SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 19 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Decline .

Key Points

• The word "Wane" means to decrease in size, extent, or degree, or to diminish gradually.
• Among the given options, the most appropriate synonym for "Wane" is "Decline."
• Option Analysis:
• Option 1: Grow — Incorrect, as it means to increase or develop, which is opposite to "Wane."
• Option 2: Intensify — Incorrect, as it means to strengthen or make more severe, which does not align with the meaning of "Wane."
• Option 3: Decline — Correct, as it aligns with the meaning of "Wane" (gradual decrease).
• Option 4: Increase — Incorrect, as it is opposite to the meaning of "Wane."

Correct sentence: The synonym of "Wane" is Decline.

Additional Information

• Antonyms of Wane:
• Grow
• Intensify
• Increase
• Other Synonyms of Wane:
• Diminish
• Fade
• Subside

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Waver .

Key Points

• The word "vacillate" means to be indecisive or to waver between different opinions or actions.
• Option 1: Decide - This is the opposite of "vacillate" as it implies coming to a firm conclusion or choice.
• Option 2: Waver - This is the correct synonym as it also means to be undecided or to hesitate between choices.
• Option 3: Resolve - This is incorrect as it refers to determination or a firm decision, which is the opposite of vacillating.
• Option 4: Settle - This is also incorrect as it implies making a decision or resolving something, which contrasts with the indecisiveness implied by "vacillate."

Correct sentence: The most appropriate synonym for "vacillate" is waver.

Additional Information

• Synonyms:
• Hesitate
• Fluctuate
• Waver
• Antonyms:
• Decide
• Resolve
• Settle

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Liaison .

Key Points

• The word "Liaison" refers to a person who helps groups or organizations work together and provides communication between them.
• Correct spelling: Liaison.
• The other options are incorrect spellings of the word:
• Option 2: "Liasion" - Incorrect.
• Option 3: "Leyson" - Incorrect.
• Option 4: "Layson" - Incorrect.

Correct usage: She acted as a liaison between the two departments to ensure smooth communication.

Additional Information

• Tips to remember the spelling:
• The word "Liaison" contains the vowels 'i' and 'a' in sequence.
• It derives from the French word "lier," meaning "to bind."
• Other examples of correct usage:
• The company appointed a liaison to mediate with the government authorities.
• Effective liaison between departments can improve overall productivity.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Itinerary .

Key Points

• The word Itinerary is correctly spelled and refers to a planned route or journey, typically used to describe travel schedules.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 (Itinary, Itinerery, Itinarey) are incorrect spellings of the word and do not exist in standard English.
• Correct spelling is essential for clear communication and maintaining professionalism, especially in written contexts.

Correct sentence: The correctly spelt word is Itinerary.

Additional Information

• Commonly Misspelled Words:
• Incorrect: Recieve | Correct: Receive
• Incorrect: Seperate | Correct: Separate
• Incorrect: Definately | Correct: Definitely
• Tips to Avoid Spelling Errors:
• Break the word into smaller parts and focus on their sounds.
• Use mnemonic devices, e.g., "I TINERary" to remember "Itinerary."
• Practice frequently with spelling exercises or tools like dictionaries.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. took away her strength or energy .

Key Points

• The idiom "took the wind out of her sails" is used to describe a situation where someone's confidence, energy, or strength is diminished or taken away, usually due to an unexpected event or remark.
• It is often employed metaphorically to illustrate how someone's momentum or enthusiasm is interrupted or deflated.
• In this context, the correct meaning is "took away her strength or energy", as it aligns with the intended use of the idiom.

Correct sentence: The unexpected criticism took the wind out of her sails, leaving her feeling defeated and drained.

Additional Information

• Examples of similar idioms:
• "Knocked the wind out of her": To physically or emotionally leave someone stunned or weakened.
• "Burst her bubble": To shatter someone's illusion or excitement about something.
• Usage in Context:
• The idiom is often used in interpersonal situations, such as when someone receives unexpected bad news or criticism.
• Example: "When her idea was rejected in the meeting, it really took the wind out of her sails."

The correct answer is '2' i.e. To be angry and ready to fight .

Key Points

• The idiom "on the warpath" is commonly used to describe someone who is angry and ready to fight or argue.
• It originates from the historical context of Native American tribes who would prepare for battle by going on a "warpath."
• In modern usage, it figuratively refers to someone being in a state of aggression or conflict, not necessarily related to literal fighting.

Correct sentence: After hearing the unfair decision, she was on the warpath and determined to confront her manager.

Additional Information

• Examples of usage in sentences:
• After discovering the mistake, the customer was on the warpath, demanding a resolution.
• The students were on the warpath when the new policies were announced.
• Incorrect Options Explained:
• Option 1: To be in a peaceful state – This is the opposite of the idiom's meaning.
• Option 3: To be very busy – This does not relate to anger or conflict.
• Option 4: To be on a journey – While the literal meaning of "warpath" involves movement, the idiom does not refer to this.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. He decided to steep the tea for five minutes .

Key Points

• The word "steep" can have multiple meanings depending on the context in which it is used.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 use the word "steep" to describe something very high, sharp, or excessive in degree.
• Option 1: "The road was very steep" refers to a sharp incline or slope.
• Option 3: "The roof of the house was very steep" also refers to a steep angle or slope.
• Option 4: "The price of the new car was too steep" uses "steep" figuratively to mean "excessive" or "too high."
• However, option 2 uses the word "steep" with a completely different meaning. Here, "steep" refers to the process of soaking something (such as tea leaves) in liquid to extract flavor.

Correct sentence: He decided to steep the tea for five minutes.

Additional Information

• Different Meanings of "Steep":
• Literal (Incline): Refers to something sharply sloped, such as a road or roof.
• Figurative (Excessive): Used to describe something that is too high, such as a price.
• Infusion (Soaking): Refers to the process of soaking a substance in liquid, often used in cooking or brewing (as in tea or spices).
• Understanding the context is key to identifying the correct meaning of a word with multiple definitions.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. The boxer threw a right hook .

Key Points

• The highlighted word in the question is "hook," which is a homonym. A homonym is a word that has the same spelling or pronunciation as another word but differs in meaning.
• In the given sentence, "He put the fish on the hook and threw it into the water," the word "hook" refers to a curved or bent tool used for fishing.
• The correct answer, option 3, "The boxer threw a right hook," uses the word "hook" in a different context. Here, "hook" refers to a specific type of punch in boxing.
• The other options do not change the meaning of the word "hook" significantly and are still closely related to the original usage of "hook" as a curved or bent object.

Correct sentence: The boxer threw a right hook.

Additional Information

• Other examples of homonyms:
• Bat: A flying mammal or a piece of equipment used in cricket/baseball.
• Bank: A financial institution or the side of a river.
• Importance of homonyms: Understanding homonyms is essential for effective communication as they can create confusion if the context is unclear.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Trepidation .

Key Points

• The word trepidation refers to a feeling of fear or apprehension, especially in tense or uncertain situations.
• It accurately describes the emotional state of being anxious or uneasy, often when anticipating an event or outcome.
• The other options do not fit the context of the question:
• Elation: A feeling of great happiness or joy.
• Fury: Intense anger or rage.
• Serenity: A state of being calm, peaceful, and untroubled.
• Thus, the correct answer is trepidation, as it aligns with the meaning of “a feeling of apprehension in tense situations.”

Correct sentence: A feeling of apprehension in tense situations is referred to as trepidation.

Additional Information

• Synonyms of Trepidation: Anxiety, nervousness, uneasiness, dread.
• Antonyms of Trepidation: Calmness, confidence, composure, serenity.
• Example Sentence: She felt a sense of trepidation as she stepped onto the stage to deliver her first speech.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Aesthete .

Key Points

• The word "Aesthete" refers to a person who has a deep appreciation or love for fine arts, beauty, and aesthetics.
• "Artist" refers to someone who creates art, such as paintings or sculptures, but it does not necessarily imply a lover of fine arts.
• "Sculptor" is someone who specifically creates sculptures, which is a narrow field within fine arts.
• "Painter" refers to someone who creates paintings and is also a specific type of artist, but it does not define a general lover of fine arts.
• Hence, the most appropriate one-word substitute for "a person who is a lover of fine arts" is "Aesthete."

Correct sentence: A person who is a lover of fine arts is called an Aesthete.

Additional Information

• Aesthetics: A branch of philosophy that deals with the nature of beauty and artistic taste.
• Synonyms for Aesthete: Connoisseur, Art lover, Patron of fine arts.
• Antonym: Philistine - A person who lacks appreciation for art or culture.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. An automated system could have sent the message .

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the passive voice, as the subject ("The message") is receiving the action.
• To convert a sentence from passive to active voice, we identify the agent (doer of the action) and make it the subject of the sentence.
• In this case, the agent performing the action is "an automated system."
• The verb phrase "could have been sent" changes to "could have sent" in the active voice.

Correct sentence: An automated system could have sent the message.

Additional Information

• Active Voice:
• The subject performs the action.
• Example: The cat chased the mouse.
• Passive Voice:
• The subject receives the action.
• Example: The mouse was chased by the cat.
• Conversion Tips:
• Identify the subject (doer) and object (receiver) in the passive sentence.
• Switch their positions to make the doer the subject in the active voice.
• Modify the verb form accordingly (e.g., remove "been" and adjust tense).

The correct answer is '1' i.e. They could not exhibit the painting without restoring it first. .

Key Points

• The given sentence is written in the passive voice.
• To convert the sentence into the active voice, we need to identify the subject performing the action. In this case, the subject performing the action is "They".
• The passive structure is: "The painting could not be exhibited without being restored first."
• The active structure is: "They could not exhibit the painting without restoring it first."

Correct sentence in active form: They could not exhibit the painting without restoring it first.

Additional Information

• Passive Voice:
• Structure: Object + could not + be + past participle + additional details.
• Example: The book could not be read without being translated first.
• Active Voice:
• Structure: Subject + could not + base verb + object + additional details.
• Example: They could not read the book without translating it first.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Embarrasment .

Key Points

• The word “Embarrasment” is spelled incorrectly because it has only one "r" and one "s".
• The correct spelling of the word is “Embarrassment”, which has a double "r" and double "s".
• It is important to use the correct spelling in formal writing or communication.

Correct word: Embarrassment.

Additional Information

• Common Spelling Mistakes:
• Words like “accommodate,” “occasion,” and “occurrence” are often misspelled due to incorrect doubling of letters.
• Always double-check words with double consonants to ensure accuracy.
• Tips to Remember the Correct Spelling:
• Break the word into syllables: em-bar-rass-ment.
• Focus on the double “r” and double “s” in the middle of the word.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. Incorrigeble.

Key Points

• The word "Incorrigeble" is incorrectly spelled.
• The correct spelling of the word is "Incorrigible".
• Incorrigible is an adjective used to describe a person or their behavior as not able to be corrected, improved, or reformed.

Correct sentence: The correct spelling is Incorrigible, meaning someone who is beyond correction or improvement.

Additional Information

• Aesthetics: Correctly spelled. It refers to the appreciation of beauty or art.
• Irrefutable: Correctly spelled. It means something that cannot be disproven or denied.
• Subtlety: Correctly spelled. It refers to the quality of being subtle or understated.
• Incorrigible: The correct spelling of the misspelled word "Incorrigeble".

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The professor said that the students who had been absent the day before would have to submit their assignments by the next day, or they would be penalized.

Key Points

• The given sentence is in direct speech, and the task is to convert it into indirect speech.
• When converting direct speech to indirect speech:
• The reporting verb “said” remains unchanged as there is no request or command.
• Time expressions such as “yesterday” change to “the day before”, and “tomorrow” changes to “the next day.”
• The tense of the reported speech shifts one step back in time. For example:
• “will” changes to “would.”
• “had been” remains unchanged as it is already in the past perfect tense.
• Therefore, the correct option must reflect these changes accurately.

Correct sentence: The professor said that the students who had been absent the day before would have to submit their assignments by the next day, or they would be penalized.

Additional Information

• Changes in Time Expressions:
• Direct Speech: yesterday → Indirect Speech: the day before
• Direct Speech: tomorrow → Indirect Speech: the next day
• Changes in Tenses:
• Direct Speech: will → Indirect Speech: would
• Direct Speech: present/past tense → Indirect Speech: past/past perfect tense

The correct answer is '3' i.e. He told me that he had been trying to call me, but his phone's battery had died, so he had been looking for a public phone since then .

Key Points

• The given sentence needs to be converted into indirect speech.
• When converting from direct to indirect speech, the following rules are applied:
• The pronouns are adjusted according to the speaker and listener.
• The tense of the verbs is shifted back one step in time if the reporting verb (e.g., "told") is in the past tense.
• In this case:
• Direct speech: "I was trying to call you, but my phone's battery died, so I have been looking for a public phone since then."
• The present perfect tense "have been looking" changes to past perfect "had been looking."
• The past tense "died" changes to past perfect "had died."
• The pronoun "I" changes to "he," and "you" changes to "me" as per the context.

Correct sentence: He told me that he had been trying to call me, but his phone's battery had died, so he had been looking for a public phone since then.

Additional Information

• Changes in tenses in indirect speech:
• Present simple → Past simple
• Present perfect → Past perfect
• Past simple → Past perfect
• Will → Would
• Example:
• Direct: She said, "I am happy."
• Indirect: She said that she was happy.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. "The journalist noted, 'The celebrity is having a very busy schedule this week.'".

Key Points

• The question requires converting the given indirect speech sentence into direct speech.
• The sentence provided in the question is: "The journalist noted that the celebrity was having a very busy schedule that week."
• To convert indirect speech into direct speech, the following points must be considered:
• Identify the reporting verb ("noted" in this case).
• Change the tense of the reported clause. Since the reported speech uses "was having" (past continuous), it must be converted to "is having" (present continuous) in direct speech as per the context (that week → this week).
• Ensure the sentence structure aligns with direct speech rules (add quotation marks and correct pronoun usage).

Correct sentence: The journalist noted, "The celebrity is having a very busy schedule this week."

Additional Information

• Rules for Indirect to Direct Speech Conversion:
• Change the pronouns and time expressions as per the context.
• Adjust the tense according to the reporting verb (present or past tense).
• Enclose the direct speech in quotation marks.
• Examples:
• Indirect: She said that she was reading a book. → Direct: She said, "I am reading a book."
• Indirect: He mentioned that he had completed the project. → Direct: He mentioned, "I have completed the project."

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The presentation had to be listened to with rapt attention by the board members .

Key Points

• The sentence is in the active voice, where the subject "The board members" is performing the action of "listening to the presentation."
• To transform it into passive voice, the object "The presentation" becomes the subject of the sentence.
• The verb "had to listen" changes to its passive form "had to be listened to."
• The agent "by the board members" is included at the end of the sentence to indicate who performed the action.

Correct sentence: The presentation had to be listened to with rapt attention by the board members.

Additional Information

• Rules for Passive Voice Transformation:
• The object of the active voice becomes the subject of the passive voice.
• The main verb is changed to its past participle form, and appropriate helping verbs are added.
• The agent (performer of the action) is introduced using "by," though it is optional in some cases.
• Examples:
• Active: The teacher gave the students homework. → Passive: The students were given homework by the teacher.
• Active: They will complete the project by tomorrow. → Passive: The project will be completed by them by tomorrow.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. It is said that she will make a great leader someday .

Key Points

• The sentence is written in the active voice, and the task is to convert it into passive voice.
• In the given sentence: "People say that she will make a great leader someday," the reporting verb is "say," and the subject performing the action is "People."
• In passive voice, the structure changes to: "It is said that..." to emphasize the statement rather than the doer of the action.
• The correct passive transformation for the statement is: "It is said that she will make a great leader someday."

Correct sentence: It is said that she will make a great leader someday.

Additional Information

• Active Voice: The subject performs the action, e.g., People say that she will make a great leader someday.
• Passive Voice: The object of the active voice becomes the subject of the passive voice, and emphasis is shifted to the action or the object, e.g., It is said that she will make a great leader someday.
• Incorrect Options:
• Option 1: "She is said to make a great leader someday" is incorrect because the tense does not align with the original statement.
• Option 2: "It is said that she will be made a great leader someday" is incorrect as it changes the meaning of the sentence.
• Option 4: "She is said that she is a prodigy" is incorrect as it introduces a new subject and alters the original statement.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The student asked the librarian, "How can I find a book on medieval history?" .

Key Points

• The given sentence involves a question in direct voice, and the goal is to convert it into an appropriate direct speech format.
• Option 1 correctly follows the rules of direct speech by using the exact words of the speaker and maintaining proper punctuation. The question is enclosed in quotes, and the pronoun "I" remains as it is.
• Option 2 is incorrect because it changes the pronoun "I" to "he," which alters the meaning of the original sentence.
• Option 3 is incorrect because it uses "could" instead of "can," which changes the tense and does not match the original question in the present tense.
• Option 4 is incorrect because it combines "could" and "I," which creates a mismatch between the tense and the pronoun.

Correct sentence: The student asked the librarian, "How can I find a book on medieval history?".

Additional Information

• Rules for Direct Speech:
• Structure: The exact words of the speaker are enclosed in quotation marks (" ").
• Punctuation: A comma separates the reporting clause from the quote, and the first letter inside the quote is capitalized.
• Example: She said, "I am going to the market."
• Rules for Indirect Speech:
• Structure: The sentence is rephrased using conjunctions like "that" or "if," and the pronouns and tenses may change accordingly.
• Example: She said that she was going to the market.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The verb phrase "has become" follows the structure of the Present Perfect Tense.
• The formula for the Present Perfect tense is: Subject + Has/Have + Past Participle (V3).
• Has: Used because the subject ("maintaining a nutritious diet") is singular.
• Become: This is the V3 (past participle) form of the verb (Become - Became - Become).
• This tense is used here to describe an action or state that started in the past and continues to be true or has relevance in the present.
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 2 (Present Continuous): This would be "is becoming," indicating an action currently in progress.
• Option 3 (Simple Past): This would be "became," indicating a completed action in the past.
• Option 4 (Future Perfect): This would be "will have become," indicating an action that will be completed by a certain point in the future.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams like, identifying the Present Perfect often hinges on recognizing the V3 form. Some verbs, like "become" or "run," have the same form for V1 and V3, which can be a common point of confusion.

 

Additional Information

• Pivotal: Of crucial importance in relation to the development or success of something else.
• Impulsively: Doing something without forethought; acting on a sudden urge.
• Nourishment: The food or other substances necessary for growth, health, and good condition.
• Mindful: Conscious or aware of something.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• To change a sentence from Active to Passive Voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The original sentence is in the Simple Present Tense ("play").
• The formula for Passive Voice in Simple Present is: New Subject + am/is/are + Past Participle (V3) + by + New Object.
• Active Subject: Parents and schools
• Active Verb: play
• Active Object: A pivotal role
• Passive Transformation: "A pivotal role" (New Subject) + "is" (Auxiliary) + "played" (V3) + "by parents and schools" (New Object).
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 2: The meaning is reversed, suggesting the parents are being played by the role.
• Option 3: This uses "was," which changes the tense to Simple Past. The tense must remain consistent.
• Option 4: This uses "play" (V1) instead of the required Past Participle "played" (V3).

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, voice change questions often try to trick you by changing the tense. Always identify the tense of the main verb first; if the active is present, the passive must use "is/am/are."

 

Additional Information

• Pivotal: Central and important to the situation.
• Lifestyle diseases: Diseases linked with the way people live (e.g., Type 2 diabetes, heart disease).
• Nourishment: The food or other substances necessary for growth and health.
• Adolescents: Young people in the process of developing from a child into an adult.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• In the context of the passage, "cultivating" refers to the process of fostering, growing, or developing healthy eating habits over time.
• The word is often used metaphorically in English to describe the act of nurturing a skill, habit, or relationship, much like a farmer nurtures a crop.
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1 (Destroying): This is an antonym. The passage encourages building habits, not ending them.
• Option 2 (Ignoring): The text emphasizes the importance of paying attention to these habits for long-term well-being.
• Option 4 (Avoiding): The passage suggests that youngsters should embrace and adopt these habits, not stay away from them.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, vocabulary questions often use words with both literal and figurative meanings. While "cultivating" literally refers to farming, in this "health and lifestyle" context, it strictly means the gradual development of a behavior.

 

Additional Information

• Nourishment: The food or other substances necessary for growth, health, and good condition.
• Mindful: Conscious or aware of something.
• Pivotal: Of crucial importance in relation to the development or success of something else.
• Adolescents: Young people in the process of developing from a child into an adult.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• In the passage, "impulsively" describes the act of eating without thinking, driven by sudden urges or convenience rather than health goals.
• Carefully (Option 1): This is the antonym. If someone eats "carefully," they are acting with thought, attention, and deliberation—the exact opposite of acting on a sudden, unthinking impulse. The text contrasts impulsive eating with "mindful eating" and "conscious choices."
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 2 (Rapidly): This refers to speed. While impulsive eating can be fast, "rapidly" is not a direct opposite in terms of the decision-making process.
• Option 3 (Silently): This refers to noise levels and has no relevance to the decision to eat healthily or impulsively.
• Option 4 (Angrily): This refers to an emotional state (anger) which is not the primary contrast intended in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, antonym questions often provide words that are "mindset" opposites. Since "impulsively" implies a lack of planning, the correct antonym must involve calculation or caution.

 

Additional Information

• Mindful: Taking care to be aware of something; the opposite of being on "autopilot."
• Pivotal: Crucially important to the outcome of something.
• Conscious: Having knowledge of and being aware of one's surroundings or actions.
• Adolescents: Young people developing from children into adults.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage explicitly outlines the responsibility of educational institutions in the third paragraph: "Therefore, parents and schools play a pivotal role in promoting a healthy lifestyle by providing access to nutritious meals and educating young people..."
• This highlights a two-pronged approach: Physical access (nutritious meals) and Knowledge (education about consequences).
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1: The text mentions providing access to good food, but it does not specifically mention "banning" all snacks.
• Option 3: The passage suggests that schools should guide and educate students, which is the opposite of a "whatever they want" approach.
• Option 4: Physical activity is not discussed in this passage; the focus is entirely on dietary habits.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, questions about the "role" of an entity require you to find the specific sentence where that entity (in this case, "schools") is the subject. The correct answer will almost always be a direct paraphrase of that sentence.

 

Additional Information

• Pivotal role: A role that is central and crucial to the success of a plan or activity.
• Nutritious: Efficient as food; providing those substances necessary for growth and health.
• Consequences: The results or effects of an action or condition.
• Mindful eating: The practice of maintaining a non-judgmental awareness of food and drink consumption.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Let B's age = x. Then A's age = x + 5. The sum of their ages is 35.

Calculation:

x + (x + 5) = 35

2x + 5 = 35

2x = 30

x = 15

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Use the simple interest formula: SI = (P × R × T) / 100, where P = principal, R = rate, T = time.

Calculation:

SI = (5000 × 10 × 3) / 100

SI = 150000 / 100

SI = 1500

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Given:

The person walks:

5 km north → initially facing north

Turns right → now facing east, walks 3 km

Turns right again → now facing south, walks 5 km

Hence, the person is now facing south.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

The person walks:

10 km east → moves 10 km 

10 km north → moves 10 km 

10 km west → moves 10 km 

Distance from starting point = 10 km

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The best approach is to address the issue professionally and calmly, ensuring your contribution is recognized without creating unnecessary conflict.

Now, checking the given options:

Option 1: Publicly confront

→ Aggressive and unprofessional

Option 2: Stay silent

→ Your work goes unrecognized

Option 3: Calmly talk to colleague and manager

→ Professional and constructive

Option 4: Avoid the colleague

→ Unproductive and creates tension

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern is based on letter position shifts in the alphabet. Each letter in the first group is shifted forward by a fixed number to get the corresponding letter in the second group.

Stepwise analysis: 

First pair: ACE → NPR

Apply the same logic to JLN → ?

So, the missing group is VWZ.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: two consecutive vowels

Vowels: A, E, I, O, U

The next vowel to 'E' is 'I'.

So, 

The next vowel to 'O' is 'U'.

Hence, Option 2 is correct.

The logic followed here is:

thus, "1031" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Given Reference Statement: Vatican City: 11^th February, 1929 CE. Let's compare each option carefully.

So, the statement that is exactly the same as the reference is in option (1).

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given Reference Statement: Accra (GH): Mar 6, 1957. Let's compare each option carefully.

So, the statement that is exactly the same as the reference is in option (1).

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: In each column, multiply the three numbers and then multiply the product by 100 to get the fourth number.

Stepwise Analysis:

Column 1: (10 × 2 × 7) × 100 = 140 × 100 = 14000 

Column 2: (5 × 7 × 8) × 100 = 280 × 100 = 28000 

Column 3 (Missing Value): (9 × 6 × 5) × 100 = 270 × 100 = 27000 

Hence, the missing number is Option 3.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Count all the triangles carefully by avoiding overcounting and considering only valid combinations.

Now,

There are 6 small triangles formed individually.

Combine smaller triangles to form larger ones:

2 triangles formed by combining two smaller triangles.

1 triangle formed by combining all sections into the largest triangle.

Total triangles = 6 + 2 + 1 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Count all quadrilaterals by selecting any two horizontal lines and any two vertical lines in the grid.

Now,

Number of horizontal lines = 4 → choose any 2 = 6 ways

Number of vertical lines = 3 → choose any 2 = 3 ways

Total quadrilaterals = 6 × 3 = 18

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Given:

P starts walking north and takes only right turns.

1^st right turn: faces east

2^nd right turn: faces south

3^rd right turn: faces west

4^th right turn: faces north

Hence, after 4 right turns, P will be facing north.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The missing bottom-right quadrant must have the large outer quarter-circle, the small inner quarter-circle near the center, and the two diagonal connecting lines, perfectly mirroring the other three quadrants to maintain the overall symmetry.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: In both sets of figures, the odd pair is identified by breaking the established pattern.

Now, the checking Options:

Option 1: 

4 sides, 4 lines → Follows rule

Option 2: 

5 sides, 5 lines → Follows rule

Option 3: 

4 sides, 4 lines → Follows rule

Option 4: 

3 sides, 4 lines → Odd one out

The rule is number of sides = number of lines crossing the shape. Option 4 (triangle with 4 lines) breaks this rule.

Hence, the correct answer for both sets is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: In the first image, the pattern relates the number of sides of the shape to the number of lines crossing its boundary. Options 1, 2, and 3 follow the rule (n sides = n lines), while Option 4 does not (triangle with 4 lines).

Now, checking the Options:

Option 1: 

4-sided arrow-head with 4 lines –  Follows the rule

Option 2: 

5-sided pentagon with 5 lines –  Follows the rule

Option 3: 

4-sided rectangle with 4 lines –  Follows the rule

Option 4: 

3-sided triangle with 4 lines – Breaks the rule → Odd one out

Hence, Option 4 is the odd figure pair.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern in each box involves a clockwise rotation of three elements, with the element in the bottom-left position being replaced by a new one in the top-left.

Option 1: 

Top-left: New element 

Top-right: 8 

Bottom-right: 5 

Bottom-left: Circle 

Perfectly follows the clockwise rotation and replacement rule

Option 2: 

Top-left: 8  Should be the new element

Top-right: 5  Top-right should have 8

Bottom-right: Circle  Bottom-right should have 5

Bottom-left: Arrow Should be replaced by new element

 Does not follow the pattern

Option 3: 

Top-left: Circle  Should be the new element

Top-right: 8 

Bottom-right: 5 

Bottom-left: Arrow  Should be replaced

 Partially follows the rotation but bottom-left not replaced correctly

Option 4: 

Top-left: 5  Should be new element

Top-right: Circle Should be 8

Bottom-right: 8 Should be 5

Bottom-left: Arrow Should be replaced

Completely misaligned

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The dot moves two positions clockwise in each step within the hexagon divided into six triangles. This +2 movement continues consistently through the series.

Hence, the dot will land in the bottom-middle section.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each letter is shifted +4 positions forward in the alphabet.

Here,

BRIO → FVMS

DRAB → HVEF

Now apply the same to ATOP:

So, the code becomes EXST

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

FLOOR → AIJFM

DIRTY → YNMCT

Now apply the same to ACTOR:

So, the code becomes VIOWM

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each letter is shifted by alternating positions — first letter +8, second +10, third +14, fourth −6, fifth −2, sixth +5 (fixed pattern based on positions).

Here, 

INDICT → YGLIRL

NEATLY → DPWFIQ

Now apply the same positional pattern to DIALOG:

So, the code becomes LSOFMG

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Given word: STAMP

Rule: The given word must be formed using letters of the option (with correct frequency).

Now, checking each option:

Option 1: PLANTS

P, L, A, N, T, S → ‘M’ is missing 

Option 2: CAMPUS

C, A, M, P, U, S → ‘T’ is missing 

Option 3: STAMEN

S, T, A, M, E, N → All required letters (S, T, A, M, P) are NOT fully available (‘P’ missing) 

Option 4: MAPSTER

M, A, P, S, T, E, R → Contains all letters of STAMP 

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Formula Used:

Mixed recurring decimal: A number with both a non-repeating part and a repeating decimal part.

Calculation:

⇒ Option 1: 0.25 has no repeating decimal part.

⇒ Option 2: 0.6666... is purely recurring, no non-repeating part.

⇒ Option 3: 0.123123... is purely recurring, no non-repeating part.

⇒ Option 4: 1.436363... has 1.43 as the non-repeating part and 63 as the repeating decimal part.

∴ The correct answer is 1.436363...

Given:

Discount = 25%

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 7500

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = SP ÷ (1 - Discount/100)

Calculation:

⇒ MP = 7500 ÷ (1 - 25/100)

⇒ MP = 7500 ÷ (1 - 0.25)

⇒ MP = 7500 ÷ 0.75

⇒ MP = Rs. 10000

∴ The correct answer is 10000.

Given:

∠BIC - ∠BOC = 90°

Formula Used:

∠BIC = 90 + A/2

∠BOC = 180 - A

Calculation:

⇒ (90 + A/2) - (180 - A) = 90

⇒ 90 + A/2 - 180 + A = 90

⇒ -90 + 3A/2 = 90

⇒ 3A/2 = 180

⇒ A = 120°

∴ The correct answer is 120°.

Given:

cotθ = 3/4

Formula Used:

cotθ = adjacent ÷ opposite

sinθ = opposite ÷ hypotenuse

cosθ = adjacent ÷ hypotenuse

Calculation:

⇒ adjacent = 3, opposite = 4

⇒ hypotenuse = √(3² + 4²) = 5

⇒ sinθ = 4 ÷ 5

⇒ cosθ = 3 ÷ 5

⇒ (1 + sinθ) ÷ cosθ = (1 + 4/5) ÷ (3/5) = (9/5) × (5/3) = 3

⇒ (1 - sinθ) ÷ cosθ = (1 - 4/5) ÷ (3/5) = (1/5) × (5/3) = 1/3

⇒ Total = 3 + 1/3

⇒ Total = 10/3

∴ The correct answer is 10/3.

Given:

Radius = 5 cm

Angle between tangents = 90°

Formula Used:

Length of tangent = √(R² - r²)

tan(θ) = opposite ÷ adjacent

Calculation:

⇒ Angle between tangents = 90°

⇒ Each angle = 90 ÷ 2 = 45°

⇒ tan45° = tangent ÷ radius

⇒ 1 = tangent ÷ 5

⇒ tangent = 5

⇒ R² = 5² + 5²

⇒ R² = 25 + 25 = 50

⇒ R = √50

⇒ R = 7.07 cm

∴ The correct answer is 7.07.

Given:

OA = 15 cm

AC = 24 cm

Formula Used:

Perpendicular from center to chord bisects the chord

OA² = OB² + AB²

Calculation:

⇒ AB = 24 ÷ 2 = 12

⇒ OA² = 15² = 225

⇒ OB² = 225 - 12²

⇒ OB² = 225 - 144

⇒ OB² = 81

⇒ OB = 9 cm

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of sides (l + b) = Perimeter ÷ 2 = 14√2 cm.

Direct formula: (l − b)² = (l + b)² − 4 × Area.

⇒ (l − b)² = (14√2)² − 4 × 96 = 392 − 384 = 8.

⇒ (l − b) = √8 = 2√2 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 2√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of the rectangle = 28√2 cm

Area of the rectangle = 96 cm²

Formula Used:

1. Perimeter = 2 × (l + b)

2. Area = l × b

3. (l − b)² = (l + b)² − 4lb

Calculations:

⇒ 2(l + b) = 28√2

⇒ l + b = 14√2

⇒ lb = 96

⇒ (l − b)² = (14√2)² − 4 × 96

⇒ (l − b)² = (196 × 2) − 384

⇒ (l − b)² = 392 − 384 = 8

⇒ l − b = √8 = 2√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 2√2 cm.

Additional Information

Rectangle Diagonal

The diagonal (d) of a rectangle is calculated using Pythagoras theorem: d = √(l² + b²).

Algebraic Identity

The relation between sum and difference of two numbers is given by: (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab.

Properties of a Rectangle

A rectangle is a quadrilateral where all interior angles are 90° and opposite sides are equal and parallel.

Given:

Number of tiles = 600

Diagonal 1 = 16 cm

Diagonal 2 = 19 cm

Rate = 10 per m²

Formula Used:

Area of rhombus = 1/2 × d1 × d2

Total cost = Total area × rate

Calculation:

⇒ Area of one tile = 1/2 × 16 × 19

⇒ Area of one tile = 8 × 19 = 152 cm²

⇒ Total area = 600 × 152 = 91200 cm²

⇒ Total area = 91200 ÷ 10000 = 9.12 m²

⇒ Cost = 9.12 × 10

⇒ Cost = 91.2

∴ The correct answer is 91.2.

Given:

Ratio of diagonals = 8 : 15

Side = 17 cm

Formula Used:

(d1/2)² + (d2/2)² = side²

Area of rhombus = 1/2 × d1 × d2

Calculation:

⇒ Let d1 = 8x, d2 = 15x

⇒ (8x/2)² + (15x/2)² = 17²

⇒ (4x)² + (7.5x)² = 289

⇒ 16x² + 56.25x² = 289

⇒ 72.25x² = 289

⇒ x² = 289 ÷ 72.25 = 4

⇒ x = 2

⇒ d1 = 8 × 2 = 16 cm

⇒ d2 = 15 × 2 = 30 cm

⇒ Area = 1/2 × 16 × 30

⇒ Area = 8 × 30 = 240 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm, 30 cm and 240 cm².

Given:

Ratio = 4 : 5

Total profit = 110000

Formula Used:

Share = Total profit × individual ratio ÷ sum of ratios

Calculation:

⇒ Total ratio = 4 + 5 = 9

⇒ A's share = 110000 × 4 ÷ 9

⇒ A's share = 440000 ÷ 9

⇒ A's share = 48889

∴ The correct answer is 48889.

Given:

Numbers = 12, 18, 21, 28

Formula Used:

LCM of given numbers

Required number = Largest 4-digit number ÷ LCM × LCM

Calculation:

⇒ 12 = 2² × 3

⇒ 18 = 2 × 3²

⇒ 21 = 3 × 7

⇒ 28 = 2² × 7

⇒ LCM = 2² × 3² × 7 = 252

⇒ 9999 ÷ 252 = 39

⇒ Required number = 252 × 39

⇒ Required number = 9828

∴ The correct answer is 9828.

Shortcut Trick

Base average of 9 numbers = 63.

Deviation of first 4 numbers = 4 × (60 − 63) = −12.

Deviation of last 4 numbers = 4 × (66 − 63) = +12.

Net deviation = −12 + 12 = 0.

Fifth number = Base Average + Net Deviation = 63 + 0 = 63.

∴ The correct answer is 63.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of 9 numbers = 63

Average of first 4 numbers = 60

Average of last 4 numbers = 66

Formula Used:

Sum of observations = Average × Total observations

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of all 9 numbers = 9 × 63 = 567

⇒ Sum of first 4 numbers = 4 × 60 = 240

⇒ Sum of last 4 numbers = 4 × 66 = 264

⇒ Sum of 8 numbers (excluding the 5^th) = 240 + 264 = 504

⇒ Fifth number = 567 − 504 = 63

∴ The correct answer is 63.

Additional Information

Deviation Method

The sum of deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero. This property is used to find a missing term by balancing positive and negative deviations.

Net Change in Average

If every observation is increased or decreased by a constant value k, the new average also increases or decreases by k.

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂ are combined, the combined average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Given:

Initial average = 40 runs

Total innings = 20

New average = 42 runs

21^st inning score = ?

Formula Used:

Total runs = Average × Number of innings

21^st inning score = New total runs − Previous total runs

Calculation:

⇒ Previous total runs = 40 × 20

⇒ Previous total runs = 800

⇒ New total runs = 42 × 21

⇒ New total runs = 882

⇒ 21^st inning score = 882 − 800

⇒ 21^st inning score = 82

∴ The correct answer is 82.

Given:

Speed 1 = 30 km/h

Distance 1 = 90 km

Increase = 20%

Distance 2 = 60 km

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Time 1 = 90 ÷ 30 = 3 hours

⇒ New speed = 30 × 120 ÷ 100 = 36 km/h

⇒ Time 2 = 60 ÷ 36

⇒ Time 2 = 5/3 hours

⇒ Total time = 3 + 5/3

⇒ Total time = 14/3 hours = 4 hour 40 minutes 

∴ The correct answer is 4 hour 40 minutes.

Given:

Distance = 200 m

Time taken by Ravi = 25 s

Time taken by Raj = 30 s

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

⇒ Speed of Ravi = 200 ÷ 25 = 8 m/s

⇒ Speed of Raj = 200 ÷ 30 = 20/3 m/s

⇒ Distance covered by Raj in 25 s = (20/3) × 25

⇒ Distance = 500/3 m

⇒ Difference = 200 - 500/3

⇒ Difference = (600 - 500) ÷ 3

⇒ Difference = 100/3 m

⇒ Difference = 33.33 m

∴ The correct answer is 33.33.

Given:

A + B = 6 days

A alone = 12 days

Formula Used:

Total work = LCM of given days

Work rate = Work ÷ Days

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 6 and 12 = 12

⇒ Total work = 12 units

⇒ (A + B)'s 1 day work = 12 ÷ 6 = 2

⇒ A's 1 day work = 12 ÷ 12 = 1

⇒ B's 1 day work = 2 − 1 = 1

⇒ B's time = 12 ÷ 1 = 12 days

∴ The correct answer is 12 days.

Given:

Discount = 20%

Selling Price = ₹840

Formula Used:

Discount = (Discount Percentage ÷ 100) × Marked Price

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount

Calculation:

Let Marked Price = ₹x

⇒ Discount = (20 ÷ 100) × x = 0.2x

⇒ Selling Price = x − 0.2x

⇒ ₹840 = 0.8x

⇒ x = ₹840 ÷ 0.8

⇒ x = ₹1,050

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,050.

Given:

Equal quantities in both containers

Ratio (milk : water) in A = 3 : 2

Ratio (milk : water) in B = 4 : 1

Formula Used:

Quantity = Total × (part ÷ sum of ratio)

Calculation:

⇒ Let each container = 5 litres

⇒ Milk in A = 5 × (3 ÷ 5) = 3

⇒ Water in A = 5 × (2 ÷ 5) = 2

⇒ Milk in B = 5 × (4 ÷ 5) = 4

⇒ Water in B = 5 × (1 ÷ 5) = 1

⇒ Total milk = 3 + 4 = 7

⇒ Total water = 2 + 1 = 3

⇒ Ratio = 7 : 3

∴ The correct answer is 7 : 3.

Given:

Radius = 10 cm

Chord₁ = 12 cm

Chord₂ = 16 cm

Formula Used:

Distance from center = √(r² − (chord ÷ 2)²)

Calculation:

⇒ Distance₁ = √(10² − 6²)

⇒ = √(100 − 36) = √64 = 8

⇒ Distance₂ = √(10² − 8²)

⇒ = √(100 − 64) = √36 = 6

⇒ Total distance = 8 + 6 = 14 cm

∴ The correct answer is 14 cm.

Given:

Chord 1 = 16 cm

Chord 2 = 12 cm

Distance between chords = 14 cm

Formula Used:

Distance from center to chord = √(r² - (chord/2)²)

Calculation:

⇒ Let radius = r

⇒ Distance for chord 16 = √(r² - 8²)

⇒ Distance for chord 12 = √(r² - 6²)

⇒ √(r² - 64) + √(r² - 36) = 14

⇒ Let √(r² - 64) = a

⇒ √(r² - 36) = b

⇒ a + b = 14

⇒ b² - a² = 28

⇒ (b - a)(b + a) = 28

⇒ (b - a) × 14 = 28

⇒ b - a = 2

⇒ Solve a + b = 14 and b - a = 2

⇒ b = 8, a = 6

⇒ r² - 36 = 64

⇒ r² = 100

⇒ r = 10 cm

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Given:

Chord AB = radius

PA and PB are tangents

Formula Used:

Chord = 2 × r × sin(θ ÷ 2)

Angle between tangents = 180° − central angle

Calculation:

⇒ r = 2 × r × sin(θ ÷ 2)

⇒ 1 = 2 × sin(θ ÷ 2)

⇒ sin(θ ÷ 2) = 1 ÷ 2

⇒ θ ÷ 2 = 30°

⇒ θ = 60°

⇒ ∠APB = 180 − 60 = 120°

∴ The correct answer is 120°.

Given:

Radius = 6 cm

Distance from center = 10 cm

Formula Used:

Length of tangent = √(distance² − radius²)

Calculation:

⇒ Length = √(10² − 6²)

⇒ Length = √(100 − 36)

⇒ Length = √64

⇒ Length = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Shortcut Trick

Test the given points in the options to find the correct linear equation.

For the point (1, 2): y = 2(1) = 2. This satisfies the equation y = 2x.

For the point (3, 6): y = 2(3) = 6. This also satisfies the equation y = 2x.

Since both coordinates satisfy the relation, the equation must be y = 2x.

∴ The correct answer is y = 2x.

Alternate Method

Given: Point 1 (x₁, y₁) = (1, 2) and Point 2 (x₂, y₂) = (3, 6).

Formula Used:

Slope (m) = (y₂ − y₁) / (x₂ − x₁)

Equation of line: (y − y₁) = m(x − x₁)

⇒ Slope (m) = (6 − 2) / (3 − 1)

⇒ m = 4 / 2 = 2

⇒ Equation: (y − 2) = 2(x − 1)

⇒ y − 2 = 2x − 2

⇒ y = 2x

∴ The correct answer is y = 2x.

Additional Information

Slope-Intercept Form

The standard equation of a line is y = mx + c, where m is the slope and c is the y-intercept.

Intercept Form

If a line cuts the x-axis at 'a' and the y-axis at 'b', its equation is (x/a) + (y/b) = 1.

Parallel Lines

Two parallel lines have the same slope (m₁ = m₂).

Perpendicular Lines

The product of slopes of two perpendicular lines is −1 (m₁ × m₂ = −1).

Given:

Central angle = 60°

Radius = 7 cm

Formula Used:

Chord length = 2 × r × sin(θ ÷ 2)

Calculation:

⇒ Length = 2 × 7 × sin(60 ÷ 2)

⇒ Length = 14 × sin30

⇒ Length = 14 × (1 ÷ 2)

⇒ Length = 7 cm

∴ The correct answer is 7 cm.

Shortcut Trick

Old Selling Price (105%) = ₹4200

Unit value (1%) = 4200 ÷ 105 = 40

New Selling Price required (115%) = 40 × 115

Required SP = ₹4600

∴ The correct answer is ₹4600.

Alternate Method

Given:

First Selling Price (SP₁) = ₹4200

Profit Percentage (P₁) = 5%

Desired Profit Percentage (P₂) = 15%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 + Profit %]

New Selling Price = CP × [(100 + New Profit %) ÷ 100]

Calculations:

⇒ Cost Price = (4200 × 100) ÷ (100 + 5)

⇒ Cost Price = 420000 ÷ 105

⇒ Cost Price = ₹4000

⇒ New Selling Price = 4000 × (115 ÷ 100)

⇒ New Selling Price = 40 × 115

⇒ New Selling Price = ₹4600

∴ The correct answer is ₹4600.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Calculation Base

Profit and Loss percentages are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) of the article unless the question specifies calculation on Selling Price.

Direct SP Relation

When multiple selling prices are involved for the same article, the ratio of Selling Prices is equal to the ratio of their respective percentage values: SP₁ ÷ (100 + P₁) = SP₂ ÷ (100 + P₂).

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price can also be calculated as Marked Price × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Vijayalaya Chola captured the Kaveri delta, marking the beginning of the Chola dynasty's resurgence in South India. This region was strategically important due to its fertile lands and proximity to trade routes.
• After capturing the Kaveri delta, Vijayalaya Chola established the town of Thanjavur, which later became the capital and a cultural hub for the Cholas. This statement is correct.
• Vijayalaya Chola also built a temple for the goddess Nishumbhasudini (a form of Durga) in Thanjavur to commemorate his victory and to signify the divine approval of his rule. This temple was an important religious and cultural landmark. This statement is correct.
• Both actions—establishing Thanjavur and constructing the temple—reflect Vijayalaya Chola’s efforts to consolidate political authority and establish religious and cultural legitimacy.
• These developments laid the foundation for the Chola dynasty's future prosperity and dominance in South India.

Additional Information

• Vijayalaya Chola:
• He was the founder of the Imperial Chola dynasty in the 9^th century CE.
• He emerged as a powerful ruler after defeating the Pallavas and Pandya rulers in the Kaveri delta region.
• His reign marked the rise of the Cholas as a dominant power in South India after centuries of decline.
• Thanjavur:
• Thanjavur became the political and cultural capital of the Chola dynasty during its peak.
• The city was known for its architectural marvels, including the Brihadeeswarar Temple, built later by Rajaraja Chola I.
• It served as a center for art, literature, and religion under Chola patronage.
• Temple of Goddess Nishumbhasudini:
• Vijayalaya Chola built this temple to honor the goddess and to signify his victory over enemies.
• The temple reflects the importance of religion and divine authority in legitimizing kingship during ancient times.
• The goddess Nishumbhasudini represents the triumph of good over evil, symbolizing Vijayalaya’s own victory.
• Chola Dynasty:
• The Chola dynasty is renowned for its contributions to art, architecture, administration, and maritime trade.
• It reached its zenith under rulers like Rajaraja Chola I and Rajaraja Chola II.
• The Cholas were also known for their naval prowess, which helped them establish trade routes and cultural ties with Southeast Asia.

Important Points

• The Chola dynasty's resurgence under Vijayalaya Chola marked the beginning of a significant era in South Indian history. It was characterized by advancements in architecture, literature, and governance.
• Thanjavur, established by Vijayalaya, became a model city that symbolized the grandeur of the Chola empire.
• Religious patronage, such as building temples, was a common practice among rulers to demonstrate their piety and gain public support.
• The Cholas’ emphasis on temple construction and patronage of the arts played a pivotal role in the cultural development of South India.

The correct answer is Sisodiya Rajputs.

Key Points

• The Sisodiya Rajputs, primarily ruling from Mewar, were known for their fierce independence and refusal to accept the authority of the Mughals for a long time.
• The most notable Sisodiya ruler, Maharana Pratap, resisted Mughal emperor Akbar's attempts to annex Mewar and fought the famous Battle of Haldighati in 1576.
• Even after their defeat in Haldighati, the Sisodiyas continued guerrilla warfare under Maharana Pratap and later rulers, maintaining their sovereignty over parts of Mewar.
• Unlike other Rajput clans such as the Kachhwaha of Amer and the Rathores of Marwar, who allied with the Mughals and served in their administration, the Sisodiyas upheld their policy of defiance.
• The Sisodiya Rajputs are celebrated in Indian history for their valor, dedication to their homeland, and their commitment to maintaining independence, making them a symbol of resistance against Mughal imperialism.

Additional Information

• Maharana Pratap:
• Maharana Pratap (1540–1597) was the most famous ruler of the Sisodiya dynasty and is remembered for his valiant resistance against the Mughal empire.
• He refused to accept Mughal suzerainty, unlike most other Rajput rulers, and chose to fight rather than surrender.
• He established his capital at Chavand after losing Chittorgarh to the Mughals.
• Even after the Battle of Haldighati, he continued a guerrilla war against Akbar and reclaimed much of his lost territory.
• Battle of Haldighati (1576):
• The battle was fought between Maharana Pratap and the Mughal forces led by Man Singh I of Amber, a Rajput who had allied with Akbar.
• Though inconclusive, the battle demonstrated the fierce resistance of Maharana Pratap and his determination to defend his kingdom.
• Pratap's loyal horse, Chetak, is also remembered for its bravery during this battle.
• Other Rajput Clans:
• The Kachhwaha Rajputs of Amer, under Raja Bharmal and later Raja Man Singh, allied with Akbar and became prominent commanders in his army.
• The Rathore Rajputs of Marwar also formed alliances with the Mughals, with rulers like Rao Maldeo and Jaswant Singh serving in the Mughal court.
• The Chauhans were significant during earlier medieval times but had lesser political influence during the Mughal period.
• Rajput Resistance:
• While many Rajput clans collaborated with the Mughals, the Sisodiyas' resistance became a defining feature of their legacy.
• This resistance inspired future leaders and symbolized the Rajput spirit of independence and valor.

Important Points

• Chittorgarh: The historic capital of the Sisodiya Rajputs and a significant symbol of Rajput pride. It was besieged multiple times by Muslim rulers, including Alauddin Khilji and Akbar.
• Akbar's Rajput Policy: Akbar adopted a strategy of alliance and diplomacy with Rajput rulers, offering them positions in his administration and matrimonial alliances to secure their loyalty.
• Guerrilla Warfare: Maharana Pratap effectively used guerrilla tactics against the Mughal forces, exploiting the rugged terrain of Mewar to his advantage.
• Rajput Heritage: The Sisodiya Rajputs' legacy of resistance is celebrated in Indian folklore, literature, and art, with Maharana Pratap becoming a national hero.

The correct answer is Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser.

Key Points

• 'Al Kiran' is a pioneering initiative in India co-led by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India.
• The Principal Scientific Adviser plays a key role in advising on science and technology policies and their application for national development.
• The initiative focuses on fostering innovation, enabling the application of scientific research, and promoting sustainable development in India.
• It aims to address critical challenges in areas such as healthcare, agriculture, energy, and education through the use of science and technology.
• The Office of the PSA collaborates with various stakeholders, including research institutions, industry leaders, and government agencies, to implement such initiatives.

Additional Information

• Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA):
• The Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser was established in 1999 by the Government of India.
• The PSA's role includes providing science and technology advice to the Prime Minister and the Cabinet for formulating policies and strategies.
• It works to promote synergy between academia, industry, and government for scientific and technological advancements.
• The office also oversees the implementation of national missions and initiatives like National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) and other innovation-driven programs.
• Key Functions of the PSA Office:
• Advising on strategic science and technology policies.
• Collaborating with international organizations to promote global partnerships in science and technology.
• Overseeing the implementation of major national projects, such as those aimed at solving climate change, energy security, and public health challenges.
• Other Relevant Organizations:
• NITI Aayog: Focuses on policy formulation and economic development but is not directly involved in the 'Al Kiran' initiative.
• Confederation of Indian Industry (CII): Primarily represents industrial bodies and works on economic growth initiatives.
• National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM): Represents the IT and software services industry in India.
• Importance of 'Al Kiran':
• The initiative reflects India's commitment to leveraging science and technology for sustainable development.
• It emphasizes the need for innovation-driven solutions to address critical societal challenges.
• 'Al Kiran' serves as a model for integrating scientific research with policy-making and implementation at the national level.

The correct answer is 1000.

Key Points

• The NPS Vatsalya account, introduced in September 2024, is a new initiative under the National Pension Scheme (NPS) aimed at providing financial security.
• The minimum annual contribution required to open and maintain this account is Rs. 1000, making it accessible for a broad segment of the population.
• This initiative is particularly tailored to encourage savings for retirement and financial protection for individuals.
• The NPS Vatsalya account follows the broader framework of the NPS, emphasizing tax benefits and flexible investment options.
• Contributors can build a retirement corpus over time with relatively low annual contributions, ensuring inclusivity and financial planning for individuals across different income groups.

Additional Information

• About NPS:
• The National Pension Scheme (NPS) is a government-sponsored pension scheme launched in 2004 for government employees and extended to all citizens in 2009.
• It aims to provide financial security in old age through regular contributions over an individual’s working life.
• Investors can choose between various asset classes, such as equities, corporate bonds, and government securities, for their contributions.
• Subscribers receive a regular pension after retirement, based on the corpus accumulated during their working years.
• Features of NPS Vatsalya:
• The NPS Vatsalya account has been introduced to expand the reach of the NPS scheme and encourage savings among lower-income groups.
• It requires a minimum annual contribution of Rs. 1000, which is affordable for most individuals.
• The scheme offers tax benefits under Section 80C and Section 80CCD of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
• Flexibility in contributions allows subscribers to save and grow their retirement corpus according to their financial capacity.
• Benefits of the NPS:
• Subscribers receive a fixed monthly pension after retirement, depending on the accumulated savings.
• Investments under NPS are managed by professional fund managers, ensuring optimal returns for subscribers.
• Partial withdrawals are permitted under specific conditions, such as education, marriage, or critical illness.
• Eligibility for NPS Vatsalya Account:
• Any Indian citizen between the ages of 18 and 65 can open an NPS Vatsalya account.
• The scheme is designed to promote financial inclusion among individuals in both urban and rural areas.

Important Points

• Comparison of Contribution Limits:
• The minimum annual contribution for an NPS Vatsalya account is Rs. 1000, which is lower than the typical minimum contribution required for regular NPS accounts.
• There is no upper limit for contributions, allowing individuals to save more based on their financial goals.
• Tax Benefits:
• Contributions to the NPS are eligible for tax deductions of up to Rs. 1.5 lakh under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act.
• Additional deductions of up to Rs. 50,000 are available under Section 80CCD(1B), making it an attractive savings tool.
• Withdrawal Rules:
• Subscribers can withdraw up to 25% of their contributions after completing three years in the scheme, for specific purposes such as higher education or medical emergencies.
• At retirement, subscribers must use at least 40% of their corpus to purchase an annuity, ensuring a steady income post-retirement.
• Role of PFRDA:
• The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) regulates the NPS and ensures its smooth functioning.
• The PFRDA also approves and monitors fund managers responsible for managing subscribers’ investments.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in July 2021. It measures the level of financial inclusion in the country.
• The index comprises three parameters: Access, Usage, and Quality.
• Access: This parameter evaluates the availability of financial services, such as the number of bank branches, ATMs, and other financial outlets per population.
• Usage: This parameter measures how actively people use financial services, such as savings accounts, loans, or insurance policies.
• Quality: While not mentioned in the question, this parameter assesses the effectiveness and efficiency of financial services provided.
• The FI-Index is a comprehensive measure that ranges from 0 to 100, where 0 represents complete financial exclusion and 100 signifies full financial inclusion.
• Hence, both I (Access) and II (Usage) are correct.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India:
• The RBI introduced the FI-Index to provide a comprehensive tool for policymakers and researchers to track financial inclusion progress.
• This index is released annually and incorporates data from 21 parameters, grouped into the three mentioned dimensions.
• Financial Inclusion:
• Financial inclusion aims to provide affordable financial services to all individuals, especially marginalized and underserved communities.
• It includes services such as banking, credit, insurance, and digital payments.
• Government Initiatives:
• The Government of India has launched programs like Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) to enhance financial inclusion.
• PMJDY focuses on providing universal access to banking facilities, financial literacy, and insurance coverage.
• Global Context:
• Similar indices exist globally, such as the Global Findex Database by the World Bank, which measures financial inclusion worldwide.
• India’s FI-Index aligns with international efforts to track progress toward achieving UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly SDG 8.10.

Important Points

• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana:
• Launched on 28^th August 2014, PMJDY aims to provide universal banking access.
• It has led to the opening of over 48 crore bank accounts as of 2023.
• Digital Financial Services:
• India’s financial inclusion efforts are bolstered by the rise of digital services like UPI and mobile banking.
• UPI (Unified Payments Interface) has revolutionized payment systems, processing over 10 billion transactions monthly in 2023.

The correct answer is 151^st.

Key Points

• India ranked 151^st on the World Press Freedom Index 2025, reflecting a decline in press freedom within the country.
• The World Press Freedom Index is published annually by the Reporters Without Borders (RSF), which evaluates the level of press freedom in 180 countries and territories.
• The ranking is based on indicators like media independence, safety of journalists, legal framework, and the plurality of opinions.
• India’s position has been affected by increasing restrictions on journalists, censorship, and threats to media personnel.
• The top-ranked countries on the index include Norway, Denmark, and Sweden, while countries like North Korea and Eritrea are ranked at the bottom.

Additional Information

• World Press Freedom Index:
• Introduced in 2002 by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), the index evaluates the environment for journalism in 180 countries.
• The index uses five indicators: political context, legal framework, economic factors, sociocultural context, and safety of journalists.
• The aim of the index is to promote and safeguard freedom of information and press rights across the globe.
• India's Declining Press Freedom:
• India’s decline in rankings is attributed to violence against journalists, internet blackouts, and governmental pressures.
• Instances of censorship and restrictions on critical reporting have increased significantly in recent years.
• Journalists reporting on sensitive topics like corruption, politics, or human rights often face threats or legal actions.
• Top-ranked Countries:
• Norway has consistently ranked first in the index due to its strong commitment to press freedom.
• Denmark and Sweden also rank high, reflecting their democratic values and protection of press rights.
• Bottom-ranked Countries:
• North Korea and Eritrea are at the bottom of the index due to their repressive regimes and complete state control over media.
• Journalists in these countries face severe restrictions and risks, including imprisonment and violence.

Important Points

• Role of Reporters Without Borders (RSF):
• RSF is an independent non-governmental organization that advocates for media freedom and access to information.
• It provides support to journalists in danger and promotes the universal right to freedom of expression.
• Challenges to Press Freedom in India:
• India faces challenges like political interference in media, lack of safety for journalists, and increasing digital surveillance.
• The rise of fake news and online trolling has also contributed to creating a hostile environment for journalists.
• Global Trends:
• Globally, press freedom is under threat with increasing instances of censorship, disinformation, and attacks on media personnel.
• Countries with strong press freedom often have independent judiciary systems, transparent governance, and public trust.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• The Export Preparedness Index (EPI) in India is based on four pillars. These pillars provide a comprehensive framework for evaluating the export readiness of states and union territories.
• The four pillars of the EPI include Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem, and Export Performance.
• Policy: This pillar evaluates the regulatory framework, trade policies, and institutional support provided by states to promote exports.
• Business Ecosystem: It assesses the ease of doing business, infrastructure development, and the overall environment for businesses to thrive.
• Export Ecosystem: This evaluates factors like logistics, export infrastructure, and support mechanisms that facilitate exports.
• Export Performance: This pillar measures the actual performance of states in terms of export volumes and growth trends.
• The EPI was developed by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute of Competitiveness to foster competitive spirit among states and encourage them to enhance their export capabilities.

Additional Information

• Export Preparedness Index (EPI) Overview:
• The EPI is a comprehensive tool developed by NITI Aayog to measure the export potential and preparedness of Indian states and union territories.
• It provides valuable insights into the strengths and weaknesses of various states in terms of export readiness.
• The index aims to help states identify areas of improvement and leverage their export potential effectively.
• Objectives of EPI:
• The primary objective is to promote regional export competitiveness across India.
• It emphasizes the importance of an enabling environment for exports, including trade policies, efficient logistics, and infrastructure.
• By identifying gaps, states can formulate targeted policies to enhance their export performance.
• Significance of the Four Pillars:
• Policy: Policies that encourage exports, streamline procedures, and reduce barriers are crucial for export growth.
• Business Ecosystem: A robust business ecosystem ensures that enterprises have access to resources, technology, and markets.
• Export Ecosystem: Efficient logistics and infrastructure directly impact the ease and cost-effectiveness of exporting goods.
• Export Performance: Tracking performance helps states benchmark themselves against others and set measurable goals for improvement.
• Key Findings of EPI:
• States like Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu often rank high due to their robust industrial base, infrastructure, and proactive policies.
• The EPI highlights disparities in export readiness among states, encouraging lagging regions to prioritize export development.
• The index also emphasizes the need for a national-level strategy to support states in overcoming export challenges.

Important Points

• NITI Aayog:
• NITI Aayog was established in 2015 as the policy think tank of the Government of India.
• Its mandate includes promoting cooperative federalism and fostering competitive spirit among states.
• Institute of Competitiveness:
• The institute is a leading research organization focused on economic and competitiveness studies.
• Its collaboration with NITI Aayog ensures that global best practices are incorporated into the EPI framework.
• Other Indices by NITI Aayog:
• India Innovation Index: Measures states' innovation capabilities and identifies areas for improvement.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index: Tracks progress towards achieving the United Nations SDGs.