SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 26 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Astounding.

Key Points

• The word "remarkable" means something extraordinary or worthy of attention; it refers to something that stands out because it is unusual or impressive. (असाधारण)
• Example: The scientist’s remarkable discovery changed the course of history.
• "Astounding" also means something incredibly surprising or amazing. It conveys a similar meaning to "remarkable," as both refer to something extraordinary or beyond ordinary expectations. (चकित कर देने वाला)
• Example: The magician's astounding performance left the audience speechless.
• Hence, the word "Astounding" is the closest in meaning to "Remarkable."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Astounding.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Normal (सामान्य): Something that is usual or typical, without anything extraordinary.
• Example: It is normal to feel nervous before an important exam.
• Insignificant (महत्वहीन): Something that is not important or lacks any notable value.
• Example: The error was so insignificant that nobody noticed it.
• Typical (सामान्य/प्रचलित): Representing what is usual or expected for a particular thing.
• Example: It was a typical summer day, sunny and warm.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The error lies in the phrase "Children who does not." The subject "Children" is plural, and the verb must agree with it.
• The correct verb form for a plural subject is "do not" instead of "does not."
• Hence, the corrected phrase should be "Children who do not read books."
• The rest of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "Children who do not read books will never be able to receive information in any way."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "will never be able to receive" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "information in any way" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 4: No correction required – This would be the correct option if the sentence had no errors, but there is an error in part 1 of the sentence.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's analyze each sentence to identify the grammatically and contextually incorrect one:

• 1) Every piece sold here is well-designed and crafted to retain its originality.
• This sentence describes the quality of items being sold.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• 2) Folktales are a kind of story that gets passed on from generation to generation.
• This sentence talks about folktales and their transmission over generations.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• 3) The Nilgiris are the most productive mountains at the south and is too famous.
• This sentence discusses the Nilgiris mountains.
• The sentence is erroneous because it contains subject-verb agreement and context issues:
• "The Nilgiris" is plural, so the verb "is" should be replaced with "are."
• "At the south" should be replaced with "in the south" for correct prepositional usage.
• "Too famous" is awkward and should be replaced with "very famous."
• The correct sentence would be: "The Nilgiris are the most productive mountains in the south and are very famous."
• 4) There are not many followers of Gandhiji these days.
• This sentence refers to the decline in followers of Gandhiji.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.

Additional Information

• Correcting subject-verb agreement errors is crucial to ensure grammatical accuracy.
• Using appropriate prepositions and avoiding awkward phrases helps improve contextual clarity.

The correct answer is 'on'.

Key Points

• The preposition "on" is commonly used with verbs like "elaborate" to indicate the subject or topic being discussed.
• In the given sentence, the scientist is explaining or expanding "on" the implications of the experiment, which makes "on" the correct preposition.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not fit the context of elaborating on a specific topic.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "The scientist elaborated on the implications of the experiment during his lecture."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "over" is incorrect because it does not convey the idea of explaining or expanding on a topic.
• Option 3: "with" is incorrect because it implies association rather than elaboration on a topic.
• Option 4: "for" is incorrect because it suggests purpose or benefit rather than the act of elaboration.

The correct answer is '1-A and 2-B.'

Key Points

• From the given options, only the combination of word-pairs '1-A and 2-B' correctly matches the terms with their definitions.
• Let's look at the terms:
• '1-A' pairs the word Faze with its meaning: to disturb, disconcert, or upset someone (परेशान या विचलित करना).
• 'Faze' is a verb typically used to describe how someone is affected by difficult news or a surprising event.
• '2-B' pairs the word Phase with its meaning: a distinct period or stage in a series of events or a process (चरण, अवस्था, या दौर).
• 'Phase' can be used both as a noun (a stage) and a verb (to carry out in stages).
  

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The question asks to identify the correctly spelt word from the given options.
• The correct spelling is 'Cholera', which is a noun referring to a bacterial disease causing severe diarrhea and dehydration, usually spread in water.
• The other options are misspelled:
• Option 2: Choleraa (Extra 'a' added)
• Option 3: Chorlla (Letters misplaced)
• Option 4: Cyholera (Incorrect letter 'y' added)

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Cholera', option 1.

Additional Information

• Cholera: It is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. Symptoms include severe dehydration, which can lead to death if untreated.
• Pronunciation: /ˈkɒl.ər.ə/

The correct answer is '4'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is already grammatically correct.
• The phrase "before bed" is appropriate and commonly used to indicate actions completed prior to going to sleep.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect as they do not fit grammatically or contextually in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "She always completes her homework before bed."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "at bed" is incorrect as "at bed" is not a valid phrase in English.
• Option 2: "at bed" is the same as Option 1 and also incorrect for the same reason.
• Option 3: "by bed" is incorrect as it changes the meaning and does not convey the intended action of completing homework prior to going to sleep.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'Prevent him from making'.

Key Points

• The phrase "prevent him to making" is grammatically incorrect. The correct preposition to use after "prevent" is "from."
• The correct structure is "prevent someone from doing something."
• Option 1 ("prevent him for making") and Option 3 ("prevent him in making") are incorrect as the prepositions "for" and "in" do not follow the verb "prevent" in this context.
• Option 4 ("No substitution") is incorrect because the original sentence is grammatically wrong.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "We must prevent him from making the same mistake again."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Prevent him for making" is incorrect because "for" is not the correct preposition to follow "prevent."
• Option 3: "Prevent him in making" is incorrect because "in" does not work with the verb "prevent" in this context.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect as the original sentence is grammatically incorrect.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The doctor said that his father was going to recover within the following two days.
• Key Conversions:
• Direct to Indirect Speech:
• The reporting verb "said" remains unchanged as it is a statement.
• The present continuous tense "is going" is converted to the past continuous tense "was going" to maintain the sequence of tenses.
• The time expression "next two days" is changed to "following two days" as per the rules of indirect speech.
• Pronoun Changes:
• The pronoun "your" is changed to "his" to reflect the perspective of the reported speech.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Quotation marks are removed in indirect speech.
• The sentence is restructured to follow the rules of indirect narration.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: The doctor said that his father was going to recover within the following two days.

Additional Information

• Option 2: The doctor said that his father is going to recover within the following two days.
• Incorrect because the present continuous "is going" is not changed to the past continuous "was going," violating the rules of indirect speech.
• Option 3: The doctor said that his father is going to recover within the next two days.
• Incorrect because the present continuous tense "is going" is not converted to the past continuous, and "next two days" is not converted to "following two days."
• Option 4: The doctor said that his father was going to recover within the previous two days.
• Incorrect because "previous two days" changes the time reference and alters the meaning of the statement.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Active voice sentences follow the structure: Subject + Verb + Object.
• Passive voice sentences follow the structure: Object + Auxiliary Verb (be) + Past Participle + by + Subject.
• The given sentence is in the passive voice: "The presentation has been given."
• To convert it into active voice, identify the implied subject (someone) and rewrite it as: "Someone has given the presentation."
• Ensure the tense remains the same (present perfect) during the transformation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "Someone has given the presentation."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The presentation was given." – Incorrect because the tense changes to past simple.
• Option 2: "They had given the presentation." – Incorrect because the tense changes to past perfect.
• Option 4: "Someone gives the presentation." – Incorrect because the tense changes to present simple.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: He told her that the documents had already been signed before she had called.
• Key Conversions:
• Reporting verb:
• The reporting verb "told" remains in the past tense, maintaining the narrative flow.
• Tense Conversion:
• In indirect speech, "had already been signed" is in past perfect tense, which remains unchanged in direct speech as "had already been signed."
• "She had called" changes to "you called," converting the indirect reference to a direct one.
• Pronoun Changes:
• "Her" changes to "you" to match the direct speech perspective.
• The sentence structure aligns with the conversation between "he" and "her."
• Punctuation:
• Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• Sentence starts with a capital letter and ends with a period.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "He said to her, ‘The documents had already been signed before you called.’"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "He said, ‘The documents were already signed before you called.’"
• The tense "were already signed" is incorrect as it changes the meaning from past perfect to past simple.
• Option 2: "He said to her, ‘The documents have already been signed before you had called.’"
• The use of "have already been signed" in present perfect tense is incorrect for a past action.
• Option 4: "He told her, ‘The documents have already been signed before you have called.’"
• The tense "have already been signed" and "have called" are incorrect for the context.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. 'to'.

Key Points

• The word "prone" is often followed by the preposition "to."
• It indicates susceptibility or vulnerability to something, especially something undesirable.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect or do not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "This area is prone to flooding during the monsoon."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "with" is incorrect because "prone with" is not a valid prepositional phrase.
• Option 2: "for" is incorrect because "prone for" does not convey the meaning of susceptibility or vulnerability.
• Option 4: "of" is incorrect because "prone of" is not a valid collocation.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "Her family will have accepted her decision by next year."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "her decision" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "will have accepted" to "will have been accepted" (future perfect passive).
• Keep the phrase "by her family" to indicate the original subject performing the action.
• Ensure the time phrase "by next year" remains at the end of the sentence for proper context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "Her decision will have been accepted by her family by next year."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Her decision will be accepted by her family by next year." – Incorrect tense (future simple passive).
• Option 2: "Her decision will be being accepted by her family by next year." – Incorrect tense (future continuous passive).
• Option 4: "Her decision will have being accepted by her family by next year." – Incorrect grammar (misuse of "being").

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The subject of the active voice sentence becomes the object of the passive voice sentence, and the object becomes the subject.
• The given sentence is already in the passive voice: "The new environmental policy will be implemented by the government with immediate effect."
• To convert this to active voice, the subject becomes "The government," and the object becomes "the new environmental policy."
• The correct active voice structure is: "The government will implement the new environmental policy with immediate effect."
• The verb "will be implemented" changes to "will implement" to match the active voice construction.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "The government will implement the new environmental policy with immediate effect."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "The government will have implemented the new environmental policy with immediate effect." – Incorrect tense (future perfect).
• Option 3: "The government has implemented the new environmental policy with immediate effect." – Incorrect tense (present perfect).
• Option 4: "The government is implementing the new environmental policy with immediate effect." – Incorrect tense (present continuous).

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• Option 3: Adjective clause
• An adjective clause (or relative clause) is used to modify a noun or pronoun. In this sentence, the clause "where knowledge is not merely recited but operationalized" modifies the noun "scenarios."
• Since it provides more information about the specific type of scenarios being discussed, it functions as an adjective.
• Option 1: Adverbial clause of place
• This is incorrect. While it begins with "where," an adverbial clause of place modifies a verb, adjective, or adverb to tell us where an action happens (e.g., "Put it where I can see it"). Here, it identifies a noun.
• Option 2: Noun clause
• This is incorrect. A noun clause functions as a subject or object (e.g., "I know where you are"). In the passage, the clause does not act as a noun.
• Option 4: Absolute phrase
• This is incorrect. An absolute phrase consists of a noun and a participle and modifies the entire sentence (e.g., "His heart racing, he ran"). This clause has a subordinating conjunction and a finite verb.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Relative Adverbs: The word "where" is a relative adverb. When a relative adverb introduces a clause that modifies a noun (like "scenarios," "place," or "house"), the entire clause is classified as an adjective clause.
• Context: The passage uses this clause to define the "authentic scenarios" of skill-based education, contrasting them with traditional theoretical learning.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• Option 4: Active voice
• In the active voice, the subject of the sentence performs the action. In the phrase "has engendered a workforce...", the subject (found earlier in the sentence: "This schism") is the one performing the action of "engendering" (creating/producing).
• The structure follows: Subject + Verb (has engendered) + Object (a workforce).
• Option 2: Passive voice
• This is incorrect. For the sentence to be in the passive voice, the object would become the subject, and it would require a form of the verb "to be" + past participle (e.g., "A workforce has been engendered by this schism").
• Option 1: Middle voice
• This is incorrect. The middle voice (less common in English) occurs when the subject is both the doer and the receiver of the action, or when an active form has a passive meaning (e.g., "The cake cuts easily"). This sentence clearly has a distinct object being acted upon.
• Option 3: Causative voice
• This is incorrect. The causative voice indicates that the subject causes someone else to do something (e.g., "I had the workforce trained"). "Engendered" here is a direct action by the subject.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• Tense: The verb phrase "has engendered" is in the Present Perfect Tense.
• Vocabulary: To "engender" means to cause or give rise to a feeling, situation, or condition. In this context, the educational "schism" is creating a specific type of workforce.
• Active vs. Passive: Using the active voice here makes the writing more direct and emphasizes the "schism" as the primary cause of the problem.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. State of being outdated.

Key Points

• The word "obsolescence" means:
• The process or state of becoming outdated or no longer used. (अप्रचलन)
• Example: The obsolescence of old technology requires companies to update their systems regularly.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured him a perfect score.

Therefore, the correct answer is: State of being outdated.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Advancement (प्रगति): The process of moving forward or making progress.
• Example: Technological advancement has greatly improved the way we communicate.
• Legal enforcement (कानूनी प्रवर्तन): The act of ensuring laws are followed and upheld.
• Example: Legal enforcement is necessary to maintain order in society.
• Improvement (सुधार): The process of making something better or more effective.
• Example: Continuous improvement in education standards is essential for student success.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Bridge the gap.

Key Points

• The idiom "bridge the gap" means:
• To connect two things or to reconcile differences between them. (अंतर को पाटना)
• Example: The new policies aim to bridge the gap between rich and poor.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured him a perfect score.
• Therefore, the correct answer is: Bridge the gap.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hit the nail on the head (बिलकुल सही बात कहना): To describe exactly what is causing a situation or problem.
• Example: She really hit the nail on the head with her comments about the company's inefficiencies.
• Burn the midnight oil (रात देर तक काम करना): To work late into the night.
• Example: He burned the midnight oil to finish the project on time.
• Throw in the towel (हार मान लेना): To give up or admit defeat.
• Example: After months of struggling, he finally threw in the towel and closed his business.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• Option 3: It bridges the gap between learning and employability.
• The passage identifies a "schism between academic instruction and workplace exigencies" in traditional pedagogy. Skill-based education is described as a "systemic imperative" that "reconciles the persistent dichotomy between learning and livelihood."
• Option 1: It reduces the duration of education.
• This is incorrect. The passage mentions that skill-oriented systems encourage "lifelong learning," but it does not claim that the overall duration of the educational period is shortened.
• Option 2: It eliminates the need for academic knowledge.
• This is incorrect. The text states that in skill-based education, knowledge is "operationalized" rather than "merely recited," suggesting that knowledge is still used but in a more practical, applied way.
• Option 4: It focuses solely on manual skills.
• This is incorrect. The passage highlights that skill-based education fosters "technological fluency," "communication," and "critical soft skills," which go beyond simple manual labor.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Dichotomy: A division or contrast between two things that are or are represented as being opposed or entirely different. The passage aims to bridge the dichotomy between theory and practice.
• Workplace Exigencies: The urgent requirements or needs of the modern professional environment.
• Democratization: The passage notes that skill-based education makes opportunities accessible based on "demonstrable capability" rather than just "academic prestige."

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The sequence begins with Sentence S, as it introduces the initial step of extracting raw data from multiple sources:
• "She wrote a script to extract raw data from multiple sources."
• Sentence Q follows, describing how the raw data was processed and transformed to make it usable:
• "She created a series of functions to clean and transform the data, making it usable."
• Sentence R is next, as it logically explains the creation of a dashboard to visualize the insights derived from the cleaned data:
• "She developed a dashboard to visualise the insights and trends hidden in the data."
• Sentence P concludes the paragraph by describing how the findings were presented to her team:
• "She presented the findings to her team, revealing new patterns in the business."
• The correct sequence is S, Q, R, P.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"She wrote a script to extract raw data from multiple sources. She created a series of functions to clean and transform the data, making it usable. She developed a dashboard to visualise the insights and trends hidden in the data. She presented the findings to her team, revealing new patterns in the business."

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The sentences need to be arranged in a logical and coherent sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.
• Sentence P is the first sentence as it introduces the central idea about the group of scientists looking for a new exoplanet:
• "The group of scientists was looking for a new planet outside of our solar system, known as an exoplanet."
• Sentence Q follows as it explains the method the scientists used to search for the exoplanet:
• "They observed the far-off star using a powerful telescope in search of a telltale dimming of its brightness."
• Sentence S is the third sentence as it elaborates on the significance of the dimming of the star's brightness:
• "This slight dimming would indicate a planet passing in front of the star."
• Sentence R is the fourth as it concludes the paragraph by stating the discovery of the new planet:
• "They found a new planet, establishing its existence through a series of follow-up observations."
• The correct sequence is P, Q, S, R.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"The group of scientists was looking for a new planet outside of our solar system, known as an exoplanet. They observed the far-off star using a powerful telescope in search of a telltale dimming of its brightness. This slight dimming would indicate a planet passing in front of the star. They found a new planet, establishing its existence through a series of follow-up observations."

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Generous.

Key Points

• The word "parsimonious" means unwilling to spend money or use resources; stingy or frugal. (कंजूस/मितव्ययी)
• Example: The parsimonious man refused to donate even a small amount to the charity.
• The word "generous" refers to someone who is willing to give more of something, especially money or time, than is strictly necessary or expected. (उदार)
• Example: She is known for her generous donations to educational institutions.
• Hence, the antonym of "parsimonious" is "generous."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Generous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Stingy (कंजूस): Unwilling to give or spend; ungenerous.
• Example: He is so stingy that he hesitates to tip the waiter even a small amount.
• Frugal (मितव्ययी): Sparing or economical with regard to money or food.
• Example: She led a frugal lifestyle to save money for her children's education.
• Economical (आर्थिक): Using no more of something than is necessary; efficient.
• Example: Buying in bulk is an economical way to save money on groceries.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Awake.

Key Points

• The word "Somnolent" means drowsy or sleepy; it refers to a state of being almost asleep or causing sleep. (नींद से भरा हुआ)
• Example: The somnolent lecture made most of the students struggle to stay awake.
• The correct antonym of "Somnolent" is "Awake", which means fully alert or conscious, not sleepy. (जागा हुआ)
• Example: Despite staying up all night, she managed to stay awake during the meeting.
• Hence, the opposite of "Somnolent" is "Awake".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Awake.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Dull (सुस्त): Lacking interest, excitement, or energy; not bright or sharp.
• Example: The dull weather made everyone feel gloomy.
• Lethargic (आलसी): Lacking energy or enthusiasm; sluggish.
• Example: After a heavy meal, she felt too lethargic to move.
• Sluggish (मंद): Moving slowly or lacking energy or alertness.
• Example: The sluggish pace of the project frustrated the team members.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• The correct spelling of the word is 'chiaroscuro'.
• The term chiaroscuro refers to the treatment of light and shade in drawing and painting. It is used to create a dramatic effect by emphasizing contrasts between light and dark areas.
• This word comes from the Italian words "chiaro" (light) and "scuro" (dark).

Correct sentence: The author's prose was filled with chiaroscuro imagery.

Additional Information

• The other options are misspelled versions of the word:
• Option 1: chiaroscuoro - Incorrect due to extra "o".
• Option 2: chairoscuro - Incorrect due to misplaced "i".
• Option 3: chairoscouro - Incorrect due to extra "u".
• Always ensure correct spelling, especially for borrowed words, by referring to reliable dictionaries or language resources.

The correct answer is: 2) Hatred.

Key Points

• The word "Hatred" refers to a very strong feeling of dislike or animosity toward someone or something. (घृणा)
• Example: The deep hatred between the two families was evident during the meeting.
• Explanation: In the question, the term asked refers to a strong feeling of not liking someone or something, which is best represented by the word "Hatred" (घृणा).
• Example: His hatred for dishonesty made him a respected leader.

Therefore, the correct answer is: 2) Hatred.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Affection (स्नेह): A gentle feeling of fondness or liking.
• Example: She showed great affection toward her younger brother.
• Admiration (प्रशंसा): A feeling of respect and approval.
• Example: Her dedication to work earned the admiration of her colleagues.
• Love (प्यार): A deep feeling of affection or care toward someone or something.
• Example: His love for music inspired him to become a composer.

The logic followed here is:

Position of C from the left = 11th

Position of C from the right = 20th

So,

Total number of people = Position of C from the left + Position of C from the right - 1

= 11 + 20 - 1

= 31 - 1 = 30.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The boy says, "She is the only daughter of the only child of my paternal grandmother."

Now,

1. "Paternal Grandmother" - This refers to the mother of the boy's father.

2. "Only child of my paternal grandmother" - The only child of a person's paternal grandmother is their Father.

3. "Only daughter of the only child" - This translates to the "Only daughter of my father".

4. Final Relationship - The only daughter of the boy's father is the boy's Sister. 

Therefore, the girl is the Sister of the boy.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Statements:

Some pens are pencils.

All pencils are erasers.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I. Some pens are erasers - True (Since some pens are pencils and all pencils are erasers, the part of pens that are pencils must also be erasers).

II. No pen is an eraser - False (This contradicts the established fact that a portion of pens definitely overlaps with erasers).

So, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Total number of bicycles in the row = 33

Position of Bicycle R from the left = 10th

Position of Bicycle S from the right = 17th

To find the bicycles between R and S:

Bicycles between R and S = Total - (Position of R from left + Position of S from right)

= 33 - (10 + 17)

= 33 - 27

= 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Total number of books on the shelf = 65

Position of Book C from the left = 28th

Position of Book D from the right = 19th

To find the number of books between C and D:

Books between C and D = Total - (Position of C from left + Position of D from right)

= 65 - (28 + 19)

= 65 - 47

= 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 19.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2";

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is -175.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4";

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 802.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3";

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number × Second number) × 5 = Resulting number

For: 24 # 30

→ (24 × 30) × 5

→ 720 × 5 = 3600

For: 22 # 8

→ (22 × 8) × 5

→ 176 × 5 = 880

Similarly, for 24 # 10:

→ (24 × 10) × 5

⇒ 240 × 5 = 1200

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed for the second image is:

Logic: (First number + (Second number ÷ Third number)) = Resulting number

Case 1: 163 $ 448 ; 16

→ 163 - (448 ÷ 16)

→ 163 - 28 = 135

Case 2: 857 $ 260 ; 20

→ 857 - (260 ÷ 20)

→ 857 - 13 = 844

Similarly, for 686 $ 476 ; 17:

→ 686 - (476 ÷ 17)

⇒ 686 - 28 = 658

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

12 # 3 % 2 ! 8 = ?

By using the BODMAS rule:

By, decoding the given symbols we get.

Substituting the given operator in the given expression:

⇒ 12 # 3 % 2 ! 8

⇒ 12 × (3 ÷ 2) + 8

⇒ 12 × 1.5 + 8

⇒ 18 + 8

⇒ 26

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given Statements:

All Night are Dark.

Some Night are Calm.

No Storm is Calm.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusions:

I. Some Dark are Calm - True (Since all Night are Dark and some Night are Calm, the overlapping portion of Night and Calm is also inside the Dark circle).

II. Some Night are not Storm - True (The part of Night that is Calm cannot be Storm, because no Storm is Calm).

So, Both conclusions I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: Six boxes L, M, N, O, P, and Q are placed one above another. The bottommost box is 1 and the topmost box is 6.

1. Three boxes are placed between P and M.

2. M is placed just below Q.

3. Q is not the topmost box (Q cannot be on floor 6).

4. N is placed just above L.

5. L is placed below O.

Case II is not possible.

So, from Case I

O is on Floor 6 and Q is on Floor 2. The boxes between them are P (5), N (4), and L (3).

There are 3 boxes between O and Q.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing letter cluster in the series is NZH.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Five dams A, B, C, D, and E are compared based on their depths.

1) Depth of D is more than only 3 dams.

Structure: __ > D > __ > __ > __

2) Depth of B and C is more than E.

3) Depth of A is less than E.

(B, C) > E > A.

Arranging all dams:

(B/C) > D > (C/B or E) 

Sequence: (B or C) > D > (C or B) > E > A

Analyzing the depth:

It is given that the depth of D = 400.

In any valid configuration where D is the 2nd deepest, E is either the 4th deepest.

E must be at a position lower than D.

Therefore, Depth of E < Depth of D.

Depth of E < 400.

6) Evaluating the options:

1. 510 (Greater than 400)

2. 450 (Greater than 400)

3. 420 (Greater than 400)

4. 300 (Less than 400)

The only possible depth for E that is less than 400 is 300.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: 6 persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing north.

E is to the immediate left of B.

C is the immediate neighbour of A and E.

Some persons are to the right of F.

D is not at any of the end of the row.

So, F is at the left end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 8 boys A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing south.

A and H are at extreme ends.

F is to the immediate left of A.

E and F are immediate neighbours of B.

C is fourth to the left of B.

D is not the immediate neighbour of C.

And G sits at the remaining place.

So, 3 boys are sitting between F and G.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Statement: No student who fails the midterm exam passes the final course. Sarah passed the final course.

Now, 

Inferences:

1. Sarah got an A on the midterm - Not Inferred (The statement only tells us she did not fail; it does not provide specific details about her exact grade.) 2. Sarah did not fail the midterm exam - Logically Inferred (If failing the midterm makes it impossible to pass the course, and Sarah passed the course, she must not have failed the midterm via Modus Tollens.) 3. Sarah studied hard for the midterm - Not Inferred (While likely, the statement describes the result of the exam, not the effort or study habits of the student.) 4. Sarah retook the midterm - Not Inferred (There is no information provided regarding retakes or administrative policies in the given statement.)

Here, Only statement 2 is logically inferred.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The given numbers to be interchanged: 2 and 7

The original equation: 2 × 4 + 7 − 6 ÷ 1 = ?

After interchanging the numbers 2 and 7, the new equation is:

7 × 4 + 2 − 6 ÷ 1 = ?

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

7 × 4 + 2 − 6 ÷ 1

⇒ 7 × 4 + 2 − 6 

⇒ 28 + 2 − 6 = 24

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The given numbers to be interchanged: 2 and 8

Equation I: 9 × 8 + 2 − 9 ÷ 3 = 23

After interchanging the numbers 2 and 8, the new equation is:

9 × 2 + 8 − 9 ÷ 3 = 23

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

9 × 2 + 8 − 9 ÷ 3

⇒ 9 × 2 + 8 − 3 

⇒ 18 + 8 − 3 = 23

23 = 23 (Correct)

Equation II: 7 × 2 + 8 − 4 ÷ 2 = 56

After interchanging the numbers 2 and 8, the new equation is:

7 × 8 + 2 − 4 ÷ 8 = 56

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

7 × 8 + 2 − 0.5

⇒ 7 × 8 + 2 − 0.5 

⇒ 56 + 2 − 0.5 = 56

57.5 = 56 (Incorrect)

Since equation I are correct after the interchange, only II is incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is.

For BUYS : XPUN

For AREA : WMAV

Similarly for ARIA : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

The logic followed here is.

For ROOT : MIJN

For FANS : AUIM

Similarly, for JAMS : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is PD221.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is NQ506.25.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is AK553.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

(√3 + √2)²

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculation:

⇒ (√3 + √2)² = 3 + 2 + 2√6

⇒ = 5 + 2√6

∴ The correct answer is 5 + 2√6.

Given:

Original price = Rs. 500

Increase percentage = 10%

Formula Used:

New price = Original price + (Original price × Increase percentage ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Increase amount = Rs. 500 × 10 ÷ 100

⇒ Increase amount = Rs. 50

⇒ New price = Rs. 500 + Rs. 50

⇒ New price = Rs. 550

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 550.

Given:

Profit 1 = 25%

Profit 2 = 40%

Difference in selling price = 60

Formula Used:

Selling Price = CP × (1 + profit%)

Calculation:

⇒ Let CP = 100

⇒ SP₁ = 125

⇒ SP₂ = 140

⇒ Difference = 140 − 125 = 15

⇒ 15 corresponds to 60

⇒ 1 corresponds to 60 ÷ 15 = 4

⇒ CP = 100 × 4

⇒ CP = 400

∴ The correct answer is 400.

Given:

Principal (P) = Rs. 1450

Rate of Interest (R) = 9% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (1450 × 9 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (1450 × 27) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 39150 ÷ 100

⇒ SI = Rs. 391.50

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 391.50.

Given:

A does 1 ÷ 3 work in 10 days

B does 1 ÷ 4 work in 5 days

Formula Used:

Efficiency ∝ Work ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 3 and 4 = 12

⇒ Total work = 12 units

⇒ A does 4 units in 10 days

⇒ A's efficiency = 4 ÷ 10 = 2 ÷ 5

⇒ B does 3 units in 5 days

⇒ B's efficiency = 3 ÷ 5

⇒ Compare: (3 ÷ 5) − (2 ÷ 5) = 1 ÷ 5

⇒ Percentage difference = (1 ÷ 5) ÷ (2 ÷ 5) × 100

⇒ = (1 ÷ 2) × 100

⇒ = 50%

∴ The correct answer is B is 50% more efficient.

Given:

Number of sides = 8

Formula Used:

Central angle of regular polygon = 360° ÷ Number of sides

Calculation:

⇒ Central angle = 360 ÷ 8 = 45°

∴ The correct answer is 45°.

Given:

Slant height = 13 m

Side of base = 10 m

Formula Used:

l² = h² + (a ÷ 2)²

Calculation:

⇒ 13² = h² + (10 ÷ 2)²

⇒ 169 = h² + 5²

⇒ 169 = h² + 25

⇒ h² = 169 − 25 = 144

⇒ h = 12 m

∴ The correct answer is 12 m.

Given:

Height of cone = 12 cm

Radius of cone = 6 cm

Height of smaller cone = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = (1 ÷ 3) × π × r² × h

For similar solids: (r₂ ÷ r₁) = (h₂ ÷ h₁)

Calculation:

⇒ Ratio = 6 ÷ 12 = 1 ÷ 2

⇒ Radius of smaller cone = 6 × (1 ÷ 2) = 3 cm

⇒ Volume = (1 ÷ 3) × π × 3² × 6

⇒ = (1 ÷ 3) × π × 9 × 6

⇒ = 18π cm³

∴ The correct answer is 18π cm³.

Given:

Initial radius = 5 cm

Final radius = 10 cm

Formula Used:

Surface area of sphere = 4 × π × r²

Percentage increase = ((New − Original) ÷ Original) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Original surface area = 4 × π × 5²

⇒ Original surface area = 4 × π × 25 = 100π

⇒ New surface area = 4 × π × 10²

⇒ New surface area = 4 × π × 100 = 400π

⇒ Increase = 400π − 100π = 300π

⇒ Percentage increase = (300π ÷ 100π) × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = 3 × 100

⇒ Percentage increase = 300%

∴ The correct answer is 300%.

Given:

Width of path = 3.5 m

Total area = 2.25 × area of lawn

Formula Used:

Area of circle = π × r²

Calculation:

⇒ Let radius of lawn = r

⇒ Outer radius = r + 3.5

⇒ Total area = π × (r + 3.5)²

⇒ Lawn area = π × r²

⇒ π × (r + 3.5)² = 2.25 × π × r²

⇒ (r + 3.5)² = 2.25 × r²

⇒ r² + 7r + 12.25 = 2.25r²

⇒ 7r + 12.25 = 1.25r²

⇒ 1.25r² − 7r − 12.25 = 0

⇒ 5r² − 28r − 49 = 0

⇒ r = (28 + √(28² + 4 × 5 × 49)) ÷ 10

⇒ r = (28 + √(784 + 980)) ÷ 10

⇒ r = (28 + √1764) ÷ 10

⇒ r = (28 + 42) ÷ 10

⇒ r = 70 ÷ 10

⇒ r = 7.0

∴ The correct answer is 7.0 m.

Given:

Sum of numbers = 80

Sum of squares = 2650

Product = 13500

Formula Used:

a³ + b³ + c³ = (a + b + c)³ − 3(a + b + c)(ab + bc + ca) + 3abc

a² + b² + c² = (a + b + c)² − 2(ab + bc + ca)

Calculation:

a2 + b2 + c2 = (a + b + c)2 − 2(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 2650 = 80² − 2(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 2650 = 6400 − 2(ab + bc + ca)

⇒ 2(ab + bc + ca) = 6400 − 2650 = 3750

⇒ ab + bc + ca = 1875

⇒ a³ + b³ + c³ = 80³ − 3 × 80 × 1875 + 3 × 13500

⇒ = 512000 − 450000 + 40500

⇒ = 102500

∴ The correct answer is 102500.

Given:

3sinθ − cosθ = 0

Formula Used:

tanθ = sinθ ÷ cosθ

Calculation:

⇒ 3sinθ = cosθ

⇒ sinθ ÷ cosθ = 1 ÷ 3

⇒ tanθ = 1 ÷ 3

⇒ 4tanθ = 4 × (1 ÷ 3)

⇒ 4tanθ = 4 ÷ 3

∴ The correct answer is 4 ÷ 3.

Given:

Side of square base = 10 m

Slant height = 6 m

Formula Used:

Lateral surface area of square pyramid = (1 ÷ 2) × perimeter of base × slant height

Area of square base = side²

Calculation:

⇒ Perimeter of base = 4 × 10 = 40

⇒ Lateral area = (1 ÷ 2) × 40 × 6

⇒ Lateral area = 20 × 6 = 120

⇒ Base area = 10² = 100

⇒ Total area = 120 + 100

⇒ Total area = 220

∴ The correct answer is 220 m².

Given:

Decimal = 0.363636...

Fraction to compare = 1 ÷ 3

Formula Used:

Let x = recurring decimal

10ⁿx − x to eliminate repeating part

Calculation:

⇒ Let x = 0.363636...

⇒ 100x = 36.363636...

⇒ 100x − x = 36.363636... − 0.363636...

⇒ 99x = 36

⇒ x = 36 ÷ 99

⇒ x = 4 ÷ 11

⇒ Difference = (4 ÷ 11) − (1 ÷ 3)

⇒ Difference = (12 − 11) ÷ 33

⇒ Difference = 1 ÷ 33

∴ The correct answer is 1 ÷ 33.

Given:

secθ = 2

Formula Used:

tan²θ = sec²θ − 1

Calculation:

⇒ tan²θ = 2² − 1

⇒ tan²θ = 4 − 1 = 3

⇒ tanθ = √3

∴ The correct answer is √3.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of investments A : B = 10,000 : 20,000 = 1 : 2

Total profit units = 1 + 2 = 3 units

Given, 3 units = ₹45,000

A's share (1 unit) = 45,000 ÷ 3 = ₹15,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹15,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Investment of A = ₹10,000

Investment of B = ₹20,000

Total Profit = ₹45,000

Formula Used:

Profit Ratio = (Capital_A × Time_A) : (Capital_B × Time_B)

Since the time period is not mentioned, it is assumed to be the same for both.

⇒ Profit Ratio (A : B) = 10,000 : 20,000 = 1 : 2

⇒ Total Ratio = 1 + 2 = 3

⇒ A's Share = (A's Ratio ÷ Total Ratio) × Total Profit

⇒ A's Share = (1 ÷ 3) × 45,000

⇒ A's Share = ₹15,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹15,000.

Additional Information

Partnership Profit Sharing Rule

Profit is always distributed in the ratio of the product of capital and the time for which the capital is invested: P₁:P₂ = C₁T₁:C₂T₂.

Simple vs Compound Partnership

In a simple partnership, all partners invest for the same time. In a compound partnership, partners invest for different durations.

Working vs Sleeping Partner

A working partner manages the business and may receive a salary or extra profit share, while a sleeping partner only invests money.

Given:

Total sum = 150

A : B = 3 : 5

B : C = 5 : 7

Formula Used:

Convert ratios to a common ratio

Share = (individual ratio ÷ total ratio) × total sum

Calculation:

⇒ A : B = 3 : 5

⇒ B : C = 5 : 7

⇒ Combined ratio = 3 : 5 : 7

⇒ Total ratio = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15

⇒ B's share = (5 ÷ 15) × 150

⇒ B's share = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Given:

Angle in degrees: 150°

Correct option: 5π/6

Formula Used:

Radians = Degrees × (π/180)

Calculation:

⇒ Radians = 150 × (π/180)

⇒ Radians = (150 ÷ 180) × π

⇒ Radians = (5/6) × π

⇒ Radians = 5π/6

∴ The correct answer is 5π/6.

Given:

Rate₁ = 8%

Rate₂ = 10%

Total interest = 1872

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + r₁ ÷ 100) × (1 + r₂ ÷ 100)

Interest = Amount − Principal

Calculation:

⇒ Amount = Principal × 1.08 × 1.10

⇒ Amount = Principal × 1.188

⇒ Interest = Principal × 1.188 − Principal

⇒ Interest = Principal × 0.188

⇒ 0.188 × Principal = 1872

⇒ Principal = 1872 ÷ 0.188

⇒ Principal = 9,957.45

∴ The correct answer is 9,957.45.

Given:

Number of students = 49

Average of 49 students = 70

New number of students = 50

New average = 71

Formula Used:

Total marks = Average × Number of students

Calculation:

⇒ Total marks of 49 students = 70 × 49 = 3430

⇒ Total marks of 50 students = 71 × 50 = 3550

⇒ Marks of 50th student = 3550 − 3430

⇒ Marks of 50th student = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Given:

Radius of cylinder = 5 cm

Initial height of water = 10 cm

Radius of sphere = 3 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × r³

Volume = Base area × increase in height

Base area of cylinder = π × R²

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of sphere = (4 ÷ 3) × π × 3³

⇒ Volume = (4 ÷ 3) × π × 27

⇒ Volume = 36π

⇒ Base area = π × 5² = 25π

⇒ Increase in height = 36π ÷ 25π

⇒ Increase in height = 36 ÷ 25

⇒ Increase in height = 1.44

∴ The correct answer is 1.44 cm.

Given:

Ratio in A = 1 : 3

Ratio in B = 3 : 1

A : B = 1 : 1

Total solution = 400 ml

Final ratio alcohol : water = 1 : 2

Formula Used:

Quantity = Ratio × Total ÷ Sum of ratios

Calculation:

⇒ In A: alcohol = 1 ÷ 4, water = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ In B: alcohol = 3 ÷ 4, water = 1 ÷ 4

⇒ Mixture (1:1): alcohol = (1 ÷ 4 + 3 ÷ 4) ÷ 2 = 1 ÷ 2

⇒ Mixture (1:1): water = (3 ÷ 4 + 1 ÷ 4) ÷ 2 = 1 ÷ 2

⇒ Alcohol in 400 ml = 400 × 1 ÷ 2 = 200

⇒ Water in 400 ml = 400 × 1 ÷ 2 = 200

⇒ Let water added = x

⇒ New ratio: 200 : (200 + x) = 1 : 2

⇒ 200 × 2 = 200 + x

⇒ 400 = 200 + x

⇒ x = 200

∴ The correct answer is 200.

Given:

$a - \frac{1}{a} = 2$

Formula Used:

$(a - \frac{1}{a})^2 = a^2 + \frac{1}{a^2} - 2$

$(a^2 + \frac{1}{a^2})^2 = a^4 + \frac{1}{a^4} + 2$

Calculation:

⇒ $(a - \frac{1}{a})^2 = 2^2 = 4$

⇒ $a^2 + \frac{1}{a^2} - 2 = 4 \Rightarrow a^2 + \frac{1}{a^2} = 6$

⇒ $(a^2 + \frac{1}{a^2})^2 = 6^2 = 36$

⇒ $a^4 + \frac{1}{a^4} + 2 = 36 \Rightarrow a^4 + \frac{1}{a^4} = 34$

∴ The correct answer is $34$.

Given:

Speed of first train = 60 km/h

Speed of second train = 90 km/h

Time difference = 2 hours

Total distance = 540 km

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Relative speed = Sum of speeds

Calculation:

⇒ Distance covered by first train in 2 hours = 60 × 2 = 120

⇒ Remaining distance = 540 − 120 = 420

⇒ Relative speed = 60 + 90 = 150

⇒ Time to meet after 8 AM = 420 ÷ 150

⇒ Time = 2.8 hours

⇒ Time = 2 hours 48 minutes

⇒ Meeting time = 8:00 AM + 2 hours 48 minutes = 10:48 AM

∴ The correct answer is 10:48 AM.

Given:

Marked Price = 140% of Discount

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount

Percentage = (Marked Price ÷ Selling Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let Discount = 100

⇒ Marked Price = 140% of 100 = 140

⇒ Selling Price = 140 − 100 = 40

⇒ Percentage = (140 ÷ 40) × 100 = 3.5 × 100 = 350

∴ The correct answer is 350%.

The correct answer is To lead military campaigns and maintain law and order.

Key Points

• Role of Muqtis: The primary duty of Muqtis in the Delhi Sultanate was to lead military campaigns, maintain law and order, and ensure the safety of the assigned territories (iqtas).
• The iqta system was introduced by rulers like Iltutmish and developed further by successive sultans. Under this system, territories (iqtas) were allocated to military officers (Muqtis) for governance and revenue collection.
• Muqtis were responsible for collecting revenue and taxes from their iqta. A part of the revenue was sent to the central treasury, while the rest was utilized for administrative and military purposes.
• Muqtis ensured the enforcement of the Sultanate’s authority by maintaining law and order and suppressing rebellions or threats within their regions.
• They were often required to lead armies in campaigns against enemies or rebels, contributing to the Sultanate's territorial expansion and stability.
• Muqtis were subject to strict oversight by the Sultan. Mismanagement or failure in duties could lead to their dismissal or punishment.

Additional Information

• • The iqta system was central to the administrative structure of the Delhi Sultanate. It was a system of land revenue and territorial governance that ensured efficient administration and military support.
• The term iqta refers to land grants or assignments made to officials in return for administrative and military services.
• The system was initially borrowed from the Islamic world and adapted by Indian rulers like Iltutmish during the 13th century.
• Muqtis were appointed to manage these iqtas and were tasked with governance, revenue collection, and military defense.
• • During the reign of Alauddin Khilji, the iqta system was reformed to prevent corruption. Muqtis were required to keep detailed accounts of revenues and expenditures.
• In some cases, Muqtis were rotated to different iqtas to ensure loyalty and prevent the establishment of independent power bases.
• • Muqtis were expected to support the Sultan in major campaigns by providing troops and resources from their iqtas.
• They also acted as intermediaries between the local population and the Sultanate’s central administration.
• • Under Iltutmish, the iqta system helped consolidate the Sultanate’s control over vast territories by delegating responsibilities to trusted officers.
• During Ghiyasuddin Balban’s reign, Muqtis played a crucial role in suppressing rebellions and maintaining stability in remote regions.

Important Points

• The Sultanate maintained strict control over Muqtis to ensure loyalty and efficiency. Revenue records were regularly audited, and Muqtis who failed in their duties faced severe penalties.
• The iqta system was a key administrative innovation that enabled the Delhi Sultanate to manage its extensive territories effectively while maintaining a strong military presence.
• The iqta system gradually declined during the later years of the Sultanate due to corruption, inefficiency, and the weakening of central authority.
• Elements of the iqta system influenced subsequent administrative practices in India, including those of the Mughal Empire.

The correct answer is Queen Didda.

Key Points

• Queen Didda ruled Kashmir from 980 to 1003 CE. She was one of the most prominent female rulers in the history of Kashmir.
• She belonged to the Lohara dynasty and was known for her remarkable administrative skills and political acumen.
• Queen Didda successfully consolidated her power by eliminating rivals and suppressing rebellions during her reign.
• Her reign marked a period of relative stability in Kashmir, and she played a significant role in strengthening the kingdom's foundations.
• She was the widow of King Ksemagupta and ruled as regent for her son and grandson before assuming full control of the throne.

Additional Information

• Role in Consolidating Power:
• Queen Didda was known for her ability to manage and eliminate internal threats to her power, including the assassination of officials who posed a challenge to her authority.
• She used her political intelligence to maintain control over the kingdom and ensured that her rule was undisputed.
• Lohara Dynasty:
• The Lohara dynasty was a prominent ruling dynasty in Kashmir during medieval times, known for its contributions to art, architecture, and governance.
• Queen Didda played a pivotal role in the early consolidation of the dynasty's rule over Kashmir.
• Historical Context:
• Kashmir during Queen Didda's reign was a culturally rich and strategically important region in northern India.
• Her governance helped protect the kingdom from external invasions and internal instability during her time.
• Legacy:
• Queen Didda is remembered as one of the most powerful and influential female rulers in Indian history.
• Her reign is documented in historical texts as a period of effective administration and centralized governance.

Important Points

• Other Options:
• Mariam-uz-Zamani: She was a Mughal queen and mother of Emperor Jahangir. She had no connection with the rule of Kashmir.
• Khanzada Begum: A prominent figure in Mughal history, but she did not rule Kashmir.
• Durgavati: A Gond queen known for her resistance against Mughal forces, but her rule was limited to central India, not Kashmir.
• Historical Significance: Queen Didda’s reign demonstrates the significant role of women in medieval Indian politics and governance.

The correct answer is Article 226.

Key Points

• Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers the High Courts to issue certain writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for other purposes.
• Under this article, High Courts can issue writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto to ensure justice and protect individuals' rights.
• This provision is broader than Article 32, as it includes both fundamental rights and other legal rights, which makes it an important judicial tool.
• The jurisdiction of High Courts under Article 226 is wider and not limited to fundamental rights; it extends to any legal right or issue concerning justice.
• High Courts can also exercise this power in cases where the cause of action arises within their territorial jurisdiction, allowing them to address regional legal matters effectively.

Additional Information

• Article 32 of the Constitution:
• It empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
• It is considered the "heart and soul" of the Constitution as described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
• Unlike Article 226, it is limited to the enforcement of fundamental rights only.
• Article 227:
• This article gives the High Courts the power of superintendence over all subordinate courts and tribunals within their territorial jurisdiction.
• It ensures judicial discipline and administrative efficiency in lower courts.
• Article 131:
• It deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between states.
• It is primarily used for resolving federal disputes rather than individual rights.
• Types of Writs:
• Habeas Corpus: To ensure protection against unlawful detention.
• Mandamus: To compel a public authority to perform its duty.
• Prohibition: To prevent lower courts from exceeding their jurisdiction.
• Certiorari: To transfer a case from a lower court to a higher court or quash an incorrect order.
• Quo Warranto: To challenge the legality of a person's claim to a public office.

Important Points

• High Court's Jurisdiction:
• High Courts under Article 226 can act in matters involving fundamental rights as well as legal rights.
• This makes their jurisdiction broader compared to the Supreme Court under Article 32.
• Territorial Scope:
• The writ jurisdiction is available within the territorial boundaries of the respective High Court.
• It ensures regional justice and legal accountability.
• Historical Context:
• The concept of writs originated in English Common Law, later adopted into the Indian legal system.
• Writs are a vital tool for upholding the principles of Rule of Law in India.

The correct answer is 1976.

Key Points

• The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was founded on August 8, 1967, with five founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
• In 1976, the ASEAN Secretariat was established in Jakarta, Indonesia, to coordinate and facilitate ASEAN’s activities and ensure efficient implementation of its policies.
• The Secretariat plays a crucial role in promoting cooperation among member states in areas such as economic growth, cultural development, and regional stability.
• The establishment of the Secretariat marked a significant milestone in ASEAN’s institutional development, enhancing its organizational structure and operational efficiency.
• The first Secretary-General of ASEAN was Hartono Dharsono, who served from 1976 to 1978.

Additional Information

• ASEAN Formation:
• ASEAN was created to promote regional peace, stability, and cooperation in Southeast Asia.
• The Bangkok Declaration, signed on August 8, 1967, served as the founding document of ASEAN.
• Over the years, ASEAN has expanded to include 10 member states: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.
• Role of the ASEAN Secretariat:
• It coordinates activities among member states and ensures the implementation of ASEAN agreements and decisions.
• The Secretariat also serves as a platform for dialogue and collaboration on issues like trade, security, environment, and education.
• It supports ASEAN’s vision of regional integration by facilitating communication between member states and external partners.
• Key ASEAN Agreements:
• The ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA), established in 1992, aims to reduce tariffs and promote trade among member states.
• The ASEAN Charter, adopted in 2007, serves as the legal and institutional framework for ASEAN and strengthens its operational capacity.
• Economic and Strategic Importance:
• ASEAN is one of the world’s most dynamic regions, with a combined population of over 650 million and a GDP of approximately 3.5 trillion USD.
• It plays a significant role in fostering economic growth and regional stability in Southeast Asia.

Important Points

• The ASEAN Secretariat is headquartered in Jakarta, Indonesia, reflecting Indonesia’s pivotal role in the regional organization.
• The Secretary-General of ASEAN is appointed for a term of 5 years and is responsible for overseeing the activities of the Secretariat.
• ASEAN operates on the principle of consensus decision-making, ensuring equal representation and agreement among member states.
• In addition to its member states, ASEAN engages with external partners through frameworks like the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) and East Asia Summit (EAS).

The correct answer is M Venkaiah Naidu.

Key Points

• M Venkaiah Naidu, the former Vice President of India, was honoured with the prestigious Padma Vibhushan award in 2024 for his exceptional contributions to public service and Indian politics.
• The Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award in India, recognizing "exceptional and distinguished service" in various fields, including public affairs, arts, science, and social work.
• M Venkaiah Naidu has been an influential leader in Indian politics, serving as the Vice President from 2017 to 2022 and holding key portfolios such as Minister of Urban Development, Housing, and Parliamentary Affairs.
• He is known for his strong advocacy of rural development, urban planning, and promotion of Indian culture and values.
• The Padma Awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day, and recipients are selected based on their notable contributions to society.

Additional Information

• Padma Vibhushan Award:
• The Padma Vibhushan is part of the Padma Awards, which also include the Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri, conferred by the Government of India.
• It is awarded for "exceptional and distinguished service" across various fields such as arts, public affairs, science, sports, and more.
• The award was established in 1954 and is conferred by the President of India.
• M Venkaiah Naidu:
• Born: 1 July 1949, in Andhra Pradesh, India.
• Known for his eloquence and passion for Indian culture, Naidu has been a dedicated member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• He played a pivotal role in urban development initiatives like the Smart Cities Mission and Housing for All.
• Other Awardees in 2024:
• The Padma Awards 2024 also recognized several other prominent personalities for their contributions in diverse fields such as arts, science, medicine, and social work.
• These awards showcase India's recognition of excellence and service to the nation.
• Selection Process:
• The recipients are selected by a committee constituted by the Prime Minister of India.
• Nominations are received from the general public, government bodies, and non-governmental organizations.

Important Points

• Padma Awards 2024:
• The awards were announced on 25 January 2024, recognizing a total of 106 awardees, including 6 Padma Vibhushan, 9 Padma Bhushan, and 91 Padma Shri recipients.
• The awards are a reflection of India's gratitude towards individuals who have made a lasting impact in their respective domains.
• Significance:
• The awards promote the spirit of national service and encourage others to contribute meaningfully to society.

The correct answer is Hari Babu Kambhampati.

Key Points

• Hari Babu Kambhampati took oath as the Governor of Manipur in January 2025. His appointment follows the tradition of appointing individuals with political and administrative experience to the gubernatorial post.
• The oath ceremony was conducted as per the constitutional provisions outlined in Article 159 of the Constitution of India, which mandates the Governor to take an oath before assuming office.
• Hari Babu Kambhampati is known for his extensive political career and contributions to public administration. He has previously served as a Member of Parliament and has been actively involved in policymaking.
• The Governor plays a crucial role in maintaining constitutional order in the state, ensuring the implementation of laws, and serving as a liaison between the state and central governments.
• The appointment of Hari Babu Kambhampati aligns with the government’s strategy to place experienced individuals in key positions to facilitate smooth governance and administrative oversight in states like Manipur.

Additional Information

• Role of Governors in India:
• Governors are appointed by the President of India under Article 155 of the Constitution.
• They serve as the constitutional head of the state and are responsible for ensuring the state's governance aligns with the Constitution.
• The Governor has the power to summon, prorogue, and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly under Article 174.
• Governors act as a bridge between the state and central governments, ensuring effective coordination and communication.
• Manipur - Key Facts:
• Manipur is located in the northeastern region of India and is known for its rich cultural heritage and biodiversity.
• The state capital is Imphal, and it is famous for the Loktak Lake, the largest freshwater lake in northeastern India.
• Manipur became a full-fledged state of India on January 21, 1972.
• Constitutional Provisions Related to Governors:
• Article 153: Provides for a Governor in each state.
• Article 154: Vests the executive powers of the state in the Governor.
• Article 161: Grants the Governor the power to pardon, reprieve, or commute sentences in certain cases.
• Recent Appointments:
• Governors are appointed based on their administrative experience, political background, and ability to contribute to governance.
• Appointments in states like Manipur are significant due to the state's strategic location and socio-political challenges.

Important Points

• Oath of Office: The Governor takes an oath to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution of India, as prescribed under Article 159.
• Tenure: The Governor usually serves a term of 5 years, but this can vary based on political decisions and administrative requirements.
• Functions: Governors have legislative, executive, and judicial functions, including assenting to bills, appointing the Chief Minister, and granting pardons.
• Significance: The Governor’s role is particularly critical in states with diverse socio-political landscapes, such as Manipur, where maintaining stability and constitutional order is essential.

The correct answer is Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers launched the "Scheme for Strengthening the Medical Device Industry" in November 2024.
• This scheme aims to promote domestic manufacturing of medical devices and reduce reliance on imports, thereby achieving self-reliance under the vision of Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
• The initiative focuses on creating common infrastructure facilities and providing financial assistance to strengthen the medical device industry in India.
• The scheme is part of the government’s efforts to enhance the competitiveness, quality, and affordability of medical devices produced in India.
• It aligns with the government's commitment to boost the Make in India initiative, specifically targeting the healthcare and medical device sectors.

Additional Information

• Medical Device Industry in India:
• The Indian medical device sector is one of the fastest-growing industries, with an annual growth rate of approximately 15%.
• India ranks among the top 20 global markets for medical devices.
• The sector encompasses a wide range of products, including diagnostic equipment, imaging systems, implants, and surgical instruments.
• The government has been focusing on regulatory reforms to ensure the quality and safety of domestically produced medical devices.
• Make in India Initiative:
• Launched in 2014 by the Government of India, this initiative aims to transform India into a global manufacturing hub.
• The medical device industry is a key focus area under this initiative to reduce import dependency and boost local production.
• Emphasis is placed on promoting research and development (R&D) in the medical device sector.
• Role of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers:
• The ministry oversees the Pharmaceuticals Department, which is responsible for the medical device sector.
• It plays a crucial role in formulating policies to support domestic industries and regulate imports and exports.
• Through schemes like this, the ministry aims to create a globally competitive ecosystem for medical device manufacturing in India.
• Global Context:
• The global medical device market is expected to reach USD 800 billion by 2030, making this initiative timely and crucial for India’s participation in the global market.
• Countries like the USA, Germany, and Japan lead in medical device manufacturing, but India is emerging as a strong competitor due to its cost advantages.

Important Points

• Significance of the Scheme:
• The scheme aims to reduce India’s 70-80% dependency on imported medical devices.
• It will promote the establishment of medical device parks with state-of-the-art infrastructure to support domestic manufacturers.
• By fostering innovation, the initiative is expected to enhance export potential and improve the global competitiveness of Indian medical devices.
• Challenges Addressed:
• The scheme tackles issues like high import costs, lack of infrastructure, and limited access to advanced technologies in the medical device sector.
• It also encourages collaboration between industry and academia to promote R&D and skill development.

The correct answer is NSO (National Statistical Office).

Key Points

• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in India.
• The PLFS was launched in April 2017 to provide reliable and timely estimates of key labour market indicators, such as employment and unemployment.
• It replaced the earlier system of quinquennial Employment and Unemployment Surveys (EUS), aiming to provide annual estimates for both rural and urban areas and quarterly estimates for urban areas.
• The survey collects data on the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), and Unemployment Rate (UR) in the country.
• The data gathered is crucial for policymaking, employment generation strategies, and understanding the socio-economic conditions of workers in India.

Additional Information

• National Statistical Office (NSO):
• The NSO was formed in 2019 by merging the Central Statistics Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
• It is the apex body for statistical activities and the official data collection agency of the Government of India.
• Its responsibilities include conducting nationwide surveys, such as the PLFS, Consumer Expenditure Surveys, and Agriculture Surveys.
• Objectives of PLFS:
• To measure the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), which is the percentage of the population actively participating in the labour force.
• To determine the Worker Population Ratio (WPR), which indicates the proportion of employed persons in the population.
• To assess the Unemployment Rate (UR), which refers to the percentage of people in the labour force who are unemployed and actively seeking work.
• Other Options Explained:
• Development Intelligence Unit: This is not a recognized body for conducting labour force surveys in India.
• Ministry of Labour and Employment: While this ministry works on labour laws and employment schemes, it does not conduct the PLFS.
• NITI Aayog: NITI Aayog, being a policy think tank, advises on strategies for national development but does not directly conduct surveys like the PLFS.
• Importance of PLFS Data:
• The data helps in understanding sectoral employment trends, such as agriculture, industry, and services.
• It aids in framing evidence-based policies for addressing unemployment and improving labour market efficiency.
• It provides insights into the gender gap in workforce participation and other socio-economic disparities.

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

• Sikkim, the northeastern state of India, is known as the first state to launch an organic fisheries cluster in January 2025.
• This initiative aligns with the vision of making Sikkim an organic state, a goal it achieved earlier by becoming the first fully organic state in India in 2016.
• The organic fisheries cluster will focus on promoting sustainable aquaculture practices, ensuring a balance between production and environmental conservation.
• The project aims to enhance the livelihood of local fish farmers by offering them opportunities to cultivate fish organically, which fetches a premium price in domestic and international markets.
• This move is expected to improve food security, reduce the ecological footprint of traditional aquaculture, and boost the economy of the region.

Additional Information

• Organic Farming in Sikkim:
• Sikkim became India’s first fully organic state in 2016 under the National Programme for Organic Production.
• All farming activities in the state are conducted without the use of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides.
• The state has received international recognition for its efforts, including the Future Policy Gold Award in 2018 from the United Nations.
• Importance of Organic Fisheries:
• Organic aquaculture ensures the use of natural feed, clean water, and sustainable practices that minimize environmental damage.
• It avoids the use of antibiotics and synthetic chemicals, ensuring healthier and safer fish products.
• Organic fish farming supports biodiversity and helps maintain the ecological balance in aquatic ecosystems.
• Other Indian States' Initiatives:
• While Sikkim leads in organic initiatives, states like Kerala, Maharashtra, and Uttarakhand are also promoting organic farming on a large scale.
• These states are implementing policies to encourage farmers to adopt organic practices and reduce dependency on chemical fertilizers.
• Economic Benefits:
• Organic products, including fish, command a higher price in the market due to increasing consumer demand for healthier and eco-friendly options.
• This initiative helps local farmers increase their income while contributing to sustainable development.
• Such clusters open avenues for export opportunities, enhancing India’s global footprint in the organic market.

Important Points

• Government Support:
• The Government of India and the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying have been actively promoting organic and sustainable aquaculture practices.
• Various schemes and subsidies are provided to encourage farmers to adopt organic fish farming methods.
• Significance of Aquaculture in India:
• India is the second-largest producer of fish in the world, and aquaculture contributes significantly to the GDP of the country.
• Organic fisheries clusters will further strengthen this sector by adding value to the products and ensuring environmental sustainability.
• Future Prospects:
• The success of the organic fisheries cluster in Sikkim can serve as a model for other states to replicate.
• Such initiatives are crucial to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) related to food security, environmental sustainability, and economic growth.

The correct answer is Vikram Seth.

Key Points

• The book "A Suitable Boy" was authored by Vikram Seth, an Indian novelist and poet, and it was first published in 1993.
• This novel is one of the longest single-volume books ever published in the English language, with nearly 1,500 pages in its paperback edition.
• The story is set in post-Independence, post-Partition India and revolves around the efforts of a mother to find a "suitable boy" for her daughter, Lata.
• The novel explores a wide range of themes, including family, love, politics, religion, and the social changes happening in India during the 1950s.
• "A Suitable Boy" has been acclaimed for its rich character development, detailed portrayal of Indian society, and its ability to weave in complex socio-political issues.
• It was later adapted into a television drama series by the BBC, directed by Mira Nair, and released in 2020.

Additional Information

• Vikram Seth:
• Born: 20 June 1952 in Calcutta, India.
• He is an Indian author widely known for his novels, poetry, and works in other literary genres.
• His other notable works include "The Golden Gate" (a novel in verse) and "An Equal Music".
• He has won several awards, including the Padma Shri in 2001 and the WH Smith Literary Award.
• Plot Summary of A Suitable Boy:
• The novel's central plot revolves around Lata Mehra, a university student, and her mother Rupa's efforts to find her a suitable husband.
• It also delves into the lives of four families: the Mehras, the Kapoors, the Khans, and the Chatterjis.
• It captures the cultural and political atmosphere of India in the early years after Independence, including themes like the rise of socialism and the Hindu-Muslim divide.
• The book emphasizes the importance of individual choice and personal happiness against societal expectations.
• Other Options Explained:
• Amit Varma: An Indian writer and journalist, known for his blog "India Uncut" and the novel "My Friend Sancho," but he is not the author of "A Suitable Boy."
• Aruni Kashyap: An Indian writer and translator known for works like "The House With a Thousand Stories," but not associated with "A Suitable Boy."
• Ajay K Pandey: An Indian author known for writing romance novels like "You Are the Best Wife," but he did not write "A Suitable Boy."
• Critical Reception:
• "A Suitable Boy" was widely praised for its epic scope, intricate storytelling, and its ability to provide a panoramic view of Indian society.
• It has been translated into several languages and remains one of the most celebrated works in Indian-English literature.
• The novel has often been compared to the works of Charles Dickens and Leo Tolstoy for its broad scope and detailed character portrayals.

The correct answer is Aravind Adiga.

Key Points

• Aravind Adiga, an acclaimed Indian author, penned the novel "Last Man in Tower," which was published in 2011.
• The book is set in the city of Mumbai and explores themes of urbanization, greed, and morality.
• "Last Man in Tower" revolves around the residents of Vishram Society, a housing cooperative, and their struggle when a real estate developer offers a buyout deal.
• Aravind Adiga is best known for his debut novel "The White Tiger," which won the prestigious Man Booker Prize in 2008.
• The novel showcases Adiga's ability to blend sharp social commentary with compelling storytelling, making him one of the notable voices in contemporary Indian literature.