SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 25 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Expert .

Key Points

• The word "Expert" refers to a person who is highly skilled or knowledgeable in a specific field.
• The sentence mentions Jennifer asking her colleague, implying someone who has specialized knowledge.
• Among the options:
• Option 1: Expert – Correct, as it matches the description of a highly educated person in a specific field.
• Option 2: Novice – Incorrect, as it means someone who is inexperienced or new to a field.
• Option 3: Master – While it also signifies a high level of skill, it is not as commonly used in a general context as "Expert."
• Option 4: Prodigy – Incorrect, as it refers to a young person with exceptional abilities, not necessarily someone highly educated.

Correct sentence: Jennifer asked her colleague, an Expert, for advice about the project.

Additional Information

• Novice:
• Meaning: A beginner or someone new to a field or activity.
• Example: She is a novice in the world of programming.
• Usage: Refers to inexperience or lack of expertise.
• Master:
• Meaning: Someone who has achieved a very high level of skill in a particular area.
• Example: He is a master of classical music.
• Usage: Often used in artistic or technical fields.
• Prodigy:
• Meaning: A young person with exceptional qualities or abilities.
• Example: Mozart was a child prodigy in music.
• Usage: Refers to extraordinary talent, typically in youth.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Apostate .

Key Points

• The word Apostate is used to refer to a person who abandons or renounces their religion, cause, or political beliefs.
• The definition aligns with the question, which asks for a one-word substitute for someone who abandons their religion.
• Other options are incorrect because:
• Agnostic: Refers to a person who is uncertain about the existence of God or divine beings, not someone who abandons their religion.
• Heretic: Refers to someone who holds beliefs contrary to the official doctrine of a religion but does not necessarily abandon their religion.
• Infidel: Refers to someone who does not believe in a particular religion, typically used in a broader or derogatory sense, not specifically someone who has abandoned their faith.

Correct sentence: Daniel asked his professor, a person who abandons his religion is called an Apostate.

Additional Information

• Key Definitions:
• Apostate: A person who renounces or abandons a religious or political belief or principle.
• Agnostic: A person who believes that it is impossible to know whether God exists or not.
• Heretic: A person whose beliefs or opinions are contrary to the orthodox religious doctrine.
• Infidel: A person who does not believe in a particular religion, often used in a derogatory sense.
• Usage in Context:
• An Apostate is someone who deliberately leaves their religion, while a Heretic may still follow their religion but hold unorthodox views.
• An Agnostic does not claim to abandon religion but questions the existence of God or the divine.
• Infidel is a broader term and does not necessarily imply abandonment of religion.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The principles of science is difficult to understand .

Key Points

• The sentence "The principles of science is difficult to understand" is grammatically incorrect.
• The subject of the sentence is "principles", which is a plural noun.
• In English grammar, a plural subject requires a plural verb. The verb "is" is singular and does not match the plural subject "principles".
• The correct verb to use with the plural subject is "are".

Correct sentence: The principles of science are difficult to understand.

Additional Information

• Subject-Verb Agreement Rule:
• A singular subject takes a singular verb, while a plural subject takes a plural verb.
• Example (Singular): The dog runs fast.
• Example (Plural): The dogs run fast.
• Examples for clarity:
• Incorrect: The books is on the table.
• Correct: The books are on the table.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. on .

Key Points

• The preposition "on" is used to indicate a state or condition in relation to something.
• In this context, the phrase "insisted on" is a common collocation in English, meaning to demand or emphasize something as a necessity.
• The other options do not appropriately fit the sentence's context:
• "At" typically refers to a location or point in time, which is not relevant here.
• "Over" indicates position or superiority, which is incorrect in this context.
• "With" is used to show association or accompaniment, which does not fit the meaning of "insisted."

Correct sentence: The director insisted on absolute silence during the rehearsal.

Additional Information

• Usage of Common Prepositions:
• "On": Indicates a state, condition, or focus. Example: She insisted on going to the party.
• "At": Refers to a specific point. Example: He arrived at the station.
• "Over": Indicates position above or dominance. Example: The plane flew over the city.
• "With": Indicates association or means. Example: He completed the work with diligence.

The correct answer is 'stepped out of'.

Key Points

• The phrasal verb "step out of" means to leave or exit a vehicle, room, or enclosed place.
• The expression "stepped from the car" is not the natural or idiomatic choice in this context.
• Thus, the sentence should read: "Everyone clapped as she stepped out of the car."
• Option 1 is incorrect because "step out" must be followed by the preposition "of" when referring to leaving a vehicle.
• Option 2 is incorrect because "step off" is used for platforms, buses, trains, or stages, not for getting out of a car.
• Option 4 is incorrect because the original expression is not idiomatic.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "Everyone clapped as she stepped out of the car."

Additional Information

• Step out of = to leave a vehicle or enclosed space.

Example: He stepped out of the taxi.

• Step off = to get down from a bus, train, platform, or stage.

Example: She stepped off the bus.

• Step into = to enter a vehicle or place.

Example: They stepped into the room.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. A massive wave crashed onto the shore .

Key Points

• The question asks to identify the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word in the given sentence: "She gave him a small wave before leaving."
• A homonym is a word that has the same spelling or pronunciation as another word but differs in meaning.
• In the given sentence, the highlighted word is "wave." It refers to a hand gesture.
• We need to find a sentence where the word "wave" is used in a different meaning.
• Option 2: "A massive wave crashed onto the shore." uses the word "wave" to refer to a large movement of water, which is a different meaning than the highlighted word.

Correct sentence: A massive wave crashed onto the shore.

Additional Information

• Homonyms: Words that are spelled or pronounced the same way but have different meanings.
• Examples:
• Bark: The sound a dog makes (e.g., "The dog’s bark was loud.") vs. the outer layer of a tree (e.g., "The tree’s bark was rough.").
• Bat: A flying mammal (e.g., "The bat flew across the cave.") vs. a piece of equipment used in sports (e.g., "He hit the ball with a bat.").
• Other Options: The remaining options use "wave" to describe a hand gesture, which is the same meaning as in the given sentence.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Let your hand be not put over the stove lest your fingers should be burnt .

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Key Points

• The given sentence is in the imperative form, warning the subject not to perform a certain action.
• When converting an imperative sentence into passive voice, the structure generally begins with "Let" followed by the object and the passive form of the verb.
• For example:
• Active: Do not touch the painting.
• Passive: Let the painting not be touched.
• In the given sentence:
• Active: Do not put your hand over the stove lest you should burn your fingers.
• Passive: Let your hand be not put over the stove lest your fingers should be burnt.
• The phrase "lest your fingers should be burnt" is retained in the passive voice, as it expresses a hypothetical or undesirable consequence.

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Correct sentence: Let your hand be not put over the stove lest your fingers should be burnt.

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Additional Information

• Imperative Sentences in Passive Voice:
• Structure: Let + object + be + past participle.
• Example:
• Active: Do not open the door.
• Passive: Let the door not be opened.
• Usage: Used to give orders, instructions, or advice in a formal tone.
• Key Usage of "Lest":
• "Lest" is a conjunction used to introduce the idea of preventing something undesirable.
• It is followed by "should" and a verb in its base form.
• Example: Work hard lest you should fail.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. Let the car be covered by him with that pink cloth lying on the table .

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the active voice, and the task is to convert it into the passive voice.
• In a sentence starting with "Let," the passive voice construction is formed by using "Let + object + be + past participle + additional details."
• The sentence "Let him cover the car with that pink cloth lying on the table" is converted to passive voice by making "the car" the subject, followed by the appropriate structure.

Correct sentence: Let the car be covered by him with that pink cloth lying on the table.

Additional Information

• Active Voice: The subject performs the action. Example: He covers the car.
• Passive Voice: The subject is acted upon. Example: The car is covered by him.
• Key Passive Voice Formula: Object of the active voice becomes the subject of the passive voice, and the verb is changed to "be + past participle."

The correct answer is '1' i.e. The child requested his mother to help him with his homework .

Key Points

• The given sentence is an example of changing a direct speech into indirect speech.
• When converting a polite request from direct to indirect speech:
• The reporting verb is changed to "requested".
• The word "please" is removed as it is implied in the word "requested."
• The first-person pronoun "me" is changed to the third person "him" to match the subject of the reporting clause (the child).
• Thus, the correct transformation is: "The child requested his mother to help him with his homework."

Correct sentence: The child requested his mother to help him with his homework.

Additional Information

• Rules for changing direct speech to indirect speech:
• Remove quotation marks and adjust the sentence structure accordingly.
• Adjust pronouns to reflect the perspective of the reporting clause.
• Use the appropriate reporting verb based on the type of sentence (e.g., requested, said, told).
• Examples:
• Direct: She said, "Can you help me with this task?"
• Indirect: She requested him to help her with that task.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. She asked Martin what was the matter with him that he looked so cross that day. .

Key Points

• In indirect speech, the tense of the sentence changes depending on the reporting verb and the context of the sentence.
• Here, the reporting verb is in the past tense (said to → asked), so the tense of the direct sentence must shift accordingly.
• The present tense verb "is" in the direct sentence changes to the past tense "was" in the indirect sentence.
• The adverb of time "today" changes to "that day" in indirect speech.
• To maintain grammatical correctness, look changes to looked since it follows past tense narration.

Correct sentence: She asked Martin what was the matter with him that he looked so cross that day.

Additional Information

• Rules for Changing Direct to Indirect Speech:
• Pronouns must be adjusted according to the context (e.g., "you" changes to "him").
• Tenses shift according to the reporting verb (e.g., present tense → past tense).
• Time and place indicators change (e.g., "today" → "that day").
• Question format in direct speech is converted to a statement in indirect speech without using "?".
• Examples of Tense Changes:
• Direct: She said, "I am happy today."
• Indirect: She said that she was happy that day.
• Direct: He said, "What are you doing now?"
• Indirect: He asked what I was doing then.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. The judge asked the prisoner what he had been doing in the garage at 10:30 pm on Monday when the incident had taken place .

Key Points

• The given sentence is an example of indirect narration, where the direct speech is converted into indirect speech while adhering to the rules of tense and pronoun changes.
• In indirect narration, the tense of the original sentence often changes to reflect the time frame in which the statement was made.
• The question in direct speech is in the past continuous tense ("What were you doing"). Therefore, in indirect speech, it should change to past perfect continuous tense ("what he had been doing").
• Since "when the incident took place" is in simple past tense, it changes to past perfect tense ("had taken place").

Correct sentence: The judge asked the prisoner what he had been doing in the garage at 10:30 pm on Monday when the incident had taken place.

Additional Information

• Rules for Changing Direct Speech to Indirect Speech:
• If the reporting verb (e.g., "said," "asked") is in the past tense, the tense of the original statement generally moves one step back in time (e.g., present to past, past to past perfect).
• In case of questions, the structure changes to a declarative sentence, and the question mark is removed.
• Pronouns and time expressions are adjusted appropriately (e.g., "you" becomes "he/she," "today" becomes "that day").
• Examples of Indirect Narration:
• Direct: He said, "I am reading a book." → Indirect: He said that he was reading a book.
• Direct: She asked, "Where are you going?" → Indirect: She asked where he was going.
• Direct: They said, "We will finish our work tomorrow." → Indirect: They said that they would finish their work the next day.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. They will give the award to the winner.

Key Points

• The sentence "The award will be given to the winner" is in the passive voice.
• To convert a sentence from passive to active voice, identify the subject performing the action.
• In this case, "They" (assumed subject) is the doer of the action.
• The structure of the sentence in active voice becomes: Subject + will + base verb + object.

Correct sentence: They will give the award to the winner.

Additional Information

• Passive to Active Voice Conversion Rules:
• Identify the subject, verb, and object of the passive sentence.
• Make the subject of the passive sentence the object in the active sentence.
• Use the correct tense of the verb to match the original sentence.
• Example of Passive to Active Conversion:
• Passive: The letter was written by her.
• Active: She wrote the letter.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. The scientists had completed the experiment .

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the passive voice and needs to be converted into the active voice.
• In the passive voice, the structure is: Object + had been + past participle + by subject.
• In the active voice, the structure is: Subject + had + past participle + object.
• Here, the subject of the active voice is "The scientists," and the object is "the experiment."
• When converted into the active voice, the sentence becomes: "The scientists had completed the experiment."

Correct sentence: The scientists had completed the experiment.

Additional Information

• Active and Passive Voice:
• Active Voice: The subject performs the action on the object.

Example: The teacher explained the lesson.

• Passive Voice: The object of the action becomes the subject of the sentence.

Example: The lesson was explained by the teacher.

• Usage: Active voice is more direct and is typically preferred in most forms of writing.
• When to Use Passive Voice:
• When the focus is on the action rather than the subject performing it.
• Example: The experiment had been completed by the scientists (focuses on the completion of the experiment).

The correct answer is '3' i.e. "The analyst said, 'The statistical data has evidently been misinterpreted, which may have skewed the report.'".

Key Points

• The given sentence is a conversion from indirect speech to direct speech.
• In the indirect sentence, the verb "had evidently been misinterpreted" is in the past perfect tense. However, while converting to direct speech, the tense aligns based on the context.
• Option 3 uses the correct sequence of tenses: "has evidently been misinterpreted" (present perfect) and "may have skewed" (possibility in the past). These make the sentence more contextually and grammatically accurate.
• The other options are incorrect because:
• Option 1: Incorrect because "is evidently misinterpreted" (present simple) does not align with the context of the misinterpretation having already occurred.
• Option 2: Incorrect because "had evidently been misinterpreted" (past perfect) does not fit well when directly quoting the analyst.
• Option 4: Incorrect because "were evidently misinterpreted" (past simple plural) is grammatically incorrect for the singular subject "data."

Correct sentence: "The analyst said, 'The statistical data has evidently been misinterpreted, which may have skewed the report.'"

Additional Information

• Rules for Indirect to Direct Speech Conversion:
• Adjust the tense of the verb based on the context and reporting verb.
• Ensure pronouns, time expressions, and auxiliary verbs are appropriately modified.
• Present Perfect Tense:
• Structure: Has/Have + Past Participle.
• Example: He has completed his work.
• Usage: Refers to actions that happened at an unspecified time before now.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Active Voice Structure: Subject (Experts) + Verb (advocate for) + Object (a balanced approach). The sentence is in the Simple Present Tense.
• Passive Voice Rules for Simple Present: Object + is/am/are + Past Participle (V3) + by + Subject.
• Crucial Rule (Prepositional Verbs): When a verb is followed by a fixed preposition (like advocate for, laugh at, or look after), that preposition must be retained immediately after the verb in the passive voice.
• Option 3 correctly follows this: "A balanced approach (Object) + is (Helping Verb) + advocated (V3) + for (Preposition) + by + experts (Subject)."
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1: Uses "was," which changes the tense to Simple Past.
• Option 2: Uses "has been advocating," which is grammatically incorrect for passive voice (should be has been advocated) and changes the tense.
• Option 4: Incorrectly makes the "approach" the one doing the "advocating," reversing the logical meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, examiners often use "Phrasal Verbs" or "Prepositional Verbs" to trick students. Remember: If the preposition is part of the verb's meaning in the active voice, don't drop it in the passive voice!

 

Additional Information

• Detrimental: Tending to cause harm. (Synonym: Deleterious, Harmful)
• Impediment: A hindrance or obstruction in doing something. (Synonym: Obstacle)
• Conversely: Introducing a statement or idea which reverses one that has just been made.
• Advocate: To publicly recommend or support a particular cause or policy.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Present Perfect Tense Structure: The standard formula is Subject + has/have + Past Participle (V3). This tense is used for actions that happened at an unspecified time or began in the past and continue to the present.
• In Option 1, the verb phrase is "has become." Here, "has" is the auxiliary (helping) verb and "become" is the past participle (V3) form (become-became-become).
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 2: The verb is "can foster," which uses a modal verb ("can") followed by a base verb, indicating Simple Present capability.
• Option 3: The verb is "advocate," which is in the Simple Present Tense.
• Option 4: The main verb is "are," which is the Simple Present form of the verb 'to be'. "Recommended" is a past participle acting as an adjective here.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, identifying tenses is a core part of the "Spot the Error" and "Sentence Improvement" sections. Always look for the 'has/have' + 'V3' combination to identify the Present Perfect.

 

Additional Information

• Detrimental: Tending to cause harm. (Synonym: Deleterious)
• Impediment: A hindrance or obstruction in doing something. (Synonym: Obstacle)
• Foster: To encourage or promote the development of something.
• Conversely: Used to introduce a statement that contrasts with or reverses the preceding one.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Detrimental: In the context of the passage, "excessive usage can have detrimental effects on young minds," the word refers to something that causes damage or harm.
• The passage lists several negative outcomes to support this: "sleep disturbances, reduced academic performance, and impaired social interaction skills." These are all forms of harm.
• Harmful (Option 3): This is the most appropriate synonym as it means causing or likely to cause harm.
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1 (Unimportant): The passage describes these effects as a "complex challenge," implying they are significant, not unimportant.
• Option 2 (Beneficial): This is the Antonym. Beneficial means resulting in good, which contradicts the negative effects listed.
• Option 4 (Unpredictable): While digital trends can be unpredictable, the "effects" mentioned (sleep issues, low grades) are specific and documented consequences, not random or unknown ones.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, when you encounter a vocabulary question in a passage, look at the examples provided in the following sentence. The list of negative outcomes (sleep issues, poor grades) acts as a direct clue to the meaning of "detrimental."

 

Additional Information

• Impediment: A hindrance or obstruction in doing something. (Synonym: Obstacle)
• Conversely: Introducing a statement or idea which reverses one that has just been made.
• Foster: To encourage or promote the development of something (usually something good).
• Revolutionized: Changed something radically or fundamentally.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Impediment: In the context of the passage ("rather than an impediment to a child's development"), it refers to something that hinders, obstructs, or slows down progress.
• Barrier (Option 1): This is the closest synonym. A barrier is a fence or other obstacle that prevents movement or access, or more metaphorically, a circumstance or obstacle that keeps people or things apart or prevents progress.
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 2 (Opportunity): This is an Antonym. An opportunity is a set of circumstances that makes it possible to do something; it helps progress rather than hindering it.
• Option 3 (Pathway): This implies a way or track for walking or a route. In a developmental sense, it suggests a clear way forward, which is the opposite of an impediment.
• Option 4 (Solution): A solution is a means of solving a problem or dealing with a difficult situation, which resolves an impediment rather than being one.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, questions often place a synonym and its antonym (like "Barrier" and "Opportunity") in the same list. Identifying this "pair of opposites" can often help you narrow down the answer to one of those two.

 

Additional Information

• Detrimental: Tending to cause harm.
• Foster: To encourage or promote the development of (something, typically something regarded as good).
• Conversely: Introducing a statement or idea which reverses one that has just been made.
• Advocate: To publicly recommend or support a particular cause or policy.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The passage provides specific recommendations to make technology a positive tool for development. In the final paragraph, it states: "Encouraging offline activities, monitoring content, and setting time limits are some strategies recommended..."
• Option 3 directly reflects these two strategies: monitoring content and setting clear time limits.
• Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1: The passage advocates for a "balanced approach" and mentions that digital tools can "foster learning," so total avoidance is not recommended.
• Option 2: The text warns that "excessive usage can have detrimental effects," so unlimited time would be harmful.
• Option 4: The passage notes that unregulated exposure contributes to "sleep disturbances," implying that late-night usage is a negative factor.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

Analytical Insight: In competitive exams, when the question asks "According to the passage," your answer must be a direct reflection of the text. Option 3 is the only one that uses the specific vocabulary ("monitoring," "time limits") found in the concluding sentence.

 

Additional Information

• Regulating: Controlling or maintaining the rate or speed of (a machine or process) so that it operates properly.
• Detrimental: Tending to cause harm.
• Impediment: A hindrance or obstruction in doing something.
• Dialogue: A discussion between two or more people or groups, especially one directed towards exploration of a particular subject or resolution of a problem.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. Infused .

Key Points

• The word imbued means to permeate or inspire someone or something with a feeling, quality, or idea.
• In the given sentence, the monkey’s paw is described as being imbued with purpose, suggesting that it is filled or infused with a sense of intention or purpose.
• Among the given options:
• Lacking (Option 1): This is the opposite of what is implied by "imbued," as it means something is missing or absent.
• Removed (Option 2): This means taken away, which does not align with the meaning of "imbued."
• Deprived (Option 3): This also indicates a lack or absence, which contrasts with the meaning of "imbued."
• Infused (Option 4): This is the correct choice, as it means filled or instilled with a quality, idea, or feeling, which is closest to the meaning of "imbued."

Correct sentence: The monkey's paw lay twisted in his grasp, as if imbued with purpose, meaning it seemed infused or filled with a sense of purpose.

Additional Information

• Synonyms of "Imbued": Infused, suffused, instilled, filled.
• Antonyms of "Imbued": Deprived, removed, lacking, stripped.
• Usage in another sentence: She was imbued with a deep sense of justice, which guided her actions throughout her life.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. fumbled .

Key Points

• The word "groped" means to search for something blindly or uncertainly, often using the hands.
• Among the options:
• Option 1: Dropped - This means to let something fall, which does not match the context of searching along the wall.
• Option 2: Fumbled - This means to search or handle something clumsily, often in the dark or without clear vision, making it the most appropriate replacement for "groped."
• Option 3: Ignored - This means to deliberately pay no attention to something, which is unrelated to the context of searching.
• Option 4: Directed - This means to guide or aim something in a specific direction, which does not fit the context of the sentence.

Correct sentence: His hands fumbled along the wall for the lamp.

Additional Information

• Synonyms of Fumbled:
• Searched clumsily
• Handled awkwardly
• Scrambled
• Usage Example:
• She fumbled in her bag to find her keys in the dark.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. A container used for storing liquids .

Key Points

• The word 'content' is a homonym, meaning it has multiple meanings depending on its usage in a sentence.
• The meanings of 'content' provided in the options are:
• Option 1: The topics or material included within a book or broadcast.
• Option 2: A state of satisfaction or peaceful happiness.
• Option 3: The amount of a particular substance in something.
• Option 4: A container used for storing liquids.
• Out of these, options 1, 2, and 3 represent valid meanings of the word 'content', while option 4 (A container used for storing liquids) is incorrect.

Correct meaning: The word 'content' does not mean a container used for storing liquids. Its valid meanings include materials within a book, a state of satisfaction, or the amount of a substance in something.

Additional Information

• Homonyms are words that sound or look alike but have different meanings. Examples include:
• Bat: An object used in sports or a flying mammal.
• Bank: A financial institution or the side of a river.
• Understanding the context of the sentence is crucial in identifying the correct meaning of a homonym.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. hemoglobinopathy .

Key Points

• The word hemoglobinopathy refers to a group of genetic disorders affecting the structure or production of hemoglobin.
• It is the correctly spelled term in medical science and is often used to describe conditions like sickle cell anemia or thalassemia.
• Incorrect spellings like hemaglobinopathy, hemoglobinapathy, and haemoglobinopathi are not recognized in standard medical terminology.

Correct sentence: The patient suffered from a rare hemoglobinopathy disease.

Additional Information

• Common Hemoglobinopathies:
• Sickle Cell Anemia: A condition where red blood cells become misshapen and break down.
• Thalassemia: A genetic blood disorder that reduces the production of hemoglobin.
• Importance of Correct Spelling:
• In medical fields, correct terminology is critical for accurate communication.
• Misspelling terms can lead to misinterpretation or errors in diagnosis and treatment.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. stratigraphic .

Key Points

• The word "stratigraphic" is derived from the term "stratigraphy", which refers to the study of rock layers (strata) and layering.
• This word is often used in geology to describe the structural and compositional arrangement of rock layers.
• The spelling "stratigraphic" is correct and follows the standard conventions of English spelling.
• The other options, "stratographic," "strategraphic," and "stratigrafik," are incorrect as they deviate from the correct spelling.

Correct sentence: The geologist measured the stratigraphic structure of the mountain.

Additional Information

• Importance of Stratigraphy:
• Stratigraphy is crucial in understanding Earth's history, including the age and formation process of rocks.
• It is widely used in fields like geology, archaeology, and paleontology.
• Tips for Correct Spelling:
• Break the word into parts: "strati-" (layers) + "graphic" (related to writing or description).
• Practice spelling technical terms to avoid common mistakes in exams or professional use.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. histriography .

Key Points

• The word "histriography" in the sentence is misspelled.
• The correct spelling of the word is "historiography", which refers to the study of the writing of history or historical works.
• It is important to ensure the correct spelling of technical or academic terms in formal writing to maintain clarity and credibility.

Correct sentence: Her monograph on colonial historiography was lauded for its originality, depth, and interdisciplinary methodology.

Additional Information

• Common Spelling Errors:
• Double-check for words that are similar in sound but differ in meaning or spelling, such as "histriography" vs. "historiography."
• Use a dictionary or spell-checking tools when in doubt about the accuracy of a term.
• Importance of Proofreading:
• Proofreading helps catch spelling, grammar, and punctuation errors that can undermine the quality of a written piece.
• Always review academic or professional documents thoroughly before submission.

Given:

14 ! 6 * 3 * 5 = ?

By using the BODMAS rule:

By, decoding the given symbols we get.

Substituting the given operator in the given expression:

⇒ 14 ! 6 * 3 * 5

⇒ (14 ÷ 6) - 3 - 5

⇒ 7/3 - 3 - 5

⇒ 7/3 - (3 + 5)

⇒ 7/3 - 8

⇒ (7 - 24) / 3

⇒ -17/3

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.$

Given: A person walks 4 km north,

Then 3 km east,

And finally, 4 km south.

So, he is east of his starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The paper will appear when opened.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 72.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2";

Given : Five friends (Avi, Ani, Asif, Anu, and Asa) were born in different consecutive years starting from 2001 (i.e., 2001, 2002, 2003, 2004, and 2005).

1. Avi is the oldest of all.

The oldest person must be born in the earliest year. Therefore, Avi was born in 2001.

2. Asif was born in a leap year.

Between 2001 and 2005, the only leap year is 2004. So, Asif was born in 2004.

3. Anu was neither born in 2002 nor in 2005.

The remaining years are 2002, 2003, and 2005. Since Anu cannot be in 2002 or 2005, Anu must have been born in 2003.

4. Ani is younger than Asa.

This means Asa was born in an earlier year than Ani. The remaining years are 2002 and 2005. 

 

Based on the final arrangement, Asa was born in 2002.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 168.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2";

The logic followed here is:

Logic: In a row → (Product of first three numbers) = Fourth number

Row 1: (3 × 5 × 6) → 15 × 6 = 90

Row 2: (2 × 4 × 5) → 8 × 5 = 40

Similarly,

Row 3: (4 × 7 × ?) → 28 × ? = 140

⇒ ? = 140 ÷ 28

⇒ ? = 5

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

In each square: (Top-Left number × Top-Right number) + Bottom-Right number = Bottom-Left number

Square 1: (4 × 3) + 8 → 12 + 8 = 20

Square 2: (4 × 6) + 2 → 24 + 2 = 26

Similarly, in Square 3:

(2 × 5) + ? = 13

⇒ 10 + ? = 13

⇒ ? = 13 - 10

⇒ ? = 3

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The number of triangles in the figure:

The number of triangles in the figure is 9.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The number of triangles in the figure:

The number of triangles in the figure is 15.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: 5 persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

B is sitting second to the right of D.

A is sitting second to the right of B.

C is not an immediate neighbour of A.

And E sits at the remaining place.

So, D is the immediate right of A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 5 persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

B is sitting second to the right of D.

A is sitting second to the right of B.

C is not an immediate neighbour of A.

And E sits at the remaining place.

So, A is sitting third to the right of C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

A Right turn and a Left turn cancel each other out because they return the person to their original direction.

M starts facing East. To face South, he needs a net result of one Right turn (or three Left turns).

The logic followed here is:

Option 1: Right, Left, Left, Right, Right = 3 Right, 2 Left.

Net = 1 Right. (East + 1 Right = South)

Option 2: Right, Left, Right, Left, Left = 2 Right, 3 Left.

Net = 1 Left. (East + 1 Left = North)

Option 3: Left, Right, Left, Right, Left, Right, Right, Left = 4 Right, 4 Left.

Net = 0. (Stays East)

Option 4: Left, Left, Left, Left, Right, Right, Right, Right = 4 Left, 4 Right.

Net = 0. (Stays East)

Whereas,

In Option 1, the sequence results in a net 90° clockwise rotation.

So, Option 1 leads M to face South.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The option figure will complete the pattern in the question figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is: 

Logic: The number of brackets increases by one in each step, and they alternate their orientation (facing up vs. facing down).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

42 Q 7 R 3 P 6 S 2 = ?

By using the BODMAS rule:

By, decoding the given symbols we get.

Substituting the given operator in the given expression:

⇒ 42 Q 7 R 3 P 6 S 2

⇒ (42 ÷ 7) × 3 + 6 - 2

⇒ 6 × 3 + 6 - 2

⇒ 18 + 6 - 2

⇒ 24 - 2 = 22

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, we need to interchange the numbers 3 and 7 and check which equation will NOT be correct:

Equation I: 7 × 9 + 3 - 8 ÷ 2 = 30

After interchanging 3 and 7, the equation becomes:

3 × 9 + 7 − 8 ÷ 2

⇒ 3 × 9 + 7 − 4

⇒ 27 + 7 − 4

⇒ 34 − 4 = 30 (Correct)

Equation II: 2 × 3 + 7 - 4 ÷ 1 = 13

After interchanging 3 and 7, the equation becomes:

2 × 7 + 3 − 4 ÷ 1

⇒ 2 × 7 + 3 − 4

⇒ 14 + 3 − 4

⇒ 17 − 4 = 13 (Correct)

Since both equations are correct after the interchange, neither of them is "not correct".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

13 - 169 → 13² = 169

12 - 144 → 12² = 144

11 - 121 → 11² = 121

Whereas,

10 - 110 → 10² = 100 ≠110.

So, 10 - 110 is odd from the given options because the right side is not the square of the left side.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For PRAM : KLVG

For DENY : YYIS

Applying the pattern to HATS:

The resulting code is CUOM.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is,

Comparing Sentence 1 and Sentence 2, the common word is 'quality'. The common code between them is 'du'.

Comparing Sentence 1 and Sentence 3, the common word is 'relation'. The common code between them is 'tu'.

Thus, the code for 'quality relation' is 'du tu'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Word: REVOLUTION

1) ULTRON → Can be formed

2) NOVEL → Can be formed

3) RATION → Cannot be formed (Because the given word does not contain the letter 'A')

4) INTRO → Can be formed

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Word: INDEPENDENCE

1) DINE → Can be formed

2) PENDING → Cannot be formed (Because in the given word there is only one 'G' whereas it has zero — the letter 'G' is missing from INDEPENDENCE)

3) NICE → Can be formed

4) PINE → Can be formed

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is TF344.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 765

Discount = 15%

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = SP ÷ (1 - Discount/100)

Calculation:

⇒ MP = 765 ÷ (1 - 15/100)

⇒ MP = 765 ÷ (1 - 0.15)

⇒ MP = 765 ÷ 0.85

⇒ MP = Rs. 900

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 900.

Given:

Number of crates = 7

Initial average = 84.5

Old crate weight = 79.2

New average = 87.1

Formula Used:

Total sum = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Initial total = 7 × 84.5 = 591.5

⇒ New total after replacement = 7 × 87.1 = 609.7

⇒ Increase in total = 609.7 − 591.5 = 18.2

⇒ New crate weight = 79.2 + 18.2 = 97.4

∴ The correct answer is 97.4.

Given:

Height (h) = 12 cm

Radius (r) = 5 cm

Formula Used:

Slant height (l) = √(h² + r²)

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = π × r × l

Calculation:

⇒ l = √(12² + 5²)

⇒ l = √(144 + 25)

⇒ l = √169

⇒ l = 13 cm

⇒ CSA = π × r × l

⇒ CSA = 3.14 × 5 × 13

⇒ CSA = 204.2 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 13 cm and 204.2 cm².

Given:

cos A = 5 ÷ 13

Formula Used:

sin²A + cos²A = 1

tan A = sin A ÷ cos A

Calculation:

⇒ sin A = √(1 − (5 ÷ 13)²)

⇒ sin A = √(1 − 25 ÷ 169)

⇒ sin A = √(144 ÷ 169) = 12 ÷ 13

⇒ tan A = (12 ÷ 13) ÷ (5 ÷ 13)

⇒ tan A = 12 ÷ 5

⇒ tan A − sin A = (12 ÷ 5) − (12 ÷ 13)

⇒ = (156 − 60) ÷ 65

⇒ = 96 ÷ 65

∴ The correct answer is 96 ÷ 65.

Given:

r₁ = 8

r₂ = 7

Distance between centers = 17

Formula Used:

Length of internal tangent = √(d² − (r₁ + r₂)²)

Calculation:

⇒ Length = √(17² − (8 + 7)²)

⇒ Length = √(289 − 15²)

⇒ Length = √(289 − 225)

⇒ Length = √64 = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Given:

Angle = 30

Hypotenuse = 450√3

Formula Used:

cosθ = Base ÷ Hypotenuse

Calculation:

⇒ cos30 = Base ÷ (450√3)

⇒ √3 ÷ 2 = Base ÷ (450√3)

⇒ Base = (450√3 × √3) ÷ 2

⇒ Base = (450 × 3) ÷ 2

⇒ Base = 1350 ÷ 2 = 675

∴ The correct answer is 675.

Given:

Ratio of gold to copper = 4 : 7

Price of copper = (1 ÷ 10) × price of gold

Cost of copper = 28000

Formula Used:

Cost ∝ Quantity × Price per unit

Calculation:

⇒ Let price of gold per unit = 10

⇒ Price of copper per unit = 1

⇒ Cost ratio = (4 × 10) : (7 × 1)

⇒ Cost ratio = 40 : 7

⇒ Copper cost (7 parts) = 28000

⇒ 1 part = 28000 ÷ 7 = 4000

⇒ Gold cost (40 parts) = 40 × 4000 = 160000

⇒ Total cost = 160000 + 28000 = 188000

∴ The correct answer is 188000.

Given:

Price₁ = 120

Price₂ = 130

Ratio = 1 : 1 : 2

Mean price = 150

Formula Used:

Mean price = (Sum of (Price × Quantity)) ÷ Total quantity

Calculation:

⇒ Let price of third variety = x

⇒ Total quantity = 1 + 1 + 2 = 4

⇒ (120 × 1 + 130 × 1 + x × 2) ÷ 4 = 150

⇒ (120 + 130 + 2x) ÷ 4 = 150

⇒ 250 + 2x = 600

⇒ 2x = 350

⇒ x = 175

∴ The correct answer is 175.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Efficiency (Aditya : Bipin) = 2 : 1

Ratio of Time taken (Aditya : Bipin) = 1 : 2

Difference in time = 2 − 1 = 1 unit → 30 days

Aditya takes 30 days and Bipin takes 60 days.

Time together = (30 × 60) ÷ (30 + 60) = 1800 ÷ 90 = 20 days.

∴ The correct answer is 20 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Aditya is twice as efficient as Bipin. Aditya takes 30 days less than Bipin.

Formula Used: Total Work = Efficiency × Time taken; Time taken = Total Work ÷ Efficiency

⇒ Let the time taken by Bipin be 2x days. Then time taken by Aditya is x days.

⇒ According to the question: 2x − x = 30 days

⇒ x = 30 days.

⇒ Aditya's time = 30 days and Bipin's time = 60 days.

⇒ Total Efficiency of Aditya and Bipin = 2 + 1 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Total Work to be completed = 60 units.

⇒ Time required together = Total Work ÷ Total Efficiency

⇒ Time = 60 ÷ 3 = 20 days.

∴ The correct answer is 20 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. If the ratio of efficiency is a:b, the ratio of time taken is b:a.

Combined Work Formula

If person A finishes work in X days and B in Y days, they finish together in (X × Y) ÷ (X + Y) days.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of work done, which is usually the same as the ratio of efficiencies if they work for the same duration.

Given:

tanθ + cotθ = 5

θ is an acute angle

Formula Used:

tan²θ + cot²θ = (tanθ + cotθ)² - 2

Calculation:

⇒ tan²θ + cot²θ = (5)² - 2

⇒ tan²θ + cot²θ = 25 - 2

⇒ tan²θ + cot²θ = 23

∴ The correct answer is 23.

Shortcut Trick

Total Distance = (Speed₁ × Time₁) + (Speed₂ × Time₂)

Total Distance = (45 × 4.6) + (37.5 × 4.2)

Total Distance = 207 + 157.5 = 364.5 km

∴ The correct answer is 364.5 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of Car = 45 km/h, Time taken = 4.6 hr

Speed of Bus = 37.5 km/h, Time taken = 4.2 hr

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

⇒ Distance covered by car = 45 × 4.6

⇒ Distance covered by car = 207 km

⇒ Distance covered by bus = 37.5 × 4.2

⇒ Distance covered by bus = 157.5 km

⇒ Total Distance travelled = 207 + 157.5

⇒ Total Distance travelled = 364.5 km

∴ The correct answer is 364.5 km.

Additional Information

Average Speed Formula

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. In this case, Average Speed = 364.5 ÷ (4.6 + 4.2) km/h.

Speed Conversion Rule

To convert Speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed Concept

When two objects move in the same direction, Relative Speed = S₁ − S₂. In opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂.

Given:

∠AOC = 120°

Radius = 10 cm

Formula Used:

Chord length = 2 × r × sin(θ ÷ 2)

Calculation:

⇒ AC = 2 × 10 × sin(120° ÷ 2)

⇒ AC = 20 × sin60°

⇒ sin60° = √3 ÷ 2

⇒ AC = 20 × (√3 ÷ 2)

⇒ AC = 10√3 cm

∴ The correct answer is 10√3 cm.

Given:

Increase in radius = 10%

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × r³

Percentage change = [(New value − Original value) ÷ Original value] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let original radius = r

⇒ New radius = 1.1r

⇒ Original volume = (4 ÷ 3) × π × r³

⇒ New volume = (4 ÷ 3) × π × (1.1r)³

⇒ New volume = (4 ÷ 3) × π × 1.331r³

⇒ Ratio = New ÷ Original = 1.331

⇒ Increase = 1.331 − 1 = 0.331

⇒ Percentage increase = 0.331 × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = 33.1%

∴ The correct answer is 33.1%.

Given:

Diagonal 1 = 26 cm

Diagonal 2 = 10 cm

Diagonals intersect at 90°

Formula Used:

Diagonals bisect each other

Side = √[(d₁ ÷ 2)² + (d₂ ÷ 2)²]

Area = (1 ÷ 2) × d₁ × d₂ × sinθ

Calculation:

⇒ Half of diagonals = 26 ÷ 2 = 13 and 10 ÷ 2 = 5

⇒ Side = √(13² + 5²)

⇒ Side = √(169 + 25)

⇒ Side = √194 cm

⇒ Area = (1 ÷ 2) × 26 × 10 × sin90°

⇒ Area = (1 ÷ 2) × 260 × 1

⇒ Area = 130 cm²

∴ The correct answer is Side = √194 cm and Area = 130 cm².

Given:

Cost price = 480

Markup = 25%

First discount = 10%

Second discount = 5%

Formula Used:

Marked price = CP × (1 + markup)

Selling price = MP × (1 − d₁) × (1 − d₂)

Profit/Loss % = ((SP − CP) ÷ CP) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ MP = 480 × 1.25 = 600

⇒ After 10% discount: 600 × 0.9 = 540

⇒ After 5% discount: 540 × 0.95 = 513

⇒ SP = 513

⇒ Profit = 513 − 480 = 33

⇒ Profit % = (33 ÷ 480) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 6.875%

∴ The correct answer is 6.875% profit.

Given:

Total profit = Rs 9,000

Capital ratio of Aman : Binoy = 4 : 5

Formula Used:

Aman’s share = (Aman's capital ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total profit

Total ratio = Sum of individual ratios

Calculation:

⇒ Total ratio = 4 + 5 = 9

⇒ Aman’s share = (4 ÷ 9) × 9,000

⇒ Aman’s share = 4 × 1,000 = Rs 4,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs 4,000.

Given:

Length to width ratio = 7:4

Perimeter = 88 cm

Formula Used:

Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (Length + Width)

Area of rectangle = Length × Width

Calculation:

Let Length = 7x and Width = 4x (from the ratio).

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × (7x + 4x)

⇒ 88 = 2 × (11x)

⇒ 88 ÷ 2 = 11x

⇒ x = 4

⇒ Length = 7 × 4 = 28 cm

⇒ Width = 4 × 4 = 16 cm

⇒ Area = Length × Width

⇒ Area = 28 × 16 = 448 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 448 cm².

Given:

Calories for 6 days = 2100, 2200, 2000, 2300, 2400, 2100

Weekly average = 2200

Formula Used:

Total sum = Average × Number of days

Calculation:

⇒ Total for 7 days = 2200 × 7 = 15400

⇒ Sum of 6 days = 2100 + 2200 + 2000 + 2300 + 2400 + 2100

⇒ Sum of 6 days = 13100

⇒ Calories on 7^th day = 15400 − 13100

⇒ Calories on 7^th day = 2300

∴ The correct answer is 2300.

Given:

Radius = 15 cm

Chord length = 18 cm

Formula Used:

Perpendicular from center bisects the chord

r² = d² + (chord ÷ 2)²

Calculation:

⇒ Half chord = 18 ÷ 2 = 9

⇒ 15² = d² + 9²

⇒ 225 = d² + 81

⇒ d² = 225 − 81

⇒ d² = 144

⇒ d = 12 cm

∴ The correct answer is 12 cm.

Given:

AP = 6 cm

PB = 8 cm

CP = 4 cm

Formula Used:

Intersecting chords theorem: AP × PB = CP × PD

Calculation:

⇒ 6 × 8 = 4 × PD

⇒ 48 = 4 × PD

⇒ PD = 48 ÷ 4

⇒ PD = 12 cm

⇒ CD = CP + PD

⇒ CD = 4 + 12

⇒ CD = 16 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm.

Given:

Equation of the line: 2x - 3y = 12

Formula Used:

x-intercept is the value of x when y = 0.

Calculation:

⇒ 2x - 3(0) = 12

⇒ 2x = 12

⇒ x = 12 ÷ 2

⇒ x = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Given:

A is 20% more than B

B is 30% more than C

C is 10% less than D

D is 30% less than E

Formula Used:

New value = Original × (1 ± percentage)

Percentage change = [(A − E) ÷ E] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let E = 100

⇒ D = 100 × 0.7 = 70

⇒ C = 70 × 0.9 = 63

⇒ B = 63 × 1.3 = 81.9

⇒ A = 81.9 × 1.2 = 98.28

⇒ Difference = 98.28 − 100 = −1.72

⇒ Percentage change = (−1.72 ÷ 100) × 100

⇒ Percentage change = −1.72%

∴ The correct answer is 1.72% less.

Shortcut Trick

If a sum of money becomes n times of itself in T years, the annual rate of interest R is given by:

R = [100 × (n − 1)] ÷ T

Given: n = 2 (doubles), T = 5.5 years (5 years 6 months)

R = [100 × (2 − 1)] ÷ 5.5 = 100 ÷ 5.5 = 200 ÷ 11 ≈ 18.18%

∴ The correct answer is 18.18 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = P

Amount (A) = 2P (since the sum doubles itself)

Time (T) = 5 years 6 months = 5 + 6/12 years = 5.5 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Amount (A) = P + SI

Calculations:

⇒ SI = A − P

⇒ SI = 2P − P = P

⇒ P = (P × R × 5.5) ÷ 100

⇒ 1 = (R × 5.5) ÷ 100

⇒ R = 100 ÷ 5.5

⇒ R = 1000 ÷ 55 = 200 ÷ 11

⇒ R ≈ 18.1818...

∴ The correct answer is 18.18 percent.

Additional Information

Relationship between Rate and Time

For a sum to double under simple interest, the product of Rate (R) and Time (T) must always equal 100 (R × T = 100).

Simple Interest Formula

The amount (A) after time (T) is given by A = P × (1 + RT/100), where P is the principal and R is the annual rate.

Rule of 72 (Compound Interest)

To find the approximate time to double money at compound interest, divide 72 by the annual interest rate (T ≈ 72 ÷ R).

SI vs CI for first year

When the interest is compounded annually, the Simple Interest and Compound Interest for the first year are always equal.

Given:

Rate = 10%

Time difference = 10 − 8 = 2 years

Difference in SI = 80

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Difference in SI = (P × 10 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ 80 = (P × 20) ÷ 100

⇒ 80 = P ÷ 5

⇒ P = 80 × 5

⇒ P = 400

∴ The correct answer is 400.

Given:

A + B = 16 minutes

B + C = 20 minutes

C + A = 24 minutes

Remaining work filled in 4 minutes by A + B + C

Formula Used:

Work rate = 1 ÷ Time

Total work = Sum of individual rates

Calculation:

⇒ A + B = 1 ÷ 16

⇒ B + C = 1 ÷ 20

⇒ C + A = 1 ÷ 24

⇒ Adding all: 2(A + B + C) = 1 ÷ 16 + 1 ÷ 20 + 1 ÷ 24

⇒ LCM = 240

⇒ 1 ÷ 16 = 15 ÷ 240, 1 ÷ 20 = 12 ÷ 240, 1 ÷ 24 = 10 ÷ 240

⇒ 2(A + B + C) = 37 ÷ 240

⇒ A + B + C = 37 ÷ 480

⇒ Work done in last 4 min = 4 × (37 ÷ 480)

⇒ = 148 ÷ 480 = 37 ÷ 120

⇒ Remaining work after C alone = 1 − 37 ÷ 120

⇒ = 83 ÷ 120

⇒ C = (B + C) − B

⇒ First find B

⇒ (A + B + C) − (A + B) = C

⇒ C = 37 ÷ 480 − 1 ÷ 16

⇒ 1 ÷ 16 = 30 ÷ 480

⇒ C = 7 ÷ 480

⇒ Work by C in L min = L × 7 ÷ 480

⇒ L × 7 ÷ 480 = 83 ÷ 120

⇒ L × 7 = (83 ÷ 120) × 480

⇒ L × 7 = 83 × 4 = 332

⇒ L = 332 ÷ 7

⇒ L ≈ 47.43 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 332 ÷ 7 minutes.

The correct answer is Rajaraja I.

Key Points

• Rajaraja I was considered the most powerful and influential ruler of the Chola dynasty, which ruled South India during the medieval period.
• His reign lasted from 985 AD to 1014 AD, during which he expanded the Chola Empire to its greatest territorial extent.
• Rajaraja I was known for his administrative efficiency, military conquests, and contributions to art, architecture, and culture. He successfully annexed territories like Sri Lanka, the Maldives, and parts of the Deccan region.
• One of his most notable achievements was the construction of the Brihadeeswarar Temple at Thanjavur, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, which exemplifies the architectural brilliance of the Chola era.
• Under his reign, the Chola Empire became a major naval power, enabling trade and cultural exchange with Southeast Asia, including regions like Java, Sumatra, and Malaya.
• His effective governance and military strategies laid the foundation for the prosperity and dominance of the Chola dynasty for several centuries.

Additional Information

• Other Options Explained:
• Dantidurga: He was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty in South India. He ruled during the 8^th century and was known for establishing Rashtrakuta dominance in the Deccan region. However, he does not match the legacy of Rajaraja I in terms of territorial expansion or cultural contributions.
• Harshvardhan: A ruler from North India who belonged to the Pushyabhuti dynasty. He ruled during the 7^th century and was renowned for his patronage of art and literature. Harshvardhan's influence was significant in North India but unrelated to the Chola dynasty.
• Virarajendra Chola: He was a Chola ruler, but his reign came after Rajaraja I and was not as remarkable in terms of military conquests or cultural achievements compared to Rajaraja I.
• Chola Dynasty:
• The Chola dynasty was one of the longest-ruling dynasties in Indian history, with its origins dating back to the centuries before the Common Era.
• It reached its zenith under rulers like Rajaraja I and his successor, Rajendra Chola I, who further expanded the empire.
• The Chola rulers were known for their contributions to Tamil literature, art, and architecture, leaving behind monumental temples and sculptures.
• The Chola navy played a crucial role in establishing trade routes and cultural connections with Southeast Asia.
• Brihadeeswarar Temple:
• The Brihadeeswarar Temple is also known as the Rajarajeswaram and is located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu.
• It was constructed during the reign of Rajaraja I and is one of the largest temples in India.
• The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is an architectural marvel, showcasing the grandeur of Tamil temple architecture.
• It is part of the "Great Living Chola Temples" recognized by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site.
• Important Points:
• The Chola dynasty laid the foundation for efficient governance by introducing the village administration system, which was a precursor to modern local self-governance.
• Their contributions to Tamil literature, including works like Silappatikaram and Manimekalai, were immense.
• Rajaraja I's reign was marked by significant advancements in art, architecture, and the establishment of a powerful navy.
• The Cholas also focused on irrigation and agricultural development, ensuring economic prosperity during their rule.

The correct answer is Sayyids and Lodis.

Key Points

• Sayyid Dynasty (1414–1451):
• The Sayyid Dynasty succeeded the Tughlaq Dynasty after the fall of Delhi to the Timur invasion in 1398.
• Founded by Khizr Khan, the Sayyids ruled parts of Northern India, including Agra, though they were relatively weak rulers.
• They claimed to be descendants of the Prophet Muhammad, which legitimized their rule in the eyes of many Muslims.
• The Sayyid rulers were not able to consolidate power effectively, and their rule was marked by frequent rebellions and the rise of regional powers.
• Lodi Dynasty (1451–1526):
• Founded by Bahlul Khan Lodi, the Lodi Dynasty succeeded the Sayyids and was the last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
• The Lodis were of Afghan origin and significantly strengthened their hold over regions like Agra.
• Sikandar Lodi, one of the prominent rulers, founded the city of Agra in 1504 and made it an important political and cultural center.
• The dynasty's rule ended in 1526 when Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur at the Battle of Panipat, marking the beginning of the Mughal Empire.
• Connection to Agra:
• Agra's prominence grew during the Lodi Dynasty, particularly under Sikandar Lodi, who established it as a key administrative and cultural hub.
• The Sayyids and Lodis collectively ruled Agra during the transition period between the decline of the Tughlaqs and the rise of the Mughals.

Additional Information

• Sayyid Dynasty:
• The Sayyid Dynasty had four rulers: Khizr Khan, Mubarak Shah, Muhammad Shah, and Ala-ud-din Alam Shah.
• They primarily controlled Northern India but were unable to expand their territories significantly due to internal dissent and external threats.
• Their rule weakened the Delhi Sultanate, paving the way for the Lodis to emerge as strong rulers.
• Lodi Dynasty:
• The Lodi Dynasty was the first Afghan dynasty to rule over Delhi and its surrounding regions.
• They implemented administrative reforms and promoted trade and agriculture to strengthen their economy.
• Sikandar Lodi was known for his architectural contributions, including the establishment of Agra as a major city.
• The dynasty's decline was marked by internal conflicts and the inability to resist Babur's forces at Panipat.
• Historical Context of Agra:
• Agra was an important city even before the Mughal era, with its significance growing under the Lodis.
• It became a key strategic location due to its proximity to major trade routes and its fertile surrounding regions.
• Tughlaq Dynasty (Preceding Era):
• The Tughlaq Dynasty ruled Delhi from 1320 to 1414 and was known for its architectural innovations and military campaigns.
• It fell into decline due to administrative inefficiency, rebellions, and the invasion of Timur in 1398, which severely weakened the Sultanate.
• Battle of Panipat (1526):
• This battle marked the end of the Lodi Dynasty and the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
• Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi, bringing significant changes to the political and cultural landscape of Northern India.

Important Points

• Agra:
• Founded by Sikandar Lodi in 1504, it became a prominent city during the Lodi Dynasty.
• It later became the capital of the Mughal Empire and a center for art, culture, and architecture.
• Transition from Tughlaqs to Mughals:
• The period between the Tughlaq Dynasty's decline and the rise of the Mughal Empire saw significant political instability in Northern India.
• The Sayyids and Lodis played a critical role during this transitional phase, maintaining the Delhi Sultanate's legacy until its eventual fall.

The correct answer is Article 29.

Key Points

• Article 29 of the Indian Constitution ensures the protection of interests of minorities. It provides any section of the citizens with a distinct language, script, or culture the right to conserve the same.
• This article guarantees that the state shall not deny admission into educational institutions maintained by it or receiving aid from it on the grounds of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.
• Article 29(1): Protects the rights of any group of citizens to conserve their distinct language, script, or culture.
• Article 29(2): Prevents discrimination in admission to educational institutions based on religion, race, caste, language, or any of them, ensuring educational equality.
• This provision is significant in safeguarding the cultural and educational rights of minorities in India, contributing to India's diversity and inclusivity.

Additional Information

• Article 28:
• Relates to the freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in educational institutions.
• No religious instruction is permitted in institutions wholly maintained by the state.
• However, religious instruction is allowed in institutions administered by the state but established under any endowment or trust requiring such instruction.
• Article 24:
• Prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or any other hazardous employment.
• This is a fundamental right aimed at protecting children from exploitation.
• Article 31:
• Part of the Right to Property, this article was repealed by the 44^th Amendment Act of 1978.
• It is no longer a fundamental right but exists as a legal right under Article 300A.
• Importance of Article 29:
• It plays a crucial role in maintaining India's cultural diversity by allowing minority communities to protect and preserve their unique identity.
• Ensures that minorities are not discriminated against in educational opportunities, promoting inclusivity and equality.

Important Points

• Minority Rights in the Indian Constitution:
• Articles 29 and 30 together constitute the cultural and educational rights of minorities.
• Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
• National Commission for Minorities:
• Established in 1992 under the National Commission for Minorities Act, it ensures the safeguarding of minority rights.
• It monitors the implementation of safeguards for minorities provided in the Constitution and laws enacted by Parliament and state legislatures.
• UN Declaration on Minorities:
• Adopted in 1992, the United Nations Declaration on the Rights of Persons Belonging to National or Ethnic, Religious, and Linguistic Minorities highlights the importance of protecting minority rights globally.

The correct answer is July.

Key Points

• The National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020) was officially approved by the Union Cabinet of India on July 29, 2020.
• The NEP 2020 aims to overhaul India's educational framework and provides a comprehensive framework for both school education and higher education.
• Considering its approval in July 2020, the 5-year completion mark will fall in July 2025.
• The policy has introduced several landmark reforms such as multidisciplinary education, flexible curricula, holistic development, and the promotion of regional languages.
• The month of July is significant for NEP 2020 as it marks a pivotal shift in India's education system, aiming to align it with the 21^st-century global standards.

Additional Information

• Salient Features of NEP 2020:
• The NEP 2020 emphasizes a 5+3+3+4 structure for school education to replace the traditional 10+2 system, focusing on foundational, preparatory, middle, and secondary stages.
• It encourages the integration of vocational education from an early stage, starting from Grade 6.
• The policy aims for a 50% Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education by 2035 and proposes a Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) as a single regulatory body.
• It emphasizes teaching in regional languages wherever possible and the importance of mother tongue as the medium of instruction.
• NEP 2020 introduces the concept of Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) to facilitate credit transfer and promotes multidisciplinary education.
• Implementation Timeline:
• The policy has a long-term implementation timeline, with some reforms such as the common entrance exams for universities already in progress as of 2023.
• Full implementation of reforms in school and higher education is targeted for 2030.
• Key Reforms in Higher Education:
• The policy proposes the creation of large, multidisciplinary universities and colleges with at least 3000 students in each institution.
• It aims to phase out the system of affiliated colleges and move towards granting autonomy to colleges and universities.
• Global Alignment:
• The NEP 2020 aligns Indian education policies with global standards by promoting research, innovation, and fostering international partnerships in education.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• The NEP 2020 replaced the earlier National Policy on Education, 1986, which was modified in 1992.
• It is the third education policy of independent India, following policies in 1968 and 1986.
• Focus on Inclusivity:
• NEP 2020 emphasizes inclusivity by addressing gender gaps, promoting the education of economically disadvantaged groups (EDGs), and ensuring access to quality education for all children.
• The policy proposes the establishment of a Gender Inclusion Fund to assist in the education of girls and transgender children.
• Technology Integration:
• NEP 2020 highlights the importance of digital infrastructure and the use of technology in education.
• It proposes the establishment of a National Educational Technology Forum (NETF) to enable the use of technology in education planning and learning.

The correct answer is 17.

Key Points

• National Defence Academy (NDA) witnessed its first-ever batch of female cadets passing out in 2023.
• A total of 17 female cadets successfully graduated from the NDA, marking a historic moment in the academy's history.
• This became possible after the Supreme Court of India in 2021 directed the admission of women into the NDA, ensuring gender equality in defence recruitment.
• The female cadets were trained alongside their male counterparts, following the same rigorous curriculum that includes physical, academic, and leadership training.
• The inclusion of women in the NDA is a significant step toward achieving gender inclusivity in the Indian Armed Forces.

Additional Information

• National Defence Academy (NDA):
• The NDA is a joint services academy of the Indian Armed Forces, located in Khadakwasla, Pune, Maharashtra.
• It is the first tri-service academy in the world, where cadets from the Army, Navy, and Air Force train together before moving on to their respective service academies for further pre-commissioning training.
• Established in 1954, the NDA has been pivotal in shaping some of India's finest military leaders.
• Supreme Court's Directive for Women:
• In 2021, the Supreme Court of India passed a landmark judgment allowing women to appear for the NDA entrance exam.
• This decision was a step forward in ensuring gender equality and providing women with equal opportunities to serve in the armed forces.
• The judgment aimed at breaking gender stereotypes and encouraging women to participate in key roles in national defence.
• Training at NDA:
• The training at the NDA is one of the most rigorous and comprehensive in the world, focusing on physical fitness, academics, and leadership skills.
• It prepares cadets for their roles as officers in the Indian Armed Forces and instills a sense of discipline, camaraderie, and patriotism.
• Female cadets undergo the same training regimen as their male counterparts, including obstacle courses, weapon training, and tactical exercises.
• Impact of Women in Defence:
• The inclusion of women in the NDA is a significant milestone, paving the way for gender inclusivity in the armed forces.
• It ensures that women have the opportunity to serve in combat roles and other critical positions, contributing to the nation's security.
• This initiative aligns with global trends where women are actively participating in defence and security roles in various countries.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• Prior to 2021, women were not eligible to join the NDA and could only enter the armed forces through other routes, such as the Officers Training Academy (OTA) or Short Service Commission (SSC).
• The Supreme Court's directive was a landmark moment in the history of India's defence recruitment policies.
• Eligibility for Women in NDA:
• Women candidates must meet the same eligibility criteria as men, including age, educational qualifications, and physical standards.
• They must pass the NDA entrance examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
• Global Perspective:
• Countries like the United States, United Kingdom, and Israel have long included women in their armed forces, with many serving in combat roles.
• India's decision to allow women into the NDA is aligned with these global practices, showcasing its commitment to gender equality in defence.

The correct answer is AI-skilling grades 6–12 school students.

Key Points

• The SOAR initiative, launched by the Indian Government in July 2025, focuses on AI-skilling students from grades 6 to 12, aiming to prepare the younger generation for the future workforce driven by Artificial Intelligence (AI).
• It specifically targets school students aged between 11–18 years to ensure early exposure to AI technologies and applications, fostering innovation, creativity, and problem-solving skills.
• The initiative is part of India’s larger strategy to strengthen its position as a global AI hub, ensuring that the youth are equipped with cutting-edge technological knowledge.
• The program includes AI-specific training modules, hands-on workshops, and real-world problem-solving exercises, making AI concepts accessible and practical for school-aged learners.
• Implementation partners for this initiative include leading tech companies, educational institutions, and government bodies, ensuring a robust and scalable framework for AI skill development.

Additional Information

• Artificial Intelligence (AI) in Education:
• AI in education involves using machine learning algorithms and data-driven technologies to enhance learning experiences.
• AI applications include personalized learning systems, virtual tutors, adaptive assessments, and gamified learning platforms.
• Globally, countries like USA, China, and Singapore have implemented AI-education strategies to prepare students for the Fourth Industrial Revolution.
• India’s National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 also emphasizes the integration of emerging technologies like AI in school curriculums.
• AI Skilling Initiatives in India:
• Government programs like Responsible AI for Youth, launched in 2020, aim to train students in AI concepts.
• Private organizations like Microsoft, Google, and Intel partner with schools to offer AI literacy programs.
• AI skilling is crucial to meet the growing demand for AI professionals in sectors like healthcare, finance, transportation, and education.
• Key Features of the SOAR Initiative:
• Curriculum: The AI curriculum under SOAR focuses on core AI concepts, including machine learning, data analysis, natural language processing, and robotics.
• Delivery Mode: Training is provided through a combination of online platforms and in-person workshops, ensuring accessibility for students across urban and rural regions.
• Incentives: Students participating in the program are offered certificates and opportunities to participate in hackathons and innovation challenges.
• Global AI Education Trends:
• Countries like Estonia and Finland have integrated AI education into their national curriculums, focusing on AI literacy and coding.
• UNESCO encourages AI in education to bridge the digital divide and foster equitable learning opportunities.

Important Points

• Other Options:
• Training women entrepreneurs in e-commerce: This focuses on enhancing digital literacy and business skills among women. However, it is not related to the SOAR initiative.
• Upskilling artisans under PM Vishwakarma: This program is meant for traditional artisans and craftspeople to enhance their skills, unrelated to AI training.
• Vocational training for gig workers: This targets gig economy workers to improve their employability. It does not focus on AI-skilling school students.
• AI is a rapidly growing field, with applications in healthcare, education, transportation, and finance, making it a crucial area for youth training to meet future demands.
• The SOAR initiative aligns with India’s vision of becoming a global leader in AI innovation and adoption.

The correct answer is 2020-21 to 2023-24.

Key Points

• The National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM) was launched by the Government of India to promote the growth of the technical textiles sector in the country.
• The mission was approved for a period from 2020-21 to 2023-24 with a total outlay of Rs. 1,480 crore.
• The mission aims to position India as a global leader in technical textiles and increase the domestic market size from Rs. 40,000 crore to Rs. 2 lakh crore by 2024-25.
• It focuses on research, innovation, and development in technical textiles, promoting the use of these textiles in various sectors such as agriculture, health, infrastructure, and defense.
• The mission is divided into four components: Research, Innovation and Development; Promotion and Market Development; Education and Training; and Export Promotion.

Additional Information

• Technical Textiles:
• Technical textiles are textile materials and products used for their functional properties rather than aesthetic purposes.
• Examples include geotextiles, medical textiles, agro-textiles, and protective textiles.
• These materials are essential for sectors such as construction, agriculture, healthcare, and transportation.
• Objectives of NTTM:
• To develop indigenous machinery and promote research in technical textiles.
• To improve the availability and affordability of raw materials for technical textiles.
• To provide training and skill development programs to meet the demand for skilled manpower.
• Market Growth:
• The global market for technical textiles is estimated to grow at a CAGR of 4%–5%, providing immense opportunities for India.
• India’s share in the global technical textiles market is expected to increase with the implementation of the mission.
• Government Support:
• The mission emphasizes policy support, including the development of standards and regulations to boost the domestic industry.
• Incentives and subsidies are provided to encourage investment in technical textiles production and innovation.

Important Points

• Geotextiles: Used in civil engineering projects like road construction and drainage systems to improve soil stability.
• Medical Textiles: Include products like surgical gowns, bandages, and implants used in healthcare.
• Agro-textiles: Used in agriculture for crop protection, weed control, and soil stabilization.
• Protective Textiles: Provide protection against hazards like fire, chemicals, and extreme temperatures, essential for defense and industrial sectors.
• The National Technical Textiles Mission is a significant step towards making India self-reliant (Aatmanirbhar) in the textile sector and boosting exports.

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

• The State Mining Readiness Index is an initiative introduced by the NITI Aayog to evaluate the mining sector's performance across Indian states.
• The index is based on 7 indicators that collectively measure the mining readiness of states in terms of policies, infrastructure, and governance.
• These indicators include aspects like geological potential, policy environment, ease of doing business, infrastructure availability, and environmental and social sustainability.
• The index aims to foster competition among states to improve their mining ecosystems and attract investments in the sector.
• The evaluation is conducted using a structured framework, ensuring transparency and uniformity across states.
• This initiative plays a vital role in promoting sustainable mining practices and optimizing resource utilization.

Additional Information

• Indicators in the State Mining Readiness Index:
• Geological Potential: Measures the availability and quality of mineral resources in a state.
• Policy Environment: Evaluates the effectiveness of policies and regulations governing the mining sector.
• Ease of Doing Business: Assesses the administrative framework and processes that facilitate mining operations.
• Infrastructure Availability: Looks into transportation, power, and other infrastructure crucial for mining activities.
• Environmental Sustainability: Reviews measures to minimize environmental degradation caused by mining.
• Social Sustainability: Examines efforts to ensure community welfare and stakeholder engagement.
• Financial and Investment Climate: Analyzes the ease of attracting investments into the mining sector.
• Importance of State Mining Readiness Index:
• Encourages states to adopt best practices in mining governance.
• Helps in identifying gaps and improving policies for sustainable mining.
• Attracts investments by providing a clear performance assessment of states.
• Facilitates inter-state competition, driving innovation and efficiency in the mining sector.
• Recent Developments in Indian Mining Sector:
• The Government of India has introduced reforms such as commercial coal mining and amendments to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act to boost the sector.
• Investments in technology for exploration and extraction have been prioritized to enhance efficiency.
• States like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Jharkhand are leading in mining activities due to their rich mineral reserves.
• Global Mining Practices:
• Countries like Australia and Canada are known for their advanced mining technologies and sustainable practices.
• India is working towards aligning its mining policies with global standards to improve competitiveness.

Important Points

• Role of NITI Aayog: NITI Aayog plays a pivotal role in developing frameworks for indices like the State Mining Readiness Index to ensure uniformity and transparency.
• Focus on Sustainability: The index emphasizes sustainable mining practices, balancing economic growth with environmental and social responsibilities.
• Strategic Importance: Mining contributes significantly to India's GDP and supports various industries like steel, cement, and power.
• State Performance: States with better governance, infrastructure, and policies tend to score higher on the index.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• The first-ever Export Preparedness Index (EPI) in India was launched in the year 2020 by the NITI Aayog, in collaboration with the Institute of Competitiveness.
• The Export Preparedness Index aims to evaluate the export readiness of Indian states and Union Territories (UTs).
• The index is structured around four pillars: Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem, and Export Performance.
• Gujarat topped the rankings in the inaugural edition of the EPI 2020, followed by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
• The goal of the index is to foster a competitive and conducive export environment across all states and UTs, thereby helping them identify areas of improvement.

Additional Information

• Objectives of the Export Preparedness Index:
• To examine the performance of Indian states and UTs in enhancing export competitiveness.
• To identify challenges and opportunities to improve state-wise and national export performance.
• To provide a framework for policy-makers to design and implement export strategies at the sub-national level.
• Four Pillars of the Index:
• Policy: Examines the export-related policies of states and their effectiveness in promoting exports.
• Business Ecosystem: Evaluates the ease of doing business, infrastructure, and the availability of a supportive ecosystem for industries.
• Export Ecosystem: Assesses the export infrastructure and the specific strategies implemented to boost exports.
• Export Performance: Analyzes the export trends and growth from the respective states and UTs.
• Top Performers of EPI 2020:
• Gujarat: Ranked first due to strong policies and robust infrastructure for exports.
• Maharashtra: Secured the second position owing to its diverse industrial base and export-oriented policies.
• Tamil Nadu: Ranked third, benefiting from its strong manufacturing sector and export-friendly environment.
• Significance of the Index:
• Helps identify bottlenecks in state-level export promotion strategies.
• Encourages states to develop export-oriented policies tailored to their unique strengths.
• Supports the central government's vision of making India a global export hub.

Important Points

• NITI Aayog:
• The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) was established in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission.
• It serves as a policy think tank for the Government of India, focusing on sustainable development and inclusive growth.
• India’s Export Performance:
• India is one of the world's largest exporters in sectors like textiles, pharmaceuticals, and IT services.
• The government aims to increase India's share in global trade through initiatives like Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat.
• Export Promotion Schemes:
• Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS): A scheme to incentivize exporters by providing duty credit scrips.
• Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP): Aims to refund embedded taxes and duties incurred during the production process.