SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 20 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Prediction.

Key Points

• The word "Prophecy" refers to a statement or prediction about future events, often made under divine inspiration or considered to be of spiritual significance. (भविष्यवाणी)
• Example: The prophecy foretold a great leader who would unite the kingdom.
• "Prediction" means a forecast or statement about what will happen in the future, often based on evidence or reasoning. (पूर्वानुमान)
• Example: The weather prediction for tomorrow suggests heavy rainfall.
• Hence, the synonym of "Prophecy" is "Prediction".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Prediction.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Creation (सृजन): The act of bringing something into existence.
• Example: The creation of the new artwork took months of meticulous effort.
• Denial (अस्वीकार): Refusal to accept or acknowledge something.
• Example: His denial of the accusations surprised everyone.
• Decision (निर्णय): A conclusion or resolution reached after consideration.
• Example: The decision to move abroad was not an easy one.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Acting without preparation.

Key Points

• The idiom "Flying by the seat of our pants" means doing something without any prior planning or preparation. It refers to making decisions or acting spontaneously in the moment without knowing the outcome. (बिना किसी तैयारी के काम करना)
• Example: We had no map or navigation tools, so we just flew by the seat of our pants to find our way back home.
• This idiom is often used when people are in situations where they have no prior experience or plan and rely on their instincts or intuition instead. (आकस्मिक परिस्थितियों में बिना योजना के काम करना)
• Example: With no script in hand, the actor had to fly by the seat of his pants during the performance.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Acting without preparation.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Planning everything in advance (सब कुछ पहले से योजना बनाना)
• Example: She planned everything in advance for her wedding to ensure nothing went wrong.
• Option 3: Feeling nervous before doing something (कुछ करने से पहले घबराहट महसूस करना)
• Example: He always feels nervous before giving a speech, but he performs well eventually.
• Option 4: Taking everything slowly (सब कुछ धीरे-धीरे करना)
• Example: After the accident, she decided to take everything slowly and focus on her recovery.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The idiom "Do it on autopilot" means to perform a task automatically or instinctively, often out of habit, without consciously thinking about it. (आदतन करना)
• Example: After years of practice, he can play the piano on autopilot, barely paying attention to the keys.
• Correct Explanation: Option 3 ("Do it out of habit") accurately captures the meaning of "Do it on autopilot," as it refers to performing actions instinctively or routinely without active focus. (आदतन करना)
• Example: She was so used to her morning routine that she could complete it on autopilot.
• Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Do it with full attention (पूरी ध्यान से करना)
• Example: He performed the surgery with full attention to ensure everything went smoothly.
• Option 2: Do it while distracted (ध्यान भटकाने के दौरान करना)
• Example: She accidentally made mistakes while cooking because she was distracted by the TV.
• Option 4: Do it with full enthusiasm (पूरे उत्साह के साथ करना)
• Example: The children decorated the Christmas tree with full enthusiasm.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the word given in the question:
• Hatch: to come out of an egg (verb) or a door or opening in a floor, roof, or wall (noun). (अंडे से निकलना, द्वार)
• Now, let's examine the given sentences:
• Sentence 1: The birds' eggs will hatch soon.
• This sentence uses the word "hatch" to describe the process of birds emerging from eggs, which is the verb form.
• Sentence 2: The new employee was told to lift the hatch.
• This sentence uses the word "hatch" to describe a door or opening, which is the noun form, different from the verb form used in the other sentences.
• Sentence 3: The baby chicks will hatch from the eggs.
• This sentence uses the word "hatch" to describe the process of chicks emerging from eggs, which is the verb form.
• Sentence 4: We watched as the baby turtles hatch from the sand.
• This sentence uses the word "hatch" to describe the process of turtles emerging from the sand, which is the verb form.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "last" in the sentence refers to the most recent or final occurrence of something. (अंतिम, पिछला)
• Example: The last person to leave the room forgot to switch off the lights.
• In Option 2, the word "last" serves as a homonym because it takes on a different meaning: to continue or endure for a period of time. (टिकना, जारी रहना)
• Example: The battery will last for five hours.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: The last song on the album was his favorite. (अंतिम गाना)

This refers to the final or most recent item in a sequence (the song), similar to the original sentence but does not serve as a homonym.

• Example: She saved the last piece of cake for herself.
• Option 3: This is the last slice of pizza. (अंतिम टुकड़ा)

Similar to the original sentence, it refers to the final or remaining portion, not a homonym.

• Example: The last slice was too delicious to share.
• Option 4: We were the last to reach the venue. (अंतिम व्यक्ति)

This refers to being the final or most delayed to do something, again not a homonym.

• Example: They were the last to arrive at the party.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Active voice structure: The subject performs the action described by the verb, and the object receives the action.
• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• In the given passive sentence, "The famous painter was seen to be walking in the park," the subject is "The famous painter" and the action is "was seen to be walking."
• To convert to active voice: Identify the implied subject performing the action (e.g., "Someone").
• Reconstruct the sentence so the implied subject comes first, followed by the action and object: "Someone saw the famous painter walking in the park."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "Someone saw the famous painter walking in the park."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "The famous painter walked in the park and was seen." – Incorrect as it changes the meaning of the sentence.
• Option 3: "The park was where the famous painter was seen walking." – Incorrect as it does not convert to active voice.
• Option 4: "Someone has seen the famous painter walking in the park." – Incorrect tense (present perfect instead of past simple).

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The subject of the active voice sentence performs the action.
• In the passive voice, the original sentence is: "It was understood that a new management team had been appointed."
• To convert to active voice: Identify the implied subject, which is "they."
• Place "they" at the beginning of the sentence.
• Follow with the active verb "understood" and the object "that a new management team had been appointed."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "They understood that a new management team had been appointed."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "A new management team had been appointed, it was understood." – This is still in passive voice and does not change the sentence structure appropriately.
• Option 3: "It was understood that they appointed a new management team." – Incorrect phrasing and tense.
• Option 4: "A new management team was appointed, as they understood." – Incorrectly conveys the meaning and does not follow active voice rules.

The correct answer is 'marshmallow'.

Key Points

• The word "marshmallow" is the correct spelling and refers to a soft, sweet treat commonly roasted over a campfire.
• Options 1 (marshmellow), 2 (marshmallo), and 4 (marshmelloe) are incorrect spellings of the word.
• Marshmallow is widely recognized as the standard spelling in English.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "She roasted a marshmallow over the campfire."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "marshmellow" is an incorrect spelling and does not exist in standard English.
• Option 2: "marshmallo" is incomplete and not a valid word.
• Option 4: "marshmelloe" is incorrect and not recognized as a correct spelling.

The correct answer is 'indispensable'.

Key Points

• The word "indispensable" is spelled correctly and refers to something absolutely necessary or essential.
• The other options (1, 2, and 3) are incorrect spellings of the word "indispensable."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "Her advice proved to be truly indispensable to the success of the project."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "indispensible" is incorrect because the correct spelling is "indispensable" with an "a" instead of "i" in the second part.
• Option 2: "indespensable" is incorrect because it contains a spelling error; "e" is used instead of "i" in the first part.
• Option 3: "indespensible" is incorrect because it contains two spelling errors: "e" is used instead of "i" in the first part, and "i" is used instead of "a" in the second part.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The historian said that even if the war had ended earlier, the long-term economic effects would have been equally devastating for the country.
• Key Conversions:
• "Even if the war had ended earlier" remains unchanged:
• The past perfect tense "had ended" is retained as it is correct in both direct and indirect speech.
• "would have been equally devastating" remains unchanged:
• Modal auxiliary verb "would" and perfect infinitive "have been" are retained to reflect the hypothetical nature of the statement.
• Reporting verb:
• "said" remains unchanged as it is used to report the statement.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Quotation marks from direct speech are removed in indirect speech.
• The sentence begins with the reporting clause and is followed by the reported statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: The historian said that even if the war had ended earlier, the long-term economic effects would have been equally devastating for the country.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The historian said that even if the war would have ended earlier, the long-term economic effects would have been equally devastating for the country."
• Incorrect: "would have ended" is grammatically incorrect; "had ended" is the correct form in this context.
• Option 3: "The historian said that even if the war ended earlier, the long-term economic effects would have been equally devastating for the country."
• Incorrect: "ended" (simple past tense) is inappropriate here; the correct form is "had ended" (past perfect tense).
• Option 4: "The historian said that even if the war had ended earlier, the long-term economic effects will have been equally devastating for the country."
• Incorrect: "will have been" is incorrect in this hypothetical context; the correct form is "would have been."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Adquire'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Acquire'.
• The word 'Acquire' is a verb which means 'to obtain or get something'. (प्राप्त करना)
• For Example -
• She managed to acquire a new skill during the training.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Adquire'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Meticulous - showing great attention to detail; very careful and precise (सावधानीपूर्वक)
• Resuscitate - to revive someone from unconsciousness or apparent death (पुनर्जीवित करना)
• Periphery - the outer limits or edge of an area or object (परिधि)

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Viccissitude'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Vicissitude'.
• The word 'Vicissitude' is a noun which means 'a change of circumstances or fortune, typically one that is unwelcome or unpleasant'. (परिवर्तन)
• For Example -
• He remained positive despite life’s vicissitudes.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Viccissitude'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Idyllic - extremely happy, peaceful, or picturesque (सुखद और शांत)
• Ephemeral - lasting for a very short time (क्षणिक)
• Tenacious - tending to keep a firm hold of something; persistent (दृढ़)

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: He told her that he had to tell her that he was not the one who had broken the vase, as he was not even in the room when it had happened.
• Key Conversions:
• "must" becomes "had to"
• In indirect speech, modal verbs like "must" often change to "had to" to reflect the past tense.
• "was not the one who broke" becomes "was not the one who had broken"
• Past simple tense "broke" is converted to past perfect tense "had broken" in indirect speech.
• "was not even in the room when it happened" becomes "was not even in the room when it had happened"
• Past simple tense "happened" is converted to past perfect tense "had happened" to match the timeline in indirect speech.
• Punctuation and Format:
• The direct quotation is removed, and the sentence is restructured in a narrative form.
• Conjunctions like "that" are added to connect the clauses in indirect speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: He told her that he had to tell her that he was not the one who had broken the vase, as he was not even in the room when it had happened.

Additional Information

• Option 1: He told her that he had to tell her that he had not been the one who had broken the vase, as he was not even in the room when it had happened.
• The phrase "he had not been the one" incorrectly emphasizes the timeline, making the sentence unclear.
• Option 3: He told her that he must tell her that he was not the one who broke the vase, as he was not even in the room when it happened.
• The modal "must" is not correctly converted to "had to," which is required in indirect speech.
• The past simple tense "broke" and "happened" are not converted to the past perfect tense, making the sentence grammatically incorrect.
• Option 4: He told her that he had to tell her that he was not the one who had broken the vase, as he had not even been in the room when it happened.
• The addition of "he had not even been" unnecessarily complicates the sentence and alters the meaning slightly.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The old woman explained with a sigh that she was feeling unwell and could not join the outing.
• Key Conversions:
• "she was feeling unwell" becomes "I am unwell"
• Pronoun "she" is converted to "I" to match direct speech.
• Verb "was feeling" is changed to "am" to match the present tense in direct speech.
• "could not join" becomes "cannot join"
• Verb "could" is changed to "cannot" to match direct speech tense.
• Subject Preservation: The subject 'The old woman' is preserved in the reporting clause for accuracy, rather than using a pronoun.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: The old woman said, “I am unwell and I cannot join the outing.”

Additional Information

• Option 1: Uses the pronoun 'she' instead of preserving the noun 'The old woman' from the original sentence.
• Option 3: Tense is incorrect; the verbs remain in the past tense.
• Option 4: Uses the pronoun 'She' and lacks the proper conjunction 'and'.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The tourist, after a long journey, exclaimed with relief that she had finally arrived at her destination.
• Key Conversions:
• "she had finally arrived" becomes "I have finally arrived"
• Pronoun "she" is changed to "I" to match the direct speech format.
• Verb "had arrived" is converted to "have arrived" to align with the present perfect tense in direct speech.
• Reporting verb:
• Indirect: "exclaimed with relief"
• Converted to: "exclaimed with relief," maintaining the emotional tone.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• Starts with a capital letter "I" and ends with an exclamation mark "!".
• Reporting clause follows the quoted speech, separated by a comma.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "**The tourist exclaimed with relief, "I finally arrived at my destination!".

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The tourist said, "I have finally arrived at my destination!""
• The tone of the sentence does not align with the emotional "exclaimed with relief" in the original sentence.
• Option 3: "The tourist exclaimed with relief, "She finally arrived at my destination!""
• Pronoun "she" is incorrect, as it does not align with the direct voice conversion.
• Option 4: "The tourist said with relief, "She arrived at her destination!""
• Pronoun "she" is incorrect, as it does not align with the direct voice conversion.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "Why did they have to postpone the crucial board meeting until further notice?"
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the crucial board meeting" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "did have to postpone" to "did have to be postponed."
• Ensure the question structure is retained with "why" at the beginning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "Why did the crucial board meeting have to be postponed until further notice?"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Why the crucial board meeting had to be postponed until further notice by them?" – Incorrect structure of the question.
• Option 2: "Why the crucial board meeting was postponed until further notice?" – Incorrect as it omits the modal "have to."
• Option 3: "Why had the crucial board meeting to be postponed until further notice by them?" – Incorrect tense and awkward phrasing.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "We saw the new CEO enter the conference room just as the meeting was about to begin."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the new CEO" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "saw enter" to "was seen to enter" (past simple passive).
• Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "us."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "The new CEO was seen to enter the conference room just as the meeting was about to begin by us."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The new CEO was seen entering the conference room just as the meeting was about to begin by us." – Incorrect, as "entering" changes the meaning.
• Option 3: "The new CEO was seen enter the conference room just as the meeting was about to begin by us." – Incorrect, as "enter" is not grammatically correct in passive voice.
• Option 4: "The new CEO had been seen to enter the conference room just as the meeting was about to begin." – Incorrect, as "had been" changes the tense unnecessarily.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• A) "Rigorous" qualifies the noun "preparation" in the sentence.
• This means that "rigorous" is used as an adjective, as adjectives describe or modify nouns.
• B) Adjectives provide more information about the noun.
• "Rigorous" here describes the type of preparation required for the examinations, emphasizing its intensity and thoroughness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because a verb denotes an action, and "rigorous" is not performing any action here.
• Option 3: Incorrect because a noun is a person, place, thing, or idea, and "rigorous" is describing a noun, not acting as one.
• Option 4: Incorrect because an adverb modifies a verb, adjective, or other adverb, and "rigorous" is specifically modifying a noun (preparation).

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'Passive voice, simple present'.

Key Points

• The verb phrase "are intended" is in the passive voice, which means the subject is receiving the action of the verb.
• In the simple present tense, the passive voice is formed by using the present tense of the verb "to be" (am, is, are) followed by the past participle of the main verb.
• In this case, "are" is the present tense of the verb "to be", and "intended" is the past participle of the main verb "intend".

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• Active voice: In an active voice sentence, the subject performs the action expressed by the verb. "These examinations select..." is an example of the active voice.
• Present perfect: The present perfect tense is formed with "have/has" + the past participle of the verb. For example, "have intended" or "has intended".
• Past perfect: The past perfect tense is formed with "had" + the past participle of the verb. For example, "had intended".

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Considering the whole picture.

Key Points

• The word "holistic" means considering the whole picture. It refers to an approach that takes into account all aspects or factors of something rather than focusing on individual parts. (समग्र)
• Example: Holistic medicine aims to treat the whole person, including mind, body, and spirit, rather than just specific symptoms.
• "Focused on one part only" is not correct as it refers to paying attention to a single aspect without considering others. (केवल एक भाग पर ध्यान केंद्रित )
• Example: He was focused on one part only, ignoring other important aspects of the project.
• "Based only on written exams" is not correct as it refers to evaluation solely through written tests. (केवल लिखित परीक्षाओं पर आधारित)
• Example: The course assessment was based only on written exams, leaving no room for practical work.
• "Unfair or biased" is not correct as it means being unjust or prejudiced. (अन्यायपूर्ण या पक्षपातपूर्ण)
• Example: The decision seemed unfair or biased against the minority group.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Considering the whole picture.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Focused on one part only (केवल एक भाग पर ध्यान केंद्रित): Paying attention to only a specific part.
• Example: The study was focused on one part only, neglecting other important factors.
• Based only on written exams (केवल लिखित परीक्षाओं पर आधारित): Evaluation conducted through written tests.
• Example: Her final grade was based only on written exams, which were conducted at the end of the semester.
• Unfair or biased (अन्यायपूर्ण या पक्षपातपूर्ण): Being unjust or prejudiced.
• Example: The judge's decision appeared to be unfair or biased towards the defendant.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. associated with.

Key Points

• The word "linked" means connected or related to something. In this sentence, it refers to the connection between stress and the act of clearing exams. (संबंधित)
• Example: The stress and pressure linked with clearing such exams often affect students’ mental health negatively.
• "Associated with" is a synonym for linked as it also refers to being connected or related to something. (संबद्ध)
• Example: The health issues are often associated with high levels of stress.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym for 'linked' is 'associated with'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. associated with.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Ignored (नज़रअंदाज़ किया गया): Not paid attention to.
• Example: Her contribution to the project was ignored by the committee.
• Caused (कारण बना): Made something happen.
• Example: The heavy rains caused flooding in several areas.
• Removed (हटाया गया): Taken away or eliminated.
• Example: The stains were removed using a special cleaner.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'Competitive exams are losing value due to new approaches'.

Key Points

• The passage suggests that traditional competitive exams, which require years of rigorous preparation, are being undermined or losing effectiveness due to new methods or approaches in evaluating candidates.
• The emphasis is on how the value of these exams is diminishing rather than discussing the importance of making exams tougher or the necessity to avoid them entirely.
• It highlights a shift away from the conventional examination methods to possibly more innovative or holistic approaches in candidate selection.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1: This suggests the importance of tough exams, but the passage is more focused on the diminishing value of traditional exams.
• Option 2: This implies a need to make exams harder, which is not the main point of the passage.
• Option 4: Suggests avoiding exams altogether, which is not advocated by the passage.

The correct answer is: Talent.

Key Points

• The word "flair" refers to a natural ability or talent for doing something exceptionally well. (प्रतिभा)
• Example: She has a flair for writing, which makes her stories captivating and unique.
• "Talent" is the correct word, as it directly aligns with the meaning of "flair" and indicates a natural aptitude or skill. (प्रतिभा)
• Example: His talent for public speaking makes him a great leader.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Talent.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Clumsiness (अकुशलता): Lack of skill or grace in movement or action.
• Example: His clumsiness caused him to drop the vase.
• Confusion (उलझन): A state of being unclear or uncertain.
• Example: There was a lot of confusion about the new rules in the office.
• Hesitation (झिझक): A pause or delay in action due to uncertainty or reluctance.
• Example: His hesitation in answering the question made everyone suspect he was lying.

The correct answer is: Muffled.

Key Points

• The word "Muffled" refers to a sound that is not clear or is subdued, often due to obstruction or being covered. (मंदी आवाज)
• Example: The voices from the next room sounded muffled because of the closed door.
• "Cacophony" refers to harsh, jarring, or discordant sounds, often unpleasant to hear. (कर्कश ध्वनि)
• Example: The cacophony of the traffic made it impossible to concentrate.
• Hence, "Muffled" correctly identifies a sound that is unclear or obstructed.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Muffled.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cacophony (कर्कश ध्वनि): Harsh or discordant sounds that are unpleasant to hear.
• Example: The band’s rehearsal resulted in a cacophony of sounds that irritated the neighbors.
• Euphony (मधुर ध्वनि): Pleasant, harmonious, or melodious sounds.
• Example: The euphony of the orchestra captivated the audience.
• Resonance (गूंज): A deep, rich, and clear quality of sound that reverberates.
• Example: The resonance of her voice filled the large auditorium.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Plutocracy).

Key Points

• The word "Plutocracy" refers to a government or a society that is controlled by the wealthy or by those with significant financial power. (धनिकों का शासन)
• Example: In a plutocracy, policies often favor the wealthy elite, leading to greater economic inequality.
• "Monopolists" are individuals or entities that dominate or control a market or sector, often leading to a concentration of power. (एकाधिकारवादी)
• Example: Monopolists in the tech industry can control prices and stifle competition, leading to an unbalanced economy.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Plutocracy).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Oligarchy (अल्पतंत्र): A form of government in which power is held by a small group of people, often from a specific class, family, or group.
• Example: Ancient Sparta was an oligarchy where a small group of rulers made decisions for the entire state.
• Autocracy (स्वेच्छाचारी शासन): A system of government where one person holds absolute power without external constraints.
• Example: North Korea is often described as an autocracy due to its concentration of power in one leader.
• Plutonomy (धन आधारित अर्थव्यवस्था): Refers to an economy where economic growth is driven by the wealthy and their spending.
• Example: A plutonomy often results in a large wealth gap between the rich and the rest of the population.

Given:

Total eggs bought = 15 dozens

Cost price per dozen = ₹50

Sold 10 dozens at ₹60 per dozen

Remaining sold at ₹45 per dozen

Formula Used:

Total Cost Price (CP) = Quantity × CP per dozen

Total Selling Price (SP) = (Quantity₁ × SP₁) + (Quantity₂ × SP₂)

Profit/Loss = SP − CP

Calculation:

Total CP = 15 × 50 = ₹750

SP of first 10 dozens = 10 × 60 = ₹600

Remaining dozens = 15 − 10 = 5

SP of remaining = 5 × 45 = ₹225

Total SP = 600 + 225 = ₹825

Profit = 825 − 750 = ₹75

∴ The shopkeeper makes a profit of ₹75.

Given:

A : B = 2 : 3

B : C = 4 : 5

Formula Used:

To combine ratios, make the common term (B) equal.

Calculation:

From A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 4 : 5

LCM of B terms (3 and 4) = 12

Multiply first ratio by 4:

A : B = 8 : 12

Multiply second ratio by 3:

B : C = 12 : 15

Therefore, A : B : C = 8 : 12 : 15

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Walks 3 km North

Then 4 km East

Then 3 km South

So, he is 4 km from his starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2

Walks 6 km West → position: 6 km west of start

Walks 8 km South → position: 6 km west & 8 km south

Walks 6 km East → west and east cancel

Hence, the correct answer is option 2

The logic followed here is.

For TOY : UPZ

Applying the same logic to KEY : ?

The missing word is LFZ.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

1/2, 2/4, 3/6, ?

Numerator increases by 1 each time:

1, 2, 3 → next is 4

Denominator also increases by 2 each time:

2, 4, 6 → next is 8

So the next term is:

4/8

Hence, the correct answer is option 2

Reference:

Amsterdam; 27 Apr.il, 2025 (Saturday).

Check options:

1. Amsterdam; 27 Apr.il, 2025 (Saturday). ✅ Exactly same
2. Uses April instead of Apr.il ❌
3. Uses Sunday instead of Saturday ❌
4. Uses April instead of Apr.il ❌

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Reference:

Valletta, MT: 21 September 1964.

Check options:

Valletta, MT: 21 September 1964. ✅ Exact match

Valetta (missing one “l”) ❌

Year is 1946 instead of 1964 ❌

Year is 1946 instead of 1964 ❌

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1

The logic followed here is:

1^st Column → 4 × 5 × 3 × 10 = 600

2^nd Column → 2 × 6 × 4 × 10 = 480

3^rd Column → 7 × 3 × 2 × 10 = 420

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3

Hence, the correct answer is option 4

Start direction: East

From East, 1 left turn → North

From North, 1 right turn → East

Hence, the correct answer is option 2

Given:

M starts cycling 16 meters straight from her office.

During her journey she took 12 right turns.

Finally she is facing towards east direction.

As a full circle (360° revolutions) consists of 4 right turns (90° each), so for 12 turns → 12 ÷ 4 = 0 Remainder

As 12 is exact multiple of 4, therefore M is facing in the same direction as when she took first right turn.

Therefore, Starting direction = Last direction = EAST 

Thus, M started cycling in the east direction.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Figure which will complete the pattern of the question figure is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Figure 1) 

→ Same elements in the both figures i.e.

square and triangle.

Figure 2) 

→ Different elements in the both figures i.e.

circle, rectangle and triangle.

Figure 3) 

→ Same elements in the both figures i.e.

rectangle and triangle.

Figure 4) 

→ Same elements in the both figures i.e.

square and triangle.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Logic: The pattern followed in the question is: the RHS image is the same as the LHS image, but it has arrows on all its edges.

Similarly: Option 3 follows the same pattern

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

 → Elements shift diagonally and rotate 90°

clockwise.

Similarly,

 → Elements shift diagonally and rotate 90°

clockwise.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

 → Number of sides in 1^st figure = Number of

elements in 2^nd figure [4 (Sqaure) + 3 (Triangle) = 7 (cross signs)] 

Similarly,

 → Number of sides in 1^st figure = Number of

elements in 2^nd figure [4 (Rhombus) + 3 (Triangle) = 7 (Divide signs)] 

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Logic: The pattern followed in the question is: the arrow inside the box moves 45° anti-clockwise, while the outer line rotates 90° clockwise.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

(First Number + 2)² = Second Number

Similarly:

1) (13 + 2)² = 225

152 = 225

225 = 225 (LHS = RHS)

2) (11 + 2)2 = 169

132 = 169

169 = 169 (LHS = RHS)

3) (15 + 2)2 = 289

172 = 289

289 = 289 (LHS = RHS)

4) (17 + 2)2 = 381

192 = 381

361 ≠ 381 (LHS ≠ RHS)

∴ The correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

ROOT is coded as MIJN

FANS is coded as AUIM

Similarly JAMS will be coded as

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is as:

Now, 'thought perception' will be coded as 'li da'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is as:

Now, 'waist is harsh' will be coded as 'jm fv fm'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Word: NIGHT

Option 1) THINGHAR → Can be formed, as all the letters 'NIGHT' are present.

The pattern followed here is:

PORT : USPQ

FWND : EOXG

Similarly For , GBRI : JSCH

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Square of 25 = 625

Find the square of 125

Formula Used:

Square of a number = Number × Number

Calculation:

⇒ Square of 125 = 125 × 125

⇒ 125 × 125 = 15625

∴ The correct answer is 15625.

Given:

in45°cos45° + tan60°sec30° + cosec30°cot 45°.

Formula Used:

sin45° = 1 ÷ √2,  cos45° = 1 ÷ √2

tan60° = √3,  sec30° = 2 ÷ √3

cosec30° = 2,  cot45° = 1

Calculation:

⇒ sin45°cos45° + tan60°sec30° + cosec30°cot45°

⇒ (1 ÷ √2 × 1 ÷ √2) + (√3 × 2 ÷ √3) + (2 × 1)

⇒ (1 ÷ 2) + (2) + (2)

⇒ 1 ÷ 2 + 4

⇒ 9 ÷ 2

∴ The correct answer is 9 ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Let the hill height H = 240 m, pole height h, and distance x.

From the base of the hill: x = H / tan 60° ⇒ 240/√3 = 80√3 m.

From the top of the pole: H − h = x × tan 30° ⇒ 80√3 × (1/√3) = 80 m.

So, height of pole h = 240 − 80 = 160 m.

Required Difference (h − x) = 160 − 80√3 = 80(2 − √3) m.

∴ The correct answer is 80(2 − √3) m.

Alternate Method

Given: Height of the hill (AB) = 240 m, Angle of depression to pole top (C) = 30°, Angle of depression to pole bottom (D) = 60°.

Formula Used: tan θ = Perpendicular / Base

⇒ In right ΔABD, tan 60° = AB / BD

⇒ √3 = 240 / x

⇒ x = 240 / √3 = 80√3 m

⇒ In right ΔACE, let EC = BD = x and AE = AB − EB = 240 − h

⇒ tan 30° = AE / EC

⇒ 1 / √3 = (240 − h) / (80√3)

⇒ 240 − h = 80

⇒ h = 160 m

⇒ Difference = h − x = 160 − 80√3

⇒ Difference = 80(2 − √3) m

∴ The correct answer is 80(2 − √3) m.

Additional Information

Angle of Depression

The angle formed between the horizontal line from the observer's eye and the line of sight to an object below the horizontal level.

Trigonometric Ratio Relationships

For a fixed height H, the distance x = H × cot θ. As the angle θ increases, the distance x decreases.

Standard Values

tan 30° = 1/√3, tan 45° = 1, tan 60° = √3. These are fundamental for solving Height and Distance problems quickly.

Given:

Side of cube = 10 cm

Radius of sphere = 3 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of cube = side³

Volume of sphere = 4 ÷ 3 × π × r³

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of sphere = 4 ÷ 3 × π × 3³

⇒ = 4 ÷ 3 × π × 27

⇒ = 36π

∴ The correct answer is 36π.

Given:

DE = 75 cm

EF = 100 cm

DF = 125 cm

M is midpoint of DF

Formula Used:

Median length = √[(2a² + 2b² − c²) ÷ 4]

Calculation:

⇒ EM = √[(2 × 75² + 2 × 100² − 125²) ÷ 4]

⇒ = √[(2 × 5625 + 2 × 10000 − 15625) ÷ 4]

⇒ = √[(11250 + 20000 − 15625) ÷ 4]

⇒ = √[(15625) ÷ 4]

⇒ = √3906.25

⇒ = 62.5

∴ The correct answer is 62.5.

Given:

Angle in radians = -5π/3

Conversion factor = 180°/π

Formula Used:

Degree measure = Radian × (180°/π)

Calculation:

⇒ Degree measure = (-5π/3) × (180°/π)

⇒ Degree measure = (-5 × 180°)/3

⇒ Degree measure = -900°/3

⇒ Degree measure = -300°

∴ The correct answer is -300°.

Given:

Set 1: 2 cm, 3 cm, 4 cm

Set 2: 5 cm, 5 cm, 5 cm

Set 3: 6 cm, 2 cm, 3 cm

Set 4: 7 cm, 8 cm, 12 cm

Formula Used:

Sum of any two sides > third side

Calculation:

⇒ Set 1: 2 + 3 = 5 > 4 ✓

⇒ Set 2: 5 + 5 = 10 > 5 ✓

⇒ Set 3: 2 + 3 = 5 < 6 ✗

⇒ Set 4: 7 + 8 = 15 > 12 ✓

∴ The correct answer is 6 cm, 2 cm, 3 cm.

Given:

Total sides of a regular hexagon = 6

Formula Used:

Total number of diagonals = n(n - 3) / 2

Where n = number of sides

Calculation:

⇒ Total number of diagonals = 6(6 - 3) / 2

⇒ Total number of diagonals = 6 × 3 / 2

⇒ Total number of diagonals = 18 / 2

⇒ Total number of diagonals = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Given:

Amount after 4 years = 18500

Amount after 6 years = 19800

Time difference = 2 years

Rate = 12%

Time = 5 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Calculation:

⇒ Interest for 2 years = 19800 − 18500

⇒ = 1300

⇒ Interest for 1 year = 1300 ÷ 2

⇒ = 650

⇒ Principal = 18500 − (4 × 650)

⇒ = 18500 − 2600

⇒ = 15900

⇒ Simple Interest for 5 years = 15900 × 12 × 5 ÷ 100

⇒ = 15900 × 60 ÷ 100

⇒ = 15900 × 0.6

⇒ = 9540

∴ The correct answer is 9540.

Shortcut Trick

Total effective Simple Interest rate = (2 years × 6%) + (4 years × 8%) + (3 years × 10%)

Total percentage = 12% + 32% + 30% = 74%

According to the question, 74% of Principal = ₹7,400

⇒ 100% (Principal) = (7,400 ÷ 74) × 100 = ₹10,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total time = 9 years

Rate 1 (R₁) = 6% for Time 1 (T₁) = 2 years

Rate 2 (R₂) = 8% for Time 2 (T₂) = 4 years

Rate 3 (R₃) = 10% for remaining Time 3 (T₃) = 9 − (2 + 4) = 3 years

Total Interest (SI) = ₹7,400

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

Let the Principal amount be P.

⇒ Total SI = (P × R₁ × T₁)/100 + (P × R₂ × T₂)/100 + (P × R₃ × T₃)/100

⇒ 7,400 = (P × 6 × 2)/100 + (P × 8 × 4)/100 + (P × 10 × 3)/100

⇒ 7,400 = (12P/100) + (32P/100) + (30P/100)

⇒ 7,400 = (12P + 32P + 30P) ÷ 100

⇒ 7,400 = 74P ÷ 100

⇒ 7,400 × 100 = 74P

⇒ P = 7,40,000 ÷ 74

⇒ P = ₹10,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,000.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Interest

For multiple time periods with different rates, the total interest percentage is the sum of (Rate × Time) for each individual segment.

Simple Interest vs Amount

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Interest (I). In terms of percentage, if Rate × Time = R%, then A = (100 + R)% of Principal.

Direct Proportion

In Simple Interest, interest earned is directly proportional to the time and the principal when the rate is constant.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹25,000

Rate of Interest (R) = 5%

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Total Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (₹25,000 × 5 × 2) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹2,500

⇒ Total Amount = ₹25,000 + ₹2,500

⇒ Total Amount = ₹27,500

∴ The correct answer is ₹27,500.

Given:

AB = 16 cm

AB touches inner circle at P

Both circles are concentric

Formula Used:

Perpendicular from centre to chord bisects the chord

Calculation:

⇒ Since AB touches inner circle at P, OP ⟂ AB

⇒ Perpendicular from centre bisects AB

⇒ AP = PB

⇒ PB = 16 ÷ 2

⇒ PB = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Given:

Chord 1 = 10 cm

Chord 2 = 24 cm

Distance between chords = 7 cm

Formula Used:

Chord length = 2 × √(r² − d²)

Area of circle = πr²

Calculation:

⇒ 10 = 2 × √(r² − d₁²)

⇒ 5 = √(r² − d₁²)

⇒ r² − d₁² = 25

⇒ 24 = 2 × √(r² − d₂²)

⇒ 12 = √(r² − d₂²)

⇒ r² − d₂² = 144

⇒ d₁ − d₂ = 7

⇒ r² − (d₂ + 7)² = 25

⇒ r² − (d₂² + 14d₂ + 49) = 25

⇒ r² − d₂² − 14d₂ − 49 = 25

⇒ 144 − 14d₂ − 49 = 25

⇒ 95 − 14d₂ = 25

⇒ 70 = 14d₂

⇒ d₂ = 5

⇒ r² − 5² = 144

⇒ r² − 25 = 144

⇒ r² = 169

⇒ r = 13

⇒ Area = π × 13²

⇒ 169π

∴ The correct answer is 169π.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in Surface Area: 4π(R² − r²) = 4312

⇒ (r + 7)² − r² = 4312 ÷ (4 × 22/7) = 343

⇒ 7(2r + 7) = 343 ⇒ 2r + 7 = 49 ⇒ r = 21 cm

⇒ Original Volume = (4/3) × (22/7) × 21³ = 88 × 21² = 38808 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 38808 cm³.

Alternate Method

Given: Increase in radius = 7 cm, Increase in surface area = 4312 cm², π = 22/7.

Formula Used: Surface Area of Sphere = 4πr²; Volume of Sphere = (4/3)πr³

⇒ Let original radius be r. New radius = (r + 7) cm.

⇒ 4 × (22/7) × [(r + 7)² − r²] = 4312

⇒ (88/7) × (r² + 14r + 49 − r²) = 4312

⇒ 14r + 49 = (4312 × 7) ÷ 88

⇒ 14r + 49 = 49 × 7 = 343

⇒ 14r = 343 − 49 = 294

⇒ r = 294 ÷ 14 = 21 cm

⇒ Original Volume = (4/3) × (22/7) × 21 × 21 × 21

⇒ Original Volume = 4 × 22 × 21 × 21 = 88 × 441

⇒ Original Volume = 38808 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 38808 cm³.

Additional Information

Properties of Sphere

Total Surface Area = 4πr² and Volume = (4/3)πr³. For a sphere, the curved surface area is equal to the total surface area.

Properties of Hemisphere

Curved Surface Area = 2πr², Total Surface Area = 3πr², and Volume = (2/3)πr³.

Change in Dimensions

If the radius changes by a factor k, the Surface Area changes by k² and the Volume changes by k³.

Given:

First piece = 3/5 of total length

Second piece = 12 m

Formula used:

Total length = First piece + Second piece

Calculations:

Let total length = x m

First piece = (3/5)x

Second piece = x − (3/5)x

⇒ x − (3/5)x = 12

⇒ (5x − 3x) / 5 = 12

⇒ 2x / 5 = 12

⇒ 2x = 12 × 5

⇒ 2x = 60

⇒ x = 60 ÷ 2

⇒ x = 30 m

∴ Original length of the rope = 30 m

Given:

Area of triangle MNO = 12

Perimeter ratio = 2 : 1

Formula Used:

Area ratio = (Side ratio)²

Calculation:

⇒ Side ratio = 2

⇒ Area ratio = 2²

⇒ = 4

⇒ Area of M'N'O' = 12 × 4

⇒ = 48

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Given:

Radius = 10 cm

Central angle = 60°

Formula Used:

Chord length = 2r sin(θ ÷ 2)

Calculation:

⇒ Chord length = 2 × 10 × sin(60° ÷ 2)

⇒ = 20 × sin30°

⇒ = 20 × 1 ÷ 2

⇒ = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Given:

∠AOB = 80°

Formula Used:

Angle at centre = 2 × Angle at circumference

Calculation:

⇒ ∠ACB = ∠AOB ÷ 2

⇒ = 80 ÷ 2

⇒ = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Given:

Two circles touch externally

Formula Used:

If two circles touch externally, number of internal common tangents = 1

Calculation:

⇒ For externally touching circles, the two internal tangents coincide at the point of contact

⇒ Therefore only 1 distinct internal common tangent exists

∴ The correct answer is 1.

Given:

Distance between centres = Sum of radii

Formula Used:

If distance between centres = r₁ + r₂, circles touch externally

Number of common tangents for externally touching circles = 3

Calculation:

⇒ Since distance = r₁ + r₂

⇒ Circles touch externally

⇒ Two direct common tangents

⇒ One transverse common tangent

⇒ Total common tangents = 3

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Given:

Radius₁ = 6 cm

Radius₂ = 3 cm

Distance between centres = 15 cm

Formula Used:

Length of internal common tangent = √(d² − (r₁ + r₂)²)

Calculation:

⇒ Length = √(15² − (6 + 3)²)

⇒ = √(225 − 9²)

⇒ = √(225 − 81)

⇒ = √144

⇒ = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Given:

Radius₁ = 8 cm

Radius₂ = 6 cm

Distance between centres = 18 cm

Formula Used:

Length of internal common tangent = √(d² − (r₁ + r₂)²)

Calculation:

⇒ Length = √(18² − (8 + 6)²)

⇒ = √(324 − 14²)

⇒ = √(324 − 196)

⇒ = √128

⇒ = √(64 × 2)

⇒ = 8√2

∴ The correct answer is 8√2.

Given:

Length of external tangent = 8

Length of internal tangent = 6

Distance between centres = 10

Formula Used:

External tangent length = √(d² − (r₁ − r₂)²)

Internal tangent length = √(d² − (r₁ + r₂)²)

Calculation:

⇒ 8 = √(10² − (r₁ − r₂)²)

⇒ 64 = 100 − (r₁ − r₂)²

⇒ (r₁ − r₂)² = 36

⇒ r₁ − r₂ = 6

⇒ 6 = √(10² − (r₁ + r₂)²)

⇒ 36 = 100 − (r₁ + r₂)²

⇒ (r₁ + r₂)² = 64

⇒ r₁ + r₂ = 8

⇒ r₁ − r₂ = 6

⇒ r₁ + r₂ = 8

⇒ 2r₁ = 14

⇒ r₁ = 7

⇒ r₂ = 1

∴ The correct answer is 7 and 1.

Given:

Speed₁ = 5 km/h

Speed₂ = 8 km/h

Time difference = 30 minutes = 1 ÷ 2 hour

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Distance ÷ 5 − Distance ÷ 8 = 1 ÷ 2

⇒ (8Distance − 5Distance) ÷ 40 = 1 ÷ 2

⇒ 3Distance ÷ 40 = 1 ÷ 2

⇒ 3Distance = 40 ÷ 2

⇒ 3Distance = 20

⇒ Distance = 20 ÷ 3

⇒ Distance = 20 ÷ 3 × 1

⇒ Distance = 6.67

∴ The correct answer is 6.67 km.

Given:

Initial ratio of milk : water = 7 : 5

Milk = 7x

Water = 5x

Mixture removed = 9

Final ratio of milk : water = 7 : 9

Formula Used:

Quantity removed of each component = (Component ÷ Total) × Removed quantity

Calculation:

⇒ Total mixture = 12x

⇒ Milk removed = 9 × 7x ÷ 12x

⇒ = 63 ÷ 12

⇒ = 21 ÷ 4

⇒ Water removed = 9 × 5x ÷ 12x

⇒ = 45 ÷ 12

⇒ = 15 ÷ 4

⇒ Milk left = 7x − 21 ÷ 4

⇒ Water left = 5x − 15 ÷ 4 + 9

⇒ (7x − 21 ÷ 4) ÷ (5x − 15 ÷ 4 + 9) = 7 ÷ 9

⇒ (28x − 21) ÷ (20x − 15 + 36) = 7 ÷ 9

⇒ (28x − 21) ÷ (20x + 21) = 7 ÷ 9

⇒ 9(28x − 21) = 7(20x + 21)

⇒ 252x − 189 = 140x + 147

⇒ 112x = 336

⇒ x = 3

⇒ Initial milk = 7x

⇒ = 21

∴ The correct answer is 21.

The correct answer is Muhammad Tughlaq.

Key Points

• Muhammad Tughlaq, one of the Delhi Sultans, is known for his unorthodox administrative policies and decisions during his reign (1325-1351 CE).
• He broke traditional norms and appointed individuals from humble and low-ranking professions to high administrative posts.
• This policy was driven by his belief in the merit and capability of individuals rather than their social status or birth.
• Some of the people appointed to high posts during his reign included barbers, gardeners, and other individuals from non-aristocratic backgrounds.
• Though innovative, this policy often created resentment among the traditional elite and nobility, leading to unrest and dissatisfaction within the administration.

Additional Information

• About Muhammad Tughlaq:
• He was the second ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate and ruled from 1325 to 1351 CE.
• He is known for his ambitious projects and administrative reforms, many of which were ahead of their time but failed due to poor execution.
• His policies included the transfer of the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, introduction of token currency, and tax reforms.
• Other Delhi Sultans:
• Ruknuddin Firuz: He ruled for a brief period and is primarily remembered for his weak administration and indulgence in luxury.
• Minhaj-us-Siraj: He was not a ruler but a historian who documented the history of the Delhi Sultanate in his work, the Tabqat-i-Nasiri.
• Ghiyasuddin Balban: A strong ruler of the Delhi Sultanate known for his autocratic policies and emphasis on the divine right of kingship.
• Innovative Policies of Muhammad Tughlaq:
• He introduced a system of token currency made of copper and brass to replace gold and silver coins, but this led to rampant counterfeiting.
• His decision to shift the capital to Daulatabad aimed to secure the empire from Mongol invasions but caused massive hardships to the population.
• He implemented agricultural reforms and increased taxes in the Doab region, but the policy failed due to a famine.
• Legacy of Muhammad Tughlaq:
• While his administrative experiments failed, they reflect his visionary and intellectual approach to governance.
• He is often referred to as the most controversial ruler of the Delhi Sultanate due to his unconventional ideas and policies.

Important Points

• Impact of Appointing People from Humble Professions:
• This policy showcased Muhammad Tughlaq’s belief in meritocracy and his willingness to challenge societal norms.
• However, it alienated the traditional ruling elite and created friction within the administration.
• It also highlights the challenges of implementing progressive policies in a rigidly hierarchical society.
• Learning from His Reign:
• Muhammad Tughlaq’s reign serves as a historical example of the importance of practical execution in governance.
• His visionary ideas were often undone by his failure to account for the logistical and administrative challenges of implementation.

The correct answer is Chittor.

Key Points

• Chittor was annexed by Akbar in 1568 after a fierce siege. It marked an important step in his expansionist policy in the Rajasthan region.
• The Siege of Chittor was one of the most significant battles during Akbar's reign. It involved a prolonged conflict with the forces of Maharana Udai Singh II of Mewar, although Udai Singh himself fled the fort before the siege.
• The siege ended with Akbar’s forces emerging victorious after using advanced siege tactics, including the deployment of heavy artillery.
• After capturing Chittor, Akbar ensured that the fort became a symbol of Mughal authority in Rajputana. However, it also led to the tragic massacre of the residents, which is remembered as a dark chapter in history.
• This victory was part of Akbar’s broader strategy to subdue the Rajput states and integrate them into the Mughal Empire, which he achieved through both military conquests and alliances.

Additional Information

• Bengal:
• The region of Bengal was annexed later by Akbar in 1576 after the Battle of Rajmahal, where the forces of Daud Khan Karrani, the last Afghan ruler of Bengal, were defeated.
• It marked the incorporation of Bengal into the Mughal Empire, further strengthening Akbar's rule in eastern India.
• Gujarat:
• Gujarat was annexed by Akbar in 1572. The region was strategically important for its wealth and trade routes, particularly access to the sea.
• The decisive victory at the Battle of Ahmedabad played a key role in the annexation of Gujarat.
• Orissa:
• The conquest of Orissa was carried out in 1592 under Akbar’s general, Raja Man Singh. This marked the eastern expansion of the Mughal Empire.
• Orissa’s annexation was crucial for strengthening Mughal control over the eastern provinces and consolidating trade routes.
• Important Points:
• Akbar’s military campaigns were characterized by advanced tactics, skilled leadership, and the use of artillery.
• His annexation of key regions like Chittor, Gujarat, Bengal, and Orissa helped lay the foundation for the vast Mughal Empire.
• Akbar’s conquests were complemented by his administrative reforms, which included the introduction of the Mansabdari system and fostering relations with local rulers through diplomacy and alliances.

The correct answer is Concept of "procedure established by Law".

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of "Procedure Established by Law" from the Japanese Constitution.
• This principle implies that a law is valid as long as it is enacted by the legislature following the prescribed procedure, irrespective of whether it is just or fair.
• In contrast to "Due Process of Law" (as adopted by the United States Constitution), this concept does not evaluate the fairness or reasonableness of the law itself.
• The term "Procedure Established by Law" is enshrined in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
• Japan's post-World War II Constitution, which introduced this concept, served as a significant influence for the framers of the Indian Constitution in this regard.

Additional Information

• Concept of "Procedure Established by Law":
• This doctrine limits judicial review to the procedural validity of the law. Courts cannot question whether the law is just or violates fundamental rights beyond the prescribed procedure.
• For example, if a law prescribes capital punishment after a fair trial, the judiciary cannot evaluate the morality or fairness of the punishment under this doctrine.
• It ensures the supremacy of the legislature, giving it significant authority over the content of laws.
• Comparison with "Due Process of Law":
• In contrast to "Procedure Established by Law," "Due Process of Law" not only checks procedural correctness but also ensures laws are fair, reasonable, and just.
• The United States follows the "Due Process" doctrine, which gives its judiciary more power to evaluate laws and safeguard individual rights.
• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution:
• Article 21 provides that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
• This article has been expanded in scope by the judiciary through various landmark judgments, including the introduction of the "Due Process" element in certain cases.
• Other Borrowed Features in the Indian Constitution:
• While the "Procedure Established by Law" is borrowed from Japan, other features like "Judicial Review" and "Separation of Powers" are borrowed from the United States, and "Parliamentary System" is borrowed from the United Kingdom.

Important Points

• Evolution of Article 21:
• Initially, under the "Procedure Established by Law," courts had limited scope to examine laws depriving life or liberty.
• However, with landmark cases like Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), the Supreme Court expanded the interpretation to include principles of fairness, justice, and reasonableness, incorporating elements of "Due Process."
• Landmark Cases Related to Article 21:
• A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950): This case upheld the narrow interpretation of "Procedure Established by Law."
• Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978): This case expanded Article 21 to include "fairness" and "reasonableness," bridging the gap between "Procedure Established by Law" and "Due Process."

The correct answer is Kazakhstan.

Key Points

• Kazakhstan is one of the founding members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), which was established on 15 June 2001, in Shanghai, China.
• The founding members of SCO include China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
• The organization initially evolved from the Shanghai Five, a group formed in 1996 to strengthen regional security and cooperation.
• India and Pakistan joined SCO as full members later in 2017, while Iran became a full member in 2023. Hence, these countries are not founding members.
• SCO focuses on regional security, economic cooperation, and combating issues like terrorism, separatism, and extremism among member nations.

Additional Information

• Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
• SCO is a political, economic, and security alliance formed to promote regional stability and cooperation.
• The organization aims to ensure regional security, fight terrorism, and foster economic collaboration among member states.
• The headquarters of SCO is located in Beijing, China.
• It currently has 9 full members: China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India, Pakistan, and Iran.
• Key Features and Functions of SCO:
• Promotes multilateral cooperation in areas like economy, culture, trade, energy, and regional development.
• Addresses transnational threats such as terrorism, extremism, and separatism through mutual collaboration.
• Conducts joint military exercises like "Peace Mission" to enhance defense capabilities.
• Facilitates economic initiatives, including the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), supported by China.
• Characteristics of Member Countries:
• Kazakhstan: Largest landlocked country in the world; plays a crucial role in regional connectivity and energy trade.
• China: A major global power and economic leader, driving initiatives like BRI.
• Russia: A key player in geopolitics and defense cooperation within SCO.
• India and Pakistan: Joined SCO in 2017, contributing to regional development and security dialogues.
• Iran: Recently became a full member in 2023, expanding SCO’s influence in the Middle East.
• Important Points:
• SCO member states collectively represent over 40% of the global population and account for nearly 25% of the global GDP.
• The organization actively promotes regional integration and cooperation in areas such as trade, energy, and infrastructure development.
• It has a Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) headquartered in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, aimed at combating terrorism and extremism.
• The SCO also has observer states and dialogue partners, broadening its scope and influence worldwide.
• Key agreements: SCO Charter (2002) and Treaty on Long-Term Good Neighborliness, Friendship, and Cooperation (2007).

The correct answer is Hague.

Key Points

• The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations established in 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations.
• The ICJ is located in The Hague, Netherlands, which serves as the seat of its operations and is the only principal UN organ based outside New York.
• It primarily resolves disputes between states and provides advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized international organizations and UN bodies.
• The ICJ is housed in the Peace Palace, a historic building in The Hague, which also accommodates other legal institutions.
• The Court is composed of 15 judges elected for nine-year terms by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. Judges represent various legal systems globally.

Additional Information

• Functions of the ICJ:
• The ICJ settles disputes submitted by states based on international law. These disputes can involve territorial issues, treaty interpretations, and diplomatic relations.
• It provides advisory opinions on legal questions referred by international bodies, helping clarify international legal principles.
• Its rulings are binding for the states involved in the dispute but lack enforcement mechanisms; compliance is based on states' goodwill and international pressure.
• History and Establishment:
• The ICJ was established in 1945 and began its operations in 1946, succeeding the Permanent Court of International Justice of the League of Nations.
• The ICJ is governed by its Statute, which is an integral part of the UN Charter.
• The Peace Palace in The Hague was constructed in 1913 and initially housed the Permanent Court of International Justice.
• Composition and Selection of Judges:
• Judges are elected by the UN General Assembly and Security Council from a list of candidates nominated by national groups of the Permanent Court of Arbitration.
• They represent major legal systems globally and maintain impartiality in their judgments.
• The ICJ president and vice-president are elected by the judges themselves for three-year terms.
• Key Cases:
• Some notable cases include the Corfu Channel Case (1949), the Advisory Opinion on Nuclear Weapons (1996), and the Whaling in the Antarctic Case (2014).
• These cases have influenced international law, particularly on issues like sovereignty, environmental conservation, and human rights.
• Other Legal Institutions in The Hague:
• The Hague is also home to other international legal bodies, such as the International Criminal Court (ICC), the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA), and the Special Tribunal for Lebanon.
• These institutions contribute to The Hague's status as a global center for international law and justice.

Important Points

• ICJ vs. ICC:
• The ICJ primarily handles disputes between states, while the ICC prosecutes individuals for war crimes, genocide, crimes against humanity, and aggression.
• Both institutions are located in The Hague, but their mandates and functions differ significantly.
• Jurisdiction:
• The ICJ's jurisdiction is based on the consent of states. States can voluntarily submit disputes or accept compulsory jurisdiction through treaties.
• It does not have jurisdiction over disputes involving private parties or non-state entities.
• Membership:
• All 193 UN member states are parties to the ICJ Statute, making its decisions relevant globally.
• Non-member states can also access the ICJ for dispute resolution under specific conditions.
• Significance:
• The ICJ plays a crucial role in promoting peaceful dispute resolution and reinforcing the rule of law at the international level.
• Its advisory opinions contribute to shaping international legal norms and frameworks.

The correct answer is Hockey.

Key Points

• Harmanpreet Singh is an acclaimed Indian professional field hockey player and serves as the captain of the Indian men's hockey team.
• He plays as a defender and is also renowned for his expertise in drag flicking, which is a critical skill in penalty corners.
• Harmanpreet Singh has been instrumental in India’s success in international hockey tournaments, including the team’s bronze medal victory at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is India’s highest sporting honor, and Harmanpreet Singh was awarded this in 2024 in recognition of his outstanding contributions to the sport of hockey.
• Under his leadership, the Indian hockey team has achieved remarkable milestones, including podium finishes at the Asian Games and the FIH Hockey Pro League.

Additional Information

• Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award:
• It is the highest sporting honor in India, awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Named after Major Dhyan Chand, one of the greatest hockey players in history, the award recognizes exceptional performance in sports.
• The award includes a medal, a certificate, and a cash prize.
• Hockey in India:
• Hockey is often regarded as India’s national sport, with a rich history of achievements, including 8 Olympic gold medals.
• The Indian men’s hockey team won its last Olympic gold medal in 1980 at the Moscow Games.
• The sport has seen a revival in recent years, with improved performances in global tournaments like the Hockey World Cup and the FIH Pro League.
• Harmanpreet Singh’s Achievements:
• He was the top scorer for India in several international tournaments.
• Harmanpreet has won accolades such as the FIH Rising Star of the Year and was named in the FIH All-Star Team.
• He is celebrated for his leadership and ability to deliver under pressure during high-stakes matches.
• Role of Drag Flicking in Hockey:
• Drag flicking is a specialized skill used to score goals from penalty corners.
• It requires a combination of strength, technique, and precision.
• Harmanpreet Singh is one of the world’s finest drag flickers, making him a crucial asset to the Indian team.

Important Points

• Tokyo Olympics 2020:
• The Indian men’s hockey team won a bronze medal, ending a 41-year medal drought at the Olympics.
• Harmanpreet Singh played a crucial role in this historic achievement by scoring key goals.
• Asian Games:
• The Indian hockey team, under Harmanpreet’s leadership, has consistently performed well in the Asian Games, securing podium finishes.
• Harmanpreet’s ability to lead from the front has been pivotal in maintaining India’s dominance in the Asian circuit.

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

• The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is a landmark legislation enacted in India to address issues of domestic violence against women.
• The Act was passed in Parliament in August 2005 and came into effect on October 26, 2006. It aims to provide protection to women who are victims of domestic violence.
• This legislation applies to all women in India, irrespective of their religion, caste, or social background. It is a secular law and ensures equal protection for women across all communities.
• The Act defines domestic violence broadly, including physical, emotional, sexual, verbal, and economic abuse. It recognizes the rights of women to live in a violence-free environment within their homes.
• Under this Act, women can seek relief in the form of protection orders, residence orders, monetary relief, custody orders, and compensation orders. It also provides for the appointment of Protection Officers to assist victims.

Additional Information

• Salient Features of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act:
• The Act covers women in marital relationships, live-in relationships, and other domestic relationships such as family members living together.
• It provides a civil remedy rather than a criminal remedy, ensuring that victims receive support without initiating a criminal case against the abuser.
• The Act ensures that the shared household where the victim resides cannot be taken away from her, even if it is owned or rented by the abuser.
• Role of Protection Officers:
• Protection Officers are appointed by the government to assist victims in filing complaints and obtaining relief under the Act.
• They help victims access services such as legal aid, medical facilities, and shelters.
• Judicial Precedence:
• In several judgments, the Supreme Court of India has emphasized that the Act is gender-specific to protect women and ensure their safety within domestic spaces.
• Courts have also clarified that the Act applies to all women, irrespective of their religion, making it secular in nature.
• Statistical Context:
• According to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), cases of domestic violence have been steadily reported, demonstrating the importance of this legislation in providing recourse to victims.
• As per reports, awareness campaigns and legal provisions under this Act have encouraged more women to come forward and report domestic violence.

Important Points

• Applicability to All Religions:
• The Act is applicable to women of all religions, making it inclusive and ensuring protection without discrimination.
• It is aligned with the constitutional guarantee of equality and non-discrimination under Articles 14 and 15 of the Indian Constitution.
• Implementation Challenges:
• Lack of awareness about the provisions of the Act remains a major hurdle in ensuring its effective implementation.
• There is a need for consistent training of law enforcement officials and judiciary to handle cases under this Act sensitively.

The correct answer is To survey, document, and conserve India's manuscript heritage.

Key Points

• The Gyan Bharatam Mission, launched in 2025, aims to address the longstanding need to conserve India's vast and rich manuscript heritage.
• The primary objective is to survey, document, and preserve ancient manuscripts, which are invaluable repositories of India's history, culture, science, and philosophy.
• India holds an estimated 5 million manuscripts, making it one of the richest countries in terms of handwritten heritage. Many of these manuscripts are deteriorating due to neglect, lack of awareness, or improper storage conditions.
• The mission seeks to digitize and catalog manuscripts systematically to ensure their accessibility for scholars, researchers, and the public worldwide.
• It also focuses on promoting awareness and capacity building by training experts in manuscript conservation techniques and creating infrastructure for their proper storage and restoration.

Additional Information

• Significance of Manuscript Conservation:
• Manuscripts are primary sources of knowledge, offering insights into ancient literature, philosophy, science, and art.
• They include works in Sanskrit, Pali, Prakrit, Arabic, Persian, and several other languages, reflecting India's multilingual and multicultural heritage.
• Preservation ensures that these invaluable resources are not lost to time and can contribute to modern research and education.
• Challenges in Manuscript Conservation:
• Environmental factors such as humidity, temperature fluctuations, and pests contribute significantly to the degradation of manuscripts.
• Lack of expertise, infrastructure, and funding has historically hindered manuscript preservation efforts.
• There is also a need for raising awareness among the public and institutions about the importance of preserving these cultural treasures.
• Role of Digitization:
• Digitization is a key component of the Gyan Bharatam Mission, enabling the creation of a digital repository accessible to scholars and researchers globally.
• It mitigates the risk of physical damage by reducing the need to handle fragile manuscripts frequently.
• Previous Initiatives in India:
• The National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM), established in 2003, was one of the earlier efforts to conserve and document manuscripts in India.
• Under NMM, several manuscripts were cataloged, digitized, and restored, laying the groundwork for the broader objectives of the Gyan Bharatam Mission.

Important Points

• Manuscript Definition: A manuscript refers to any document written by hand, predating the use of printing presses. These documents are often unique and irreplaceable, making their preservation critical.
• Languages and Scripts: Manuscripts in India are written in a variety of scripts, including Devanagari, Brahmi, Grantha, Nastaliq, and Modi, among others.
• Global Recognition: Efforts to conserve India's manuscript heritage have garnered international attention, with organizations like UNESCO supporting initiatives to document and preserve cultural heritage.
• Technological Interventions: Advanced technologies like AI-based restoration techniques and high-resolution imaging are being employed to enhance the quality of digital replicas.
• Future Goals: The Gyan Bharatam Mission aims to establish India as a global leader in manuscript conservation, fostering international collaborations for cultural preservation.

The correct answer is 5^th.

Key Points

• The World Air Quality Report is an annual assessment of air quality across the globe, highlighting the most polluted and least polluted countries and cities based on data from monitoring stations.
• In the 2024 edition of the report, India ranked 5^th among the most polluted countries in the world.
• This ranking is determined by the concentration of Particulate Matter (PM2.5) in the atmosphere, which is a key pollutant affecting air quality and public health.
• PM2.5 refers to fine particulate matter with a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers, which poses severe health risks due to its ability to penetrate deep into the lungs and bloodstream.
• India's air pollution problem is primarily attributed to vehicular emissions, industrial activities, construction dust, crop residue burning, and household fuel burning.
• The report serves as a critical tool for governments, policymakers, and environmental organizations to strategize and implement measures to combat air pollution.

Additional Information

• World Air Quality Report:
• Published annually by IQAir, a Swiss-based air quality technology company.
• The report uses real-time air quality data from monitoring stations in various countries to rank global cities and nations based on their air pollution levels.
• The main parameter analyzed is the annual average concentration of PM2.5, expressed in micrograms per cubic meter (µg/m³).
• The data is sourced from various monitoring networks, including government agencies, NGOs, and private entities.
• India's Air Pollution:
• India is home to several cities consistently ranked among the most polluted in the world, including Delhi, Ghaziabad, and Kanpur.
• Sources of air pollution include stubble burning in northern states, thermal power plants, and industrial emissions.
• During winter, air quality deteriorates significantly due to temperature inversions and reduced dispersion of pollutants.
• Efforts such as the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aim to reduce PM2.5 levels by 20-30% by 2024 in non-attainment cities.
• PM2.5 Health Impacts:
• Prolonged exposure to high levels of PM2.5 can lead to respiratory diseases, cardiovascular issues, and premature deaths.
• Children, the elderly, and individuals with pre-existing health conditions are particularly vulnerable.
• The World Health Organization (WHO) has set a guideline of 5 µg/m³ for annual PM2.5 exposure, which many countries, including India, exceed by a significant margin.
• Global Context:
• Countries like Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Mongolia often rank higher than India in terms of pollution, primarily due to industrial and energy production practices.
• On the other hand, nations such as Finland, New Zealand, and Sweden consistently rank among the least polluted, thanks to stringent environmental policies and renewable energy adoption.

Important Points

• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
• Launched in 2019, it is India's flagship initiative to combat air pollution.
• Aims to reduce PM2.5 and PM10 levels by 20-30% from 2017 levels in 122 non-attainment cities by 2024.
• Focuses on measures like public awareness campaigns, pollution monitoring systems, and electric vehicle adoption.
• Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP):
• Implemented in Delhi-NCR to address severe air pollution episodes.
• Includes measures like banning construction activities, restricting vehicular movement, and shutting down coal-based industries during extreme pollution events.
• Global Initiatives:
• The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming and reduce emissions, indirectly benefiting air quality worldwide.
• The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) promotes clean energy solutions and sustainable urban planning to combat air pollution globally.