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SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 18 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

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English Language (25 questions)

Question 1

 The board, B. in a rare moment of complete agreement, C. were unanimous in its decision D. to fire the CEO, which came as a surprise 

  1. AOption (a)

    The board

  2. BOption (b)

    in a rare moment of complete agreement

  3. COption (c)

    were unanimous in its decision

  4. DOption (d)

    to fire the CEO, which came as a surprise.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

were unanimous in its decision

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. were unanimous in its decision .

Key Points

  • The subject of the sentence is "The board", which is treated as a singular collective noun in standard English usage.
  • Therefore, the verb used with it must also be singular to maintain subject-verb agreement.
  • However, in the given sentence, the verb "were" is plural, which causes a grammatical error.
  • The correct singular verb should be "was" instead of "were".

Correct sentence: The board, in a rare moment of complete agreement, was unanimous in its decision to fire the CEO, which came as a surprise.

Additional Information

  • Collective Nouns:
  • Collective nouns like "board," "team," "committee" are usually treated as singular in American English and take singular verbs.
  • Example: The team is preparing for the big game.
  • However, in British English, they are sometimes treated as plural if the focus is on the members of the group acting individually.
  • Subject-Verb Agreement:
  • It is crucial to ensure that the verb matches the subject in both number and form.
  • Example: The committee has made its decision (singular).

Question 2

A. Despite of B. his low score in the test, C. he was able to pass D. the course.

  1. AOption (a)

    Despite of

  2. BOption (b)

    his low score in the test

  3. COption (c)

    he was able to pass

  4. DOption (d)

    the course.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Despite of

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Despite .

Key Points

  • The phrase "Despite of" is grammatically incorrect. The correct usage is simply "Despite".
  • "Despite" is a preposition that does not require the addition of "of" to indicate contrast or opposition.
  • In the given sentence, the word "Despite" should be used to introduce the contrast between the low score in the test and the ability to pass the course.

Correct sentence: Despite his low score in the test, he was able to pass the course.

Additional Information

  • Common Usage of "Despite":
  • Correct: Despite the rain, they went for a walk.
  • Incorrect: Despite of the rain, they went for a walk.
  • Other Words for Contrast:
  • Although: Although he was tired, he finished his work.
  • However: He wanted to go out; however, it was too late.

Question 3

The teacher divided the students________ four groups for the activity.

  1. AOption (a)

    in

  2. BOption (b)

    among

  3. COption (c)

    into

  4. DOption (d)

    between

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

into

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. into .

Key Points

  • The preposition "into" is used to indicate movement or transition from one state or position to another. In this case, it indicates dividing something (students) into groups.
  • The preposition "among" is used when distributing something between multiple entities, but it doesn’t fit here because we are dividing the students, not distributing something among them.
  • The preposition "in" refers to a location or position and does not convey the idea of dividing.
  • The preposition "between" is used when referring to two entities, but here the sentence refers to four groups, making it incorrect in this context.

Correct sentence: The teacher divided the students into four groups for the activity.

Additional Information

  • Usage of "into":
  • Example: The cake was cut into equal slices.
  • Explanation: Indicates division or transformation.
  • Usage of "among":
  • Example: The prize was distributed among the participants.
  • Explanation: Refers to distribution within a group.
  • Usage of "in":
  • Example: The students are sitting in the classroom.
  • Explanation: Refers to a specific location or position.
  • Usage of "between":
  • Example: The debate was held between two candidates.
  • Explanation: Refers to a relationship or comparison involving two entities.

Question 4

The poet reflects ___________the impermanence of beauty and the inevitability of decay.

  1. AOption (a)

    on

  2. BOption (b)

    over

  3. COption (c)

    under

  4. DOption (d)

    until

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

on

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. on .

Key Points

  • The verb "reflect" is commonly followed by the preposition "on", which means to think carefully or deeply about something.
  • In this context, the sentence discusses the poet contemplating or thinking deeply about the impermanence of beauty and the inevitability of decay. Therefore, "on" is the most appropriate preposition.
  • The other options do not fit the context of the sentence:
  • "over" suggests physical movement or position, which is not relevant here.
  • "under" implies being beneath something, which also does not make sense in this context.
  • "until" indicates time duration, which is unrelated to the act of reflection.

Correct sentence: The poet reflects on the impermanence of beauty and the inevitability of decay.

Additional Information

  • Common Collocations with "Reflect":
  • Reflect on: To think deeply about something. Example: She reflected on her past decisions.
  • Reflect in: To show an image or representation. Example: The mountains were reflected in the lake.
  • Reflect upon: Similar to "reflect on," used in a more formal context. Example: The speech gave him time to reflect upon his values.

Question 5

 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: Bellicose

  1. AOption (a)

    Peaceful

  2. BOption (b)

    Amiable

  3. COption (c)

    Warlike

  4. DOption (d)

    Timid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Warlike

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Warlike .

Key Points

  • The word Bellicose means demonstrating aggression or willingness to fight.
  • The correct synonym of Bellicose is Warlike, which also refers to being combative or eager to engage in conflict.
  • The other options do not match the meaning of the given word:
  • Peaceful: Opposite in meaning to Bellicose.
  • Amiable: Means friendly and pleasant, which is unrelated to aggression.
  • Timid: Refers to being shy or lacking confidence, which is also opposite in meaning to Bellicose.

Correct Sentence: The most appropriate synonym of Bellicose is Warlike.

Additional Information

  • Synonyms: Words with similar meanings.
  • Example: Angry - Furious, Mad, Irritated.
  • Antonyms: Words with opposite meanings.
  • Example: Happy - Sad, Miserable, Upset.

Question 6

 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: INTEGRITY

  1. AOption (a)

    Corruption

  2. BOption (b)

    Honesty

  3. COption (c)

    Negligence

  4. DOption (d)

    Greed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Honesty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Honesty .

Key Points

  • The word INTEGRITY refers to the quality of being honest and having strong moral principles.
  • It is synonymous with Honesty, which reflects uprightness and truthfulness in behavior or actions.
  • The other options do not match the meaning of INTEGRITY:
  • Corruption: Refers to dishonest or unethical conduct, opposite to integrity.
  • Negligence: Refers to failure to take proper care, unrelated to moral uprightness.
  • Greed: Refers to an excessive desire for wealth or power, contrary to moral principles.

Correct sentence: The most appropriate synonym of INTEGRITY is Honesty.

Additional Information

  • Synonyms: Words that have a similar meaning to a given word.
  • Example: Brave – Courageous
  • Antonyms: Words that have an opposite meaning to a given word.
  • Example: Honest – Dishonest

Question 7

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: In dribs and drabs

  1. AOption (a)

    In large quantities

  2. BOption (b)

    In a continuous flow

  3. COption (c)

    In small, irregular amounts

  4. DOption (d)

    In an unorganized manner

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

In small, irregular amounts

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. In small, irregular amounts .

Key Points

  • The idiom "in dribs and drabs" refers to something happening or arriving in small, irregular amounts rather than all at once or in a continuous flow.
  • It conveys the idea of something being inconsistent or sporadic in quantity or frequency.
  • For example, "The donations for the fundraiser came in dribs and drabs, making it difficult to meet the target quickly."

Correct meaning: The phrase "in dribs and drabs" means in small, irregular amounts.

Additional Information

  • Incorrect options:
  • Option 1: "In large quantities" is incorrect as the idiom specifically refers to small and irregular amounts.
  • Option 2: "In a continuous flow" is incorrect because the meaning is opposite to the sporadic nature implied by the idiom.
  • Option 4: "In an unorganized manner" is incorrect because the idiom does not necessarily imply disorganization, only irregularity in quantity or frequency.
  • Tips for understanding idioms:
  • Idioms often have figurative meanings that differ from their literal meanings.
  • Understanding idioms requires familiarity with their usage in context.

Question 8

 Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Minute

  1. AOption (a)

    Enormous

  2. BOption (b)

    Tiny

  3. COption (c)

    Small

  4. DOption (d)

    Insignificant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Enormous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Enormous .


Key Points

  • The word Minute means something very small or tiny in size, quantity, or importance.
  • The question asks for the antonym, which is a word opposite in meaning.
  • The correct antonym of "Minute" is Enormous, which means something very large or great in size or extent.
  • Other options:
  • Tiny: Synonym of "Minute," meaning very small.
  • Small: Synonym of "Minute," meaning not large in size.
  • Insignificant: Related word but not an antonym; refers to something unimportant or trivial.

Correct sentence: The most appropriate antonym of the word Minute is Enormous.


Additional Information

  • Understanding Antonyms:
  • An antonym is a word that has a meaning opposite to that of another word.
  • For example, the antonym of "happy" is "sad," and the antonym of "big" is "small."
  • Synonyms vs Antonyms:
  • Synonyms are words with similar meanings, while antonyms are words with opposite meanings.
  • Example:
  • Synonym of "Minute": Small, Tiny
  • Antonym of "Minute": Enormous

Question 9

Select the most appropriate antonym of the word: Extinguished

  1. AOption (a)

    Ignited

  2. BOption (b)

    Stopped

  3. COption (c)

    Quenched

  4. DOption (d)

    Burnt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ignited

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Ignited .

Key Points

  • The given word is "Extinguished," which means to put out a fire or light, or to bring something to an end.
  • To find the antonym, we need to look for a word that means the opposite, i.e., something that starts or lights a fire.
  • Among the options, "Ignited" is the correct antonym, as it means to set fire to something or to light something up.

Correct sentence: The antonym of "Extinguished" is "Ignited", which signifies the act of lighting or starting a fire..

Additional Information

  • Option Analysis:
  • Option 1: Ignited - Correct. Opposite of extinguished as it refers to lighting a fire.
  • Option 2: Stopped - Incorrect. While "Stopped" could imply an ending, it does not specifically relate to fire or light.
  • Option 3: Quenched - Incorrect. Similar in meaning to "Extinguished," as it refers to putting out a fire.
  • Option 4: Burnt - Incorrect. Refers to something that has already been consumed by fire, not the act of lighting it.
  • Understanding antonyms is crucial for vocabulary building and comprehension skills.

Question 10

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: A person who denies the existence of God

  1. AOption (a)

    Atheist

  2. BOption (b)

    Agnostic

  3. COption (c)

    Deist

  4. DOption (d)

    Pantheist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Atheist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Atheist .

Key Points

  • An Atheist is someone who denies or does not believe in the existence of God or any deities.
  • On the other hand:
  • Agnostic: Someone who believes that the existence of God is unknown or unknowable.
  • Deist: A person who believes in the existence of God based on reason and nature but rejects organized religion.
  • Pantheist: Someone who believes that God and the universe are identical or that God exists in all aspects of the universe.

Correct sentence: A person who denies the existence of God is called an Atheist.

Additional Information

  • These terms are often confused due to overlapping ideas, but they represent distinct philosophical and theological positions.
  • Atheism focuses specifically on the rejection of belief in God or gods, while Agnosticism addresses the uncertainty or lack of knowledge regarding God's existence.
  • Understanding the nuances of these terms is crucial to using them accurately in discussions or writing.

Question 11

Change the following sentence into the Active form.

The renowned professor had been given a standing ovation by the students after her powerful lecture.

  1. AOption (a)

    The students had been giving the renowned professor a standing ovation after her powerful lecture.

  2. BOption (b)

    The students gave the renowned professor a standing ovation after her powerful lecture.

  3. COption (c)

    After her powerful lecture, the students had given the renowned professor a standing ovation.

  4. DOption (d)

    After her powerful lecture, a standing ovation had been given to the renowned professor by the students.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

After her powerful lecture, the students had given the renowned professor a standing ovation.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. After her powerful lecture, the students had given the renowned professor a standing ovation .

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in the passive voice, where the subject (the renowned professor) is the receiver of the action.
  • To convert the sentence to the active voice, we need to make the doer of the action (students) the subject of the sentence.
  • The original sentence is: The renowned professor had been given a standing ovation by the students after her powerful lecture.
  • In the active voice, the sentence becomes: After her powerful lecture, the students had given the renowned professor a standing ovation.
  • This rearranges the sentence to correctly follow the structure of an active voice sentence: Subject (students) + verb (had given) + object (the renowned professor).

Correct sentence: After her powerful lecture, the students had given the renowned professor a standing ovation.

Additional Information

  • Active Voice:
  • Structure: Subject + verb + object.
  • Example: The students wrote an essay.
  • Usage: The subject performs the action.
  • Passive Voice:
  • Structure: Object + verb (to be) + past participle + by + subject.
  • Example: An essay was written by the students.
  • Usage: The focus is on the action or the receiver of the action.

Question 12

Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect voice.

He said, "I will be working on the project."

  1. AOption (a)

    He said that he would be working on the project.

  2. BOption (b)

    He said that he will be working on the project.

  3. COption (c)

    He said that he was working on the project.

  4. DOption (d)

    He said that he would work on the project.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

He said that he would be working on the project.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. He said that he would be working on the project .

Key Points

  • The given sentence is an example of converting a sentence from direct speech to indirect speech.
  • When converting to indirect speech, the tense of the verb in the reported clause usually changes according to the rules of sequence of tenses.
  • In this case, the direct speech sentence uses "will," which changes to "would" in the indirect speech.
  • The original sentence says, "He said, 'I will be working on the project.'" After conversion, it becomes, "He said that he would be working on the project."

Correct sentence: He said that he would be working on the project.

Additional Information

  • Rules for Tense Changes in Indirect Speech:
  • Present Simple → Past Simple
  • Present Continuous → Past Continuous
  • Will → Would
  • Can → Could
  • Example:
  • Direct: She said, "I am reading a book."
  • Indirect: She said that she was reading a book.

Question 13

 Which sentence contains a misspelled word?

  1. AOption (a)

    She skillfully segued into the next topic

  2. BOption (b)

    His presentation segued smoothly from one idea to another.

  3. COption (c)

    He seegued into a completely different subject halfway through.

  4. DOption (d)

    The discussion will segue into a Q&A session.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

He seegued into a completely different subject halfway through.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. He seegued into a completely different subject halfway through. .

Key Points

  • The word "segue" is a verb that means to transition smoothly from one topic or section to another.
  • In the sentence provided in option 3, the word "seegued" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "segued".
  • This makes option 3 the sentence containing the misspelled word.

Correct sentence: He segued into a completely different subject halfway through.

Additional Information

  • Common Context for "Segue":
  • The word is often used in speeches, presentations, and conversations to describe a smooth transition.
  • Example: The speaker seamlessly segued from one topic to another.
  • Other Forms:
  • Present tense: segue
  • Past tense: segued
  • Continuous tense: segueing

Question 14

Which sentence contains a misspelled word?

  1. AOption (a)

    Many believed the new millennium would bring great change, but some felt embarrassed when their predictions failed.

  2. BOption (b)

    He didn't want to embarrass himself at the start of the new millenium.

  3. COption (c)

    The celebration of the millennium was truly unforgettable, though it did embarrass a few politicians.

  4. DOption (d)

    She didn't expect the event to embarrass her during the millennium gala.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

He didn't want to embarrass himself at the start of the new millenium.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. He didn't want to embarrass himself at the start of the new millenium. .

Key Points

  • The word "millennium" is misspelled in option 2 as "millenium" (missing one 'n').
  • The correct spelling of the word is "millennium", which has two 'n's.
  • All other options have no spelling errors, making option 2 the correct choice.

Correct sentence: He didn't want to embarrass himself at the start of the new millennium.

Additional Information

  • Commonly Confused Words:
  • Millennium: Correct spelling for a period of 1,000 years.
  • Millenium: Incorrect spelling, often due to the omission of one 'n'.
  • Tips to Avoid Spelling Errors:
  • Break the word into syllables (mil-len-ni-um) to help remember the double 'n'.
  • Practice writing commonly misspelled words to reinforce correct spelling.

Question 15

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:

All the water in the bottles is over and you have to refill them

  1. AOption (a)

    All the water in the bottles are over and you have to refill it

  2. BOption (b)

    All the water in the bottles is over and you had to refill it

  3. COption (c)

    All the water in the bottles are over and you has to refill it

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the water in the bottles is over and you have to refill it

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the water in the bottles is over and you have to refill it

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '4' i.e. All of the water in the bottles is over and you have to refill it .

Key Points

  • The subject of the sentence is "all the water", which is singular because the word "water" is an uncountable noun.
  • When the subject is singular, the verb should also be singular. Therefore, the correct verb form is "is", not "are".
  • The pronoun "it" correctly refers back to the singular noun "water," as "water" is treated as a single entity.
  • The correct sentence ensures proper subject-verb agreement and maintains grammatical accuracy.

Correct sentence: All of the water in the bottles is over and you have to refill it.

Additional Information

  • Common Mistakes:
  • Using "are" instead of "is" for uncountable nouns like "water."
  • Referring back to an uncountable noun with a plural pronoun like "them" instead of "it."
  • Examples for clarity:
  • Correct: The milk in the fridge is spoiled.
  • Incorrect: The milk in the fridge are spoiled.
  • Correct: All of the rice is cooked and ready to serve.
  • Incorrect: All of the rice are cooked and ready to serve.

Question 16

Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:

Three hour is the duration of the exam.

  1. AOption (a)

    Three hour are the duration of the exam

  2. BOption (b)

    Three hours are the duration of the exam

  3. COption (c)

    Three hours is the duration of the exam

  4. DOption (d)

    Three hours were the duration of the exam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Three hours is the duration of the exam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Three hours is the duration of the exam .

Key Points

  • The subject of the sentence is "Three hours", which refers to a specific duration of time.
  • In English, when a unit of time, distance, or money is used as a single entity or measure, it is treated as singular, and the verb must agree accordingly.
  • Hence, the correct verb to use with "Three hours" in this context is "is" (singular form).

Correct sentence: Three hours is the duration of the exam.

Additional Information

  • Subject-Verb Agreement:
  • When a subject refers to a collective unit, such as "time, distance, or money," it is considered singular, regardless of plurality in its form.
  • Example: Ten dollars is enough for lunch.
  • Common Mistake:
  • It is incorrect to use a plural verb like "are" or "were" with time expressions treated as singular units.
  • Example of incorrect usage: "Three hours are the duration of the exam."

Question 17

Choose the correct passive voice transformation of the sentence:

They will have built the bridge by next year.

  1. AOption (a)

    The bridge will have been built by them by next year.

  2. BOption (b)

    The bridge will be built by them by next year.

  3. COption (c)

    The bridge would have been built by them by next year.

  4. DOption (d)

    The bridge has been built by them by next year.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The bridge will have been built by them by next year.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The bridge will have been built by them by next year .

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in the future perfect tense, which describes actions that will be completed before a specific point in the future.
  • The passive voice transformation of a sentence in the future perfect tense follows the structure: Object + will have been + past participle + (by + subject).
  • Here, the active sentence is: "They will have built the bridge by next year."
  • In the passive voice:
  • The object of the active sentence, "the bridge," becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
  • The verb "will have built" changes to "will have been built" to indicate the passive voice.
  • The subject of the active sentence, "they," is included in the passive sentence with "by them."

Correct sentence: The bridge will have been built by them by next year.

Additional Information

  • Active voice to passive voice transformation rules:

  • Identify the object of the active sentence and make it the subject of the passive sentence.

  • Change the verb form according to the passive voice structure, keeping the tense intact.

  • Include the subject of the active sentence after the verb, preceded by "by," if necessary.

  • Examples of future perfect tense transformation:

  • Active: She will have completed the project by tomorrow.
    Passive: The project will have been completed by her by tomorrow.

  • Active: They will have finished the homework.
    Passive: The homework will have been finished by them.

Question 18

Choose the correct passive voice transformation of the sentence:

The children are making colorful decorations for the upcoming school festival.

  1. AOption (a)

    Colorful decorations are made by the children for the upcoming school festival.

  2. BOption (b)

    Colorful decorations are being made by the children for the upcoming school festival

  3. COption (c)

    Colorful decorations were being made by the children for the upcoming school festival.

  4. DOption (d)

    Colorful decorations have been made by the children for the upcoming school festival.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Colorful decorations are being made by the children for the upcoming school festival

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Colorful decorations are being made by the children for the upcoming school festival.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is in the present continuous tense, as indicated by the use of "are making."
  • To convert a sentence from active to passive voice in the present continuous tense:
  • The structure changes to: Object + is/are/am + being + past participle + by + subject.
  • In the given sentence:
  • Active voice: The children are making colorful decorations for the upcoming school festival.
  • Object: Colorful decorations
  • Verb: are making → are being made (in passive voice)
  • Subject: The children → by the children

Correct sentence: Colorful decorations are being made by the children for the upcoming school festival.

Additional Information

  • Passive voice structure for tenses:
  • Present Simple: Object + is/are/am + past participle
  • Example: The letter is written by John.
  • Present Continuous: Object + is/are/am + being + past participle
  • Example: The book is being read by Mary.
  • Present Perfect: Object + has/have + been + past participle
  • Example: The homework has been completed by the students.

Question 19

The environmentalist said that although the governments had been discussing the issue for years, they had not yet implemented any effective measures, and he believed that time was running out.

  1. AOption (a)

    "Although the governments were discussing the issue for years, they have not yet implemented any effective measures, and I believe that time is running out," the environmentalist said.

  2. BOption (b)

    "Although the governments have been discussing the issue for years, they haven't yet implemented any effective measures, and I believe that time is running out," the environmentalist said.

  3. COption (c)

    "Although the governments had been discussing the issue for years, they had not yet implemented any effective measures, and I believed that time was running out," the environmentalist said.

  4. DOption (d)

    "Although the governments had been discussing the issue for years, they have not yet implemented any effective measures, and I believed that time was running out," the environmentalist said.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

"Although the governments have been discussing the issue for years, they haven't yet implemented any effective measures, and I believe that time is running out," the environmentalist said.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '2' i.e. "Although the governments have been discussing the issue for years, they haven't yet implemented any effective measures, and I believe that time is running out," the environmentalist said.

Key Points

  • The sentence given uses reported speech, which requires accuracy in terms of tense, pronouns, and structure.
  • Since the environmentalist is quoted directly, the sentence requires appropriate use of present perfect progressive tense to indicate an action that started in the past and is still ongoing.
  • Option 2 correctly employs the present perfect progressive tense ("have been discussing") to reflect the ongoing nature of the governments' discussion and aligns well with the quote format.
  • Additionally, the phrase "haven't yet implemented" is grammatically correct and indicates that no effective measures have been taken yet.

Correct sentence: "Although the governments have been discussing the issue for years, they haven't yet implemented any effective measures, and I believe that time is running out," the environmentalist said.

Additional Information

  • Why not Option 1?
  • Option 1 uses "were discussing" (past continuous), which is incorrect because it doesn’t align with the ongoing nature of the governments' actions.
  • Why not Option 3?
  • Option 3 uses "had been discussing" (past perfect progressive), which is incorrect because it implies the action of discussing was completed before another past action.
  • Why not Option 4?
  • Option 4 incorrectly mixes tenses by combining "had been discussing" with "have not yet implemented," leading to inconsistency in tense usage.

The evolution of artificial lighting has been a remarkable journey from primitive illumination to sophisticated, energy-efficient systems. Early humans relied on rudimentary sources such as torches and oil lamps, which, though limited in luminosity, extended productive hours beyond daylight. The invention of the incandescent bulb in the late 19th century, pioneered by Thomas Edison and others, heralded a transformative era, delivering consistent brightness through electrically heated filaments.

This innovation was soon succeeded by fluorescent lighting, which employed gas discharge to produce light more efficiently, albeit with a colder hue. The 20th century also witnessed the rise of halogen lamps, prized for their compact size and enhanced brightness. However, the most significant leap emerged with the advent of Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs). LEDs combine minimal energy consumption with exceptional longevity, revolutionising residential, commercial, and public lighting. Modern developments have expanded beyond mere illumination.

Smart lighting systems integrate with digital networks, allowing remote control, colour customisation, and adaptive brightness. These technologies not only optimise energy usage but also contribute to mood enhancement and architectural aesthetics. From the flicker of a primitive flame to the programmable glow of smart LEDs, lighting has evolved into a convergence of science, design, and sustainability-an indispensable facet of contemporary life. The phrase "allowing remote control, colour customisation, and adaptive brightness" functions as:

Question 20

The phrase "allowing remote control, colour customisation, and adaptive brightness" functions as:

  1. AOption (a)

    Gerund phrase

  2. BOption (b)

    Participle phrase

  3. COption (c)

    Infinitive phrase

  4. DOption (d)

    Absolute phrase

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Participle phrase

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase begins with "allowing," which is a present participle (a verb ending in -ing that acts as an adjective).
  • In this sentence, the phrase "allowing remote control..." modifies the noun phrase "Smart lighting systems." It provides additional information about what these systems do or what their characteristics are.
  • Why other options are incorrect:
  • Option 1 (Gerund phrase): A gerund also ends in -ing but functions as a noun (e.g., "Allowing remote control is a great feature"). In the passage, it is describing a noun, not acting as one.
  • Option 3 (Infinitive phrase): An infinitive phrase starts with "to" plus a verb (e.g., "to allow").
  • Option 4 (Absolute phrase): An absolute phrase modifies the entire sentence and usually consists of a noun followed by a participle (e.g., "The technology allowing remote control, users felt empowered"). This phrase is specifically tied to the subject "Smart lighting systems."

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, distinguishing between a Gerund and a Present Participle is a common trap. If the '-ing' word describes a noun (adjective function), it's a Participle. If it is the subject or object of a sentence (noun function), it's a Gerund.

 

Additional Information

  • Luminosity: The quality of being bright or emitting light.
  • Incandescent: Emitting light as a result of being heated.
  • Convergence: The process of moving toward union or uniformity.
  • Contemporary: Belonging to or occurring in the present.

Question 21

Identify the tense in "has evolved into a convergence of science, design, and sustainability".

  1. AOption (a)

    Present perfect

  2. BOption (b)

    Past perfect

  3. COption (c)

    Present continuous

  4. DOption (d)

    Simple present

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Present perfect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

  • The phrase "has evolved" follows the structure of the Present Perfect Tense.
  • The formula for Present Perfect is: Subject + Has/Have + Past Participle (V3).
  • Subject: lighting
  • Auxiliary Verb: has
  • Past Participle: evolved
  • The Present Perfect is used here because the action (evolution) started in the past and has a connection to the present—lighting is currently in this "converged" state.
  • Why other options are incorrect:
  • Option 2 (Past perfect): This would use "had evolved," indicating an action completed before another past action.
  • Option 3 (Present continuous): This would use "is evolving," indicating an action currently in progress.
  • Option 4 (Simple present): This would use "evolves," indicating a general fact or habit.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, identifying tenses often requires looking for the specific auxiliary verb. Whenever you see "has/have" paired with a V3 verb, it is a guaranteed indicator of the Present Perfect family.

 

Additional Information

  • Convergence: The state of separate elements joining or coming together.
  • Sustainability: The ability to be maintained at a certain rate or level, often regarding the environment.
  • Indispensable: Absolutely necessary.
  • Facet: A particular aspect or feature of something.

Question 22

The word "luminosity" most nearly means:

  1. AOption (a)

    Heat production

  2. BOption (b)

    Brightness

  3. COption (c)

    Lifespan

  4. DOption (d)

    Complexity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Brightness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • In the context of the passage, "luminosity" is used to describe the quality of early light sources like torches and oil lamps. The text states they were "limited in luminosity" but still "extended productive hours beyond daylight."
  • The root word is "lumen" (Latin for light). In physics and general English, luminosity refers to the amount of light emitted by an object; hence, brightness is the closest synonym.
  • Why other options are incorrect:
  • Option 1 (Heat production): While early lamps did produce heat, the passage is discussing their function as lighting tools.
  • Option 3 (Lifespan): The text uses the word "longevity" later on to describe how long a light source lasts (specifically regarding LEDs).
  • Option 4 (Complexity): The passage describes early sources as "rudimentary" (simple), not complex.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, vocabulary questions often use words that share a "domain." Heat, brightness, and lifespan are all related to lightbulbs, but you must look at the etymology (Lumen = Light) to pick the specific meaning.

 

Additional Information

  • Rudimentary: Involving or limited to basic principles; primitive.
  • Heralded: Signaled the appearance of; ushered in.
  • Albeit: Though; even though.
  • Indispensable: Absolutely necessary; something one cannot do without.

Question 23

The word "heralded" in the passage means:

  1. AOption (a)

    Criticised

  2. BOption (b)

    Announced or signified

  3. COption (c)

    Hidden

  4. DOption (d)

    Delayed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Announced or signified

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

  • In the context of the sentence, "heralded" is used to describe the impact of the incandescent bulb: it "heralded a transformative era."
  • To herald something means to be a sign that it is about to happen or to announce its arrival. In this historical context, the invention of the bulb signified the beginning of a major shift in how humans lived.
  • Why other options are incorrect:
  • Option 1 (Criticised): The passage treats the invention of the bulb as a positive "transformative" event, not a negative one to be attacked.
  • Option 3 (Hidden): An invention that changes the world is the opposite of something hidden; it is highly visible and impactful.
  • Option 4 (Delayed): The text suggests the invention started the era immediately, rather than pushing it back or slowing it down.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, the word "herald" often appears in historical or scientific passages. It acts as a "transition" verb, moving the narrative from an old state to a new, often better, one.

 

Additional Information

  • Pioneered: To be among the first to explore or develop a new method or area.
  • Transformative: Causing a marked change in someone or something.
  • Albeit: A conjunction meaning "even though" or "notwithstanding."
  • Advent: The arrival of a notable person, thing, or event.

Question 24

According to the passage, which lighting innovation combined minimal energy use with exceptional lifespan?

  1. AOption (a)

    Incandescent bulb

  2. BOption (b)

    Fluorescent light

  3. COption (c)

    Halogen lamp

  4. DOption (d)

    LED

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

LED

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

  • The passage explicitly identifies Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) as the innovation that "combine minimal energy consumption with exceptional longevity."
  • In this context, "longevity" is a direct synonym for "lifespan," confirming that Option 4 is the correct choice based on the text.
  • Why other options are incorrect:
  • Option 1 (Incandescent bulb): These are described as the first transformative era but are not noted for energy efficiency or long lifespans (they rely on heated filaments).
  • Option 2 (Fluorescent light): While more efficient than incandescent bulbs, the passage does not attribute the specific combination of "minimal energy" and "exceptional longevity" to them.
  • Option 3 (Halogen lamp): These are "prized for their compact size and enhanced brightness," but not specifically for their energy savings or lifespan in this text.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, questions often use synonyms to test your comprehension. Recognizing that "longevity" in the passage refers to "lifespan" in the question is the key to identifying the correct data point.

 

Additional Information

  • Longevity: Long life; the length of time that something lasts.
  • Albeit: Although; even though.
  • Luminosity: The state or quality of being bright or luminous.
  • Advent: The arrival of a notable person, thing, or event.

Question 25

Which of the following pairs of homonyms can be used to fill in the blanks most suitably?

The new medication did not__________ the patient's symptoms as expected, so the doctor questioned its overall___________.

  1. AOption (a)

    alter, altar

  2. BOption (b)

    altar, alter

  3. COption (c)

    effect, affect

  4. DOption (d)

    affect, effect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

affect, effect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '4' i.e. affect, effect .

Key Points

  • The given sentence requires two homonyms (words that sound similar but have different meanings) to fill the blanks appropriately.
  • The first blank refers to the impact or influence of the medication, which is denoted by the verb "affect."
  • The second blank refers to the result or outcome of the medication, which is denoted by the noun "effect."
  • Therefore, the correct pair of homonyms to fit the context is "affect" and "effect."

Correct sentence: The new medication did not affect the patient’s symptoms as expected, so the doctor questioned its overall effect.

Additional Information

  • Difference between "Affect" and "Effect":
  • Affect (Verb): Refers to the action of influencing something. Example: The weather affects my mood.
  • Effect (Noun): Refers to the result or outcome of an action. Example: The effect of the medication was immediate.
  • Use "affect" when describing an action or influence, and "effect" when describing a result or outcome.

General Intelligence (25 questions)

Question 26

Find the odd one out: 4, 9, 16, 25, 30, 36

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: All numbers are perfect squares except 30.

4 → 22

9 → 32

16 → 42

25 → 52

30 → Not a perfect square

36 → 62

Thus, 30 is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 27

Pipe P can fill a tank in 12 hours, and pipe Q can empty the same tank in 18 hours. If both pipes are opened simultaneously, in how many hours will the tank be full?

  1. AOption (a)

    30 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    36 hours

  3. COption (c)

    48 hour

  4. DOption (d)

    54 hour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36 hours

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Pipe P fills tank in 12 hours

Pipe Q empties tank in 18 hours

Formula used:

LCM = Total work

Efficiency = Work / Time

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 12 and 18 = 36 (Total work)

⇒ P efficiency = 36 / 12 = 3 units/hour

⇒ Q efficiency = 36 / 18 = 2 units/hour (emptying)

⇒ Net efficiency = 3 − 2 = 1 unit/hour

⇒ Time = 36 / 1 = 36 hours

∴ Tank will be full in 36 hours

Question 28

If x = 8 and y = 3 what is the value of 3x-2y+5?

  1. AOption (a)

    21

  2. BOption (b)

    23

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    27

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

23

Why this answer is correct

Given:

x = 8

y = 3

Formula used:

Expression: 3x - 2y + 5

Calculation:

Expression = 3x - 2y + 5

⇒ 3(8) - 2(3) + 5

⇒ 24 - 6 + 5

⇒ 23

∴ The correct answer is option 2 (23).

Question 29

A shopkeeper bought an item for ₹500 and sold it for ₹650. What is the profit percentage? 

  1. AOption (a)

    20%

  2. BOption (b)

    25%

  3. COption (c)

    30%

  4. DOption (d)

    35%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) = 500 : 650 = 10 : 13.

Profit units = 13 − 10 = 3 units.

Profit Percentage = (Profit Units / CP Units) × 100 = (3 / 10) × 100 = 30%.

∴ The correct answer is 30%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of the item = ₹500

Selling Price (SP) of the item = ₹650

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price

Profit Percentage = (Profit / Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = ₹650 − ₹500

⇒ Profit = ₹150

⇒ Profit % = (150 / 500) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 150 / 5

⇒ Profit % = 30%

∴ The correct answer is 30%.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

When SP is less than CP, Loss % = [(CP − SP) / CP] × 100.

Selling Price Formula

To find SP when CP and Profit % are known: SP = [CP × (100 + Profit %)] / 100.

Cost Price Formula

To find CP when SP and Profit % are known: CP = [SP × 100] / (100 + Profit %).

Question 30

In a royal garden, decorative lamps follow this pattern: Row 1 has 4 lamps, Row 2 has 7 lamps, Row 3 has 10 lamps, with each row having 3 more lamps than the previous row. If this pattern continues for 8 rows, how many lamps are in the 8th row?

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    27

  4. DOption (d)

    29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Row 1 lamps = 4

Increment per row = 3

Number of rows = 8

Formula used:

Lamps in nth row = First row lamps + (n - 1) × Increment per row

Calculation:

Lamps in 8th row = 4 + (8 - 1) × 3

⇒ Lamps in 8th row = 4 + 7 × 3

⇒ Lamps in 8th row = 4 + 21

⇒ Lamps in 8th row = 25

∴ The correct answer is option 2 (25).

Question 31

A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 5:1. If there are 30 liters of milk, what is the total quantity of the mixture?

  1. AOption (a)

    32 liters

  2. BOption (b)

    36 liters

  3. COption (c)

    40 liters

  4. DOption (d)

    42 liters

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36 liters

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Milk: Water = 5:1

Milk = 30 liters

Formula used:

Total mixture = Milk + Water

From the ratio, Milk/Water = 5/1

⇒ Water = Milk/5

Calculation:

Water = 30 ÷ 5

⇒ Water = 6 liters

Total mixture = Milk + Water

⇒ Total mixture = 30 + 6

⇒ Total mixture = 36 liters

∴ The correct answer is option 2 (36 liters).

Question 32

A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. If A alone can complete the work in 20 days, how many days will B alone take to complete the work?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 days

  2. BOption (b)

    30 days

  3. COption (c)

    35 days

  4. DOption (d)

    40 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

30 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A + B = 12 days

A = 20 days

Calculation:

Let total work = LCM of 12 and 20 = 60

⇒ (A + B) efficiency = 60 / 12 = 5 units/day

⇒ A efficiency = 60 / 20 = 3 units/day

⇒ B efficiency = 5 − 3 = 2 units/day

⇒ Time taken by B = 60 / 2 = 30 days

∴ B alone will complete the work in 30 days

Question 33

A man starts walking from point A and walks 4 km east, then 3 km south, and finally 4 km west. How far is he from point A?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 km

  2. BOption (b)

    2 km

  3. COption (c)

    3 km

  4. DOption (d)

    4 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3 km

Why this answer is correct

Given: A man starts walking from point A and walks 4 km east, then 3 km south, and finally 4 km west.

Thus, the person is 3 km from point A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 34

A person walks 7 km east, then 5 km north, and finally 7 km west. How far is he from his starting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    5 km

  2. BOption (b)

    7 km

  3. COption (c)

    10 km

  4. DOption (d)

    12 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5 km

Why this answer is correct

Given: A person walks 7 km east, then 5 km north, and finally 7 km west.

Thus, the person is 5 km far from his starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 35

Few of the letters are given followed by a question mark (?) these letters are following a specific pattern you have to give the correct option which can replace question mark.

Find the next letter: D, G, K, P, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    V

  2. BOption (b)

    W

  3. COption (c)

    X

  4. DOption (d)

    Y

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

V

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: D, G, K, P, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, V can replace question mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 36

Instructions: For each given equation, identify the correct interchange (of signs or numbers) from the options that makes the equation true.

2 x 4 + 5 - 3 = 15

  1. AOption (a)

    Interchange 4 and 5

  2. BOption (b)

    Interchange x and +

  3. COption (c)

    Interchange 5 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Interchange 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Interchange 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Rule:

Given equation: 2 x 4 + 5 - 3 = 15

Let's check each option one by one.

  1. Interchange 4 and 5

Given equation: 2 x 4 + 5 - 3 = 15

After Interchanging 4 and 5, the equation becomes:

⇒ 2 x 5 + 4 - 3 = 15

⇒ 10 + 4 - 3 = 15

⇒ 14 - 3 = 15

⇒ 11 ≠ 15

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

  1. Interchange x and +

Given equation: 2 x 4 + 5 - 3 = 15

After Interchanging x and +, the equation becomes:

⇒ 2 + 4 x 5 - 3 = 15

⇒ 2 + 20 - 3 = 15

⇒ 22 - 3 = 15

⇒ 19 ≠ 15

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

  1. Interchange 5 and 3

Given equation: 2 x 4 + 5 - 3 = 15

After Interchanging 4 and 5, the equation becomes:

⇒ 2 x 4 + 3 - 5 = 15

⇒ 8 + 3 - 5 = 15

⇒ 11 - 5 = 15

⇒ 6 ≠ 15

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

  1. Interchange 2 and 3

Given equation: 2 x 4 + 5 - 3 = 15

After Interchanging 4 and 5, the equation becomes:

⇒ 3 x 4 + 5 - 2 = 15

⇒ 12 + 5 - 2 = 15

⇒ 17 - 2 = 15

⇒ 15 = 15

⇒ LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 37

Which one of the following numbers is not a palindromic number?

  1. AOption (a)

    1991

  2. BOption (b)

    13431

  3. COption (c)

    3983

  4. DOption (d)

    12321

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3983

Why this answer is correct

A palindromic number reads the same forward and backward.

Checking each option:

  1. 1991 → same both ways
  2. 13431 → same both ways 
  3. 3983 → reverse is 3893 (not same)
  4. 12321 → same both ways 

Thus, 3983 is not a palindromic number.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 38

Which of the following options will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 

B3, D6, F9, H12, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    J15

  2. BOption (b)

    I14

  3. COption (c)

    K16

  4. DOption (d)

    J13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

J15

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: B3, D6, F9, H12, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, J15 will replace the question mark (?) in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 39

Which of the following options will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

Z1, Y4, X9, W16, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    V25

  2. BOption (b)

    V22

  3. COption (c)

    U23

  4. DOption (d)

    U25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

V25

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: Z1, Y4, X9, W16, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, V25 will replace the question mark (?) in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 40

What should come next in the following series?

A1, C1, E2, G3, I5, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    K8

  2. BOption (b)

    K7

  3. COption (c)

    J8

  4. DOption (d)

    L8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

K8

Why this answer is correct

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Given: A1, C1, E2, G3, 15, ?

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Letters increase by +2 positions and numbers follow a Fibonacci pattern.

Letter series:

Numbers: 1, 1, 2, 3, 5

1 + 1 = 2

1 + 2 = 3

2 + 3 = 5

3 + 5 = 8

Thus, the next term is: K8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 41

In a coded language, RETAIN is coded as 24, BESIDES is coded as 35 and PROCEDURE is coded as 63, then what is the code for GIVEN ?

  1. AOption (a)

    8

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

15

Why this answer is correct

Given: RETAIN is coded as 24, BESIDES is coded as 35 and PROCEDURE is coded as 63.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Number of letters in the word × (Number of letters in the word - 2) = Code of the Word

RETAIN → 6 letters → 6 × (6 - 2) = 6 × 4 = 24

BESIDES → 7 letters → 5 × (7 - 2) = 7 × 5 = 35

PROCEDURE → 9 letters → 9 × (9 - 2) = 9 × 7 = 63

Similarly,

GIVEN → 5 letters → 5 × (5 - 2) = 5 × 3 = 15

Thus, 15 is the code for GIVEN.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 42

Study the following information and answer the given question:

E%F means E is the husband of F

E#F means E is the father of F

E$F means E is the sister of F

Then which of the following relations is true to imply that K is the Paternal Aunt of V?

  1. AOption (a)

    T%K$B#C#V

  2. BOption (b)

    T%B$K#C%V

  3. COption (c)

    T%K$C#V$B

  4. DOption (d)

    T#KB%CB\%CV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

T%K$C#V$B

Why this answer is correct

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

E is
Symbol%#$
Meaninghusbandfathersister
to F

 

1.T%K$B#C#V

It means: T is the husband of K, K is the sister of B, B is the father of C, C is the father of V.

K is not the Paternal Aunt of V.

2. T%B$K#C%V 

It means: T is the husband of B, B is the sister of K, K is the father of C, C is the husband of V.

K is not the Paternal Aunt of V.

3. T%K$C#V$B

It means: T is the husband of K, K is the sister of C, C is the father of V, V is the sister of B.

K is the Paternal Aunt of V.

4. T#KB%CB\%CV

It means: T is the father of K, K is the sister of B, B is the husband of C, C is the sister of V.

K is not the Paternal Aunt of V.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 43

What day of the week was 17 September, 2012?

  1. AOption (a)

    Saturday

  2. BOption (b)

    Thursday

  3. COption (c)

    Sunday

  4. DOption (d)

    Monday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Monday

Why this answer is correct

Given date: 17 September, 2012

YearOdd Days
1005 odd days
2003 odd days
3001 odd days
4000 odd days

Now,

Till 2012 → 2000 + 12

Leap Year2 Odd days
Ordinary Year1 Odd day

In 2000 Years the odd day is 0,

From 2001 to 2011 (11 years):

In 11 Years (2 Leap Years and 9 Ordinary Years):

2 × 2 + 9 × 1 = 4 + 9 = 13 odd days

⇒ 13 odd days.

From 1st Jan 2012 to 17th Sept 2012:

(2012 is a leap year)

⇒ 31 (Jan) + 29 (Feb) + 31 (Mar) + 30 (Apr) + 31 (May) + 30 (June) + 31 (July) + 31 (Aug) + 17 (Sept)

= 31 + 29 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 17 = 261 days

Total odd days → (261 + 13) ÷ 7

= 274 ÷ 7

= 39 weeks and 1 odd days.

No. of odd daysDay
0Sunday
1Monday
2Tuesday
3Wednesday
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday

→ 1 represents Monday.

So, 17 September, 2012 is Monday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 44

Instructions: Carefully examine the Reference Statement. Then, identify the single option among the four alternatives (a, b, c, d) that is an EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement. Pay exceptionally close attention to every character, number, symbol, space, and punctuation mark.

Reference: Rome-April 21, 753 BC.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rome-April 21, 753 BC.

  2. BOption (b)

    Rome-April 21, 753 B.C.

  3. COption (c)

    Rome-April 21, 753 BC

  4. DOption (d)

    Roome-April 21, 753 BC.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rome-April 21, 753 BC.

Why this answer is correct

AddressOptionsVerdict
Rome-April 21, 753 BC.1Rome-April 21, 753 BC.Exactly Same.
Rome-April 21, 753 BC.2Rome-April 21, 753 B.C.An extra . is present between B and C.
Rome-April 21, 753 BC.3Rome-April 21, 753 BCNo . is present after BC.
Rome-April 21, 753 BC.4Roome-April 21, 753 BC.An extra 'o' is present in Rome.

Thus, option 1 is exactly the same as the one given.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 45

Instructions: For the question below, carefully examine the Reference Statement. Then, identify the single option among the four alternatives (a, b, c, d) that is an EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement. Pay exceptionally close attention to every character, number, symbol, space, and punctuation mark.

Reference: Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.

  1. AOption (a)

    ​Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.

  2. BOption (b)

    Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 Cs.t.

  3. COption (c)

    Shangha: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.

  4. DOption (d)

    Shanghai: 2025.07.28; 14:00 CST.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

​Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.

Why this answer is correct

AddressOptionsVerdict
Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.1​Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.Exactly Same.
Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.2Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 Cs.t.S is written in small letter in CST.
Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.3Shangha: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.An 'i' is missing in Shanghai.
Shanghai: 2025.07.28, 14:00 CST.4Shanghai: 2025.07.28; 14:00 CST.; is present after 28 instead of ,.

Thus, option 1 is exactly the same as the one given.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 46

Instructions: For the question below, carefully examine the Reference Statement. Then, identify the single option among the four alternatives (a, b, c, d) that is an EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement. Pay exceptionally close attention every character, number, symbol, space, and punctuation mark.

Reference: Sarajevo: 28 Jun. 1914.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sarajevo; 28 Jun. 1914.

  2. BOption (b)

    Sarajevo; 28 Jun 1914.

  3. COption (c)

    Sarajevo: 28 Jun. 1914.

  4. DOption (d)

    Saraje_vo; 28 Jun. 1914.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sarajevo: 28 Jun. 1914.

Why this answer is correct

AddressOptionsVerdict
Sarajevo: 28 Jun. 1914.1Sarajevo; 28 Jun. 1914.; is present after Sarajevo
Sarajevo: 28 Jun. 1914.2Sarajevo; 28 Jun 1914.(.) dot is missing after Jun
Sarajevo: 28 Jun. 1914.3Sarajevo: 28 Jun. 1914.Exactly same
Sarajevo: 28 Jun. 1914.4Saraje_vo; 28 Jun. 1914.An extra _ is present in between Saraje and vo.

Thus, option 3 is exactly the same as the one given.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 47

What comes next in the series: 100, 90, 80, 70, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    60

  2. BOption (b)

    65

  3. COption (c)

    75

  4. DOption (d)

    55

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

60

Why this answer is correct

Given: 100, 90, 80, 70, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 60 comes next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 48

What comes next in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18,?

  1. AOption (a)

    27

  2. BOption (b)

    26

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

27

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, 27 comes next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 49

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

237
432
563
3953?
  1. AOption (a)

    41

  2. BOption (b)

    43

  3. COption (c)

    47

  4. DOption (d)

    45

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

41

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Column 1: (2 × 4 × 5) − 1 = 40 − 1 = 39

Column 2: (3 × 3 × 6) − 1 = 54 − 1 = 53

Similarly

Column 3: (7 × 2 × 3) − 1 = 42 − 1 = 41

Thus, 41 can be placed at the sign of question mark.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 50

In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

474
584
658
12002800?
  1. AOption (a)

    1280

  2. BOption (b)

    1380

  3. COption (c)

    1480

  4. DOption (d)

    1580

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1280

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Column 1: (4 × 5 × 6) × 10 = 120 × 10 = 1200

Column 2: (7 × 8 × 5) × 10 = 280 × 10 = 2800

Similarly,

Column 3: (4 × 4 × 8) × 10 = 128 × 10 = 1280

Thus, 1280 can be placed at the sign of question mark (?).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Quantitative Aptitude (25 questions)

Question 51

 If x is irrational and y is irrational, then x+y is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Always irrational 

  2. BOption (b)

    Always rational

  3. COption (c)

    Rational if x=-y

  4. DOption (d)

    Never rational

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rational if x=-y

Why this answer is correct

Given:

x is irrational

y is irrational

Formula Used:

Sum of two irrational numbers may be rational or irrational

Calculation:

⇒ Let x = √2

⇒ Let y = -√2

⇒ x + y = √2 + ( -√2 ) = 0

⇒ 0 is rational

⇒ Let x = √2

⇒ Let y = √3

⇒ x + y = √2 + √3

⇒ √2 + √3 is irrational

∴ The correct answer is may be rational or irrational.

Question 52

 In ΔΑΒC, AB = 7 cm, BC = 24 cm and AC = 25cm Find the value of tanC + sinC + 2cotA.

  1. AOption (a)

    2566

  2. BOption (b)

    1.233

  3. COption (c)

    1.155

  4. DOption (d)

    2.35

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1.155

Why this answer is correct

Given:

AB = 7

BC = 24

AC = 25

Formula Used:

In right triangle: sinθ = Perpendicular ÷ Hypotenuse

tanθ = Perpendicular ÷ Base

cotθ = Base ÷ Perpendicular

Calculation:

⇒ 72 + 242 = 49 + 576 = 625 = 252

⇒ Triangle is right-angled with hypotenuse = 25

⇒ For angle C: opposite = AB = 7, adjacent = BC = 24

⇒ tanC = 7 ÷ 24

⇒ sinC = 7 ÷ 25

⇒ For angle A: opposite = BC = 24, adjacent = AB = 7

⇒ cotA = 7 ÷ 24

⇒ tanC + sinC + 2cotA = 7 ÷ 24 + 7 ÷ 25 + 2 × 7 ÷ 24

⇒ = 7 ÷ 24 + 7 ÷ 25 + 14 ÷ 24

⇒ = 21 ÷ 24 + 7 ÷ 25

⇒ = 7 ÷ 8 + 7 ÷ 25

⇒ = (175 + 56) ÷ 200

⇒ = 231 ÷ 200

⇒ 1.155

∴ The correct answer is 1.155.

Question 53

Sonu and Monu together can do a piece of work in 30 days. If Sonu is 20% less efficient than Monu, in how many days can Sonu, working alone, complete 40% of the work?

  1. AOption (a)

    32 days

  2. BOption (b)

    25 days

  3. COption (c)

    30 days

  4. DOption (d)

    27 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

27 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Sonu + Monu time = 30

Sonu efficiency = 80% of Monu

Required work = 40%

Formula Used:

Efficiency ∝ 1 ÷ Time

Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

⇒ Let Monu efficiency = 5x

⇒ Sonu efficiency = 4x

⇒ Combined efficiency = 9x

⇒ 9x = 1 ÷ 30

⇒ x = 1 ÷ 270

⇒ Sonu efficiency = 4x = 4 ÷ 270 = 2 ÷ 135

⇒ Time taken by Sonu for full work = 1 ÷ (2 ÷ 135) = 135 ÷ 2

⇒ Time for 40% work = 135 ÷ 2 × 40 ÷ 100

⇒ Time = 135 ÷ 2 × 2 ÷ 5

⇒ Time = 135 ÷ 5

⇒ Time = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Question 54

The angle subtended by a chord at the center is 90°. Its length is 8 cm. What is the radius?

  1. AOption (a)

    42 cm4\sqrt{2} \text{ cm}

  2. BOption (b)

    82 cm8\sqrt{2} \text{ cm}

  3. COption (c)

    62 cm6\sqrt{2} \text{ cm}

  4. DOption (d)

    102 cm10\sqrt{2} \text{ cm}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

42 cm4\sqrt{2} \text{ cm}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Angle at center = 90

Chord length = 8

Formula Used:

Chord length = 2 × Radius × sin(θ ÷ 2)

Calculation:

⇒ 8 = 2 × r × sin(90 ÷ 2)

⇒ 8 = 2 × r × sin45

⇒ sin45 = 1 ÷ √2

⇒ 8 = 2 × r × 1 ÷ √2

⇒ 8 = √2 × r

⇒ r = 8 ÷ √2

⇒ r = 8√2 ÷ 2

⇒ r = 4√2

∴ The correct answer is 4√2.

Question 55

The length of a chord that is at a distance of 5 cm from the center of a circle of radius 13 cm is:

  1. AOption (a)

    12 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    18 cm

  3. COption (c)

    24 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    30 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius = 13

Distance from center = 5

Formula Used:

Chord length = 2 × √(Radius2 - Distance2)

Calculation:

⇒ Chord length = 2 × √(132 - 52)

⇒ = 2 × √(169 - 25)

⇒ = 2 × √144

⇒ = 2 × 12

⇒ = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24.

Question 56

The angle subtended by a chord at the center is 120°. The angle between the chord and the tangent at one endpoint is:

  1. AOption (a)

    30°

  2. BOption (b)

    60°

  3. COption (c)

    90°

  4. DOption (d)

    120°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60°

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Angle at center = 120°

Formula Used:

Angle at circumference = (1 ÷ 2) × Angle at center

Angle between tangent and chord = Angle in opposite arc

Calculation:

⇒ Angle at circumference = (1 ÷ 2) × 120 = 60°

⇒ Angle between tangent and chord = 60°

∴ The correct answer is 60°.

Question 57

The ratio of the curved surface area of a cylinder to its total surface area is 7:10, respectively. If the volume of the cylinder is 12672 cm³, then find the curved surface area of the cylinder.

  1. AOption (a)

    2080 cm²

  2. BOption (b)

    2348 cm²

  3. COption (c)

    2112 cm²

  4. DOption (d)

    2648 cm²

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2112 cm²

Why this answer is correct

Given:

CSA : TSA = 7 : 10

Volume = 12672 cm3

Formula Used:

CSA of cylinder = 2 × π × r × h

TSA of cylinder = 2 × π × r × (h + r)

Volume = π × r2 × h

Calculation:

⇒ (2 × π × r × h) ÷ [2 × π × r × (h + r)] = 7 ÷ 10

⇒ h ÷ (h + r) = 7 ÷ 10

⇒ 10h = 7h + 7r

⇒ 3h = 7r

⇒ h = (7 ÷ 3)r

⇒ Volume = π × r2 × (7r ÷ 3)

⇒ 12672 = (7 ÷ 3) × π × r3

⇒ Using π = 22 ÷ 7

⇒ 12672 = (22 ÷ 3) × r3

⇒ r3 = (12672 × 3) ÷ 22 = 1728

⇒ r = 12

⇒ h = (7 ÷ 3) × 12 = 28

⇒ CSA = 2 × (22 ÷ 7) × 12 × 28

⇒ CSA = 2112 cm2

∴ The correct answer is 2112 cm2.

Question 58

A circle is inscribed in Δ PQR touching the sides QR, PR and PQ at the points S, U and T, respectively. PQ = (QR + 5) cm, PQ=(PR+ 2)cm. If the perimeter of Δ PQR is 32 cm, then PR is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    8 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    11 cm

  3. COption (c)

    13 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    10 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

PQ = QR + 5

PQ = PR + 2

Perimeter = 32 cm

Formula Used:

Perimeter of triangle = PQ + QR + PR

Calculation:

⇒ QR = PQ − 5

⇒ PR = PQ − 2

⇒ Perimeter = PQ + (PQ − 5) + (PQ − 2)

⇒ 32 = 3PQ − 7

⇒ 3PQ = 39

⇒ PQ = 13

⇒ PR = 13 − 2 = 11

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Question 59

At 5% p.a. simple interest, the simple interest earned by A on his investment for 4 years equals the simple interest earned by B on his investment for 6 years. If B invested ₹12,000 less than A, what was A's investment (principal)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 24000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 30000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 36000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs.48000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 36000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Rate = 5%

Time for A = 4 years

Time for B = 6 years

B's investment = A − 12000

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ (A × 5 × 4) ÷ 100 = [(A − 12000) × 5 × 6] ÷ 100

⇒ A × 20 = (A − 12000) × 30

⇒ 20A = 30A − 360000

⇒ 10A = 360000

⇒ A = 36000

∴ The correct answer is 36000.

Question 60

In a partnership, P, Q, and R invested Rs 50,000, Rs 60,000, and Rs 70,000 respectively. If the total profit is Rs 24,000, how much will Q receive?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs 7,200

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs 8,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 8,500

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹9,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs 8,000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P investment = 50000

Q investment = 60000

R investment = 70000

Total profit = 24000

Formula Used:

Profit share ∝ Investment

Individual share = (Individual investment ÷ Total investment) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ Total investment = 50000 + 60000 + 70000 = 180000

⇒ Q's share = (60000 ÷ 180000) × 24000

⇒ Q's share = (1 ÷ 3) × 24000

⇒ Q's share = 8000

∴ The correct answer is 8000.

Question 61

Two numbers are in the ratio of 5:8. If 12 is added to each number, the new ratio becomes 11:17. What is the sum of the original two numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    412

  2. BOption (b)

    276

  3. COption (c)

    350

  4. DOption (d)

    312

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

312

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Ratio = 5 : 8

New ratio = 11 : 17

Formula Used:

Numbers = 5x and 8x

Ratio = (a ÷ b)

Calculation:

⇒ (5x + 12) ÷ (8x + 12) = 11 ÷ 17

⇒ 17(5x + 12) = 11(8x + 12)

⇒ 85x + 204 = 88x + 132

⇒ 204 − 132 = 88x − 85x

⇒ 72 = 3x

⇒ x = 24

⇒ Numbers = 5x = 120 and 8x = 192

⇒ Sum = 120 + 192 = 312

∴ The correct answer is 312.

Question 62

What is the least value that should be added to 1812 to make it divisible by 7, 11, and 14?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    72

  4. DOption (d)

    154

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number = 1812

Divisors = 7, 11, 14

Formula Used:

LCM of numbers

Required number = Next multiple of LCM − Given number

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 7, 11, 14 = 154

⇒ 1812 ÷ 154 = 11 remainder 118

⇒ Required addition = 154 − 118 = 36

∴ The correct answer is 36.

Question 63

The sum of two numbers is 84 and their HCF is 12. If the ratio of their LCM to their HCF is 12:1, what are the two numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    36 and 48

  2. BOption (b)

    24 and 60

  3. COption (c)

    12 and 72

  4. DOption (d)

    42 and 42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

36 and 48

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Sum = 84

HCF = 12

LCM : HCF = 12 : 1

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

Numbers = HCF × m and HCF × n where gcd(m, n) = 1

Calculation:

⇒ LCM = 12 × 12 = 144

⇒ Product = 12 × 144 = 1728

⇒ Let numbers = 12m and 12n

⇒ Sum = 12(m + n) = 84

⇒ m + n = 7

⇒ mn = (Product) ÷ 122 = 1728 ÷ 144 = 12

⇒ m, n = 3 and 4

⇒ Numbers = 12 × 3 = 36 and 12 × 4 = 48

∴ The correct answer is 36 and 48.

Question 64

The average of 20 numbers is 45. If each number is decreased by 7, what will be the new average?

  1. AOption (a)

    38

  2. BOption (b)

    49

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    34

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

38

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

If every number in a data set is increased, decreased, multiplied, or divided by a constant k, the average of the set changes in the same way.

New Average = Old Average − Decrease Value

New Average = 45 − 7 = 38

∴ The correct answer is 38.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total observations = 20

Original Average = 45

Constant decrease (k) = 7

⇒ Total Sum of 20 numbers = 20 × 45 = 900

⇒ Total reduction in sum = 20 × 7 = 140

⇒ New Total Sum = 900 − 140 = 760

⇒ New Average = New Sum ÷ Total numbers

⇒ New Average = 760 ÷ 20 = 38

∴ The correct answer is 38.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Mean Properties

If every value in a set is multiplied by a constant x, the average also becomes x times the original average.

Summation Formula

The Sum of all observations is calculated as Average × Number of items.

Effect of Addition

If each observation is increased by k, the new average is Original Average + k.

Question 65

The average salary of employees in a company is 20,000. If a new employee with a salary of ₹50,000 joins, the average increases by ₹500. Find the number of employees originally in the company.

  1. AOption (a)

    59

  2. BOption (b)

    55

  3. COption (c)

    60

  4. DOption (d)

    65

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

59

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Excess contribution by the new employee = 50,000 − 20,000 = ₹30,000.

This excess is distributed to increase the average of everyone by ₹500.

Total employees (after join) = 30,000 ÷ 500 = 60.

Original employees = 60 − 1 = 59.

∴ The correct answer is 59.

Alternate Method

Given: Original average = ₹20,000 | New salary = ₹50,000 | Increase in average = ₹500.

Formula Used: Total Sum = Average × Number of items.

Let n be the original number of employees.

⇒ Total salary initially = 20,000 × n

⇒ New total salary = 20,000n + 50,000

⇒ New average = 20,000 + 500 = 20,500

⇒ (20,000n + 50,000) ÷ (n + 1) = 20,500

⇒ 20,000n + 50,000 = 20,500(n + 1)

⇒ 20,000n + 50,000 = 20,500n + 20,500

⇒ 20,500n − 20,000n = 50,000 − 20,500

⇒ 500n = 29,500

⇒ n = 29,500 ÷ 500 = 59

∴ The correct answer is 59.

Additional Information

Inclusion Formula

Value of new person = Old Average + (Total count × Increase in Average).

Weighted Average

Combined Average = (n1a1 + n2a2) ÷ (n1 + n2), where n is count and a is average.

Deviation Method

Sum of deviations from the average is always zero. Net gain by new person = Net loss distributed among others.

Question 66

 If A is 50% more than B, and C is 30% less than the sum of A and B, then C is what percent of A?

  1. AOption (a)

    116.67%

  2. BOption (b)

    125.57%

  3. COption (c)

    134.26%

  4. DOption (d)

    111.14%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

116.67%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

B = 100

A is 50% more than B

C is 30% less than (A + B)

Formula Used:

Percentage increase = (Increase ÷ Original) × 100

Percentage decrease = (Decrease ÷ Original) × 100

Percentage = (Part ÷ Whole) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ A = 100 + 50 = 150

⇒ A + B = 150 + 100 = 250

⇒ C = 250 × (70 ÷ 100) = 175

⇒ Required % = (175 ÷ 150) × 100

⇒ = 116.67%

∴ The correct answer is 116.67%.

Question 67

A train covers 100 km at a speed of 50 km/h. Due to track repair, it reduces speed by 40% for the next 60 km. What is the total time taken for the full journey?

  1. AOption (a)

    2 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    4 hours

  3. COption (c)

    5 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    10 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4 hours

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Distance1 = 100 km

Speed1 = 50 km/h

Distance2 = 60 km

Speed reduced by 40%

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

New speed = Original speed × (100 − reduction%) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Time1 = 100 ÷ 50 = 2 hours

⇒ New speed = 50 × (60 ÷ 100) = 30 km/h

⇒ Time2 = 60 ÷ 30 = 2 hours

⇒ Total time = 2 + 2 = 4 hours

∴ The correct answer is 4 hours.

Question 68

18 men can complete a work in 20 days. After 10 days, 6 men leave. In how many more days will the remaining men finish the work?

  1. AOption (a)

    12 days

  2. BOption (b)

    13 days

  3. COption (c)

    14 days

  4. DOption (d)

    15 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Men = 18

Total days = 20

Work done in 10 days

Remaining men = 12

Formula Used:

Total work = Men × Days

Remaining work = Total work − Work done

Days = Remaining work ÷ Remaining men

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = 18 × 20 = 360

⇒ Work done in 10 days = 18 × 10 = 180

⇒ Remaining work = 360 − 180 = 180

⇒ Days required = 180 ÷ 12 = 15

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Question 69

If A purchases items worth ₹2,050 at a discount rate of 26%, what will be his total savings?

  1. AOption (a)

     ₹ 530

  2. BOption (b)

     ₹500

  3. COption (c)

     ₹450

  4. DOption (d)

     ₹533

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

 ₹533

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost of items = ₹2050

Discount rate = 26%

Formula Used:

Total savings = (Cost of items × Discount rate) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Total savings = (₹2050 × 26) ÷ 100

⇒ Total savings = ₹53300 ÷ 100

⇒ Total savings = ₹533

∴ The correct answer is ₹533.

Question 70

After deducting 25% from the marked price, the item's selling price is 7,200. If the discount is raised to 30%, what will the selling price be?

  1. AOption (a)

    *6,720

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹6,500

  3. COption (c)

    ₹6,000

  4. DOption (d)

    *5,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

*6,720

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Selling price after 25% discount = 7200

New discount = 30%

Formula Used:

Selling price = Marked price × (100 − discount%) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ 7200 = MP × (75 ÷ 100)

⇒ MP = 7200 × (100 ÷ 75) = 9600

⇒ New selling price = 9600 × (70 ÷ 100)

⇒ New selling price = 6720

∴ The correct answer is 6720.

Question 71

Two containers, A and B, hold 20 litres and 30 litres of liquid mixture, respectively. Container A has milk and water in the ratio 3: 2, while container B has them in the ratio 4:1. If the entire contents of both containers are poured into a larger vessel and thoroughly mixed, what will be the resulting ratio of milk to water in the combined mixture?

  1. AOption (a)

    6:13

  2. BOption (b)

    7:3

  3. COption (c)

    18:7

  4. DOption (d)

    2:1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

18:7

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Container A = 20 litres, ratio = 3 : 2

Container B = 30 litres, ratio = 4 : 1

Formula Used:

Quantity = Total × (part ÷ sum of ratio)

Calculation:

⇒ Milk in A = 20 × (3 ÷ 5) = 12

⇒ Water in A = 20 × (2 ÷ 5) = 8

⇒ Milk in B = 30 × (4 ÷ 5) = 24

⇒ Water in B = 30 × (1 ÷ 5) = 6

⇒ Total milk = 12 + 24 = 36

⇒ Total water = 8 + 6 = 14

⇒ Ratio = 36 : 14

⇒ Simplified ratio = 18 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 18 : 7.

Question 72

Which is the largest among these: 23,3,56\sqrt[3]{2}, \sqrt{3}, \sqrt[6]{5}

  1. AOption (a)

    23 \sqrt[3]{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    3 \sqrt[]{3}

  3. COption (c)

    56 \sqrt[6]{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    All are equal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 \sqrt[]{3}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Numbers = 21 ÷ 3, 31 ÷ 2, 51 ÷ 6

Formula Used:

If am and bn, compare by taking common power

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 3, 2, 6 = 6

⇒ (21 ÷ 3)6 = 22 = 4

⇒ (31 ÷ 2)6 = 33 = 27

⇒ (51 ÷ 6)6 = 5

⇒ 27 > 5 > 4

∴ The correct answer is √3.

Question 73

What is the equation of the line with slope -2 passing through the point (1, -3)?

  1. AOption (a)

    y = - 2x + 1

  2. BOption (b)

    y = - x - 6

  3. COption (c)

    y = - 3x + 6

  4. DOption (d)

    y =- 2x - 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

y =- 2x - 1

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the slope m = −2 and the point (1, −3).

Use the Slope-Intercept form: y = mx + c.

Substitute the coordinates: −3 = (−2 × 1) + c.

⇒ −3 = −2 + c ⇒ c = −1.

The required equation is y = −2x − 1.

∴ The correct answer is y = − 2x − 1.

Alternate Method

Given:

Slope (m) = −2

Point (x1, y1) = (1, −3)

Formula Used:

The Point-Slope form of a linear equation is: (y − y1) = m(x − x1)

Calculations:

⇒ y − (−3) = −2(x − 1)

⇒ y + 3 = −2(x) − (−2 × 1)

⇒ y + 3 = −2x + 2

⇒ y = −2x + 2 − 3

⇒ y = −2x − 1

∴ The correct answer is y = − 2x − 1.

Additional Information

Slope-Intercept Form

Defined as y = mx + c, where m represents the slope and c represents the y-intercept (the value of y when x = 0).

Slope Formula

If two points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) are known, the slope m is calculated as (y2 − y1) ÷ (x2 − x1).

Parallel and Perpendicular Lines

Parallel lines have equal slopes (m1 = m2). Perpendicular lines have slopes whose product is −1 (m1 × m2 = −1).

Question 74

 Triangle PQR is similar to Triangle XYZ. The ratio of their perimeters is 3:4. What is the ratio of the length of the median from vertex P to the length of the median from vertex X?

  1. AOption (a)

    3:4

  2. BOption (b)

    9:16

  3. COption (c)

    27:64

  4. DOption (d)

    19:17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3:4

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In similar triangles, the ratio of any corresponding linear segments (such as sides, perimeters, medians, altitudes, or angle bisectors) is always equal.

Ratio of perimeters = 3 : 4

Ratio of corresponding medians = Ratio of perimeters

∴ Ratio of medians = 3 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 3:4.

Alternate Method

Given: ΔPQR ∼ ΔXYZ and Perimeter(ΔPQR) : Perimeter(ΔXYZ) = 3 : 4.

Formula Used: For two similar triangles, Ratio of Perimeters = Ratio of Sides = Ratio of Medians = Ratio of Altitudes.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the sides of ΔPQR be a1, b1, c1 and sides of ΔXYZ be a2, b2, c2.

⇒ Perimeter of ΔPQR / Perimeter of ΔXYZ = 3 / 4

⇒ By the property of similarity, the ratio of corresponding sides is equal to the ratio of perimeters.

⇒ Ratio of sides = 3 / 4

⇒ Corresponding medians of similar triangles are in the same ratio as their corresponding sides.

⇒ Length of median from P / Length of median from X = Ratio of sides = 3 / 4

∴ The correct answer is 3:4.

Additional Information

Area Ratio Property

The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding linear dimensions (sides, medians, or perimeters). Area Ratio = (3/4)2 = 9/16.

Median Definition

A median of a triangle is a line segment joining a vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side. Every triangle has exactly three medians, which intersect at the centroid.

Similarity Criteria

Triangles are similar if their corresponding angles are equal (AA) or if their corresponding sides are in the same proportion (SSS or SAS).

Question 75

In triangle ABC, line DE || BC intersects sides AB at D and AC at E. IF AD=5 cm, DB=7 cm, and AE = 10 , find the value of EC.

  1. AOption (a)

    9 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    13 cm

  3. COption (c)

    14 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    17 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

14 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

AD = 5 cm

DB = 7 cm

AE = 10 cm

Formula Used:

If a line is parallel to one side of a triangle, then it divides the other two sides proportionally

AD ÷ DB = AE ÷ EC

Calculation:

⇒ 5 ÷ 7 = 10 ÷ EC

⇒ 5 × EC = 7 × 10

⇒ 5EC = 70

⇒ EC = 70 ÷ 5

⇒ EC = 14 cm

∴ The correct answer is 14.

General Awareness (25 questions)

Question 76

-From October 1, 2023, which organisation has introduced the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)?

  1. AOption (a)

    United Nations

  2. BOption (b)

    BRICS

  3. COption (c)

    European Union

  4. DOption (d)

    International Court of Justice

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

European Union

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is European Union.

Key Points

  • The European Union (EU) introduced the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) on October 1, 2023, as part of its broader commitment to reducing carbon emissions and addressing climate change.
  • CBAM is a critical policy under the European Green Deal, aimed at ensuring that the cost of carbon emissions is factored into the price of imported goods.
  • The mechanism applies to carbon-intensive products such as cement, aluminum, steel, fertilizers, electricity, and hydrogen, among others, imported into the European Union.
  • The primary goal of CBAM is to prevent carbon leakage, which occurs when companies relocate their production to countries with less stringent climate policies, undermining global climate goals.
  • Initially, the mechanism will operate in a transitional phase until 2026, focusing on reporting emissions without imposing financial obligations. Full implementation with a monetary carbon levy is set to begin thereafter.

Additional Information

  • European Green Deal:
  • Launched in 2019, the European Green Deal is the EU's roadmap to make Europe the first climate-neutral continent by 2050.
  • It includes policies targeting clean energy, sustainable industry, and biodiversity, along with the CBAM to address carbon leakage.
  • Carbon Leakage:
  • Occurs when industries relocate production to regions with weaker climate policies, causing an increase in global emissions rather than reducing them.
  • CBAM aims to level the playing field by imposing a carbon cost on imports equivalent to the EU’s carbon price.
  • Implementation Process:
  • During the transitional phase (2023-2026), importers are required to report the embedded emissions of their goods, but no financial payments are demanded.
  • From 2026 onwards, importers will need to purchase CBAM certificates to account for the carbon emissions of imported goods.
  • Global Implications:
  • CBAM has raised concerns among developing countries and trade partners, as it could impact their export competitiveness.
  • It encourages other countries to adopt similar carbon pricing mechanisms to align with global climate goals.
  • Comparison with Other Initiatives:
  • While CBAM is specific to the EU, similar initiatives are being discussed globally to address carbon emissions in trade.
  • For example, the United States has proposed a Clean Competition Act with similar objectives.

Question 77

Which of the following persons is associated with the sport of shooting?

  1. AOption (a)

    D. Gukesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Manu Bhakar

  3. COption (c)

    Mithali Raj

  4. DOption (d)

    Dipa Karmakar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Manu Bhakar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manu Bhakar.

Key Points

  • Manu Bhakar is a renowned Indian sportsperson associated with the sport of shooting. She has represented India in various national and international shooting competitions.
  • She gained prominence for her exceptional performance in the 10m Air Pistol and 25m Pistol events.
  • Manu Bhakar won a gold medal at the 2018 ISSF World Cup, becoming one of the youngest Indian shooters to achieve this feat.
  • She also clinched gold medals at the 2018 Commonwealth Games and the 2019 ISSF World Cup finals, solidifying her position as a top-tier shooter.
  • Her achievements have made her a key figure in Indian shooting sports, and she continues to inspire young athletes in the country.

Additional Information

  • D. Gukesh:
  • D. Gukesh is an Indian chess prodigy and is not associated with shooting.
  • He holds the title of Grandmaster in chess and is among the youngest to achieve this distinction.
  • Gukesh has represented India in international chess tournaments and has won multiple accolades in the sport.
  • Mithali Raj:
  • Mithali Raj is a former captain of the Indian women’s cricket team and is not related to shooting.
  • She is known for her exceptional batting skills and has been a leading figure in women’s cricket globally.
  • Mithali is the highest run-scorer in women’s international cricket and has received numerous awards for her contributions to the sport.
  • Dipa Karmakar:
  • Dipa Karmakar is a renowned Indian gymnast and is not associated with shooting.
  • She gained fame for her performance in the 2016 Rio Olympics, where she became the first Indian female gymnast to qualify for the Olympics final.
  • Dipa is known for executing the Produnova vault, a highly challenging gymnastics move.
  • Significance of Shooting in India:
  • Shooting is a sport where India has achieved significant success on the international stage, including the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and Asian Games.
  • Notable Indian shooters include Abhinav Bindra (India’s first individual Olympic gold medalist), Gagan Narang, and Rahi Sarnobat.
  • Organizations like the National Rifle Association of India (NRAI) play a key role in promoting and supporting shooting sports in the country.

Question 78

Who was appointed as the Governor of Manipur in December 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ajay Kumar Bhalla

  2. BOption (b)

    Anusuiya Uikey

  3. COption (c)

    V.K. Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    Lakshman Prasad Acharya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ajay Kumar Bhalla

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Anusuiya Uikey.

Key Points

  • Anusuiya Uikey was appointed as the Governor of Manipur in December 2024.
  • She previously served as the Governor of Chhattisgarh, showcasing her extensive administrative experience.
  • Her appointment as Governor of Manipur highlights the Government of India's focus on appointing experienced leaders to key gubernatorial roles in northeastern states.
  • Manipur, being a state of strategic importance in the northeast, benefits from her leadership and administrative capabilities.
  • Governors in India are appointed by the President of India under Article 155 of the Constitution, and they serve as the constitutional head of their respective states.

Additional Information

  • Role of Governors in India:
  • The Governor is the constitutional head of the state, acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
  • They have the power to reserve certain bills for the consideration of the President under Article 200.
  • The Governor also plays a critical role in ensuring the state’s administration is conducted per the provisions of the Constitution.
  • Appointment of Governors:
  • Governors are appointed by the President of India for a term of five years, but they serve at the pleasure of the President.
  • They can be transferred between states and may also be reappointed for a second term.
  • Manipur - Strategic Importance:
  • Manipur is a northeastern state with significant geographical and cultural importance, sharing borders with Myanmar.
  • The state plays a vital role in India's Act East Policy, enhancing trade and connectivity with Southeast Asia.
  • It is known for its diverse cultural heritage, including traditional dances like Raas Leela and sports such as Polo, which originated here.
  • Key Functions of the Governor:
  • Appointing the Chief Minister and other ministers.
  • Summoning, proroguing, and dissolving the state legislature.
  • Granting pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment under Article 161.
  • Ensuring the constitutional machinery of the state is upheld, particularly under Article 356 in case of a constitutional crisis.

Question 79

 In December 2024, who has been appointed as the Managing Director of SBI? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Paramesh Sivamani 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rama Mohan Rao Amara

  3. COption (c)

    Kais Saied

  4. DOption (d)

    Abhyuday Jindal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rama Mohan Rao Amara

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rama Mohan Rao Amara.

Key Points

  • Rama Mohan Rao Amara was appointed as the Managing Director (MD) of State Bank of India (SBI) in December 2024.
  • He has extensive experience in the banking sector, having served in various roles in SBI over the years.
  • His appointment reflects SBI’s commitment to strengthening leadership and ensuring efficient management of India's largest public sector bank.
  • As MD, Amara is expected to drive the bank's strategic initiatives, enhance profitability, and focus on innovation in banking services.
  • The appointment follows the guidelines set by the Government of India and the Bank Boards Bureau to ensure merit-based leadership in public sector banks.

Additional Information

  • State Bank of India (SBI):
  • SBI is India's largest public sector bank and financial institution, established in 1955.
  • It operates globally, with a network of 22,000+ branches and 58,000+ ATMs.
  • The bank plays a significant role in implementing various government schemes like PMJDY, Mudra Yojana, and Atal Pension Yojana.
  • Role of Managing Director:
  • The MD is responsible for overseeing the bank's operations, strategy, and financial performance.
  • Key responsibilities include driving growth, innovation, and digital transformation within the organization.
  • The MD also plays a crucial role in implementing government policies through the bank's services and products.
  • Bank Boards Bureau:
  • The Bank Boards Bureau was established in 2016 to recommend appointments to leadership positions in public sector banks and financial institutions.
  • It ensures transparency and merit-based selection for key management roles.
  • Recent Initiatives by SBI:
  • SBI has been focusing on digital banking and enhancing customer experiences through platforms like YONO.
  • The bank is actively involved in promoting financial inclusion and supporting MSMEs through loan schemes.
  • SBI has introduced green banking practices, including investments in renewable energy projects.
  • Important Leadership Appointments in SBI:
  • Key appointments at SBI include Chairman, Managing Directors, and Chief Financial Officers, selected based on expertise and experience.
  • Recent leadership appointments are geared toward fostering growth, innovation, and global competitiveness.

Question 80

In August 2024, who has been appointed as India's Permanent Representative to the United Nations?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tejpaul Bhatia 

  2. BOption (b)

    Santosh Kumar

  3. COption (c)

    Ajay Bhushan Pandey

  4. DOption (d)

    Parvathaneni Harish

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Parvathaneni Harish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Parvathaneni Harish.

Key Points

  • Parvathaneni Harish was appointed as India's Permanent Representative to the United Nations in August 2024, succeeding his predecessor.
  • The Permanent Representative of India to the United Nations is a critical diplomatic position that represents India in all UN forums, including the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) and the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
  • Parvathaneni Harish is a seasoned diplomat and a senior officer of the Indian Foreign Service (IFS), known for his extensive experience in global diplomacy, including holding key positions in India's missions abroad.
  • His appointment is seen as part of India's strategy to strengthen its global diplomatic footprint and effectively articulate India's stance on key international issues, including sustainable development, peacekeeping, and global security.
  • India's role at the UN has been pivotal, especially with its recent tenure as a non-permanent member of the UNSC for 2021-2022, and Harish's leadership is expected to bolster India's contributions further.

Additional Information

  • United Nations and India:
  • India is a founding member of the United Nations (UN), having signed the UN Charter in 1945.
  • India has been a strong advocate for multilateralism, sustainable development, and international peace and security within the UN framework.
  • India has contributed significantly to UN Peacekeeping Missions, being one of the largest troop-contributing nations.
  • Role of Permanent Representatives:
  • The Permanent Representative acts as the chief diplomat for a country at the UN, representing its interests in all UN forums and negotiations.
  • Responsibilities include participating in debates, contributing to resolutions, and fostering multilateral collaborations.
  • The position requires strong leadership and diplomatic skills to navigate complex global issues like climate change, conflict resolution, and human rights.
  • India's Recent Achievements at the UN:
  • India served as a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council (UNSC) for the 2021-2022 term, highlighting its role in global decision-making.
  • During this tenure, India chaired key committees, including the Counter-Terrorism Committee and the Libya Sanctions Committee.
  • India has also been actively advocating for UN reforms, including a permanent seat in the UNSC, under the G4 coalition.
  • Parvathaneni Harish's Background:
  • He is a senior officer of the Indian Foreign Service (IFS), having joined in 1990.
  • Harish has served in various capacities, including as India's Ambassador to Vietnam and other key diplomatic postings.
  • His expertise spans critical areas like trade negotiations, bilateral relations, and multilateral diplomacy.
  • India's Vision at the UN:
  • India emphasizes equitable global governance, counter-terrorism, climate change action, and sustainable development.
  • It also champions the Global South by advocating for fair representation and addressing developmental challenges faced by developing nations.
  • India's initiatives, such as the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), highlight its global leadership in addressing climate change.

Question 81

Under Subhadra Yojana introduced in September 2024 by Odisha government, over what period (in years) do beneficiaries receive Rs. 50000?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

  • Subhadra Yojana was introduced by the Odisha government in September 2024 to provide financial assistance to beneficiaries.
  • Under the scheme, beneficiaries receive a total of Rs. 50,000 over a period of 5 years. Hence, the correct answer is 5 years.
  • This financial support aims to empower vulnerable sections of society, particularly women and economically weaker groups.
  • The funds are disbursed systematically in installments to achieve specific goals, such as enhancing livelihood opportunities and ensuring social security.
  • The scheme is monitored by the Department of Women and Child Development, Odisha, ensuring transparency and proper implementation.

Additional Information

  • Key Objectives of Subhadra Yojana:
  • The scheme is designed to provide financial aid to marginalized sections of society, with a focus on women-led households.
  • It promotes inclusive development by addressing poverty and improving access to education, healthcare, and basic needs.
  • Implementation Process:
  • Funds are disbursed through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to ensure transparency and prevent leakages.
  • The scheme is overseen by the Department of Women and Child Development, Odisha, ensuring that all targeted beneficiaries receive their entitlements.
  • Comparison with Similar Initiatives:
  • Mission Shakti, another scheme by the Odisha government, focuses on women empowerment.
  • Other states in India have launched similar initiatives to support vulnerable groups, such as the KALIA Scheme for farmers.
  • Statistical Overview:
  • The scheme aims to cover a significant portion of the population below the poverty line in Odisha.
  • This initiative is expected to contribute positively to the state's Human Development Index (HDI) rankings.

Important Points

  • Eligibility Criteria:
  • Beneficiaries must belong to economically weaker sections or marginalized communities.
  • Preference is given to women-led households and families with limited access to resources.
  • Financial Inclusion:
  • The scheme encourages beneficiaries to open and operate bank accounts.
  • Funds are credited directly to beneficiaries’ accounts to ensure transparency.
  • Examples of Similar Initiatives:
  • The KALIA Scheme in Odisha provides financial assistance to farmers and landless agricultural laborers.
  • The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) focuses on financial inclusion by offering banking facilities to underprivileged groups.

Question 82

Department of Health Research has organized___________ Campaign from 17th September 2024 to 2nd October 2024.

  1. AOption (a)

    Swachhata Hi Seva 

  2. BOption (b)

    Swachhata Hi Shikha

  3. COption (c)

    Swachhata Hi Puja Swachhata Hi

  4. DOption (d)

    Vandana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Swachhata Hi Seva 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign.

Key Points

  • The Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign is a flagship initiative of the Department of Health Research, aligned with the Swachh Bharat Mission, to promote cleanliness and hygiene across India.
  • The campaign is scheduled from 17th September 2024 to 2nd October 2024, coinciding with the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, a staunch advocate of cleanliness and sanitation.
  • It emphasizes community participation to drive activities such as cleanliness drives, waste removal, and awareness programs aimed at achieving a cleaner and healthier environment.
  • The campaign focuses on ensuring the active involvement of citizens, schools, businesses, NGOs, and local bodies to promote sustainable hygiene practices, particularly in urban and rural areas.
  • This initiative is part of the larger Swachh Bharat Mission, which was launched on 2nd October 2014 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to achieve universal sanitation coverage and eliminate open defecation in India.

Additional Information

  • Swachh Bharat Mission:
  • The Swachh Bharat Mission was launched on 2nd October 2014 to honor Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of cleanliness and sanitation.
  • The mission comprises two components: Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) and Swachh Bharat Mission (Rural).
  • As of today, the mission has led to the construction of over 100 million toilets across India, significantly reducing open defecation.
  • It also emphasizes waste management through methods like solid waste management and door-to-door waste collection.
  • Mahatma Gandhi's Role in Cleanliness Advocacy:
  • Mahatma Gandhi consistently advocated for the importance of cleanliness, considering it equally important as independence.
  • He often emphasized that a clean environment is essential for building a healthy and progressive society.
  • His teachings continue to inspire modern initiatives like the Swachh Bharat Mission and the Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign.
  • Plastic-Free India Campaign:
  • The Plastic-Free India Campaign aims to eliminate the use of single-use plastics to combat environmental pollution.
  • It promotes the adoption of sustainable and eco-friendly alternatives to reduce the environmental impact of plastic waste.
  • Namami Gange Program:
  • The Namami Gange Program is a flagship initiative by the Government of India to clean and rejuvenate the Ganga River.
  • It integrates efforts to address issues such as water pollution, waste management, and biodiversity conservation.
  • Impact of the Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign:
  • Contributes to reducing the prevalence of diseases such as diarrhea and cholera caused by unhygienic conditions.
  • Improves the quality of life, especially for women and children.
  • Promotes sustainable waste management practices like recycling and composting.

Important Points

  • Government Support:
  • The government provides financial assistance to urban and rural areas for constructing toilets and waste management systems.
  • Educational campaigns are organized to spread awareness about the importance of cleanliness and hygiene.
  • Digital platforms monitor and report the progress of cleanliness initiatives under this campaign.
  • Community Involvement:
  • Local bodies, schools, and NGOs are encouraged to actively participate in cleanliness drives.
  • Competitions, workshops, and rallies are organized to engage citizens in promoting hygiene practices.

Question 83

The typically Judo platform is of which  shape?

  1. AOption (a)

    Square

  2. BOption (b)

    Rectangular

  3. COption (c)

    Hexagon

  4. DOption (d)

    Circular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Square

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Square.

Key Points

  • The standard competition platform used in Judo is a square-shaped mat, commonly referred to as the tatami.
  • The contest area is typically 10 meters x 10 meters, with an additional 3-meter safety area surrounding it to ensure the safety of participants.
  • The square layout ensures equal opportunities for both players, providing enough space for techniques like throws, grappling, and groundwork.
  • The mats are made of shock-absorbing materials to minimize injuries during high-impact throws and falls.
  • The International Judo Federation (IJF) regulations mandate the use of a square contest area to standardize competitions globally, including major events like the Olympics and World Championships.

Additional Information

  • Judo History:
  • Judo was founded in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.
  • It emphasizes leverage, technique, and balance rather than brute strength.
  • Judo became an Olympic sport in 1964 during the Tokyo Games.
  • Tatami Mats:
  • The mats used in Judo are known as tatami.
  • Traditionally, they were made from rice straw, but modern versions use materials like foam.
  • The tatami provides a non-slip surface and cushions falls to prevent injuries.
  • Other Shapes in Combat Sports:
  • Rectangular: Used in sports like wrestling and boxing, suitable for movement patterns in those sports.
  • Hexagonal: Seen in mixed martial arts (MMA) to enhance visibility and mobility.
  • Circular: Common in traditional martial arts or sumo wrestling to emphasize boundaries.
  • Safety Regulations:
  • The International Judo Federation (IJF) mandates a 3-meter safety area around the contest area to prevent injuries during high-intensity matches.
  • The shock-absorbing mats are maintained to ensure safe competition conditions.

Important Points

  • Judo Belt System:
  • Judokas progress through a belt ranking system (kyu and dan grades) based on their skill levels.
  • The belt colors range from white (beginner) to black (expert).
  • Scoring in Judo:
  • Points are awarded for techniques like throws (ippon), pins (osaekomi), and submissions.
  • An ippon signifies a perfect throw or submission, instantly ending the match.
Code

Question 84

In which year did India won their first Olympic gold medal in hockey?

  1. AOption (a)

    1900

  2. BOption (b)

    1896

  3. COption (c)

    1924

  4. DOption (d)

    1928

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1928

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1928.

Key Points

  • India won its first Olympic gold medal in hockey in the year 1928 during the Amsterdam Olympics.
  • The Indian hockey team defeated the Netherlands (host nation) in the final with a score of 3-0 to secure the gold medal.
  • The victory marked the beginning of India's dominance in field hockey, as the team went on to win six consecutive Olympic gold medals from 1928 to 1956.
  • Dhyan Chand, one of the greatest hockey players in history, played a pivotal role in this victory by scoring two goals in the final match.
  • This was the first time India participated as an independent hockey team, symbolizing its emergence as a global powerhouse in the sport.

Additional Information

  • Dhyan Chand's Legacy:
  • Dhyan Chand, widely known as the "Wizard of Hockey," scored a total of 14 goals in five matches during the 1928 Olympics.
  • His birthday, 29th August, is celebrated as National Sports Day in India to honor his contributions to Indian hockey.
  • India's Dominance in Hockey:
  • India won six consecutive Olympic gold medals in hockey from 1928 to 1956, remaining unbeaten during this period.
  • During these years, India scored a total of 178 goals while conceding only seven, showcasing its unparalleled dominance in the sport.
  • Other Olympic Gold Medals:
  • India has won a total of eight Olympic gold medals in hockey. These victories came in 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, and 1980.
  • The last Olympic gold medal in hockey was achieved during the 1980 Moscow Olympics.
  • Field Hockey in the Olympics:
  • Field hockey was introduced in the Olympics in 1908, but India participated for the first time in 1928.
  • India's early success in hockey helped popularize the sport across the country.
  • In recent decades, nations like Netherlands, Germany, and Australia have emerged as strong competitors in the sport.
  • Important Points:
  • The 1928 victory was India's first major international achievement, instilling a sense of pride and unity during the colonial period.
  • Post-independence, players like Balbir Singh Sr. and Leslie Claudius contributed to India's continued success in hockey.
  • Efforts to revive Indian hockey include initiatives like the Hockey India League and grassroots development programs.
  • India's bronze medal win in men's hockey at the 2021 Tokyo Olympics marked a significant step in the sport's revival.

Question 85

Which of the following game is known as the "Gentleman's Game"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kabaddi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Badminton

  3. COption (c)

    Lawn tennis

  4. DOption (d)

    Cricket

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cricket

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cricket.

Key Points

  • Cricket is often referred to as the "Gentleman's Game" due to its long-standing association with fairness, respect, and sportsmanship.
  • The term originated during the early days of cricket in England, where the sport was played predominantly by aristocrats and upper-class individuals, emphasizing gentlemanly conduct.
  • Etiquette plays a key role in cricket, including respecting the umpire’s decisions, applauding opponents’ achievements, and maintaining discipline on the field.
  • The International Cricket Council (ICC) actively promotes values such as fair play and mutual respect among players, aligning with the principles of the "Gentleman's Game."
  • Although the phrase is traditional, modern cricket has evolved to include players from diverse social backgrounds, but the emphasis on sportsmanship remains central to the game.

Additional Information

  • History of Cricket:
  • Cricket originated in England during the 16th century and became a professional sport by the 18th century.
  • The first recorded international match took place between the USA and Canada in 1844.
  • Test cricket, the longest format of the game, began in 1877 with a match between England and Australia.
  • Features of Cricket:
  • Cricket is played in three formats: Test matches, One-Day Internationals (ODIs), and T20 Internationals.
  • It involves two teams of 11 players each, with roles such as batsmen, bowlers, and fielders.
  • Key equipment includes a bat, ball, wickets, and protective gear such as helmets and pads.
  • Global Reach:
  • Cricket is popular in countries like India, Australia, England, South Africa, Pakistan, and New Zealand.
  • The ICC Cricket World Cup, held every four years, is one of the most prestigious tournaments in cricket.
  • Sportsmanship in Cricket:
  • Players are expected to uphold values like respect, integrity, and team spirit.
  • Incidents of sledging or unsportsmanlike behavior are discouraged and can lead to penalties.
  • Important Points:
  • Kabaddi: A traditional Indian sport emphasizing physical strength and strategy, popular in South Asia.
  • Badminton: A racket sport played indoors, originating in British India, now globally popular.
  • Lawn Tennis: A global sport played on grass, clay, or hard courts, requiring skill, speed, and strategy.
  • Cricket's Cultural Impact: Cricket has a massive fan base, especially in countries like India, where it is considered more than a sport—almost a religion. Players like Sachin Tendulkar, Virat Kohli, and Don Bradman are celebrated as icons of the game.
  • Cricket Governance: The ICC is the global governing body responsible for organizing international tournaments and ensuring fair play. Domestic cricket leagues like the Indian Premier League (IPL) have added commercial value to the sport.

Question 86

The shape of Basketball must be _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    spherical

  2. BOption (b)

    cylindrical

  3. COption (c)

    geoid

  4. DOption (d)

    conical 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

spherical

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is spherical.

Key Points

  • The shape of a basketball is spherical, ensuring uniformity in its bounce, roll, and gameplay.
  • A spherical design provides a smooth and round surface, allowing consistent handling, dribbling, and shooting accuracy.
  • Basketballs are designed to meet international standards set by governing bodies like FIBA (International Basketball Federation) and the NBA (National Basketball Association).
  • The spherical shape ensures the ball rolls predictably and maintains its balance during play, which is crucial for professional and recreational games.
  • Other shapes such as cylindrical, geoid, or conical would cause erratic bouncing and movement, making them unsuitable for basketball.

Additional Information

  • Specific Characteristics of Basketball:
  • The circumference of a standard basketball for men’s games is approximately 29.5 inches (75 cm), while for women’s games, it is 28.5 inches (72 cm).
  • Basketballs are made of materials like leather, composite leather, or rubber, ensuring durability and grip.
  • The balls are inflated to a standard pressure, typically 7.5 to 8.5 pounds per square inch (psi), to maintain their spherical shape during play.
  • Why Other Shapes Are Unsuitable:
  • Cylindrical: Would lead to uneven bouncing and rolling, making it unsuitable for basketball gameplay.
  • Geoid: An irregular shape like Earth's would result in unpredictable movement and bounce.
  • Conical: Would not roll or bounce properly, creating challenges in dribbling and shooting.
  • Historical Context:
  • The basketball was first used in 1891 when Dr. James Naismith invented the game.
  • Initially, soccer balls were used, but later, spherical basketballs were designed specifically for the sport to ensure better control, bounce, and gameplay.
  • Applications:
  • Basketballs are used in professional leagues like NBA, WNBA, and FIBA, college games, and recreational play.
  • They are also employed in training sessions to develop skills like dribbling, passing, and shooting.

Important Points

  • FIBA Specifications:
  • Official basketball size for men’s games is size 7 (29.5 inches), while for women’s games, it is size 6 (28.5 inches).
  • Material Innovation:
  • Modern basketballs use advanced materials like microfiber composite leather for enhanced grip and durability.
  • Some feature moisture-wicking technology for better performance in various conditions.

Question 87

Major Dhyan Chand is related to which of the following sports?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shooting 

  2. BOption (b)

    Hockey

  3. COption (c)

    Cricket

  4. DOption (d)

    Badminton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hockey

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Major Dhyan Chand is related to Hockey.

Key Points

  • Major Dhyan Chand was an Indian field hockey player and is widely regarded as one of the greatest hockey players of all time.
  • He was popularly known as the "Wizard of Hockey" due to his extraordinary control and skills in the game.
  • Major Dhyan Chand was instrumental in helping India win three Olympic gold medals in hockey – in 1928 (Amsterdam), 1932 (Los Angeles), and 1936 (Berlin).
  • His performance in the 1936 Berlin Olympics is considered legendary, as India defeated Germany 8-1, with Dhyan Chand scoring multiple goals.
  • In India, National Sports Day is celebrated on 29th August every year, which is Dhyan Chand's birth anniversary.

Additional Information

  • Early Life:
  • Major Dhyan Chand was born on 29 August 1905 in Allahabad (now Prayagraj), Uttar Pradesh.
  • He joined the Indian Army at the age of 16 in 1922, where he began to play hockey seriously.
  • Career Achievements:
  • Dhyan Chand scored over 400 international goals and more than 1,000 goals in his entire hockey career.
  • He represented the Indian hockey team from 1926 to 1948, contributing significantly to its dominance in the sport during that period.
  • Recognition:
  • He was awarded the Padma Bhushan, India’s third-highest civilian honor, in 1956.
  • The National Stadium in New Delhi was renamed as Dhyan Chand National Stadium in his honor.
  • In 2021, the Khel Ratna Award, India’s highest sporting honor, was renamed the "Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award" in recognition of his contributions to sports.
  • Legacy:
  • Major Dhyan Chand is celebrated as a sports icon in India, inspiring generations of hockey players.
  • A biography titled "Goal!" was written to commemorate his achievements and contributions to hockey.

Important Points

  • Other Sports Options:
  • Shooting: India has produced renowned shooters like Abhinav Bindra, who won a gold medal in the 2008 Beijing Olympics, but this sport is unrelated to Major Dhyan Chand.
  • Cricket: While cricket is highly popular in India, with legends like Sachin Tendulkar, Dhyan Chand’s achievements are specific to hockey.
  • Badminton: India has badminton stars like P.V. Sindhu and Saina Nehwal, but this sport is unrelated to Major Dhyan Chand’s legacy.
  • Olympic Dominance:
  • Hockey was introduced as a medal sport in the Olympics in 1928, the same year India won its first gold medal in hockey under Major Dhyan Chand's leadership.
  • India dominated hockey in the Olympics during 1928-1956, winning six consecutive gold medals.

Question 88

Which of the following two states have jointly conducted a Nilgiri Tahr census in April 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Odisha and Jharkhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha and West Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala and Tamil Nadu

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra and Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • Nilgiri Tahr Census: The Nilgiri Tahr census is a joint initiative conducted by the states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu in April 2025. The primary objective is to estimate the population and study the distribution of the Nilgiri Tahr, an endangered species endemic to the Western Ghats.
  • Collaboration: Both states collaborated in April 2025 to undertake a comprehensive survey of the species. This effort highlights their commitment to preserving biodiversity in the ecologically sensitive Western Ghats.
  • Ecological Importance: The Nilgiri Tahr is classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List due to habitat loss and declining population. The census is essential for evaluating existing conservation measures and developing future strategies.
  • Habitat: The species is predominantly found in the Nilgiri Hills and other parts of the Western Ghats, which span across Kerala and Tamil Nadu. These regions are known for their rich biodiversity and unique ecosystems.
  • Protected Areas: Conservation efforts include protected areas like Eravikulam National Park in Kerala and Mukurthi National Park in Tamil Nadu, which are critical habitats for the Nilgiri Tahr.

Additional Information

  • Nilgiri Tahr:
  • The Nilgiri Tahr is a mountain goat-like ungulate species endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
  • Scientific Name: Nilgiritragus hylocrius.
  • It is the state animal of Tamil Nadu and primarily inhabits high-altitude grasslands and rocky areas.
  • Conservation Status:
  • The Nilgiri Tahr is classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List, with major threats including habitat destruction, poaching, and livestock competition.
  • Key Protected Areas:
  • Eravikulam National Park: Located in Kerala, this park hosts the largest population of Nilgiri Tahr.
  • Mukurthi National Park: Situated in Tamil Nadu, it is another critical habitat for the species.
  • Silent Valley National Park: Located in Kerala, contributing significantly to biodiversity conservation.
  • Government Initiatives:
  • The Nilgiri Tahr Recovery Program was launched to monitor and protect the species.
  • Regular censuses and habitat restoration initiatives are being carried out by both state governments.
  • Western Ghats:
  • The Western Ghats is a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its exceptional biodiversity and is one of the eight "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity globally.
  • It spans across six Indian states: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
  • It is the origin of many perennial rivers such as Godavari, Kaveri, and Krishna, essential for agriculture and drinking water.
  • Threats include deforestation, climate change, and human encroachment.

Important Points

  • Importance of Biodiversity Conservation:
  • The Nilgiri Tahr census is a vital step towards understanding and conserving endangered species in the Western Ghats.
  • Efforts like afforestation, strict wildlife protection laws, and the establishment of protected areas are essential to mitigate biodiversity loss.
  • Role of State Collaboration:
  • The collaboration between Kerala and Tamil Nadu showcases the importance of joint efforts in addressing ecological challenges.

Question 89

As of July 2025, how many total Ramsar Sites does India has?

  1. AOption (a)

    75

  2. BOption (b)

    82

  3. COption (c)

    85

  4. DOption (d)

    91

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

91

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4) 91.

Key Points

  • As of July 2025, India has a total of 91 Ramsar Sites, which are wetlands of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
  • The Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, and India is one of its signatories, committed to the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
  • The total area covered by these Ramsar Sites in India is approximately 1.8 million hectares, spanning various ecosystems such as mangroves, lakes, rivers, and marshes.
  • Examples of significant Ramsar Sites in India include Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan), Loktak Lake (Manipur), and Sundarbans Wetland (West Bengal).
  • India has made substantial progress in wetland conservation, with the addition of 50 new Ramsar Sites since 2019, demonstrating its commitment to ecological preservation.
  • The inclusion of a wetland as a Ramsar Site ensures international recognition and emphasizes its protection and sustainable use.

Additional Information

  • Ramsar Convention:
  • The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty adopted on February 2, 1971, to ensure the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
  • It aims to prevent the degradation of wetlands and is celebrated as World Wetlands Day annually on February 2.
  • Globally, there are over 2,500 Ramsar Sites, highlighting the importance of wetland conservation worldwide.
  • Criteria for Ramsar Sites:
  • To qualify as a Ramsar Site, a wetland must meet at least one of the nine criteria related to biodiversity, ecological significance, or cultural importance.
  • These criteria include supporting vulnerable species, maintaining ecological diversity, or hosting large populations of birds and fish.
  • India’s Achievements:
  • India has added 50 new Ramsar Sites since 2019, showcasing its dedication to wetland conservation.
  • The largest Ramsar Site in India is the Sundarbans Wetland, while the smallest is the Renuka Wetland in Himachal Pradesh.
  • Importance of Wetlands:
  • Wetlands act as natural water filters, help in flood control, and support biodiversity.
  • They play a vital role in carbon sequestration, making them crucial in combating climate change.
  • Key Indian Initiatives:
  • The National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems (NPCA) is a government initiative aimed at protecting and managing wetlands and lakes in India.
  • The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 provide a legal framework for wetland conservation in India.
  • International Cooperation:
  • Through the Ramsar Convention, India collaborates with other nations to share knowledge and best practices for wetland conservation.

Question 90

Which Indian city hosted the final match of the Women's Premier League (Cricket) 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mumbai

  2. BOption (b)

    Chennai

  3. COption (c)

    Kolkata

  4. DOption (d)

    Vadodara

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mumbai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

  • Mumbai, the financial capital of India, hosted the final match of the Women's Premier League (Cricket) 2025. The city is renowned for its world-class cricket infrastructure.
  • The Wankhede Stadium, located in Mumbai, is a premier cricket venue with a seating capacity of over 30,000. It has hosted iconic matches, including the ICC Cricket World Cup 2011 Final.
  • The Women's Premier League (WPL), modeled after the IPL, is an annual cricket tournament aimed at promoting women’s cricket and providing a platform for showcasing talent.
  • Mumbai's established cricketing ecosystem, vibrant fan base, and excellent facilities make it a preferred choice for hosting high-profile matches.
  • The WPL final in Mumbai highlights the city's pivotal role in fostering cricket in India, especially in the domain of women’s sports.

Additional Information

  • Women's Premier League (WPL):
  • The WPL was launched in 2023 by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
  • The league aims to promote women’s cricket and provide a platform for domestic and international players.
  • It follows an auction-based team selection model and features multiple franchises representing various Indian cities.
  • Mumbai as a Cricketing Hub:
  • Mumbai has a rich cricketing legacy and is home to cricket legends like Sachin Tendulkar and Sunil Gavaskar.
  • The city houses two iconic stadiums: Wankhede Stadium and Brabourne Stadium, which regularly host international and domestic matches.
  • These venues have state-of-the-art facilities and provide a world-class experience for players and spectators alike.
  • Other Cities:
  • Chennai: Known for the MA Chidambaram Stadium, it has a strong cricket culture but was not chosen for the WPL 2025 final.
  • Kolkata: The Eden Gardens, one of the largest cricket stadiums globally, did not host the WPL 2025 final.
  • Vadodara: While Vadodara has a cricketing tradition, it lacks the infrastructure required for hosting high-profile matches like the WPL final.
  • Significance of WPL:
  • The WPL has played a crucial role in breaking gender barriers and promoting women’s participation in cricket.
  • It has increased the visibility of women’s cricket, attracting more viewership and sponsorships.
  • Young girls aspiring to play cricket now have a professional platform to showcase their talent and gain international recognition.

Important Points

  • Wankhede Stadium:
  • Located in South Mumbai, it is one of India’s premier cricket venues.
  • It has hosted several iconic matches, including the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup Final, where India emerged victorious.
  • It is known for its electrifying crowd atmosphere and modern facilities.
  • Growth of Women’s Cricket in India:
  • Women’s cricket gained momentum after India finished as runners-up in the 2017 ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup.
  • Players like Mithali Raj and Harmanpreet Kaur have been instrumental in raising the profile of women’s cricket in India.
  • The WPL is a crucial step towards establishing a strong pipeline of talent for women’s cricket in India.
Code

Question 91

______U23National Basketball Championship for Men & Women was held in Assam.

  1. AOption (a)

    1st

  2. BOption (b)

    2nd

  3. COption (c)

    3rd

  4. DOption (d)

    4th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1st

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1st.

Key Points

  • The 1st U23 National Basketball Championship for Men & Women was held in the state of Assam.
  • This championship is part of the Basketball Federation of India’s (BFI) initiative to promote basketball among youth in India.
  • The U23 category serves as a platform for young and emerging basketball players to showcase their talents at a national level.
  • Assam was chosen as the host state due to its growing enthusiasm and infrastructure for basketball.
  • Teams from various states participated, showcasing the increasing popularity of basketball across India.

Additional Information

  • Basketball Federation of India (BFI):
  • The BFI is the governing body for basketball in India and is affiliated with the International Basketball Federation (FIBA).
  • Its primary objective is to promote, develop, and regulate basketball across India.
  • BFI organizes various age-group championships, such as U16, U18, and U23, to nurture young talent.
  • Role of U23 Championships:
  • The U23 National Championships act as a bridge for players transitioning from junior-level competitions to senior-level tournaments.
  • They provide an opportunity for players to gain exposure and improve their skills while competing with peers of similar age.
  • Top-performing players often get scouted for senior national teams or professional basketball leagues.
  • Basketball in Assam:
  • Assam has been actively promoting basketball through local tournaments and school-level competitions.
  • The state has invested in improving sports infrastructure to support the growth of basketball.
  • Hosting events like the U23 Championship boosts the popularity of basketball in the region.
  • Importance of National Sports Events:
  • National championships help in identifying and nurturing young talent from across the country.
  • Such events encourage youth participation in sports, contributing to the overall development of a sports culture in India.
  • They serve as platforms for players to gain recognition and opportunities to represent India at international levels.

Important Points

  • Historical Background:
  • The U23 National Basketball Championship was initiated to bridge the gap between youth and senior-level competitions.
  • This aligns with India's efforts to increase its global presence in basketball, including events like the FIBA Asia Cup.
  • Basketball Growth in India:
  • Basketball is gaining popularity in India, with increasing participation in schools, colleges, and professional leagues.
  • Grassroots-level programs by BFI and FIBA are contributing to the sport's development.
  • Future Prospects:
  • Competitions like the U23 Championship are crucial for identifying talent for international events like the Olympics and FIBA World Cup.
  • India's focus on infrastructure development and training will enhance its basketball potential further.

Question 92

 Which folk dance of Ladakh is performed in Leh and is preceded by a horse race?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sikmari

  2. BOption (b)

    Koshan

  3. COption (c)

    Mamita

  4. DOption (d)

    Lezim

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Koshan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Koshan.

Key Points

  • Koshan is a traditional folk dance of Ladakh, performed predominantly in the Leh region.
  • This dance is often preceded by a horse race, which is an integral part of the event and adds a festive atmosphere to the celebration.
  • The dance is known for its vibrant and energetic movements, reflecting the rich cultural heritage of Ladakh.
  • It is typically performed during significant festivals and celebrations, showcasing the unity and joy of the local community.
  • Koshan represents the unique traditions and customs of Ladakhi culture, making it an important aspect of the region's intangible cultural heritage.

Additional Information

  • Ladakhi Folk Dances:
  • Folk dances in Ladakh are deeply rooted in the region's history and cultural identity.
  • They are performed during festivals, weddings, and other celebrations to express joy and gratitude.
  • Another notable dance is the Shondol Dance, also known as the "Royal Dance of Ladakh."
  • Horse Racing in Ladakhi Culture:
  • Horse racing is a popular traditional sport in Ladakh, often conducted alongside cultural festivals and events.
  • It symbolizes strength, agility, and the bond between humans and animals in this mountainous region.
  • Festivals of Ladakh:
  • Ladakh is known for vibrant festivals such as the Hemis Festival, Losar Festival, and Dosmoche Festival.
  • These festivals often feature traditional music, dance performances, and local rituals.
  • Intangible Cultural Heritage:
  • Ladakh's folk dances, music, and rituals are part of India's intangible cultural heritage.
  • Efforts are being made to preserve and promote these traditions through cultural initiatives and events.

Important Points

  • Sikmari:
  • Not a recognized dance form in Ladakh; possibly a fictional or incorrect option.
  • Mamita:
  • Not associated with Ladakhi folk culture or traditions.
  • Lezim:
  • A traditional folk dance of Maharashtra, not related to Ladakh.
  • Ladakh's Cultural Significance:
  • The region's traditions include folk dances, cuisines, rituals, and art forms that reflect its historical and geographical influences.

Question 93

As of July 2025, the Power Finance Corporation holds which of the following CPSE status?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharatna 

  2. BOption (b)

    Navratna

  3. COption (c)

    Miniratna-

  4. DOption (d)

    Miniratna-II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maharatna 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharatna.

Key Points

  • Power Finance Corporation (PFC) was accorded the Maharatna status by the Government of India in July 2023, acknowledging its outstanding performance and strategic importance in the power sector.
  • The Maharatna status is the highest recognition for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), providing greater autonomy and financial powers to the enterprise.
  • PFC plays a significant role in financing power generation, transmission, and distribution projects across India, contributing to the development of the country’s energy infrastructure.
  • To qualify for Maharatna status, a CPSE must meet specific financial and operational benchmarks, including an annual turnover exceeding ₹25,000 crores, net profit exceeding ₹5,000 crores, and an average annual net worth exceeding ₹15,000 crores over three consecutive years.
  • With the Maharatna status, PFC can make investments of up to ₹5,000 crores without government approval, enhancing its ability to execute large-scale projects efficiently.

Additional Information

  • Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) Classification:
  • CPSEs are classified into Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna categories based on their performance, financial strength, and strategic importance.
  • Maharatna: This status provides the maximum autonomy and financial powers to CPSEs for investments in domestic and global projects.
  • Navratna: CPSEs with Navratna status can invest up to ₹1,000 crores without government approval, offering moderate autonomy.
  • Miniratna: Divided into Miniratna-I and Miniratna-II, these CPSEs have limited autonomy and financial powers.
  • Power Finance Corporation (PFC):
  • PFC was established in 1986 as a non-banking financial company (NBFC) under the Ministry of Power.
  • It focuses on providing financial assistance for power sector development, including generation, transmission, and distribution projects.
  • PFC has contributed significantly to renewable energy initiatives and schemes like UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana).
  • Criteria for Maharatna Status:
  • A CPSE must achieve the following benchmarks to qualify for Maharatna status:
  • Annual turnover exceeding ₹25,000 crores for three consecutive years.
  • Net profit exceeding ₹5,000 crores for three consecutive years.
  • Average annual net worth exceeding ₹15,000 crores for three consecutive years.
  • The company must also have a global presence and significant strategic importance in its sector.
  • Examples of Maharatna Companies:
  • Other CPSEs with Maharatna status include ONGC, Coal India Limited, Indian Oil Corporation, and NTPC, all of which are leaders in their respective industries.

Important Points

  • Benefits of Maharatna Status:
  • Enhanced autonomy and financial powers enable CPSEs to undertake larger projects without government interference.
  • Maharatna CPSEs can invest up to ₹5,000 crores in a single project without prior approval from the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
  • This status facilitates quicker decision-making, allowing companies to compete effectively in domestic and international markets.
  • Role in India's Economy:
  • Maharatna companies drive economic growth and contribute significantly to government revenue.
  • They are involved in executing infrastructure projects, ensuring energy security, and supporting developmental schemes.
  • Recent Achievements:
  • PFC achieved record profits and growth in recent years, leading to its elevation to Maharatna status.
  • The organization has expanded its role in renewable energy financing, aligning with India's climate goals and international commitments.

Question 94

Which of the following is the target of National Logistics Policy-2022?

I. To increase logistics cost.

II. To develop a data-driven decision support system.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

  • The National Logistics Policy (NLP) 2022 was launched by the Government of India on September 17, 2022, to enhance logistics efficiency and reduce costs in India.
  • The policy aims to reduce logistics costs from the current 13-14% of GDP to 8% by the year 2030.
  • It emphasizes the development of a data-driven decision support system to optimize logistics, enabling better policy formulation and real-time monitoring.
  • Statement I: "To increase logistics cost" is incorrect because the policy explicitly focuses on reducing logistics costs to improve global competitiveness.
  • Statement II: "To develop a data-driven decision support system" is correct, as the policy aims to integrate technology for enhanced coordination and policy effectiveness.
  • The policy incorporates Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP) to integrate digital systems, improve transparency, and foster better collaboration among stakeholders.

Additional Information

  • Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP):
  • ULIP is a key component of NLP 2022 designed to integrate 22 digital systems across various ministries and private stakeholders.
  • It provides a single-window platform for logistics services, enhancing coordination and transparency.
  • Significance of NLP 2022:
  • The policy is expected to make Indian goods globally competitive by reducing logistics costs.
  • It aims to improve India's Ease of Doing Business ranking by addressing logistics inefficiencies.
  • Promotes the Make in India initiative by fostering efficient supply chain management.
  • Indian Logistics Sector:
  • India's logistics sector employs over 22 million people and significantly contributes to economic growth.
  • In the World Bank's Logistics Performance Index (2018), India ranked 44th, highlighting scope for improvement.
  • Key Features of NLP 2022:
  • Focuses on standardization of processes to improve interoperability among stakeholders.
  • Emphasizes geo-tagging and real-time tracking of freight movement.
  • Promotes multi-modal transport and adoption of green logistics practices.

Important Points

  • Logistics Costs in India:
  • India's logistics costs are among the highest globally at 13-14% of GDP, compared to 8-10% in developed countries.
  • High logistics costs reduce India's trade competitiveness and impact GDP growth.
  • Global Comparisons:
  • Countries like Germany and Japan have efficient logistics systems with costs below 8% of GDP.
  • The NLP 2022 aims to achieve similar efficiency levels by 2030.
  • Cross-sector Collaboration:
  • Effective implementation of the policy requires collaboration between ministries like Commerce, Road Transport, Railways, and IT.
  • Active participation from the private sector is crucial for the policy's success.

Question 95

The Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, was passed by the Indian Parliament in________.

  1. AOption (a)

    May,2005

  2. BOption (b)

    July ,2005

  3. COption (c)

    September, 2005

  4. DOption (d)

    December, 2005

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

May,2005

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is May 2005

Key Points

  • The Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Act, 2005 was passed by the Indian Parliament in May 2005, to promote economic growth through the establishment of SEZs.
  • The Act provides a comprehensive legal framework for the development, operation, and management of SEZs in India.
  • The primary objective of the SEZ Act is to attract foreign direct investment (FDI), promote exports, and generate employment opportunities.
  • SEZs are designated areas that offer special tax incentives and simplified regulations to foster industrial growth and investment.
  • As of 2022, there are approximately 250 operational SEZs in India, contributing significantly to India's industrial development and export growth.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of the SEZ Act, 2005:
  • Provides tax exemptions on profits derived from export activities for a specified period.
  • Allows single-window clearance for approvals to reduce bureaucratic delays.
  • Permits 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the manufacturing sector within SEZs.
  • Exempts businesses in SEZs from customs duties, central excise duties, service tax, and other levies.
  • Objectives of the SEZ Act:
  • Encourage export-oriented industries by creating a conducive environment for trade and commerce.
  • Provide world-class infrastructure to boost industrial development.
  • Create large-scale employment opportunities for the local population.
  • Enhance India's competitiveness in the global market by attracting investment.
  • Impact of SEZs in India:
  • SEZs have significantly contributed to India's export growth, particularly in sectors like information technology, pharmaceuticals, and textiles.
  • They have facilitated regional development by attracting investments to less-developed areas.
  • Prominent SEZs in India include Noida SEZ, Santa Cruz SEZ (for electronics), and Kandla SEZ.
  • Challenges Faced by SEZs:
  • Issues related to land acquisition and opposition from local communities.
  • Underperformance in meeting targeted levels of employment and investment in some SEZs.
  • Concerns over tax revenue losses due to exemptions provided to SEZ developers and businesses.
  • Global Perspective:
  • Countries like China and Dubai have successfully utilized SEZs for economic growth.
  • China's Shenzhen SEZ is a prime example, transforming it into a global economic hub.

Important Points

  • Special Economic Zones (SEZs):
  • SEZs are designated areas with relaxed economic regulations to boost industrial and economic development.
  • They are focused on export-oriented industries and provide tax benefits to businesses operating within them.
  • The SEZ policy was introduced in 2000, while the SEZ Act was enacted in 2005.
  • Legal Framework:
  • The SEZ Act ensures that operations comply with national and international trade laws.
  • It simplifies the process for industrial investment and enhances ease of doing business.
  • Future Prospects:
  • Improved infrastructure and policies could help SEZs attract more foreign investments.
  • Addressing challenges like land acquisition and tax concerns will further enhance their effectiveness.
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Question 96

Among these, which state experienced a population of over 100 million as per 2011 Census?

  1. AOption (a)

    West Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    BIhar

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajasthan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BIhar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

  • Bihar had a population of approximately 104.1 million as per the 2011 Census, making it the third most populous state in India after Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra.
  • The 2011 Census of India is conducted every 10 years by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, providing detailed demographic statistics.
  • Bihar has a relatively small geographical area of 94,163 square kilometers but a very high population density. In 2011, the population density was recorded at 1,106 persons per square kilometer.
  • Bihar’s population growth is driven by factors such as high birth rates, a young population, and rural migration patterns.
  • Other populous states such as West Bengal (91.3 million), Madhya Pradesh (72.6 million), and Rajasthan (68.5 million) had populations below 100 million as per the 2011 Census.

Additional Information

  • Population of India:
  • The total population of India as per the 2011 Census was approximately 1.21 billion, making India the second most populous country in the world after China.
  • India’s population is distributed across 28 states and 8 Union territories.
  • Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state, followed by Maharashtra and Bihar.
  • Population Density:
  • Bihar has one of the highest population densities in India, reflecting a high concentration of people within a limited geographical area.
  • The population density of Bihar was recorded at 1,106 persons per square kilometer in 2011.
  • Demographic Challenges in Bihar:
  • Bihar faces challenges due to its high population growth rate, which puts immense pressure on resources and infrastructure.
  • The state has a low literacy rate and challenges in healthcare, making population management a critical issue.
  • Bihar has a significant proportion of its population living in rural areas, emphasizing the need for rural development initiatives.
  • Significance of Census Data:
  • The Census provides crucial data for planning and implementing government policies such as resource allocation, infrastructure development, and socio-economic programs.
  • The 2011 Census was the 15th National Census of India, offering valuable insights into demographics, literacy, employment, housing, and migration patterns.

Important Points

  • Rural and Urban Divide:
  • A large proportion of Bihar’s population resides in rural areas, which necessitates focused development in sectors like agriculture, education, and healthcare.
  • Decadal Growth Rate:
  • Bihar’s population growth rate between 2001 and 2011 was approximately 25.42%, one of the highest among Indian states.
  • Migration Patterns:
  • Bihar has a significant number of migrants moving to other states for employment opportunities, influencing socio-economic dynamics across India.
  • Government Initiatives:
  • The government has introduced several schemes to address challenges related to population growth, healthcare, and education in Bihar.

Question 97

 In the context of public goods, what does "Non-rivalrous" stands for?

  1. AOption (a)

    One person's use reduces another's use

  2. BOption (b)

    One person's 's use doesn't reduce another's use

  3. COption (c)

    The good is a Giffen good

  4. DOption (d)

    The good is only available for bureaucrat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

One person's 's use doesn't reduce another's use

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is One person's use doesn't reduce another's use.

Key Points

  • Non-rivalrous goods are a type of public good where consumption by one individual does not reduce the availability of the good for others. This contrasts with rivalrous goods, where usage by one diminishes availability for others.
  • Examples of non-rivalrous goods include national defense, clean air, and public parks. Multiple individuals can benefit from these simultaneously without exhaustion of the resource.
  • Public goods are defined by two primary characteristics: non-rivalry (use by one does not hinder others) and non-excludability (no one can be barred from accessing the good).
  • Non-rivalry creates challenges in market allocation since there is no direct competition for consumption, leading to potential issues like free-riding.
  • Economic significance: Non-rivalrous goods are essential for maximizing social welfare as they allow simultaneous usage by large populations without resource depletion.

Additional Information

  • Public Goods:
  • Public goods are provided without profit to all members of society, often by governments or private organizations. They are characterized by non-rivalry and non-excludability.
  • Examples include street lighting, public roads, clean air, and national defense. Everyone can use these without reducing their availability for others.
  • Governments often use taxation to fund public goods, addressing challenges like the free-rider problem, where individuals benefit without contributing to costs.
  • Private Goods vs. Public Goods:
  • Private goods are rivalrous and excludable. For example, consuming a sandwich prevents others from consuming the same sandwich.
  • Public goods, in contrast, are accessible to everyone without competition due to their non-rivalrous and non-excludable nature.
  • Challenges in Public Goods Provision:
  • The provision of public goods often faces difficulties like the free-rider problem, requiring government intervention to ensure equitable access and funding.
  • Efficient allocation in a market economy is challenging due to the absence of competition for consumption.
  • Non-Rivalry in Economic Terms:
  • Non-rivalrous goods allow multiple individuals to benefit from the same resource simultaneously, promoting social welfare.
  • They are vital for services like education, healthcare, and infrastructure, which aim to maximize societal benefits without exhausting resources.

Important Points

  • Option 1: "One person's use reduces another's use" is incorrect as it refers to rivalrous goods, not non-rivalrous goods.
  • Option 3: "The good is a Giffen good" is irrelevant in this context. A Giffen good is an economic term for inferior goods, unrelated to public goods.
  • Option 4: "The good is only available for bureaucrat" is misleading and does not align with the concept of public goods.
  • Correct Option: "One person's use doesn't reduce another's use" accurately describes non-rivalrous goods, making this the right answer.

Question 98

In the context of wear and tear in production process, the replacement investment is same as__________.

  1. AOption (a)

    depreciation of capital

  2. BOption (b)

    subsidy given by government

  3. COption (c)

    wage of total staffs

  4. DOption (d)

    entrepreneurship cost

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

depreciation of capital

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is depreciation of capital.

Key Points

  • Depreciation of capital refers to the gradual reduction in the value of physical assets such as machinery, equipment, and infrastructure due to factors like wear and tear, obsolescence, and time.
  • Replacement investment is the investment made to replace or restore depreciated capital goods. This ensures that the production capacity of a business remains intact and efficient.
  • In the context of wear and tear during the production process, replacement investment is directly related to the depreciation of capital goods, as these assets need to be replaced or repaired periodically to maintain operational efficiency.
  • The wear and tear of machinery and equipment is a natural consequence of their continuous usage. This is accounted for as depreciation in financial records, emphasizing the need for regular replacement investment.
  • Other options such as subsidy given by the government, wage of total staff, and entrepreneurship cost are unrelated to the concept of depreciation or replacement investment.

Additional Information

  • Depreciation:
  • It is an accounting method used to allocate the cost of a tangible asset over its useful life.
  • Common methods of depreciation include straight-line depreciation and declining balance depreciation.
  • Depreciation helps businesses account for the gradual loss of value of their assets. For example, a machine costing $100,000 with a useful life of 10 years will depreciate by $10,000 per year under the straight-line method.
  • Replacement Investment:
  • This refers to the investment made to replace depreciated or obsolete capital goods.
  • Examples include replacing old machinery in factories or upgrading IT systems to enhance productivity.
  • Replacement investment ensures that the production capacity and operational efficiency of a business are maintained.
  • Subsidy Given by Government:
  • A subsidy is a financial aid provided by the government to reduce the cost of goods or services.
  • It is often aimed at encouraging production, investment, or consumption in specific sectors, such as agriculture or renewable energy.
  • For example, subsidies on fertilizers support farmers and enhance agricultural productivity.
  • Wage of Total Staff:
  • It refers to the total payment made to employees, including salaries, bonuses, and benefits.
  • It is unrelated to the concept of depreciation or replacement investment, as it pertains to human resource costs.
  • Entrepreneurship Cost:
  • This represents the cost of resources and efforts invested by an entrepreneur to start and operate a business.
  • It includes opportunity costs, risk-bearing costs, and organizational costs but does not relate to asset depreciation or replacement investment.

Important Points

  • Economic Significance of Depreciation:
  • Depreciation is a non-cash expense, but it is crucial for determining the actual profit of a business.
  • It helps in the proper allocation of resources by accounting for the wear and tear of assets.
  • Businesses often create depreciation reserves to fund future replacement investments.
  • Examples of Replacement Investments:
  • Replacing outdated machinery with modern, efficient ones in factories.
  • Upgrading software systems to newer versions for improved productivity.
  • Installing new HVAC systems in office buildings to replace older ones.

Question 99

The term 'atman' in the Upanishads refers to ____________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ritual fire

  2. BOption (b)

    Sacred chant

  3. COption (c)

    Supreme god

  4. DOption (d)

    The inner self or soul

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The inner self or soul

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The inner self or soul.

Key Points

  • The term 'Atman' is a core concept in the Upanishads, referring to the inner self or soul, and is distinct from the physical body, mind, and emotions.
  • The Atman is considered eternal and unchanging, representing the true essence of an individual beyond material existence.
  • The Upanishads describe the Atman as being identical to Brahman, the ultimate cosmic reality, emphasizing the unity between the individual soul and the universal spirit.
  • Philosophical discussions in the Upanishads often revolve around understanding the Atman and its relationship with Brahman, aiming for spiritual liberation (Moksha).
  • The concept of Atman is central to Advaita Vedanta, a non-dualistic school of Hindu philosophy, which posits that realization of Atman as Brahman leads to enlightenment.

Additional Information

  • The Upanishads:
  • The Upanishads are ancient philosophical texts that form a part of the Vedas, the oldest sacred scriptures of Hinduism.
  • Major Upanishads include the Chandogya Upanishad, Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, Katha Upanishad, and Mundaka Upanishad.
  • They focus on spiritual and philosophical teachings, exploring topics like reality, self, ethics, and liberation (Moksha).
  • Relation Between Atman and Brahman:
  • The Upanishads assert that the individual soul (Atman) is not separate from the universal spirit (Brahman).
  • Realizing this unity is key to achieving Moksha, or liberation from the cycle of birth and death (Samsara).
  • Philosophical Schools of Thought:
  • Advaita Vedanta: Proposes non-dualism, where Atman and Brahman are one and the same.
  • Dvaita Vedanta: Emphasizes dualism, where Atman and Brahman are distinct.
  • Vishishtadvaita Vedanta: Suggests qualified non-dualism, where Atman and Brahman are distinct yet interrelated.
  • Concept of Moksha:
  • Moksha refers to liberation from the cycle of Samsara (birth, death, and rebirth).
  • Understanding the true nature of Atman as Brahman is essential for attaining Moksha.
  • Other Options Explained:
  • Ritual fire: While significant in Hindu rituals, it does not refer to Atman.
  • Sacred chant: Mantras and chants are important in spiritual practices but are distinct from the concept of Atman.
  • Supreme god: Brahman is considered the ultimate reality, but Atman specifically refers to the individual soul.

Important Points

  • Key Terminology:
  • Atman: Individual soul or self.
  • Brahman: Universal spirit or ultimate reality.
  • Moksha: Liberation from the cycle of Samsara.
  • Philosophical Insights:
  • The Upanishads emphasize introspection and self-realization to understand the true nature of the Atman.
  • They advocate for renunciation and meditation as paths to spiritual enlightenment.
  • Impact on Hinduism:
  • The concept of Atman forms the basis of various spiritual practices and philosophies in Hinduism.
  • It influences ethical behavior, encouraging individuals to look beyond materialism and focus on spiritual growth.
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Question 100

 Dhruvasena II was the most important ruler of which dynasty?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maitrakas 

  2. BOption (b)

    Satavahana

  3. COption (c)

    Chola

  4. DOption (d)

    Kushan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Maitrakas 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maitrakas.

Key Points

  • Dhruvasena II Baladitya was the most prominent ruler of the Maitraka dynasty, which ruled parts of present-day Gujarat, India.
  • The Maitraka dynasty was established by Senapati Bhatarka in the 5th century CE after the decline of the Gupta Empire.
  • Under Dhruvasena II's reign, the Maitrakas achieved political stability and cultural advancements. He was known for his administrative skills and support for education.
  • He was a contemporary of the Chinese Buddhist traveler Xuanzang (Hiuen Tsang), who visited Vallabhi and mentioned the Maitrakas in his accounts, praising their prosperity and governance.
  • The Maitraka rulers were known for their religious tolerance, supporting Buddhism, Jainism, and Hinduism. Their capital, Vallabhi, became a renowned center of education and culture.

Additional Information

  • Maitraka Dynasty:
  • The Maitraka dynasty ruled from the 5th century CE to the 8th century CE, with its capital at Vallabhi in modern-day Bhavnagar, Gujarat.
  • Vallabhi became an important center of education, attracting scholars from across India and neighboring regions. It was often compared to Nalanda University in eastern India.
  • The Maitrakas maintained a strong naval presence, allowing them to control trade routes along the western coast of India.
  • Xuanzang's Account:
  • The Chinese Buddhist traveler Xuanzang visited Vallabhi during Dhruvasena II's reign and noted the region's prosperity and cultural advancements.
  • He described Vallabhi as a thriving educational hub with a focus on Buddhist teachings, comparable to renowned centers like Nalanda.
  • Other Options:
  • Satavahana Dynasty: Ruled the Deccan region (modern-day Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh) from the 1st century BCE to the 3rd century CE.
  • Chola Dynasty: A prominent dynasty in southern India, known for its maritime trade, temple architecture, and conquests.
  • Kushan Dynasty: Ruled parts of northern India, Central Asia, and Afghanistan from the 1st to 3rd centuries CE. Known for their cultural amalgamation and patronage of Buddhism.
  • Decline of the Maitraka Dynasty:
  • The dynasty declined in the late 8th century CE due to repeated invasions by the Arabs and the rise of other regional powers.
  • The Arab commander Junaid, during the early Islamic expansion, attacked Vallabhi, contributing to the fall of the Maitrakas.
  • Legacy:
  • The Maitrakas left behind a legacy of cultural synthesis, academic excellence, and religious tolerance in western India.
  • Vallabhi's prominence as a center of learning is often compared to ancient Indian universities like Nalanda and Takshashila.
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100 questions in the full paper