SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 27 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Responsibilities.

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Key Points

• The word "obligations" refers to duties or commitments that a person is morally or legally bound to fulfill. (कर्तव्य/ज़िम्मेदारी)
• Example: It is my obligation to ensure that all tasks are completed on time.
• The word "responsibilities" means the state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or take care of someone. (जिम्मेदारियाँ)
• Example: Parents have a responsibility to provide education and care for their children.
• Hence, the word "responsibilities" is synonymous with "obligations."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Responsibilities.

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Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Interests (रुचियाँ): Activities or subjects that a person enjoys or finds engaging.
• Example: She has a keen interest in photography.
• Tasks (कार्य): Specific pieces of work to be done or undertaken.
• Example: The manager assigned me several tasks to complete by the end of the day.
• Alternatives (विकल्प): One or more things available as another possibility.
• Example: If the train is delayed, we will need to find an alternative way to travel.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Forsake.

Key Points

• The word "abandon" means to leave something or someone behind, often permanently, or to give up on something entirely. (छोड़ देना)
• Example: He decided to abandon the project due to lack of funding.
• The word "forsake" has a similar meaning as "abandon." It means to give up, leave, or renounce something important or valued. (त्याग देना)
• Example: She could never forsake her family, no matter what happened.
• Hence, the correct synonym for "abandon" is "forsake."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Forsake.

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Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cherish (संजोना): To hold something dear or value it greatly.
• Example: She cherishes the memories of her childhood.
• Support (सहायता करना): To give assistance, encouragement, or approval.
• Example: They supported their friend during a difficult time.
• Accede to (सहमति देना): To agree to a demand, request, or treaty.
• Example: The king acceded to the demands of his subjects.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The error in the sentence lies in the phrase "for this years."
• The term "years" should have an apostrophe to indicate possession. The correct form is "this year's."
• Apostrophes are used to show that something belongs to someone or something, and in this context, the marketing campaign belongs to this year.
• Thus, the error is located in part 3 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "A bigger budget has been set aside for this year's marketing campaign in Asia."

 

Additional Information

• A: "A bigger budget" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• B: "has been set aside" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• D: "marketing campaign in Asia" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence uses the incorrect verb form "knew" after the auxiliary verb "Had."
• In conditional sentences using the third conditional structure, the correct form of the verb after "Had" is the past participle.
• The correct phrase should be "Had I known the answer" instead of "Had I knew the answer."
• Thus, the error is located in Option 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Had I known the answer, I would have raised my hand."

 

Additional Information

• Third Conditional Sentence:
• Structure: If + Past Perfect, would have + past participle.
• Example: If she had studied harder, she would have passed the exam.
• Usage: Refers to unreal past situations and their imagined outcomes.
• Explanation of Error: The verb "knew" is the past simple form, but the third conditional requires the past participle form "known" after "Had."

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'out of'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "out of" is used to indicate movement from within something to the outside.
• In this sentence, the hikers are emerging from the inside of the dense forest to the outside, so "out of" is the most appropriate preposition.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not convey the correct spatial relationship required in the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The hikers finally emerged out of the dense forest just before sunset."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "into" is incorrect as it implies movement towards the inside of something, not exiting.
• Option 3: "across" is incorrect because it suggests movement over a surface, not emerging from within.
• Option 4: "beyond" is incorrect as it refers to something further away or at a distance, which doesn't fit the context.

The correct answer is 'tremors'.

 

Key Points

• The word "tremors" refers to a shaking or vibrating movement, or in this context, a metaphorical ripple effect caused by a significant event.
• The sentence suggests that the resignation of the CEO caused a strong, impactful reaction in the corporate world. The word "tremors" fits this context perfectly as it conveys a sense of disturbance or shock.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 do not fit the context:
• Option 2: "giggles" is inappropriate as it conveys a sense of humor or amusement, which is not relevant here.
• Option 3: "anecdotes" refers to short, amusing stories, which do not align with the idea of a significant or shocking reaction.
• Option 4: "whispers" implies quiet conversations or rumors, which does not convey the impactful nature of the event as effectively as "tremors."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The CEO's sudden resignation sent tremors through the corporate world."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "giggles" is more commonly used in casual or humorous contexts, making it unsuitable in this scenario.
• Option 3: "anecdotes" typically refers to short, personal stories, which do not match the intensity or impact implied by the sentence.
• Option 4: "whispers" suggests quiet rumors, which does not capture the widespread or impactful nature of the event as effectively as "tremors."

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Accommodate.

Key Points

• Accommodate is the correct spelling of the word, which means "to provide lodging or sufficient space for someone or something" or "to adapt to a new situation or environment."
• It is one of the frequently misspelled words in English due to the double 'c' and double 'm'.
• The other options (Accomodate, Accomadate, Accomodet) are incorrect because they do not follow the correct spelling pattern.

Correct Usage: The hotel can accommodate up to 500 guests at a time.

Additional Information

• Commonly Confused Words:
• Separate: Often misspelled as "seperate."
• Definitely: Often misspelled as "definately."
• Occurrence: Often misspelled as "ocurrance" or "occurence."
• Tip for Remembering: In "Accommodate," remember that it accommodates both double 'c' and double 'm' to help you recall the correct spelling.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The correct spelling is 'Guarantee'.
• The word 'Guarantee' is a noun and verb that means 'a formal assurance or promise, typically in writing, that certain conditions will be fulfilled' or 'to provide such an assurance.' (गारंटी)
• Examples:
• The company offers a one-year guarantee on all its products.
• We guarantee that the delivery will be on time.

Additional Information

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

• Option 2: Guarantiy - This spelling is incorrect as it adds a 'y' instead of the correct 'ee' in 'Guarantee'.
• Option 3: Guarentee - This spelling is incorrect as it swaps the 'ee' with 'e', which is not the right form.
• Option 4: Guarantie - This spelling is incorrect as it ends with 'ie' instead of 'ee', which is grammatically wrong.

The correct answer is 'for'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "for" is used to describe a period or duration of time.
• The phrase "since 5 years" is incorrect because "since" is used to refer to a specific starting point in time, not a duration.
• The correct phrase should be "for 5 years" to indicate the duration of time she has been working in the organization.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "She has been working in this organization for 5 years."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "till" is incorrect because "till" is used to indicate a point in time when something ends, not a duration.
• Option 3: "across" is incorrect because "across" is used to indicate movement or position from one side to another, not time.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence is grammatically incorrect and needs improvement.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. 'With his dedication to'.

 

Key Points

• The correct preposition to use in this context is "to", which shows a connection or direction towards the project.
• The phrase "dedication to" is commonly used to describe someone's commitment or devotion to a cause, task, or objective.
• Option 2 ("By his dedication with") and Option 3 ("With his dedication into") are grammatically incorrect, as the prepositions "with" and "into" do not fit in this context.
• Option 4 ("No substitution") is incorrect, as the original phrase "dedication on" is not correct English usage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The manager was impressed with his dedication to the project."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "By his dedication with" is incorrect because "with" does not properly convey the intended relationship between the manager's impression and the employee's dedication.
• Option 3: "With his dedication into" is incorrect because "into" suggests movement or direction, which is not applicable in this context.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because "dedication on" is not the correct collocation in English.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Reported Speech Rules: When converting direct speech to indirect speech:
• The reporting verb (e.g., "said to") is changed to "told" if it has an object (e.g., the clerk).
• The tense of the verbs in the reported clause is shifted back in time (as the reporting happens after the statement).
• Words indicating proximity (e.g., "this") are changed to indicate distance (e.g., "that").
• Tense Changes:
• "phoned" (simple past) changes to "had phoned" (past perfect) in indirect speech.
• "passed" (simple past) changes to "had passed" (past perfect) in indirect speech.
• Pronoun and Determiner Changes:
• "I" becomes "she" as the speaker is Suhani.
• "this document" becomes "that document" to reflect the shift in context.
• "to you" remains "to him" as it refers to the clerk.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: Suhani told the clerk that she had phoned the officer to sign that document, but he had just passed it to him.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Suhani told the clerk that she phoned the officer to sign that document, but he had just passed it to him.
• Incorrect tense: "phoned" should be "had phoned" in indirect speech.
• Option 2: Suhani told the clerk that she had phoned the officer to sign that document, but he just passed it to him.
• Incorrect tense: "just passed" should be "had just passed" in indirect speech.
• Option 4: Suhani told the clerk that she phoned the officer to sign that document, but he just passed it to him.
• Incorrect tense: Both "phoned" and "just passed" should be in past perfect form.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• To change a sentence from passive voice to active voice, identify the subject performing the action (often implied or mentioned in the context).
• The given sentence, "A new computer has been bought for the office," is in the passive voice.
• The structure of the passive voice is: Subject (receiver) + has/have been + past participle + by/for + agent.
• In the active voice, the subject performing the action is identified as "someone," and the structure is: Subject (doer) + has + past participle + object.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Someone has bought a new computer for the office."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The office bought a new computer." – Incorrect because the tense does not match the original sentence (present perfect).
• Option 3: "A new computer was bought for the office." – Incorrect because it is still in the passive voice and uses past simple tense instead of present perfect.
• Option 4: "Someone is buying a new computer for the office." – Incorrect because the tense changes to present continuous, which is not equivalent to the original sentence.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Reported Speech: The given sentence is in indirect speech, where the interviewer is asking a question in the past perfect tense.
• Direct Speech Conversion: When converting from indirect to direct speech:
• The reporting verb "asked" changes to "said," as it introduces a direct question.
• The past perfect tense "had left" changes to the simple past tense "did leave."
• The question format is used, starting with "Why did" and ending with a question mark.
• Correct Format:
• The direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• The first letter of the quoted sentence is capitalized ("Why").
• The sentence ends with a question mark inside the quotation marks.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The interviewer said, "Why did you leave your previous job?""

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "The interviewer said, "Why you have left your previous job?""
• This option is incorrect as the verb "have left" is in the present perfect tense, which is not appropriate for the context.
• Option 3: "The interviewer said, "Why you had left your previous job?""
• This option is incorrect as it uses "had left," which is in the past perfect tense but is not suitable for direct speech in a question.
• Option 4: "The interviewer asked me, "Why you left your previous job?""
• This option is incorrect because it omits the auxiliary verb "did" needed for forming a question in the past tense.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word in the sentence is 'moddlin'.

• The correct spelling is 'maudlin'.
• The word 'maudlin' is an adjective which means 'overly sentimental, often tearfully so'.
• For Example:
• After a few drinks, he became maudlin and started crying about his ex.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

Explanation of the sentences:

• Option 1: The spelling of 'maudlin' is correct, meaning the sentence is valid.
• Option 2: The word 'moddlin' is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is 'maudlin'.
• Option 3: The spelling of 'maudlin' is correct, and the usage is appropriate.
• Option 4: The spelling of 'maudlin' is correct, and the sentence is valid.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "The dedicated students, who had been preparing all night, were answering the difficult questions during the final examination."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the difficult questions" at the beginning of the sentence.
• Change the active verb form "were answering" to "were being answered" (past continuous passive).
• Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "the dedicated students."
• Retain the time phrase "during the final examination" at the end of the sentence for clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The difficult questions were being answered by the dedicated students during the final examination."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The difficult questions were answered by the dedicated students during the final examination." – Incorrect tense (past simple passive instead of past continuous passive).
• Option 3: "The difficult questions had been answered by the dedicated students during the final examination." – Incorrect tense (past perfect passive).
• Option 4: "The difficult questions are being answered by the dedicated students during the final examination." – Incorrect tense (present continuous passive instead of past continuous passive).

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Simple sentence
• A simple sentence consists of only one independent clause. An independent clause contains a subject and a verb and expresses a complete thought.
• In this sentence, the subject is "Improper disposal of e-waste" and the main finite verb is "allows."
• Although the sentence is long, the phrases "causing severe environmental degradation" and "posing long-term health risks" are participle phrases. They do not have their own subjects and finite verbs, so they do not form separate clauses.
• Option 2: Compound sentence
• This is incorrect. A compound sentence must have at least two independent clauses joined by a coordinating conjunction (FANBOYS: for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so). This sentence only contains one independent clause.
• Option 3: Complex sentence
• This is incorrect. A complex sentence requires one independent clause and at least one dependent (subordinate) clause (usually starting with words like because, although, which, who, that). There is no dependent clause here.
• Option 4: Compound-complex sentence
• This is incorrect. This type requires at least two independent clauses and at least one dependent clause.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Finite vs. Non-finite Verbs: In this sentence, "allows" is a finite verb (it shows tense). "Causing" and "posing" are non-finite verbs (present participles). A clause must have a finite verb; therefore, these participle phrases do not count as clauses.
• Identifying Simple Sentences: Do not be misled by sentence length. A sentence can be very long due to modifiers, lists, or prepositional phrases, but as long as it contains only one subject-verb pair forming a complete thought, it remains a simple sentence.
• Context: The passage uses this structure to clearly state the direct consequence of improper e-waste disposal on the environment and health.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• Option 4: Have electronic devices become indispensable to modern life?
• To transform an assertive sentence into an interrogative (Yes/No) sentence, we move the auxiliary verb to the beginning of the sentence, before the subject.
• The original sentence is in the Present Perfect Tense ("have become"). Therefore, we move the auxiliary "Have" to the front: Have + Subject (electronic devices) + Verb (become)...?
• Option 1: Why electronic devices have become...
• This is incorrect. While it is a question, it lacks the necessary subject-auxiliary inversion. A correct "wh-" question would be: "Why have electronic devices become...?"
• Option 2: Had electronic devices have become...
• This is incorrect. It incorrectly changes the tense to Past Perfect ("Had") and includes a redundant auxiliary "have."
• Option 3: Are electronic devices become...
• This is incorrect. The auxiliary "are" belongs to the continuous or passive voice, but the main verb "become" requires the auxiliary "have" for the perfect tense used in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Rule for Transformation: If the assertive sentence has an auxiliary verb (is, are, have, has, will, can), simply swap the position of the subject and the auxiliary.
• Adding "Do/Does/Did": If the assertive sentence has no auxiliary verb (e.g., "They recycle e-waste"), use a form of "do" to create the question (e.g., "Do they recycle e-waste?").
• Punctuation: Always remember to replace the full stop (.) with a question mark (?) at the end of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• Option 3: Outdated and no longer in use
• In the context of the passage, obsolete refers to technology that is no longer produced or used because something newer and better has replaced it.
• The sentence differentiates between "obsolete" and "non-functional." This implies that a device might still work perfectly, but it is considered e-waste simply because its technology is out of date (e.g., an old dial-up modem).
• Option 1: Modern and efficient
• This is incorrect. These terms are antonyms (opposites) of obsolete.
• Option 2: Rare and expensive
• This is incorrect. While some outdated technology can become rare collectibles, the general definition of e-waste involves mass-produced items that have lost their utility and value.
• Option 4: Broken beyond repair
• This is incorrect. This meaning is covered by the term "non-functional" in the same sentence. "Obsolete" specifically targets the age and relevance of the technology rather than its physical condition.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Synonyms: Outmoded, antiquated, superseded, and archaic.
• Planned Obsolescence: This is a policy of producing consumer goods that rapidly become obsolete and so require replacing, achieved by frequent changes in design or the use of non-durable materials.
• Impact: The rapid rate at which technology becomes obsolete is a primary driver of the global e-waste crisis mentioned in the passage.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Lessens.

Key Points

• The word "mitigate" means:
• To make something less severe, serious, or painful. (कम गंभीर, गंभीर या दर्दनाक बनाना; कम करना)
• Example: Effective policies can mitigate the negative effects of climate change.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured her a perfect score.

Therefore, the word closest in meaning to "mitigate" in the given sentence is: Lessens.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Increases (बढ़ाना): To become or make greater in size, amount, or degree.
• Example: The company plans to increase its workforce next year.
• Explains (समझाना): To make clear or understandable.
• Example: The teacher explains complex concepts in a simple way.
• Delays (विलंब करना): To make something happen later than planned.
• Example: The project was delayed due to unforeseen issues.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• Option 3: They often receive large volumes of e-waste and lack proper safety measures.
• The passage explicitly states that developing nations are "particularly vulnerable" because they receive significant amounts of e-waste from wealthier countries.
• Furthermore, it highlights that the "informal recycling sectors" in these nations handle the waste "without adequate safety measures," leading to direct exposure to toxic chemicals for workers and children.
• Option 1: They have advanced recycling technologies.
• This is incorrect. The passage mentions that devices are "dismantled manually" in dangerous working conditions, which is the opposite of using advanced, safe technology.
• Option 2: They produce the most e-waste in the world.
• This is incorrect. While they handle a lot of e-waste, the passage emphasizes that they "receive large volumes of e-waste from wealthier countries," implying the source is external.
• Option 4: Their citizens prefer using outdated electronic devices.
• This is incorrect. The passage does not mention consumer preferences in developing nations; the vulnerability is linked to waste management and international trade of discarded equipment.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Toxic Substances: The passage identifies specific hazardous materials in e-waste, including lead, mercury, and cadmium. These toxins seep into the soil and water when disposal is handled improperly.
• Economic Opportunity: Despite the dangers, the text notes that responsible recycling allows for the recovery of valuable materials like gold and copper, which can reduce the strain on natural resources.
• Sustainability: The author advocates for repairing and donating electronics as better alternatives to discarding them.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes the westward expansion in the 19^th century and its effects on the American continent.
• Sentence Q is the first sentence as it introduces the broad context of westward migration:
• "A surge of settlers started to go west over the American continent in the 19^th century."
• Sentence R follows as it explains the settlers' motivation for their journey:
• "Their difficult voyage was motivated by the prospect of a fresh life and inexpensive land."
• Sentence P is the third sentence as it provides additional details about why the land was attractive:
• "Its expansive plains and rich soil, perfect for farming and grazing, drew them in."
• Sentence S is the final sentence as it concludes with the impact of the migration:
• "This large-scale migration permanently altered the region's culture and geography."
• The correct sequence is Q, R, P, S.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"A surge of settlers started to go west over the American continent in the 19^th century. Their difficult voyage was motivated by the prospect of a fresh life and inexpensive land. Its expansive plains and rich soil, perfect for farming and grazing, drew them in. This large-scale migration permanently altered the region's culture and geography."

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Attentive.

Key Points

• The word "Derelict" refers to something that is abandoned, neglected, or in a very poor condition. (परित्यक्त)
• Example: The old factory has been derelict for years, with broken windows and crumbling walls.
• The word "Attentive" is the antonym of "Derelict". It means being alert, watchful, or showing care and attention. (सतर्क / ध्यान देने वाला)
• Example: The teacher praised the student for being attentive during the lecture.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Attentive.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Dilapidated (जर्जर): Something that is in a state of ruin or disrepair, often due to neglect or age.
• Example: The dilapidated house was barely standing after years of neglect.
• Deserted (सुनसान / परित्यक्त): A place that is empty of people or something that has been abandoned.
• Example: The streets were deserted after the storm warning was issued.
• Ruined (बर्बाद): Something that has been destroyed or severely damaged.
• Example: The ruined castle was a popular tourist attraction despite its condition.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. The lowest scale in an evaluation.

Key Points

• The word "medium" has multiple meanings depending on the context. Below are its meanings and usage:
• Meaning 1: A channel or system of communication or information. (संचार का माध्यम)
• Example: Television is a popular medium for spreading awareness about social issues.
• Meaning 2: A substance through which something is transmitted. (संचरण का माध्यम)
• Example: Water is a medium for sound to travel underwater.
• Meaning 3: A person who claims to communicate with spirits. (माध्यम, जो आत्माओं से संपर्क करता है)
• Example: The medium claimed to receive messages from the spirit world during the séance.
• Incorrect Meaning: The lowest scale in an evaluation. This is not a valid meaning of the word "medium." (यह शब्द "मध्यम" के लिए सही अर्थ नहीं है।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. The lowest scale in an evaluation.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A channel or system of communication or information (संचार या सूचना का माध्यम)
• Example: Social media has become a vital medium for sharing news and updates.
• Option 3: A substance through which something is transmitted (संचरण का माध्यम)
• Example: Glass is often used as a medium for light to pass through.
• Option 4: A person who claims to communicate with spirits (आत्माओं से संवाद करने का दावा करने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: The medium was invited to the haunted house to investigate paranormal activities.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Narcissist.

Key Points

• The word "Narcissist" refers to a person who has an excessive interest in or admiration of themselves. (स्वार्थी व्यक्ति)
• Example: John is such a narcissist; he spends hours every day admiring himself in the mirror.
• It describes a self-centered or egotistical individual who often disregards the needs or feelings of others.

Correct term: Narcissist (स्वार्थी व्यक्ति)

• Example: The narcissist could not understand why people didn’t like his constant boasting.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Narcissist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Altruist (परोपकारी): Someone who is selfless and concerned with the welfare of others.
• Example: The altruist spends his weekends volunteering at the local animal shelter.
• Philanthropist (सद्भावना रखने वाला): A person who seeks to promote the welfare of others, especially by donating money to good causes.
• Example: The philanthropist donated millions to support education for underprivileged children.
• Optimist (आशावादी): Someone who always looks at the positive side of things and expects good outcomes.
• Example: Even in difficult situations, she remains an optimist and believes things will get better.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Coup.

Key Points

• The word "Coup" refers to a sudden, violent, and illegal seizure of power from a government. (सरकार का तख्तापलट)
• Example: The military staged a coup to overthrow the country's democratic government.
• The given sentence describes a situation of political instability where a leader is removed by force, which aligns with the meaning of "coup."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Coup.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Revolution (क्रांति): A forcible overthrow of a government or social order in favor of a new system.
• Example: The French Revolution marked a turning point in world history.
• Insurrection (विद्रोह): A violent uprising against an authority or government.
• Example: The insurrection was quickly suppressed by the military forces.
• Rebellion (बगावत): An act of armed resistance to an established government or leader.
• Example: The rebellion lasted for several years before being quelled.

Given: Total students = 50

Amit's rank = 20^th from the top → Amit is 20^th from the start.

Priya's rank = 25^th from the bottom → Priya is (50 - 25 + 1) = 26^th from the top.

So, students between Amit and Priya = 26 - 20 - 1 = 5

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Total laptops = 22

Laptop P = 7^th from the beginning → P is 7^th from the start.

Laptop Q = 5^th from the end → Q is (22 - 5 + 1) = 18^th from the start.

So, laptops between P and Q = 18 - 7 - 1 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "867" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "1021" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Multiply the two numbers × 5 = third number.

Given:

31 * 29 = 4495

⇒31 × 29 × 5 = 4495 → 31 × 29 

11 * 53 = 2915 

⇒ 11 × 53 × 5 = 2915

Now,

19 * 44 = ?

19 × 44  × 5 = 4180 

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Result = First number − (Second number ÷ Third number)

Given:

555 @ 99 : 11 = 555 − (99 ÷ 11) = 555 − 9 = 546

872 @ 494 : 19 = 872 − (494 ÷ 19) = 872 − 26 = 846

Now,

244 @ 540 : 27 = 244 − (540 ÷ 27) = 244 − 20 = 224

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: When a mirror is placed on the right side, the image and each letter is laterally inverted (horizontally flipped).

The correct mirror image of the given figure is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The paper after unfolded will be:

Two long horizontal rectangles in the center and four small vertical rectangles in the corners.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

The paper after unfolded will be:

Semi-circles at the four corners and eight small squares arranged in two vertical columns in the center.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

Kit-Kat and Coke cannot be together.

Sprite and Dairy-Milk cannot be together.

Fanta and Kit-Kat must be together.

Munch and Pepsi cannot be together.

Perk and Dairy-Milk cannot be together.

Combination I: (Kit-Kat, Milky-bar, Fanta, Perk, Pepsi) → All conditions satisfied.

Combination II: (Coke, Perk, Munch, Sprite, Milky-bar) → All conditions satisfied.

Combination III: (Munch, Milky-bar, Perk, Sprite, Pepsi) → Violates Munch and Pepsi cannot be together.

So, only Combination I and II are possible.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given series: 4, 9, 25, 64, 169, ?

Observe the pattern:

4 = 2²

9 = 3²

25 = 5²

64 = 8²

169 = 13²

Check the sequence of bases: 2, 3, 5, 8, 13 → This is the Fibonacci sequence.

Find the next base in Fibonacci sequence:

Next Fibonacci number after 13 → 21

Square the next base:

21² = 441 

Hence, the next number in the sequence is 441.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The pattern in each column is multiply the first three numbers and then subtract 1 to get the fourth number.

Here,

Column 1: 6 × 2 × 3 = 36 → 36 − 1 = 35

Column 2: 2 × 5 × 4 = 40 → 40 − 1 = 39

Column 3: 8 × ? × 2 = 64 → 64 − 1 = 63 → ? = 4

So, the missing number is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Count all individual triangles and then include larger triangles formed by combining smaller ones.

So far, there are 5 individual small triangles and 2 larger triangles formed by combining sections.

Total number of triangles = 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Count all individual quadrilaterals and then include larger ones formed by combining smaller sections.

So far, there are 6 small quadrilaterals, 7 formed by combining two sections, 2 formed by combining three sections, 2 formed by combining four sections, and 1 large outer quadrilateral.

Total number of quadrilaterals = 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Count the values in the overlapping region of men (square) and teachers (triangle).

So far, the overlapping regions contain 8 and 6.

Total number of men who are teachers = 8 + 6 = 14.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

The lengths of the five rectangles (J, K, L, M, N) 

Length of K is less than only three rectangles:

This means there are exactly 3 rectangles longer than K,

_ > _ > _ > K > _.

Length of no rectangle is less than M:

This means M is the shortest rectangle,

_ > _ > _ > K > M.

Length of L is not more than N but more than J:

This means L is shorter than N but longer than J (N > L > J).

The complete order is: N > L > J > K > M.

Therefore, N has the maximum length.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option1".

Given:

Price of B is 3^rd highest.

Price of E is less than only C → C is higher than all others.

Price of F is less than D but more than A.

So, the toy with the highest price is C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Eight women A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table facing opposite to the centre.

B is second to the left of H.

A is third to the left of B.

D is to the immediate right of H.

F is fourth to the left of D.

C is an immediate neighbour of both H and B.

G is second to the right of H.

Here, after arranging all according to the given conditions, F is to the immediate right of E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

BODMAS Table: 

Given expression: 37 G 7 H 3 R 18 E 6 = ?

Now, if the operations are applied as:

G → −, H → ×, R → +, E → ÷, then:

⇒ 37 − 7 × 3 + 18 ÷ 6 = ?

⇒ 37 − 21 + 3 = ?

⇒ 16 + 3 = 19

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 16 * 4 * 100 * 20 * 32 = 37

Now, if the * signs are replaced sequentially as: ×, +, ÷, −, then:

⇒ 16 × 4 + 100 ÷ 20 − 32 = ?

⇒ 64 + 5 − 32 = ?

⇒ 69 − 32 = 37

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Look at the letter shift and number transformation in each letter-number pair. The rule is: first letter moves forward by 1, last letter moves forward by 2, and the number on the right is double the number on the left.

Option 1) A239X - B478Z

Option 2) E147W - F304Y

Option 3) D183R - E366T

Option 4) G291T - H582V

All pairs follow the same pattern except E147W - F304Y, where the number is not exactly double.

Hence, the odd one out is Option 2.

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘CRAPS’ is written as PLXNZ,

For, ‘DINED’ is written as AAKEA,

Similarly, for ‘INTRO’,

So, ‘INTRO’ will be written as LNQJF.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘ALTARS’ is written as EVEXPW,

For, ‘GOGGLE’ is written as KPKKSI,

Similarly, for ‘JARVIS’,

So, ‘JARVIS’ will be written as NMZVEW.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'AN184' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'QB4808' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

20% of a number is 34.

Formula Used:

Percentage formula: Part = (Percentage × Total) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ 20% of the number = 34

⇒ (20 × Number) ÷ 100 = 34

⇒ Number = (34 × 100) ÷ 20

⇒ Number = 170

⇒ 50% of the number = (50 × 170) ÷ 100

⇒ 50% of the number = 85

∴ The correct answer is 85.

Given:

On selling 17 articles, a trader gains the cost price of 3 articles.

Formula Used:

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let the cost price of 1 article = ₹1

⇒ Cost price of 17 articles = 17 × ₹1 = ₹17

⇒ Selling price of 17 articles = Cost price of 17 articles + Profit

⇒ Profit = Cost price of 3 articles = 3 × ₹1 = ₹3

⇒ Selling price of 17 articles = ₹17 + ₹3 = ₹20

⇒ Selling price of 1 article = ₹20 ÷ 17

⇒ Profit per article = Selling price of 1 article - Cost price of 1 article

⇒ Profit per article = (₹20 ÷ 17) - ₹1

⇒ Profit per article = (20 - 17) ÷ 17 = ₹3 ÷ 17

⇒ Profit Percentage = (Profit per article ÷ Cost price of 1 article) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (₹3 ÷ ₹17) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (3 × 100) ÷ 17

⇒ Profit Percentage = 300 ÷ 17

⇒ Profit Percentage = 17.65%

∴ The correct answer is 17.65%.

Given:

A = 10 days

B = 12 days

Formula Used:

Work = Efficiency × Time

Total Work = LCM of given times

Calculation:

⇒ Total Work = LCM of 10 and 12 = 60 units

⇒ Efficiency of A = 60 ÷ 10 = 6 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of B = 60 ÷ 12 = 5 units/day

⇒ Work done in 2 days (A + B) = 6 + 5 = 11 units

⇒ Work done in 10 days (5 cycles) = 11 × 5 = 55 units

⇒ Remaining Work = 60 − 55 = 5 units

⇒ Next turn is A

⇒ Time taken by A to complete 5 units = 5 ÷ 6 = 5/6 day

⇒ Total time = 10 + 5/6 = 10.83 days 

∴ The correct answer is 10.83 days.

Given:

Distance = 300 km

Decrease in speed = 10 km/h

Increase in time = 1 hour

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Let original speed = x km/h

⇒ Time at original speed = 300 ÷ x

⇒ Time at reduced speed = 300 ÷ (x − 10)

⇒ 300 ÷ (x − 10) − 300 ÷ x = 1

⇒ 300x − 300(x − 10) ÷ x(x − 10) = 1

⇒ (300x − 300x + 3000) ÷ x(x − 10) = 1

⇒ 3000 ÷ x(x − 10) = 1

⇒ x(x − 10) = 3000

⇒ x² − 10x − 3000 = 0

⇒ x² − 60x + 50x − 3000 = 0

⇒ x(x − 60) + 50(x − 60) = 0

⇒ (x − 60)(x + 50) = 0

⇒ x = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60 km/h.

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) = 9% per annum, Time (T) = 3 years, Amount (A) = Rs. 6840

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

A = P + SI

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (P × 9 × 3) ÷ 100 = (27P) ÷ 100

⇒ A = P + SI

⇒ 6840 = P + (27P ÷ 100)

⇒ 6840 = (100P + 27P) ÷ 100

⇒ 6840 = (127P) ÷ 100

⇒ P = (6840 × 100) ÷ 127

⇒ P = 5385.83

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 5385.83.

Shortcut Trick

Direct formula for Volume = Length × Width × Height

Volume in cubic meters = 2 × 1.5 × 1.2 = 3.6 m³

Conversion: 1 m³ = 1000 Liters

Capacity = 3.6 × 1000 = 3600 L

∴ The correct answer is 3600 L.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (l) = 2 m

Width (w) = 1.5 m

Height (h) = 1.2 m

Formula Used:

Volume of a Rectangular Parallelepiped (Cuboid) = l × w × h

Capacity in liters = Volume in m³ × 1000

Calculations:

⇒ Volume = 2 × 1.5 × 1.2 m³

⇒ Volume = 3 × 1.2 m³

⇒ Volume = 3.6 m³

⇒ We know that 1 m³ = 1000 L

⇒ Capacity = 3.6 × 1000 L

⇒ Capacity = 3600 L

∴ The correct answer is 3600 L.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Parallelepiped

The total area of all six faces is given by the formula: 2(lw + wh + hl).

Diagonal of a Cuboid

The longest rod that can be placed in the tank is the diagonal: d = √(l² + w² + h²).

Common Volume Conversions

1 Liter = 1000 cm³ and 1 m³ = 1,000,000 cm³ = 1000 Liters.

Volume of a Cube

If all sides are equal (a), the volume of a cube is a³.

Shortcut Trick

Base Area of the right triangular pyramid = 1/2 × base × height = 1/2 × 6 × 4 = 12 cm².

Volume of any pyramid = 1/3 × Base Area × Pyramid Height.

Volume = 1/3 × 12 × 9 = 36 cm³.

∴ The correct answer is 36 cm³.

Alternate Method

Given:

Base of the triangular base (b) = 6 cm

Height of the triangular base (h) = 4 cm

Height of the ice sculpture (Pyramid Height, H) = 9 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Right Triangular Pyramid = 1/3 × [Area of Triangular Base] × Height

Area of Triangle = 1/2 × base × height

Calculations:

⇒ Area of the triangular base = 1/2 × 6 × 4

⇒ Area of the triangular base = 12 cm²

⇒ Volume of the ice sculpture = 1/3 × 12 × 9

⇒ Volume = 4 × 9

⇒ Volume = 36 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 36 cm³.

Additional Information

Volume of a Pyramid

The volume of any pyramid is always 1/3 of the volume of a prism with the same base and height: V = 1/3 × Base Area × Height.

Total Surface Area of a Pyramid

Total Surface Area = Area of the Base + Sum of the areas of all lateral triangular faces.

Regular Tetrahedron

A special triangular pyramid where all four faces are equilateral triangles. Volume = a³/(6√2), where 'a' is the edge length.

Given:

AB = 24

AC = 16

BC = 12.5

Formula Used:

Angle bisector theorem: BD ÷ DC = AB ÷ AC

Calculation:

⇒ BD ÷ DC = 24 ÷ 16 = 3/2

⇒ Let BD = 3x and DC = 2x

⇒ BC = BD + DC = 3x + 2x = 5x

⇒ 5x = 12.5

⇒ x = 12.5 ÷ 5 = 2.5

⇒ BD = 3x = 3 × 2.5 = 7.5

∴ The correct answer is 7.5.

Given:

Total students = 200

Failed = 20%

Distinction = 20% of remaining

Formula Used:

Percentage = (part ÷ total) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Failed students = 20% of 200 = 40

⇒ Remaining students = 200 − 40 = 160

⇒ Students with distinction = 20% of 160 = 32

⇒ Students without distinction = 160 − 32 = 128

⇒ Required ratio = 32 : 128

⇒ Divide by 32 ⇒ 1 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 4.

Given:

Two right-angled triangles with hypotenuse and one side equal.

Formula Used:

RHS (Right angle-Hypotenuse-Side) Congruence Rule.

Calculation:

⇒ In RHS congruence, if the hypotenuse and one side of two right-angled triangles are equal, the triangles are congruent.

⇒ The given condition satisfies the RHS Congruence Rule.

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Given:

Ratio of length to breadth = 6:5

Radius of circular loop = 14 cm

Formula Used:

Circumference of circle = 2 × π × radius

Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (length + breadth)

Length of rectangle = k × 6, Breadth of rectangle = k × 5 (where k is a common multiplier)

Calculation:

⇒ Circumference of circular loop = 2 × π × 14 = 88 cm

⇒ Perimeter of rectangle = Circumference of circular loop = 88 cm

⇒ 2 × (6k + 5k) = 88

⇒ 2 × 11k = 88

⇒ 22k = 88

⇒ k = 88 ÷ 22 = 4

⇒ Length of rectangle = 6k = 6 × 4 = 24 cm

⇒ Breadth of rectangle = 5k = 5 × 4 = 20 cm

⇒ Diameter of loop = 2 × radius = 2 × 14 = 28 cm

⇒ Sum of length of rectangle and diameter of loop = 24 + 28 = 52 cm

∴ The correct answer is 52 cm.

Given:

sec(θ) = 2

Formulas Used:

sec(θ) = 1/cos(θ)

sin²(θ) + cos²(θ) = 1

Calculation:

⇒ cos(θ) = 1/sec(θ)

⇒ cos(θ) = 1/2

⇒ cos²(θ) = (1/2)²

⇒ cos²(θ) = 1/4

⇒ sin²(θ) = 1 - cos²(θ)

⇒ sin²(θ) = 1 - 1/4

⇒ sin²(θ) = 3/4

⇒ sin(θ) = √(3/4)

⇒ sin(θ) = √3/2

∴ The correct answer is √3/2.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of investment of A : B : C = 20,000 : 25,000 : 30,000 = 4 : 5 : 6

Total units of profit = 4 + 5 + 6 = 15 units

Given, B’s profit share (5 units) = ₹5,000

1 unit = ₹1,000

Total profit = 15 units × ₹1,000 = ₹15,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹15,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Investment of A = ₹20,000

Investment of B = ₹25,000

Investment of C = ₹30,000

Share of B in profit = ₹5,000

Formula Used:

In a partnership, Profit Ratio = Ratio of (Investment × Time)

Calculations:

⇒ Profit Ratio (A : B : C) = 20,000 : 25,000 : 30,000

⇒ Profit Ratio = 4 : 5 : 6

⇒ Let the profit shares be 4x, 5x, and 6x respectively.

⇒ Given, B’s share = 5x = 5,000

⇒ x = 5,000 ÷ 5 = 1,000

⇒ Total profit = 4x + 5x + 6x = 15x

⇒ Total profit = 15 × 1,000 = 15,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹15,000.

Additional Information

Ratio of Profits

In any partnership, the ratio of profit distribution is calculated as: P₁ : P₂ = (I₁ × T₁) : (I₂ × T₂), where I is investment and T is time.

Simple Partnership

When the time period for all investments is the same, the profit is shared simply in the ratio of the capitals invested.

Compound Partnership

When partners invest their capital for different time periods, the profit is shared in the ratio of the product of capital and time.

Given:

Track length = 400 m

Speed of A = 10 m/s

Speed of B = 7 m/s

Time = 15 minutes = 900 s

Formula Used:

Relative speed = Difference of speeds (same direction)

Number of crossings = (Relative speed × Time) ÷ Track length

Calculation:

⇒ Relative speed = 10 − 7 = 3 m/s

⇒ Distance covered relatively = 3 × 900 = 2700 m

⇒ Number of crossings = 2700 ÷ 400 = 6.75

⇒ Number of complete crossings = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Given:

Number of students = 40

Average marks = 72

Incorrect marks = 93

Correct marks = 39

Formula Used:

Correct total marks = Incorrect total marks - Incorrect marks + Correct marks

Correct average = Correct total marks ÷ Number of students

Calculation:

⇒ Incorrect total marks = 72 × 40 = 2880

⇒ Correct total marks = 2880 - 93 + 39 = 2826

⇒ Correct average = 2826 ÷ 40 = 70.65

∴ The correct answer is 70.65.

Given:

Ratios of salaries = 7 : 5 : 3

Supervisor's salary = 25,000

Formula Used:

Manager's salary = (Manager's ratio ÷ Supervisor's ratio) × Supervisor's salary

Calculation:

⇒ Manager's salary = (7 ÷ 5) × 25,000

⇒ Manager's salary = 1.4 × 25,000

⇒ Manager's salary = 35,000

∴ The correct answer is 35,000.

Given:

PT = 12

Radius = 5

Formula Used:

PT² = PO² − r²

Distance to nearest point = PO − r

Calculation:

⇒ 12² = PO² − 5²

⇒ 144 = PO² − 25

⇒ PO² = 169

⇒ PO = 13

⇒ Distance = 13 − 5 = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Shortcut Trick

In a regular polygon, the ratio of the interior angle to the exterior angle is given as 5 : 1.

Since the sum of an interior angle and an exterior angle at any vertex is always 180°:

5 units + 1 unit = 6 units ⇒ 180°

1 unit (Exterior Angle) = 180° ÷ 6 = 30°

Number of sides (n) = 360° ÷ Exterior Angle = 360° ÷ 30° = 12.

∴ The correct answer is 12 sides.

Alternate Method

Given:

Interior angle (I) = 5 × Exterior angle (E)

Formula Used:

1. Interior Angle + Exterior Angle = 180° (Linear Pair property)
2. Each Exterior Angle of a regular polygon = 360° ÷ n

Calculations:

⇒ Let the exterior angle be x.

⇒ Then the interior angle is 5x.

⇒ 5x + x = 180°

⇒ 6x = 180°

⇒ x = 180° ÷ 6 = 30°

⇒ Each exterior angle = 30°

⇒ n = 360° ÷ Exterior angle

⇒ n = 360° ÷ 30°

⇒ n = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12 sides.

Additional Information

Sum of Interior Angles

The sum of all interior angles of a polygon with n sides is (n − 2) × 180°.

Sum of Exterior Angles

The sum of exterior angles of any convex polygon, regardless of the number of sides, is always 360°.

Regular Polygon Property

In a regular polygon, all sides and all angles (both interior and exterior) are equal.

Number of Diagonals

The number of diagonals in a polygon with n sides is given by the formula n(n − 3) ÷ 2.

Given:

4x² + y² = 40

xy = 6

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

(a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab

Calculation:

⇒ (2x + y)² = 4x² + y² + 4xy

⇒ (2x + y)² = 40 + 4 × 6 = 40 + 24 = 64

⇒ 2x + y = 8

⇒ (2x − y)² = 4x² + y² − 4xy

⇒ (2x − y)² = 40 − 24 = 16

⇒ 2x − y = 4

∴ The correct answer is 2x + y = 8 and 2x − y = 4.

Given:

$\left(\frac{64}{125}\right)^{\frac{2}{3}} \times \sqrt[4]{8} \times \left(\frac{8}{27}\right)^{\frac{3}{4}}$

Formula used:

$a^{m/n} = (\sqrt[n]{a})^m$

$a^m \times a^n = a^{m+n}$

Calculation:

$\left(\frac{64}{125}\right)^{\frac{2}{3}} \times \sqrt[4]{8} \times \left(\frac{8}{27}\right)^{\frac{3}{4}}$

⇒ $\frac{(2^6)^{2/3}}{(5^3)^{2/3}} \times (2^3)^{1/4} \times \frac{(2^3)^{3/4}}{(3^3)^{3/4}}$

⇒ $\frac{2^{12/3}}{5^2} \times 2^{3/4} \times \frac{2^{9/4}}{3^{9/4}}$

⇒ $\frac{2^4}{25} \times \frac{2^{3/4 + 9/4}}{3^{9/4}}$

⇒ $\frac{16}{25} \times \frac{2^{12/4}}{3^{9/4}}$

⇒ $\frac{16}{25} \times \frac{2^3}{3^{9/4}}$

⇒ $\frac{128}{5^2 \times 3^{9/4}}$

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

tan θ sin θ + cos θ

Formula Used:

tan θ = sin θ ÷ cos θ

Calculation:

⇒ tan θ sin θ + cos θ

⇒ (sin θ ÷ cos θ) × sin θ + cos θ

⇒ (sin² θ ÷ cos θ) + cos θ

⇒ (sin² θ + cos² θ) ÷ cos θ

⇒ 1 ÷ cos θ

⇒ sec θ

∴ The correct answer is sec θ.

Given:

Two circles intersect at two points

Both circles have same radius

Formula Used:

Number of common tangents depends on position of circles

Calculation:

⇒ When two circles intersect at two points, they overlap

⇒ In this case, only direct common tangents exist

⇒ Number of direct common tangents = 2

⇒ Transverse common tangents are not possible

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Given:

sin3A = 3/5

Formula Used:

sin²θ + cos²θ = 1

tanθ = sinθ ÷ cosθ

Calculation:

⇒ sin3A = 3/5 ⇒ cos3A = √(1 − (3/5)²)

⇒ cos3A = √(1 − 9/25) = √(16/25) = 4/5

⇒ tan3A = sin3A ÷ cos3A = (3/5) ÷ (4/5)

⇒ tan3A = 3/4

∴ The correct answer is cos3A = 4/5 and tan3A = 3/4.

Given:

Amount = Rs. 23958

Rate = 10% per annum

Time = 3 years

Formula Used:

Compound Interest Formula: A = P × (1 + r/100)ⁿ

Where:

A = Final Amount

P = Principal

r = Rate of Interest

n = Time Period

Calculation:

⇒ 23958 = P × (1 + 10/100)³

⇒ 23958 = P × (1.1)³

⇒ 23958 = P × 1.331

⇒ P = 23958 ÷ 1.331

⇒ P = 18000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 18000.

Given:

Marked Price = 140% more than Discount

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount

Percentage = (part ÷ whole) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let Discount = 100

⇒ Marked Price = 100 + 140% of 100 = 100 + 140 = 240

⇒ Selling Price = 240 − 100 = 140

⇒ Required % = (140 ÷ 240) × 100

⇒ = 7/12 × 100 = 58.33%

∴ The correct answer is 58.33%.

The correct answer is Abul Fazl.

Key Points

• Abul Fazl was a prominent courtier, historian, and writer in the court of Mughal Emperor Akbar.
• He authored the three-volume history of Akbar's reign titled Akbarnama, which is one of the most celebrated chronicles of the Mughal era.
• The Akbarnama is divided into three parts: the first part deals with Akbar's ancestors, the second part focuses on Akbar's reign, and the third part is the Ain-i-Akbari, a detailed account of the administration and culture of the empire.
• Abul Fazl's work is considered an authentic and detailed source of Mughal history and administration during Akbar's reign.
• He was also known for his literary style and contributions to Persian literature. He played a significant role in shaping Akbar's policies and was one of the Nine Gems (Navratnas) of Akbar's court.

Additional Information

• Akbarnama:
• It was commissioned by Emperor Akbar himself and took Abul Fazl nearly seven years to complete (between 1590 and 1597).
• The Ain-i-Akbari, the third part of Akbarnama, is a unique administrative record that details the empire’s political structure, revenue systems, military organization, and cultural aspects.
• The work is written in Persian, which was the court language of the Mughals, and showcases Abul Fazl's exceptional literary and analytical skills.
• The Akbarnama remains a critical resource for understanding the governance, culture, and societal norms of the Mughal period.
• Abul Fazl’s Contributions:
• He played a key role in Akbar's policy of religious tolerance and the development of the Din-i-Ilahi, a syncretic religious movement initiated by Akbar.
• Abul Fazl was a skilled diplomat and often represented Akbar in important missions.
• He was assassinated in 1602 by conspirators who opposed his influence in the Mughal court.
• Other Navratnas of Akbar’s Court:
• Akbar’s court included nine distinguished individuals known as the Navratnas. These included Birbal (known for his wit), Tansen (a legendary musician), Raja Todar Mal (finance expert), and others.
• Each Navratna was highly skilled in their respective fields and contributed significantly to the cultural and administrative achievements of Akbar's reign.
• Other Historical Sources:
• Besides Abul Fazl's Akbarnama, other important works documenting Akbar’s reign include the writings of Badauni and the memoirs of Akbar himself, known as Jahangir’s Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri.
• These sources complement each other in providing a holistic view of the Mughal period.

Important Points

• Historical Significance of Akbarnama:
• Akbarnama is not just a biography of Akbar but also a detailed account of the socio-political structure of the Mughal Empire.
• It provides insights into the reforms initiated by Akbar, such as the abolition of Jizya tax, the introduction of the mansabdari system, and the promotion of art and architecture.
• The book highlights Akbar’s efforts in uniting his diverse empire through policies of tolerance and inclusivity.
• It remains one of the most comprehensive sources of medieval Indian history.
• Legacy of Abul Fazl:
• His contributions to Mughal historiography and administration have left an enduring legacy in Indian history.
• Abul Fazl's analytical and detailed approach makes his work invaluable for historians and scholars.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• Statement I: Rashtrakuta - Tamil Nadu
• The Rashtrakutas were a prominent dynasty in Indian history, ruling from the 8^th to 10^th century CE.
• They primarily ruled over the Deccan region, with their empire extending across parts of modern-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh.
• They did not have Tamil Nadu as a significant part of their empire. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Statement II: Gurjara-Pratihara - Rajasthan
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas were a powerful dynasty in northern India, especially during the 8^th to 11^th centuries.
• They had a stronghold in parts of modern-day Rajasthan, along with regions of Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Their capital was initially at Bhinmal (Rajasthan), later shifting to Kanauj, which became a prominent center of their empire. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Based on the above, only Statement II is correct, making the correct option Only II.

Additional Information

• Rashtrakutas:
• The Rashtrakutas were known for their contributions to art and architecture, notably the Kailasa Temple at Ellora, a UNESCO World Heritage site.
• They ruled from their capital at Manyakheta (modern-day Malkhed in Karnataka).
• Their empire was known for its tolerance towards different religions, including Hinduism, Jainism, and Buddhism.
• The Rashtrakutas played a significant role in southern India but did not have Tamil Nadu as a major part of their territory.
• Gurjara-Pratiharas:
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas were one of the three major dynasties involved in the tripartite struggle for control over Kanauj, alongside the Rashtrakutas and the Palas.
• Their capital, Kanauj, became a prominent political and cultural hub during their reign.
• The Gurjara-Pratiharas are also known for their patronage of art and architecture, including the construction of temples in Rajasthan and other regions.
• They played a crucial role in defending India against Arab invasions in the early medieval period.
• Key Characteristics of Tamil Nadu During the Rashtrakuta Period:
• Tamil Nadu during this period was dominated by the Pallavas and later the Cholas.
• These dynasties were responsible for some of the iconic Dravidian architecture, including the temples at Mahabalipuram and Thanjavur.
• The Rashtrakutas had limited influence in Tamil Nadu, focusing more on the Deccan and central India.

Important Points

• Rashtrakutas: Their empire was at its peak under Amoghavarsha I, who was known for his contributions to Kannada literature.
• Gurjara-Pratiharas: The dynasty declined after the invasions of the Turks and internal conflicts.
• Tripartite Struggle: This was a prolonged conflict between the Rashtrakutas, Gurjara-Pratiharas, and Palas for control over northern India.
• Tamil Nadu: Dominated by the Chola dynasty during the medieval period, which was known for its maritime power and contributions to art and architecture.

The correct answer is Organization of village panchayats.

Key Points

• Article 40 of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are guidelines for the state to frame laws and policies aimed at establishing social and economic democracy.
• It directs the state to take measures to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority to function as units of self-government.
• The goal of Article 40 is to promote grassroots democracy through the establishment of local self-governance systems across villages in India.
• The implementation of Article 40 led to the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
• Under this amendment, a three-tier Panchayati Raj system was introduced, consisting of Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad, enabling decentralized governance and local decision-making.

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy:
• These principles are enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Constitution of India and aim to create a just and equitable society.
• They are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts, but serve as important guidelines for governance.
• Examples of DPSPs include promoting education, protecting the environment, and establishing village panchayats.
• 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
• This amendment added Part IX to the Constitution and provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
• It mandated the establishment of a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in villages, intermediate levels, and districts.
• It introduced provisions for regular elections, reservation for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women, and the creation of State Election Commissions.
• Functions of Panchayati Raj Institutions:
• PRIs play a crucial role in rural development by implementing schemes related to health, education, sanitation, and agriculture.
• They also enable participatory governance, where citizens can directly engage in decision-making processes.
• Related Articles in the Constitution:
• Article 243: Defines the Panchayati Raj system and its structure.
• Article 243D: Provides for reservation in PRIs for SCs, STs, and women.
• Article 243E: Specifies the duration and terms of office for members of Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• India has a long tradition of local self-governance, with village panchayats mentioned in ancient texts like the Manusmriti and Kautilya's Arthashastra.
• The concept of Panchayati Raj was revived during India's freedom movement, particularly by leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, who emphasized village self-reliance.
• Challenges in Implementation:
• Despite constitutional provisions, Panchayati Raj Institutions often face issues like inadequate funding, limited autonomy, and interference by higher authorities.
• Capacity building and training programs for elected representatives are essential to improve the functioning of PRIs.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was specifically designed to provide autonomy to tribal areas in certain northeastern states of India.
• It applies to the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• The provisions under the Sixth Schedule allow for the creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), which have legislative, judicial, and executive powers in certain specified areas.
• Manipur is not covered under the Sixth Schedule. Instead, it has its own distinct arrangements for the governance of tribal areas, such as the Hill Areas Committee and Autonomous District Councils (not under the Sixth Schedule).
• The absence of Sixth Schedule provisions in Manipur is due to its unique historical and administrative context, where different mechanisms are in place for tribal development and administration.
• Hence, the correct answer is Manipur.

Additional Information

• Sixth Schedule and Autonomous District Councils (ADCs):
• The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of tribal areas through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), which have the authority to make laws on certain matters such as land, forest management, village administration, and inheritance of property.
• Each ADC consists of not more than 30 members, of whom four are nominated by the governor, while the rest are elected members.
• ADCs have the power to create courts for trial of certain cases and also manage resources within their jurisdiction.
• Examples of ADCs include the Bodoland Territorial Council in Assam and the Khasi Hills Autonomous District Council in Meghalaya.
• States Covered under the Sixth Schedule:
• The states covered under the Sixth Schedule include Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• This schedule was incorporated to protect the rights and culture of tribal communities in these states.
• Manipur and Tribal Governance:
• Manipur has Autonomous District Councils created under the Manipur (Hill Areas) District Councils Act, 1971, but these councils do not have the same constitutional protection as those under the Sixth Schedule.
• The Hill Areas Committee, constituted under Article 371C of the Indian Constitution, is responsible for protecting the interests of tribal communities in Manipur.
• Differences in Governance:
• While the Sixth Schedule grants legislative and judicial powers to ADCs, the ADCs in Manipur operate under state legislation and have limited powers compared to their counterparts in Sixth Schedule areas.
• This distinction highlights the unique governance framework adopted in Manipur to address its tribal population's needs.

Important Points

• Article 244:
• This article of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of Scheduled and Tribal Areas.
• It provides for the application of the Fifth Schedule in other states (excluding northeastern states) and the Sixth Schedule in northeastern states.
• Role of Governor:
• The governor plays a significant role in the administration of Sixth Schedule areas and has the power to create or dissolve ADCs and regulate their functioning.
• Historical Context:
• The Sixth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution to address the aspirations of tribal communities in the northeastern region, ensuring their autonomy and preserving their unique identity.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA): The IORA is an intergovernmental organization established on 7 March 1997 to promote cooperation among countries bordering the Indian Ocean.
• Membership: As of 31^st July 2025, IORA has 23 member states. These include countries located along the Indian Ocean such as Australia, Bangladesh, India, South Africa, and others.
• Australia: Australia is one of the founding members of the IORA and plays a significant role in regional cooperation, maritime security, and sustainable development. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• Bangladesh: Bangladesh became a member of the IORA due to its geographical location bordering the Indian Ocean and its active participation in regional initiatives. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• Purpose: The organization aims to enhance economic cooperation, environmental protection, and maritime safety among member states.

Additional Information

• Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Overview:
• The organization comprises 23 member states and 10 dialogue partners, including countries like China, the United States, and the United Kingdom.
• IORA's headquarters are located in Ebène, Mauritius.
• The association focuses on six priority areas: maritime safety and security, trade and investment facilitation, fisheries management, disaster risk management, academic and scientific cooperation, and tourism promotion.
• Australia's Role in IORA:
• Australia has been a key member since the organization's inception in 1997.
• It actively contributes to initiatives like maritime security, sustainable development, and capacity building in the region.
• Australia hosted the 2013 IORA Ministerial Meeting and plays a leading role in combating illegal fishing and promoting blue economy initiatives.
• Bangladesh's Role in IORA:
• Bangladesh joined IORA to strengthen its regional ties and enhance cooperation in areas like maritime safety and disaster management.
• It is actively involved in promoting academic exchanges and sustainable practices among member states.
• Bangladesh has hosted several workshops and events under IORA's framework, especially focusing on climate resilience and disaster preparedness.
• Significance of IORA:
• The Indian Ocean region is home to 2.7 billion people, making it a crucial area for international trade and economic growth.
• IORA fosters collaboration among member states to address challenges like piracy, illegal fishing, and climate change.
• The organization supports the development of a blue economy, focusing on sustainable use of ocean resources.

Important Points

• IORA Strategic Framework:
• IORA promotes regional economic integration by encouraging free trade agreements among member states.
• The organization emphasizes academic collaboration through research programs and knowledge-sharing initiatives.
• IORA has launched projects to enhance maritime security, such as the establishment of regional information-sharing centers.
• Blue Economy Initiatives:
• IORA advocates for sustainable use of ocean resources to boost economic growth and preserve marine ecosystems.
• Member states are encouraged to invest in renewable ocean energy, aquaculture, and marine tourism.
• Workshops and conferences are held to address challenges such as marine pollution and overfishing.
• Future Directions:
• IORA aims to strengthen its influence by expanding partnerships with global organizations like the United Nations and the World Bank.
• The association plans to focus more on climate resilience and disaster risk reduction in the coming years.
• Efforts are being made to increase the participation of women in maritime industries and enhance gender equity in the region.

The correct answer is Samudragupta.

Key Points

• Samudragupta, the second ruler of the Gupta Empire, is referred to as the "Napoleon of India" due to his extensive military conquests and strategic prowess.
• This title was given by the historian Vincent A. Smith, who admired Samudragupta's military achievements and compared him to Napoleon Bonaparte.
• Samudragupta ruled from approximately 335 CE to 380 CE and expanded the Gupta Empire significantly through his campaigns in both northern and southern India.
• His conquests are detailed in the Prayaga Prashasti (Allahabad Pillar Inscription), composed by his court poet Harisena, which describes his victories over numerous kings and territories.
• Samudragupta's campaigns included the annexation of territories in the Ganges valley, subjugation of frontier states, and alliances with southern kingdoms, marking him as one of the greatest military strategists in Indian history.

Additional Information

• Prayaga Prashasti:
• The Prayaga Prashasti is an inscription engraved on the Allahabad Pillar by Samudragupta's court poet, Harisena.
• It provides a detailed account of Samudragupta’s military conquests, administrative policies, and achievements.
• The inscription is considered a significant historical source for understanding the Gupta Empire's political and military history.
• Samudragupta's Military Campaigns:
• Samudragupta defeated nine northern kings, annexing their territories into the Gupta Empire.
• In his southern campaigns, he subdued twelve kings but allowed them to retain their kingdoms as tributary states, showcasing his strategy of political alliances.
• Samudragupta's Contributions to Arts and Culture:
• Samudragupta was not only a warrior but also a patron of arts, music, and culture.
• He was a skilled poet and musician, often depicted in coins playing the veena (a stringed musical instrument).
• His reign is considered the golden age of classical Indian culture and art.
• Comparison with Napoleon:
• Historian Vincent A. Smith compared Samudragupta to Napoleon due to his ambitious military campaigns and ability to conquer vast territories.
• Like Napoleon, Samudragupta was a brilliant strategist, but unlike Napoleon, he was also known for his administrative acumen and cultural patronage.

Important Points

• Gupta Empire: The Gupta Empire (circa 320-550 CE) is known as the Golden Age of India due to advancements in science, art, culture, and administration.
• Harisena: He was Samudragupta’s court poet and the author of the Prayaga Prashasti, which is an invaluable source for Gupta history.
• Coins: Samudragupta issued a variety of gold coins depicting him in different roles, such as a warrior, king, and musician, reflecting his multifaceted personality.
• Administrative Policies: Samudragupta centralized administration, promoted trade, and ensured the prosperity of his empire through efficient governance.

The correct answer is Nidhi Tewari.

Key Points

• Nidhi Tewari has been appointed as the Private Secretary to Prime Minister Narendra Modi in March 2025.
• The position of Private Secretary to the Prime Minister is critical for managing the administrative and logistical tasks associated with the Prime Minister's office.
• Nidhi Tewari is recognized for her experience and expertise in handling high-level administrative roles, which likely contributed to her selection for this prestigious position.
• The appointment aligns with the tradition of selecting highly qualified individuals to ensure the smooth functioning of the Prime Minister's office.
• This decision reflects the government’s commitment to maintaining efficiency and professionalism in its operations.

Additional Information

• Role of Private Secretary:
• The Private Secretary to the Prime Minister assists in coordinating official schedules, managing communications, and ensuring the seamless execution of administrative tasks.
• This role involves liaising with various government departments, stakeholders, and international delegations as required.
• The Private Secretary also plays a key role in drafting, reviewing, and managing correspondence and documentation for the Prime Minister.
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi:
• Serving as the 14^th Prime Minister of India since May 2014, Narendra Modi is known for his dynamic leadership and transformative policies.
• He has initiated several flagship programs such as Digital India, Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, and Make in India to boost development and governance.
• The Prime Minister's office is pivotal in implementing major policy decisions, and the Private Secretary plays a vital role in supporting these functions.
• Appointment Process:
• Appointments to key positions such as the Private Secretary to the Prime Minister are generally made based on merit, experience, and suitability for the demands of the role.
• The selection process involves assessing the candidate’s administrative skills, familiarity with government protocols, and ability to handle high-pressure scenarios.
• Other Notable Officials:
• P.K. Mishra: Currently serves as the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister and has a significant role in policy formulation and advisory functions.
• Nripendra Mishra: Previously served as the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister during Narendra Modi's first term in office.
• A.K. Sharma: Known for his administrative acumen and experience in various government roles, though not appointed as the Private Secretary.

Important Points

• Eligibility for the Role:
• The candidate must possess extensive experience in administrative and managerial positions.
• A thorough understanding of government operations and protocols is essential.
• Excellent communication and organizational skills are critical for this high-profile role.
• Significance of the Appointment:
• The Private Secretary ensures the efficient functioning of the Prime Minister’s daily schedule and operations.
• This role is integral to implementing the vision and policies outlined by the Prime Minister.
• Appointments to such positions reflect the government’s focus on professionalism and expertise.