning, Reading Comprehension questions regarding collocations or vocabulary usually require the exact word choice used by the author to maintain the specific tone of the passage.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Strict supervision" – Often used in disciplinary or educational settings, but not the phrase selected by the author here.
• Option 2: "Watchful monitoring" – A synonym for the intended meaning, but it does not appear in the text.
• Option 4: "Continuous alertness" – Describes a state of mind rather than the act of overseeing children, and is not present in the passage.

The correct answer is Option 2 (specifically when used as "hidden threats").

 

Key Points

• The question asks for a word used in the passage that corresponds to the definition of a "hidden danger."
• In the third paragraph, the author writes: "...frayed wires or exposed components can turn everyday items into hidden threats."
• While "Hazard" (Option 3) is a synonym for danger, the passage explicitly pairs the adjective "hidden" with "threats" to describe dangers that are not immediately obvious.
• Option 2 is the word the author chose to convey this specific meaning within the context of domestic safety.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

 

Analytical Insight: In Reading Comprehension, when two synonyms are provided (like threat and hazard), always look for the word that the author has contextualized with descriptive modifiers. The author uses "hazardous" to describe low voltage devices, but specifically uses "hidden threats" to describe the danger posed by neglected maintenance.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Vigilant" – This means being alert or watchful (the opposite of being a danger).
• Option 3: "Hazard" – This is a general term for a danger or risk; while correct in a general sense, it isn't specifically labeled as "hidden" in the passage's phrasing.
• Option 4: "Curiosity" – This refers to a strong desire to know or learn something, which the passage identifies as a cause of risk, not the danger itself.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage identifies the psychological drive behind child-related accidents in the first paragraph.
• It states that the presence of appliances has heightened risks "particularly for children, whose natural curiosity often overrides caution."
• This "curiosity" leads them to engage in dangerous behaviors mentioned later, such as inserting objects into sockets or tugging at cords, because they are "unaware of these dangers."
• Option 2 directly addresses this internal driver (curiosity) as the reason for their vulnerability.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

 

Analytical Insight: While the passage mentions that the responsibility for safety rests with adults, the "primary reason" for the risk itself is linked to the child's developmental trait—curiosity. The author suggests that because children don't naturally have "caution," they require physical barriers and supervision to stay safe.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Often unsupervised" – The passage recommends supervision as a strategy, but it does not claim that children are "often" left alone as the root cause of the risk.
• Option 3: "Playing with toys near appliances" – While children play with toys, the passage specifically highlights them inserting objects into sockets or opening panels, not just playing nearby.
• Option 4: "Physically weaker" – Physical strength is not mentioned as a factor; the risk is attributed to their lack of awareness and high level of curiosity.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. desert, desert .

Key Points

• The context of the sentence provides clues for selecting the correct pair of homonyms.
• The first blank refers to the act of abandoning or leaving someone, and the verb "desert" (meaning to abandon) fits here appropriately.
• The second blank refers to a geographical feature, specifically a vast and empty area like a desert. The noun "desert" (a barren area of land) is the correct fit here.

Correct sentence: After realizing their leader had planned to desert them in the middle of the vast desert, the people refused to follow him any further.

Additional Information

• Homonyms: Words that are spelled or pronounced the same but have different meanings.
• Examples:
• "Desert" (verb): To abandon someone or something.
• "Desert" (noun): A barren area of land, typically covered with sand.
• It is important to analyze the context of the sentence to choose the correct homonym.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. born, borne .

Key Points

• The word 'born' means the act of coming into existence, which fits the context of ideas being created or coming into existence.
• The word 'borne' is the past participle of 'bear,' meaning to endure or carry, which fits the context of challenges being bravely carried or endured.
• Other options like 'bourn' or 'bourne' do not fit the sentence contextually or grammatically.

Correct sentence: Many new ideas are born when challenges are bravely borne by those who dare to think differently.

Additional Information

• Homonyms: These are words that sound the same but have different meanings and spellings. Examples: 'born' and 'borne.'
• Contextual Usage: Always choose the homonym that makes sense in the context of the sentence, considering both meaning and grammar.

Given:

Total money planned for eatables = ₹96

4 friends did not come

Each remaining friend paid ₹4 extra

Formula used:

Total money = Number of people × Contribution per person

Calculations:

⇒ Let total planned friends = x

⇒ Original share per person = 96 ÷ x

⇒ Friends who turned up = x − 4

⇒ New share per person = 96 ÷ (x − 4)

⇒ Given extra paid per person = 4

⇒ $\frac{96}{x-4}-\frac{96}{x}=4$

⇒ Multiply by x(x − 4)

⇒ 96x − 96(x − 4) = 4x(x − 4)

⇒ 96x − 96x + 384 = 4x² − 16x

⇒ 384 = 4x² − 16x

⇒ x² − 4x − 96 = 0

⇒ (x − 12)(x + 8) = 0

⇒ x = 12

⇒ Friends who turned up = 12 − 4 = 8

∴ The number of people who turned up on the trip was 8.

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹800

Profit = 25%

Formula used:

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = 25% of CP

⇒ SP = CP + Profit

⇒ SP = CP + 25% of CP

⇒ SP = 1.25 × CP

⇒ 800 = 1.25 × CP

⇒ CP = 800 ÷ 1.25

⇒ CP = 640

∴ The cost price of the article is ₹640.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "36" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 5 × 2 + 9 - 8 = 20

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

Option 1) Interchange 2 and 9

⇒ 5×9+2−8=?

5×9=45

45+2=47

47−8=39

Option 2) Interchange 5 and 8

⇒ 8×2+9−5=?

8×2=16

16+9=25

25−5=20

Option 3) Interchange 9 and 8

⇒ 5×2+8−9=?

5×2=10

10+8=18

18−9=9

Option 4) Interchange × and +

⇒ 5+2×9−8=?

2×9=18

5+18=23

23−8=15

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Given:

Eye : Vision — The eye enables vision.

Ear : ? — The ear enables hearing.

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1) Echo

Echo → Not correct; echo is a reflection of sound, not what the ear enables.

Option 2) Hear

Hear → This is an action (verb), not exactly the sensory function.

Option 3) Drum

Drum → Irrelevant; it's an object.

Option 4) Sound

Sound → This is what the ear detects, but the analogy is about function enabled by the organ, not the stimulus.

Thus, The best fit here, considering the analogy pattern, is Hear.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: Each number in the series is a perfect cube.

Now, Checking the given options:

Option 1) 1000

1000 = 10³

Option 2) 1331

1331 = 11³

Option 3) 1728

1728 = 12³

Option 4) 829

(not a perfect cube)

thus, "829" will not be a number in the following series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: Mapping the numerical positional value back to its corresponding letter.

For

MSB is coded as 13-19-2 →

Positional values are: M = 13, S = 19, B = 2

Code = 13-19-2

Similarly, we need to find the letters for the code 4-10-18:

The pattern observed is: Mapping the numerical positional value back to its corresponding letter.

Alphabetical mapping: 4 = D, 10 = J, 18 = R

Therefore, the related letters for '4-10-18' are DJR.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

The numbers are cubes of consecutive natural numbers: 1³, 2³, 3³, 4³... The next number is 5³ = 125.

 

Thus, the missing term in the series is A125.

 Hence, the correct answer is Option "2".

The logic followed here is:

Given:  Master Address (MA): 15, Sector VII, Salt Lake City, Block DB, Kolkata - 700091

Now, checking the options given:

Option 1) 15, Sector VII, Salt Lake City, Block D.B., Kolkata - 700091

→ Extra punctuation (.) not present in MA

Option 2) 15, Sector 7, Salt Lake City, Block DB, Kolkata - 700091

→ Uses numeral 7 instead of Roman numeral VII

Option 3) 15, Sector VII, Salt Lake City, Block DB, Kolkata - 700091

→ Perfect match — spelling, punctuation, spacing, and format are identical

Option 4) 15, Sector VII, Saltlake City, Block DB, Kolkata - 700091

→ Missing space between Salt and Lake

Thus, 15, Sector VII, Salt Lake City, Block DB, Kolkata - 700091 is a right match.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Given:  Master Address (MA): Shop 3, Level 1, City Centre, Near Bus Stand, Nashik - 422001

Now, checking the options given:

Option 1) Shop 3, Level 1, City Center, Near Bus Stand, Nashik - 422001

→ “Center” ≠ Centre

Option 2) Shop 3, Level 1, City Centre, Near Bus Std, Nashik - 422001

→ Abbreviation used instead of Bus Stand

Option 3) Shop 3, Level 1, City Centre, Near Bus Stand, Nashik - 422001

→ Perfect match in spelling, punctuation, and structure

Option 4) Shop No. 3, Level 1, City Centre, Near Bus Stand, Nashik - 422001

→ Extra word “No.” added

Thus, Shop 3, Level 1, City Centre, Near Bus Stand, Nashik - 422001 is a right match.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Example of joints.

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1) Elbow

Elbow → a joint

Option 2) Ankle

Ankle → a joint

Option 3) Knee

Knee → a joint

Option 4) Heart

Heart → an organ, not a joint

Thus, Heart Is odd from the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: This ensures fairness, discipline, and prevention without injustice.

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1) Cancel their paper

→ Too harsh without proof

Option 2) Give a warning and allow to continue

→ Fair, balanced, and maintains exam discipline

Option 3) Ask other invigilators to watch them

→ Helpful, but alone it avoids direct action; usually combined with a warning

Option 4) File a complaint immediately

→ Premature without evidence

Thus, Heart Is odd from the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded is,

<br>

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is embedded in the figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, there are 10 triangles.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Labeled triangles identified in the figure → 10

​​Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 12 triangles.​​​

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Given: Five circles: A, B, C, D, E

No two circles have the same radius

C > B but C < D

E has the maximum radius

B = 14 cm

A = 11 cm

So, the relative order must be: A (11) < B (14) < C < D < E

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1) 14

→ Cannot be equal to B (all radii are different)

Option 2)  11

→ Cannot be equal to A and also must be greater than B

Option 3) 10

→ Less than B (14), violates condition

Option 4) 16

→ Greater than 14 and allows D and E to be larger

Thus, 16 will be the possible radius (in cm) of circle C.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Given:

Email is from HR department

Subject: “Important Updates to Employee Benefits”

Marked high priority

Sent to all employees simultaneously

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1) Someone is getting fired

→ No information suggests termination of any individual.

Option 2)  The company is announcing layoffs

→ Layoffs are not mentioned or implied by “employee benefits”.

Option 3) Significant policy changes are being communicated

→ Logical inference — important updates, high priority, and benefits strongly indicate changes or updates in company policies affecting employees.

Option 4) It's routine quarterly information

→ Routine information is usually not marked high priority.

Thus, Significant policy changes are being communicated Is odd from the given options as it logically follows.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Given: M is facing towards west.

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1) Right, Left, Left, Right, Right

→ +90−90−90+90+90=+90

Net turn = 90° Right → Facing North

Option 2)  Right, Left, Right, Left, Left

→ +90−90+90−90−90=−90

Facing South

Option 3) Left, Right, Left, Right, Left, Right, Right, Left

→ −90+90−90+90−90+90+90−90=0

Still facing West

Option 4) Left, Left, Left, Left, Right, Right, Right, Right

→−360+360=0

 Still facing West

Thus, He should go: Right, Left, Left, Right, Right.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1)

The symbols at the ends (circle, square, arrow) swap their vertical positions.

The direction of arrows reverses.

A consistent transformation rule exists.

Option 2)  

Filled and unfilled symbols swap sides.

Arrow directions reverse.

Logical and consistent transformation.

Option 3) 

The left figure has a circle at the bottom, but in the right figure the circle appears at the top.

However, other symbols do not follow the same consistent swapping or reversal rule seen in the rest.

Transformation is inconsistent compared to other options.

Option 4) 

Filled diamond ↔ hollow diamond swap positions.

Arrow direction reverses.

Clear and consistent logic.

Thus,

 is odd from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1)

Observation: The positions of letters and numbers are swapped diagonally. This is a clear positional swap pattern.

Option 2)  

Observation: Numbers are rearranged rotated 180°. This is a numeric rotation pattern.

Option 3) 

Observation: Only two symbols in the top row are swapped, while bottom row stays the same. This is not a rotation or diagonal swap like the others.

Option 4) 

Observation: The positions of all elements are swapped along the diagonal, similar to option 1.

Thus,  

 is odd from the rest.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

he logic followed here is:

Logic: is based on a sequential rotational movement of the arrows and the outer frame.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'HEAD' is coded as '88'

Total = 19 + 22 + 26 + 23 = 90

90 − 2 = 88

For, 'REAR' is coded as '64'

Total = 9 + 22 + 26 + 9 = 66

66 − 2 = 64

Similarly, for 'FRONT' 

Total = 21 + 9 + 12 + 13 + 7 = 62

62 − 2 = 60

So, 'FRONT' will be related to 60.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Given:

Letters available: S, T, O, N, E

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1) PANTHOR

→ Letters like P, A, H, R are not in STONE

Option 2)  NESTOR

→ Letters: N, E, S, T, O, R

Option 3) TONICS

→ Letters: T, O, N, I, C, S 

Extra letters I, C

Option 4) BANTERS

→ Letters: B, A, N, T, E, R, S

Extra letters B, A, R

Thus, NESTOR Can be formed from STONE.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given:

A's investment = ₹5000

A's time = 12 months

B's investment = ₹4000

B's time = 9 months

C's investment = ₹3000

C's time = 6 months

Total profit = ₹380000

Formula Used:

Profit share = (Investment × Time) ÷ Total ratio

Total ratio = Sum of individual ratios

Calculation:

⇒ A's ratio = ₹5000 × 12 = ₹60000

⇒ B's ratio = ₹4000 × 9 = ₹36000

⇒ C's ratio = ₹3000 × 6 = ₹18000

⇒ Total ratio = ₹60000 + ₹36000 + ₹18000 = ₹114000

⇒ B's share of profit = (₹36000 ÷ ₹114000) × ₹380000

⇒ B's share of profit = ₹120000

∴ The correct answer is ₹120000.

Given:

a + b = 24

a² + b² = 320

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

a³ + b³ = (a + b) × (a² + b² - ab)

Calculation:

⇒ (a + b)² = 24² = 576

⇒ 576 = 320 + 2ab

⇒ 2ab = 576 - 320

⇒ 2ab = 256

⇒ ab = 256 ÷ 2 = 128

⇒ a³ + b³ = (a + b) × (a² + b² - ab)

⇒ a³ + b³ = 24 × (320 - 128)

⇒ a³ + b³ = 24 × 192

⇒ a³ + b³ = 4608

∴ The correct answer is 4608.

Given:

Total candies = 440

Each student receives = N + 2 candies

Formula Used:

Total candies = Number of students × Candies per student

N × (N + 2) = 440

Calculation:

⇒ N × (N + 2) = 440

⇒ N² + 2N = 440

⇒ N² + 2N - 440 = 0

⇒ (N + 22)(N - 20) = 0

⇒ N = -22 or N = 20

⇒ N = 20 (as N cannot be negative)

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Given:

Volume of cone = 462 cm³

Height (h) = 14 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = (1 ÷ 3) × π × r² × h

Calculation:

⇒ 462 = (1 ÷ 3) × π × r² × 14

⇒ 462 = (14π ÷ 3) × r²

⇒ 462 × 3 = 14π × r²

⇒ 1386 = 14π × r²

⇒ 1386 ÷ 14π = r²

⇒ 99 ÷ π = r²

⇒ r² = 99 ÷ (22 ÷ 7)

⇒ r² = 99 × 7 ÷ 22

⇒ r² = 693 ÷ 22

⇒ r² = 31.5

⇒ r ≈ 5.61 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5.61 cm.

Given:

Perimeter of smaller polygon = 84.8 cm

Each interior angle of smaller polygon = 140°

Larger polygon has twice the number of sides

Formula Used:

Interior angle of regular polygon = [(n − 2) × 180] ÷ n

Calculation:

⇒ [(n − 2) × 180] ÷ n = 140

⇒ 180n − 360 = 140n

⇒ 40n = 360

⇒ n = 9

⇒ Number of sides of larger polygon = 2 × 9

⇒ Number of sides of larger polygon = 18

⇒ Interior angle of larger polygon = [(18 − 2) × 180] ÷ 18

⇒ Interior angle = (16 × 180) ÷ 18

⇒ Interior angle = 2880 ÷ 18

⇒ Interior angle = 160°

∴ The correct answer is 160°.

Given:

AD = AE

∠BAD = ∠CAE

AB = 2p + 3

BD = 2p

AC = 3q − 1

CE = q

Formula Used:

If AD = AE and ∠BAD = ∠CAE, then △BAD ≅ △CAE

Corresponding sides of congruent triangles are equal

Calculation:

⇒ From congruency, AB = AC

⇒ 2p + 3 = 3q − 1

⇒ 2p − 3q = −4

⇒ From congruency, BD = CE

⇒ 2p = q

⇒ Substitute q = 2p in 2p − 3q = −4

⇒ 2p − 3(2p) = −4

⇒ 2p − 6p = −4

⇒ −4p = −4

⇒ p = 1

⇒ q = 2p

⇒ q = 2

⇒ p + q = 1 + 2

⇒ p + q = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Given:

Ratio of length : breadth : height = 2 : 3 : 4

Total length of all edges = 108 cm

Formula Used:

Total length of all edges of cuboid = 4(l + b + h)

Volume = l × b × h

Calculation:

⇒ Let l = 2x, b = 3x, h = 4x

⇒ 4(l + b + h) = 108

⇒ 4(2x + 3x + 4x) = 108

⇒ 4(9x) = 108

⇒ 36x = 108

⇒ x = 3

⇒ l = 2 × 3 = 6 cm

⇒ b = 3 × 3 = 9 cm

⇒ h = 4 × 3 = 12 cm

⇒ Volume = 6 × 9 × 12

⇒ Volume = 648 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 648 cm³.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of radii (k) = 18 ÷ 6 = 3.

Number of hemispheres (n) = 2 × k³ = 2 × 3³ = 54.

Total CSA = n × 2πr² = 54 × 2 × π × 6² = 108 × 36π = 3888π cm².

∴ The correct answer is 3888π cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of metal sphere (R) = 18 cm

Radius of each solid hemisphere (r) = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = (4/3)πR³

Volume of hemisphere = (2/3)πr³

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of hemisphere = 2πr²

Calculations:

When the sphere is melted to form n hemispheres, their volumes must be equal:

⇒ Volume of sphere = n × Volume of one hemisphere

⇒ (4/3)π(18)³ = n × (2/3)π(6)³

⇒ 4 × 18 × 18 × 18 = n × 2 × 6 × 6 × 6

⇒ n = [2 × 18 × 18 × 18] ÷ [6 × 6 × 6]

⇒ n = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 54

Now, calculate the total curved surface area of 54 hemispheres:

⇒ Total CSA = n × 2πr²

⇒ Total CSA = 54 × 2 × π × (6)²

⇒ Total CSA = 108 × 36π

⇒ Total CSA = 3888π cm²

∴ The correct answer is 3888π cm².

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Hemisphere

The TSA of a solid hemisphere includes the curved area and the flat circular base: TSA = 2πr² + πr² = 3πr².

Volume Conservation

In melting and recasting problems, the volume of the original shape is always equal to the sum of the volumes of the new shapes.

Surface Area of Sphere

A sphere does not have a separate CSA and TSA; its total surface area is given by 4πR².

Given:

Length of base = 12 m

Breadth of base = 8 m

Slant height = 18 m

Formula Used:

Lateral surface area of pyramid = 1 ÷ 2 × Perimeter of base × Slant height

Perimeter of rectangle = 2(l + b)

Calculation:

⇒ Perimeter of base = 2(12 + 8)

⇒ Perimeter of base = 2 × 20

⇒ Perimeter of base = 40 m

⇒ Lateral surface area = 1 ÷ 2 × 40 × 18

⇒ Lateral surface area = 20 × 18

⇒ Lateral surface area = 360 m²

∴ The correct answer is 360 m².

Given:

Profit on first article = 10%

Loss on second article = 20%

Formula Used:

Selling price = Cost price × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

Selling price = Cost price × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let cost price of first article = 100

⇒ Selling price of first article = 100 × 110 ÷ 100

⇒ Selling price of first article = 110

⇒ Let cost price of second article = x

⇒ Selling price of second article = x × 80 ÷ 100

⇒ Selling price of second article = 0.8x

⇒ For no profit no loss

⇒ Total SP = Total CP

⇒ 110 + 0.8x = 100 + x

⇒ 110 − 100 = x − 0.8x

⇒ 10 = 0.2x

⇒ x = 50

⇒ Ratio of cost prices = 100 : 50

⇒ Ratio = 2 : 1

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 1.

Shortcut Trick

The profit-sharing ratio is directly proportional to the investment ratio when the time period is constant.

Ratio of P : Q = 3 : 4

Given, 3 units = ₹30,000

⇒ 1 unit = ₹10,000

⇒ Q's Investment (4 units) = 4 × ₹10,000 = ₹40,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹40,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Investment of P = ₹30,000

Profit Sharing Ratio P : Q = 3 : 4

Formula Used:

Investment of P ÷ Investment of Q = Profit Share of P ÷ Profit Share of Q

Calculations:

⇒ 30,000 ÷ Q's Investment = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ Q's Investment = (30,000 × 4) ÷ 3

⇒ Q's Investment = 10,000 × 4

⇒ Q's Investment = ₹40,000

By comparing the result with the given options, we find it matches Option (2).

∴ The correct answer is ₹40,000.

Additional Information

Simple Partnership

When all partners invest their capital for the same time period, the profit or loss is distributed in the ratio of their investments.

Compound Partnership

When partners invest capital for different time periods, the profit sharing ratio is (Capital₁ × Time₁) : (Capital₂ × Time₂).

Working and Sleeping Partner

A working partner manages the business and often receives a share of profit as salary before the remaining profit is divided based on investment.

Given:

A + B + C = 3500

A : B = 2 : 3

B : C = 4 : 5

Formula Used:

If a : b = x : y, then a = kx and b = ky

Calculation:

⇒ A : B = 2 : 3

⇒ B : C = 4 : 5

⇒ Make B common

⇒ LCM of 3 and 4 = 12

⇒ A : B = 8 : 12

⇒ B : C = 12 : 15

⇒ A : B : C = 8 : 12 : 15

⇒ Total ratio = 8 + 12 + 15

⇒ Total ratio = 35

⇒ Value of one part = 3500 ÷ 35

⇒ Value of one part = 100

⇒ B = 12 × 100

⇒ B = 1200

∴ The correct answer is 1200.

Shortcut Trick

Equating total work capacity: (6M + 8B) × 10 days = (26M + 48B) × 2 days.

⇒ 60M + 80B = 52M + 96B ⇒ 8M = 16B ⇒ 1M = 2B.

Initial efficiency in boys: 6(2) + 8 = 20 boys. Target efficiency: 15(2) + 20 = 50 boys.

Using M₁D₁ = M₂D₂ ⇒ 20 × 10 = 50 × D ⇒ D = 200 ÷ 50 = 4 days.

∴ The correct answer is 4 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Group 1 (6 men and 8 boys) takes 10 days; Group 2 (26 men and 48 boys) takes 2 days.

Formula Used: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

⇒ 6M + 8B = 1 ... (i)

⇒ 26M + 48B = 5 ... (ii)

⇒ Multiplying (i) by 6 ⇒ 36M + 48B = 6 ... (iii)

⇒ Subtracting (ii) from (iii) ⇒ 10M = 1 ⇒ M = 0.1

⇒ Substituting M in (i) ⇒ 6(0.1) + 8B = 1 ⇒ 8B = 0.4 ⇒ B = 0.05

⇒ Efficiency of 15 men and 20 boys = 15(0.1) + 20(0.05) = 1.5 + 1.0 = 2.5

⇒ Time required = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency = 10 ÷ 2.5 = 4 days

∴ The correct answer is 4 days.

Additional Information

Man-Days Equivalence

When multiple types of workers are involved, convert them to a single unit using the efficiency ratio derived from the formula M₁D₁ = M₂D₂.

Efficiency and Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a fixed amount of work. If efficiency doubles, time is halved.

General Work Formula

The relationship between men (M), days (D), hours (H), and work (W) is given by (M₁ × D₁ × H₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂) ÷ W₂.

Given:

Selling price after 16% discount = ₹1,680

Discount percentage = 16%

New discount percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

Marked Price = Selling Price ÷ (1 - Discount% / 100)

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 - Discount% / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Marked Price = ₹1,680 ÷ (1 - 16 / 100)

⇒ Marked Price = ₹1,680 ÷ (1 - 0.16)

⇒ Marked Price = ₹1,680 ÷ 0.84

⇒ Marked Price = ₹2,000

⇒ New Selling Price = ₹2,000 × (1 - 25 / 100)

⇒ New Selling Price = ₹2,000 × (1 - 0.25)

⇒ New Selling Price = ₹2,000 × 0.75

⇒ New Selling Price = ₹1,500

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,500.

Given:

Amount becomes 5 times in 20 years

Simple Interest

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let Principal = P

⇒ Amount after 20 years = 5P

⇒ Simple Interest in 20 years = 5P − P

⇒ Simple Interest = 4P

⇒ P × R × 20 ÷ 100 = 4P

⇒ R × 20 ÷ 100 = 4

⇒ R = 20%

⇒ For amount to become 9P

⇒ Required Simple Interest = 9P − P

⇒ Required Simple Interest = 8P

⇒ P × 20 × T ÷ 100 = 8P

⇒ 20T ÷ 100 = 8

⇒ T ÷ 5 = 8

⇒ T = 40 years

∴ The correct answer is 40 years.

Given:

Time = 10 years

Amount becomes double

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Calculation:

⇒ Let Principal = P

⇒ Amount after 10 years = 2P

⇒ Simple Interest in 10 years = 2P − P

⇒ Simple Interest = P

⇒ P × R × 10 ÷ 100 = P

⇒ R × 10 ÷ 100 = 1

⇒ R ÷ 10 = 1

⇒ R = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Given:

Cost price of first tea = 120

Cost price of second tea = 150

Selling price of mixture = 168

Profit = 20%

Formula Used:

Selling price = Cost price × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

Alligation rule: Ratio = (Higher − Mean) : (Mean − Lower)

Calculation:

⇒ 168 = Cost price × 120 ÷ 100

⇒ Cost price of mixture = 168 × 100 ÷ 120

⇒ Cost price of mixture = 140

⇒ Using alligation

⇒ Ratio = (150 − 140) : (140 − 120)

⇒ Ratio = 10 : 20

⇒ Ratio = 1 : 2

∴ The required proportion is 1 : 2.

Given:

Initial ratio of A : B = 7 : 5

Mixture removed = 9 litres

New ratio of A : B = 7 : 9

Formula Used:

If quantities are in ratio a : b, take total as (a + b)x

Removed quantity of each component = Removed × (Part ÷ Sum)

Calculation:

⇒ Let total quantity = 12x

⇒ Initial A = 7x

⇒ Initial B = 5x

⇒ A removed = 9 × 7 ÷ 12

⇒ A removed = 21 ÷ 4

⇒ B removed = 9 × 5 ÷ 12

⇒ B removed = 15 ÷ 4

⇒ Remaining A = 7x − 21 ÷ 4

⇒ Remaining B = 5x − 15 ÷ 4

⇒ After adding 9 litres of B

⇒ Final B = 5x − 15 ÷ 4 + 9

⇒ Final B = 5x + 21 ÷ 4

⇒ (7x − 21 ÷ 4) ÷ (5x + 21 ÷ 4) = 7 ÷ 9

⇒ LCM of denominators = 4

⇒ 9(28x − 21) = 7(20x + 21)

⇒ 252x − 189 = 140x + 147

⇒ 112x = 336

⇒ x = 3

⇒ Initial A = 7x

⇒ Initial A = 21 litres

∴ The correct answer is 21 litres.

Given:

Radius of circle = 25 cm

Length of first chord = 48 cm

Length of second chord = 40 cm

Formula Used:

Distance from centre to chord = √(r² − (l ÷ 2)²)

Minimum distance between parallel chords = Difference of their distances from centre

Calculation:

⇒ Distance₁ = √(25² − 24²)

⇒ Distance₁ = √(625 − 576)

⇒ Distance₁ = √49

⇒ Distance₁ = 7 cm

⇒ Distance₂ = √(25² − 20²)

⇒ Distance₂ = √(625 − 400)

⇒ Distance₂ = √225

⇒ Distance₂ = 15 cm

⇒ Minimum distance = 15 − 7

⇒ Minimum distance = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Given:

Non-parallel sides = 6 cm and 8 cm

Trapezoid is circumscribed about a circle

Formula Used:

In a quadrilateral circumscribed about a circle, sum of opposite sides are equal

Perimeter = Sum of all sides

Calculation:

⇒ Let parallel sides be a and b

⇒ a + b = 6 + 8

⇒ a + b = 14

⇒ Perimeter = a + b + 6 + 8

⇒ Perimeter = 14 + 14

⇒ Perimeter = 28 cm

∴ The correct answer is 28 cm.

Given:

Equation of line = 2x − 3y = 6

Formula Used:

Standard form of line = Ax + By + C = 0

Slope (m) = −A ÷ B

Calculation:

⇒ 2x − 3y − 6 = 0

⇒ A = 2

⇒ B = −3

⇒ m = −2 ÷ (−3)

⇒ m = 2 ÷ 3

∴ The correct answer is 2 ÷ 3.

Given:

Perimeter of Triangle X = 24 cm

Perimeter of Triangle Y = 36 cm

Area of Triangle X = 40 cm²

Formula Used:

Ratio of perimeters of similar triangles = Ratio of corresponding sides

Ratio of areas of similar triangles = Square of ratio of corresponding sides

Calculation:

⇒ Ratio of sides = 36 ÷ 24

⇒ Ratio of sides = 3 ÷ 2

⇒ Ratio of areas = (3 ÷ 2)²

⇒ Ratio of areas = 9 ÷ 4

⇒ Area of Triangle Y = 40 × 9 ÷ 4

⇒ Area of Triangle Y = 40 × 2.25

⇒ Area of Triangle Y = 90 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 90 cm².

Given:

Area of Triangle ABC is 4 times the area of Triangle DEF.

Triangles ABC and DEF are similar.

Formula Used:

Ratio of areas of similar triangles = (Ratio of corresponding sides)².

Ratio of perimeters of similar triangles = Ratio of corresponding sides.

Calculation:

⇒ Ratio of areas = 4:1.

⇒ (Ratio of corresponding sides)² = 4:1.

⇒ Ratio of corresponding sides = √4:√1 = 2:1.

⇒ Ratio of perimeters = 2 : 1.

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 1.

Given:

Two circles

Formula Used:

Maximum number of common tangents depends on relative position of circles

Calculation:

⇒ If circles are separate and do not intersect

⇒ Two direct common tangents can be drawn

⇒ Two transverse common tangents can be drawn

⇒ Total common tangents = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Shortcut Trick

Profit of 10% implies Selling Price = 110% of Cost Price.

Given: 110% → ₹3,30,000

Target Profit of 25% implies New Selling Price = 125% of Cost Price.

New Selling Price = (3,30,000 ÷ 110) × 125

New Selling Price = 3,000 × 125 = ₹3,75,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,75,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Selling Price (SP₁) = ₹3,30,000

Initial Profit (P₁) = 10%

Required Profit (P₂) = 25%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = [SP × 100] / [100 + Profit %]

Selling Price (SP) = [CP × (100 + Profit %)] / 100

Calculations:

⇒ CP = (3,30,000 × 100) / (100 + 10)

⇒ CP = (3,30,000 × 100) / 110

⇒ CP = 3,000 × 100 = ₹3,00,000

⇒ New Selling Price = [3,00,000 × (100 + 25)] / 100

⇒ New Selling Price = 3,00,000 × (125 / 100)

⇒ New Selling Price = 3,000 × 125

⇒ New Selling Price = ₹3,75,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,75,000.

Additional Information

Basic Profit and Loss

Profit occurs when SP > CP. Profit = SP − CP. Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100.

Selling Price for Profit/Loss

SP = CP × (100 ± P/L%) / 100. Use (+) for profit and (−) for loss.

Successive Changes

If an object is sold to multiple people with profits x% and y%, the final SP = CP × [(100+x)/100] × [(100+y)/100].

The correct answer is Gurjara-Pratihara Harichandra.

Key Points

• Gurjara-Pratihara Harichandra is considered one of the rulers of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty who was a Brahmin by origin. He abandoned his traditional profession as a Brahmin and established a ruling dynasty in the region of Rajasthan.
• The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty was an important early medieval Indian dynasty, which played a pivotal role in protecting India from foreign invasions, particularly the Arab invasions.
• Harichandra's rise to power as a ruler marked a significant shift from the traditional Brahminical profession to assuming kingship, illustrating the dynamism of Indian society during that era.
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas are known for their contributions to Indian art, culture, and architecture, particularly during their rule in the 8th to 11th centuries CE.
• The dynasty’s influence extended over a large part of northern India, and they were significant in resisting invasions and establishing political stability.

Additional Information

• Gurjara-Pratihara Dynasty:
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas were one of the three major powers of northern India during the early medieval period, along with the Palas and the Rashtrakutas.
• Their reign is known for the construction of significant temples and monuments, particularly in Gwalior and Khajuraho.
• The dynasty reached its zenith under Mihira Bhoja, who expanded the empire and strengthened its administration.
• Contributions to Art and Culture:
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas are credited with the revival of Hinduism and the promotion of Indian art and architecture.
• They were patrons of temple architecture and are associated with the development of the Nagara style of temple construction.
• Arab Invasions:
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas played a crucial role in repelling Arab invasions into India, particularly under the leadership of Nagabhata I.
• This resistance helped preserve the cultural and religious heritage of India during a period of significant external threats.
• Other Dynasties and Rulers:
• Dantidurga: Founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, which ruled over parts of the Deccan region. He is not associated with the Gurjara-Pratiharas.
• Nagabhata: Another important ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, known for his military achievements and resistance to Arab invasions.
• Dharmapala Deva: Ruler of the Pala dynasty, based in eastern India (Bengal region). He was a contemporary of the Gurjara-Pratiharas and is not related to Rajasthan.

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

• Akbar, the third Mughal emperor, is known for his progressive policies and administrative reforms during his reign from 1556 to 1605.
• He introduced the Mansabdari system, a unique military and civil administrative system to effectively manage his empire. Under this system, officials were granted ranks or "Mansabs."
• The Gakkhar chief Kamal Khan was made a Mansabdar by Akbar as part of his policy to integrate regional leaders into the Mughal administration.
• Akbar's strategy of appointing local chiefs like Kamal Khan to administrative positions helped consolidate the Mughal empire and maintain local support.
• The Gakkhars were a warrior tribe primarily based in the regions of present-day Punjab and northern Pakistan, and their allegiance was crucial for maintaining stability in the frontier regions of the empire.

Additional Information

• Mansabdari System:
• The Mansabdari system was introduced by Akbar and was a rank-based system used to determine the position, salary, and military responsibilities of officials.
• Mansabdars were ranked from 10 to 5000, and these ranks were based on their Zat (personal rank) and Sawar (number of cavalry).
• It ensured a centralized administration and loyalty to the emperor while providing effective governance over the vast Mughal empire.
• Akbar’s Policies:
• Akbar followed a policy of religious tolerance and established the Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) for interfaith discussions.
• He implemented reforms such as the abolition of the Jizya tax and introduced the Din-i-Ilahi, a syncretic religious philosophy.
• His administration was marked by decentralization, efficient revenue systems like Raja Todar Mal's land revenue reforms, and cultural patronage.
• Gakkhar Tribe:
• The Gakkhars were a warrior tribe known for their strength and influence in the regions of Punjab and northern Pakistan.
• They played an important role in guarding the northwestern frontier of the Mughal empire.
• By appointing leaders like Kamal Khan as Mansabdars, Akbar ensured their loyalty and strengthened his control over these strategic regions.
• Akbar’s Legacy:
• Akbar is regarded as one of the greatest Mughal emperors due to his administrative, military, and cultural contributions.
• His reign laid the foundation for the Mughal empire's peak under his successors Jahangir and Shah Jahan.
• He was a patron of the arts, and his court included famous personalities like Birbal, Tansen, and Abul Fazl.

Important Points

• Akbar’s Administrative System:
• His administration was divided into provinces, each governed by a Subedar (provincial governor).
• The Mansabdari system was integral to both civil and military administration, ensuring a well-maintained bureaucracy.
• The system was designed to prevent hereditary succession, ensuring loyalty to the emperor.
• Integration of Regional Leaders:
• Akbar’s policy of appointing regional leaders like Kamal Khan helped integrate diverse communities into the Mughal empire.
• This approach reduced rebellion risks and strengthened the central government’s authority.

The correct answer is Indian Institute of Science.

Key Points

• Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, has consistently ranked as one of the leading educational and research institutions in India. It secured the top position in the Times Higher Education (THE) Asia Rankings 2025.
• The Times Higher Education Asia Rankings assess universities based on various parameters such as teaching, research, citations, international outlook, and industry income.
• IISc is globally recognized for its excellence in scientific research, cutting-edge facilities, and contributions to various fields of science and technology.
• As of the latest rankings, IISc has excelled in parameters like research citations, which highlight the impact and quality of the research conducted by the institution.
• This achievement further reinforces IISc’s role as a leader in advancing education and innovation in India and globally.

Additional Information

• Indian Institute of Science (IISc):
• Founded: IISc was established in 1909 and is located in Bangalore, Karnataka.
• Focus Areas: IISc specializes in advanced scientific and technological research, covering areas like aerospace, biological sciences, chemical engineering, computer science, and more.
• International Recognition: IISc is renowned for producing high-quality research and is often ranked among the top institutions globally.
• Notable Contributions: IISc has made significant strides in areas such as quantum computing, nanotechnology, and climate science.
• Times Higher Education Asia Rankings:
• Objective: The rankings evaluate institutions across Asia based on core performance indicators, including research output, teaching environment, and global collaborations.
• Parameters: Institutions are assessed on five criteria: Teaching, Research, Citations, International Outlook, and Industry Income.
• Global Impact: The rankings serve as a benchmark for academic excellence and help universities attract international collaborations and funding opportunities.
• Other Notable Indian Institutions:
• IIT Bombay: Recognized for its engineering programs and research innovation, IIT Bombay has consistently performed well in global rankings.
• IIT Kanpur: Known for its focus on technology and science, IIT Kanpur excels in areas like robotics and artificial intelligence.
• IIT Lucknow: A relatively newer addition to the IITs, this institute is emerging in areas of engineering and management studies.
• Importance of Rankings:
• Global Recognition: Rankings like THE Asia Rankings help Indian institutions showcase their achievements globally.
• Attracting Talent: High rankings enable institutions to attract top students, faculty, and industry partnerships.
• Policy Impact: Such rankings also influence government policies and funding for higher education in India.

Important Points

• Research Citations: Citations are a key metric in rankings as they indicate the quality and impact of the research conducted by institutions.
• International Outlook: This parameter assesses the institution's ability to attract international students, faculty, and collaborations.
• Industry Income: Measures how effectively institutions transfer knowledge to industry, indicating practical applications of research.
• Teaching Environment: Evaluates the learning atmosphere, faculty qualifications, and student support systems.

The correct answer is Kabaddi.

Key Points

• The term 'Raider' is primarily associated with the sport of Kabaddi.
• A Raider is a player who enters the opponent's half of the court to touch opponents and return to their half while holding their breath and chanting "Kabaddi."
• The role of the Raider is crucial as they score points by touching opposition players and successfully returning to their own half without being tackled.
• Kabaddi is a traditional Indian sport that originated thousands of years ago and is now played internationally, including in the Asian Games and Pro Kabaddi League.
• The game emphasizes physical fitness, agility, strategy, and teamwork, and the Raider’s performance significantly impacts the outcome of the match.

Additional Information

• About Kabaddi:
• Kabaddi is a contact sport that originated in ancient India and is widely played in South Asia and other parts of the world.
• The game involves two teams, each consisting of seven players, playing on a rectangular court.
• Players take turns sending a Raider into the opposition's half, aiming to tag opponents and return without being tackled.
• Key skills in Kabaddi include breath control, agility, strength, and tactical intelligence.
• Roles in Kabaddi:
• Raider: The attacking player who enters the opponent's half to score points.
• Defender: The players who attempt to stop the Raider by tackling him/her before they return to their half.
• International Recognition:
• Kabaddi is recognized as an official sport in the Asian Games and has been included since 1990.
• The Pro Kabaddi League (PKL), launched in 2014, has popularized the sport globally, attracting players and audiences from various countries.
• Other Terms in Kabaddi:
• Super Raid: A raid that scores three or more points in a single attempt.
• Do-or-Die Raid: A situation where the Raider must score, or the team will lose a point.
• Bonus Point: Awarded when the Raider successfully crosses the bonus line with at least one foot.
• Other Sports Terminologies:
• Badminton: Terms include "Smash," "Drop," and "Net Play."
• Lawn Tennis: Common terms include "Ace," "Volley," and "Baseline."
• Cricket: Terms like "Bowler," "Batsman," and "Run-out" are widely used.

The correct answer is January.

Key Points

• The Mumbai Marathon is one of the most popular and prestigious marathon events held annually in India, attracting runners from across the globe.
• Since its inception in 2004, the Mumbai Marathon has traditionally been held in the month of January. This is due to favorable weather conditions during this time of the year.
• The event is typically scheduled on a Sunday in mid-January to facilitate maximum participation and minimize disruption to city activities.
• January is considered ideal for running long distances in Mumbai as the temperature during this period is generally cool, ranging from 16°C to 24°C, which enhances runner performance and comfort.
• The event includes various categories such as Full Marathon, Half Marathon, Dream Run, and Senior Citizen Run, making it accessible to participants of all ages and abilities.

Additional Information

• History and Significance:
• The Mumbai Marathon was launched in 2004 and has since grown into one of the largest and most prestigious marathons in Asia.
• It is organized by Procam International and is sponsored by leading corporations, ensuring professional execution and high standards.
• The event promotes health, fitness, and community participation, while also serving as a platform for raising funds for various charitable causes. Since its inception, it has raised millions for charity.
• Venue and Route:
• The marathon route offers participants a scenic view of Mumbai, including iconic landmarks like the Marine Drive, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus, and the Sea Link.
• The race starts and ends at the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus and passes through various areas of the city.
• Participation and Categories:
• The marathon attracts participants from across the globe, including elite runners, amateur athletes, and fitness enthusiasts.
• Categories include the Full Marathon (42.195 km), Half Marathon (21.097 km), Dream Run (6 km), and Senior Citizen Run.
• The event also includes a Champions with Disability Run, promoting inclusivity and participation for differently-abled individuals.
• Weather Considerations:
• January is one of the coolest months in Mumbai, with temperatures ranging from 16°C to 24°C, providing ideal conditions for marathon runners.
• Humidity is also relatively lower in January compared to other months, ensuring better endurance and performance for participants.
• Global Recognition:
• The Mumbai Marathon is recognized by global organizations such as the World Athletics and attracts elite athletes who compete for prize money.
• It is part of the prestigious Abbott World Marathon Majors, showcasing its significance in the global marathon calendar.

Important Points

• Charity Impact:
• The Mumbai Marathon is a major platform for fundraising, with hundreds of NGOs participating to raise funds for various causes.
• In 2020 alone, the event raised over ₹32 crore, benefiting numerous charitable organizations.
• COVID-19 Adaptations:
• During the COVID-19 pandemic, the marathon adopted virtual formats to ensure continuity while adhering to safety protocols.
• Participants were encouraged to run in their local areas and submit their results online.
• Elite Participation:
• Every year, elite athletes from Kenya, Ethiopia, and other nations participate, showcasing their prowess in distance running.
• The event provides an opportunity for Indian runners to compete alongside international athletes and gain exposure.

The correct answer is The Ground Beneath Her Feet.

Key Points

• The Ground Beneath Her Feet is not written by Amitav Ghosh. It is authored by Salman Rushdie and published in 1999. The book offers a reimagining of the myth of Orpheus and Eurydice in a modern setting.
• The Glass Palace is a historical novel written by Amitav Ghosh, first published in 2000. It explores themes of colonialism, history, and identity, set against the backdrop of Burma, India, and Malaysia.
• The Imam and the Indian is a collection of essays by Amitav Ghosh, dealing with anthropology, history, and cultural identity. It showcases his academic and literary prowess.
• The Hungry Tide is another renowned novel by Amitav Ghosh, published in 2004. It is set in the Sundarbans and deals with ecological and human conflicts.
• The works of Amitav Ghosh are well-known for their deep engagement with history, culture, and environmental issues, distinguishing them from the themes explored by Salman Rushdie in his works, including The Ground Beneath Her Feet.

Additional Information

• Amitav Ghosh’s Works:
• The Glass Palace: Set in Burma, India, and Malaysia, this novel explores themes of colonialism, migration, and familial bonds against the backdrop of the British invasion of Burma.
• The Hungry Tide: Focused on the Sundarbans, it delves into the lives of the local population, the environmental challenges, and the socio-political conflicts of the region.
• The Shadow Lines: A seminal work dealing with partition, memory, and identity, highlighting how personal and national histories intertwine.
• Sea of Poppies: The first book in the Ibis Trilogy, it examines the opium trade and its impact on individuals and societies in the 19th century.
• Salman Rushdie’s The Ground Beneath Her Feet:
• Published in 1999, this novel blends myth, music, and love, offering a global narrative on modern culture and art.
• It incorporates elements of magical realism, a hallmark of Rushdie’s writing style, and reinterprets classical myths in a contemporary framework.
• Comparison Between Ghosh and Rushdie:
• Amitav Ghosh: Known for his intricate storytelling, historical depth, and exploration of environmental and cultural issues.
• Salman Rushdie: Famous for his use of magical realism, postcolonial themes, and narrative experimentation, as seen in works like Midnight’s Children and The Satanic Verses.
• Important Points to Note:
• Both authors are celebrated for their contributions to literature, but their thematic focuses and narrative styles are distinct.
• Understanding the authorship of key works is essential for appreciating the broader trends and themes in contemporary literature.

The correct answer is V. S. Naipaul.

Key Points

• V. S. Naipaul is the author of the book 'Guerrillas', published in the year 1975.
• Naipaul is a renowned writer of Indo-Trinidadian descent, celebrated for his novels, travel writing, and essays. He received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2001.
• The book 'Guerrillas' explores themes of politics, revolution, and individual disillusionment in a post-colonial society.
• The story is set in an unnamed Caribbean island and reflects Naipaul's critique of the political and social conditions in such regions during that time.
• Naipaul's writing often delves into the complexities of post-colonial identity and the impact of colonization, which are central to 'Guerrillas'.

Additional Information

• About V. S. Naipaul:
• Full Name: Vidiadhar Surajprasad Naipaul.
• Birth: He was born on 17 August 1932 in Chaguanas, Trinidad and Tobago.
• Naipaul is widely recognized for works like 'A House for Mr. Biswas', 'In a Free State', and 'A Bend in the River'.
• His writing style is characterized by precision, narrative depth, and insightful observations on post-colonial societies.
• About the Book 'Guerrillas':
• The novel is a psychological and political drama set in an unnamed Caribbean island.
• The story revolves around a young Englishman, his lover, and a charismatic revolutionary leader, exploring themes of power, betrayal, and the aftermath of colonial rule.
• It reflects Naipaul's critical take on the idealism and failures of revolutionary movements in post-colonial nations.
• Notable Awards and Recognition:
• Naipaul received the Booker Prize for 'In a Free State' in 1971.
• He was honored with the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2001 for his work, which was described as "united perceptive narrative and incorruptible scrutiny."
• Details of Other Options:
• Novoneel Chakraborty: An Indian author known for romantic thrillers like 'Marry Me, Stranger'. He is unrelated to 'Guerrillas'.
• Bapsi Sidhwa: A Pakistani novelist known for works like 'Ice-Candy-Man' and 'The Pakistani Bride'.
• Mohsin Hamid: A Pakistani novelist famous for books like 'The Reluctant Fundamentalist'. He is not associated with 'Guerrillas'.

The correct answer is Where Shall We Go This Summer.

Key Points

• Anita Desai is a renowned Indian author known for her extensive contribution to English literature. One of her famous novels is “Where Shall We Go This Summer?”, published in 1975.
• The novel explores themes of loneliness, identity, and self-discovery. It portrays the psychological struggles of the protagonist, Sita, who is trying to escape from societal norms and her own emotional turmoil.
• Set in India, the story is divided between the urban chaos of Bombay (now Mumbai) and the serene environment of Manori Island, symbolizing the contrasting realities of the protagonist’s life.
• Anita Desai’s works are often characterized by a focus on female protagonists, their inner lives, and how they navigate through emotional and existential crises.
• “Where Shall We Go This Summer?” is considered a significant work in Indian English literature, highlighting Anita Desai’s ability to delve deep into human emotions and societal pressures.

Additional Information

• About Anita Desai:
• Born on 24 June 1937, Anita Desai is one of India’s foremost authors writing in English.
• She has been nominated for the Booker Prize multiple times and has received the Sahitya Akademi Award for her contributions to literature.
• Her works often explore themes of alienation, displacement, and cultural identity.
• Other Books by Anita Desai:
• “Cry, the Peacock” (1963): This was her debut novel, focusing on the psychological dimensions of marriage and loneliness.
• “Fire on the Mountain” (1977): This novel won the Sahitya Akademi Award and explores themes of solitude and womanhood.
• “Clear Light of Day” (1980): A semi-autobiographical novel that delves into family relationships and post-partition India.
• “In Custody” (1984): This novel, shortlisted for the Booker Prize, focuses on the preservation of Urdu poetry amidst cultural shifts in India.
• Details of Other Options:
• Book of Humour: This is a collection of humorous writings by Ruskin Bond, not related to Anita Desai.
• I Shall Not Hear the Nightingale: Authored by Khushwant Singh, this book is set during the Indian independence movement.
• The Struggle for India's Soul: Written by Shashi Tharoor, this book focuses on contemporary Indian politics and society.
• Thematic Focus in Anita Desai’s Novels:
• Her novels often explore the psychological intricacies of human relationships.
• She highlights the cultural and existential dilemmas faced by individuals, especially women.
• Settings in her novels often contrast urban chaos with rural serenity to reflect the internal conflicts of characters.

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

• Shad Suk Mynsiem, meaning "Dance of Contentment," is a prominent festival celebrated by the Khasi tribe of Meghalaya.
• It is an annual spring festival observed to honor the harvest season and express gratitude to the divine creator U Blei for blessings and prosperity.
• The festival is marked by traditional dance performances where both men and women participate. Men symbolize protectors, while women symbolize fertility and prosperity.
• It is celebrated according to Khasi customs and traditions, and the event is organized by the Seng Khasi, a socio-religious organization dedicated to preserving Khasi culture.
• The festival typically occurs in April, attracting locals and tourists alike to witness the vibrant cultural display and rituals.

Additional Information

• Meghalaya:
• Meghalaya, meaning "Abode of Clouds," is a state in northeastern India, formed in 1972.
• The state is known for its rich biodiversity, scenic landscapes, and unique culture.
• Meghalaya is inhabited by three main tribal groups: Khasi, Garo, and Jaintia.
• The state is famous for its living root bridges, Mawsmai caves, and Cherrapunji, one of the wettest places on Earth.
• Other Festivals of Meghalaya:
• Wangala Festival: Celebrated by the Garo tribe to mark the harvest season and honor their deity Saljong.
• Behdienkhlam Festival: Celebrated by the Jaintia tribe to drive away evil spirits and invoke blessings for a good harvest.
• Nongkrem Dance: A traditional Khasi festival celebrated to seek blessings for a bountiful harvest.
• Khasi Tribe:
• The Khasi people follow a matrilineal system, where lineage and inheritance pass through the female line.
• Their religion, Niam Khasi, is based on reverence for nature and ancestral spirits.
• The Khasi language is a part of the Mon-Khmer family of languages.
• Importance of Festivals:
• Festivals like Shad Suk Mynsiem play a vital role in preserving the cultural heritage and traditions of indigenous communities.
• They foster a sense of identity and pride among tribal groups and promote tourism in the region.
• These celebrations also serve as a medium to convey social values, such as gratitude, community participation, and harmony with nature.

The correct answer is 14.32 meters.

Key Points

• The Qutb Minar, located in Delhi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a prominent historical monument in India.
• Its base diameter is 14.32 meters, which gradually tapers to a diameter of 2.75 meters at the top. This structural design ensures stability and an elegant appearance.
• The Qutb Minar is made primarily of red sandstone, which enhances its visual appeal and durability.
• The monument was commissioned by Qutb-ud-din Aibak in 1192 and later completed by his successors, including Iltutmish.
• The overall height of the Qutb Minar is approximately 72.5 meters, making it one of the tallest minarets in the world built entirely of bricks.

Additional Information

• Historical Significance of Qutb Minar:
• The Qutb Minar marks the beginning of the Delhi Sultanate, symbolizing the victory of Islamic rulers in India.
• It is surrounded by several other historical structures, including the Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque and the Iron Pillar.
• Architectural Features:
• The Qutb Minar has five distinct storeys, each separated by intricately designed balconies.
• The first three storeys are made of red sandstone, while the fourth and fifth are constructed with a combination of sandstone and marble.
• The tower is adorned with Arabic inscriptions and intricate carvings, showcasing a blend of Indo-Islamic architectural styles.
• Construction Details:
• The monument was initially started by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, the founder of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Subsequent rulers, such as Iltutmish and Firoz Shah Tughlaq, contributed to its completion and restoration.
• Other Key Structures in the Qutb Complex:
• The Iron Pillar, located nearby, is known for its rust-resistant composition despite being over 1,600 years old.
• The Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque, built by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, is considered one of the earliest mosques constructed in India.
• Recognition and Tourism:
• The Qutb Minar was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1993.
• It remains one of the most visited tourist attractions in India, drawing both domestic and international visitors.

Important Points

• The Qutb Minar's design and construction reflect the influence of Persian and local Indian artisans.
• It has faced damage over the centuries due to natural calamities like earthquakes and has undergone several restoration efforts.
• Inscriptions on the minar provide valuable insights into the history and culture of the Delhi Sultanate period.

The correct answer is Karakattam.

Key Points

• Karakattam is a traditional folk dance form performed in Tamil Nadu, India.
• This dance is performed in honor of the Goddess Mariamman, who is believed to be the goddess of rain and fertility.
• Performers in Karakattam balance a pot (karakam) on their head while dancing, showcasing incredible skill and agility.
• The dance is typically performed during religious festivals or temple celebrations as an offering to the goddess.
• Karakattam is accompanied by traditional music, including drums and songs, which narrate praises to the goddess.

Additional Information

• Goddess Mariamman:
• Mariamman is a Hindu goddess primarily worshipped in South India.
• She is associated with rain, fertility, and health, and devotees often seek her blessings for curing diseases and ensuring prosperity.
• Her temples are widespread in Tamil Nadu, and annual festivals dedicated to her often include folk performances like Karakattam.
• Villu Pattu:
• Villu Pattu is another traditional art form of Tamil Nadu, often referred to as "bow songs."
• It involves storytelling through songs, accompanied by a bow-like musical instrument.
• Villu Pattu performers narrate stories from mythology, folk tales, and social themes.
• Sevai Attam:
• Sevai Attam is a folk dance of Tamil Nadu performed during religious festivals and community celebrations.
• It emphasizes rhythm and coordination among dancers, often performed in groups.
• This dance form reflects the cultural heritage of Tamil Nadu.
• Kolattam:
• Kolattam is a traditional stick dance performed in Tamil Nadu and other parts of South India.
• It involves rhythmic movements with sticks and is performed in groups during festivals.
• Kolattam represents unity and joy within communities.

Important Points

• Karakattam's significance:
• Karakattam is not just a dance; it is a spiritual offering to Goddess Mariamman.
• The intricate balance of the pot on the dancer's head symbolizes devotion and gratitude.
• It often represents the connection between nature, rain, and human prosperity in Tamil Nadu's agrarian society.
• Other folk traditions:
• Folk traditions like Villu Pattu, Sevai Attam, and Kolattam play a vital role in preserving Tamil Nadu's cultural identity.
• These art forms are passed down through generations and continue to thrive in local communities.
• They are often performed during temple festivals, weddings, and social gatherings.