SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 21 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Beautiful furnitures made the house elegant .

Key Points

• The word "furniture" is an uncountable noun in English.
• Uncountable nouns do not have a plural form and are always treated as singular. Therefore, the word "furnitures" is incorrect.
• The correct sentence should use the singular form "furniture", not its plural.
• Corrected sentence: Beautiful furniture made the house elegant.

Correct sentence: Beautiful furniture made the house elegant.

Additional Information

• Uncountable nouns:
• Definition: Nouns that cannot be counted and are treated as singular.
• Examples: furniture, information, water, advice, etc.
• Usage: Use singular verbs and quantifiers like "some," "a lot of," or "a piece of" for uncountable nouns.
• Countable nouns:
• Definition: Nouns that can be counted and have both singular and plural forms.
• Examples: chair, book, apple, etc.

The correct answer is 'D' i.e. support the conclusion that the new strategy is ineffective. .

Key Points

• The error is in Part D of the sentence, specifically the verb "support."
• The subject of the sentence is "The company's data." In standard English and specifically in formal examination contexts (like SSC, UPSC, and Bank exams), the word "data" is often treated as a singular collective noun when it refers to a body of information as a whole.
• Subject-Verb Agreement: Since the subject is singular, the verb must also be singular. The singular form of the verb "support" is "supports."
• Furthermore, the non-restrictive clause in Part B ("which has been collected...") clearly treats "data" as a singular entity by using the singular auxiliary verb "has." Therefore, the main verb must remain consistent with this.

Correct sentence: The company's data, which has been collected and analyzed for over a decade, supports the conclusion that the new strategy is ineffective.

Additional Information

• Data (Singular vs. Plural): While "data" is technically the plural of the Latin datum, it is almost universally used as an uncountable/singular noun in modern English (like "information" or "evidence"). However, in strictly scientific or academic writing, some still treat it as plural. In competitive exams, look for consistency within the sentence to decide (in this case, "has" in Part B confirmed it should be singular).
• The "Interrupter" Rule: Phrases like "which has been collected..." are interrupters that come between the subject and the verb. Always ignore these to ensure the subject (data) matches the main verb (supports).

The correct answer is '1' i.e. in .

Key Points

• The phrase "in accordance with" is a standard expression used to indicate that something complies with or agrees with rules, laws, or standards.
• The sentence refers to a policy being implemented following international standards, making the preposition "in" the most appropriate choice to complete the phrase.
• Other options such as "by," "to," or "under" do not fit the collocation or context of this sentence.

Correct sentence: The policy was implemented in accordance with international standards.

Additional Information

• The phrase "in accordance with" is commonly used in formal or legal contexts to refer to compliance with established rules or guidelines.
• Examples of usage:
• The company operates in accordance with environmental regulations.
• All procedures were conducted in accordance with the law.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. or else .

Key Points

• The given sentence indicates a condition where two possible outcomes are mentioned: she completes the registration or she won’t be allowed to participate.
• The conjunction "or else" is used to specify the consequences of not fulfilling the condition.
• Other options like "unless," "and," or "since" do not fit the context of providing a consequence.

Correct sentence: She must complete the registration by Friday, or else she won’t be allowed to participate.

Additional Information

• Usage of Conjunctions:
• Or else: Used to indicate the consequence of an action. (e.g., Finish your homework, or else you won’t be allowed to play.)
• Unless: Indicates an exception. (e.g., You can’t go out unless you finish your work.)
• And: Connects two ideas or actions. (e.g., She read the book and wrote a review.)
• Since: Indicates a reason or time. (e.g., Since it was raining, we stayed indoors.)

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Abeyance .

Key Points

• The word "Abeyance" is correctly spelt and means a state of temporary disuse or suspension.
• Option 1 (Abyeance) is incorrect as it is misspelt.
• Option 3 (Abeeyance) is incorrect as it contains an extra 'e'.
• Option 4 (Abyeence) is incorrect as it is also misspelt.

Correct usage: The project was held in abeyance due to unforeseen circumstances.

Additional Information

• Abeyance:
• Meaning: A state of temporary inactivity or suspension.
• Origin: Derived from the Old French word "abeance," meaning expectation or longing.
• Example: The court case was in abeyance pending further investigation.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Coarse .

Key Points

• The word "exquisite" refers to something exceptionally beautiful, delicate, or finely crafted.
• The antonym of "exquisite" would be a word that conveys the opposite, such as something rough, unrefined, or coarse.
• Among the given options:
• Option 1: Beautiful - Similar in meaning to "exquisite," not an antonym.
• Option 2: Coarse - Opposite of "exquisite," meaning rough or unrefined. This is the correct answer.
• Option 3: Delicate - Similar to "exquisite," not an antonym.
• Option 4: Fine - Similar to "exquisite," not an antonym.

Correct answer: The most appropriate antonym of "exquisite" is coarse.

Additional Information

• The meaning of words is crucial when identifying antonyms. "Exquisite" often implies elegance and refinement, while "coarse" conveys the opposite.
• Pay attention to the context of the word in a sentence to ensure the correct antonym is selected.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Autocracy .

Key Points

• Democracy: A form of government in which the people have the authority to deliberate and decide legislation, or to elect governing officials.
• Oligarchy: A government by a small group of people, typically one that is corrupt or selfish.
• Autocracy: A government in which one person has unlimited power or authority.
• Plutocracy: A government controlled exclusively by the wealthy, either directly or indirectly.

Correct explanation: A government by a single person is defined as Autocracy. The term refers to a political system where absolute power is concentrated in the hands of one individual.

Additional Information

• Monarchy: A form of autocracy where a king, queen, or emperor exercises supreme authority, often inherited.
• Dictatorship: A form of autocracy where a single leader wields absolute power, often obtained through force or manipulation.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. anyone .

Key Points

• The sentence contains a double negative: "did not" and "no one." In standard English grammar, double negatives are incorrect as they create a positive meaning, which is not intended here.
• The correct replacement for "no one" is "anyone" to eliminate the double negative while keeping the intended meaning intact.
• The revised sentence will be: "Peter did not speak to anyone in the room."

Correct sentence: Peter did not speak to anyone in the room.

Additional Information

• Double negatives:
• Double negatives involve two negative words in the same sentence.
• Example of incorrect usage: "I don’t have no money." (The correct form is: "I don’t have any money.")
• Use of "anyone":
• "Anyone" is used in negative sentences, questions, or conditional clauses to refer to a person, without specifying who.
• Example: "Did anyone call me?"

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Directness .

Key Points

• The word Euphemism refers to a polite or mild word or expression used to refer to something unpleasant or embarrassing, often to soften the impact.
• An antonym for Euphemism would be a term that conveys bluntness or straightforwardness, without softening the expression.
• Directness, as an antonym, matches this idea as it involves being straightforward, candid, or frank, without using softer or gentler language.

Correct explanation: The word Euphemism contrasts with Directness, which involves stating things as they are without sugarcoating or softening the expression.

Additional Information

• Understatement: Refers to presenting something as smaller or less important than it actually is, which is not the opposite of Euphemism.
• Substitute: Refers to replacing one thing with another, which is unrelated to the antonym of Euphemism.
• Vagueness: Refers to a lack of clarity or precision, which is not directly opposite to Euphemism.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The mother warned the child not to touch the hot iron.

Key Points

• The given sentence is a direct speech in the form of an imperative sentence with a negative command: "Don't touch the hot iron."
• When converting such sentences into indirect speech, we use the reporting verb "warned" to indicate caution.
• The word "not" is used before the verb to maintain the negative meaning.
• The infinitive form of the verb ("to touch") is used in the indirect narration.

Correct sentence: The mother warned the child not to touch the hot iron.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options:
• Option 2: "The mother told the child not to touched the hot iron."

Grammatically incorrect because "touched" is the past tense, whereas the infinitive "to touch" should have been used.

• Option 3: "The mother warned the child not to be touching the hot iron."

Incorrect because "not to be touching" is not a suitable structure in indirect speech.

• Option 4: "The mother requested the child never to touching the hot iron."

Incorrect because "requested" does not convey the warning tone, and "to touching" is grammatically wrong.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. A team of engineers will have conceived the intricate design .

Key Points

• The sentence given is in the passive voice. The passive structure is: "Object + will have been + past participle + by + subject."
• To convert the sentence into the active voice, the subject and object swap places, and the verb form changes accordingly.
• The correct active voice structure would be: "Subject + will have + past participle + object."

Correct sentence: A team of engineers will have conceived the intricate design.

Additional Information

• Active Voice: The subject performs the action expressed by the verb.
• Example: The cat chased the mouse.
• Passive Voice: The subject receives the action expressed by the verb.
• Example: The mouse was chased by the cat.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. garrulous.

Key Points

• The word garrulous means excessively talkative, especially about trivial matters.
• From the options provided, option 3 is the correctly spelled word that fits the context of the sentence.
• The other options are misspelled and do not correspond to the correct spelling of the word.

Correct sentence: The garrulous neighbor kept everyone awake with his endless stories.

Additional Information

• Definition: Garrulous is derived from the Latin word garrulus, meaning talkative.
• Usage in context: It is often used to describe someone whose excessive talking can be annoying or disruptive.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. fell out of.

Key Points

• The given sentence indicates an event where a scorpion dropped from inside the umbrella when it was opened.
• The correct phrasal verb to describe something dropping or coming out from inside an object is "fell out of."
• Other options such as "fell up from," "fell off from," and "fallen down of" are grammatically or contextually incorrect in this scenario.

Correct sentence: As soon as Gita opened the umbrella, a scorpion fell out of it.

Additional Information

• "Fell out of": Used to describe something that exits or drops from an enclosed space or container.
• Example: The papers fell out of the folder.
• Incorrect options explanation:
• "Fell up from": Grammatically incorrect as "up" does not fit the context of falling.
• "Fell off from": Refers to something dropping from the surface of an object, not from inside it.
• "Fallen down of": Incorrect formation; "fallen down" is used for general movement downward, and "of" is misplaced.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The young artist announced, "I can paint a masterpiece if I am given enough time." .

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the indirect speech, where the young artist reported her ability to paint a masterpiece under a certain condition.
• To convert it into the direct speech, the reporting verb remains in the past tense ("announced"), but the exact words of the speaker need to be quoted.
• When reporting in the direct voice, the speaker's original words are retained, and the pronouns are adjusted accordingly.
• The original sentence in direct speech would be: "I can paint a masterpiece if I am given enough time."

Correct sentence: The young artist announced, "I can paint a masterpiece if I am given enough time.".

Additional Information

• Difference between direct and indirect speech:
• Direct Speech: The exact words of the speaker are quoted within quotation marks. Example: She said, "I am happy."
• Indirect Speech: The speaker's words are paraphrased without quotation marks. Example: She said that she was happy.
• Tense Changes in Reported Speech:
• If the reporting verb is in the past tense, the tenses of the direct speech are usually shifted back in indirect speech.
• For example, "I can" becomes "she could" in indirect speech.
• However, for this question, the sentence is already provided in indirect speech, and we are converting it back to direct speech.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. His tasks are performed with meticulous care by the diligent worker every single day.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the active voice, where the subject “the diligent worker” performs the action (performs his tasks).
• To convert this to the passive voice, the object of the active sentence “his tasks” becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The tense of the original sentence is present simple, so the passive form must use “are performed.”
• The correct structure is: Object + is/are + past participle + by + subject.

Correct sentence: His tasks are performed with meticulous care by the diligent worker every single day.

Additional Information

• Present Simple Passive Structure: Object + is/are + past participle.
• Example: The book is read by many people.
• Usage: Used to emphasize the action or the object of the action rather than the doer.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Interrogative Transformation: To convert an assertive sentence into an interrogative one, we typically move the auxiliary verb to the beginning of the sentence. In the phrase "plants... have become," the auxiliary verb is "have".
• Correct Structure: Option 4 correctly places "Have" at the start, followed by the subject ("plants that demand minimal vigilance") and the past participle ("become"), ending with a question mark.
• Analysis of Incorrect Options:
• Option 1: Simply adds a question mark to a negative statement without correct inversion.
• Option 2: Incorrectly uses "Is" with a plural subject and the auxiliary "have."
• Option 3: While it uses "Why," it does not invert the subject and auxiliary verb, which is necessary for a standard interrogative structure.

 

Additional Information

• Axiomatic: In this context, it means something that is self-evident or unquestionable; it has become a "given" for urban dwellers.
• Verdant Comfort: This refers to the lush, green aesthetic provided by indoor plants, which the passage suggests mitigates the "anxieties concomitant with horticulture".
• Subject-Verb Agreement: Note that "plants" is a plural subject, hence the use of the plural auxiliary verb "have".

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Passive Voice Transformation: To convert a sentence with a modal verb (like "can") into passive voice, the structure used is: Object + Modal Verb + be + Past Participle of the main verb + by + Subject.
• Tense Consistency: The original sentence uses the modal "can," which indicates capability in the present. Option 1 maintains this tense by using "can be endured".
• Analysis of Incorrect Options:
• Option 2: Changes the modal "can" to the simple present "are," losing the sense of "capability."
• Option 3: Changes the tense to the future ("will be").
• Option 4: Changes the tense to the past ("were").

 

Additional Information

• Indomitable: Used to describe the snake plant, this word means impossible to subdue or defeat, highlighting its extreme resilience.
• Erratic: Refers to watering schedules that are not even or regular in pattern; unpredictable.
• Snake Plant (Sansevieria): Noted for its structural elegance, it is one of the "axiomatic" plants for urban dwellers with a "paucity of time".

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Contextual Analysis: In the sentence, the ZZ plant is described as flourishing in neglect and tolerating droughts without "capitulating to decay." This implies the plant does not give in or yield to the process of rotting despite harsh conditions.
• Definition: Capitulate means to cease to resist an opponent or an unwelcome demand; to surrender. In a biological or horticultural context, it refers to a plant "giving up" its life functions to environmental stress.
• Vocabulary Substitute: Replacing the word in the sentence—"without surrendering to decay"—maintains the original meaning and logical flow of the passage.

 

Additional Information

• Incorrect Options: Options 2 (Strengthening), 3 (Multiplying), and 4 (Regenerating) all imply growth or positive development, which contradicts the negative context of "decay."
• Luminosity: This refers to the brightness or light conditions. The ZZ plant is noted for its ability to survive in "low luminosity" (dim light).
• Superfluous: In the third paragraph, the passage mentions that the aloe Vera's water-storing leaves make frequent irrigation superfluous, meaning unnecessary or more than enough.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Literal Meaning: The word "verdant" specifically refers to green grass, trees, or other flourishing vegetation. "Comfort" refers to a state of physical ease and freedom from pain or constraint.
• Contextual Analysis: In the passage, urban dwellers seek "verdant comfort within their domiciles" by cultivating plants like the snake plant and pothos. Therefore, the phrase refers to the physical or aesthetic ease provided by the presence of green plants.
• Analysis of Incorrect Options:
• Option 1: While greenery can provide emotional rest, the phrase "verdant comfort" in this context refers more broadly to the pleasant environment created by the plants themselves within the home.
• Option 2: This is an incorrect literal interpretation of "comfort" as furniture.
• Option 4: The passage specifically discusses living flora, which is the opposite of artificial decoration.

 

Additional Information

• Paucity of time: A sophisticated way of saying "lack of time," which explains why urban dwellers choose resilient plants.
• Domiciles: A formal term for homes or dwelling places.
• Axiomatic: The passage suggests that choosing low-maintenance plants has become self-evident or a common-sense decision for busy people.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Functional and Ornamental Value: The passage explicitly identifies Aloe vera as an exemplar that offers more than just aesthetic appeal. While it is used for "ornamental utility," it also "confers medicinal benefits."
• Dermal Amelioration: The text specifies that the gel found within the succulent leaves of the Aloe vera is "esteemed for dermal amelioration," which refers to the improvement or healing of the skin.
• Analysis of Other Plants:
• Snake plant: Praised for "structural elegance" and being "indomitable."
• Pothos: Characterized by "luxuriant, trailing foliage."
• ZZ plant: Described as appearing "sculpted from emerald wax" and flourishing in neglect.

 

Additional Information

• Amelioration: A formal term meaning the act of making something better or improving it. In this context, it refers to skin care or healing.
• Superfluous: The passage notes that the Aloe vera’s ability to store moisture makes frequent irrigation "superfluous," meaning unnecessary or redundant.
• Ancillary: The author concludes that in growing these plants, human oversight is "ancillary" (secondary), as the plants' own mechanisms ensure their survival.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. P, R, Q, S .

Key Points

• The sentences describe the preparation and efforts of an individual leading up to race day, culminating in their success at the finish line.
• The most logical sequence is as follows:
• P: The individual starts by fuelling their body with the right diet and water, which is the foundation for their training.
• R: They gradually increase endurance during the week by running shorter distances.
• Q: On weekends, they push their body further with lengthy runs.
• S: Finally, their hard work pays off, and they feel elated upon completing the race on race day.

Correct sentence sequence: P, R, Q, S.

Additional Information

• This type of question requires careful analysis of the logical flow and progression of events.
• The sentences should be arranged in such a way that they form a coherent and meaningful paragraph, starting from preparation and leading to the outcome.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. P, S, Q, R.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with sentence P, which introduces the idea of converting the park into a community center with green areas and recreational facilities. This sets the context for the rest of the passage.
• Sentence S logically follows as it describes the effort made by volunteers and local businesses to contribute resources for the transformation of the park.
• Sentence Q explains the significance of this project by mentioning how it united the community and provided a friendly environment.
• Finally, sentence R concludes the paragraph by describing the outcome — the park becoming a favorite destination for families, fitness enthusiasts, and nature lovers.

Correct paragraph: The public park in the city was converted into a lively community centre with green areas and recreational facilities. Volunteers and local businesses joined hands to donate resources such as plants, benches, and tools. It was a much-awaited project that united the community and had a friendly environment. The park soon became a favourite destination for families, fitness buffs, and nature enthusiasts.

Additional Information

• Rearrangement tips: Look for sentences that establish the context (introduction), provide supporting details, and conclude the passage. This logical sequence ensures the paragraph is meaningful and coherent.
• Pay attention to transitional words and logical connections between sentences to determine the correct order.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Room.

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the word "parlour" refers to a small room in a house used for sitting or socializing.
• The context describes a warm and cozy environment in a small "parlour" where the blinds are drawn, and the fire is burning.
• Among the options provided, "Room" is the closest in meaning to "parlour."

Correct usage: The night was cold and wet, but in the small room the blinds were drawn, and the fire burned brightly.

Additional Information

• Parlour: Historically, a parlour was a formal sitting room in a house, used for receiving guests or for private family time.
• Other Options:
• 1. Tunnel: A passageway, typically underground.
• 2. Balcony: A platform projecting from the wall of a building, often outside an upper floor.
• 4. Garden: A plot of land used for growing plants, flowers, or vegetables.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. signet, cygnet .

Key Points

• The sentence requires a pair of homonyms that fit appropriately into the context of the blanks.
• The first blank refers to a type of ring. The word "signet" (a type of ring) fits perfectly here.
• The second blank refers to a creature paddling over in the pond. The word "cygnet" (a young swan) is ideal here.
• Therefore, the pair "signet" and "cygnet" best completes the sentence.

Correct sentence: As his signet ring slipped from his finger and sank into the pond, a curious cygnet paddled over and, mistaking it for food, swallowed it whole.

Additional Information

• Homonyms are words that sound the same or are spelled the same but have different meanings.
• In this question, the pair "signet" (a type of ring) and "cygnet" (a young swan) are homonyms that fit the context.
• Other options do not match the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. Polytheist .

Key Points

• The term "Polytheist" refers to someone who believes in more than one God.
• "Monotheist" (Option 1) refers to someone who believes in only one God.
• "Atheist" (Option 2) refers to someone who does not believe in God or gods.
• "Agnostic" (Option 4) refers to someone who believes that the existence of God or gods is unknown or unknowable.

Correct sentence: The term for someone who believes in more than one God is Polytheist.

Additional Information

• Polytheism: The belief in or worship of multiple deities typically assembled into a pantheon of gods and goddesses.
• Examples of polytheistic religions include Hinduism, Ancient Greek religion, and Norse mythology.

Given equation: 6 ? 15 ! 5 & 8 = ?

BODMAS Table:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 6 ÷ 15 × 5 − 8 = ?

⇒ 0.4 × 5 − 8 = ?

⇒ 0.4 × 5 − 8 = ?

⇒ 2 − 8 = ?

⇒ -6 = ?

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Total number of Workers = 42

Position of Vikram from the left = 14^th

Position of Rohit from the right = 11^th

Rohit’s position from left = 42 - 11 +1 = 43 - 11 = 32

Total number of workers between them = 32 − 14 − 1 = 32 - 15 = 17

So, workers are standing between Vikram and Rohit.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Total number of bottles = 15

Bottle X is 3^rd from the start

Bottle Y is 6^th from the end

So, Y’s position from start =15 - 6 + 1= 16 - 6 = 10

Number of bottles between X and Y = 10 - 3 - 1 = 10 - 4 = 6

Thus, there are 6 bottles between X and Y.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: a # b ∼ c = a - (b ÷ c)

 

881 # 88 ~ 11 = 873

 

= 881 − (88 ÷ 11)

 

= 881 - 8

 

= 873

 

606 # 323 ~ 19 = 589

 

= 606 - (323 ÷ 19)

 

= 606 - 17

 

= 589

 

Similarly,

 

821 # 306 ~ 17?

 

= 821 - (306 ÷ 17)

 

= 821 - 18

 

= 803

 

So, 803 will come in the place of ?.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

 

The logic followed here is:

Thus, T will come next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

 

Logic: n × (n+2) : (n+1) × (n+3); n = 2, 5, 7, 3

 

1. 14 : 24 → 2 × 4 ≠ 14 : 3 × 5 ≠ 24
2. 35 : 48 → 5 × 7 : 6 × 8
3. 63 : 80 → 7 × 9 : 8 × 10
4. 15 : 24 → 3 × 5 : 4 × 6

Thus, "14 : 24" is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

1. 2 : 3 → (Even : Odd) 
2. 6 : 6 → (Even : Even) 
3. 5 : 6 → (Odd : Even)
4. 4 : 3 → (Even : Odd)

All options except 6 : 6 follows (Even : Odd) pattern.

Thus, 6 : 6 is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Words are synonyms of each other.

Sleepy: Drowsy → Sleepy means Drowsy (Both have similar meanings.)

Similarly,

Anger: ? → Anger is synonym of Rage.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Similarly,

So, 723 will come in the place of ?.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (Difference between digits in the first number)³ = Second number

52 : 27 → (5 - 2)³ = 3³ = 27

Similarly,

62 : ? → (6 - 2)3 = 43 = 64

So, 64 will come in the place of ?.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

 

Given: A10, E8, I6, M4, ?

The logic followed here is:

Thus, Q2 will replace the question mark (?) in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

 

 

The logic followed here is:

Thus, QSU comes next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Reference: Tokyo; December 31^st, 23:59 JST.

So, option 1 is EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Reference: Dublin_17 Mar_2025, 08:00 hrs.

So, option 1 is EXACT AND COMPLETE REPLICATION of the Reference Statement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The triangles are:

So, there are '6' triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The triangles are:

So, there are '10' triangles in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: Weight of 5 pens W, X, Y, Z and A is compared. Weight of no two pens is same.

1. Weight of A is less than Z but more than X.

Z > A > X

2. Weight of Y is more than W.

Y > W

3. Weight of Y is second lowest.

_ > _ > _ > Y  > _

Merging all the 3 statements together, we get:

Z > A > X > Y > W

Clearly, weight of 0 pens is more than Z.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 5 friends P, B, C, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. B is sitting third to the left of H.

2. H is sitting to the immediate right of C.

3. P is not an immediate neighbour of C.

So, P sits between H and B.

Now, G occupies the only vacant position.

Thus, G is to the immediate left of C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 8 girls P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a row facing south (not necessarily in the same order).

1. P is fifth to the right of U. 2. P is to the immediate right of T.

 

3. S is fifth to the left of T.

The above statement is violated in Case I, so it is eliminated.

4. V is an immediate neighbour of P.

The above statement is violated in Case III, so it is eliminated.

 

5. W is third to the right of S.

6. Only two girls sit between Q and V.

R, the only person left will occupy the vacant position.

Thus, V and S are the pair of girls who sits at the extreme ends of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

P walks 30 km towards north.

He turns right and walks 60 km.

He again turns right and walks 30 km.

P is 60 km to the East now from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

P walks 30 km towards north and reaches point A.

He turns right and walks 15 km to reach point B.

He finally turns right and walks 20 km to reach point C.

P is facing South.

Distance between point A from point C = $√(15^2 + 20^2 )$ km = $√(225 + 400)$ km = $√625$ km = 25 km

Thus, point C is 25 km from point A, and P is facing South.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

1. Python → Python is a Programming language
2. Java → Java is a Programming language
3. C++ → C++ is a Programming language
4. Linux → Linux is a Operating system

So, all options except Linux are programming languages, while Linux is an operating system.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The image that completes the pattern is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

BODMAS Table:

Decoding the given information:

Given equation: 17 A 9 D 11 C 4 B 2 = ?

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 17 + 9 − 11 × 4 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 17 + 9 − 11 × 2 = ?

⇒ 17 + 9 − 22 = ?

⇒ 26 − 22 = ?

⇒ 4 = ?

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table:

Given equation: 

I. 7 x 9 + 6 - 5 ÷ 1 = 46

After interchanging the numbers 6 and 9 we get;

⇒ 7 × 6 + 9 − 5 ÷ 1 = 46

⇒ 7 × 6 + 9 − 5 = 46

⇒ 42 + 9 − 5 = 46

⇒ 51 − 5 = 46

⇒ 46 = 46

⇒ LHS = RHS

II. 3 x 9 + 6 - 8 ÷ 2 = 23

After interchanging the numbers 6 and 9 we get;

⇒ 3 × 6 + 9 − 8 ÷ 2 = 23

⇒ 3 × 6 + 9 − 4 = 23

⇒ 18 + 9 − 4 = 23

⇒ 27 − 4 = 23

⇒ 23 = 23

⇒ LHS = RHS

So, by interchanging the given two numbers, both I and II equation will be correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Number = 46656

Formula Used:

Square root of a number = √(Number)

Calculation:

⇒ √46656

⇒ 216

∴ The correct answer is 216.

Shortcut Trick

Identify √2601: Since 50² = 2500, the next perfect square ending in 1 is 51² = 2601.

The equation becomes √? + 14 = 51.

Subtract 14 from 51 to get √? = 37.

The value of ? is the square of 37 (37 × 37 = 1369).

∴ The correct answer is 1369.

Alternate Method

Given: √? + 14 = √2601

Step 1: Find the square root of 2601.

⇒ √2601 = √(51 × 51)

⇒ √2601 = 51

Step 2: Substitute this value into the original equation.

⇒ √? + 14 = 51

Step 3: Isolate the square root term.

⇒ √? = 51 − 14

⇒ √? = 37

Step 4: Square both sides to find the missing value.

⇒ (?) = 37²

⇒ ? = 37 × 37

⇒ ? = 1369

∴ The correct answer is 1369.

Additional Information

Perfect Square Estimation

To find the square root of a 4-digit number like 2601, check the nearest base squares (50² = 2500) and the unit digit (1 corresponds to 1 or 9).

Squaring Numbers Near 40

Use the identity (a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b². For 37², use (40 − 3)² = 1600 − 240 + 9 = 1369.

BODMAS / PEMDAS Rule

In simplification, always solve roots and exponents before performing addition or subtraction across the equality sign.

Unit Digit of Squares

A number ending in 7 (like 37) will always have a square ending in 9 (7 × 7 = 49).

Given:

(112 ÷ √196) × (√576 ÷ 12) × (√256 ÷ 8)

Formula Used:

√a where a is perfect square = integer

Calculation:

⇒ √196 = 14

⇒ √576 = 24

⇒ √256 = 16

⇒ (112 ÷ 14) × (24 ÷ 12) × (16 ÷ 8)

⇒ 8 × 2 × 2

⇒ 32

∴ The correct answer is 32.

Given:

Average = 24

Number of terms = 5

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of observations) ÷ (Number of observations)

Sum of n consecutive even numbers = n × Middle term

Calculation:

⇒ Sum = 24 × 5

⇒ Sum = 120

⇒ Let first even number = a

⇒ Numbers are a, a + 2, a + 4, a + 6, a + 8

⇒ a + (a + 2) + (a + 4) + (a + 6) + (a + 8) = 120

⇒ 5a + 20 = 120

⇒ 5a = 120 − 20

⇒ 5a = 100

⇒ a = 100 ÷ 5

⇒ a = 20

⇒ Largest number = 20 + 8

⇒ Largest number = 28

∴ The correct answer is 28.

Given:

Average = 50

Number of innings = 4

Two scores = 48 and 52

Difference between highest and lowest = 30

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of observations) ÷ (Number of observations)

Difference = Highest − Lowest

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum = 50 × 4

⇒ Total sum = 200

⇒ Let lowest score = x

⇒ Highest score = x + 30

⇒ x + (x + 30) + 48 + 52 = 200

⇒ 2x + 130 = 200

⇒ 2x = 200 − 130

⇒ 2x = 70

⇒ x = 70 ÷ 2

⇒ x = 35

⇒ Highest score = 35 + 30

⇒ Highest score = 65

∴ The correct answer is 65.

Given:

Initial value = 400

Final value = 500

Formula Used:

Percentage Increase = [(Final value − Initial value) ÷ Initial value] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage Increase = [(500 − 400) ÷ 400] × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = [100 ÷ 400] × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 0.25 × 100

⇒ Percentage Increase = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Given:

Initial increase = 40%

Subsequent decrease = 30%

Formula Used:

Net percentage change = (Increase% + Decrease% + (Increase% × Decrease%) ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Net percentage change = (40 - 30 + (40 × -30) ÷ 100)

⇒ Net percentage change = (40 - 30 - 1200 ÷ 100)

⇒ Net percentage change = (40 - 30 - 12)

⇒ Net percentage change = -2%

∴ The correct answer is 2% decrease.

Given:

Marked Price = Rs. 15,000

Discount = 10%

Formula Used:

Discount Amount = (Marked Price × Discount%) ÷ 100

Selling Price = Marked Price - Discount Amount

Calculation:

⇒ Discount Amount = (15,000 × 10) ÷ 100

⇒ Discount Amount = 1,500

⇒ Selling Price = 15,000 - 1,500

⇒ Selling Price = Rs. 13,500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 13,500.

Given:

Marked price of the watch = Rs. 1,200

Discount = 25%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 - Discount ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Selling Price = 1,200 × (1 - 25 ÷ 100)

⇒ Selling Price = 1,200 × (1 - 0.25)

⇒ Selling Price = 1,200 × 0.75

⇒ Selling Price = Rs. 900

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 900.

Given:

Marked Price = Rs. 8000

Discount = 15%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 - Discount/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Selling Price = 8000 × (1 - 15/100)

⇒ Selling Price = 8000 × (1 - 0.15)

⇒ Selling Price = 8000 × 0.85

⇒ Selling Price = Rs. 6800

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 6800.

Given:

Time taken by A = 12 days

Time taken by B = 8 days

Formula Used:

Work = Time × Efficiency

Efficiency = Total work ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 12 and 8 = 24

⇒ Total work = 24 units

⇒ Efficiency of A = 24 ÷ 12

⇒ Efficiency of A = 2 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of B = 24 ÷ 8

⇒ Efficiency of B = 3 units/day

⇒ Combined efficiency = 2 + 3

⇒ Combined efficiency = 5 units/day

⇒ Time taken together = 24 ÷ 5

⇒ Time taken together = 4.8 days

∴ The correct answer is 4.8 days.

Given:

Time taken by A and B together = 10 days

Time taken by B alone = 15 days

Formula Used:

Work = Time × Efficiency

Efficiency = Total work ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 10 and 15 = 30

⇒ Total work = 30 units

⇒ Efficiency of A and B together = 30 ÷ 10

⇒ Efficiency of A and B together = 3 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of B = 30 ÷ 15

⇒ Efficiency of B = 2 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of A = 3 − 2

⇒ Efficiency of A = 1 unit/day

⇒ Time taken by A alone = 30 ÷ 1

⇒ Time taken by A alone = 30 days

∴ The correct answer is 30 days.

Given:

Each internal angle = 150°

Formula Used:

Sum of internal angles of a polygon = (n - 2) × 180

Each internal angle = Sum of internal angles ÷ n

Calculation:

⇒ 150 = [(n - 2) × 180] ÷ n

⇒ 150 × n = (n - 2) × 180

⇒ 150n = 180n - 360

⇒ 180n - 150n = 360

⇒ 30n = 360

⇒ n = 360 ÷ 30

⇒ n = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Given:

Height of stick = 1.5 m

Shadow of stick = 2 m

Shadow of tree = 6 m

Formula Used:

Height ÷ Shadow = Constant

Height₁ ÷ Shadow₁ = Height₂ ÷ Shadow₂

Calculation:

⇒ 1.5 ÷ 2 = h ÷ 6

⇒ 1.5 × 6 = 2 × h

⇒ 9 = 2h

⇒ h = 9 ÷ 2

⇒ h = 4.5 m

∴ The correct answer is 4.5 m.

Given:

Perpendicular = 7 units

Hypotenuse = 25 units

Angle lies in 1^st quadrant

Formula Used:

tan θ = Perpendicular ÷ Base

Base² + Perpendicular² = Hypotenuse²

Calculation:

⇒ Base² + 7² = 25²

⇒ Base² + 49 = 625

⇒ Base² = 625 − 49

⇒ Base² = 576

⇒ Base = √576

⇒ Base = 24

⇒ tan θ = 7 ÷ 24

∴ The correct answer is 7 ÷ 24.

Shortcut Trick

The average of the first n odd numbers is always equal to n.

In this question, we need the average of the first 10 odd numbers.

⇒ n = 10

⇒ Average = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Alternate Method

Given: First 10 odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, and 19.

Formula: Average = Sum of all terms ÷ Total number of terms

⇒ Sum of first 10 odd numbers = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19

⇒ This is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) with a = 1, l = 19, and n = 10.

⇒ Sum = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

⇒ Sum = (10 ÷ 2) × (1 + 19) = 5 × 20 = 100

⇒ Average = Sum ÷ n = 100 ÷ 10 = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Additional Information

Sum of First n Odd Numbers

The sum of the first n consecutive odd numbers starting from 1 is given by n².

Average of First n Even Numbers

The average of the first n even numbers (2, 4, 6, ...) is always (n + 1).

Average of First n Natural Numbers

The average of the first n natural numbers (1, 2, 3, ... n) is (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Given:

Amount in 2 years = 1260

Amount in 5 years = 1350

Time difference = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time ÷ 100

Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

Calculation:

⇒ Interest for 3 years = 1350 − 1260

⇒ Interest for 3 years = 90

⇒ Interest for 1 year = 90 ÷ 3

⇒ Interest for 1 year = 30

⇒ Interest for 2 years = 30 × 2

⇒ Interest for 2 years = 60

⇒ Principal = 1260 − 60

⇒ Principal = 1200

∴ The correct answer is 1200.

Given:

$\frac{81^{\frac{3}{4}} \times \left(\frac{1}{27}\right)^{-\frac{2}{3}}}{(\sqrt{32}+\sqrt{8})^{2}-(\sqrt{32}-\sqrt{8})^{2}}$

Formula Used:

$a^{m} = (a^{n})^{\frac{m}{n}}$

$(a+b)^{2}-(a-b)^{2}=4ab$

Calculation:

⇒ $81^{\frac{3}{4}} = (3^{4})^{\frac{3}{4}} = 3^{3} = 27$

⇒ $\left(\frac{1}{27}\right)^{-\frac{2}{3}} = 27^{\frac{2}{3}}$

⇒ $= (3^{3})^{\frac{2}{3}} = 3^{2} = 9$

⇒ $27 \times 9 = 243$

⇒ $(\sqrt{32}+\sqrt{8})^{2}-(\sqrt{32}-\sqrt{8})^{2} = 4\sqrt{32}\sqrt{8}$

⇒ $= 4\sqrt{256}$

⇒ $= 4 \times 16$

⇒ $= 64$

⇒ $= \frac{243}{64}$

∴ The correct answer is $\frac{243}{64}$.

Given:

Radius = 8 units

PT = 15 units

Formula Used:

Tangent–Secant Theorem: (PT)² = PB × PA

PA − PB = 2 × Radius

Calculation:

⇒ PA − PB = 2 × 8

⇒ PA − PB = 16

⇒ Let PB = x

⇒ PA = x + 16

⇒ (15)² = x × (x + 16)

⇒ 225 = x² + 16x

⇒ x² + 16x − 225 = 0

⇒ x² + 25x − 9x − 225 = 0

⇒ x(x + 25) − 9(x + 25) = 0

⇒ (x − 9)(x + 25) = 0

⇒ x = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9 units.

Given:

y₁ = 2

y₂ = 2

y₃ = 8

Formula Used:

y-coordinate of centroid = (y₁ + y₂ + y₃) ÷ 3

Calculation:

⇒ y = (2 + 2 + 8) ÷ 3

⇒ y = 12 ÷ 3

⇒ y = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Given:

O is the circumcenter of triangle ABC

Formula Used:

Circumcenter is equidistant from all three vertices

Calculation:

⇒ OA = OB

⇒ OB = OC

⇒ OA = OB = OC

⇒ Distance from O to vertex B = Distance from O to vertex C

∴ The correct answer is Distance from O to vertex B is equal to distance from O to vertex C.

Given:

AB = 8 cm

AC = 12 cm

BC = 15 cm

Formula Used:

Angle Bisector Theorem: BD ÷ DC = AB ÷ AC

BD + DC = BC

Calculation:

⇒ BD ÷ DC = 8 ÷ 12

⇒ BD ÷ DC = 2 ÷ 3

⇒ Let BD = 2x

⇒ Let DC = 3x

⇒ 2x + 3x = 15

⇒ 5x = 15

⇒ x = 15 ÷ 5

⇒ x = 3

⇒ BD = 2 × 3

⇒ BD = 6 cm

∴ The correct answer is 6 cm.

Given:

Two intersecting circles

Radii are different

Formula Used:

If two circles intersect, number of common tangents = 2

Calculation:

⇒ Intersecting circles have no internal common tangents

⇒ Only external common tangents are possible

⇒ Number of external common tangents = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Given:

Two circles have one point of intersection

Both circles have equal radius

Formula Used:

If two circles touch externally, number of common tangents = 3

External common tangents = 2

Calculation:

⇒ One point of intersection means circles touch externally

⇒ Total common tangents = 3

⇒ External tangents = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Given:

Radius₁ = 10 cm

Radius₂ = 4 cm

Length of common external tangent = 8 cm

Formula Used:

(Length of external tangent)² = (Distance between centers)² − (Difference of radii)²

Calculation:

⇒ 8² = d² − (10 − 4)²

⇒ 64 = d² − 6²

⇒ 64 = d² − 36

⇒ d² = 64 + 36

⇒ d² = 100

⇒ d = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10 cm.

The correct answer is Akbar’s ancestors.

Key Points

• The first volume of the Akbar Nama, written by Abu'l-Fazl, focuses on the history and genealogy of Akbar’s ancestors, including the lineage of the Mughal emperors.
• It provides detailed accounts of the ancestral history, including the reigns of Akbar’s predecessors like Babur and Humayun.
• This volume covers the founding of the Mughal Empire in India, its expansion under Babur, and the consolidation efforts by Humayun.
• It serves as an introductory text that contextualizes Akbar’s reign by delving into the Mughal dynasty’s lineage and its historical development.
• Abu'l-Fazl structured the Akbar Nama in three volumes: the first focusing on Akbar’s ancestors, the second on Akbar’s reign, and the third on administrative details.

Additional Information

• Akbar Nama:
• The Akbar Nama, authored by Abu'l-Fazl, is a comprehensive biographical account of Akbar’s life and governance.
• It was commissioned by Akbar himself and written in Persian, the official language of the Mughal court.
• The book is divided into three volumes:
• The first volume covers the history of Akbar’s ancestors and the foundation of the Mughal Empire.
• The second volume provides a detailed chronicle of events during Akbar’s reign.
• The third volume, known as Ain-i-Akbari, focuses on Akbar’s administrative system.
• The Akbar Nama is considered one of the most important historical records of the Mughal period.
• Akbar’s Ancestors:
• Akbar’s ancestry traces back to Genghis Khan and Timur, making him a descendant of two significant Central Asian rulers.
• His grandfather, Babur, founded the Mughal Empire after the victory at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
• Humayun, Akbar’s father, faced challenges maintaining the empire but laid the foundation for Akbar’s future success.
• Abu'l-Fazl:
• Abu'l-Fazl was a prominent court historian and one of Akbar’s Nine Gems (Navaratnas).
• He played a crucial role in documenting the history and governance of Akbar’s reign.
• His works, including the Akbar Nama and Ain-i-Akbari, are considered masterpieces of Mughal historiography.
• Other Volumes of Akbar Nama:
• The second volume details the events of Akbar’s reign, including his military campaigns, alliances, and reforms.
• The third volume, Ain-i-Akbari, is an administrative document that provides insights into Akbar’s governance, revenue systems, and cultural policies.

Important Points

• Akbar’s Genealogy: Akbar’s family history is significant in understanding the Mughal Empire’s roots and the blend of Central Asian and Indian cultures.
• Historical Significance: The first volume of Akbar Nama provides a foundation for understanding the subsequent achievements of Akbar.
• Mughal Historiography: Works like Akbar Nama are essential for understanding the socio-political and cultural context of the Mughal era.

The correct answer is Akbar, 1586.

Key Points

• Akbar, the third Mughal emperor, launched a campaign against Kashmir in the year 1586 to expand the Mughal Empire and secure control over the northern frontiers.
• The campaign was a part of Akbar's broader strategy of territorial expansion, which aimed to consolidate the Mughal Empire in India.
• Before Akbar's campaign, Kashmir was ruled by independent local rulers. By 1586, after significant resistance, Akbar annexed Kashmir into the Mughal Empire.
• Akbar's governance style ensured that Kashmir became a prosperous region, and it was integrated into the empire's administration under the Mansabdari system.
• This campaign was significant not only for territorial consolidation but also for ensuring the political and economic stability of the northern regions of the empire.

Additional Information

• Babur:
• Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire, ruling between 1526-1530. He was known for his victories, such as the First Battle of Panipat (1526), but there is no historical record of him campaigning against Kashmir.
• Humayun:
• Humayun, Akbar's father, ruled from 1530-1556 (with interruptions). His reign was marked by struggles against Sher Shah Suri, and he did not launch any campaigns against Kashmir.
• Akbar:
• Akbar's reign (1556-1605) was notable for his military conquests, administrative reforms, and promotion of cultural integration.
• In 1586, Akbar annexed Kashmir, recognizing its strategic and economic importance. This region was later known for its contribution to art, culture, and trade in the Mughal Empire.
• Jahangir:
• Jahangir, Akbar's successor, ruled from 1605-1627. While he is remembered for his love of Kashmir and frequent visits there, he did not lead a campaign to conquer it, as it was already a part of the empire.

Important Points

• Kashmir under Mughals: After Akbar's annexation, Kashmir became a vital part of the Mughal Empire, known for its natural beauty and contribution to the empire's economy.
• Akbar's Mansabdari System: This administrative reform allowed efficient governance of vast territories, including newly annexed regions like Kashmir.
• Integration Policies: Akbar's policies focused on integrating diverse regions under one central authority, ensuring political stability and cultural harmony.

The correct answer is Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.

Key Points

• The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was formed in 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953).
• The Committee recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India to promote decentralization and democratic governance at the grassroots level.
• The three-tier structure proposed by the Committee consisted of:
• Gram Panchayat at the village level.
• Panchayat Samiti at the block level.
• Zila Parishad at the district level.
• The Committee advocated for the Panchayati Raj institutions to serve as instruments of rural development and involve local people in decision-making.
• The recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee were implemented in 1959, with Rajasthan being the first state to launch the Panchayati Raj system, followed by Andhra Pradesh.
• The Committee emphasized the need for democratic decentralization to achieve effective governance and development at the grassroots level.

Additional Information

• Features of the Panchayati Raj System:
• The system is based on the principle of decentralization of power, ensuring that decisions are made at the lowest possible level.
• The three-tier structure consists of elected representatives at each level to ensure participatory governance.
• The primary functions of Panchayati Raj institutions include planning and implementing development programmes, resolving local disputes, and promoting social justice.
• The Panchayati Raj system is governed by the provisions of the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which gave it constitutional status.
• Key provisions of the 73^rd Amendment include mandatory elections, reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women, and the establishment of a State Election Commission.
• Other Committees Related to Panchayati Raj:
• Ashok Mehta Committee (1977): Recommended a two-tier system and suggested measures to strengthen Panchayati Raj institutions.
• GVK Rao Committee (1985): Highlighted the need for decentralized planning and development through Panchayati Raj institutions.
• LM Singhvi Committee (1986): Recommended constitutional recognition for Panchayati Raj institutions, which was later implemented through the 73^rd Amendment.
• Important Points:
• The 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, is a landmark reform in Indian governance that institutionalized the Panchayati Raj system.
• Panchayati Raj institutions play a crucial role in promoting rural development, ensuring social justice, and empowering local communities.
• The system has been instrumental in implementing various government schemes like MGNREGA and Swachh Bharat Abhiyan at the grassroots level.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The Justice Hema Committee was constituted in 2017 by the Government of Kerala to address gender-based issues in the Malayalam film industry.
• The committee aimed to study and suggest measures to tackle concerns related to sexual harassment, exploitation, and working conditions of women in the industry.
• The report, prepared by Justice Hema, consisted of recommendations for forming a safer and more inclusive work environment for women in the Malayalam cinema industry.
• Although the committee was formed in 2017, the findings and recommendations were finalized and released in 2024, marking a significant milestone for gender equality in the film industry.
• Reports like this hold importance in addressing systemic issues and providing a framework for policy implementation and legal reform. Hence, Option 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• Justice Hema Committee:
• The committee was headed by Justice Hema, a retired judge, and included other prominent members from Kerala.
• It was formed by the Kerala Government following allegations of harassment raised by women working in the Malayalam film industry.
• The committee focused on examining prevalent issues such as gender discrimination, harassment, and wage disparity.
• The recommendations emphasized the need for strict legal action, support mechanisms, and awareness campaigns to ensure dignity and safety for women.
• Importance of Gender Equality in Cinema:
• Film industries worldwide have faced criticism for their lack of equitable representation and treatment of women.
• Initiatives such as the Justice Hema Committee play a crucial role in addressing these disparities and creating a safer workspace.
• Such efforts align with global movements like #MeToo, which have highlighted workplace harassment in the entertainment sector.
• Government Interventions:
• Governments often establish committees or task forces to address systemic issues in specific industries.
• Reports from these committees serve as a basis for policy formulation and legal amendments.
• For instance, recommendations from the Justice Hema Committee could lead to new laws or guidelines governing the Malayalam film industry.
• Other Committees for Women’s Welfare:
• Several committees have been established in India to address women's issues in various sectors, such as the National Commission for Women (NCW).
• The NCW focuses on legal reforms, awareness campaigns, and policy reviews to safeguard women's rights.
• State-specific initiatives, such as the Justice Hema Committee, supplement these efforts by addressing region-specific challenges.

Important Points

• Release Year of the Report: Although the committee was formed in 2017, the report was released in 2024, indicating the time taken for extensive research and consultation.
• Scope of the Report: The recommendations were focused specifically on the Malayalam film industry but could be extended to other regional industries facing similar challenges.
• Impact of the Report: The findings are expected to influence legislative reforms and create better working conditions for women, fostering gender equality in the entertainment sector.

The correct answer is 10 years.

Key Points

• The Smart Cities Mission was launched on 25 June 2015 by the Government of India under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• It is an urban renewal and retrofitting program aimed at developing 100 smart cities across the country to make them citizen-friendly and sustainable.
• By June 2025, the mission will have completed a duration of 10 years.
• The mission's objectives include improving quality of life, providing a clean and sustainable environment, and applying smart solutions to urban challenges.
• As part of the mission, cities are selected through a competitive process, and their plans are implemented in phases.

Additional Information

• Components of the Smart Cities Mission:
• The mission primarily focuses on two aspects: Area-based development (ABD) and Pan-city initiatives.
• ABD involves retrofitting and redevelopment in a specific area of the city, whereas Pan-city initiatives aim to implement smart solutions across the city.
• Examples include smart water management systems, intelligent traffic management, and waste management solutions.
• Funding:
• The Central Government provides financial support of ₹48,000 crore over five years, which amounts to an average of ₹100 crore per city per year.
• The State Governments and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) are also expected to match the funding.
• Progress of the Mission:
• As of October 2023, substantial progress has been made, with many cities implementing projects related to urban mobility, energy efficiency, and waste management.
• Some prominent examples include the development of smart roads in Pune and the implementation of smart water management in Bhubaneswar.
• Expected Outcomes:
• The mission aims to promote sustainable and inclusive urban development.
• It focuses on fostering innovation, creating employment opportunities, and enhancing the quality of urban life.

Important Points

• Selection Process:
• The cities were selected based on a Smart City Challenge, where they submitted their proposals for development.
• This competitive approach ensured that cities with the most feasible and impactful plans were selected.
• Significant Achievements:
• Bhubaneswar, the first city selected under the mission, has made significant progress in urban mobility and IT-enabled services.
• Ahmedabad has implemented intelligent traffic management systems to reduce congestion and pollution.
• Global Recognition:
• India's Smart Cities Mission has been recognized globally for its innovative approach to urban planning and development.
• It aligns with the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 11, which focuses on sustainable cities and communities.

The correct answer is 77^th.

Key Points

• The Henley Passport Index ranks passports based on their strength, determined by the number of destinations holders can access without a prior visa.
• In 2025, India's passport was ranked 77^th, reflecting improvements in global mobility for Indian citizens.
• This index is updated periodically and is based on data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA) and independent research.
• India's ranking highlights the country's gradual enhancement in visa-free and visa-on-arrival access to other countries.
• Countries ranked higher than India typically have stronger diplomatic ties and agreements with other nations, enabling greater mobility.

Additional Information

• Henley Passport Index:
• The Henley Passport Index is a global ranking of countries based on the freedom of travel their citizens enjoy.
• It ranks passports by evaluating how many destinations a passport holder can visit without obtaining a visa beforehand.
• This index is a reliable measure of a country's global mobility and the quality of its diplomatic relationships.
• The index is based on data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA) and updated by Henley & Partners.
• India's Passport Evolution:
• India's passport ranking has shown improvement in recent years due to international agreements and enhanced diplomatic efforts.
• Citizens of India can now access more countries under visa-free or visa-on-arrival conditions compared to previous years.
• This reflects India's growing influence and stronger bilateral ties with other nations.
• Top-Ranked Countries:
• Countries like Japan, Singapore, and Germany consistently rank at the top of the Henley Passport Index due to their extensive visa-free access.
• These nations enjoy high mobility due to strong economic stability, robust diplomatic relations, and global reputation.
• Factors Impacting Rankings:
• Passport rankings are influenced by factors such as visa policies, international relations, and geopolitical stability.
• Countries with weak diplomatic ties or internal instability may rank lower on the index.

Important Points

• Henley Passport Index Methodology:
• The index uses data from IATA, covering approximately 199 passports and 227 travel destinations.
• Scores are based on the number of destinations accessible without a visa or with visa-on-arrival.
• India's Diplomatic Initiatives:
• India has signed agreements with several countries to facilitate easier visa access for its citizens.
• Efforts like e-visas and bilateral agreements have contributed to India's improved ranking.

The correct answer is 180.

Key Points

• The World Press Freedom Index is an annual ranking published by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), an international organization that evaluates press freedom worldwide.
• The index ranks a total of 180 countries and territories based on the level of freedom available to journalists in each region.
• The ranking is determined by assessing factors such as media independence, self-censorship, legal frameworks, and the safety of journalists.
• The World Press Freedom Index is a globally recognized tool used by governments, organizations, and individuals to understand the state of press freedom across different countries.
• Option 1, 180, is correct as the index consistently includes 180 countries in its rankings.

Additional Information

• Reporters Without Borders (RSF):
• RSF is an international non-profit organization founded in 1985 and headquartered in Paris, France.
• Its primary aim is to promote and defend freedom of information and the press.
• RSF conducts extensive research, publishes reports, and advocates for journalists' rights globally.
• Methodology of the World Press Freedom Index:
• The index is based on a comprehensive survey that evaluates pluralism, media independence, media environment, legislative framework, and violence against journalists.
• A questionnaire developed by RSF is distributed to experts, researchers, and media professionals worldwide.
• The data is then analyzed to assign scores to each country, which determines their ranking.
• Importance of the Index:
• The ranking highlights the challenges faced by journalists in different parts of the world.
• It serves as a reference for policy-makers, activists, and media organizations to understand and address press freedom issues.
• The index often correlates with overall democratic health in a country.
• Examples from the Index:
• Countries like Norway, Sweden, and Finland often rank at the top for having strong protections for press freedom.
• Countries with restrictive regimes, such as North Korea and Eritrea, typically rank at the bottom.
• India's performance in the index has been a topic of concern, with rankings fluctuating due to issues of violence against journalists and media restrictions.

Important Points

• Global Trends in Press Freedom:
• Recent years have seen an increase in attacks on media freedom, with journalists facing greater risks worldwide.
• Many countries have implemented laws restricting freedom of expression under the guise of national security.
• The rise of misinformation and fake news has also posed challenges to press freedom globally.
• Role of Technology:
• While digital platforms have expanded opportunities for independent journalism, they have also enabled state surveillance and censorship.
• Journalists increasingly rely on secure communication tools to protect themselves and their sources.
• Advocacy and Support:
• Organizations like RSF, UNESCO, and the Committee to Protect Journalists (CPJ) work to protect journalists and promote press freedom.
• World Press Freedom Day, observed on May 3 annually, raises awareness about the importance of free and independent media.

The correct answer is 4) Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• The Export Preparedness Index (EPI) of India is released by NITI Aayog to evaluate the export performance of Indian states and Union Territories.
• The EPI is designed to identify challenges and opportunities, enhance the export ecosystem, and help states benchmark their performance.
• The index is built upon four key pillars, which are:
• Policy: Examines the export-related policies of states to encourage exports.
• Business Ecosystem: Evaluates the ease of doing business, infrastructure, and other factors affecting export preparedness.
• Export Ecosystem: Analyzes the factors facilitating exports, such as logistics and export promotion councils.
• Export Performance: Measures the actual performance of states in terms of export volumes and value.
• Among the pillars mentioned, Export Policy and Business Environment are not standalone pillars of the Export Preparedness Index. Instead, they are components of broader frameworks like Policy and Business Ecosystem.
• Hence, neither Export Policy nor Business Environment is a direct pillar of EPI, making the correct answer 4) Neither I nor II.

Additional Information

• Export Preparedness Index (EPI):
• The EPI was first introduced by NITI Aayog in 2020 as a framework to improve India’s export competitiveness.
• It is structured into four key pillars, 11 sub-pillars, and 55 indicators, covering different dimensions of export preparedness.
• The index uses a combination of quantitative and qualitative metrics to rank states based on their export readiness.
• Objective of EPI:
• To promote regional competitiveness and improve the export capabilities of Indian states and Union Territories.
• To identify gaps in the export ecosystem and suggest actionable recommendations for improvement.
• Performance Highlights:
• As per the 2022 EPI report, states like Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu performed well due to robust infrastructure and favorable policies.
• Hilly and Northeastern states face challenges due to logistical constraints and limited industrialization.
• Role of NITI Aayog:
• NITI Aayog plays a pivotal role in enhancing India’s export ecosystem by publishing reports and facilitating policy discussions.
• It collaborates with state governments to address challenges and support the development of export-oriented strategies.

Important Points

• Key Metrics of EPI:
• The index evaluates states on parameters such as export promotion policies, ease of doing business, transport infrastructure, and trade support services.
• It emphasizes the need for regional diversification in exports and focuses on building a sustainable export ecosystem.
• Challenges Highlighted:
• Lack of adequate financial support for exporters and limited access to international markets.
• Infrastructure gaps, especially in landlocked states and remote regions, act as barriers to export growth.
• Recommendations:
• Strengthening export-oriented industries and improving trade facilitation services.
• Encouraging states to adopt innovative policies and collaborate with international trade organizations.

The correct answer is Tirupati.

Key Points

• The Flamingo Festival is an annual event celebrated in Andhra Pradesh, focusing on migratory birds like flamingos that arrive in the region to nest and breed.
• The festival is primarily organized in Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh, known for its proximity to Pulicat Lake and the Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary, which are important habitats for flamingos.
• The 2025 edition of the Flamingo Festival was conducted from January 18 to January 20, attracting bird enthusiasts, environmentalists, and tourists from across the country.
• The festival highlights the importance of conservation, biodiversity, and sustainable tourism in preserving the ecosystem.
• Tirupati, apart from being a religious hub, plays an important role in hosting this ecological and cultural event, emphasizing the harmony between nature and human activities.

Additional Information

• Pulicat Lake:
• Pulicat Lake is the second-largest brackish water lagoon in India, located on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
• The lake serves as a crucial habitat for flamingos and other migratory birds, especially during the winter season.
• It provides nesting grounds for birds and supports rich biodiversity, making it a vital ecological zone.
• Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary:
• Located near Tirupati, Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary is known for its large population of pelicans and flamingos.
• The sanctuary spans over 458 hectares and is a key attraction during the Flamingo Festival.
• It serves as a breeding ground for several bird species and promotes eco-tourism in the region.
• Importance of Flamingo Festival:
• The festival creates awareness about bird conservation and the need to protect migratory bird habitats.
• It provides an opportunity to study and appreciate the unique migratory patterns of flamingos and other birds.
• The event boosts local tourism, generating income for communities while promoting environmental sustainability.
• Tirupati:
• Tirupati is globally renowned for the Tirumala Venkateswara Temple and attracts millions of devotees annually.
• The city also plays a significant role in hosting cultural and ecological festivals, such as the Flamingo Festival, showcasing its diverse appeal.
• Its proximity to key ecological sites like Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary makes it an ideal location for the festival.

Important Points

• Flamingos:
• Flamingos are known for their distinctive pink feathers, which are a result of carotenoid pigments found in their diet.
• They are migratory birds, traveling long distances to breed and feed in favorable climates.
• India hosts flamingos primarily in regions like Pulicat Lake, Rann of Kutch, and Chilika Lake.
• Eco-tourism:
• Eco-tourism focuses on responsible travel to natural areas, conserving the environment and improving the well-being of local people.
• The Flamingo Festival is a prime example of eco-tourism, blending environmental conservation with cultural celebration.
• It encourages sustainable practices and helps preserve the delicate ecosystems of migratory birds.
• Conservation Efforts:
• Events like the Flamingo Festival raise awareness about wildlife conservation and the importance of protecting natural habitats.
• Governments and NGOs collaborate to ensure the preservation of wetlands and biodiversity.
• Such initiatives contribute to maintaining ecological balance and support the global effort to combat climate change.