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SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 19 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

Find the incorrect part in the given sentence.

"If I was you, I wouldn't do this."

  1. AOption (a)

    If I

  2. BOption (b)

    was you

  3. COption (c)

    I wouldn't

  4. DOption (d)

    do this

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

was you

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. was you .

Key Points

  • The sentence "If I was you, I wouldn't do this" is grammatically incorrect. This is because it uses the incorrect form of the verb "was" in the conditional clause.
  • The sentence is an example of the second conditional, which is used to express hypothetical or unreal situations.
  • In the second conditional, the correct structure is "If + subject + were, subject + would + base verb."
  • The word "was" should be replaced with "were," as the phrase "If I were" is used to indicate hypothetical situations, regardless of the subject.

Correct sentence: If I were you, I wouldn't do this.

Additional Information

  • 1st Conditional Sentence:
  • Structure: If + Present Simple, will + base verb.
  • Example: If it rains, we will cancel the picnic.
  • Usage: Describes real or possible situations in the future with likely outcomes.
  • 2nd Conditional Sentence:
  • Structure: If + Past Simple, would + base verb.
  • Example: If I were rich, I would buy a mansion.
  • Usage: Describes hypothetical or unreal situations in the present or future.
  • 3rd Conditional Sentence:
  • Structure: If + Past Perfect, would have + past participle.
  • Example: If she had studied harder, she would have passed the exam.
  • Usage: Refers to unreal past situations and their imagined outcomes.

Question 2

Identify Spot the error in the given sentence.

"He denied to attend the meeting citing personal reasons."

  1. AOption (a)

    He denied

  2. BOption (b)

    to attend

  3. COption (c)

    the meeting

  4. DOption (d)

    citing personal reasons

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

to attend

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. to attend .

Key Points

  • The verb “deny” is not followed by the infinitive “to + base verb”. Instead, it is followed by a gerund (verb + ing).
  • In this case, the correct form should be “denied attending”, not “denied to attend.”
  • Therefore, the error lies in the phrase “to attend.”

Correct sentence: He denied attending the meeting citing personal reasons.

Additional Information

  • Usage of “deny”:
  • When using the verb “deny,” always follow it with a gerund (verb + ing).
  • Example: She denied stealing the money.
  • Common Verbs Followed by Gerunds:
  • Enjoy, avoid, suggest, finish, deny, mind, etc.
  • Example: He enjoys swimming. / She suggested going out for dinner.

Question 3

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate verb:

After months of silence, the author finally _______ the controversy in a detailed blog post.

  1. AOption (a)

    addressed

  2. BOption (b)

    suppressed

  3. COption (c)

    diverted

  4. DOption (d)

    evaded

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

addressed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. addressed .

Key Points

  • The sentence is in the past tense, as indicated by the phrase "After months of silence."
  • The context suggests that the author took an action regarding the controversy, which aligns with the meaning of "addressed."
  • The word "addressed" means to deal with or focus on a specific issue, making it the most appropriate choice for the sentence.
  • Other options are incorrect as they don’t fit the context:
  • Suppressed: Means to hide or restrain, which doesn’t match the context of discussing the controversy.
  • Diverted: Means to shift focus away from something, which is the opposite of what the sentence implies.
  • Evaded: Means to avoid, which doesn’t align with the author finally confronting the issue.

Correct sentence: After months of silence, the author finally addressed the controversy in a detailed blog post.

Additional Information

  • Meaning of the Options:
  • Addressed: Dealt with or discussed a subject or issue.
  • Suppressed: Stopped or restrained something from being expressed or known.
  • Diverted: Shifted attention or focus elsewhere.
  • Evaded: Avoided or escaped from something, often dishonestly or cleverly.
  • Usage Tips: Always consider the context of the sentence (e.g., tone, tense, and intent) to select the most suitable option.

Question 4

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: Turgid

  1. AOption (a)

    Concise

  2. BOption (b)

    Inflated

  3. COption (c)

    Simple

  4. DOption (d)

    Plain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Inflated

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Inflated .

Key Points

  • The word "Turgid" is used to describe something that is swollen, inflated, or pompous in style or language.
  • Option 2, "Inflated," is the most appropriate synonym for the given word as it conveys the same meaning of being overly swollen or exaggerated.
  • Options like Concise, Simple, and Plain are antonyms of the word "Turgid" and therefore do not match its meaning.

Correct Usage: The professor’s turgid lecture was difficult to follow because of its inflated language and excessive details.

Additional Information

  • Synonyms for Turgid: Inflated, Overblown, Pompous.
  • Antonyms for Turgid: Concise, Simple, Plain, Unadorned.
  • Example Sentence: The river became turgid after the heavy rainfall, overflowing its banks.

Question 5

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: PALIMPSESTIC

  1. AOption (a)

    Simplistic

  2. BOption (b)

    Erased

  3. COption (c)

    Layered

  4. DOption (d)

    Empty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Layered

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Layered .

Key Points

  • The word "Palimpsestic" refers to something that has multiple layers or traces of earlier forms underneath. It is often used metaphorically to describe something that has been reused or altered but still retains traces of its earlier state.
  • The most appropriate synonym for this word is "Layered", which captures the idea of having multiple layers or levels.
  • Other options like "Simplistic," "Erased," and "Empty" do not align with the meaning of "Palimpsestic." Specifically:
  • "Simplistic": Refers to oversimplified ideas, not layers.
  • "Erased": Refers to something removed, whereas palimpsestic retains traces of the past.
  • "Empty": Refers to something void or without content, which is the opposite of layered.

Correct sentence: The document had a palimpsestic quality, with its layered history visible beneath the new text.

Additional Information

  • Use of the word "Palimpsest": Originally, it referred to a manuscript on which the original writing had been erased to make room for new text but still retained traces of the old text.
  • In modern usage, it is often used metaphorically to describe anything that shows evidence of its history or layers.
  • Example: The city’s architecture is palimpsestic, with modern buildings standing alongside ruins from ancient times.

Question 6

Choose the correctly spelt word:

  1. AOption (a)

    Innocient

  2. BOption (b)

    Insocant

  3. COption (c)

    Insouciant

  4. DOption (d)

    linsociant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Insouciant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Insouciant .

Key Points

  • The word Insouciant is correctly spelt and means showing a lack of concern or care; carefree or relaxed.
  • It is derived from the French word "insouciant," which means "carefree" or "unconcerned."
  • Each of the other options contains spelling errors and does not accurately represent the correct word:
  • Option 1: "Innocient" – Incorrect spelling of "Innocent."
  • Option 2: "Insocant" – Not a valid English word.
  • Option 4: "linsociant" – Incorrect and not a valid English word.

Correct usage: The child’s insouciant attitude was evident as he played happily, unaware of the storm approaching.

Additional Information

  • Synonyms: Nonchalant, carefree, indifferent.
  • Antonyms: Anxious, concerned, worried.
  • Example Sentence: Despite the chaos around her, she remained insouciant and calm.

Question 7

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Every nook and cranny

  1. AOption (a)

    Every small corner or hidden part

  2. BOption (b)

    Every important detail

  3. COption (c)

    Every visible place

  4. DOption (d)

    Every large space or open area

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Every small corner or hidden part

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Every small corner or hidden part .

Key Points

  • The idiom "Every nook and cranny" refers to searching or exploring every small corner or hidden part of a space.
  • It is commonly used to emphasize thoroughness or meticulousness in searching or investigating.
  • Among the options provided, Option 1: "Every small corner or hidden part" is the most appropriate meaning of the idiom.

Correct usage: The detectives searched every nook and cranny of the house for evidence.

Additional Information

  • Other Related Idioms:
  • "Leave no stone unturned": Similar to "Every nook and cranny," it means to try every possible way or investigate thoroughly.
  • "Dig deep": To put in significant effort to find something, especially information or resources.
  • Usage Tips:
  • Use this idiom in contexts where thoroughness or meticulous searching is highlighted.
  • It can be applied to both physical searches (e.g., a house) or abstract searches (e.g., data or clues).

Question 8

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: Tread on your toes

  1. AOption (a)

    Be overly protective of yourself

  2. BOption (b)

    Act with extreme caution

  3. COption (c)

    Offend or annoy someone

  4. DOption (d)

    Help someone with their task

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Offend or annoy someone

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Offend or annoy someone .

Key Points

  • The idiom "Tread on your toes" means to offend or annoy someone, especially by interfering in their responsibilities or personal matters.
  • It is often used in a figurative sense to describe situations where someone oversteps their boundaries or causes discomfort to another individual.
  • The correct interpretation of this idiom aligns with option 3: "Offend or annoy someone."

Correct usage: Be careful not to tread on your boss's toes by taking decisions without consulting them first.

Additional Information

  • Similar Idioms:
  • Step on someone's toes: To offend or upset someone by encroaching on their authority or responsibilities.
  • Rub someone the wrong way: To irritate or annoy someone, often unintentionally.
  • Examples of Usage:
  • She doesn't want to tread on anyone's toes, so she avoids discussing sensitive topics.
  • He accidentally tread on his colleague's toes by taking over her project without informing her.

In the given passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage intently and choose the most appropriate option to fill in each blank:

I was strolling through the park one night when I saw a man sitting by himself on a bench. He was dressed in frayed clothes, and his face was creased with (1)_______.  He looked lost in thought, gazing at the ground as if trying to find answers. I paused for a moment before going over to talk to him. When I said hello, he looked up and smiled weakly. He began talking to me about his life, including his triumphs and setbacks, love and grief. His stories were so enlightening, and his perspective (2). He got to his feet as the sun began to set and thanked me for the chance to hear about his experiences. "Sometimes, all we need is someone to hear us," he stated. His words lingered in my mind, bringing to mind the (3) of human connection. That night, I left the park humbled and (4)____. Life is full of unexpected encounters, each one with the power to (5)_____ us in ways that we  never thought possible.

Question 9

What should come in the place of blank number 1?

  1. AOption (a)

    Happiness

  2. BOption (b)

    Anger

  3. COption (c)

    Worry

  4. DOption (d)

    Confusion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Worry

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Worry'.

 

Key Points

  • The passage describes the man as sitting alone, dressed in "frayed clothes," and his face was "creased" with a particular emotion.
  • The description "gazing at the ground as if trying to find answers" suggests a state of deep concern, anxiety, or preoccupation with life's difficulties.
  • "Worry" (चिंता) is the most appropriate word to describe a face "creased" by the burdens of life, especially in a context involving "setbacks" and "grief."
  • "Happiness" (Option 1) contradicts the description of frayed clothes and a weak smile.
  • "Anger" (Option 2) typically involves different facial expressions (like a scowl) and wouldn't lead to someone being "lost in thought" in a quiet, reflective way.
  • "Confusion" (Option 4) implies a lack of understanding, but the phrase "creased with" is most idiomatically paired with "worry" or "age" to show the physical toll of a hard life.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage Segment: *I was strolling through the park one night when I saw a man sitting by himself on a bench. He was dressed in frayed clothes, and his face was creased with (1)*worry  He looked lost in thought, gazing at the ground as if trying to find answers. I paused for a moment before going over to talk to him. When I said hello, he looked up and smiled weakly. He began talking to me about his life, including his triumphs and setbacks, love and grief. His stories were so enlightening, and his perspective (2). He got to his feet as the sun began to set and thanked me for the chance to hear about his experiences. "Sometimes, all we need is someone to hear us," he stated. His words lingered in my mind, bringing to mind the (3) of human connection. That night, I left the park humbled and (4)____. Life is full of unexpected encounters, each one with the power to (5)_____ us in ways that we  never thought possible.

 

Additional Information

  • Frayed (घिसा हुआ): (Of fabric) unraveled or worn at the edge. It suggests the man may be going through a difficult financial or personal period.
  • Creased: In this context, it refers to lines or wrinkles on the face caused by habitual expressions or stress.
  • Contextual Reading: When solving Cloze Tests, look for the "mood" of the character. The mention of "setbacks" and "grief" later in the text confirms a somber mood.

Question 10

What should come in the place of blank number 2?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deepened

  2. BOption (b)

    Shifted

  3. COption (c)

    Enlightened

  4. DOption (d)

    Worsened

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Enlightened

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Enlightened'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence structure is a parallel construction: "His stories were so enlightening, and his perspective enlightened."
  • "Enlightened" (प्रबुद्ध/ज्ञानोदय) as a verb in this context suggests that the man's viewpoint was filled with wisdom and understanding. It perfectly matches the previous adjective "enlightening" to emphasize the profound nature of the conversation.
  • While "Deepened" (Option 1) is a common collocation for perspectives, in specific exam contexts where "Enlightened" is provided as the key, it is chosen to maintain thematic consistency with the stories being "enlightening."
  • "Shifted" (Option 2) suggests a change in direction, which isn't necessarily implied by the wisdom of the stories.
  • "Worsened" (Option 4) is a negative term that contradicts the "humbled" and positive feeling the narrator describes at the end.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage Segment: I was strolling through the park one night when I saw a man sitting by himself on a bench. He was dressed in frayed clothes, and his face was creased with (1)worry  He looked lost in thought, gazing at the ground as if trying to find answers. I paused for a moment before going over to talk to him. When I said hello, he looked up and smiled weakly. He began talking to me about his life, including his triumphs and setbacks, love and grief. His stories were so enlightening, and his perspective (2)enlightened He got to his feet as the sun began to set and thanked me for the chance to hear about his experiences. "Sometimes, all we need is someone to hear us," he stated. His words lingered in my mind, bringing to mind the (3)________ of human connection. That night, I left the park humbled and (4)____. Life is full of unexpected encounters, each one with the power to (5)_____ us in ways that we  never thought possible.

 

Additional Information

  • Enlightening (शिक्षाप्रद): Providing spiritual or intellectual insight.
  • Parallelism in Cloze Tests: Examiners often use the same root word (enlighten/enlightening) or words with very similar meanings in the same sentence to reinforce a specific theme.
  • Perspective (परिप्रेक्ष्य): A particular attitude toward or way of regarding something; a point of view.

Question 11

What should come in the place of blank number 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    Importance

  2. BOption (b)

    Beauty

  3. COption (c)

    Power

  4. DOption (d)

    Fragility

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Power

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Power'.

 

Key Points

  • The man tells the narrator, "Sometimes, all we need is someone to hear us." This simple act has a profound effect on the narrator, who leaves the park "humbled."
  • The final sentence of the passage reinforces this by mentioning the "power to (5)_________ us." This thematic link indicates that the narrator is reflecting on the strength or impact of that interaction.
  • "Power" (शक्ति/सामर्थ्य) accurately describes the capacity of human connection to influence someone's mind and heart so deeply.
  • "Importance" (Option 1) is a weaker synonym; while human connection is important, the passage emphasizes the transformative effect it has, which is better characterized as "power."
  • "Beauty" (Option 2) focuses on the aesthetic or emotional quality, but the passage is more about the significant internal shift (being "humbled") caused by the encounter.
  • "Fragility" (Option 4) means the quality of being easily broken. Nothing in the passage suggests that the connection was weak or easily destroyed.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage Segment: I was strolling through the park one night when I saw a man sitting by himself on a bench. He was dressed in frayed clothes, and his face was creased with (1)worry  He looked lost in thought, gazing at the ground as if trying to find answers. I paused for a moment before going over to talk to him. When I said hello, he looked up and smiled weakly. He began talking to me about his life, including his triumphs and setbacks, love and grief. His stories were so enlightening, and his perspective (2)enlightened He got to his feet as the sun began to set and thanked me for the chance to hear about his experiences. "Sometimes, all we need is someone to hear us," he stated. His words lingered in my mind, bringing to mind the (3)power of human connection. That night, I left the park humbled and (4)____. Life is full of unexpected encounters, each one with the power to (5)_____ us in ways that we  never thought possible.

 

Additional Information

  • Lingered (ठहर जाना): To stay in a place longer than necessary because of a reluctance to leave. Here, it refers to his words staying in the narrator's thoughts.
  • Human Connection: The sense of closeness and belongingness a person can experience when having supportive and positive relationships with another.
  • Vocabulary Tip: In exams, look for concluding sentences to find clues for earlier blanks. The use of "power" in the final sentence is a direct clue for blank 3.

Question 12

What should come in the place of blank number 4?

  1. AOption (a)

    Inspired

  2. BOption (b)

    Energized

  3. COption (c)

    Discouraged

  4. DOption (d)

    Depleted

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Inspired

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Inspired'.

 

Key Points

  • The narrator describes the experience as "enlightening" and mentions that the man's words "lingered" in their mind, reminding them of the power of human connection.
  • "Inspired" (प्रेरित) means filled with the urge or ability to do or feel something, especially something creative or positive. This fits the context of someone leaving an encounter feeling "humbled" and moved by the wisdom they received.
  • "Energized" (Option 2) suggests a physical or active boost of energy. While the encounter was positive, the tone is quiet, reflective, and emotional rather than high-energy.
  • "Discouraged" (Option 3) and "Depleted" (Option 4) are negative terms. Since the narrator found the encounter "enlightening" and powerful, they would not feel saddened or drained of energy.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage Segment: I was strolling through the park one night when I saw a man sitting by himself on a bench. He was dressed in frayed clothes, and his face was creased with (1)worry  He looked lost in thought, gazing at the ground as if trying to find answers. I paused for a moment before going over to talk to him. When I said hello, he looked up and smiled weakly. He began talking to me about his life, including his triumphs and setbacks, love and grief. His stories were so enlightening, and his perspective (2)enlightened He got to his feet as the sun began to set and thanked me for the chance to hear about his experiences. "Sometimes, all we need is someone to hear us," he stated. His words lingered in my mind, bringing to mind the (3)power of human connection. That night, I left the park humbled and (4)inspired. Life is full of unexpected encounters, each one with the power to (5)_________ us in ways that we  never thought possible.

 

Additional Information

  • Humbled (विनम्र): To cause someone to feel less important or proud. In this context, it means the narrator felt a sense of modesty after hearing about the man's profound life struggles.
  • Unexpected Encounters: A theme often found in Reading Comprehension passages that highlights how small, unplanned events can change one's outlook on life.
  • Collocations: "Humbled and inspired" is a very common pair in English literature used to describe a transformative emotional experience.

Question 13

What should come in the place of blank number 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    Teach

  2. BOption (b)

    Challenge

  3. COption (c)

    Inspire

  4. DOption (d)

    Overwhelm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Inspire

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Inspire'.

 

Key Points

  • The concluding sentence sums up the emotional impact of the story: "Life is full of unexpected encounters, each one with the power to (5)_________ us..."
  • "Inspire" (प्रेरित करना) means to fill someone with the urge or ability to do or feel something, especially something creative or positive. This is the central theme of the passage—a chance meeting that leaves a lasting, positive impression.
  • The narrator has already stated they left the park "inspired" in the previous sentence. Using the verb form "inspire" here reinforces the main takeaway of the narrative.
  • "Teach" (Option 1) is a factual outcome, but the tone of the passage is more emotional and transformative than merely educational.
  • "Challenge" (Option 2) means to test one's abilities or beliefs. While the narrator's perspective changed, the overall "vibe" of the encounter was one of encouragement and shared humanity.
  • "Overwhelm" (Option 4) usually implies being defeated or crushed by a feeling, which is too intense and potentially negative for this uplifting conclusion.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage Segment: I was strolling through the park one night when I saw a man sitting by himself on a bench. He was dressed in frayed clothes, and his face was creased with (1)worry  He looked lost in thought, gazing at the ground as if trying to find answers. I paused for a moment before going over to talk to him. When I said hello, he looked up and smiled weakly. He began talking to me about his life, including his triumphs and setbacks, love and grief. His stories were so enlightening, and his perspective (2)enlightened He got to his feet as the sun began to set and thanked me for the chance to hear about his experiences. "Sometimes, all we need is someone to hear us," he stated. His words lingered in my mind, bringing to mind the (3)power of human connection. That night, I left the park humbled and (4)inspired. Life is full of unexpected encounters, each one with the power to (5)inspire us in ways that we  never thought possible.

 

Additional Information

  • Thematic Consistency: In competitive English sections, the conclusion of a story usually mirrors the emotions established in the "climax" or "turning point." Since the conversation was "enlightening," the result is "inspiration."
  • Human Connection: The passage highlights the psychological importance of being heard, a theme often found in ethics-based reading comprehension sets.
  • Grammar Tip: When a word appears as an adjective in one sentence (inspired), it is very common for the corresponding verb (inspire) to appear in the summary or concluding statement of the same passage.

Question 14

Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Intimate

  1. AOption (a)

    Distant

  2. BOption (b)

    Close

  3. COption (c)

    Familiar

  4. DOption (d)

    Personal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Distant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Distant .

Key Points

  • The word Intimate means having a close, personal, or friendly relationship.
  • The antonym of a word is its opposite in meaning.
  • Among the given options:
  • Distant means far away or not closely connected, which is the opposite of "intimate."
  • Close, Familiar, and Personal are all similar in meaning to "intimate" and are not antonyms.

Correct sentence: The most appropriate antonym of the word "Intimate" is Distant.

Additional Information

  • Synonyms of Intimate:
  • Close
  • Familiar
  • Personal
  • Usage Example: They share an intimate bond that is hard to break.
  • Antonym Usage Example: Their relationship is distant and formal.

Question 15

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 

A person who studies rocks and minerals

  1. AOption (a)

    Cartographer

  2. BOption (b)

    Mineralogist

  3. COption (c)

    Archaeologist

  4. DOption (d)

    Paleontologist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mineralogist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Mineralogist .

Key Points

  • The question asks for the one-word substitute for "A person who studies rocks and minerals."
  • The correct answer is Mineralogist, as this term refers to an expert in the study of minerals, their composition, and properties.
  • The other options are incorrect because:
  • Cartographer: A person who draws or produces maps.
  • Archaeologist: A person who studies human history and prehistory through excavations and artifacts.
  • Paleontologist: A person who studies fossils and prehistoric life.

Correct sentence: The one-word substitute for "A person who studies rocks and minerals" is Mineralogist.

Additional Information

  • Related Terms:
  • Geologist: A scientist who studies the Earth's physical structure and substances.
  • Petrologist: A specialist in the study of rocks.
  • Field of Study:
  • Mineralogy: The branch of geology that deals with the study of minerals.

Question 16

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 

A person who works with gemstones

  1. AOption (a)

    Gemologist

  2. BOption (b)

    Jeweler

  3. COption (c)

    Silversmith

  4. DOption (d)

    Metallurgist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Gemologist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Gemologist.

Key Points

  • The question asks for the correct one-word substitute for "A person who works with gemstones."
  • Among the options provided, "Gemologist" is the appropriate term as it refers to a person who studies, identifies, and evaluates gemstones.
  • Other options:
  • Jeweler: A person who designs, makes, or sells jewelry, which may or may not involve working directly with gemstones.
  • Silversmith: A craftsman who works primarily with silver to create ornaments, jewelry, or utensils.
  • Metallurgist: A specialist in the science and technology of metals, unrelated to gemstones.

Correct sentence: The person who works with gemstones is called a Gemologist.

Additional Information

  • Gemologist:
  • A gemologist requires specialized training to identify and evaluate gemstones based on various characteristics like color, cut, clarity, and carat weight.
  • Gemologists often work in laboratories or auction houses where they assess and certify gemstones.
  • Jewelry vs. Gemstones:
  • While jewelers may use gemstones in their designs, they do not necessarily have expertise in identifying or evaluating gemstones, which is the primary role of a gemologist.

Question 17

Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Chicanery

  1. AOption (a)

    Deceit

  2. BOption (b)

    Honesty

  3. COption (c)

    Trickery

  4. DOption (d)

    Subterfuge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Honesty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Honesty .

Key Points

  • The word chicanery means the use of trickery or deception to achieve a purpose, especially in legal, political, or financial matters.
  • The antonym of chicanery would be a word that conveys the opposite meaning, i.e., truthfulness, transparency, or straightforwardness.
  • Among the options:
  • Deceit (Option 1): Synonym for chicanery, meaning deception or dishonest behavior.
  • Honesty (Option 2): The opposite of chicanery, meaning truthfulness, fairness, or integrity.
  • Trickery (Option 3): Another synonym for chicanery, meaning deceptive practices or cunning behavior.
  • Subterfuge (Option 4): Also a synonym for chicanery, meaning deceit used to achieve a goal.

Correct word: Honesty is the most appropriate antonym of chicanery, as it represents the opposite idea of truth and integrity.

Additional Information

  • Synonyms of Chicanery: Deception, Trickery, Subterfuge, Fraudulence.
  • Antonyms of Chicanery: Honesty, Integrity, Sincerity, Truthfulness.

Question 18

One of these words is spelled incorrectly. Which one is it?

  1. AOption (a)

    Torpor

  2. BOption (b)

    Penury

  3. COption (c)

    Zealot

  4. DOption (d)

    rancoros

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

rancoros

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '4' i.e. rancoros .

Key Points

  • The question asks to identify the incorrectly spelled word among the given options.
  • The correct spelling of the word "rancoros" is "rancorous".
  • "Rancorous" means showing deep-seated resentment or bitterness.
  • The other words:
  • Torpor: A state of physical or mental inactivity.
  • Penury: Extreme poverty or destitution.
  • Zealot: A person who is fanatical in pursuit of their ideals.

Correct spelling: "Rancorous".

Additional Information

  • Always double-check spellings of words that sound similar but have variations in letters like "ou" or "os".
  • Use a dictionary or spell-check tool to verify uncommon or less frequently used words.

Question 19

One of these words is spelled incorrectly. Which one is it?

  1. AOption (a)

    Connoisseur 

  2. BOption (b)

    Priviledge

  3. COption (c)

    Surveillance

  4. DOption (d)

    Endeavour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Priviledge

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Priviledge .

Key Points

  • The word "Priviledge" is spelled incorrectly. The correct spelling is "Privilege."
  • The error likely arises because of the incorrect placement of the letter "d" in place of "g."
  • The word "Privilege" means a special right, advantage, or immunity granted to a person or group.

Correct usage: The word should be spelled as "Privilege."

Additional Information

  • Connoisseur: Correctly spelled. It means an expert judge in matters of taste, such as food, art, or wine.
  • Surveillance: Correctly spelled. It refers to close observation, especially of a suspected spy or criminal.
  • Endeavour: Correctly spelled. It means an attempt to achieve a goal, often used in British English.

Question 20

Choose the correct passive voice transformation of the sentence:

My grandmother tells us stories.

  1. AOption (a)

    We are told stories by my grandmother.

  2. BOption (b)

    We were told stories by my grandmother.

  3. COption (c)

    We have been told stories by my grandmother.

  4. DOption (d)

    Stories were told to us by my grandmother.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

We are told stories by my grandmother.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. We are told stories by my grandmother .

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in the present simple tense, as indicated by the verb "tells".
  • When transforming an active sentence in the present simple tense into the passive voice, the structure is:
  • Passive Voice Structure: Object + is/are + past participle + by + subject.
  • In the given sentence:
  • Subject: My grandmother
  • Verb: tells
  • Object: us stories
  • When converted into the passive voice:
  • Object (us stories): becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
  • Verb (tells): changes to "are told" (present simple passive form).
  • The subject (my grandmother) is moved after the verb with the preposition "by."

Correct sentence: We are told stories by my grandmother.

Additional Information

  • Passive Voice Rules:
  • In the passive voice, the focus shifts from the subject performing the action to the object receiving the action.
  • The tense of the verb remains the same as in the active voice, but the verb is changed to its passive form.
  • Examples:
  • Active: She writes a letter. → Passive: A letter is written by her.
  • Active: They make cakes. → Passive: Cakes are made by them.

Question 21

Choose the correct passive voice transformation of the sentence:

He claimed to have seen a rare species of bird during his expedition to the Amazon rainforest.

  1. AOption (a)

    It was claimed by him that he had seen a rare species of bird during his expedition to the Amazon rainforest.

  2. BOption (b)

    A rare species of bird was claimed to have been seen by him during his expedition to the Amazon rainforest.

  3. COption (c)

    A rare species of bird was seen by him during his expedition, it was claimed.

  4. DOption (d)

    He claimed that a rare species of bird was seen by him during his expedition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A rare species of bird was claimed to have been seen by him during his expedition to the Amazon rainforest.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. A rare species of bird was claimed to have been seen by him during his expedition to the Amazon rainforest .

Key Points

  • The given sentence requires transformation into the passive voice.
  • When converting to the passive voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
  • In this case, "a rare species of bird" becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
  • The verb "claimed" requires the passive structure "was claimed to have been seen," which indicates a past event described in the passive voice.

Correct sentence: A rare species of bird was claimed to have been seen by him during his expedition to the Amazon rainforest.

Additional Information

  • Active voice structure: Subject + verb + object.
  • Example: He claimed to have seen a rare species of bird.
  • Passive voice structure: Object + was/were + past participle + (by subject).
  • Example: A rare species of bird was claimed to have been seen by him.
  • The inclusion of "to have been seen" highlights that the event occurred prior to the claim being made.

Question 22

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct voice.

She asked him if he had been to the new cafe that had opened the previous week, and whether he thought it was better than the one they had been going to for months.

  1. AOption (a)

    "Has you been to the new cafe that opened last week, and do you think it is better than the one we had been going to for months?" she asked him.

  2. BOption (b)

    "Have you been to the new cafe that opened last week, and do you think it is better than the one we have been going to for months?" she asked him.

  3. COption (c)

    "Had you been to the new cafe that opened last week, and did you think it was better than the one we had been going to months?" she asked him.

  4. DOption (d)

    "Did you go to the new cafe that had opened the previous week, and did you think it was better than the one we had been going to for months?" she asked him.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

"Have you been to the new cafe that opened last week, and do you think it is better than the one we have been going to for months?" she asked him.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. "Have you been to the new cafe that opened last week, and do you think it is better than the one we have been going to for months?" she asked him.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is an example of converting indirect speech into direct speech.
  • In direct speech, the actual words of the speaker are quoted within quotation marks.
  • The tense and pronouns must be adjusted appropriately when converting indirect speech to direct speech, keeping the original meaning intact.
  • The sentence in indirect speech mentions "had been to the new cafe that had opened the previous week," which needs to be converted to the present perfect tense "Have you been to the new cafe that opened last week" in direct speech.
  • The second part of the indirect speech, "whether he thought it was better than the one they had been going to for months," is transformed to "do you think it is better than the one we have been going to for months" in direct speech.

Correct sentence: "Have you been to the new cafe that opened last week, and do you think it is better than the one we have been going to for months?" she asked him.

Additional Information

  • Rules for Direct Speech:
  • Enclose the exact words spoken by the speaker in quotation marks.
  • Adjust pronouns, tenses, and time expressions as per the context.
  • Example: Indirect: She said that she was happy. → Direct: She said, "I am happy."
  • Rules for Indirect Speech:
  • Modify the sentence to reflect the past tense when reporting speech.
  • Example: Direct: She said, "I am happy." → Indirect: She said that she was happy.

Question 23

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in direct voice.

The detective told the witnesses that they must tell him everything they had seen that morning, as it could be the key to solving the case that had been haunting the city for a long time.

  1. AOption (a)

    "You must tell me everything you saw this morning, as it could be the key to solving the case that has been haunting the city for a long time," the detective said to the witnesses.

  2. BOption (b)

    "You had to tell me everything you saw this morning, as it could be the key to solving the case that was haunting the city for a long time," the detective said to the witnesses.

  3. COption (c)

    "You must tell me everything you had seen that morning, as it could be the key to solving the case that had been haunting the city for a long time," the detective said to the witnesses.

  4. DOption (d)

    "You must tell him everything you saw this morning, as it could be the key to solving the case that has been haunting the city for a long time," the detective said to the witnesses.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

"You must tell me everything you saw this morning, as it could be the key to solving the case that has been haunting the city for a long time," the detective said to the witnesses.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. "You must tell me everything you saw this morning, as it could be the key to solving the case that has been haunting the city for a long time," the detective said to the witnesses .

Key Points

  • The question is about converting an indirect speech into direct speech.
  • The sentence in indirect speech states that "The detective told the witnesses that they must tell him everything they had seen that morning, as it could be the key to solving the case." The verb "must" in direct speech remains "must" as it indicates obligation in the present tense.
  • The pronouns and verbs must be adjusted to match direct speech:
  • “they” becomes “you” since the detective is addressing the witnesses directly.
  • “had seen” becomes “saw” because in direct speech, the past perfect tense is often converted into the simple past tense to reflect the immediacy of the conversation.
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 fail to accurately reflect the correct structure and verb usage for direct speech:
  • Option 2 incorrectly uses "had to tell," which changes the meaning.
  • Option 3 uses “had seen that morning,” which is unnecessary for direct speech.
  • Option 4 incorrectly uses "tell him," which is inconsistent with the direct address in direct speech.

Correct sentence: "You must tell me everything you saw this morning, as it could be the key to solving the case that has been haunting the city for a long time," the detective said to the witnesses.

Additional Information

  • Direct and Indirect Speech Rules:
  • In direct speech, the exact words of the speaker are quoted and enclosed in quotation marks.
  • In indirect speech, the speaker's words are reported without quotation marks, and pronouns, tenses, and adverbs of time/place are adjusted accordingly.
  • Examples:
  • Direct: He said, "I am going to the market now."
  • Indirect: He said that he was going to the market then.

Question 24

Which of the following pairs of homonyms can be used to fill in the blanks most suitably?

The teacher's decision was guided by the core _________  of fairness, even though the _________ disagreed with her approach.

  1. AOption (a)

    principle, principal

  2. BOption (b)

    principal, principle

  3. COption (c)

    principle, principl

  4. DOption (d)

    principal, principal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

principle, principal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. principle, principal .

Key Points

  • The sentence requires two homonyms that are spelled differently but sound similar and have different meanings.
  • The word "principle" refers to a fundamental truth or guiding belief, which fits the context of "the core principle of fairness."
  • The word "principal" refers to someone in a position of authority or importance, which aligns with the context of "the principal disagreed with her approach."

Correct sentence: The teacher's decision was guided by the core principle of fairness, even though the principal disagreed with her approach.

Additional Information

  • Homonyms:
  • Homonyms are words that sound the same but have different meanings and, sometimes, different spellings.
  • Example: "principle" (a rule or belief) and "principal" (a person in charge).
  • Common Misunderstandings:
  • These two words are often confused due to their similar pronunciation.
  • Remember: "Principle" relates to a concept or belief, while "Principal" can refer to a person or something of primary importance.

Question 25

Which of the following pairs of homonyms can be used to fill in the blanks most suitably?

The negotiator managed to _____ the tension in the room before it could _____  into a full-blown conflict.

  1. AOption (a)

    diffuse, defuse

  2. BOption (b)

    alleviate, elevate

  3. COption (c)

    elevate, alleviate

  4. DOption (d)

    defuse, diffuse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

defuse, diffuse

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '4' i.e. defuse, diffuse .

Key Points

  • The sentence requires two homonyms, which are words that sound similar or the same but have different meanings.
  • In the given sentence, the first blank refers to calming or neutralizing the tension in the room, which matches the meaning of "defuse".
  • The second blank requires a word that fits the context of spreading into a larger conflict, which aligns with the meaning of "diffuse".
  • Both words are correctly used in their respective contexts in the sentence.

Correct sentence: The negotiator managed to defuse the tension in the room before it could diffuse into a full-blown conflict.

Additional Information

  • Defuse: Means to reduce danger, tension, or hostility. Often used in contexts like defusing a bomb or a tense situation.
  • Diffuse: Means to spread out over a wide area or among a large number of people. Often used in physical or metaphorical contexts like light diffusion or spreading ideas.
  • These homonyms are commonly confused because they sound similar but have distinct meanings.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

If in a specific coding system, DOG is coded as 231220, CAT is coded as 24267, and BIRD is coded as 2518923, then following this numerical coding pattern, what would FISH be coded as?

  1. AOption (a)

    2118819

  2. BOption (b)

    2018819

  3. COption (c)

    1918819

  4. DOption (d)

    2118821

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2118819

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: DOG is coded as 231220, CAT is coded as 24267, and BIRD is coded as 2518923.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each letter is coded by the place value of it's reverse letter.

Similarly,

Thus, FISH is coded as 2118819.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 27

In a particular code language, if PHILOSOPHER is coded as QIJMPTPQIFS and PSYCHOLOGIST is coded as QTZDIPMPHJTU, then what is the code for ANTHROPOLOGIST?

  1. AOption (a)

    BOUISPQPMPHJTU

  2. BOption (b)

    BOUISPQPMPGJTU

  3. COption (c)

    BOUIPSQPMPHITU

  4. DOption (d)

    BOUISPQPMPHITU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

BOUISPQPMPHJTU

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: PHILOSOPHER is coded as QIJMPTPQIFS and PSYCHOLOGIST is coded as QTZDIPMPHJTU.

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Thus, BOUISPQPMPHJTU is the code for ANTHROPOLOGIST.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 28

You are participating in a group assignment, and one member consistently submits their work late, impacting the team's progress. You've already spoken to them once. What's your next best course of action?

  1. AOption (a)

    Complete their work yourself to avoid further delays.

  2. BOption (b)

    Report them to the teacher immediately without another word.

  3. COption (c)

    Set clear, smaller deadlines with them and offer support, escalating to the teacher only if problems persist.

  4. DOption (d)

    Exclude them from the final presentation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Set clear, smaller deadlines with them and offer support, escalating to the teacher only if problems persist.

Why this answer is correct

Given: You are participating in a group assignment, and one member consistently submits their work late, impacting the team's progress. You've already spoken to them once.

1. Complete their work yourself to avoid further delays. → Does not follow (Because, doing their work yourself is not sustainable or fair.) 2. Report them to the teacher immediately without another word. → Does not follow (Because, escalating immediately without trying again is too harsh.) 3. Set clear, smaller deadlines with them and offer support, escalating to the teacher only if problems persist. → Follows (Setting clear deadlines, offering support, and escalating only if needed shows responsibility, teamwork, and good judgment.) 4. Exclude them from the final presentation → Does not follow (Because, excluding them is extreme and harms team dynamics.)

Thus, 'Set clear, smaller deadlines with them and offer support, escalating to the teacher only if problems persist.' is the best course of action.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 29

Your colleague is late because they are caring for a sick family member. Others resent them. What is socially intelligent action?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ignore and let tension rise 

  2. BOption (b)

    Support them and explain situation to team while suggesting temporary adjustments

  3. COption (c)

    Encourage team to complain

  4. DOption (d)

    Demand they quit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Support them and explain situation to team while suggesting temporary adjustments

Why this answer is correct

Given: You are participating in a group assignment, and one member is late because they are caring for a sick family member. Others resent them. What is the socially intelligent action?

  1. Ignore and let tension rise → Does not follow (Because ignoring the issue will worsen team conflict and reduce collaboration.)
  2. Support them and explain situation to team while suggesting temporary adjustments → Follows (Showing empathy, maintaining transparency, and suggesting practical adjustments reflects emotional intelligence and teamwork.)
  3. Encourage team to complain → Does not follow (Because this increases negativity and damages team harmony.)
  4. Demand they quit → Does not follow (Because this is insensitive and unfair given their personal situation.)

Thus, 'Support them and explain situation to team while suggesting temporary adjustments' is the best course of action.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 30

Pointing to a man in a photograph, Anjali said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother's father." How is the man in the photograph related to Anjali?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son

  2. BOption (b)

    Brother

  3. COption (c)

    Cousin

  4. DOption (d)

    Uncle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Brother

Why this answer is correct

Family Chart:

Given: Pointing to a man in a photograph, Anjali said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother's father." 

Thus, the Man is brother of Anjali.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 31

The price of an item increased from ₹800 to ₹960. What is the percentage increase?

  1. AOption (a)

    15%

  2. BOption (b)

    18%

  3. COption (c)

    20%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

20%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial price = ₹800

Final price = ₹960

Formula used:

Percentage increase = (Increase / Original value) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Increase = 960 − 800 = 160

⇒ Percentage increase = (160 / 800) × 100

⇒ = (1/5) × 100

⇒ = 20%

∴ Percentage increase = 20%

Question 32

A car travels at 60 km/hr for the first 2 hours and 80 km/hr for the next 3 hours. What is the average speed of the car for the entire journey?

  1. AOption (a)

    70 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    72 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    75 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    76 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

72 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Average Speed is the weighted average of speeds based on time: (S1t1 + S2t2) ÷ (t1 + t2).

Average Speed = (60 × 2 + 80 × 3) ÷ (2 + 3)

Average Speed = (120 + 240) ÷ 5 = 360 ÷ 5 = 72 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 72 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed1 = 60 km/hr, Time1 = 2 hr

Speed2 = 80 km/hr, Time2 = 3 hr

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Distance in first part = 60 × 2 = 120 km

⇒ Distance in second part = 80 × 3 = 240 km

⇒ Total Distance = 120 + 240 = 360 km

⇒ Total Time = 2 + 3 = 5 hr

⇒ Average Speed = 360 ÷ 5

⇒ Average Speed = 72 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 72 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Equal Distances

If a car travels equal distances at speeds S1 and S2, the average speed is 2S1S2 ÷ (S1 + S2).

Average Speed for Equal Time Intervals

If a car travels for equal time durations at speeds S1 and S2, the average speed is simply the arithmetic mean: (S1 + S2) ÷ 2.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Question 33

Few of the letters are given followed by a question mark (?) these letters option which can replace question mark. are following a specific pattern you have to give the correct option which can replace question mark.

Choose the next term: S, P, M, J, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    F

  2. BOption (b)

    G

  3. COption (c)

    H

  4. DOption (d)

    I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

G

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: S, P, M, J, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, G can replace question mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 34

If 689 32!16=691and697 32! 16 = 691 and 697 100! 10 = 707, then what is the value of 299 $ 39 ! 13?

  1. AOption (a)

    307

  2. BOption (b)

    302

  3. COption (c)

    296

  4. DOption (d)

    308

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

302

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First number + Second number ÷ Third number = Fourth Number

689 $ 32! 16 = 691 → 689 + 32 ÷ 16 = 689 + 2 = 691

697 $ 100! 10 = 707 → 697 + 100 ÷ 10 = 697 + 10 = 707

Similarly,

299 $ 39 ! 13 ? → 299 + 39 ÷ 13 = 299 + 3 = 302

Thus, the value of ? is 302.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 35

Few of the letters are given followed by a question mark (?) these letters are following a specific pattern you have to give the correct option which can replace question mark.

Which letter completes: X, T, P, L, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    F

  2. BOption (b)

    G

  3. COption (c)

    H

  4. DOption (d)

    I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

H

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: X, T, P, L, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, H can replace question mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 36

Which of the following numbers would replace the question mark (?) in the given number series?

11, 14, 19, 26, 35, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    25

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    45

  4. DOption (d)

    46

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

46

Why this answer is correct

Given: 11, 14, 19, 26, 35, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 46 will replace the question mark (?) in the given number series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 37

What will be the 50th term in the following series?

20, 24, 28, 32, ......

  1. AOption (a)

    216

  2. BOption (b)

    226

  3. COption (c)

    206

  4. DOption (d)

    236

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

216

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Series: 20, 24, 28, 32, ...

Formula used:

an = a + (n − 1) × d

Calculation:

⇒ First term (a) = 20

⇒ Common difference (d) = 24 − 20 = 4

⇒ n = 50

⇒ a50 = 20 + (50 − 1) × 4

⇒ = 20 + 49 × 4

⇒ = 20 + 196

⇒ = 216

∴ 50th term = 216

Question 38

Directions

Select the related letter from the given alternatives.

CGK: MQU:: WAE : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    GKO

  2. BOption (b)

    FJP

  3. COption (c)

    HLN

  4. DOption (d)

    MOP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

GKO

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: CGK: MQU:: WAE : ?

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Thus, WAE is related to GKO.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 39

Directions

Pick the correct options from the given alternatives

SIKIM :MIKIS:: LADAK : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    KDALA

  2. BOption (b)

    KADAL

  3. COption (c)

    JAMMU

  4. DOption (d)

    RIMSHA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

KADAL

Why this answer is correct

Given: SIKIM :MIKIS:: LADAK : ?

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

Thus LADAK is related to KADAL.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 40

Choose the correct letter cluster to complete the series.

ABCD, GHIJ, MΝΟΡ, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    STUV

  2. BOption (b)

    SRTU

  3. COption (c)

    STUX

  4. DOption (d)

    STVW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

STUV

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: ABCD, GHIJ, MΝΟΡ, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, STUV will complete the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 41

You are given a Master Address (MA) from official records. Your task is to identify the correct candidate address that matches exactly with the master address in terms of formatting, punctuation, spelling, and structure.

Master Address (MA): House No. 5-4-321/B, Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 342001

Candidate Addresses:

  1. AOption (a)

    House No. 5-4-321 / B Defence Colony, Main Bypass Rd, Jodhpur - 342001

  2. BOption (b)

    H.No. 5-4-321 / B Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 34200

  3. COption (c)

    House No. 5-4-321 / B Defence Col., Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 342001

  4. DOption (d)

    House No. 5-4-321/B, Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 342001

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

House No. 5-4-321/B, Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 342001

Why this answer is correct

AddressOptionsVerdict
House No. 5-4-321/B, Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 3420011House No. 5-4-321 / B Defence Colony, Main Bypass Rd, Jodhpur - 342001Instead of Road, it is written as Rd.
House No. 5-4-321/B, Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 3420012H.No. 5-4-321 / B Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 342001 is missing from the Pin Code.
House No. 5-4-321/B, Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 3420013House No. 5-4-321 / B Defence Col., Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 342001Instead of Colony, it is written as Col.
House No. 5-4-321/B, Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 3420014House No. 5-4-321/B, Defence Colony, Main Bypass Road, Jodhpur - 342001Exactly Same.

Thus, option 4 is exactly the same as the one given.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 42

You discover a colleague is taking credit for your work. What's the most professional judgement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Publicly shame them 

  2. BOption (b)

    Quit your job

  3. COption (c)

    Speak to your manager with evidenc

  4. DOption (d)

    Ignore it and work harder

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Speak to your manager with evidenc

Why this answer is correct

Given: You discover a colleague is taking credit for your work. 

  1. Publicly shame them → Does not follow (Because it is unprofessional and can escalate conflict.)
  2. Quit your job → Does not follow (Because it is an extreme reaction without trying to resolve the issue.)
  3. Speak to your manager with evidence → Follows (Addressing the issue professionally with proof ensures fairness and proper resolution.)
  4. Ignore it and work harder → Does not follow (Because ignoring allows the unfair situation to continue.)

Thus, 'Speak to your manager with evidence' is the most professional judgement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 43

Identify the pattern in the following sequence.

77, 221, 405, 629, 893

What is the next number in the sequence?

  1. AOption (a)

    1193

  2. BOption (b)

    1197

  3. COption (c)

    1199

  4. DOption (d)

    1147

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1197

Why this answer is correct

Given: 77, 221, 405, 629, 893

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 1197 is the next number in the sequence.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 44

Some conditional data is provided to you in form of statement you have to check which of the following statement are logically inference from given statement.

<br>

Statement: Every doctor who works at City Hospital has completed a residency program. Dr. Smith works at City Hospital. What can we infer about Dr. Smith?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dr. Smith is an experienced doctor

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. Smith has completed a residency program

  3. COption (c)

    Dr. Smith graduated from medical school

  4. DOption (d)

    Dr. Smith specializes in surgery

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dr. Smith has completed a residency program

Why this answer is correct

Given: Every doctor who works at City Hospital has completed a residency program. Dr. Smith works at City Hospital.

  1. Dr. Smith is an experienced doctor → Does not follow (Experience is not mentioned.)
  2. Dr. Smith has completed a residency program → Follows (Directly inferred from the given statement.)
  3. Dr. Smith graduated from medical school → Does not follow (Not explicitly stated, even though it may be assumed.)
  4. Dr. Smith specializes in surgery → Does not follow (No information about specialization.)

Thus, 'Dr. Smith has completed a residency program' is the correct inference.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 45

Some conditional data is provided to you in form of statement you have to check which of the following statement are logically inference from given statement.

<br>

Statement: Only registered voters can participate in the primary election. John participated in the primary election.

What must be true about John?

  1. AOption (a)

    John is over 18 years old 

  2. BOption (b)

    John is a registered voter

  3. COption (c)

    John supports a particular candidate

  4. DOption (d)

    John lives in this district

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

John is a registered voter

Why this answer is correct

Given: Only registered voters can participate in the primary election.

John participated in the primary election.

  1. John is over 18 years old → Does not follow (Age is not explicitly given.)
  2. John is a registered voter → Follows (Directly inferred from the statement.)
  3. John supports a particular candidate → Does not follow (No such information is provided.)
  4. John lives in this district → Does not follow (Not mentioned in the statement.)

Thus, 'John is a registered voter' is the correct inference.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 46

P started walking towards south. He turned 3 times right and 3 times left during his journey. In which direction he will be facing finally?

  1. AOption (a)

    West 

  2. BOption (b)

    North

  3. COption (c)

    South

  4. DOption (d)

    East

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

South

Why this answer is correct

Given: P started walking towards south. He turned 3 times right and 3 times left during his journey.

Thus, P is facing South.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 47

In the following question, four letter-number pairs are given. The letter-number on the left side of (-) is related to the letter-number on the right side of (-) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three pairs are similar on the basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives. 

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the number into its constituent digits. E.g.13 Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

    XR432 - ZU216

  2. BOption (b)

    FN504 - HQ252

  3. COption (c)

    TC386 - VF193

  4. DOption (d)

    BM290 - DP155

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

BM290 - DP155

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Letters follow the pattern +2. +3 and for numbers, first number divided by 2 equals second number.

1. XR432 - ZU216

Number: 432 ÷ 2 = 216

2. FN504 - HQ252

Number: 504 ÷ 2 = 252

3. TC386 - VF193

Number: 386 ÷ 2 = 193

4. BM290 - DP155

Number: 290 ÷ 2 = 145 ≠ 155

Thus, 'BM290 - DP155' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 48

In the following question, four letter-number pairs are given. The letter-number on the left side of (-) is related to the letter-number on the right side of (-) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three pairs are similar on the basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the number into its constituent digits. E.g.13 Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

  1. AOption (a)

    AS16 - HZ324

  2. BOption (b)

    PI18 - RK400

  3. COption (c)

    UH20 - SF484

  4. DOption (d)

    EW22 - DV676

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

EW22 - DV676

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number + 2)2 = Second number

1. AS16 - HZ324

Number: (16 + 2)2 = 182 = 324

2. PI18 - RK400

Number: (18 + 2)2 = 202 = 400

3. UH20 - SF484

Number: (20 + 2)2 = 222 = 484

4. EW22 - DV676

Number: (22 + 2)2 = 242 = 576 ≠ 676

Thus, 'EW22 - DV676' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 49

From the given alternatives, select the word that CANNOT be formed by using the letters of the given word.

MANUFACTURING

  1. AOption (a)

    FACING

  2. BOption (b)

    MARGIN

  3. COption (c)

    CRAFTING

  4. DOption (d)

    COMING

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

COMING

Why this answer is correct

Given: MANUFACTURING

1. FACING → MANUFACTURING → Word can be formed. 2. MARGIN → MANUFACTURING → Word can be formed. 3. CRAFTING → MANUFACTURING → Word can be formed. 4. COMING → MANUFACTURING → Word cannot be formed as 'O' is missing.

Thus, COMING cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 50

From the given alternatives, select the word that CANNOT be formed by using the letters of the given word.

INDEPENDENCE

  1. AOption (a)

    DINE

  2. BOption (b)

    PENDING

  3. COption (c)

    NICE

  4. DOption (d)

    PINE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PENDING

Why this answer is correct

Given: INDEPENDENCE

  1. DINE → INDEPENDENCE → Word can be formed.
  2. PENDING → INDEPENDENCE → Word cannot be formed as one extra ‘G’ is required which is not present.
  3. NICE → INDEPENDENCE → Word can be formed.
  4. PINE → INDEPENDENCE → Word can be formed.

Thus, PENDING cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

If (a + b)2 is 121 and ab =10, then find a²+b².

  1. AOption (a)

    99

  2. BOption (b)

    100

  3. COption (c)

    101

  4. DOption (d)

    102

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

101

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(a + b)² = 121

ab = 10

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculation:

⇒ (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

⇒ 121 = a² + b² + 2(10)

⇒ 121 = a² + b² + 20

⇒ a² + b² = 121 - 20

⇒ a² + b² = 101

∴ The correct answer is a² + b² = 101.

Question 52

A started a business with ₹30,000. B joined after x months with 40,000. At the end of the year, their profit-sharing ratio is 3:2. What is the value of x?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 months

  2. BOption (b)

    6 months

  3. COption (c)

    7 months

  4. DOption (d)

    8 months

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6 months

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A investment = 30000 for 12 months

B investment = 40000 for (12 - x) months

Profit ratio = 3 : 2

Formula Used:

Profit ∝ Investment × Time

Calculation:

⇒ A = 30000 × 12 = 360000

⇒ B = 40000 × (12 - x)

⇒ 360000 : 40000(12 - x) = 3 : 2

⇒ 360000 ÷ [40000(12 - x)] = 3 ÷ 2

⇒ 360000 × 2 = 3 × 40000(12 - x)

⇒ 720000 = 120000(12 - x)

⇒ 6 = 12 - x

⇒ x = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Question 53

If sec2θ = 4 then find the value of sin2 θ + cosec(90 - θ) where 0o < θ < 90o .

  1. AOption (a)

    (7/2)

  2. BOption (b)

    (15/4)

  3. COption (c)

    (11/4)

  4. DOption (d)

    (7/4)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(11/4)

Why this answer is correct

Given:

sec2θ = 4

0° < θ < 90°

Formula Used:

sec2θ = 1 ÷ cos2θ

sin2θ = 1 − cos2θ

cosec(90 − θ) = secθ

Calculation:

⇒ 1 ÷ cos2θ = 4

⇒ cos2θ = 1 ÷ 4

⇒ sin2θ = 1 − (1 ÷ 4) = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ secθ = 2

⇒ Required value = (3 ÷ 4) + 2

⇒ = 3 ÷ 4 + 8 ÷ 4 = 11 ÷ 4

∴ The correct answer is 11 ÷ 4.

Question 54

A certain sum, when invested for 2 years at 12% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, amounts to Rs. 39,200. Find the sum invested (in Rs.).

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 32,800

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 31,250

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 38,670

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 36,290

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 31,250

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Amount = 39200

Rate = 12%

Time = 2 years

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + R ÷ 100)n

Calculation:

⇒ 39200 = P × (1 + 12 ÷ 100)2

⇒ 39200 = P × (112 ÷ 100)2

⇒ 39200 = P × (12544 ÷ 10000)

⇒ P = 39200 × (10000 ÷ 12544)

⇒ P = 31250

∴ The correct answer is 31250.

Question 55

In a ∆ABC, side BC is extended to point 'D', such that angle ∠ACD = 119o . If ∠BAC = (4/3) X ∠ABC, then find the value of ∠BAC.

  1. AOption (a)

    40o

  2. BOption (b)

    72o

  3. COption (c)

    68o

  4. DOption (d)

    55o

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

68o

Why this answer is correct

Given:

∠ACD = 119°

∠BAC = (4 ÷ 3) × ∠ABC

Formula Used:

Exterior angle = Sum of opposite interior angles

Calculation:

⇒ ∠ACD = ∠BAC + ∠ABC

⇒ 119 = (4 ÷ 3 × ∠ABC) + ∠ABC

⇒ 119 = (4 ÷ 3 + 1) × ∠ABC

⇒ 119 = (7 ÷ 3) × ∠ABC

⇒ ∠ABC = 119 × (3 ÷ 7) = 51°

⇒ ∠BAC = (4 ÷ 3) × 51 = 68°

∴ The correct answer is 68°.

Question 56

3 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and are then filled with water. This operation is performed two more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in the cask to that of water is 8: 19. How much wine did the cask hold originally?

  1. AOption (a)

    11 litres

  2. BOption (b)

    6.88 litres

  3. COption (c)

    7.5 litres

  4. DOption (d)

    9 litres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9 litres

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Quantity removed each time = 3 litres

Operation repeated = 3 times

Final ratio (wine : water) = 8 : 19

Formula Used:

Remaining wine = Initial × (1 − removed ÷ total)n

Calculation:

⇒ Let initial quantity = x

⇒ Remaining wine = x × (1 − 3 ÷ x)3

⇒ Wine fraction = 8 ÷ (8 + 19) = 8 ÷ 27

⇒ x × (1 − 3 ÷ x)3 = (8 ÷ 27) × x

⇒ (1 − 3 ÷ x)3 = 8 ÷ 27

⇒ 1 − 3 ÷ x = 2 ÷ 3

⇒ 3 ÷ x = 1 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9 litres.

Question 57

If tanθ + cotθ = 2 and θ is an acute angle, find the value of tan3θ+ cot3θ.

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

tanθ + cotθ = 2

θ is acute

Formula Used:

(a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b)

tanθ × cotθ = 1

Calculation:

⇒ (tanθ + cotθ)3 = tan3θ + cot3θ + 3 × tanθ × cotθ × (tanθ + cotθ)

⇒ 23 = tan3θ + cot3θ + 3 × 1 × 2

⇒ 8 = tan3θ + cot3θ + 6

⇒ tan3θ + cot3θ = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Question 58

Two friends, 'A' and 'B' started running along a circular track in the same direction at the same time at 35 m/s and 21 m/s, respectively. If the length of the circular track is 3,500 metres, then find the time after the start at which they will meet each other for the first time.

  1. AOption (a)

    210 seconds

  2. BOption (b)

    250 seconds

  3. COption (c)

    330 seconds

  4. DOption (d)

    300 seconds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

250 seconds

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Speed of A = 35 m/s

Speed of B = 21 m/s

Track length = 3500 m

Formula Used:

Relative speed (same direction) = Difference of speeds

Time = Distance ÷ Relative speed

Calculation:

⇒ Relative speed = 35 − 21 = 14 m/s

⇒ Time = 3500 ÷ 14

⇒ Time = 250 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 250 seconds.

Question 59

Simplify the expression. [(5+2)2−(5−2)2]/5×2[{(\sqrt{5}+\sqrt{2})^2-(\sqrt{5}-\sqrt{2})^2}] /{\sqrt{5}\times\sqrt{2}}

  1. AOption (a)

    0

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Expression = [(√5 + √2)2 − (√5 − √2)2] ÷ (√5 × √2)

Formula Used:

(a + b)2 − (a − b)2 = 4ab

Calculation:

 [(√5 + √2)2 − (√5 − √2)2] ÷ (√5 × √2)

⇒ 4 × √5 × √2 ÷ (√5 × √2)

⇒ 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Question 60

Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 8.4 cm and 10.8 cm respectively, and the distance between the parallel sides is 7.5 cm.

  1. AOption (a)

    65 cm²

  2. BOption (b)

    91 cm²

  3. COption (c)

    67 cm²

  4. DOption (d)

    72 cm²

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

72 cm²

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Parallel sides = 8.4 cm and 10.8 cm

Height = 7.5 cm

Formula Used:

Area of trapezium = (1 ÷ 2) × (sum of parallel sides) × height

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of parallel sides = 8.4 + 10.8 = 19.2

⇒ Area = (1 ÷ 2) × 19.2 × 7.5

⇒ Area = 9.6 × 7.5

⇒ Area = 72 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 72 cm2.

Question 61

In a square, the length of the diagonal is 2342\sqrt{34} cm. Find the side of the square and then calculate its exact area.

  1. AOption (a)

    3113\sqrt{11} cm and 74 cm²

  2. BOption (b)

    2172\sqrt{17} cm and 68 cm²

  3. COption (c)

    5135\sqrt{13} cm and 77 cm²

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2172\sqrt{17} cm and 68 cm²

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In a square, the Side = Diagonal ÷ √2.

Side = 2√34 ÷ √2 = 2√(34/2) = 2√17 cm.

Area of square = (Diagonal)2 ÷ 2 = (2√34)2 ÷ 2 = (4 × 34) ÷ 2 = 68 cm2.

∴ The correct answer is 2√17 cm and 68 cm2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diagonal of the square (d) = 2√34 cm.

Formula Used:

  1. Diagonal (d) = Side (a) × √2
  2. Area (A) = Side2 = a2

Calculations:

⇒ Let the side of the square be 'a'.

⇒ d = a × √2

⇒ 2√34 = a × √2

⇒ a = (2√34) / √2

⇒ a = 2 × √(34 / 2)

⇒ a = 2√17 cm

⇒ Area of square = a2

⇒ Area = (2√17)2

⇒ Area = 4 × 17

⇒ Area = 68 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 2√17 cm and 68 cm2.

Additional Information

Relationship between Area and Diagonal

The Area of a square can be calculated directly from the diagonal (d) using the formula: Area = d2 / 2.

Pythagoras Theorem in Square

Since each angle in a square is 90°, the diagonal forms a right-angled triangle where a2 + a2 = d2, leading to d = a√2.

Perimeter of Square

The total boundary length or Perimeter is given by 4 × Side (4a).

Question 62

'P', 'Q', 'R' and 'S' have different amounts. 'Q' has 2.5 times the amount 'P' has. 'S' has 40% less than 'Q'. The amount 'R' has equals the average of all four persons. If the sum of amounts 'P' and 'R' is Rs. 4800, find the amount 'R' has.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 5200

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 1800

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 4200

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 3000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 3000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume P = 6 units.

Q = 2.5 × 6 = 15 units and S = 60% of 15 = 9 units.

Since R is the average of P, Q, R, S ⇒ 3R = P + Q + S = 6 + 15 + 9 = 30 units ⇒ R = 10 units.

Given P + R = 6 + 10 = 16 units = ₹4800 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹300.

Amount of R = 10 units × 300 = ₹3000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 3000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Q = 2.5P | S = Q − 40% of Q = 0.6Q | R = (P + Q + R + S) ÷ 4 | P + R = Rs. 4800

Calculations:

⇒ Expressing all in terms of P:

⇒ Q = 2.5P

⇒ S = 0.6 × 2.5P = 1.5P

⇒ R = (P + 2.5P + R + 1.5P) ÷ 4

⇒ 4R = 5P + R

⇒ 3R = 5P ⇒ P = (3 ÷ 5)R = 0.6R

⇒ Given P + R = 4800

⇒ 0.6R + R = 4800

⇒ 1.6R = 4800

⇒ R = 4800 ÷ 1.6 = 3000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 3000.

Additional Information

Average Property

If one number in a set is equal to the average of all numbers in the set, then that number is also equal to the average of the remaining numbers.

Percentage Change

To find a value after an x% decrease, multiply the initial value by (1 − x/100). For a 40% decrease, multiplying factor is 0.6.

Ratio Balancing

Always relate all variables to a single common variable (like P or R) to simplify multi-variable linear equations quickly.

Question 63

A shopkeeper sells 15 kg of sugar for 450 and earns a profit equal to the selling price of 3 kg of sugar. What is the profit percentage?

  1. AOption (a)

    20%

  2. BOption (b)

    25%

  3. COption (c)

    30%

  4. DOption (d)

    15%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Selling price of 15 kg sugar = 450

Profit = Selling price of 3 kg sugar

Formula Used:

Profit percentage = (Profit ÷ Cost price) × 100

Cost price = Selling price - Profit

Calculation:

⇒ Selling price of 1 kg sugar = 450 ÷ 15

⇒ Selling price of 1 kg sugar = 30

⇒ Profit = Selling price of 3 kg sugar = 3 × 30

⇒ Profit = 90

⇒ Cost price = Selling price - Profit

⇒ Cost price = 450 - 90

⇒ Cost price = 360

⇒ Profit percentage = (Profit ÷ Cost price) × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = (90 ÷ 360) × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = 25%

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Question 64

A person sells two items for ₹200 each. He gains 25% on one and loses 25% on the other. What is his total loss percentage in the entire transaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    5.00%

  2. BOption (b)

    6.25%

  3. COption (c)

    8.50%

  4. DOption (d)

    10.00%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6.25%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Gain = 25%

Loss = 25%

Formula Used:

Net loss % = r2 ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ r = 25

⇒ Net loss % = 252 ÷ 100

⇒ Net loss % = 625 ÷ 100

⇒ Net loss % = 6.25%

∴ The correct answer is 6.25%.

Question 65

The profits of three partners are in the ratio 2:3:4. If their profits increase by 50%, 40%, and 30%, what is the new ratio of profits?

  1. AOption (a)

    15 : 21 : 26

  2. BOption (b)

    3:4:5

  3. COption (c)

    10:12:13

  4. DOption (d)

    12:14:16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

15 : 21 : 26

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial ratio = 2 : 3 : 4

Increase = 50%, 40%, 30%

Formula Used:

New value = Original × (1 + increase/100)

Calculation:

⇒ 2 × 100 = 200

⇒ 3 × 100 = 300

⇒ 4 × 100 = 400

⇒ 200 × 150 ÷ 100 = 300

⇒ 300 × 140 ÷ 100 = 420

⇒ 400 × 130 ÷ 100 = 520

⇒ Ratio = 300 : 420 : 520

⇒ Divide by 20

⇒ Ratio = 15 : 21 : 26

∴ The correct answer is 15 : 21 : 26.

Question 66

The average age of 24 students is 15 years. If the teacher's age is included, the average rises by 1 year. Later, another teacher joins, and the average rises by 1 more year. What is the age of the second teacher?

  1. AOption (a)

    42 years

  2. BOption (b)

    44 years

  3. COption (c)

    40 years

  4. DOption (d)

    46 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

42 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of students = 24

Initial average = 15

New average after first teacher = 16

New average after second teacher = 17

Formula Used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Initial sum = 24 × 15 = 360

⇒ New sum (with 1 teacher) = 25 × 16 = 400

⇒ First teacher age = 400 - 360 = 40

⇒ New sum (with 2 teachers) = 26 × 17 = 442

⇒ Second teacher age = 442 - 400 = 42

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Question 67

A train travels from Station A to Station B. If it travels at 80 km/h, it reaches 1 hour early. If it travels at 60 km/h, it reaches 1 hour late. What is the distance between the two stations?

  1. AOption (a)

    360 km

  2. BOption (b)

    400 km

  3. COption (c)

    480 km

  4. DOption (d)

    500 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

480 km

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

The Speed Ratio is 80 : 60 = 4 : 3.

Since distance is constant, the Time Ratio is the inverse = 3 : 4.

The difference in time units is 4 − 3 = 1 unit, which corresponds to 2 hours (1 hr early to 1 hr late).

Actual time taken at 80 km/h = 3 units × 2 = 6 hours.

Distance = Speed × Time = 80 km/h × 6 hours = 480 km.

∴ The correct answer is 480 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed 1 (S1) = 80 km/h (reaches 1 hr early)

Speed 2 (S2) = 60 km/h (reaches 1 hr late)

Total time difference (ΔT) = 1 − (−1) = 2 hours

Formula Used:

Distance = [(S1 × S2) / (S1 − S2)] × ΔT

Calculations:

⇒ Distance = (80 × 60) / (80 − 60) × 2

⇒ Distance = (4800 / 20) × 2

⇒ Distance = 240 × 2

⇒ Distance = 480 km

⇒ Therefore, the correct option is (3).

∴ The correct answer is 480 km.

Additional Information

Relationship between Speed and Time

When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time (Speed ∝ 1/Time). If speed increases by a factor of x/y, time decreases by the reciprocal factor.

Average Speed Formula

For a round trip or two equal distances with speeds x and y, the average speed is given by (2 × x × y) / (x + y).

Time Difference Calculation

When comparing 'early' and 'late' timings, the total time difference is the sum of the early and late durations (Early + Late).

Question 68

After two successive increments, a person's salary became 156.25% of the original salary. If the percentage increase in the second increment was equal to that in the first increment, then what was the percentage of each increment?

  1. AOption (a)

    20%

  2. BOption (b)

    22%

  3. COption (c)

    25%

  4. DOption (d)

    30%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

25%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Final Salary to Original Salary = 156.25 : 100 = 1.5625.

For two equal successive increments, the Multiplying Factor for each step is √(Total Change Factor).

Step Factor = √1.5625 = 1.25.

Percentage increase = (1.25 − 1) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given: Final salary = 156.25% of original salary. Number of increments = 2. Both increments are equal.

Formula Used: Final Value = Initial Value × (1 + r/100)n

Let the Original Salary be 100 and Increment be x%.

⇒ Final Salary = 100 × (1 + x/100) × (1 + x/100)

⇒ 156.25 = 100 × (1 + x/100)2

⇒ 156.25 / 100 = (1 + x/100)2

⇒ 1.5625 = (1 + x/100)2

⇒ √1.5625 = 1 + x/100

⇒ 1.25 = 1 + x/100

⇒ x/100 = 1.25 − 1 = 0.25

⇒ x = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Formula

For two successive changes of a% and b%, the net percentage change is given by the formula [a + b + (ab/100)]%.

Reverse Square Root Method

When n equal successive changes result in a total factor F, each single change factor is found by taking the nth root of F (i.e., F1/n).

Compounding Relationship

Successive increments follow the same logic as Compound Interest, where the principal increases by a fixed rate over multiple periods.

Question 69

A town has a present population of 2,40,000. Every year the population increases by a birth rate of 12% and decreases by a death rate of 7%. Find the population of the town at the end of 3 years.

  1. AOption (a)

    2,92,500

  2. BOption (b)

    2,98,000

  3. COption (c)

    2,77,830

  4. DOption (d)

    3,27,830

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2,77,830

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial population = 240000

Birth rate = 12%

Death rate = 7%

Time = 3 years

Formula Used:

Net increase = (1 + increase/100) × (1 - decrease/100)

Population after t years = P × (net factor)t

Calculation:

⇒ Net factor = 1.12 × 0.93

⇒ Net factor = 1.0416

⇒ Population after 3 years = 240000 × (1.0416)3

⇒ (1.0416)2 = 1.085

⇒ (1.0416)3 = 1.130

⇒ Population = 240000 × 1.130

⇒ Population = 271200

∴ The correct answer is 271200.

Question 70

A can complete a work in 8 days, while B can do it in 16 days. How many days will they take together?

  1. AOption (a)

    4 days

  2. BOption (b)

    5135\frac{1}{3} days

  3. COption (c)

    6 days

  4. DOption (d)

    7497\frac{4}{9} days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5135\frac{1}{3} days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A = 8 days

B = 16 days

Formula Used:

Work = LCM of times

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Total time = Total work ÷ Total efficiency

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 8 and 16 = 16

⇒ Efficiency of A = 16 ÷ 8 = 2

⇒ Efficiency of B = 16 ÷ 16 = 1

⇒ Total efficiency = 2 + 1 = 3

⇒ Time = 16 ÷ 3

⇒ Time = 5135\frac{1}{3}

∴ The correct answer is 5135\frac{1}{3}.

Question 71

A shopkeeper offers two successive discounts of 20% and 10% on an item. If the marked price of the item is 1,200, what is its final selling price?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹864

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹900

  3. COption (c)

    ₹960

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹880

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹864

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Marked price = 1200

First discount = 20%

Second discount = 10%

Formula Used:

Successive discount price = MP × (1 - d1/100) × (1 - d2/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Selling price = 1200 × (1 - 20/100) × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ Selling price = 1200 × 0.8 × 0.9

⇒ Selling price = 1200 × 0.72

⇒ Selling price = 864

∴ The correct answer is 864.

Question 72

A shopkeeper offers two successive discounts of 25% and 10% on an item with a marked price of ₹1,200. What is the effective discount percentage offered to the customer?

  1. AOption (a)

    30%

  2. BOption (b)

    35%

  3. COption (c)

    32.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    28.5%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

32.5%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

First discount = 25%

Second discount = 10%

Formula Used:

Effective discount % = a + b - (a × b ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Effective discount = 25 + 10 - (25 × 10 ÷ 100)

⇒ Effective discount = 35 - (250 ÷ 100)

⇒ Effective discount = 35 - 2.5

⇒ Effective discount = 32.5%

∴ The correct answer is 32.5%.

Question 73

An equilateral triangular plot of land has a side length of 75 meters. A landowner wants to put a rope around the entire plot. If the rope costs ₹15 per meter, what is the total expense?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹3,125

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹3,250

  3. COption (c)

    ₹3,375

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹3,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹3,375

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle = 75 m

Cost per meter = 15

Formula Used:

Perimeter of equilateral triangle = 3 × side

Total cost = Perimeter × cost per meter

Calculation:

⇒ Perimeter = 3 × 75 = 225

⇒ Total cost = 225 × 15 = 3375

∴ The correct answer is 3375.

Question 74

A milk seller claims to sell milk at its actual cost price, yet he secretly adds water to it and thus secures a 25% profit. In what proportion of water to milk must the mixture be prepared to yield this gain?

  1. AOption (a)

    1:3

  2. BOption (b)

    1:4

  3. COption (c)

    1:5

  4. DOption (d)

    4:1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1:4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Profit = 25%

Formula Used:

Profit % = (Water ÷ Milk) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ 25 = (Water ÷ Milk) × 100

⇒ Water ÷ Milk = 25 ÷ 100

⇒ Water ÷ Milk = 1 ÷ 4

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 4.

Question 75

Arrange in descending order: 103, 6, 1206\sqrt[3]{10},\ \sqrt{6},\ \sqrt[6]{120}

  1. AOption (a)

    103, 1206, 6\sqrt[3]{10},\ \sqrt[6]{120},\ \sqrt{6}

  2. BOption (b)

    1206, 103, 6\sqrt[6]{120},\ \sqrt[3]{10},\ \sqrt{6}

  3. COption (c)

    6, 1206, 103\sqrt{6},\ \sqrt[6]{120},\ \sqrt[3]{10}

  4. DOption (d)

    103, 6, 1206\sqrt[3]{10},\ \sqrt{6},\ \sqrt[6]{120}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6, 1206, 103\sqrt{6},\ \sqrt[6]{120},\ \sqrt[3]{10}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Values = ∛10 , √6 , 6th root of 120

Formula Used:

a1/n form for comparison

Calculation:

⇒ ∛10 = 101/3 ≈ 2.15

⇒ √6 = 61/2 ≈ 2.45

⇒ 1201/6 ≈ 2.22

⇒ Descending order: 2.45 > 2.22 > 2.15

∴ The correct answer is 6, 1206, 103\sqrt{6},\ \sqrt[6]{120},\ \sqrt[3]{10}.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

Which of the following influential philosophers were born in Kerala in the eighth century?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chaitnya

  2. BOption (b)

    Ramanuja 

  3. COption (c)

    Shankara

  4. DOption (d)

    Namdev 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Shankara

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shankara.

Key Points

  • Shankara, also known as Adi Shankaracharya, was an influential Indian philosopher and theologian who was born in Kalady, Kerala, in the 8th century CE.
  • He is renowned for his work in Advaita Vedanta, a school of Hindu philosophy that emphasizes the non-dual nature of reality, asserting that the individual soul (Atman) and the ultimate reality (Brahman) are one and the same.
  • Shankara extensively traveled across India to spread his teachings, debate scholars, and establish mathas (monastic centers) to preserve and propagate his philosophical ideas.
  • He wrote numerous commentaries on foundational Hindu scriptures such as the Upanishads, Bhagavad Gita, and Brahma Sutras, which remain influential in Hindu philosophy.
  • Shankara's profound contributions had a lasting impact on Hinduism, revitalizing Vedic thought and providing a philosophical framework that continues to be studied and revered.

Additional Information

  • Chaitanya:
  • Born in 1486 CE in Bengal, Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a prominent saint and the founder of the Gaudiya Vaishnavism tradition.
  • He is known for popularizing the worship of Lord Krishna and the chanting of the Hare Krishna mantra.
  • Chaitanya's contributions were significant in the Bhakti Movement, but he was not born in Kerala or the 8th century.
  • Ramanuja:
  • Ramanuja, born in 1017 CE in Tamil Nadu, was a theologian and philosopher of the Vishishtadvaita (qualified non-dualism) school of thought.
  • He was a proponent of devotion to Lord Vishnu and played a pivotal role in the Bhakti Movement.
  • Though influential, he was not born in Kerala or the 8th century.
  • Namdev:
  • Namdev was a 15th-century Bhakti saint and poet from Maharashtra.
  • He composed devotional songs dedicated to Lord Vitthal (a form of Krishna) and played a significant role in the Bhakti Movement.
  • Namdev was not born in Kerala or the 8th century.
  • Advaita Vedanta Philosophy:
  • Advaita Vedanta is one of the oldest and most influential schools of Hindu philosophy.
  • It emphasizes the unity of the individual soul (Atman) and the ultimate reality (Brahman), rejecting dualism.
  • Shankara's teachings and commentaries played a crucial role in systematizing and popularizing this philosophy.

Important Points

  • Kalady:
  • Kalady is a village in Ernakulam district, Kerala, and is considered the birthplace of Adi Shankaracharya.
  • Today, it is a significant pilgrimage site for followers of Shankara and Advaita Vedanta.
  • Shankara's Mathas:
  • Shankara established four major mathas in India: Sringeri (South), Dwaraka (West), Puri (East), and Badrinath (North).
  • These mathas continue to play a vital role in preserving and propagating Vedic knowledge and Advaita philosophy.
  • Shankara's Key Works:
  • His famous works include commentaries on the Brahma Sutras (Brahmasutrabhashya), Bhagavad Gita, and various Upanishads.
  • He also composed devotional hymns such as Bhaja Govindam and Soundarya Lahari.

Question 77

Who was the constitutional advisor to the Constituent assembly of India?  

  1. AOption (a)

    B.N. Rau 

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. Rajendra Prasad 

  3. COption (c)

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 

  4. DOption (d)

    Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B.N. Rau 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is B.N. Rau.

Key Points

  • B.N. Rau, also known as Benegal Narsing Rau, was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India.
  • He played a significant role in drafting the Indian Constitution, offering legal and procedural advice to the assembly.
  • B.N. Rau prepared the initial draft of the Constitution, which was later revised by the Drafting Committee headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
  • His expertise in constitutional law was invaluable, as he studied various constitutions globally, such as those of the USA, UK, Ireland, and Canada, and incorporated suitable elements into the Indian Constitution.
  • B.N. Rau also advised on incorporating provisions related to fundamental rights, directive principles, and the structure of government.

Additional Information

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar:
  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution.
  • He is widely regarded as the "Father of the Indian Constitution" for his pivotal role in finalizing the draft.
  • He incorporated progressive provisions such as equality before the law, abolition of untouchability, and protection of fundamental rights.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad:
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India.
  • He played an important role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the assembly and overseeing the debates and discussions.
  • He later became the first President of India on 26 January 1950.
  • Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru:
  • Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of independent India.
  • He played a vital role in shaping the political and economic framework of India post-independence.
  • He introduced the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly, which laid the foundation for the Indian Constitution.
  • Role of the Constituent Assembly:
  • The Constituent Assembly was tasked with drafting the Constitution of India after independence.
  • It held its first meeting on 9 December 1946, with Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha as its interim president.
  • The final draft of the Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into effect on 26 January 1950.

Important Points

  • B.N. Rau’s International Influence:
  • Rau consulted leaders and experts from other countries, including Justice Felix Frankfurter of the USA, to gain insights into constitutional frameworks.
  • He visited countries like the USA, UK, Ireland, and Canada to study their constitutions and gather inputs for drafting India's Constitution.
  • Drafting Committee:
  • The Drafting Committee was formed on 29 August 1947 under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
  • The committee consisted of seven members, including prominent leaders like Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, K.M. Munshi, and N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar.
  • Adoption of the Constitution:
  • The Indian Constitution is the longest written constitution in the world, with 395 articles, 8 schedules, and numerous amendments.
  • It is a unique blend of rigidity and flexibility, allowing for amendments to adapt to changing times.

Question 78

Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from Australia?

  1. AOption (a)

    Concept of Concurrent list 

  2. BOption (b)

    Amendment of the Constitution

  3. COption (c)

    Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme court

  4. DOption (d)

    Removal of Supreme Court and High court judges

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Concept of Concurrent list 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Concept of Concurrent List.

Key Points

  • Concurrent List: The idea of a Concurrent List was borrowed from the Australian Constitution. It allows both the Centre and the States to legislate on subjects listed under this category.
  • In the Indian Constitution, the Concurrent List is a part of the Seventh Schedule, which contains 52 items (after the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976). Examples include education, marriage, adoption, and trade unions.
  • The Concurrent List ensures that both levels of government can address issues that require cooperation between the Centre and States, fostering a spirit of federalism with central oversight. Hence, this statement is correct.
  • This principle was introduced in India to ensure uniformity and consistency in legislation across various states while giving states autonomy in certain matters.
  • Australia’s Constitution also includes a Concurrent List, reflecting the federal nature of governance and ensuring shared legislative powers between the Commonwealth and States.

Additional Information

  • Amendment of the Constitution:
  • The procedure for amendment in the Indian Constitution is inspired by the South African Constitution, not Australia. It involves a rigorous process requiring approval by a special majority in Parliament and, in certain cases, ratification by half of the state legislatures. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • Article 368 of the Indian Constitution governs the amendment process, ensuring a balance between rigidity and flexibility.
  • Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
  • This feature is derived from the Government of India Act, 1935, and not Australia. Article 143 of the Indian Constitution provides the President the power to seek advice from the Supreme Court on matters of public importance. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • The advisory jurisdiction helps resolve legal ambiguities and guides legislative and executive actions.
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High Court Judges:
  • The mechanism for removal of judges in India is based on the United States Constitution, not Australia. The process involves impeachment under Article 124(4) and Article 217(1)(b). Hence, this statement is incorrect.
  • Judges can be removed only on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
  • Seventh Schedule:
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. These lists define the distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States.
  • The Concurrent List allows shared jurisdiction on subjects like education, criminal law, and marriage, ensuring cooperation between different levels of government.
  • Federal Features of Indian Constitution:
  • India adopted several federal principles from countries like the USA, Australia, and Canada. The Concurrent List is one such principle borrowed from Australia.
  • Other federal features include a written constitution, division of powers, and an independent judiciary.

Important Points

  • Historical Significance:
  • The concept of the Concurrent List was introduced to ensure cooperative federalism and avoid conflicts between the Centre and States.
  • This list was expanded in India post the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, demonstrating its importance in governance.
  • Examples of Concurrent List Subjects:
  • Education, forests, trade unions, marriage, and adoption are some subjects under the Concurrent List.
  • Legislation on these subjects requires coordination between the Centre and States to maintain uniformity.
  • Global Influence:
  • The Concurrent List concept has been adopted in other federal countries like Australia, emphasizing the shared legislative powers.
  • India adapted this principle to suit its unique socio-political context and governance needs.

Question 79

In May 2024, India signed a 10 year contract with _____  for the operation of Chabahar Port.

  1. AOption (a)

    Pakistan

  2. BOption (b)

    Iran

  3. COption (c)

    Bangladesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Yemen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Iran

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Iran.

Key Points

  • Chabahar Port is located in southeastern Iran on the Gulf of Oman and is strategically significant as it provides India with a direct trade route to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
  • In May 2024, India signed a 10-year contract with Iran to operate the Chabahar Port. This agreement strengthens bilateral ties between the two nations and enhances India's connectivity to the region.
  • The Chabahar Port is a key component of India's strategic interests, particularly in countering China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) and accessing landlocked markets like Afghanistan and Central Asia.
  • The development and operation of the port are part of the India-Iran-Afghanistan trilateral agreement, signed in 2016, to establish an international transport and transit corridor.
  • India has invested significantly in the port's development and infrastructure to facilitate trade and economic cooperation, including upgrading the port's capacity to handle larger shipments.

Additional Information

  • Chabahar Port's Strategic Importance:
  • Chabahar is the only Iranian port with direct access to the Indian Ocean, making it a vital geopolitical asset for India.
  • The port provides India with an alternative route to Afghanistan, bypassing Pakistan, which has denied India overland access.
  • Chabahar also serves as a counterbalance to China's involvement in Pakistan's Gwadar Port, located just 80 km away.
  • India-Iran Relations:
  • India and Iran share historical and cultural ties, and their cooperation has been instrumental in regional stability and economic development.
  • Chabahar Port is a cornerstone of this partnership, enhancing economic connectivity and security in the region.
  • Economic and Trade Benefits:
  • The port enables India to export goods to Afghanistan and Central Asia, including wheat, medicines, and construction materials.
  • It also facilitates the import of natural resources like crude oil and minerals from Iran and Central Asian countries.
  • Challenges in Development:
  • Sanctions on Iran by the United States have posed challenges to the port's development and India's investments.
  • Despite these challenges, India has received certain waivers from the U.S. to continue its involvement in the Chabahar Port project.

Important Points

  • Geopolitical Significance:
  • Chabahar Port strengthens India's position in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) and counters China's growing influence in the region.
  • It also serves as a key node in India's International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) initiative, aimed at boosting connectivity with Russia, Europe, and Central Asia.
  • Historical Development:
  • The trilateral agreement between India, Iran, and Afghanistan was signed in May 2016 in Tehran.
  • India has already completed the development of the first phase of the port, known as Shahid Beheshti Terminal.
  • Key Investments:
  • India has invested approximately USD 85 million in the port's development.
  • Additionally, India has committed to providing financial and technical assistance for rail and road connectivity projects linked to the port.

Question 80

Mission "SAGAR" is an initiative launched by which of the following country to extend necessary assistance, including medical and food supplies to countries in Indian Ocean Region?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bangladesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Australia

  3. COption (c)

    India

  4. DOption (d)

    Japan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

  • Mission SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) is an initiative launched by the Government of India in May 2020 to provide assistance to countries in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
  • The mission primarily focuses on delivering critical assistance, including medical supplies, food, and essential goods, to IOR countries during emergencies like the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • Under this initiative, India has extended its support to several nations, including Maldives, Sri Lanka, Seychelles, Mauritius, and Madagascar, showcasing its commitment to regional cooperation and security.
  • INS Kesari, an Indian naval ship, was deployed for Mission SAGAR to deliver medical and humanitarian aid to IOR countries.
  • Mission SAGAR aligns with India’s broader foreign policy goals, emphasizing the significance of neighborhood first, act east policy, and fostering maritime security in the Indian Ocean Region.

Additional Information

  • Indian Ocean Region (IOR):
  • The Indian Ocean Region includes countries bordering the Indian Ocean, such as India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Madagascar, Mauritius, Seychelles, and East African nations.
  • The region is critical for global trade and maritime security, with major shipping lanes passing through it.
  • India plays a key role in the region due to its strategic location and is committed to ensuring peace, stability, and prosperity in the IOR.
  • India’s Neighborhood First Policy:
  • This policy emphasizes strengthening ties with India’s neighboring countries by offering developmental assistance and fostering regional cooperation.
  • Mission SAGAR is a direct reflection of this policy, showcasing India’s commitment to supporting its neighbors in times of need.
  • INS Kesari:
  • INS Kesari, an amphibious assault ship of the Indian Navy, played a significant role in Mission SAGAR by delivering aid to IOR nations.
  • The supplies included essential medicines, food items, and COVID-19-related equipment, highlighting India’s capability and willingness to assist its maritime neighbors.
  • India’s Role in Maritime Security:
  • India is a strong advocate of freedom of navigation, maritime security, and regional stability in the Indian Ocean.
  • Initiatives like Mission SAGAR reflect India’s commitment to being a net security provider in the region.

Important Points

  • Mission SAGAR-II:
  • In November 2020, India launched Mission SAGAR-II to provide humanitarian assistance to countries in the IOR affected by the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • Under this phase, India delivered aid to countries like Sudan, Djibouti, and Eritrea, further strengthening its role as a humanitarian partner in the region.
  • Significance of Mission SAGAR:
  • It enhances India’s soft power diplomacy and strengthens its relationships with IOR countries.
  • The mission demonstrates India’s commitment to fostering regional cooperation and addressing shared challenges like health emergencies and natural disasters.

Question 81

Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kailash Satyarthi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Amartya Sen

  3. COption (c)

    Subrahmanyan  Chandrasekhar

  4. DOption (d)

    Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kailash Satyarthi 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kailash Satyarthi.

Key Points

  • Kailash Satyarthi, an Indian social reformer, was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 jointly with Malala Yousafzai for their struggle against the suppression of children and young people and for the right of all children to education.
  • Satyarthi founded the Bachpan Bachao Andolan (Save the Childhood Movement) in 1980, which has rescued thousands of children from child labor, trafficking, and other forms of exploitation.
  • His efforts have focused on ensuring that children have access to quality education and live free from exploitation, particularly in India.
  • The Nobel Committee recognized his work as an important contribution to peace-building by addressing the root causes of societal conflicts such as inequality and exploitation.
  • Through his advocacy, Kailash Satyarthi has influenced global policies on child labor, contributing to international conventions such as the International Labour Organization’s Convention No. 182 on the worst forms of child labor.

Additional Information

  • Amartya Sen:
  • Amartya Sen is an Indian economist and philosopher, widely known for his work on welfare economics, poverty, and social justice.
  • He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998, not the Nobel Peace Prize, for his contributions to welfare economics.
  • Sen’s work emphasizes the importance of capabilities and freedoms in development, highlighting how economic policies impact human lives.
  • Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar:
  • Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar was an Indian-American astrophysicist who won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1983 for his theoretical studies of the physical processes important to the structure and evolution of stars.
  • His discovery of the Chandrasekhar Limit is fundamental to understanding the life cycle of stars, including white dwarfs.
  • Venkatraman Ramakrishnan:
  • Venkatraman Ramakrishnan, an Indian-American structural biologist, won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2009 for studies of the structure and function of the ribosome.
  • His work has advanced our understanding of how genetic information is translated into proteins, which is essential in biology and medicine.
  • Nobel Peace Prize:
  • The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually to individuals, groups, or organizations that have made significant contributions to peace.
  • It was established by Alfred Nobel’s will in 1895 and is presented by the Norwegian Nobel Committee.
  • Notable laureates include Martin Luther King Jr., Malala Yousafzai, Nelson Mandela, and Kailash Satyarthi.

Important Points

  • Kailash Satyarthi’s Global Advocacy:
  • He has launched global campaigns such as Global March Against Child Labour, which led to the adoption of the ILO Convention 182.
  • Satyarthi has been an advocate for the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, particularly those relating to education and child rights.
  • Nobel Peace Prize Selection Criteria:
  • The prize is awarded to those who have worked towards fraternity between nations, the abolition or reduction of standing armies, and the establishment and promotion of peace congresses.
  • Nominees are evaluated based on their impact on creating lasting peace and addressing issues such as inequality, education, and human rights.

Question 82

Which 7th-century mathematician and astronomer revolutionized the study of numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Patanjali 

  2. BOption (b)

    Salim Ali

  3. COption (c)

    Brahmagupta

  4. DOption (d)

    Srikrishna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brahmagupta

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brahmagupta.

Key Points

  • Brahmagupta was a renowned Indian mathematician and astronomer born in 598 CE in Gurjaradesa, India, modern-day Rajasthan.
  • He is widely recognized for his revolutionary contributions to the study of numbers, especially his groundbreaking work in zero and its mathematical properties.
  • Brahmagupta authored the famous treatise “Brahmasphutasiddhanta”, which is considered one of the earliest texts to define zero as a number and discuss its operations systematically.
  • He introduced rules for arithmetic operations involving zero and negative numbers, laying the foundation for modern mathematical concepts such as algebra.
  • In addition to mathematics, Brahmagupta contributed extensively to astronomy, including calculations of planetary motion, eclipses, and the computation of the Earth's circumference.

Additional Information

  • Brahmasphutasiddhanta:
  • This treatise was written in 628 CE, and it is one of the earliest known texts in mathematics and astronomy.
  • It contains rules for solving quadratic equations, calculating square roots, and performing arithmetic operations with positive and negative numbers.
  • It defined zero as a number and explained its use in calculations, making Brahmagupta a pioneer in the field.
  • Contributions to Astronomy:
  • Brahmagupta calculated the positions of planets and their movements, contributing significantly to Indian astronomy.
  • He devised methods for predicting solar and lunar eclipses with remarkable accuracy.
  • His work on celestial mechanics influenced later astronomers in India and abroad.
  • Mathematical Innovations:
  • He introduced the concept of negative numbers and provided rules for their operations, a significant advancement in algebra.
  • Brahmagupta formulated methods for calculating the area of cyclic quadrilaterals and solving linear and quadratic equations.
  • He developed algorithms for performing arithmetic operations, which were later adopted by other civilizations.
  • Legacy:
  • Brahmagupta's work had a profound impact on mathematics and astronomy, influencing scholars such as Al-Khwarizmi and others in the Islamic Golden Age.
  • His ideas were later transmitted to Europe through Arabic translations, contributing to the development of modern mathematics.
  • He is regarded as one of the greatest mathematicians of ancient India and a pioneer in the global history of mathematics.

Important Points

  • Zero:
  • Brahmagupta was the first to treat zero as a number, defining its mathematical operations like addition, subtraction, and multiplication.
  • He described rules for using zero in equations, laying the foundation for its use in modern algebra and calculus.
  • Negative Numbers:
  • He introduced concepts of negative numbers and their operations, including rules for addition, subtraction, and multiplication.
  • This was a revolutionary idea that expanded the scope of mathematics significantly.
  • Impact on Global Mathematics:
  • Brahmagupta's work influenced Islamic mathematicians like Al-Khwarizmi, whose texts introduced Indian mathematics to Europe.
  • His contributions laid the groundwork for advancements in algebra, geometry, and arithmetic in later civilizations.

Question 83

In July 2025, who has been appointed as Indian Ambassador to the United States?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vijay Keshav 

  2. BOption (b)

    Vinay Mohan Kwatra

  3. COption (c)

    Vikrant Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    Amandeep Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vinay Mohan Kwatra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vinay Mohan Kwatra.

Key Points

  • Vinay Mohan Kwatra is a seasoned Indian diplomat with extensive experience in foreign service, especially with regards to India-US relations and multilateral diplomacy.
  • He was appointed as the Indian Ambassador to the United States in July 2025, succeeding his predecessor to strengthen bilateral ties between India and the US.
  • Prior to this assignment, Vinay Mohan Kwatra has held prominent roles, including being the Foreign Secretary of India, showcasing his expertise in handling critical diplomatic affairs.
  • His appointment comes at a crucial time when India and the United States are enhancing their strategic partnership in areas such as defense, technology, trade, and global security.
  • Kwatra is known for his deep understanding of geopolitics and his ability to navigate complex international relations, which makes him an ideal choice for this prestigious position.

Additional Information

  • Vinay Mohan Kwatra's Background:
  • He is a 1988 batch officer of the Indian Foreign Service (IFS).
  • He has served in various capacities, including as India's Ambassador to Nepal and France, showcasing his experience in handling diplomatic responsibilities.
  • Kwatra has also worked in the Prime Minister's Office (PMO), contributing to India's foreign policy strategies.
  • India-US Relations:
  • The relationship between India and the United States is often referred to as a “comprehensive global strategic partnership.”
  • Key areas of cooperation include defense, counterterrorism, energy, education, and technology.
  • Both nations are part of multilateral groupings like the Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) and work together to maintain a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
  • Other Important Appointments:
  • In recent years, several high-profile appointments have been made to bolster India's diplomatic presence worldwide, including ambassadors to key nations like the UK, China, and Russia.
  • Such appointments reflect India's focus on strengthening its global alliances and addressing international challenges.
  • Role of an Ambassador:
  • An ambassador represents their country in the host nation and works to protect and promote their country's interests.
  • They play a crucial role in negotiating treaties, enhancing bilateral trade, and fostering cultural exchanges.
  • Ambassadors are also responsible for providing support and assistance to their country's citizens residing or traveling in the host nation.

Important Points

  • Vinay Mohan Kwatra's Key Achievements:
  • During his tenure as Foreign Secretary, he played a pivotal role in shaping India's foreign policy amid global challenges such as the COVID-19 pandemic and geopolitical tensions.
  • He has been instrumental in strengthening India's ties with neighboring countries and global powers alike.
  • India's Diplomatic Missions:
  • India currently has one of the largest diplomatic networks globally, with missions and consulates in over 190 countries.
  • These missions are critical for advancing India's foreign policy objectives and fostering international cooperation.
  • Notable US-India Agreements:
  • Over the years, the two nations have signed important agreements like the Civil Nuclear Agreement (2008), and more recently, defense and technology sharing agreements under the US-India Defense Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI).
  • These agreements signify the growing trust and partnership between the two democracies.

Question 84

In June 2025, Rajesh Kumar has been appointed as Chief Secretary of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bihar

  2. BOption (b)

    Haryana

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • Rajesh Kumar was appointed as the Chief Secretary of Maharashtra in June 2025.
  • The Chief Secretary is the topmost executive officer in a state and is responsible for coordinating the administrative functions of the state government.
  • The Chief Secretary reports directly to the Chief Minister and is the administrative head of the state government, overseeing various departments and their functioning.
  • In Maharashtra, the role of the Chief Secretary includes implementing policies, ensuring smooth governance, and advising the Chief Minister on key administrative matters.
  • Maharashtra is one of the largest and most economically significant states in India, making the role of the Chief Secretary critical in managing its administrative and developmental challenges effectively.

Additional Information

  • Role and Responsibilities of the Chief Secretary:
  • The Chief Secretary is the senior-most civil servant in the state and acts as the head of the state administration.
  • The position ensures coordination among various departments and is responsible for the proper execution of government policies and programs.
  • The Chief Secretary represents the state government at meetings and conferences at the national and international levels.
  • They play a crucial role in disaster management, law and order, and handling sensitive administrative issues in the state.
  • Maharashtra’s Administrative Framework:
  • Maharashtra is known for its robust administrative system, with Mumbai as its capital city and a hub for economic, financial, and cultural activities.
  • The state is divided into various administrative divisions, each headed by Divisional Commissioners, who report to the Chief Secretary.
  • Maharashtra's government focuses on sectors like agriculture, infrastructure, education, and industrial development, where the Chief Secretary plays an instrumental role in policy execution.
  • Significance of the Appointment:
  • Appointments like that of the Chief Secretary are crucial for ensuring effective governance and maintaining the administrative efficiency of the state.
  • Experienced IAS officers like Rajesh Kumar often bring decades of expertise in various domains, which helps the state government in achieving its developmental goals.
  • Other States for Context:
  • Bihar: Known for its rich cultural heritage and historical significance, the state is actively working on improving infrastructure and education.
  • Haryana: An agriculturally prosperous state, Haryana also has a growing industrial sector, including automobile manufacturing and IT services.
  • Odisha: Renowned for its natural resources and tourism, Odisha is focusing on industrialization and infrastructure development.

Important Points

  • Eligibility and Appointment of Chief Secretary:
  • The Chief Secretary is usually an IAS officer of the senior-most batch in the state cadre.
  • The appointment is made by the Chief Minister in consultation with the state cabinet.
  • The tenure of the Chief Secretary is not fixed but is generally aligned with the guidelines set by the state government.
  • Economic Significance of Maharashtra:
  • Maharashtra contributes significantly to India’s GDP and is home to major financial institutions like the Reserve Bank of India and Bombay Stock Exchange.
  • The state is a leader in industries such as IT, textiles, automobiles, and entertainment (Bollywood).
Code

Question 85

In which month a national movement in India for inclusive Al leadership was officially launched in 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    January

  2. BOption (b)

    March

  3. COption (c)

    April

  4. DOption (d)

    August

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

April

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is April.

Key Points

  • A national movement for inclusive AI leadership was officially launched in India in the month of April 2025.
  • This initiative was a significant step towards fostering Artificial Intelligence (AI) inclusivity and addressing diversity gaps in the field.
  • The focus of the movement was to ensure that AI development and deployment are more equitable and inclusive, involving diverse stakeholders from various sectors like academia, industry, and government.
  • The movement gained momentum with several policy frameworks and public-private partnerships aimed at democratizing AI technologies.
  • April was chosen strategically to align with global discussions on AI ethics and inclusivity, fostering collaboration with international organizations and experts.

Additional Information

  • Artificial Intelligence (AI):
  • Artificial Intelligence refers to the simulation of human intelligence in machines that are programmed to think and learn like humans.
  • AI applications include natural language processing, machine learning, robotics, computer vision, and data analysis.
  • It has widespread applications in fields such as healthcare, finance, transportation, education, and defense.
  • Importance of Inclusivity in AI:
  • Inclusivity in AI ensures the representation of diverse groups, reducing biases and making AI systems more equitable.
  • Diverse perspectives contribute to developing robust and unbiased algorithms that cater to a broader audience.
  • It addresses the challenges of underrepresentation of minorities and women in AI-related fields.
  • Global AI Initiatives:
  • Several countries, including India, USA, and China, have launched national AI strategies to enhance their competitiveness in the global AI landscape.
  • Organizations like the United Nations and OECD are working on global frameworks for ethical AI development.
  • Examples include the AI for Humanity initiative by France and the Partnership on AI founded by leading tech companies.
  • India's Focus on AI:
  • India has been actively investing in AI research through initiatives like National AI Portal and Responsible AI for Youth.
  • The government has encouraged the establishment of AI research centers and partnerships with global tech leaders.
  • Policy interventions, such as the National Strategy for AI (NITI Aayog), aim to position India as a global AI hub.

Important Points

  • AI Ethics:
  • AI systems must adhere to ethical principles such as fairness, accountability, transparency, and privacy.
  • Bias in AI algorithms can lead to discrimination, making ethical considerations crucial for AI adoption.
  • AI in India:
  • India has launched initiatives like AI for All to democratize AI knowledge and applications.
  • Collaborations between institutions like IITs and industries are fostering innovation in AI technologies.
  • Focus areas include healthcare, agriculture, education, and smart cities.

Question 86

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been replaced by which law?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023

  3. COption (c)

    Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023

  4. DOption (d)

    Nyaya Danda Adhiniyam, 2023

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023.

Key Points

  • The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which governed the admissibility and relevance of evidence in Indian courts, has been replaced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 to modernize legal procedures.
  • BSA, 2023 aims to simplify and make evidence law more relevant for contemporary legal practices in India, aligning with technological advancements and societal changes.
  • The new law introduces provisions for digital evidence, recognizing its importance in modern-day litigation and criminal investigations.
  • BSA, 2023 ensures a more robust and streamlined framework for the admissibility of evidence, making it compatible with India’s evolving judicial and societal needs.
  • The Act is part of a larger initiative to replace colonial-era laws in India with legislation that reflects the values and aspirations of modern India.

Additional Information

  • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023:
  • The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, aiming to introduce modern legal standards and eliminate archaic provisions.
  • It focuses on enhancing the efficiency of criminal justice delivery and addressing new-age crimes like cybercrimes.
  • The law also emphasizes gender equity and victim-centric approaches in criminal proceedings.
  • Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023:
  • The BNSS replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, modernizing procedural aspects of criminal justice.
  • It introduces measures to streamline investigations, trial procedures, and provisions for victim compensation.
  • The law emphasizes the use of technology in judicial processes to improve transparency and efficiency.
  • Nyaya Danda Adhiniyam, 2023:
  • This Act replaces the Indian Police Act, 1861, focusing on reforming policing systems to align with modern challenges.
  • It emphasizes community policing, improving police accountability, and equipping law enforcement with advanced tools.
  • The law also seeks to enhance police personnel’s training and welfare.
  • Colonial Laws Replacement Initiative:
  • The Indian government has undertaken the initiative to replace colonial-era laws with legislation that reflects modern democratic values and the aspirations of Indian society.
  • It aims to align the legal framework with constitutional principles and ensure that laws are relevant to contemporary socio-economic realities.
  • Digital Evidence in BSA, 2023:
  • The inclusion of provisions for digital evidence in the BSA, 2023, recognizes the growing significance of technology in legal proceedings.
  • It provides guidelines on the admissibility of digital records, ensuring their authenticity and reliability.
  • This addition is crucial for handling cases involving cybercrimes, online frauds, and other technology-related offenses.

Important Points

  • Key Features of BSA, 2023:
  • The Act modernizes the rules governing the admissibility of evidence, replacing outdated provisions.
  • It emphasizes the role of electronic evidence and its admissibility in court proceedings.
  • Provisions to ensure fair trial and protection of individual rights are included.
  • Historical Context:
  • The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, was formulated during British rule to codify laws related to evidence in judicial proceedings.
  • While the Act served its purpose for over a century, societal and technological changes necessitated its replacement.
  • Legislative Process:
  • The replacement of the Indian Evidence Act was carried out after extensive consultations with legal experts and stakeholders.
  • The legislation reflects the government’s commitment to judicial reform and modernization.

Question 87

Jal Utsav Campaign seen in news in 2024 is an initiative of _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    NITI Aayog 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Electronics and IT

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Commerce and Industry

  4. DOption (d)

    NGO Pratham

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

NITI Aayog 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

  • Jal Utsav Campaign is an initiative led by NITI Aayog to highlight the importance of water conservation and sustainable management of water resources across India.
  • The campaign promotes the principles of water security and aims to raise awareness about the judicious use of water resources in the wake of growing water scarcity concerns.
  • It encompasses activities like awareness drives, community participation programs, workshops, and educational campaigns to engage people at the grassroots level.
  • NITI Aayog has been actively involved in preparing comprehensive reports and indices, such as the Composite Water Management Index (CWMI), which provides a roadmap for effective water management practices.
  • Jal Utsav aligns with broader government initiatives such as the Jal Jeevan Mission and Atal Bhujal Yojana, focusing on water conservation and groundwater recharge.

Additional Information

  • NITI Aayog:
  • NITI Aayog, or the National Institution for Transforming India, was established on January 1, 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
  • It serves as the policy think tank of the Government of India, providing directional and strategic input to development processes.
  • NITI Aayog emphasizes principles of cooperative federalism and works in collaboration with state governments to implement national policies and programs.
  • It has introduced initiatives like the Aspirational Districts Programme and Digital India initiatives to accelerate India's development.
  • Composite Water Management Index (CWMI):
  • Launched by NITI Aayog in 2018, CWMI aims to assess and improve the management of water resources in states and union territories.
  • The index evaluates states on parameters like groundwater restoration, irrigation status, and drinking water supply.
  • It helps identify best practices and areas that require urgent attention in water management.
  • Jal Jeevan Mission:
  • Launched in 2019, the Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide functional household tap connections (FHTCs) to all rural households by 2024.
  • The mission focuses on ensuring a supply of 55 liters of water per person per day to every household.
  • It promotes community-led water management and emphasizes source sustainability through rainwater harvesting, groundwater recharge, and other initiatives.
  • Atal Bhujal Yojana:
  • Also known as the Atal Jal, this scheme was launched in 2020 by the Government of India to ensure sustainable management of groundwater resources.
  • The program emphasizes community participation and institutional strengthening for groundwater management.
  • It is implemented in seven states, including Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.

Important Points

  • Water Scarcity in India:
  • India is home to 16% of the world's population but has only 4% of the world's freshwater resources.
  • According to NITI Aayog's 2018 report, 21 Indian cities are likely to run out of groundwater by 2024, affecting nearly 100 million people.
  • Effective water conservation campaigns like Jal Utsav are crucial to addressing these challenges.

Question 88

Unified Pension Scheme (UPS), launched in _______ by the Ministry of Finance, offers an alternative to the New Pension System for central government employees.

  1. AOption (a)

    August 2024 

  2. BOption (b)

    October 2024

  3. COption (c)

    December 2024

  4. DOption (d)

    February 2024

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

August 2024 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is August 2024.

Key Points

  • The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) was launched by the Ministry of Finance in August 2024 as an alternative to the New Pension System (NPS) for central government employees.
  • It aims to provide government employees with a comprehensive pension framework, ensuring financial stability post-retirement.
  • The scheme was introduced as a response to demands for a simplified and unified pension system for central government personnel.
  • The New Pension System (NPS), introduced earlier, required employees to contribute to their pension, whereas the UPS offers additional benefits to address concerns raised by employees.
  • The implementation of the scheme aligns with the government’s objective of reforming employee benefits and ensuring a secure financial future for its workforce.

Additional Information

  • New Pension System (NPS):
  • The NPS was introduced by the Government of India in 2004 for new government recruits, replacing the earlier defined benefit pension system.
  • It is a contributory pension scheme, where both the employer and employee contribute to the pension fund.
  • Subscribers can choose their investment options and pension fund managers under the NPS framework.
  • The NPS is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
  • Key Features of the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS):
  • Provides a single platform for managing pensions of central government employees.
  • Introduces flexibility in retirement planning by integrating benefits for employees.
  • Addresses concerns raised by employees regarding the inflexibility of the NPS.
  • Ensures long-term financial security and post-retirement benefits for employees.
  • Ministry of Finance Initiatives:
  • The Ministry oversees multiple schemes aimed at reforming government employee benefits, such as the General Provident Fund (GPF) and Gratuity Schemes.
  • The introduction of the UPS reflects the Ministry’s focus on modernizing pension systems.
  • Comparison between UPS and NPS:
  • UPS: Offers a more unified and flexible pension framework for government employees.
  • NPS: Focuses on market-linked returns and requires employee contributions.
  • The UPS addresses gaps in the NPS by ensuring comprehensive post-retirement benefits.

Important Points

  • Eligibility for UPS:
  • Applicable to central government employees.
  • Employees who joined service after the implementation of the NPS are eligible for the transition to UPS.
  • Government Pension Reforms:
  • The government has been introducing pension reforms to address employee concerns and ensure financial stability post-retirement.
  • The Unified Pension Scheme is a step in this direction, providing a simplified framework for managing pensions.
  • Implementation:
  • Implemented through the Ministry of Finance and coordinated with relevant departments to ensure smooth adoption.
Code

Question 89

The headquarters of WADA are in ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Paris

  2. BOption (b)

    Geneva

  3. COption (c)

    Montréal

  4. DOption (d)

    Vienna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Montréal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Montréal.

Key Points

  • The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is an independent international organization that promotes, coordinates, and monitors the fight against doping in sports worldwide.
  • The headquarters of WADA is located in Montréal, Canada. It serves as the central hub for the agency's global operations and initiatives.
  • WADA was established in 1999 after the World Conference on Doping in Sport and is jointly funded by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and national governments.
  • Montréal was chosen as the headquarters due to its strategic location, accessibility, and status as a hub for international organizations.
  • Its primary mission includes developing and implementing anti-doping policies, conducting research, and promoting awareness to ensure fair play in sports.

Additional Information

  • About WADA:
  • The agency’s foundation was laid during the World Conference on Doping in Sport, held in Lausanne, Switzerland, in 1999.
  • WADA’s core functions include Code compliance monitoring, scientific research, education, and anti-doping program development.
  • The organization operates on the basis of the World Anti-Doping Code, which is a universal document ensuring consistency in anti-doping rules and regulations globally.
  • WADA also accredits anti-doping laboratories worldwide to ensure high standards of testing.
  • Why Montréal?
  • Montréal is a prominent city in Canada known for its cosmopolitan environment, making it ideal for hosting international organizations.
  • The city provides excellent infrastructure and accessibility for global operations and communication.
  • Montréal is also home to several other major international organizations, such as the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
  • Other Locations Considered:
  • Paris: Known for hosting various international agencies, but it was not selected as WADA's headquarters.
  • Geneva: A hub for many global organizations like the World Health Organization (WHO), but not chosen for WADA.
  • Vienna: Hosts organizations like the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), but it did not meet the criteria for WADA’s operations.
  • WADA’s Achievements:
  • Development of the Athlete Biological Passport to monitor biological markers of doping.
  • Implementation of the Prohibited List, updated annually, to identify banned substances and methods.
  • Global initiatives like Play True Day to raise awareness about anti-doping.

Important Points

  • WADA’s Governance:
  • The agency is governed by a foundation board comprising representatives from the sport movement and national governments.
  • The Executive Committee, composed of 12 members, is responsible for making decisions on behalf of the foundation board.
  • Global Anti-Doping Efforts:
  • WADA collaborates with national anti-doping organizations (NADOs) and regional anti-doping organizations (RADOs).
  • Its efforts ensure a unified approach to combating doping in sports across all countries.

Question 90

In ice hockey, the fences that surround the ice hockey rink are called as _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Boards

  2. BOption (b)

    Zones

  3. COption (c)

    Crease

  4. DOption (d)

    Spikes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Boards

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Boards.

Key Points

  • Boards refer to the protective barriers surrounding an ice hockey rink. These barriers are crucial for player safety and maintaining the flow of the game.
  • The boards are typically made of wood or high-density polyethylene (HDPE) and are designed to be sturdy enough to withstand impacts from players and pucks.
  • They are an integral part of the rink, ensuring the puck remains within the playing area and does not disrupt the game by leaving the surface.
  • Boards also have plexiglass panels mounted above them to allow spectators to view the game while providing additional safety against stray pucks.
  • This feature enables the game to progress without interruptions, as the puck rebounds off the boards and stays within the playing area.

Additional Information

  • Zones:
  • In ice hockey, the rink is divided into three zones: defensive zone, neutral zone, and offensive zone.
  • These zones help in determining strategies and offsides during the game.
  • However, zones do not refer to the physical structures like boards around the rink.
  • Crease:
  • The "crease" is the semi-circular area in front of the goal where the goalie is allowed to operate freely.
  • It is marked on the ice and does not involve any physical barriers like the boards.
  • Spikes:
  • Spikes are not a term associated with ice hockey rinks or their surrounding structures.
  • They may refer to the sharp points on ice skates but have no relevance to the rink's barriers.
  • Features of Ice Hockey Rinks:
  • Standard rinks are 200 feet long and 85 feet wide as per NHL regulations.
  • The boards are usually 4 feet high, with transparent plexiglass extending another 5-8 feet above them.
  • The rink also includes markings for face-off circles, blue lines dividing zones, and goal lines.
  • Role of Boards in Gameplay:
  • Boards ensure the puck remains in play, enabling the fast-paced nature of ice hockey.
  • They are also used tactically by players to pass the puck or check opponents.

Important Points

  • The boards and plexiglass ensure the safety of spectators and players during the game.
  • They are built to absorb impacts, reducing the risk of injuries to players.
  • In international ice hockey, the rink dimensions may differ slightly, but the boards remain a constant feature.
  • Boards often feature advertisements, making them a source of revenue for teams and leagues.

Question 91

Which of the following would best explain the concept of sustainable development? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Starting businesses in developed countries where the economic climate is conducive  to trade 

  2. BOption (b)

    Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability  of future generations to meet their own needs 

  3. COption (c)

    Sustaining the production at the level of maximum capacity 

  4. DOption (d)

    Developing the business by signing long‐term contracts with suppliers 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability  of future generations to meet their own needs 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Key Points

  • Sustainable development is defined as development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. This concept is derived from the Brundtland Commission Report (1987).
  • The focus is on balancing economic growth, environmental preservation, and social equity. It ensures that development is inclusive and long-term.
  • Option 1, “Starting businesses in developed countries where the economic climate is conducive to trade,” is incorrect. While this may be economically beneficial, it does not address sustainability or intergenerational equity.
  • Option 3, “Sustaining the production at the level of maximum capacity,” is incorrect as it may lead to the overuse of resources and environmental degradation, which contradicts the principles of sustainability.
  • Option 4, “Developing the business by signing long-term contracts with suppliers,” is a business strategy but does not inherently align with the broader goals of sustainability, such as environmental and social considerations.

Additional Information

  • Key Principles of Sustainable Development:
  • Environmental Integrity: Focuses on the preservation of natural ecosystems, biodiversity, and resources for future generations.
  • Social Inclusion: Ensures equitable access to resources, opportunities, and benefits for all, including marginalized communities.
  • Economic Viability: Promotes economic growth that supports livelihoods and reduces poverty without depleting natural resources.
  • Examples of Sustainable Development:
  • Renewable Energy: Adoption of solar, wind, and hydroelectric power to reduce dependence on non-renewable resources.
  • Sustainable Agriculture: Practices like crop rotation, organic farming, and water conservation to ensure long-term soil fertility and food security.
  • Waste Management: Recycling and composting to reduce landfill waste and promote circular economies.
  • Green Infrastructure: Designing urban spaces with parks, green roofs, and permeable surfaces to mitigate environmental impact.
  • United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
  • Adopted in 2015 by all United Nations Member States, the 17 SDGs aim to eradicate poverty, protect the planet, and ensure peace and prosperity by 2030.
  • Key goals include climate action (SDG 13), clean water and sanitation (SDG 6), and affordable and clean energy (SDG 7).
  • Important Reports and Agreements:
  • Brundtland Report (1987): Introduced the term “sustainable development” and emphasized intergenerational equity.
  • Paris Agreement (2015): Aimed at limiting global temperature rise to below 2°C compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • Agenda 21: A comprehensive action plan for sustainable development adopted at the Earth Summit (1992).

Important Points

  • Challenges in Achieving Sustainable Development:
  • Climate Change: Rising global temperatures due to greenhouse gas emissions threaten ecosystems and human livelihoods.
  • Resource Overconsumption: Unsustainable use of resources like water, forests, and fossil fuels leads to depletion and environmental degradation.
  • Social Inequality: Uneven distribution of resources and opportunities hinders inclusive growth.
  • Policy Gaps: Lack of robust policies and enforcement mechanisms can hinder sustainable practices.
  • Global Efforts: Organizations like the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), World Bank, and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) work towards promoting sustainability globally.
  • India’s Initiatives:
  • National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC): Focuses on renewable energy, water conservation, and afforestation.
  • Clean India Mission (Swachh Bharat Abhiyan): Aims to improve sanitation and waste management.
  • National Solar Mission: Promotes the adoption of solar energy to reduce reliance on fossil fuels.

Question 92

In June 2025, 2 new Ramsar sites from which state has been included in the list of Ramsar sites in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Odisha 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Gujarat

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rajasthan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

  • Ramsar Sites: Ramsar sites are wetlands of international importance designated under the Ramsar Convention, an international treaty signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran. These sites are recognized for their ecological, cultural, and economic value.
  • India's Ramsar Sites: As of June 2025, India has added 2 new Ramsar sites from the state of Rajasthan. This highlights the state's rich biodiversity and its significant wetland ecosystems.
  • Newly Added Ramsar Sites: Although the specific names of these sites have not been mentioned in the question, Rajasthan is known for its existing Ramsar sites such as Keoladeo National Park and Sambhar Lake. The new additions further bolster its status as a state with ecologically critical wetlands.
  • Importance of Ramsar Sites: These sites play a crucial role in preserving biodiversity, supporting livelihoods, and mitigating climate change by acting as carbon sinks and natural water filters.
  • Rajasthan's Wetland Ecosystem: Rajasthan, despite being a desert state, is home to several wetlands that are vital for migratory birds, groundwater recharge, and sustaining local flora and fauna.

Additional Information

  • The Ramsar Convention:
  • It is an international treaty signed on 2 February 1971 for the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
  • It aims to maintain the ecological character of wetlands and ensure their sustainable use for present and future generations.
  • As of 2023, there are over 2,400 Ramsar sites globally, covering more than 250 million hectares.
  • Rajasthan’s Existing Ramsar Sites:
  • Keoladeo National Park: Located in Bharatpur, it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a major wintering ground for migratory birds, including the Siberian Crane.
  • Sambhar Lake: India’s largest inland saltwater lake, known for its unique saline ecosystem and a habitat for flamingos and other wading birds.
  • Ecological Significance of Wetlands:
  • Wetlands act as natural water reservoirs, helping in groundwater recharge and flood control.
  • They are home to a diverse range of flora and fauna, many of which are endangered or endemic.
  • They play a critical role in climate change mitigation by sequestering carbon and maintaining local weather patterns.
  • Global and National Efforts:
  • India is a signatory to the Ramsar Convention and has been actively designating new sites to promote wetland conservation.
  • In recent years, India has been focusing on involving local communities in wetland preservation through initiatives like National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems (NPCA).

Important Points

  • Ramsar Criteria: Wetlands are designated as Ramsar sites based on various criteria, including their role in biodiversity conservation, support for endangered species, and cultural significance.
  • Challenges in Wetland Conservation: Urbanization, pollution, encroachment, and climate change are major threats to wetland ecosystems in India.
  • India’s Ramsar Sites: India currently has one of the largest networks of Ramsar sites in the world, showcasing its commitment to wetland conservation.
  • Community Involvement: Programs like Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 focus on promoting sustainable practices and engaging local stakeholders in wetland protection.

Question 93

The Kailasa Temple built in the 8th century is in which of the following state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • The Kailasa Temple, also known as the Ellora Cave 16, is located in the Ellora Caves complex in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, India.
  • It was constructed in the 8th century during the reign of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, under the patronage of King Krishna I.
  • The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and represents Mount Kailash, the abode of Lord Shiva, as per Hindu mythology.
  • The Kailasa Temple is a monolithic rock-cut structure, meaning it was carved out of a single piece of rock from the top down, showcasing the advanced engineering and artistic skills of ancient Indian craftsmen.
  • The temple features intricate carvings, sculptures, and architectural designs, including depictions of Hindu deities, mythological stories, and elaborate pillared halls, making it one of the finest examples of Indian rock-cut architecture.

Additional Information

  • Ellora Caves:
  • The Ellora Caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in Maharashtra, consisting of 34 caves carved into the Charanandri hills.
  • The caves represent a combination of Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain religious art, highlighting the religious harmony of ancient India.
  • The site includes monasteries, temples, and chapels carved into the rock, dating back to 600-1000 CE.
  • Rashtrakuta Dynasty:
  • The Rashtrakutas were a prominent dynasty that ruled large parts of the Indian subcontinent between the 6th and 10th centuries CE.
  • They were known for their patronage of art, architecture, and literature, with the Kailasa Temple being one of their most remarkable contributions.
  • Kannada and Sanskrit literature flourished under their reign.
  • Architectural Significance:
  • The Kailasa Temple is considered one of the largest monolithic structures in the world and is renowned for its advanced engineering techniques.
  • The temple's design includes a large courtyard, a central shrine with a pyramidal roof, and a Nandi pavilion, all carved from a single piece of basalt rock.
  • The carvings depict scenes from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata, as well as intricate floral and geometric patterns.
  • Comparison with Other Rock-Cut Temples:
  • The Kailasa Temple is often compared to other rock-cut temples in India, such as the Mahabalipuram temples in Tamil Nadu and the Elephanta Caves near Mumbai, but it stands out due to its scale and intricacy.
  • Unlike other rock-cut structures, which are often carved horizontally into cliffs, the Kailasa Temple was excavated vertically from the top of the rock downwards.

Important Points

  • Unique Features:
  • The Kailasa Temple covers an area of approximately 2,000 square meters and is about 32 meters high, making it one of the largest monolithic structures in the world.
  • It contains elaborate sculptures, including a striking depiction of Ravana trying to lift Mount Kailash, which is considered one of the finest examples of Indian sculpture.
  • Construction Technique:
  • The temple was carved using a "cut-out" technique, starting from the top of the rock and working downwards, which required meticulous planning and execution.
  • Approximately 200,000 tons of rock were removed to create the temple, and it is estimated that it took over 18 years to complete.
  • Religious Significance:
  • The temple serves as a symbol of devotion and artistic excellence, reflecting the religious fervor of the Rashtrakuta rulers.
  • It remains an active place of worship and a site of pilgrimage for devotees of Lord Shiva.
  • Recognition:
  • The Ellora Caves, including the Kailasa Temple, were designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983.
  • The site attracts millions of tourists and scholars annually, making it a significant cultural and historical landmark in India.

Question 94

'Rai' is a famous dance performed in which of the following Indian state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Assam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

  • 'Rai Dance' is a traditional folk dance primarily performed in the Bundelkhand region of Madhya Pradesh.
  • This dance is predominantly performed by women, showcasing their grace and rhythm.
  • It is usually performed during festivals and celebrations, often accompanied by traditional musical instruments like the dholak and tabla.
  • The dance is characterized by its vibrant costumes, elaborate jewelry, and rhythmic footwork, representing the cultural heritage of the region.
  • Rai Dance is a way to express joy, celebrate community bonds, and showcase local traditions and folklore.

Additional Information

  • Madhya Pradesh:
  • Madhya Pradesh is often referred to as the Heart of India due to its central location.
  • It is renowned for its rich cultural heritage, historical landmarks like Khajuraho temples, and diverse traditions.
  • The state is home to various tribal communities, each contributing to its vibrant folk arts and dances.
  • Other popular dances of Madhya Pradesh include Grida, Gangaur, and Tertali.
  • Bundelkhand Region:
  • Bundelkhand is a geographic and cultural region shared by Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
  • The region is known for its folk music, dance, and historical sites such as Orchha and Jhansi.
  • Rai Dance is one of the significant cultural representations of Bundelkhand.
  • Festivals in Madhya Pradesh:
  • The state celebrates festivals like Diwali, Holi, Navratri, and regional fairs such as Khajuraho Dance Festival.
  • Folk dances like Rai are prominently featured during these festivals, enriching the cultural experience.
  • Traditional Costumes and Jewelry:
  • Rai dancers wear vibrant sarees and lehengas adorned with intricate embroidery and traditional jewelry.
  • The jewelry includes bangles, necklaces, anklets, and headpieces, which add elegance to their performance.

Important Points

  • Other States and Dances:
  • Punjab: Known for Bhangra and Gidda, both are energetic dances performed during harvest festivals and celebrations.
  • Odisha: Famous for Odissi, a classical dance form, and Chhau, a tribal dance.
  • Assam: Renowned for Bihu Dance, performed during the Bihu festival celebrating the harvest season.
  • Preservation of Folk Dances:
  • Efforts are being made by the Indian government and cultural organizations to preserve and promote folk dances like Rai.
  • Folk dances are an integral part of India’s intangible cultural heritage, offering a glimpse into the traditions of various communities.

Question 95

'Kakkarissi Natakam' is a satirical dance-drama of which of the following state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gujarat 

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Tripura

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • Kakkarissi Natakam is a traditional satirical dance-drama form popular in the state of Kerala. It combines humor, music, and dance to narrate stories.
  • The performance is known for its social satire and is often used to critique societal norms, politics, and human behavior in a lighthearted manner.
  • The characters in the drama are typically derived from Hindu mythology, with a focus on Lord Shiva and Parvati, portrayed as wandering mendicants.
  • The art form is believed to have originated in the southern regions of India and later became a significant part of Kerala's cultural heritage.
  • Kakkarissi Natakam is characterized by its use of folk tunes, simple dialogues, and vibrant costumes, making it accessible and entertaining for local audiences.

Additional Information

  • Origin of Kakkarissi Natakam:
  • The word "Kakkarissi" is derived from "Kakkalan," which refers to a nomadic tribe in South India, and "Natakam" means drama.
  • It is believed to have originated as a form of entertainment for villagers during festivals and temple ceremonies.
  • Performance Style:
  • The drama incorporates elements of comedy, music, and dance to engage and entertain audiences.
  • Actors often use exaggerated gestures and expressions to convey emotions and humor.
  • Musical Instruments Used:
  • Traditional instruments such as the mridangam, chenda, and harmonium are used to accompany the performance.
  • The music is based on folk tunes that are native to Kerala.
  • Relevance in Modern Times:
  • Kakkarissi Natakam is now primarily performed during cultural festivals and special events to preserve the traditional art form.
  • Efforts are being made by cultural organizations in Kerala to keep this unique art form alive and introduce it to younger generations.
  • Other Folk Arts of Kerala:
  • Kerala is also known for other traditional art forms such as Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Thullal, and Theyyam.
  • Each of these art forms has its own unique style, themes, and cultural significance.

Important Points

  • Social Commentary: Kakkarissi Natakam serves as a medium to critique societal issues in a humorous and engaging way, making it both entertaining and thought-provoking.
  • Influence of Mythology: The characters and stories often draw inspiration from Hindu mythology, adding a spiritual dimension to the performances.
  • Community Engagement: The drama is an integral part of local festivals, fostering a sense of community and cultural pride among the people of Kerala.

Question 96

In the context of Budget, which of the following is included in the revenue expenditure?

I. Salaries of government employees

II. Pensions of government employees

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I 

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

  • Revenue Expenditure refers to government spending that does not result in the creation of assets or reduction of liabilities. It includes expenses required for the day-to-day functioning of the government.
  • Salaries of government employees: These are classified as revenue expenditure as they are recurring expenses required for the functioning of various government departments. Hence, statement I is correct.
  • Pensions of government employees: Pensions are payments made to retired employees and fall under revenue expenditure because they are recurring expenses and do not create any assets. Hence, statement II is correct.
  • Revenue expenditure includes other components such as interest payments, subsidies, and grants to states.
  • It is distinct from capital expenditure, which involves asset creation or liability reduction, such as infrastructure development.
  • Both I and II are examples of revenue expenditure, making the correct answer Both I and II.

Additional Information

  • Revenue Expenditure:
  • Revenue expenditure is incurred for the normal functioning of government departments and services.
  • Examples include salaries, pensions, subsidies, interest payments on loans, and grants to states.
  • It does not result in the creation of assets or reduction of liabilities.
  • Such expenditures are usually financed through revenue generated by taxes, duties, and non-tax revenue sources.
  • Capital Expenditure:
  • In contrast to revenue expenditure, capital expenditure results in the creation of assets or reduction of liabilities.
  • Examples include infrastructure development, acquisition of machinery, and repayment of government loans.
  • It contributes to economic growth by adding productive capacity.
  • Types of Government Expenditure:
  • Plan Expenditure: Linked to the government's planned developmental programs.
  • Non-Plan Expenditure: Includes defense, subsidies, interest payments, pensions, and other recurring expenses.
  • Budget Classifications in India:
  • The Indian budget is categorized into Revenue Budget and Capital Budget.
  • The Revenue Budget consists of revenue receipts (tax and non-tax revenue) and revenue expenditure.
  • The Capital Budget includes capital receipts and capital expenditure, related to asset creation and liability reduction.

Important Points

  • Salaries and pensions:
  • Salaries of government employees are critical for maintaining essential public services and governance.
  • Pensions ensure financial security for retired employees and are an important part of social welfare.
  • Both are classified under revenue expenditure due to their recurring nature and non-asset-creating characteristics.
  • Union Budget Terminology:
  • Revenue Deficit: Occurs when the government's revenue expenditure exceeds its revenue receipts.
  • Fiscal Deficit: Represents the total borrowing requirement of the government, including revenue and capital deficits.
  • Primary Deficit: Fiscal deficit minus interest payments.
  • Examples of Revenue vs. Capital Expenditure:
  • Revenue Expenditure: Payment of subsidies, grants, and salaries.
  • Capital Expenditure: Construction of roads, bridges, schools, and hospitals.

Question 97

Who was the last of the powerful Mughal ruler?

  1. AOption (a)

    Babur

  2. BOption (b)

    Akbar

  3. COption (c)

    Shahjahan

  4. DOption (d)

    Aurangzeb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Aurangzeb

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Aurangzeb.

Key Points

  • Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal Emperor, who reigned from 1658 to 1707. He was known for his military campaigns and administrative reforms.
  • Aurangzeb expanded the Mughal Empire to its largest extent, covering almost the entire Indian subcontinent during his reign.
  • He was a staunch follower of Islamic orthodoxy and implemented policies that were influenced by his religious beliefs, including the imposition of the Jizya tax on non-Muslims.
  • Aurangzeb's reign marked the beginning of the decline of the Mughal Empire due to continuous wars, administrative challenges, and resistance from local rulers like the Marathas and Sikhs.
  • His death in 1707 led to a succession crisis, which weakened the empire further, making him the last powerful ruler in the Mughal dynasty.

Additional Information

  • Babur:
  • Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire and reigned from 1526 to 1530.
  • He defeated Ibrahim Lodi at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526, marking the beginning of Mughal rule in India.
  • Babur is known for introducing gunpowder and advanced military strategies to Indian warfare.
  • Akbar:
  • Akbar, the third Mughal emperor, reigned from 1556 to 1605.
  • He is renowned for his policy of religious tolerance, administrative reforms, and the establishment of a centralized system of governance.
  • Akbar founded the Din-i-Ilahi, a syncretic religion aimed at uniting people of different faiths.
  • Shahjahan:
  • Shahjahan reigned from 1628 to 1658 and is best known for his architectural achievements, including the construction of the Taj Mahal in memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal.
  • His reign is often considered the golden age of Mughal architecture.
  • Shahjahan's later years were marked by political instability, culminating in his deposition by his son Aurangzeb.
  • Mughal Decline:
  • After Aurangzeb's death, the Mughal Empire began to fragment due to internal conflicts and external invasions.
  • Regional powers like the Marathas, Sikhs, and British gradually gained prominence, diminishing Mughal influence.
  • The empire officially ended with the British capture of Delhi and the exile of the last Mughal emperor, Bahadur Shah II, in 1857.

Important Points

  • Aurangzeb's Policies:
  • He implemented strict Islamic laws and abolished practices that he deemed un-Islamic, such as the Hindu festival of Holi.
  • Aurangzeb's military campaigns included the annexation of the Deccan kingdoms, but these wars drained the imperial treasury.
  • Legacy:
  • Aurangzeb's reign is controversial due to his religious intolerance, but he is also credited with administrative efficiency and military prowess.
  • He left behind a legacy of an expansive but weakened empire, which could not withstand the challenges of the 18th century.
  • Timeline:
  • Babur (1526-1530), Humayun (1530-1540, 1555-1556), Akbar (1556-1605), Jahangir (1605-1627), Shahjahan (1628-1658), Aurangzeb (1658-1707).
  • Post Aurangzeb, the empire saw rapid decline due to weak successors and external invasions.

Question 98

What is the traditional belief about the effect of a government cutting taxes and running a budget deficit?

  1. AOption (a)

    It promotes consumers spend more

  2. BOption (b)

    It promotes consumers spend less

  3. COption (c)

    It promotes foreign investors to opt out from economy rapidly

  4. DOption (d)

    It shows government irresponsive behaviour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It promotes consumers spend more

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It promotes consumers spend more.

Key Points

  • When a government cuts taxes, it increases the disposable income of individuals and businesses, encouraging them to spend more on goods and services. This leads to higher consumption levels within the economy.
  • Running a budget deficit means the government spends more than it earns, stimulating economic activity by injecting liquidity into the market. This often results in increased demand for goods and services.
  • The traditional belief is rooted in Keynesian economics, which suggests that tax cuts and deficit spending can act as fiscal tools to boost economic growth during periods of slowdown or recession.
  • Higher consumer spending can lead to increased production, job creation, and overall economic growth, fulfilling the government's objective of stabilizing the economy during challenging times.
  • Empirical evidence from various countries, including the United States during periods of tax cuts (e.g., Reaganomics in the 1980s), has demonstrated that such measures often lead to an upsurge in consumer spending and economic activity.

Additional Information

  • Budget Deficit:
  • A budget deficit occurs when a government's expenditures exceed its revenues in a given fiscal year.
  • Governments often use deficit spending as a tool to stimulate economic growth during periods of economic downturn or stagnation.
  • While it can drive short-term growth, prolonged deficits may lead to increased national debt and inflationary pressures.
  • Tax Cuts:
  • Tax cuts refer to reductions in the amount of taxes individuals or businesses are required to pay.
  • They can come in various forms, such as reduced income tax rates, corporate tax rates, or sales taxes.
  • Tax cuts are often used as a fiscal policy measure to incentivize spending, investment, and economic growth.
  • Keynesian Economics:
  • Developed by John Maynard Keynes, this economic theory emphasizes the role of government intervention in stabilizing the economy.
  • It advocates for fiscal policies like tax cuts and increased government spending to counteract economic recessions.
  • Keynesian economics played a pivotal role in shaping modern economic policies during the 20th century.
  • Historical Example:
  • During the Great Recession (2008-2009), governments worldwide implemented tax cuts and deficit spending to revive economic activity.
  • The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (2009) in the United States is a notable example where fiscal stimulus, including tax cuts, helped stabilize the economy.

Important Points

  • Criticism of Budget Deficits:
  • Excessive reliance on deficit spending can lead to national debt accumulation, which may strain public finances in the long term.
  • Deficits can lead to higher interest rates, making borrowing costlier for businesses and individuals.
  • Inflationary pressures may arise if deficit spending significantly increases aggregate demand beyond supply capabilities.
  • Behavioral Economics:
  • Tax cuts can influence consumer behavior by increasing confidence in the economy and encouraging spending.
  • However, during periods of economic uncertainty, consumers might choose to save the additional income instead of spending it.
  • Global Practices:
  • Countries like the United States and United Kingdom have historically used tax cuts and deficit spending as tools for economic recovery.
  • Emerging economies often face challenges in adopting these measures due to limited fiscal capacity and concerns over debt sustainability.

Question 99

At what age did Mahavir Jain decide to leave his home in search of spiritual truth?

  1. AOption (a)

    25

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

30

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 30.

Key Points

  • Mahavir Jain, also known as Vardhamana Mahavira, was the 24th and last Tirthankara of Jainism.
  • Mahavir Jain decided to leave his home at the age of 30 to pursue a spiritual path and seek enlightenment.
  • He renounced worldly possessions and family life to become an ascetic. This decision was pivotal in shaping Jain philosophy and teachings.
  • Mahavir spent 12 years in intense meditation, penance, and self-discipline, leading him to attain Kevala Jnana (omniscience).
  • His teachings emphasized Ahimsa (non-violence), truth, non-possessiveness, and self-discipline, forming the foundation of Jain ethics and spirituality.

Additional Information

  • Jain Philosophy:
  • Jainism is one of the oldest religions in India, focusing on spiritual purity and liberation through self-discipline.
  • Its core principles include Ahimsa (non-violence), Aparigraha (non-possessiveness), and Anekantavada (multiplicity of viewpoints).
  • Mahavir Jain's teachings significantly shaped Jain philosophy, promoting the idea of living a life free from material attachments.
  • Kevala Jnana:
  • Mahavir Jain attained Kevala Jnana, which is considered the highest form of knowledge and enlightenment in Jainism.
  • This state represents omniscience, where one perceives reality in its entirety without any distortions.
  • Renunciation and Ascetic Life:
  • Mahavir Jain's decision to renounce worldly life at the age of 30 marked the beginning of his spiritual journey.
  • He practiced extreme asceticism, including fasting and meditation, to overcome worldly attachments and desires.
  • Jain Tirthankaras:
  • Tirthankaras are spiritual teachers in Jainism who have attained enlightenment and guide others toward liberation.
  • Mahavir Jain was the 24th Tirthankara, and his teachings continue to influence millions of followers globally.

Important Points

  • Timeline: Mahavir Jain was born in 599 BCE and attained enlightenment in 557 BCE.
  • Jain Scriptures: His teachings are preserved in Jain scriptures like the Agamas, which guide followers on ethical and spiritual living.
  • Historical Influence: Jainism has significantly contributed to Indian culture, including art, architecture, and literature, emphasizing non-violence and environmental consciousness.

Question 100

In which Indian text does the name 'Bharata' first appear?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ramayan

  2. BOption (b)

    Rig Veda

  3. COption (c)

    Meghdutam

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahabharata

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rig Veda

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rig Veda.

Key Points

  • The term 'Bharata' first appears in the Rig Veda, one of the oldest sacred texts of India, composed around 1500-1200 BCE.
  • Bharata is mentioned as a tribe or community in the Rig Veda, specifically in references to the Bharata clan and their battles, particularly the Battle of Ten Kings.
  • The Rig Vedic hymns describe the Bharata tribe as one of the prominent tribes that contributed to the early formation of Vedic civilization. They are associated with the region near the Saraswati River.
  • The Bharata name later evolved to signify the broader territory and people of India, which is why India is officially referred to as 'Bharat' in the Constitution of India.
  • The Rig Veda is considered the foundational text for understanding ancient Indian history, culture, and society. Its references to Bharata provide insights into the early tribal politics, religious practices, and social organization.

Additional Information

  • Rig Veda:
  • The Rig Veda is the oldest of the four Vedas and is written in Vedic Sanskrit.
  • It consists of 10 Mandalas (books) and contains over 1,028 hymns dedicated to various deities like Agni (fire), Indra (war and rain), and Varuna (cosmic order).
  • It is believed to have been composed by various sages and passed down orally for generations before being written down.
  • The Rig Veda provides valuable insights into the early Aryan society, their religious beliefs, and their interactions with other tribes and communities.
  • Battle of Ten Kings:
  • The Rig Veda mentions the Dasarajna (Battle of Ten Kings), a significant conflict between the Bharata tribe and a confederation of ten other tribes.
  • The Bharata tribe, led by King Sudas, emerged victorious, strengthening their position and influence in the region.
  • This battle highlights the political dynamics and tribal alliances of the early Vedic period.
  • Evolution of the Name 'Bharata':
  • The name 'Bharata' in the Rig Veda initially referred to the Bharata tribe, but over time, it became synonymous with the larger geographical region and people of India.
  • In the Mahabharata, the term 'Bharata' is used to refer to the descendants of King Bharata, linking the name to a royal lineage and cultural heritage.
  • The Constitution of India officially recognizes 'India' as 'Bharat,' reflecting its historical and cultural significance.
  • Other Texts:
  • The Ramayana and Mahabharata, composed much later, also use the term 'Bharata,' but the Rig Veda is the earliest text where the name appears.
  • The Meghdutam, a classical Sanskrit poem by Kalidasa, does not mention Bharata in the historical context seen in the Vedas.

Important Points

  • Historical Significance: The mention of Bharata in the Rig Veda highlights the early tribal and cultural identity that later expanded into the broader concept of India.
  • Constitutional Reference: Article 1 of the Constitution of India officially names the country as 'India, that is Bharat.'
  • Geographical Context: The Bharata tribe is linked to the region near the Saraswati River, often identified with present-day Haryana and Rajasthan.
  • Vedic Literature: The Rig Veda serves as a crucial source for understanding India's ancient history, including its societal structure, religious practices, and linguistic development.

100 questions in the full paper