SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 26 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The sentence contains a grammatical error in the phrase "The more a culture expand."
• The verb "expand" should be in its singular form "expands" to agree with the singular subject "a culture."
• In sentences that follow this comparative structure ("The more... the less"), subject-verb agreement must be maintained for grammatical correctness.
• Thus, the error lies in Option 1.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The more a culture expands, the less chance there is that it will become extinct."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "the less chance there is" – This part is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "that it will become extinct" – This part is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 4: "No correction required" – This is incorrect because there is an error in Option 1.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. We need fewer volunteers this time.

Key Points

• The word "fewer" is used for countable nouns (things you can count individually, like books, people, or volunteers).
• The word "less" is used for uncountable nouns (things that are seen as a mass or bulk quantity and cannot be counted individually, like water, sugar, or air).
• In Option 3, "volunteers" is a countable noun, so "fewer" is the correct grammatical choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Books" are countable. It should be: "She has fewer books than I do."
• Option 2: "Sugar" is uncountable. It should be: "There is less sugar in the jar."
• Option 4: While we count currency, the word "money" itself is treated as an uncountable mass noun. It should be: "He has less money than his brother." (Note: You would use "fewer" for specific units, like "fewer dollars").

The correct answer is 'over'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "over" is commonly used to indicate the subject of an investigation, disagreement, or concern.
• In this sentence, "over" is the most appropriate choice to connect "investigation" with "financial irregularities."
• Options 1 (for), 3 (on), and 4 (about) are incorrect in this context as they do not fit the intended meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The company is under investigation over financial irregularities."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "for" is incorrect as it implies a purpose or reason, which does not align with the context of an investigation.
• Option 3: "on" is incorrect as it is less commonly used to describe the subject of an investigation.
• Option 4: "about" is incorrect because it is too informal and does not fit the formal tone of the sentence.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. smoke and mirrors.

Key Points

• The phrase "smoke and mirrors" refers to an act of deception, often to make something appear different from what it actually is. (धोखा या भ्रम उत्पन्न करने की क्रिया)
• Example: The company's promises of huge profits turned out to be nothing but smoke and mirrors.
• The given sentence highlights how the politician's speech was deceptive and full of illusions but lacked substance.
• Example: The politician's speech was full of vague promises, but ultimately it was just smoke and mirrors. (राजनेता का भाषण अस्पष्ट वादों से भरा था, लेकिन अंततः यह सिर्फ धोखा था।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. smoke and mirrors.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Pulling strings (रस्सियाँ खींचना): To secretly use influence or power to achieve a goal.
• Example: He got the job because his father was pulling strings for him. (उसे नौकरी मिली क्योंकि उसके पिता उसके लिए रस्सियाँ खींच रहे थे।)
• A red herring (ध्यान भटकाने वाली चीज): Something that misleads or distracts from the main issue.
• Example: The detective realized that the clue was just a red herring to mislead the investigation. (जासूस ने महसूस किया कि सुराग सिर्फ ध्यान भटकाने के लिए था।)
• The last straw (आखिरी बूँद): The final problem or difficulty that makes a situation unbearable.
• Example: Her rude comment was the last straw, and I decided to end the friendship. (उसकी अशिष्ट टिप्पणी आखिरी बूँद थी, और मैंने दोस्ती खत्म करने का फैसला किया।)

The correct answer is option 4 i.e., Forecast.

Key Points

• The word 'Forecast' is correctly spelled and refers to a prediction or estimate of future events, especially weather or financial trends.
• The other options provided are either misspelled or do not exist in standard English vocabulary.
• For Example - The weather forecast predicts heavy rain tomorrow.

Additional Information

• Forcast: Incorrect spelling of 'Forecast'.
• Forecase: Incorrect spelling and does not have any meaning in English.
• Forcaust: Incorrect spelling and does not have any meaning in English.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The correctly spelt word among the options is 'Vogue.'
• Vogue is a noun meaning "the prevailing fashion or style at a particular time" or "general acceptance or favor." (फैशन या लोकप्रियता)
• Examples of usage:
• The magazine is famous for showcasing the latest vogue in the fashion industry.
• The use of eco-friendly products is coming into vogue these days.
• The other options are incorrect because they are misspellings:
• Voug: Incorrect spelling.
• Vougue: Incorrect spelling.
• Vog: Incorrect spelling.

Additional Information

• The word Vogue originated from the Old French word "voguer," which means "to sail or to be in fashion."
• It is widely used in contexts related to fashion, trends, or popularity.
• Synonyms for vogue include trend, fashion, style, and fad.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. 'down the canal'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "down the canal" is the most appropriate replacement for the underlined part as it indicates the movement of the paper boat along the canal in the direction towards the lake.
• The option "in the canal" is incorrect because it suggests a general location rather than directional movement.
• The option "over the canal" is incorrect because it implies the paper boat is floating above the canal, which is contextually inappropriate.
• The phrase "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence lacks the directional clarity provided by "down the canal."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "I watched the paper boat float down the canal towards the lake."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "in the canal" is incorrect as it fails to describe directional movement and instead suggests a static location.
• Option 3: "over the canal" is incorrect because it implies the boat is floating above the canal, which is illogical in this context.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect since the original sentence lacks clarity and needs improvement for precision.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. He was feeling well after a week of illness.

Key Points

• The word "well" has two main meanings:
• Meaning 1 (Adverb): "Well" means in a good or satisfactory way. (अच्छा)
• Example: He was feeling well after a week of illness.
• Meaning 2 (Noun): "Well" refers to a deep hole or shaft dug into the ground to obtain water or oil. (कुआं)
• Example: The well had dried up due to the drought.
• In the given sentence, the homonym "well" is used as an adverb, meaning "feeling good or healthy."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. He was feeling well after a week of illness.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: The well had dried up due to drought (कुआं सूखे के कारण सूख गया था।)
• Here, "well" is used as a noun referring to a water source.
• Example: The villagers were worried as the well had dried up completely.
• Option 3: She lowered the bucket into the deep well (उसने बाल्टी को गहरे कुएं में नीचे किया।)
• In this sentence, "well" is again used as a noun referring to a deep hole for water.
• Example: The old man showed her how to draw water from the well.
• Option 4: They built a stone wall around the old well (उन्होंने पुराने कुएं के चारों ओर पत्थर की दीवार बनाई।)
• Here, "well" is used as a noun referring to the structure for water storage.
• Example: The stone wall was built to prevent accidents near the well.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The sentence provided is in indirect speech, where the reporting verb "said" has been used.
• Key Conversion:
• The direct speech, "The library will be supplied with sufficient number of books within one month," is converted to indirect speech by changing "will" to "would" to maintain the sequence of tenses.
• The phrase "the library will be supplied" becomes "the library would be supplied" in indirect narration.
• The rest of the sentence remains the same as it does not require additional changes for accurate indirect narration.
• Punctuation and Format:
• In indirect speech, quotation marks are removed.
• The sentence is restructured with the reporting verb followed by the indirect statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: The officer said that the library would be supplied with sufficient number of books within one month.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: The officer said that the library must be supplied with sufficient number of books within one month.
• Incorrect as "must" changes the modality and meaning of the sentence, implying an obligation rather than a statement of future supply.
• Option 3: The officer said that the library has to be supplied with sufficient number of books within one month.
• Incorrect as "has to be supplied" uses present tense, which does not align with the past reporting verb "said."
• Option 4: The officer said that the library ought to be supplied with sufficient number of books within one month.
• Incorrect as "ought to be supplied" changes the tone of the statement, indicating a suggestion or moral obligation rather than a factual statement.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• To convert a sentence from passive voice to active voice, the subject of the passive sentence becomes the object in the active sentence, and the object of the passive sentence becomes the subject.
• The given sentence in the passive voice is: "The report is being reviewed by the manager."
• Here, "The report" is the subject in the passive sentence, and "the manager" is the agent performing the action.
• To convert it to active voice, make "the manager" the subject and "the report" the object.
• The verb form "is being reviewed" in the passive voice is changed to "is reviewing" in the active voice to maintain the present continuous tense.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The manager is reviewing the report."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The manager reviews the report." – Incorrect because it changes the tense to present simple instead of maintaining the present continuous tense.
• Option 2: "The report is reviewing the manager." – Incorrect because it reverses the roles of the subject and object, leading to an illogical sentence.
• Option 4: "The manager had reviewed the report." – Incorrect because it changes the tense to past perfect instead of present continuous.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Direct Speech: The sentence is converted from indirect speech to direct speech while keeping the meaning intact.
• Correct Conversion:
• Indirect Speech: "He begged me to give him another chance."
• Direct Speech: "He said, "Please give me another chance.""
• Here, the word "begged" is appropriately represented by "Please" in the direct speech format.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• The word "Please" conveys the request tone effectively.
• The reporting clause, "He said," is placed before the quoted speech and is followed by a comma.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "He said, "Please give me another chance.""

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "He begged me, "Can you give me another chance?""
• This option changes the tone of the sentence from a request to a question, which is inaccurate.
• Option 3: "He begged, "I need another chance please.""
• This option alters the structure of the original sentence and does not accurately convey the request tone.
• Option 4: "He said to me, "You should give me another chance.""
• This option changes the meaning of the original sentence by turning it into a suggestion rather than a request.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'citeriya'.

• The correct spelling would be 'criteria'.
• The word 'criteria' is a noun which means 'a principle or standard by which something may be judged or decided'. (मापदंड)
• For Example -
• The criteria for selecting the best candidate include both technical skills and communication abilities.

Therefore, the correct sentence would be:

One of the criteria they used was the candidate's ability to adapt to new challenges.

Additional Information

Let's understand the correct usage of 'criteria':

• Criteria is the plural form of the word 'criterion', which refers to a single standard or principle.
• It is incorrect to use 'criteria' when referring to a single standard; instead, 'criterion' should be used.
• For Example -
• Correct: The main criterion for this job is experience.
• Correct: The criteria for the awards are clearly outlined in the document.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. 'so'.

 

Key Points

• The highlighted sentence describes a cause-and-effect relationship between two clauses: "The sun is shining bright" (cause) and "it will be possible to go out for a walk" (effect).
• The correct conjunction to establish this cause-and-effect relationship is "so."
• Options 2, 3, and 4 do not fit the context:
• Option 2: "while" is used to indicate simultaneous actions or contrast, which is not the case here.
• Option 3: "when" is used to refer to a specific time, which is irrelevant in this context.
• Option 4: "hence" is used to indicate a conclusion, but it does not fit the sentence grammatically.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The sun is shining bright, so it will be possible to go out for a walk."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "while" is used to show simultaneous actions or contrast, such as "While I was cooking, she was reading."
• Option 3: "when" is used to refer to a specific time, such as "I was happy when I won the prize."
• Option 4: "hence" is used to indicate a conclusion but cannot replace "so" grammatically in this sentence.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The original sentence ("...will have been produced by...") is in the passive voice (Future Perfect Passive).
• To transform it into the active voice, the agent following "by" (the esteemed director) becomes the subject.
• The verb form must change from "will have been produced" (passive) to "will have produced" (active) to maintain the Future Perfect tense.
• The original subject ("The highly anticipated sequel...") becomes the direct object of the active sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence (Active): "The esteemed director will have produced the highly anticipated sequel to the blockbuster movie."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "The esteemed director will produce..." – Incorrect tense (Future Simple).
• Option 3: "The esteemed director has produced..." – Incorrect tense (Present Perfect).
• Option 4: "The esteemed director will be producing..." – Incorrect tense (Future Continuous).

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Mental health has not failed to emerge...
• To change an affirmative sentence into a negative one without changing its meaning, we often use a double negative or an antonym.
• The phrase "has not failed to emerge" is logically equivalent to "has emerged." By using "not" + "failed," the sentence becomes grammatically negative while maintaining the original factual statement.
• Option 2: Mental health has not emerged...
• This is incorrect because it directly contradicts the original passage. It changes the meaning from "it is a component" to "it is not a component."
• Option 3: Mental health doesn’t emerge...
• This is incorrect. Similar to Option 2, it changes the meaning to a negative fact. Additionally, it changes the tense from Present Perfect ("has emerged") to Simple Present ("doesn't emerge").
• Option 4: Mental health never emerged...
• This is incorrect. It changes the meaning to suggest that the event never happened at all, which is the opposite of the author's intent.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Transformation Rules: When converting Affirmative to Negative without changing meaning:
• Use Not + Antonym: (e.g., "He is a good boy" becomes "He is not a bad boy").
• Use Double Negatives: (e.g., "I remember you" becomes "I do not forget you").
• Context: In the passage, the author highlights mental health as a positive, emerging priority. Option 1 is the only one that upholds this perspective while satisfying the grammatical requirement for a negative word ("not").

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• Option 2: Maintaining mental wellness is asserted by experts to require conscious effort and self-awareness.
• This sentence uses the "Personal Passive" structure. When a sentence contains a reporting verb (like assert, believe, say, think) followed by a "that" clause, it can be made passive by taking the subject of the second clause ("Maintaining mental wellness") and making it the subject of the passive sentence.
• The formula used here is: Subject (of clause) + Passive Reporting Verb + To-Infinitive.
• Option 1: Conscious effort and self-awareness are asserted...
• This is incorrect. It attempts to make the objects of the subordinate clause the subject of the entire sentence, which makes the construction awkward and less direct than Option 2.
• Option 3: Maintaining mental wellness has been asserted...
• This is incorrect because it changes the tense. The original sentence is in the Simple Present ("assert"), but this option uses the Present Perfect ("has been asserted").
• Option 4: Conscious effort and self-awareness require to be asserted...
• This is incorrect as it changes the meaning of the sentence. It suggests that the effort itself needs to be asserted by experts, rather than the experts making a statement about mental wellness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Impersonal Passive: Another way to make this sentence passive (though not provided as an option) would be: "It is asserted by experts that maintaining mental wellness requires conscious effort and self-awareness."
• Voice Consistency: When transforming sentences with multiple clauses, the priority is to maintain the original tense and ensure the logical relationship between the "doer" (experts) and the "action" (asserting) remains clear.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Relieve.

Key Points

• The word "alleviate" means:
• To make something less severe or relieve it. (कम करना या राहत देना)
• Example: The medication helped to alleviate the patient's pain.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured her a perfect score.
• CopyCopy

Therefore, the correct answer is: Relieve.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Worsen (बिगाड़ना): To make something worse or more severe.
• Example: Ignoring the problem will only worsen the situation.
• Increase (बढ़ाना): To make something larger in quantity, degree, or level.
• Example: The company plans to increase its production next year.
• Prolong (लंबा करना): To extend the duration of something.
• Example: Stress can prolong recovery time after surgery.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Reactive.

Key Points

• The word "proactive" means:
• Taking action by causing change and not only reacting to change when it happens. (सक्रिय उपाय)
• Example: The management team is proactive in identifying potential problems and addressing them before they arise.
• The word "reactive" means:
• Acting in response to a situation rather than creating or controlling it. (प्रतिक्रियाशील)
• Example: Instead of being proactive, he prefers to be reactive and deal with issues as they come.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Reactive.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Positive (सकारात्मक): Having a good effect or favorable.
• Example: She has a positive attitude towards life.
• Aggressive (आक्रामक): Ready to attack or confront; forcefully pursuing aims.
• Example: He took an aggressive approach to secure the deal.
• Responsible (जिम्मेदार): Having an obligation to do something as part of a job or role.
• Example: Being responsible for the team's success is important.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• Option 2: Encouraging open discussions about mental health at work can have a positive effect on overall work performance.
• This is the most reasonable inference. The passage explicitly links "supportive environments" and "discussions" to "higher productivity." Since productivity is a key measure of work performance, the positive correlation is directly supported by the text.
• Option 1: Productivity and job satisfaction... are determined only by the mental health of employees.
• This is incorrect. The word "only" makes this statement too absolute. While mental health is a factor, the passage does not suggest it is the sole determinant of productivity.
• Option 3: Employees will always be productive if they are given a supportive work environment.
• This is incorrect. The passage uses the phrase "tend to witness," which indicates a general trend or likelihood, not a guaranteed "always."
• Option 4: Workplaces that ignore mental health issues are still likely to have high productivity levels.
• This is incorrect. This contradicts the logical flow of the passage, which suggests that addressing mental health is what leads to higher productivity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Making Inferences: A valid inference must be logically derived from the facts presented without adding outside information or making the statement more extreme (e.g., changing "tend to" into "always" or "only").
• Correlation: The passage establishes a positive correlation between employee wellness initiatives and organizational outcomes (productivity and satisfaction).

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The given sentences describe the process of forging a strong, beautiful piece of metal, and the sequence must reflect the logical order of actions in the process.
• Sentence P is the first step in the process, where the steel is heated in the forge until it glows bright orange:
• "He heated a bar of steel in the forge until it glowed a bright, brilliant orange."
• Sentence Q follows as the second step, where the hot metal is hammered and shaped on the anvil:
• "He hammered the hot metal on the anvil, shaping it into the form he desired."
• Sentence S comes next as the third step, where the forged object is described as a strong and beautiful piece, reflecting the result of the forging process:
• "The forged object was a strong, beautiful piece, born of fire and brute force."
• Sentence R is the final step, where the finished piece is tempered in oil to enhance its strength and durability:
• "He tempered the finished piece, dipping it in oil to give it strength and durability."
• The correct sequence is P, Q, S, R.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"He heated a bar of steel in the forge until it glowed a bright, brilliant orange. He hammered the hot metal on the anvil, shaping it into the form he desired. The forged object was a strong, beautiful piece, born of fire and brute force. He tempered the finished piece, dipping it in oil to give it strength and durability."

The correct answer is: Exhausted.

Key Points

• The word "Indefatigable" means someone who is untiring or possesses great stamina and energy to keep going without showing signs of fatigue. (थकान रहित, अथक)
• Example: Her indefatigable efforts in helping the poor earned her widespread respect.
• "Exhausted" refers to someone who is extremely tired and drained of energy. (थका हुआ)
• Example: After running the marathon, he was completely exhausted and needed rest.
• Hence, "Exhausted" is the antonym of "Indefatigable," as it conveys the opposite meaning of being very tired instead of untiring.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Exhausted.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Tenacious (दृढ़): Refers to someone who is very determined and persistent in achieving their goals.
• Example: His tenacious attitude helped him overcome all the challenges in his career.
• Dogged (ज़िद्दी): Means showing persistent determination or stubbornness in pursuing something.
• Example: Her dogged pursuit of justice finally paid off after years of effort.
• Relentless (निरंतर, कठोर): Describes someone or something that is unyielding, harsh, or persistent without stopping.
• Example: The relentless heat of the desert made survival extremely difficult.

The correct answer is: 1) Climax.

Key Points

• The word "Crescendo" refers to a gradual increase in intensity, force, or loudness, especially in a musical or emotional context. (चढ़ाव/चरम बिंदु)
• Example: The orchestra's performance reached a crescendo with the final, powerful note.
• In the given sentence, "Her voice rose in a crescendo of desperation," it implies that her voice progressively grew louder and more intense.
• The nearest meaning to "crescendo" is "Climax", which refers to the peak or most intense point of something. (पराकाष्ठा)
• Example: The movie reached its climax during the thrilling final battle scene.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Climax.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Decline (गिरावट): A gradual decrease or reduction in strength, quality, or number.
• Example: The decline in his health was evident after the accident.
• Whisper (फुसफुसाहट): To speak very softly using one's breath rather than one's voice, so as to be heard only by a few people.
• Example: She leaned in to whisper a secret to her friend.
• Pause (विराम): A temporary stop or break in action or speech.
• Example: There was a long pause before he answered the question.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Attempted.

Key Points

• The word "Endeavoured" means to try hard to do or achieve something. (प्रयास करना)
• Example: The athlete endeavoured to break the world record despite the challenges.
• "Attempted" is the word closest in meaning to "endeavoured," as it also refers to making an effort to achieve something. (कोशिश करना)
• Example: She attempted to climb the mountain, but the weather conditions forced her to stop halfway.
• Hence, the correct word is Attempted (कोशिश करना).

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Attempted.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Avoided (बचना): To keep away from or stop oneself from doing something.
• Example: He avoided answering the difficult question by changing the topic.
• Refused (इंकार किया): To indicate or show that one is not willing to do something.
• Example: She refused to participate in the event due to personal reasons.
• Ignored (अनदेखा करना): To deliberately pay no attention to someone or something.
• Example: He ignored the warning signs and continued driving recklessly.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Potable.

Key Points

• The word "Potable" refers to water that is safe and suitable for drinking. (पेय जल)
• Example: In many rural areas, access to potable water remains a significant challenge.
• Potable water is free from harmful chemicals, bacteria, and other contaminants, making it safe for human consumption.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Potable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Distilled (डिस्टिल्ड): Water that has been purified by boiling it into vapor and then condensing it back into liquid. It is free of impurities but not necessarily safe for drinking as it lacks essential minerals.
• Example: Distilled water is often used in laboratories and car batteries.
• Irrigated (सिंचित): Refers to water used for agricultural purposes, typically to supply water to crops.
• Example: The farmers irrigated their fields using water from the nearby river.
• Deionized (डिओनाइज्ड): Water that has had its mineral ions removed, often used in industrial applications or laboratories, but it is not necessarily potable.
• Example: Deionized water is commonly used in car washes to avoid water spots.

The correct answer is: Cynic.

Key Points

• The word "Cynic" refers to a person who believes that people are motivated purely by self-interest rather than acting for honorable or unselfish reasons. (निंदक)
• Example: A cynic might argue that charity events are just publicity stunts for celebrities.
• In the given sentence, the phrase describes someone who is distrustful of human integrity or morality, which matches the definition of "Cynic." (निंदक)
• Example: He was labeled a cynic for doubting the sincerity of the politician's promises.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Cynic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Idealist (आदर्शवादी): A person who is guided by ideals, often unrealistically, rather than by practical considerations.
• Example: As an idealist, she believed that education could solve all societal problems.
• Optimist (आशावादी): A person who tends to be hopeful and confident about the future or the success of something.
• Example: An optimist would see the glass as half full rather than half empty.
• Humanitarian (मानवतावादी): A person who seeks to promote human welfare and social reform.
• Example: The humanitarian was dedicated to providing aid to war-torn regions.

Given Equation: 9 % 8 ^ 5 # 4 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the signs from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 9 × 8 + 5 ÷ 4

⇒ 9 × 8 + 5/4

⇒ 72 + 5/4

⇒ 293/4

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

Given:

Total number of people in the line = 60

Suresh is 22nd from the front.

Mahesh is 18th from the back.

Convert Mahesh’s position from the front:

Position from front = Total people - Position from back + 1

= 60 - 18 + 1

= 43

So, Mahesh is 43rd from the front.

Now, number of people between Suresh and Mahesh:

= 43 - 22 - 1

= 21 - 1

= 20

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Total street lights = 28

A faulty street light is 11th from the left.

The formula for position from the right is:

Position from Right = Total items - Position from Left + 1

Position from the right = 28 - 11 + 1

= 17 + 1

= 18th

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is,

-501 - 14 = -515

-515 - 14 = -529

-529 - 14 = -543

-543 - 14 = -557

-557 - 14 = -571

-571 - 14 = -585

-585 - 14 = -599

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

16 × 2 + 3 = 35 

<br>

35 × 2 + 4 = 74

<br>

74 × 2 + 3 = 151

<br>

151 × 2 + 4 = 306

306 × 2 + 3 = 615

<br>

615 × 2 + 4 = 1234

1234 × 2 + 3 = 2468 + 3 = 2471

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Here,

! → ÷ 

$ → +

689 $ 32 ! 16 = 691 

689 + 32 ÷ 16 = 689 + 2 = 691

697 $ 100 ! 10 = 707

697 + 100 ÷ 10 = 697 + 10 = 707

Similarly,

 299 $ 39 ! 13?

299 + 39 ÷ 13 = 299 + 3 = 302

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Mirror image of the given figure,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

A piece of paper will appear when opened,

<br> <br>

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

A piece of paper will appear when opened,

<br> <br>

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Five friends Avi, Ani, Asif, Anu and Asa were born in different consecutive years starting from 2001. 

1. Anu was neither born in 2002 nor in 2005. 2. Avi is the oldest of all. 3. Ani is younger than Asa. 4. Asif was born in a leap year. 

 

Asa born in 2002.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

There should be Q20 in place of R15.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

2 + 4 = 6

6 + 6 = 12

12 + 8 = 20

20 + 10 = 30

30 + 12 = 42

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic:

Row wise → First number × second number × third number × 2 = Fourth number

Row 1 →

4 × 6 × 5 × 2 = 240

Row 2 →

5 × 2 × 3 × 2 = 60

Row 3 →

? × 2 × 3 × 2 = 84

? × 12 = 84

? = 84/12

? = 7

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Triangles in the given figure,

There are 10 triangles present in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Triangles in the given figure,

There are 7 triangles present in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

From the given Venn diagram,

There are 11 flowers are lotus.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

5 persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. Only one person is sitting between C and D, considering towards right of D.
2. B is sitting second to the left of D.
3. A is sitting second to the right of C. 

E sitting second to the right of A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

6 persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. E is to the immediate left of B.
2. C is the immediate neighbour of A and E.
3. Some persons are to the right of F.
4. D is not at any of the end of the row.

F and B are sitting at the extreme ends of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

8 boys A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing south (not necessarily in the same order).

1. A and H are at extreme ends of the row.
2. E and F are immediate neighbours of B.
3. C is fourth to the left of B.
4. F is to the immediate left of A.
5. D is not the immediate neighbour of C. 

A is sitting third to the right of E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Equation: 16 Q 12 P 6 R 2 S 4 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the signs from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 16 × 12 ÷ 6 + 2 - 4

⇒ 192 ÷ 6 + 2 - 4

⇒ 32 + 2 - 4

⇒ 34 - 4

⇒ 30

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Given equation: 108 * 12 * 9 * 3 * 17 = 19

Let's check each option one by one:

Option 1) ÷ , +, × , -

Equation: 108 ÷ 12 + 9 × 3 - 17 = 19

⇒ 108 ÷ 12 + 9 × 3 - 17

⇒ 9 + 9 × 3 - 17

⇒ 9 + 27 - 17

⇒ 36 - 17

⇒ 19 

LHS = RHS

Option 2) ÷ , × , - , +

Equation: 108 ÷ 12 × 9 - 3 + 17 = 19

⇒ 108 ÷ 12 × 9 - 3 + 17

⇒ 9 × 9 - 3 + 17

⇒ 81 - 3 + 17

⇒ 78 + 17

⇒ 95

LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) × , - , + , ÷

Equation: 108 × 12 - 9 + 3 ÷ 17 = 19

⇒ 108 × 12 - 9 + 3 ÷ 17

⇒ 108 × 12 - 9 + 0.176

⇒ 1296 - 9 + 0.176

⇒ 1287 + 0.176

⇒1287.176

LHS ≠ RHS 

Option 4) × , ÷ , - , +

Equation: 108 × 12 ÷ 9 - 3 + 17 = 19

⇒ 108 × 12 ÷ 9 - 3 + 17

⇒ 108 × 1.33 - 3 + 17

⇒ 144 - 3 + 17

⇒ 141 + 17

⇒ 158

LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

(1) 78AV – 156BY

(2) 94TC – 198UF

(3) 108LD – 216MG

(4) 136MI – 272NL

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

<br> <br>

'COMPS' is coded as 'NKHKY' 

'ABATE' is coded as 'ZOVXW'

Similarly,

'SMOKY' be coded as,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

<br> <br>

 'AMINES' is coded as 'OAJEIW' 

'MERITS' is coded as 'OPENAI'

Similarly,

'JANGLE' be coded as,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

<br> <br>

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

(3x - 4)²

Formula Used:

(a - b)² = a² - 2ab + b²

Calculation:

⇒ (3x - 4)² = (3x)² - 2 × (3x) × 4 + 4²

⇒ (3x - 4)² = 9x² - 24x + 16

∴ The correct answer is 9x² - 24x + 16.

Given:

A's investment = ₹2500

A's time = 12 months

B's investment = ₹3000

B's time = 10 months

Formula Used:

Profit share is proportional to Investment × Time

Calculation:

⇒ A's contribution = ₹2500 × 12

⇒ A's contribution = ₹30000

⇒ B's contribution = ₹3000 × 10

⇒ B's contribution = ₹30000

⇒ Ratio of A's contribution to B's contribution = ₹30000 : ₹30000

⇒ Ratio = 1 : 1

∴ The correct answer is Equal.

Given:

A : B = 4 : 5

B : C = 6 : 7

Formula Used:

A : C = (A : B) × (B : C)

Calculation:

⇒ A : B = 4 : 5 = 4/5

⇒ B : C = 6 : 7 = 6/7

⇒ A : C = (4/5) × (6/7)

⇒ A : C = (4 × 6) / (5 × 7)

⇒ A : C = 24 / 35

⇒ A : C = 24 : 35

∴ The correct answer is 24 : 35.

Given:

The average of five numbers = 48

The average of the remaining four numbers = 45

Formula Used:

Total sum of numbers = Average × Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum of five numbers = 48 × 5

⇒ Total sum of five numbers = 240

⇒ Total sum of four numbers = 45 × 4

⇒ Total sum of four numbers = 180

⇒ Excluded number = Total sum of five numbers − Total sum of four numbers

⇒ Excluded number = 240 − 180

⇒ Excluded number = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Shortcut Trick

In percentage terms, 60% of the number is given as 48.

To find the 100% value (the number itself), we use the Unitary Method.

If 60% → 48, then 1% → 48 ÷ 60 = 0.8.

Therefore, 100% → 0.8 × 100 = 80.

∴ The correct answer is 80.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage value = 60%

Result of the percentage = 48

Formula Used:

Number = (Given Value × 100) ÷ Percentage

Calculations:

Let the required number be x.

⇒ 60% of x = 48

⇒ (60 ÷ 100) × x = 48

⇒ 0.6 × x = 48

⇒ x = 48 ÷ 0.6

⇒ x = 480 ÷ 6

⇒ x = 80

∴ The correct answer is 80.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To convert a percentage into a fraction, divide the value by 100. Example: 60% = 60/100 = 3/5.

Base Number Calculation

When P% of a number is A, the number is always calculated as (A/P) × 100.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage Change = [(New Value − Original Value) ÷ Original Value] × 100.

Given:

Loss percentage = 10%

Gain percentage = 5%

Increase in selling price = Rs. 45

Formula Used:

Cost Price (C.P) = Selling Price (S.P) ÷ (1 ± Profit/Loss percentage)

Calculation:

⇒ Let the Cost Price = x

⇒ At 10% loss: S.P = x × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ S.P = x × 0.9

⇒ When selling price is increased by Rs. 45: S.P becomes x × (1 + 5/100)

⇒ x × 0.9 + 45 = x × 1.05

⇒ 1.05x - 0.9x = 45

⇒ 0.15x = 45

⇒ x = 45 ÷ 0.15

⇒ x = 300

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 300.

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 500

Discount = 10%

Profit = 8%

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = Selling Price ÷ (1 - Discount ÷ 100)

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price × (1 + Profit ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ SP = 500 × (1 + 8 ÷ 100)

⇒ SP = 500 × 1.08

⇒ SP = Rs. 540

⇒ MP = 540 ÷ (1 - 10 ÷ 100)

⇒ MP = 540 ÷ 0.9

⇒ MP = Rs. 600

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 600.

Given:

A + B = 12 days

B + C = 15 days

C + A = 20 days

Formula used:

Work = LCM of days

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Calculations:

LCM of 12, 15, 20 = 60

⇒ Total work = 60 units

⇒ (A + B) 1 day work = 60 ÷ 12 = 5 units

⇒ (B + C) 1 day work = 60 ÷ 15 = 4 units

⇒ (C + A) 1 day work = 60 ÷ 20 = 3 units

⇒ Adding all:

⇒ (A + B) + (B + C) + (C + A) = 5 + 4 + 3 = 12 units

⇒ 2(A + B + C) = 12

⇒ A + B + C = 6 units

⇒ A = (A + B + C) − (B + C) = 6 − 4 = 2 units

⇒ B = (A + B + C) − (C + A) = 6 − 3 = 3 units

⇒ C = (A + B + C) − (A + B) = 6 − 5 = 1 unit

⇒ Time taken:

⇒ A = 60 ÷ 2 = 30 days

⇒ B = 60 ÷ 3 = 20 days

⇒ C = 60 ÷ 1 = 60 days

∴ A = 30 days, B = 20 days, C = 60 days

Shortcut Trick

To find the Rate of Interest when a sum of money becomes n times its value in T years, use the direct formula:

Rate (R) = [(n − 1) / T] × 100

Given: n = 2 (doubles) and T = 10 years.

R = [(2 − 1) / 10] × 100 = (1 / 10) × 100 = 10%.

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Let the Principal (P) be ₹100.

The sum doubles in 10 years, so Amount (A) = ₹200.

Time (T) = 10 years.

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = Amount − Principal

SI = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculations:

⇒ SI = 200 − 100 = ₹100

⇒ 100 = (100 × R × 10) / 100

⇒ 100 = 10R

⇒ R = 100 / 10

⇒ R = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI)

Simple Interest is calculated only on the principal amount for the entire duration. Formula: SI = (P × R × T) / 100.

Relationship between R and T

For a sum to double, the product of Rate (R) and Time (T) must always be 100 (i.e., R × T = 100) under simple interest.

Sum Tripling Condition

If a sum triples (n=3), the formula becomes R × T = (3 − 1) × 100 = 200.

Principal vs Amount

Principal is the initial sum invested, while Amount is the total sum (Principal + Interest) received at the end of the term.

Given:

Speed of Train A = 72 km/h

Length of Train A = 300 m

Length of Train B = 200 m

Time taken to overtake = 36 seconds

Formula Used:

Relative speed = (Length of Train A + Length of Train B) ÷ Time taken

Speed of Train B = Speed of Train A - Relative speed

Calculation:

⇒ Length of Train A + Length of Train B = 300 + 200 = 500 m

⇒ Relative speed = 500 ÷ 36 m/s

⇒ Relative speed = 13.89 m/s

⇒ Speed of Train A in m/s = 72 × (1000 ÷ 3600)

⇒ Speed of Train A in m/s = 20 m/s

⇒ Speed of Train B in m/s = 20 - 13.89

⇒ Speed of Train B in m/s = 6.11 m/s

⇒ Speed of Train B in km/h = 6.11 × (3600 ÷ 1000)

⇒ Speed of Train B in km/h = 21.996 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 22 km/h.

Given:

Radius of each circular clock = 3 units

Distance between centers = 4 units

<br>

Formula Used:

Condition for common tangents:

If distance between centers > sum of radii: 4 tangents

If distance between centers = sum of radii: 3 tangents

If sum of radii > distance between centers > absolute difference of radii: 2 tangents

If distance between centers = absolute difference of radii: 1 tangent

If distance between centers < absolute difference of radii: 0 tangents

Calculation:

⇒ Radius of each clock = 3 units, so sum of radii = 3 + 3 = 6 units

⇒ Absolute difference of radii = |3 - 3| = 0 units

⇒ Distance between centers = 4 units

⇒ Absolute difference of radii < Distance between centers < Sum of radii

⇒ 0 < 4 < 6

⇒ 2 common tangents

<br>

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Shortcut Trick

The diagonal of a rectangle forms a right-angled triangle with its length and breadth.

Recognize the standard Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5).

Multiply the triplet by 3: (3 × 3), (4 × 3), (5 × 3) → (9, 12, 15).

Since the sides are 9 cm and 12 cm, the diagonal must be 15 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 15 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (L) of the solar panel = 9 cm

Breadth (B) of the solar panel = 12 cm

Formula Used:

Diagonal (D) = √(Length² + Breadth²)

Calculations:

⇒ Diagonal = √(9² + 12²)

⇒ Diagonal = √(81 + 144)

⇒ Diagonal = √225

⇒ Diagonal = 15 cm

∴ The correct answer is 15 cm.

Additional Information

Pythagoras Theorem

In a right-angled triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides: a² + b² = c².

Pythagorean Triples

Sets of three positive integers that satisfy the theorem. Common examples include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), and (7, 24, 25).

Rectangle Properties

The diagonals of a rectangle are equal in length and bisect each other. Area = Length × Breadth and Perimeter = 2(Length + Breadth).

Given:

Length = 80 cm

Width = 50 cm

Height = 40 cm

Formula Used:

Volume = Length × Width × Height

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = 80 × 50 × 40

⇒ Volume = 4000 × 40

⇒ Volume = 160000 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 160000.

Given:

Base side = 4 m

Vertical height = 3 m

Formula Used:

Volume of pyramid = (1/3) × Base area × Height

Base area = Side × Side

Calculation:

⇒ Base area = 4 × 4

⇒ Base area = 16 m²

⇒ Volume = (1/3) × 16 × 3

⇒ Volume = 16 m³

∴ The correct answer is 16 m³.

Given:

Ratio of corresponding sides = 3:5

Area of triangle ABC = 54 cm²

Formula Used:

Area ratio = (Side ratio)²

Area of triangle DEF = Area of triangle ABC × Area ratio

Calculation:

⇒ Area ratio = (3 ÷ 5)² = 9 ÷ 25

⇒ Area of triangle DEF = 54 × (25 ÷ 9)

⇒ Area of triangle DEF = 150 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 150 cm².

Given:

Radius of first tank (R) = 5 units

Radius of second tank (r) = 3 units

Distance between centers (d) = 13 units

Formula used:

Length of direct common tangent = √(d² − (R − r)²)

Calculations:

⇒ Length = √(13² − (5 − 3)²)

⇒ Length = √(169 − 2²)

⇒ Length = √(169 − 4)

⇒ Length = √165 = 12.85 units

∴ Length of direct common tangent = 12.85 units.

Shortcut Trick

If x + 1/x = k, then x³ + 1/x³ = k³ − 3k.

In the given question, tan A + cot A = 5 (since cot A = 1/tan A).

Here, k = 5.

Therefore, tan³ A + cot³ A = 5³ − 3 × 5 = 125 − 15 = 110.

∴ The correct answer is 110.

Alternate Method

Given:

tan A + cot A = 5

Angle A is an acute angle.

Formula Used:

x³ + y³ = (x + y)³ − 3xy(x + y)

In trigonometry, tan A × cot A = 1.

Calculations:

⇒ Let x = tan A and y = cot A.

⇒ We know that x × y = tan A × cot A = 1.

⇒ Using the identity: tan³ A + cot³ A = (tan A + cot A)³ − 3(tan A × cot A)(tan A + cot A)

⇒ Substitute the values: (5)³ − 3(1)(5)

⇒ 125 − 15

⇒ 110

∴ The correct answer is 110.

Additional Information

Reciprocal Trigonometric Identities

The product of a trigonometric function and its reciprocal is always 1, such as tan A × cot A = 1 and sin A × cosec A = 1.

Sum of Cubes Formula

The algebraic identity for the sum of cubes is a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² − ab + b²) or (a + b)³ − 3ab(a + b).

Square Relation

If tan A + cot A = k, then tan² A + cot² A = k² − 2 because (tan A + cot A)² = tan² A + cot² A + 2(tan A × cot A).

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 25,000

Rate of Interest (R) = 12% p.a.

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Compound Interest (CI) = P × (1 + R ÷ 100)^T - P

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (25,000 × 12 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = Rs. 9,000

⇒ CI = 25,000 × (1 + 12 ÷ 100)³ - 25,000

⇒ CI = 25,000 × (1.12)³ - 25,000

⇒ CI = 25,000 × 1.404928 - 25,000

⇒ CI = Rs. 35,123.2 - Rs. 25,000

⇒ CI = Rs. 10,123.2

⇒ Difference = CI - SI

⇒ Difference = Rs. 10,123.2 - Rs. 9,000

⇒ Difference = Rs. 1,123.2

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1123.2.

Given:

CF = 18 cm, AE = 24 cm

O is centroid

∠COE = 45°

Formula used:

Area of triangle = (1/2) × Base × Height

Centroid divides medians in the ratio 2:1

Calculations:

Centroid divides median in ratio 2 : 1

⇒ CO = (2/3) × CF, OE = (2/3) × AE

Area of triangle using vectors:

Area = (3/2) × CO × OE × sinθ

CO = (2/3) × 18 = 12 cm

OE = (2/3) × 24 = 16 cm

Area = (3/2) × 12 × 16 × sin45°

⇒ Area = (3/2) × 12 × 16 × (1/√2)

⇒ Area = (3/2) × 192 × (1/√2)

⇒ Area = 288 / √2

⇒ Area = 144√2 cm²

∴ Area of triangle ABC = 144√2 cm²

Given:

Distance between policeman and thief = 1,200 metres

Speed of thief = 2.5 km/h

Speed of policeman = 3.75 km/h

Formula Used:

Relative speed = Speed of policeman - Speed of thief

Time = Distance ÷ Relative speed

Distance covered by thief = Speed of thief × Time

Calculation:

⇒ Relative speed = 3.75 - 2.5 = 1.25 km/h

⇒ Relative speed = 1.25 × 1,000 ÷ 60 = 20.83 m/min

⇒ Time = 1,200 ÷ 20.83 = 57.6 minutes

⇒ Distance covered by thief = 2.5 × 1,000 ÷ 60 × 57.6 = 2,400 metres

∴ The correct answer is 2,400 metres.

Shortcut Trick

The direct relationship between the Volume (V) and Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a Cylinder is given by the ratio V/CSA = r/2.

⇒ Curved Surface Area (CSA) = (2 × Volume) ÷ Radius (r)

⇒ CSA = (2 × 6237) ÷ 10.5 = 12474 ÷ 10.5

⇒ CSA = 1188 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 1,188 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) = 10.5 cm

Volume (V) = 6,237 cm³

Formula Used:

1. Volume of Cylinder = πr²h
2. Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2πrh

Calculations:

⇒ 6237 = (22/7) × (10.5)² × h

⇒ 6237 = (22/7) × 110.25 × h

⇒ 6237 = 22 × 15.75 × h

⇒ 6237 = 346.5 × h

⇒ h = 6237 ÷ 346.5 = 18 cm

Now, calculate the Curved Surface Area:

⇒ CSA = 2 × (22/7) × 10.5 × 18

⇒ CSA = 2 × 22 × 1.5 × 18

⇒ CSA = 44 × 27

⇒ CSA = 1188 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 1,188 cm².

Additional Information

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The Total Surface Area of a Cylinder includes the area of the curved surface and the two circular bases: TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of a Hollow Cylinder

For a Hollow Cylinder with external radius R and internal radius r, the Volume is V = π(R² − r²)h.

Base Area and Circumference

The area of the base is πr² and the circumference (base perimeter) is 2πr.

Given:

a = √2 - √3

Formula Used:

(x - y)² = x² + y² - 2xy

Calculation:

⇒ a² = (√2 - √3)²

⇒ a² = (√2)² + (√3)² - 2 × √2 × √3

⇒ a² = 2 + 3 - 2√6

⇒ a² = 5 - 2√6

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Given:

$\dfrac{1 - \cos^2 x}{\sin x}$

Formula used:

1 − cos²x = sin²x

Calculations:

$\dfrac{1 - \cos^2 x}{\sin x}$

⇒ $\dfrac{\sin^2 x}{\sin x}$

⇒ sin x

∴ Final Answer = sin x

Given:

A : B = 5 : 6

B : C = 7 : 8

C : D = 9 : 10

Formula Used:

Combined Ratio = A : B × B : C × C : D

Simplify ratios by multiplication

Calculation:

⇒ A : B × B : C = (5 : 6) × (7 : 8)

⇒ A : C = (5 × 7) : (6 × 8)

⇒ A : C = 35 : 48

⇒ A : C × C : D = (35 : 48) × (9 : 10)

⇒ A : D = (35 × 9) : (48 × 10)

⇒ A : D = 315 : 480

⇒ Simplify A : D = 105 : 160

∴ The correct answer is 105 : 160.

Given:

sin θ = 2/3 (θ is acute)

Formula used:

sin²θ + cos²θ = 1

cos²θ − sin²θ

Calculations:

sin θ = 2/3

⇒ sin²θ = (2/3)² = 4/9

⇒ cos²θ = 1 − 4/9 = 5/9

Now,

cos²θ − sin²θ = 5/9 − 4/9

⇒ = 1/9

∴ Final Answer = 1/9

The correct answer is Genghis Khan.

Key Points

• The Mughals were descendants of Genghis Khan through their maternal lineage. Genghis Khan, the founder of the Mongol Empire, is regarded as one of the most powerful rulers in history.
• The Mughal dynasty's founder, Babur, traced his lineage from Genghis Khan through his mother, Qutlugh Nigar Khanum, who was a descendant of the Mongol ruler.
• Although the Mughals were descended from Genghis Khan, they distanced themselves from this ancestry because Genghis Khan was associated with the devastation of Islamic lands.
• On their paternal side, the Mughals were descendants of Timur, a Turco-Mongol conqueror who established the Timurid dynasty. Thus, the Mughals combined both Mongol and Timurid heritage.
• The Mughal emperors often emphasized their Timurid lineage over their Mongol heritage to gain greater legitimacy among their predominantly Muslim subjects in India.

Additional Information

• Genghis Khan:
• Genghis Khan (1162–1227) was the founder of the Mongol Empire, which became the largest contiguous empire in history.
• He united the Mongol tribes and initiated a series of military campaigns that led to the conquest of vast territories across Asia and Europe.
• His empire stretched from the Pacific Ocean in the east to Eastern Europe in the west, including parts of China, Central Asia, and the Middle East.
• Though known for his military conquests, Genghis Khan also promoted trade, cultural exchange, and administrative reforms within his empire.
• The Mughal Dynasty:
• The Mughal dynasty was established in India in 1526 by Babur, who defeated Ibrahim Lodi at the First Battle of Panipat.
• The Mughals ruled India for over three centuries, leaving a profound impact on Indian culture, architecture, and governance.
• They were known for their contributions to art and architecture, including the construction of the Taj Mahal, the Red Fort, and Fatehpur Sikri.
• The Mughal Empire reached its zenith during the reign of Akbar, Shah Jahan, and Aurangzeb, but declined in the 18th century.
• Timur:
• Timur (1336–1405), also known as Tamerlane, was a Turco-Mongol conqueror and the founder of the Timurid Empire in Central Asia.
• He claimed descent from Genghis Khan on his maternal side and sought to revive the Mongol Empire's legacy.
• Timur's military campaigns extended across Persia, India, Russia, and the Middle East, making him one of history's most formidable conquerors.
• He is also remembered for his patronage of arts and architecture, which influenced the Mughal style in India.
• Other Options:
• Muhammad bin Qasim: An Arab general who led the Islamic conquest of Sindh in 712 CE, but he had no direct connection to the Mughal lineage.
• Sabuktigin: The founder of the Ghaznavid dynasty in the 10th century, but he was not related to the Mughals.

Important Points

• Mughal Lineage: The Mughals emphasized their Timurid ancestry to gain legitimacy among their Muslim subjects, as Timur was a celebrated Islamic ruler.
• Mongol Legacy: Despite their Mongol lineage through Genghis Khan, the Mughals avoided highlighting this aspect due to the destruction associated with the Mongol invasions of Islamic lands.
• Impact on India: The Mughals' unique blend of Persian, Indian, and Central Asian cultures created a rich cultural legacy that continues to influence Indian society today.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Virashaiva movement, also known as the Lingayat movement, originated in the state of Karnataka during the mid-twelfth century.
• This movement was spearheaded by Basavanna, a philosopher, poet, and statesman, who served as the Prime Minister of the Kalachuri Kingdom.
• The movement emphasized monotheism and rejected the caste system, idol worship, and ritualistic practices, advocating for social equality and spiritual devotion to Lord Shiva.
• Virashaivism or Lingayatism gained significant traction among the common people, especially the lower castes, due to its focus on egalitarian principles.
• The followers of this movement, called Lingayats, carry a small Shiva Linga encased in a pendant, symbolizing their devotion to Lord Shiva.

Additional Information

• Basavanna and His Teachings:
• Basavanna was the founder of the Virashaiva movement. He is celebrated for his Vachanas (verses), which propagate a direct connection with God without the need for intermediaries like priests.
• He advocated for the formation of a society based on equality, rejecting the rigid caste-based hierarchy.
• Basavanna’s teachings laid the foundation for social reform in medieval India.
• Philosophy of Virashaivism:
• Virashaivism is monotheistic, focusing on the worship of Lord Shiva.
• It emphasizes simple living, ethical conduct, and devotion over ritualistic practices.
• The movement rejects the authority of the Vedas, caste discrimination, and idol worship.
• Spread of the Movement:
• Initially concentrated in Karnataka, the movement later spread to other parts of South India, including Maharashtra and Telangana.
• The Lingayat community became a significant socio-political force in southern India.
• Legacy of the Virashaiva Movement:
• The movement has had a lasting influence on the socio-religious structure of Karnataka and neighboring regions.
• Modern-day Lingayats continue to be a major community in Karnataka, influencing its culture, politics, and economy.

Important Points

• Other Movements of the Period:
• The Bhakti Movement, which flourished during the same time, shared similarities with the Virashaiva movement, such as its rejection of caste and ritualism.
• Other prominent leaders of the Bhakti Movement included Ramananda, Kabir, and Mirabai, though their philosophies varied from that of the Lingayats.
• Modern Recognition:
• In recent years, there has been a movement to recognize the Lingayats as a separate religion, distinct from mainstream Hinduism.
• The Karnataka government, in 2018, recommended the Lingayat community be granted minority religion status.

The correct answer is To safeguard public property.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. These duties are meant to promote a sense of responsibility and discipline among citizens.
• The duty “To safeguard public property” is explicitly mentioned under the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution. It emphasizes citizens' role in protecting and conserving public infrastructure and national assets.
• The Fundamental Duties were inspired by the Soviet Constitution and aim to inculcate civic and moral values in Indian citizens.
• Examples of safeguarding public property include protecting historical monuments, public transportation, government buildings, and preventing vandalism or misuse.
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties are non-enforceable by law but are crucial for the nation's collective welfare and ethical governance.

Additional Information

• Article 51A and Fundamental Duties:
• Article 51A lists 11 Fundamental Duties for Indian citizens. These were introduced through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
• Some of the Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, promoting harmony, protecting the environment, and safeguarding public property.
• The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added the duty for parents/guardians to provide opportunities for education to children aged 6-14 years.
• Historical Context:
• The idea of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the USSR (Soviet Union) and other socialist countries.
• They were introduced during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi to counteract the growing indiscipline and foster a sense of responsibility among citizens.
• Legal Framework:
• Though Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, laws can be enacted to enforce them indirectly. For instance, laws against vandalism protect public property.
• Some Fundamental Duties have been linked to legal provisions such as the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, which aligns with the duty to protect the natural environment.
• Comparison with Fundamental Rights:
• While Fundamental Rights grant privileges and freedoms to citizens, Fundamental Duties emphasize moral obligations.
• Rights and Duties are interconnected, as enjoying rights comes with the responsibility to perform duties for the welfare of society.

Important Points

• Fundamental Duties in Detail:
• There are a total of 11 Fundamental Duties, which include respecting national symbols, promoting harmony, and protecting the environment.
• The duty to safeguard public property ensures the integrity and functionality of assets vital to public welfare.
• Examples of Safeguarding Public Property:
• Participating in campaigns against vandalism.
• Ensuring responsible use of public transport and facilities.
• Encouraging awareness about the importance of conserving national heritage sites.
• Significance of Fundamental Duties:
• They act as a moral compass for citizens, promoting national unity and responsibility.
• They complement Fundamental Rights by instilling a sense of accountability towards the nation.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, covering Articles 36 to 51.
• Statement I: The Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court (Article 37). This means that no individual can approach the judiciary to enforce these principles, as they are not justiciable. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Statement II: The Constitution explicitly states that it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws (Article 37). The DPSPs act as guidelines for the state to promote social and economic welfare. Hence, this statement is also correct.
• The DPSPs aim to establish a welfare state by addressing areas such as economic justice, social equality, health, education, and more.
• Although non-justiciable, these principles hold significant moral and political importance and have influenced the formulation of laws in India.

Additional Information

• Categories of DPSPs:
• Socialist Principles: Aim at providing socio-economic justice (e.g., Article 39 - equal pay for equal work).
• Gandhian Principles: Reflect Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals (e.g., Article 48 - organization of agriculture and animal husbandry).
• Liberal-Intellectual Principles: Ensure individual rights and international peace (e.g., Article 44 - Uniform Civil Code).
• Purpose: The DPSPs were borrowed from the Irish Constitution and aim to guide the state in establishing a just society.
• Important Examples:
• Article 39A: Provides for free legal aid to ensure justice for all.
• Article 41: Right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, etc.
• Article 47: Duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living.
• Impact: Several laws have been enacted to fulfill DPSPs, such as the Right to Education Act (2009) and National Food Security Act (2013).

Important Points

• Difference Between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs:
• Fundamental Rights: Justiciable and enforceable by courts (e.g., Right to Equality).
• DPSPs: Non-justiciable but act as guiding principles for the state.
• Landmark Cases:
• Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973): Established the principle of harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs.
• Minerva Mills Case (1980): Declared that the implementation of DPSPs should not override Fundamental Rights.
• Significance: DPSPs provide a framework for achieving socio-economic democracy and act as a measure for evaluating government performance.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is a regional intergovernmental organization founded on 8th December 1985, in Dhaka, Bangladesh. Its primary aim is to promote economic and regional integration in South Asia.
• The member countries of SAARC include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Pakistan and Nepal are both members of SAARC as of 31st July 2025. Hence, both statements are correct.
• Pakistan has been a founding member of SAARC since its establishment in 1985. It actively participates in SAARC initiatives despite occasional tensions with other member countries, particularly India.
• Nepal also holds a significant position in SAARC as the headquarters of SAARC is located in Kathmandu, Nepal. Nepal has actively contributed to SAARC’s objectives and hosted summits, including the 18th SAARC Summit in 2014.
• SAARC focuses on areas such as economic cooperation, agriculture, rural development, education, health, and technology. All member countries work collaboratively toward regional integration.

Additional Information

• SAARC Objectives:
• To promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and improve their quality of life.
• To accelerate economic growth, social progress, and cultural development in the region.
• To strengthen collective self-reliance among the countries of South Asia.
• To contribute to mutual trust, understanding, and appreciation of one another's problems.
• SAARC Summits:
• The summits are held biennially, and the member countries take turns hosting them.
• The last SAARC summit (20th) was scheduled in Pakistan but postponed due to political tensions among member countries.
• Major achievements of SAARC include agreements on trade, environment, energy, and combating terrorism.
• SAARC Headquarters:
• The SAARC Secretariat is located in Kathmandu, Nepal, and coordinates the activities of the association.
• It was established on 16th January 1987, and the Secretary-General is appointed from member countries for a three-year term.
• Challenges faced by SAARC:
• Political tensions between member countries, especially India and Pakistan, have hindered regional cooperation.
• Unequal economic development among members creates disparities in contribution and benefits.
• Limited financial resources and inadequate enforcement mechanisms restrict the implementation of agreements.
• Significance of Nepal and Pakistan in SAARC:
• Nepal: As the host of the SAARC Secretariat, Nepal plays a pivotal role in facilitating discussions and implementing initiatives.
• Pakistan: As one of the founding members, Pakistan contributes to regional stability and economic cooperation, despite political disagreements.

Important Points

• SAARC Regional Centers:
• SAARC has established regional centers to promote specific areas of cooperation, such as the SAARC Agriculture Centre (Bangladesh) and SAARC Cultural Centre (Sri Lanka).
• These centers focus on research, policy development, and capacity-building in their respective domains.
• SAFTA:
• The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) agreement was signed in 2004 to promote trade and economic cooperation among member countries.
• SAFTA aims to reduce tariffs and eliminate trade barriers within the region.
• SAARC Development Fund (SDF):
• Established in 2005, SDF provides funding for development projects in areas like health, education, and energy.
• The fund is headquartered in Thimphu, Bhutan.

The correct answer is Karnam Malleswari.

Key Points

• Karnam Malleswari is the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal. She achieved this historic feat during the 2000 Sydney Olympics.
• She won the bronze medal in the sport of weightlifting, competing in the 69 kg category.
• Her achievement marked a significant milestone for Indian sports, especially for women athletes, and inspired many young women to pursue sports in India.
• Born on 1 June 1975 in Andhra Pradesh, Karnam Malleswari started her weightlifting career at a young age and trained rigorously to reach the international level.
• She has also been honored with prestigious awards like the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 1995 and the Padma Shri in 1999 for her contributions to Indian sports.

Additional Information

• Mary Kom:
• Mary Kom is a renowned Indian boxer who has won multiple world championships and an Olympic bronze medal at the 2012 London Olympics.
• She is a six-time world champion and widely regarded as one of the greatest boxers in the world.
• She belongs to Manipur and has been a strong advocate for women’s participation in sports.
• Saina Nehwal:
• Saina Nehwal is an Indian badminton player who won a bronze medal at the 2012 London Olympics.
• She was the first Indian badminton player to win an Olympic medal.
• Born in Haryana, she has won multiple international titles and inspired the growth of badminton in India.
• P.V. Sindhu:
• P.V. Sindhu is an Indian badminton player who won a silver medal at the 2016 Rio Olympics and a bronze medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• She is one of the most successful Indian athletes in badminton and has won several world championships.
• Sindhu hails from Andhra Pradesh and is a role model for aspiring athletes in India.
• Significance of Olympic Achievements:
• The achievements of athletes like Karnam Malleswari, Mary Kom, Saina Nehwal, and P.V. Sindhu have played a crucial role in encouraging young Indian women to participate in sports.
• These milestones have also highlighted the need for better infrastructure and support for women in sports in India.
• The success of these athletes has brought international recognition to Indian sports.

Important Points

• Historical Context: Karnam Malleswari’s bronze medal in the 2000 Sydney Olympics was a turning point for Indian sports, as it was the first Olympic medal won by an Indian woman.
• Recognition and Awards: Her achievements earned her prestigious awards like the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna and Padma Shri, recognizing her contribution to Indian sports.
• Inspiration: Karnam Malleswari’s success inspired a generation of Indian women athletes and increased awareness about women’s sports in India.
• Legacy: Her achievement remains a landmark event in the history of Indian sports, emphasizing the potential of Indian women in the global sports arena.

The correct answer is Guyana.

Key Points

• In July 2025, the South American nation Guyana conferred its highest civilian honor, "Officer of the Order of the Star", to Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• This prestigious award was bestowed in recognition of PM Modi’s contributions towards fostering stronger diplomatic relations between India and Guyana.
• Guyana acknowledged the efforts of India under PM Modi's leadership in areas such as education, healthcare, renewable energy, and infrastructural development, which significantly benefited Guyana.
• The "Order of the Star" is Guyana's highest civilian award and symbolizes the nation's appreciation of global leaders who have positively impacted Guyana's development and international standing.
• PM Modi's leadership in promoting South-South cooperation and addressing global challenges also played a key role in earning this honor.

Additional Information

• Guyana:
• Guyana is located in South America and is bordered by Venezuela, Brazil, and Suriname.
• It is a former British colony and gained independence in 1966. It is a member of the Commonwealth.
• The capital of Guyana is Georgetown, and the nation is known for its multicultural heritage and diverse population, including Indo-Guyanese.
• Guyana is rich in natural resources, particularly oil, gold, and bauxite, which contribute significantly to its economy.
• The country has strong historical ties with India, especially due to the presence of a large Indian diaspora.
• International Recognition of PM Narendra Modi:
• PM Modi has received several international awards, including the United Nations Champions of the Earth Award (2018) and the Legion of Merit from the USA.
• He has been recognized globally for his leadership in promoting renewable energy, sustainable development, and international cooperation.
• PM Modi’s initiatives, such as the International Solar Alliance, have been lauded for addressing climate change and fostering global partnerships.
• His efforts in strengthening India’s bilateral relations with countries across continents have earned him various honors.
• South-South Cooperation:
• South-South cooperation refers to the exchange of resources, knowledge, and technology between developing nations in the Global South.
• India has played a significant role in promoting South-South cooperation, especially with nations in Africa, the Caribbean, and South America.
• India’s initiatives in areas like capacity building, education, and technology sharing have strengthened ties with partner countries.
• Guyana has been a key beneficiary of India’s support in sectors such as healthcare, energy, and education.
• Important Awards Conferred to Global Leaders:
• Countries often confer civilian honors to international leaders to recognize their contributions to diplomacy and global development.
• Such awards serve as a symbol of appreciation for fostering bilateral or multilateral partnerships.
• Examples include the Order of Zayed awarded by the UAE and the King Abdulaziz Sash awarded by Saudi Arabia.
• PM Modi’s receipt of the "Officer of the Order of the Star" highlights India’s growing global influence under his leadership.

The correct answer is Anusuiya Uikey.

Key Points

• Anusuiya Uikey was appointed as the Governor of Odisha in December 2024.
• She has previously served as the Governor of Chhattisgarh, a position she held from July 2019 to December 2024.
• The appointment of a Governor is done by the President of India under Article 155 of the Indian Constitution.
• The role of the Governor is largely ceremonial, but they act as a link between the State Government and the Union Government.
• Anusuiya Uikey is a senior political leader and has been associated with the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Her experience in governance makes her a notable choice for this position.

Additional Information

• Governor's Appointment Process:
• The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India, as per Article 155 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Governor serves at the pleasure of the President, as mentioned in Article 156. There is no fixed term, but typically, it is for 5 years.
• The Governor acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers of the state headed by the Chief Minister.
• Responsibilities of the Governor:
• The Governor is the constitutional head of the state and exercises powers as per the Constitution of India.
• They have legislative powers, including the ability to summon, prorogue, or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.
• They also have the power to give assent to bills, withhold assent, or reserve the bill for the President's consideration.
• The Governor oversees the implementation of central schemes in the state and ensures they align with national objectives.
• Notable Facts about Anusuiya Uikey:
• She is a prominent leader from Madhya Pradesh and has been a member of the Rajya Sabha.
• Her tenure as Governor of Chhattisgarh was marked by efforts to strengthen tribal welfare programs and administrative efficiency.
• Governors in India:
• The office of the Governor is modeled on the British system of constitutional monarchy, where the monarch is the ceremonial head.
• India has 28 states and 8 Union Territories, each of which has a Governor or Lieutenant Governor/Administrator.
• The Governor acts as an intermediary between the State Government and the Central Government.

Important Points

• Article 153: States that there shall be a Governor for each state in India. One person can be appointed as the Governor for two or more states.
• Article 154: Specifies that the executive power of the state is vested in the Governor and exercised by them either directly or through subordinate officers.
• Article 163: The Governor is aided and advised by the Council of Ministers, headed by the Chief Minister, except in situations where the Governor is required to act in their discretionary powers.
• Examples of Governor's Discretionary Powers:
• Appointment of the Chief Minister when no political party has a clear majority.
• Sending a report to the President for imposing President’s Rule under Article 356.
• Reserving certain bills for the President’s consideration.

The correct answer is April.

Key Points

• The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 was passed by the Parliament of India in April 2025, with the Rajya Sabha giving its approval during this month.
• The bill aims to amend the existing Waqf Act, 1995, which governs the management and administration of Waqf properties in India.
• The approval from both houses of Parliament signifies the bill's importance in addressing issues related to the proper utilization and governance of Waqf properties.
• The amendment seeks to bring in transparency, accountability, and better administration of Waqf properties, which are often large and diverse in India.
• This legislation is part of the government's ongoing efforts to streamline the functioning of boards that manage religious and charitable properties for the welfare of the community.

Additional Information

• Waqf:
• The term Waqf refers to a permanent dedication of movable or immovable property by a Muslim for religious, charitable, or pious purposes, recognized under Islamic law.
• Waqf properties are managed by State Waqf Boards, which are statutory bodies established under the Waqf Act, 1995.
• These properties are often used for purposes such as mosques, schools, hospitals, and other community welfare activities.
• Waqf Act, 1995:
• The Waqf Act, 1995 was enacted to provide a legal framework for the management and governance of Waqf properties in India.
• It established the Central Waqf Council and State Waqf Boards for the efficient administration of Waqf properties.
• The act also includes provisions for the registration of Waqf properties and their protection from encroachments.
• Importance of the Amendment:
• The amendment aims to address issues such as mismanagement, encroachments, and underutilization of Waqf properties.
• By strengthening the legal framework, the amendment seeks to ensure the proper utilization of these properties for the benefit of the community.
• It also emphasizes transparency and accountability in the functioning of Waqf Boards.
• Legislative Process in India:
• A bill in India becomes a law after it is approved by both houses of Parliament—the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha—and receives the President's assent.
• In this case, the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, was approved by the Rajya Sabha in April 2025, following its passage in the Lok Sabha.

Important Points

• Role of Waqf Boards:
• State Waqf Boards are responsible for the maintenance, preservation, and development of Waqf properties.
• They ensure that the revenues generated from Waqf properties are used for the welfare of the community in accordance with the donor's intent.
• Recent Developments:
• The government has undertaken various initiatives to digitize Waqf records and protect Waqf properties from encroachments.
• Efforts are also being made to increase awareness about the rights and responsibilities of Waqf Boards.

The correct answer is Rural Prosperity and Resilience.

Key Points

• In the budget for the Financial Year 2025-26, the Government of India has announced the launch of a comprehensive multi-sectoral program named Rural Prosperity and Resilience.
• The primary aim of this program is to address under-employment in the agriculture sector through a combination of skilling, technology adoption, investment, and boosting the rural economy.
• This initiative focuses on integrating multiple sectors such as agriculture, rural entrepreneurship, and allied industries to create a sustainable rural ecosystem.
• The program emphasizes empowering rural youth with new skills and promoting innovations in agricultural practices to enhance productivity and resilience.
• The scheme also seeks to strengthen infrastructure and support systems in rural areas to foster economic growth and reduce migration to urban centers.

Additional Information

• Key Features of Rural Prosperity and Resilience Program:
• The program integrates technology-driven agricultural practices such as precision farming, digital tools, and AI-based solutions.
• It includes provisions to promote rural entrepreneurship by providing financial support to startups and enterprises focused on rural development.
• Efforts are made to diversify income sources for farmers by promoting allied sectors like animal husbandry, fisheries, and agro-processing industries.
• The scheme also strengthens the delivery of skill development programs to enable rural youth to participate in the growing demands of industrial and service sectors.
• Existing Challenges in Rural India:
• Rural areas face issues of low agricultural productivity, limited access to technology, and inadequate infrastructure.
• There is a lack of skill-based employment opportunities, resulting in under-employment or migration to cities.
• Poor access to credit facilities and market linkages hinders rural economic growth.
• Other Government Initiatives Supporting Rural Development:
• Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY): Aims to enhance irrigation facilities and water use efficiency in agriculture.
• Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana: Focuses on alleviating rural poverty by promoting self-employment and providing skill training.
• MGNREGA: Provides guaranteed rural employment of 100 days to improve livelihood security.
• Global Perspective:
• Many countries, including China and Brazil, have implemented rural development programs that integrate modern technology and promote sustainable farming practices.
• For example, China has leveraged e-commerce platforms to connect rural farmers with urban markets, improving incomes and reducing poverty.

Important Points

• Why Focus on Rural Prosperity?
• Approximately 65-70% of India’s population resides in rural areas, making rural development essential for overall economic growth.
• Agriculture, which employs more than 50% of the workforce, is the backbone of rural livelihoods.
• Empowering rural areas reduces the urban-rural income gap, leading to balanced economic development.
• Related Facts:
• The Agriculture Census 2021 revealed that the average landholding size in India is shrinking, which necessitates innovative approaches to improve productivity.
• India aims to double farmers’ income by 2025 through targeted interventions in agriculture and allied sectors.
• World Bank Report: Investments in rural infrastructure and technology yield high returns and significantly reduce poverty.