SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 28 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Mechanic.

Key Points

• Mechanic refers to a person who repairs and maintains machinery, especially motor vehicles. (मकैनिक: मशीनों की मरम्मत और रखरखाव करने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: The mechanic quickly identified the issue with my car and fixed it within an hour.
• The role of a mechanic is highly specialized and involves a deep understanding of mechanical systems.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Mechanic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Technician (तकनीशियन): A person skilled in the technical aspects of a particular field.
• Example: The technician installed the software on my computer efficiently.
• Engineer (अभियंता): A professional trained in designing, building, and maintaining structures, machines, or systems.
• Example: The engineer designed a new bridge to replace the old one.
• Operator (ऑपरेटर): A person who operates machinery or equipment.
• Example: The crane operator carefully lifted the heavy steel beams into position.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. A useless possession which is extremely expensive to keep.

Key Points

• The idiom "A white elephant" refers to something that is costly to maintain but has little practical use. (बेकार और महंगा वस्तु)
• Example: The old palace turned out to be a white elephant for the new owners, as its upkeep was draining their finances.
• Explanation: Historically, the term originates from Siam (modern-day Thailand), where white elephants were considered sacred but were costly to maintain. (ऐतिहासिक रूप से, यह शब्द थाईलैंड से आया है।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e., A useless possession which is extremely expensive to keep.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: An extinct species (लुप्त प्रजाति)
• Meaning: Refers to species that no longer exist, like dinosaurs.
• Example: The Dodo is an example of an extinct species.
• Option 3: Someone belonging to a royal family (राजघराने का व्यक्ति)
• Meaning: Refers to individuals who are part of a monarchy or royal lineage.
• Example: Prince Charles belongs to the British royal family.
• Option 4: An endangered species (संकटग्रस्त प्रजाति)
• Meaning: Refers to species that are at risk of extinction due to various factors.
• Example: Pandas are considered an endangered species.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The sentence is grammatically sound and follows standard English syntax for an interrogative statement.
• The subject "non-verbal communication" is an uncountable singular noun, which correctly agrees with the singular verb "is."
• The phrase "such as facial expressions and gestures" is a non-essential (parenthetical) clause providing examples, and it is properly set off by commas.
• The concluding phrase "when speaking?" correctly establishes the context and ends with the appropriate punctuation.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

Correct Sentence: "How important is non-verbal communication, such as facial expressions and gestures, when speaking?"

Additional Information

• 1: "How important is non-verbal communication," – This part is correct; it uses the proper interrogative word "How" and maintains subject-verb agreement.
• 2: "such as facial expressions and gestures," – This part is correct; "such as" is used correctly to introduce examples, and commas are placed correctly to separate the non-restrictive phrase.
• 3: "when speaking?" – This part is correct; it uses a concise gerund phrase to indicate time/context and ends with a question mark.
• No correction required – This is the correct choice because there are no grammatical, punctuation, or spelling errors in the original sentence.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's break down each sentence to identify the grammatically and contextually correct ones:

• 1. Scarcely had he arrived when the meeting started.
• This sentence uses the correct "negative inversion" structure where the auxiliary verb "had" comes before the subject "he."
• It also uses the correct conjunction "when" which is paired with "scarcely."
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• 2. Scarcely he had arrived than the meeting started.
• The sentence is erroneous for two reasons: it lacks inversion (it should be "had he") and it uses the wrong conjunction "than."
• The correct sentence would be: "Scarcely had he arrived when the meeting started."
• 3. Scarcely had he arrived than the meeting started.
• The sentence is erroneous because "scarcely" must be followed by "when" or "before," not "than." "Than" is only used with "No sooner."
• The correct sentence would be: "Scarcely had he arrived when the meeting started."
• 4. Scarcely he arrived when the meeting started.
• The sentence is erroneous because it lacks both the past perfect auxiliary verb "had" and the necessary subject-verb inversion required after an opening negative adverb.
• The correct sentence would be: "Scarcely had he arrived when the meeting started."
• So, out of the given options, only sentence 1 is grammatically and contextually correct, while sentences 2, 3, and 4 are erroneous.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1."

The correct answer is 'on'.

Key Points

• The preposition "on" is used when discussing topics, subjects, or issues.
• In the given sentence, "on the issue" correctly conveys that the delegates were deliberating about the issue.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect as they do not fit the context or grammatical structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "The delegates conferred on the issue for several hours before reaching consensus."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "and" is incorrect because "and" is a conjunction, not a preposition, and does not fit in this context.
• Option 2: "for" is incorrect because "for" implies purpose or benefit, which does not align with the intended meaning.
• Option 4: "above" is incorrect because "above" refers to physical or positional elevation, which is irrelevant here.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. She was born in the barn.

Key Points

• The word "born" is used to indicate the act of being brought into existence, especially through birth. (जन्म लेना)
• Example: She was born in a small village in the countryside.
• The word "borne" is the past participle of "bear," which means to carry or endure something. (सहन करना या उठाना)
• Example: The weight of the responsibility was borne by the team leader.
• The sentence "She was born in the barn" correctly uses the word "born" to indicate her place of birth.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. She was born in the barn.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: She was borne in the barn (सहन करना): This sentence incorrectly uses "borne" instead of "born." "Borne" means to carry or endure and does not fit the context of birth.
• Example: The team had borne the burden of the project for months.
• Option 3: He born the weight easily (जन्म लेना): This sentence is incorrect because "born" is not used as a verb to indicate carrying or enduring something. The correct verb form here should be "bore."
• Example: He bore the weight easily despite his injury.
• Option 4: The weight was barn by him (गलत): This sentence incorrectly uses "barn," which is a place, not a verb or participle. It does not make grammatical sense.
• Example: A barn is used for storing hay, but it cannot describe an action.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The word 'Accessories' is correctly spelled.
• It refers to items that are supplementary or enhance the functionality or appearance of something. (सामान)
• For example: "She bought some accessories for her new car."

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Accessories', i.e., option 1.

Additional Information

• Accesaries: Incorrect spelling. Common mistake due to omission of an extra 's'.
• Accesories: Incorrect spelling. The extra 's' is omitted, and the word is misspelled.
• Accesseries: Incorrect spelling. The word is incorrectly formed by adding 'e' after 's'.

The correct answer is 'put away'.

Key Points

• The phrasal verb "put away" means to store or place something in its proper location, often for future use.
• In the context of the sentence, "He put on all his paintings in the attic," the appropriate replacement is "put away" to convey that the paintings were stored in the attic.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 do not fit the context or meaning required in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "He put away all his paintings in the attic."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "put off" means to postpone or delay, which does not make sense in the context of the sentence.
• Option 3: "put by" means to save something for later, usually money, and is not suitable for the context of storing paintings.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the phrase "put on" does not fit the intended meaning of storing paintings in the attic.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the passive voice sentence, "The ancient ruins are being preserved by the archaeologists," the verb is in present continuous tense.
• To convert it into active voice, the subject "The archaeologists" must come first.
• The verb "are being preserved" changes to "are preserving," which is present continuous active voice.
• The object "The ancient ruins" remains at the end of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "The archaeologists are preserving the ancient ruins."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The archaeologists preserve the ancient ruins." – Incorrect, as the verb tense is simple present, not present continuous.
• Option 3: "The archaeologists were preserving the ancient ruins." – Incorrect, as the verb tense is past continuous, not present continuous.
• Option 4: "The archaeologists have preserved the ancient ruins." – Incorrect, as the verb tense is present perfect, not present continuous.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Direct Speech: The culprit said to the judge, "I am innocent as I did not commit the crime at all."
• Key Conversions:
• Reporting verb "said to" becomes "told": When an object (the judge) is mentioned, "said to" is changed to "told" in indirect speech.
• Pronoun "I" becomes "he": The first-person pronoun "I" changes according to the subject of the reporting verb (the culprit), becoming "he."
• Tense Shift (Backshifting):
• "am" (Simple Present) becomes "was" (Simple Past): Present state verbs shift to their past form.
• "did not commit" (Simple Past) becomes "had not committed" (Past Perfect): Past actions shift to the past perfect in indirect speech.
• Punctuation and Format:
• The comma and quotation marks are removed and replaced with the conjunction "that."
• The sentence ends with a full stop.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "The culprit told the judge that he was innocent as he had not committed the crime at all."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The culprit told the judge that he is innocent as I had not committed the crime at all."
• Incorrect tense ("is" should be "was") and incorrect pronoun ("I" should be "he").
• Option 2: "The culprit told the judge that he was innocent as I did not commit the crime at all."
• Incorrect pronoun ("I" should be "he") and incorrect tense ("did not commit" should be "had not committed").
• Option 3: "The culprit told the judge that he is innocent as I did not commit the crime at all."
• Failed to shift tenses ("is," "did not commit") and failed to change the second pronoun ("I").

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Direct Speech: It involves quoting the exact words spoken by a person, enclosed in quotation marks.
• Conversion Process:
• Indirect: "He suggested that we revise the chapter thoroughly before the test."
• Direct: "Let’s revise the chapter thoroughly before the test," he said.
• The use of "Let’s" in the direct speech conveys the suggestion made in the original sentence.
• Correct Format:
• Direct speech must be enclosed in quotation marks.
• The reporting verb "said" is used appropriately to indicate the suggestion.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: "Let’s revise the chapter thoroughly before the test," he said.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "We will revise the chapter thoroughly before the test," he suggested.
• Incorrect because "will" implies future action, not suggestion.
• Option 2: "Revise the chapter thoroughly before the test," he said.
• Incorrect as it changes the suggestion into a command.
• Option 4: "We must revise the chapter thoroughly before the test," he suggested.
• Incorrect as "must" imposes obligation, not suggestion.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'for, against'.

Key Points

• The preposition "for" is used to indicate the reason or cause of an action, such as being reprimanded for something.
• The preposition "against" is used to indicate warnings or opposition to something.
• The sentence describes a situation where someone was reprimanded for being late and warned against further delays, making this pair of prepositions the most suitable.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "She was reprimanded for being late and warned against further delays."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "at, of" is incorrect because neither "at" nor "of" fits the context of the sentence.
• Option 3: "on, for" is incorrect because "on" does not indicate the cause of reprimanding, and "for" does not fit with warnings.
• Option 4: "from, despite" is incorrect because neither "from" nor "despite" fits the context or the grammatical structure of the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Direct Speech Conversion: The phrase "had to be submitted by the next evening" in indirect speech is converted to "must be submitted by tomorrow evening" in direct speech.
• Key Conversions:
• "had to" becomes "must"
• In direct speech, "must" indicates a strong necessity or obligation.
• "next evening" becomes "tomorrow evening"
• Direct speech uses "tomorrow" to indicate the following day.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is enclosed within double quotation marks.
• The reporting verb "said" is followed by a comma before the quoted speech.
• The quoted speech starts with a capital letter and ends with a period.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: "She said, "The documents must be submitted by tomorrow evening.""

Additional Information

• Option 1: "She said, 'The documents ought to be submitted by the next evening.'"
• Incorrect as "ought to" implies moral obligation rather than necessity.
• Option 3: "She said, 'The documents need to be submitted by the coming evening.'"
• Incorrect as "coming evening" is ambiguous and does not accurately reflect "next evening."
• Option 4: "She said, 'The documents are to be submitted by the following evening.'"
• Incorrect as "are to be" does not match the urgency conveyed by "had to."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'articualte'.

• The correct spelling would be 'articulate'.
• The word 'articulate' is a verb which means 'express an idea or feeling fluently and coherently'. (स्पष्ट रूप से व्यक्त करना)
• For Example -
• She is able to articulate her thoughts with clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'articualte'.

Additional Information

Let's understand why the other options are correct - 

• Option 1: She is able to articulate her ideas clearly.
• This sentence uses the correct spelling of 'articulate' and is grammatically correct.
• Option 3: Her speech was very articulate and inspiring.
• The word 'articulate' is correctly spelled and used as an adjective to describe her speech.
• Option 4: The teacher asked the students to articulate their answers.
• The word 'articulate' is correctly spelled and used as a verb to indicate expressing answers clearly.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• To convert from passive voice to active voice, identify the subject performing the action in the sentence.
• In the given passive sentence, the subject performing the action is implied as "they."
• Rearrange the sentence so that the subject ("they") comes first, followed by the verb ("had decided"), and then the object ("the final exam would not be graded on a curve this semester").
• Ensure the verb tense remains consistent (past perfect).

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "They had decided that the final exam would not be graded on a curve this semester."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "The final exam would not be graded on a curve this semester, it had been decided." – This retains the passive voice structure and is not in active voice.
• Option 3: "They have decided that the final exam would not be graded on a curve this semester." – Incorrect tense (present perfect instead of past perfect).
• Option 4: "The final exam was decided not to be graded on a curve this semester." – Incorrect phrasing and passive voice structure.

The correct answer is 'had threatened to burn'.

Key Points

• The verb phrase "had threatened to burn" is in the past perfect tense, indicating an action that was completed before another past event ("the ban was imposed").
• The sentence describes a past situation where a threat was made, so the appropriate verb form is "had threatened."
• Option 3 is grammatically correct and aligns with the intended meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "The ban was imposed by the commercial taxes department on Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threatened to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "had threats of burning" is incorrect because "had threats" is not the correct verb form for describing an action.
• Option 2: "had threaded to burn" is incorrect because "threaded" is a different word with an unrelated meaning.
• Option 4: "had threatened to burning" is incorrect because "to burning" is not a grammatically valid construction; the correct form is "to burn."

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "Did Sanya pay the dinner bills?"
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the dinner bills" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "did pay" to "were paid" (past simple passive).
• Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "Sanya."
• Ensure the question form remains intact by starting with "Were" and maintaining proper word order.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: "Were the dinner bills paid by Sanya?"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The dinner bills did get paid by Sanya?" – Incorrect structure for passive voice.
• Option 2: "The dinner bills were paid by Sanya?" – Correct passive voice transformation, but not in question form.
• Option 3: "Did the dinner bills be paid by Sanya?" – Incorrect verb usage ("be paid" is grammatically incorrect).
• Option 4: "Were the dinner bills paid by Sanya?" – Correct passive voice transformation in question form.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "Who did you suspect was responsible for leaking the confidential information to the press?"
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object of the sentence appropriately, and restructure the sentence using the passive voice format.
• Ensure the meaning remains intact while shifting focus from the subject to the object.
• Option 1 correctly transforms the sentence into passive voice: "Who was suspected by you of being responsible for leaking the confidential information to the press?"

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: "Who was suspected by you of being responsible for leaking the confidential information to the press?"

Additional Information

• Option 2: "By whom was it suspected that the confidential information had been leaked to the press?" – Incorrect structure for this context.
• Option 3: "Who do you suspect was responsible for the confidential information being leaked to the press?" – Retains active voice and is not a passive transformation.
• Option 4: "By whom was the confidential information suspected to have been leaked to the press?" – Incorrect focus and structure for this context.

The correct answer is 'Option 4 (At)'.

Key Points

• Option 1: On
• This is incorrect. “On increasing” is not idiomatic in this context; it would sound awkward and ungrammatical.
• Option 2: For
• This is incorrect. “Aimed for increasing” is not standard usage. “For” works with nouns (“aimed for success”), but not with gerunds like “increasing.”
• Option 3: To
• This is incorrect. “Aimed to increasing” is grammatically wrong. “To” would require the base verb (“aimed to increase”), not the gerund “increasing.”
• Option 4: At
• This is correct. The standard collocation is “aimed at + gerund/noun.” Hence, “aimed at increasing female literacy rates” is the proper construction.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4 (At).

Additional Information

• The verb phrase “aimed at” is a fixed collocation in English, used when describing goals directed toward an action or outcome.
• Examples: “The policy is aimed at reducing poverty.” / “The campaign is aimed at raising awareness.”
• This construction highlights the purpose or target of the initiative.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• Option 1: Initiatives were launched together by international organisations and local governments.
• This is correct. It properly transforms the active sentence into passive voice, keeping the meaning intact and grammatical.
• Option 2: To launch initiatives was worked together by international organisations and local governments.
• This is incorrect. The structure is awkward and ungrammatical; “to launch initiatives was worked together” is not a valid passive construction.
• Option 3: Initiatives had launched by international organisations and local governments.
• This is incorrect. The verb form “had launched” is wrong in passive voice; it should be “had been launched” if past perfect passive were intended.
• Option 4: International organisations and local governments were being worked together to launch initiatives.
• This is incorrect. The subject changes meaning, and “were being worked together” is grammatically faulty and illogical.

Therefore, the correct passive transformation is Option 1: “Initiatives were launched together by international organisations and local governments.”

Additional Information

• In passive voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject.
• The verb form changes to include “be + past participle”.
• The agent (doer) is introduced with “by” if necessary.
• Active: “International organisations and local governments worked together to launch initiatives.”
  

Passive: “Initiatives were launched together by international organisations and local governments.”

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. To continue to exist.

Key Points

• The word "persist" means:
• To continue to exist or occur, especially for a longer time than usual. (जारी रहना, विशेष रूप से सामान्य से अधिक समय तक)
• Example: Despite the challenges, they persisted in their efforts to complete the project.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured her a perfect score.

Therefore, the word “persist” means: To continue to exist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To disappear quickly (जल्दी गायब होना): To vanish or cease to exist in a short time.
• Example: The fog disappeared quickly as the sun rose.
• To improve easily (आसानी से सुधारना): To make or become better without much effort.
• Example: He improved easily with consistent practice.
• To become perfect (संपूर्ण बनना): To reach a state of flawlessness.
• Example: Her skills became perfect after years of dedication.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Not yet used or developed.

Key Points

• The word "untapped" means:
• Not yet used or developed; not exploited. (अभी तक उपयोग या विकास नहीं किया गया; अप्रयुक्त)
• Example: The region's untapped natural resources could be a boost to the economy.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured him a perfect score.

Therefore, the word “untapped” means: Not yet used or developed.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Fully used (पूरी तरह उपयोग किए गए): Used completely, as much as possible.
• Example: The factory's resources were fully used in the production process.
• Forgotten forever (हमेशा के लिए भूल जाना): Not remembered at all for an indefinite period.
• Example: The old methods remained forgotten forever once the new technology was adopted.
• Hidden in books (पुस्तकों में छिपा): Concealed or kept within the pages of literature.
• Example: Many historical secrets are hidden in books.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• Option 1: Girls in developing nations no longer face any problems
• This is incorrect. The passage clearly states that challenges such as poverty, early marriage, and cultural resistance still persist.
• Option 2: Girls' education has improved but some barriers still exist
• This is correct. The passage highlights the historical denial of education, the progress made through global initiatives, and the continuing obstacles in certain regions. It emphasizes both improvement and remaining challenges.
• Option 3: Boys' education has declined due to girls' education
• This is incorrect. The passage does not mention boys’ education at all, nor does it suggest a decline linked to girls’ education.
• Option 4: Only rich countries support girls' education
• This is incorrect. The passage mentions both international organisations and local governments across the world, not just rich countries.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: Girls' education has improved but some barriers still exist.

Additional Information

• The passage traces the evolution of girls’ education from denial in the early 1900s to significant progress today.
• It acknowledges persistent barriers such as poverty, early marriage, and cultural resistance in developing nations.
• The broader implication is that empowering women through education benefits entire communities and supports sustainable development.

The correct answer is: Enthusiasm.

Key Points

• The word "Apathy" refers to a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern for something. (उदासीनता)
• Example: His apathy towards the project was evident as he made no effort to contribute.
• The correct word, "Enthusiasm", is the antonym of "Apathy". It means intense and eager enjoyment, interest, or approval. (जोश/उत्साह)
• Example: She approached the new job with great enthusiasm and energy.
• Hence, the opposite of "Apathy" is "Enthusiasm".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Enthusiasm.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Indifference (उदासीनता): Lack of interest or concern about something.
• Example: The student's indifference towards his studies worried his teachers.
• Laziness (आलस्य): The quality of being unwilling to work or use energy.
• Example: His laziness prevented him from completing the project on time.
• Carelessness (लापरवाही): Lack of attention or thought about potential risks or consequences.
• Example: Her carelessness led to the loss of important documents.

The correct answer is: Virtuous.

Key Points

• The word "Reprobate" refers to a morally unprincipled person, someone who is wicked or sinful. (पथभ्रष्ट व्यक्ति)
• Example: The city was full of reprobates who cared little about the law or morality.
• "Virtuous" refers to someone who is morally excellent, righteous, or exhibits high moral standards. (नैतिकतापूर्ण)
• Example: She led a virtuous life, always helping others and standing up for justice.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'Reprobate' is 'Virtuous'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Virtuous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Rogue (दुष्ट): A dishonest or unprincipled person.
• Example: He was known as a rogue trader who bent the rules for personal gain.
• Unprincipled (अनैतिक): Lacking moral principles or ethics.
• Example: Their unprincipled behavior led to the company’s downfall.
• Rakish (घमंडी): Displaying a carefree or self-indulgent attitude, often associated with stylish but morally dubious behavior.
• Example: His rakish charm made him popular despite his questionable lifestyle.

The logic followed here is:

Initial position of Sita from the left = 12th

Initial position of Radha from the right = 16th

After interchanging, Sita's new position from the left = 20th

Increase in Sita's position = 20 - 12 = 8

Since they interchanged positions, Radha's position from the right will increase by the same number of places.

Radha's new position from the right = Initial position from right + Increase in position

= 16 + 8

= 24th.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Position of Akash from the top = 15th

Position of Akash from the bottom = 20th

So,

Total number of students = (Position from top + Position from bottom) - 1

= (15 + 20) - 1

= 35 - 1 = 34.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (First number × Second number) × 3 = Result

First pair: 31 : 52 = 4836

→ (31 × 52) × 3

→ 1612 × 3 = 4836

Second pair: 18 : 4 = 216

→ (18 × 4) × 3

→ 72 × 3 = 216

Similarly, for the required value:

Value of 51 : 27:

→ (51 × 27) × 3

→ 1377 × 3 = 4131

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 178**.**

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 86**.**

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The paper will appear when opened.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The paper will appear when opened.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

In a row: (Product of first three numbers) × 2 = Fourth number

Row 1: (4 × 7 × 2) × 2 → 56 × 2 = 112

Row 2: (5 × 3 × 8) × 2 → 120 × 2 = 240

Similarly,

Row 3: (6 × 4 × ?) × 2 → (24 × ?) × 2 = 96

⇒ 48 × ? = 96

⇒ ? = 96 ÷ 48

⇒ ? = 2

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (Bottom-left number × Top-right number) + Top-left number = Bottom-right number

Box 1: (5 × 3) + 2 → 15 + 2 = 17

Box 2: (7 × 6) + 4 → 42 + 4 = 46

Similarly, in Box 3:

(6 × ?) + 2 = 20

⇒ 6 × ? = 20 - 2

⇒ 6 × ? = 18

⇒ ? = 18 ÷ 6

⇒ ? = 3

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The total number of triangles in the figure is:

So, the total number of triangles in the figure is 7.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

I. Number of white which are car and airplanes both are 9.

I. Number of white which are cars and airplanes both are 9.

In the figure, the number in the intersection of all three shapes is 3.

The number 9 is in the circle and rectangle, but outside the triangle.

So, statement I is NOT correct.

II. Number of airplanes which are not car are 24.

"Airplanes that are not car" means the numbers inside the rectangle but outside the triangle.

The numbers inside the rectangle that are not in the triangle are: 8 + 9 = 17.

So, statement I is NOT correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

1. Only one person sits between C and D (towards right of D). Since persons face the centre, right is counter-clockwise. So C sits second to the right (counter-clockwise) of D.

   CodeCopy

               D C
   

2. B is second to the left of D. Left is clockwise. So B sits at top-right position.

   CodeCopy

        D B C
   

3. A is second to the right of C. Right is counter-clockwise. So A sits at bottom-right. E fills the remaining seat (top-left), which is immediately to the right of D.

   CodeCopy

         D B A C E
   

So, E sits to the immediate right of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: The prices of six toys A, B, C, D, E, and F are compared.

1) Price of E is less than only C.

C > E > __ > __ > __ > __

2) Price of B is third highest.

C > E > B > __ > __ > __

3) Price of F is less than D but more than A.

C > E > B > D > F > A

Evaluating the options:

1) F and A (Both are indeed less than B)

2. C and A (C is more expensive than B)

3. E and F (E is more expensive than B)

4. D and E (E is more expensive than B)

Option 1 is the only pair where both toys are cheaper than B.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

3 * 5 # 14 % 15 = ?

By using the BODMAS rule:

By, decoding the given symbols we get.

Substituting the given operator in the given expression:

⇒ 3 * 5 # 14 % 15

⇒ 3 - 5 × 14 + 15

⇒ 3 + 15 - 70

⇒ 18 - 70

⇒ -52

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The figure is rotated 135° in the clockwise direction.

For,

Similarly, for

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The figure is rotated 135° in the clockwise direction.

For,

Similarly, for

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Zig-zag line change to a straight line and vice versa.

The change moves from the bottom line up to the top line in a specific order:

Box 1 to Box 2: The 1st (bottom) line changes. It was a straight line and becomes a  zig-zag line.

Box 2 to Box 3: The 2nd line changes. It was a straight line and became a  zig-zag line.

Box 3 to Box 4: The 3rd line changes. It was a zig-zag and became a straight line.

Box 4 to Box 5 (The Solution): The 4th line changes. It was a straight line and became a zig-zag line.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

43 A 16 B 4 D 7 C 5 = ?

By using the BODMAS rule:

By, decoding the given symbols we get.

Substituting the given operator in the given expression:

⇒ 43 A 16 B 4 D 7 C 5

⇒ 43 + (16 ÷ 4) - 7 × 5

⇒ 43 + 4 - 7 × 5

⇒ 43 + 4 - 35

⇒ 47 - 35

⇒ 12

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

BODMAS Rule:

The given equation is:

37 * 13 * 48 * 3 * 2 = 18

Now, let's check each option by applying the proposed signs sequentially and following BODMAS step-by-step:

1) Signs with -, ÷, +, ×

New Equation: 37 - 13 ÷ 48 + 3 × 2 = ?

⇒ 37 - (13 ÷ 48) + 3 × 2

⇒ 37 - 0.27 + (3 × 2)

⇒ (37 + 6) - 0.27

⇒ 43 - 0.27

⇒ 42.73 ≠ 18 (Incorrect)

2) Signs with +, -, ÷, ×

New Equation: 37 + 13 - 48 ÷ 3 × 2 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS/PEMDAS:

⇒ 37 + 13 - (48 ÷ 3) × 2

⇒ 37 + 13 - (16 × 2)

⇒ (37 + 13) - 32

⇒ 50 - 32

⇒ 18

18 = 18 (Correct)

3) Signs with ×, +, -, ÷

New Equation: 37 × 13 + 48 - 3 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 37 × 13 + 48 - (3 ÷ 2)

⇒ (37 × 13) + 48 - 1.5

⇒ (481 + 48) - 1.5

⇒ 529 - 1.5

⇒ 527.5 ≠ 18 (Incorrect)

4) Signs with +, ×, ÷, -

New Equation: 37 + 13 × 48 ÷ 3 - 2 = ?

⇒ 37 + 13 × (48 ÷ 3) - 2

⇒ 37 + (13 × 16) - 2

⇒ (37 + 208) - 2

⇒ 245 - 2

⇒ 243 ≠ 18 (Incorrect)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here:

For Option 1) 108CX - 216DB:

For Option 2) 132DR - 264EU:

For Option 3) 244AH - 488BK:

For Option 4) 296PU - 592QX:

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is 108CX - 216DB.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here involves a vertical shift in the letter positions and a mathematical operation on the whole numbers within each pair.

For Option 1) TR120 – VX180:

For Option 2) BY246 – DD369:

For Option 3) CD122 – EI183:

For Option 4) LW310 – NB465:

Thus, the letter-number pair that DOES NOT belong to that group is TR120 – VX180.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

The difference between the consecutive numbers in the group is constant.

Option 1: 208 - 174 = 34; 174 - 140 = 34.

Option 2: 412 - 378 = 34; 378 - 344 = 34.

Option 3: 534 - 500 = 34; 500 - 466 = 34.

Whereas,

Option 4: 626 - 582 = 44; 582 - 548 = 34. The first difference is 44 instead of 34.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Then logic followed here is:

Option 1: (141 × 2) + 3 = 282 + 3 = 285; and 141 + 285 = 426

Option 2: (169 × 2) + 3 = 338 + 3 = 341; and 169 + 341 = 510

Option 4: (191 × 2) + 3 = 382 + 3 = 385; and 191 + 385 = 576

In options 1, 2, and 4, the second number is (First number × 2 + 3) and the third number is the sum of the first two numbers.

Whereas,

Option 3: (173 × 2) + 2 = 346 + 2 = 348. Here, 2 is added instead of 3 to get the second number.

So, Option 3 is the odd one from the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For SB760 : PY530

For AR1040 : XO810

For FK840 : ?

So, the missing cluster is CH610.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is,

For, LW72 : UJ215

For, CA93 : YA278

Similarly, for FX103 : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Average of 7 numbers = 81

Average of first 3 = 87

Average of last 3 = 78

Formula used:

Sum = Average × Number of terms

Calculations:

Total sum of 7 numbers = 81 × 7 = 567

Sum of first 3 = 87 × 3 = 261

Sum of last 3 = 78 × 3 = 234

Sum of known 6 numbers = 261 + 234 = 495

⇒ 4th number = Total − known sum

⇒ = 567 − 495 = 72

∴ 4th number = 72

Given:

Price increase = 25%

Expenditure remains same

Formula Used:

Reduced consumption (%) = (Price increase ÷ (100 + Price increase)) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Reduced consumption (%) = (25 ÷ (100 + 25)) × 100

⇒ Reduced consumption (%) = (25 ÷ 125) × 100

⇒ Reduced consumption (%) = 20%

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

Discount = 25%

Discounted Price = Rs. 600

Formula Used:

Original Price = Discounted Price ÷ (1 - Discount)

Calculation:

⇒ Original Price = 600 ÷ (1 - 0.25)

⇒ Original Price = 600 ÷ 0.75

⇒ Original Price = Rs. 800

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 800.

Given:

Initial acid concentration = 80%

Initial solution volume = 20 liters

Final acid concentration = 50%

Formula Used:

Acid volume = Initial solution volume × Initial acid concentration

Final solution volume = Acid volume ÷ Final acid concentration

Calculation:

⇒ Acid volume = 20 × 80 ÷ 100

⇒ Acid volume = 16 liters

⇒ Final solution volume = 16 ÷ 50 × 100

⇒ Final solution volume = 32 liters

⇒ Water added = Final solution volume - Initial solution volume

⇒ Water added = 32 - 20

⇒ Water added = 12 liters

∴ The correct answer is 12 liters.

Given:

A can do a piece of work in 20 days.

B can do a piece of work in 30 days.

They work together for 5 days.

Formula Used:

LCM = Total work.

Work = Efficiency × Days.

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 20 and 30 = 60 (Total work).

⇒ Efficiency of A = 60 ÷ 20 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of B = 60 ÷ 30 = 2 units/day.

⇒ Combined efficiency of A and B = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day.

⇒ Work done in 5 days = 5 × 5 = 25 units.

⇒ Work left = Total work - Work done = 60 - 25 = 35 units.

⇒ Fraction of work left = Work left ÷ Total work = 35 ÷ 60 = 7/12.

∴ The correct answer is 7/12.

Shortcut Trick

Number of boxes = (Length × Breadth × Height)_Carton ÷ (length × breadth × height)_Box

Number of boxes = (50 × 25 × 20) ÷ (10 × 5 × 2)

Number of boxes = 5 × 5 × 10 = 250

∴ The correct answer is 250.

Alternate Method

Given:

Dimensions of the carton (L, B, H) = 50 cm, 25 cm, 20 cm

Dimensions of the cuboid box (l, b, h) = 10 cm, 5 cm, 2 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of a cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height

Number of objects = Total Volume ÷ Volume of one object

Calculations:

⇒ Volume of the carton = 50 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm

⇒ Volume of the carton = 25,000 cm³

⇒ Volume of one cuboid box = 10 cm × 5 cm × 2 cm

⇒ Volume of one cuboid box = 100 cm³

⇒ Number of boxes = 25,000 ÷ 100

⇒ Number of boxes = 250

∴ The correct answer is 250.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Cuboid

The total area covering the outer surface of a cuboid is given by TSA = 2(lb + bh + hl).

Diagonal of a Cuboid

The longest rod that can be placed inside a cuboid is its diagonal, calculated as D = √(l² + b² + h²).

Lateral Surface Area

The area of the four side walls (excluding top and bottom) is LSA = 2 × h × (l + b).

Given:

Triangle 1 angles = 50°, 60°, 70°

Triangle 2 is similar and one angle = 70°

Formula used:

In similar triangles, corresponding angles are equal

Calculations:

Triangle 1 angles = 50°, 60°, 70°

Triangle 2 has one angle = 70°

⇒ Remaining angles must be same as other angles of Triangle 1

⇒ Other two angles = 50°, 60°

∴ Required angles = 50° and 60°

Given:

Number of sides = 5

Formula Used:

Sum of interior angles = (n - 2) × 180°

Measure of each interior angle = Sum of interior angles ÷ n

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of interior angles = (5 - 2) × 180°

⇒ Sum of interior angles = 3 × 180°

⇒ Sum of interior angles = 540°

⇒ Measure of each interior angle = 540° ÷ 5

⇒ Measure of each interior angle = 108°

∴ The correct answer is 108°.

Given:

Total quantity = 300 kg

Price of part 1 = ₹18 per kg

Price of part 2 = ₹24 per kg

Selling price = ₹27 per kg

Total profit = ₹2,100

Quantity at ₹18 = 2 × Quantity at ₹24

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling Price - Cost Price

Total Cost = (Quantity at ₹18 × ₹18) + (Quantity at ₹24 × ₹24)

Calculation:

⇒ Let quantity at ₹24 = x kg

⇒ Quantity at ₹18 = 2x kg

⇒ Total quantity = Quantity at ₹18 + Quantity at ₹24

⇒ 2x + x = 300

⇒ 3x = 300

⇒ x = 100

⇒ Quantity at ₹24 = 100 kg

⇒ Quantity at ₹18 = 2 × 100 = 200 kg

⇒ Total Cost = (200 × ₹18) + (100 × ₹24)

⇒ Total Cost = ₹3,600 + ₹2,400 = ₹6,000

⇒ Total Selling Price = 300 × ₹27

⇒ Total Selling Price = ₹8,100

⇒ Profit = ₹8,100 - ₹6,000

⇒ Profit = ₹2,100

∴ The correct answer is 100 kg.

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle base = 6 cm

Length of prism = 40 cm

Formula Used:

Area of equilateral triangle = (√3 / 4) × side²

Volume of prism = Base Area × Length

Calculation:

⇒ Area of equilateral triangle = (√3 / 4) × 6²

⇒ Area of equilateral triangle = (√3 / 4) × 36

⇒ Area of equilateral triangle = 9√3 cm²

⇒ Volume of prism = 9√3 × 40

⇒ Volume of prism = 360√3 cm³

⇒ Volume of prism ≈ 623.5 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 623.5 cm³.

Given:

Sides of triangle = 13 m, 14 m, 15 m

Formula used:

Radius of incircle = Area ÷ Semi-perimeter

Area (Heron’s formula) = √[s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)]

Semi-perimeter (s) = (a + b + c) ÷ 2

Calculations:

⇒ s = (13 + 14 + 15) ÷ 2 = 42 ÷ 2 = 21

⇒ Area = √[21 × (21−13) × (21−14) × (21−15)]

⇒ = √[21 × 8 × 7 × 6]

⇒ = √[7056]

⇒ Area = 84 m²

⇒ Radius = Area ÷ s

⇒ r = 84 ÷ 21 = 4 m

∴ Radius of the sprinkler = 4 m.

Given:

a : b = 9 : 5

b : c = 4 : 11

Formula used:

Make common term (b) same in both ratios

Calculations:

a : b = 9 : 5

b : c = 4 : 11

LCM of 5 and 4 = 20

⇒ Multiply (9 : 5) by 4 → 36 : 20

⇒ Multiply (4 : 11) by 5 → 20 : 55

⇒ a : b : c = 36 : 20 : 55

⇒ a : c = 36 : 55

∴ a : c = 36 : 55.

Given:

Triangle PQR

PS = angle bisector of ∠QPR

PT ⟂ QR

∠Q > ∠R

Formula used:

Angle bisector divides ∠P into equal parts

Angle between altitude and bisector = (1/2)(∠Q − ∠R)

P Q R   PS   PT   QR

Calculations:

⇒ ∠QPR = A ⇒ PS divides into A/2 each

⇒ PT ⟂ QR ⇒ forms right angle

⇒ Using triangle geometry relation

⇒ ∠TPS = (1/2)(∠Q − ∠R)

∴ The correct answer is (1/2)(∠Q − ∠R).

Given:

Lime syrup = 3 L

Water = m L

Lime syrup percentage = 5%

Formula used:

Percentage = (Part ÷ Total) × 100

Calculations:

Total mixture = 3 + m

⇒ (3 ÷ (3 + m)) × 100 = 5

⇒ 300 ÷ (3 + m) = 5

⇒ 300 = 5 × (3 + m)

⇒ 300 = 15 + 5m

⇒ 300 − 15 = 5m

⇒ 285 = 5m

⇒ m = 57 L

∴ Value of m = 57 liters.

Given:

Angle subtended by chord at circumference = 35°

Formula Used:

Angle subtended at center = 2 × Angle subtended at circumference

Calculation:

⇒ Angle subtended at center = 2 × 35°

⇒ Angle subtended at center = 70°

∴ The correct answer is 70°.

Given:

Train length = 400 m

Platform length = 1600 m

Formula used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Total distance = Train length + Platform length

Calculations:

Statement I:

Distance = 400 + 1200 = 1600 m

Time = 80 s

⇒ Speed = 1600 ÷ 80 = 20 m/s

Required distance = 400 + 1600 = 2000 m

⇒ Time = 2000 ÷ 20 = 100 s

⇒ Statement I alone is sufficient ✔

Statement II:

Crossing pole ⇒ Distance = 400 m

Time = 20 s

⇒ Speed = 400 ÷ 20 = 20 m/s

Required distance = 2000 m

⇒ Time = 2000 ÷ 20 = 100 s

⇒ Statement II alone is sufficient ✔

∴ Either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Given:

Expression = 5 ÷ (3 + √2)

Formula used:

(a + b)(a − b) = a² − b²

Calculations:

⇒ Multiply numerator and denominator by (3 − √2)

⇒ [5 × (3 − √2)] ÷ [(3 + √2)(3 − √2)]

⇒ = [5(3 − √2)] ÷ (9 − 2)

⇒ = [5(3 − √2)] ÷ 7

⇒ = (15 − 5√2) ÷ 7

∴ Simplified form = (15 − 5√2) /7.

Given:

A's initial investment = Rs. 15,000

B's investment = Rs. 25,000

A withdrew Rs. 5,000 after 6 months

Total profit = Rs. 60,000

Total duration = 1 year

Formula Used:

Profit sharing ratio = Investment × Time

A's share = (A's ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total profit

Calculation:

⇒ A's investment for first 6 months = 15,000 × 6 = 90,000

⇒ A's investment for next 6 months = 10,000 × 6 = 60,000

⇒ Total A's ratio = 90,000 + 60,000 = 1,50,000

⇒ B's ratio = 25,000 × 12 = 3,00,000

⇒ Total ratio = 1,50,000 + 3,00,000 = 4,50,000

⇒ A's share = (1,50,000 ÷ 4,50,000) × 60,000

⇒ A's share = 1/3 × 60,000 = Rs. 20,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 20,000.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in amounts for 3 years (7 − 4) = ₹15,000 − ₹12,000 = ₹3,000.

Interest per year = 3,000 ÷ 3 = ₹1,000.

Interest for 4 years = 1,000 × 4 = ₹4,000.

Principal = Amount after 4 years − Interest for 4 years = 12,000 − 4,000 = ₹8,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹8,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Amount after 4 years (A₄) = ₹12,000

Amount after 7 years (A₇) = ₹15,000

Formula:

Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Simple Interest (SI)

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Interest for 3 years = A₇ − A₄

⇒ Interest for 3 years = 15,000 − 12,000 = 3,000

⇒ Interest for 1 year = 3,000 ÷ 3 = 1,000

⇒ Interest for 4 years = 1,000 × 4 = 4,000

⇒ Principal (P) = A₄ − Interest for 4 years

⇒ Principal (P) = 12,000 − 4,000 = 8,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹8,000.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Property

In simple interest, the interest earned remains constant every year because it is always calculated on the original principal.

Rate of Interest Formula

The annual rate (R) can be found using R = (SI × 100) ÷ (P × T). In this case, R = (1000 × 100) ÷ (8000 × 1) = 12.5%.

Amount Calculation

The total amount after T years is given by the formula: A = P(1 + RT/100).

Given:

p + q = 3

p − q = 1

Formula used:

2p² + 2q² − 4pq = 2(p − q)²

Calculations:

⇒ p − q = 1

⇒ 2(p − q)² = 2 × 1²

⇒ = 2 × 1 = 2

∴ Value = 2.

Given:

Option 1: 100 ÷ 2 and 1 ÷ 2

Option 2: 150 ÷ 3 and 1 ÷ 4

Option 3: 25 ÷ 3 and 150 ÷ 4

Option 4: 75 ÷ 3 and 100 ÷ 4

Formula Used:

Sum = First value + Second value

Calculation:

⇒ Option 1 = 100 ÷ 2 + 1 ÷ 2 = 50 + 0.5 = 50.5

⇒ Option 2 = 150 ÷ 3 + 1 ÷ 4 = 50 + 0.25 = 50.25

⇒ Option 3 = 25 ÷ 3 + 150 ÷ 4 = 8.33 + 37.5 = 45.83

⇒ Option 4 = 75 ÷ 3 + 100 ÷ 4 = 25 + 25 = 50

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

x = √45 + √5

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²

√m × √n = √(m × n)

Calculation:

⇒ x² = (√45 + √5)²

⇒ x² = (√45)² + 2 × √45 × √5 + (√5)²

⇒ x² = 45 + 2 × √(45 × 5) + 5

⇒ x² = 45 + 2 × √225 + 5

⇒ x² = 45 + 2 × 15 + 5

⇒ x² = 45 + 30 + 5

⇒ x² = 80

∴ The correct answer is 80.

Shortcut Trick

Rate of interest = 12.5% = 1/8 in fraction form.

In Compound Interest, the Amount at the end of any year becomes the Principal for the next year.

Multiplier for one year = (1 + 1/8) = 9/8.

Ratio of Amount₁ : Amount₂ = 1 : (9/8) = 8 : 9.

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 9.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate (R) = 12.5% per annum

Compounding period = Annually

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ, where P is Principal and n is Time.

Calculations:

⇒ Amount at the end of 1st year (A₁) = P(1 + 12.5/100)¹

⇒ Amount at the end of 2nd year (A₂) = P(1 + 12.5/100)²

⇒ Required Ratio = A₁ : A₂

⇒ Ratio = [P(1 + 12.5/100)¹] / [P(1 + 12.5/100)²]

⇒ Ratio = 1 / (1 + 12.5/100)

⇒ Since 12.5/100 = 1/8

⇒ Ratio = 1 / (1 + 1/8) = 1 / (9/8)

⇒ Ratio = 8 / 9

∴ The correct answer is 8 : 9.

Additional Information

Compound Interest Concept

In Compound Interest, the interest earned in the previous year is added to the Principal to calculate interest for the next year. Thus, the ratio of amounts in any two consecutive years is always (1 + R/100).

Effective Rate of Interest

For two years, the Effective Rate of CI can be calculated using the formula: x + y + (xy)/100. For 12.5%, it is 12.5 + 12.5 + (12.5 × 12.5)/100 = 26.5625%.

Difference between SI and CI

The difference between CI and SI for 2 years is given by P(R/100)². In the 1st year, CI and SI are always equal if compounded annually.

Given:

Average of 5 consecutive odd numbers = 37

Number of terms = 5

Formula Used:

Average of consecutive odd numbers = Middle term

Calculation:

⇒ Middle number = 37

⇒ Numbers = 33, 35, 37, 39, 41

⇒ Previous 5 odd numbers = 23, 25, 27, 29, 31

⇒ Sum of new numbers = 23 + 25 + 27 + 29 + 31 = 135

⇒ Average = 135 ÷ 5

⇒ Average = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Given:

P time = 24 days

Q time = 30 days

R time = 40 days

P works for 8 days

Q leaves 6 days before completion

Formula Used:

Work rate = 1 ÷ Time

Total work = Sum of individual works

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 24, 30, 40 = 120

⇒ Rate P = 5 ÷ 120

⇒ Rate Q = 4 ÷ 120

⇒ Rate R = 3 ÷ 120

⇒ Work by (P + Q + R) in 8 days = (5 + 4 + 3) ÷ 120 × 8

⇒ Work = 12 ÷ 120 × 8 = 96 ÷ 120

⇒ Remaining work = 120 ÷ 120 − 96 ÷ 120 = 24 ÷ 120

⇒ Let total time = T

⇒ Q works for (T − 6) days

⇒ Work by P = 5 ÷ 120 × 8 = 40 ÷ 120

⇒ Work by Q = 4 ÷ 120 × (T − 6)

⇒ Work by R = 3 ÷ 120 × T

⇒ Total work = 120 ÷ 120

⇒ 40 ÷ 120 + 4(T − 6) ÷ 120 + 3T ÷ 120 = 120 ÷ 120

⇒ 40 + 4T − 24 + 3T = 120

⇒ 7T + 16 = 120

⇒ 7T = 104

⇒ T = 104 ÷ 7

∴ The correct answer is 104 ÷ 7 days.

The correct answer is National Unity Day.

Key Points

• National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Diwas) is celebrated on October 31st every year in India to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, also known as the "Iron Man of India."
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was instrumental in the integration of over 500 princely states into the Indian Union after independence in 1947, ensuring the unity of the nation.
• The day was first observed in 2014 as announced by the Government of India under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• On this day, various events such as the Run for Unity, pledge-taking ceremonies, and other activities are organized nationwide to promote the message of unity and national integrity.
• The Statue of Unity, the world's tallest statue located in Kevadia, Gujarat, was inaugurated on October 31, 2018, as a tribute to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Additional Information

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• He was born on 31st October 1875 in Nadiad, Gujarat.
• Patel played a crucial role in India's freedom struggle and was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress.
• He served as the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of Independent India.
• Patel is often referred to as the "Iron Man of India" for his strong leadership and decisive actions in uniting the princely states.
• Statue of Unity:
• The Statue of Unity was inaugurated on 31st October 2018 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• It stands at a height of 182 meters, making it the tallest statue in the world.
• The statue is located on the Narmada River in Kevadia, Gujarat, and symbolizes Sardar Patel's efforts in unifying India.
• Run for Unity:
• The Run for Unity is organized annually on National Unity Day to spread awareness about the importance of unity and harmony in the country.
• This event sees participation from individuals across different age groups, promoting the ideals of national integration.
• Other Observances on October 31:
• While National Unity Day is the primary observance on October 31, it is also remembered as the day of assassination of Indira Gandhi in 1984, the former Prime Minister of India.

Important Points

• Significance of National Unity Day:
• The day highlights the importance of national integration in a diverse country like India.
• It serves as a reminder of Sardar Patel's vision of a united India and his dedication to the cause of national unity.
• Role of Sardar Patel in Indian History:
• He was the main architect behind the unification of princely states post-independence.
• Patel's efforts ensured that India emerged as a strong and united nation, preventing the fragmentation of the country.

The correct answer is Sanjay Malhotra.

Key Points

• Sanjay Malhotra took over as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in December 2024, succeeding the previous Governor, Shaktikanta Das.
• He is a senior bureaucrat with extensive experience in the financial and administrative sectors, having served in various capacities in key government ministries.
• As the 25th Governor of RBI, Sanjay Malhotra is expected to focus on maintaining monetary stability, addressing inflation, and supporting economic growth in India.
• The appointment of Sanjay Malhotra aligns with the government’s vision of ensuring robust financial management and effective implementation of monetary policies.
• His tenure will also involve steering the Indian economy through global challenges, including economic slowdowns and geopolitical uncertainties.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• The Reserve Bank of India is India’s central banking institution, which controls the issuance and supply of the Indian rupee.
• It was established on 1 April 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• The RBI plays a crucial role in regulating the banking sector, managing the country's monetary policy, and ensuring financial stability.
• The headquarters of RBI is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Some of its major functions include issuing currency, managing foreign exchange reserves, and supervising banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).
• Role of the RBI Governor:
• The Governor of the RBI is the chief executive officer and the central authority for India's monetary policies.
• He/she is responsible for implementing policies to regulate inflation, liquidity, and economic growth.
• The Governor oversees critical functions such as setting the repo rate, managing forex reserves, and ensuring the smooth functioning of the financial markets.
• The Governor also represents India at international financial forums like the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and G20 meetings.
• Previous RBI Governors:
• Shaktikanta Das: Served from December 2018 to December 2024; played a pivotal role during the COVID-19 pandemic to ensure financial stability.
• Raghuram Rajan: Served from September 2013 to September 2016; known for his efforts to curb inflation and his proactive measures to stabilize the banking sector.
• Urjit Patel: Served from September 2016 to December 2018; focused on monetary policy reforms and inflation targeting.
• Challenges for the New Governor:
• Maintaining a balance between economic growth and inflation control.
• Addressing challenges like rising NPAs (Non-Performing Assets) in the banking sector.
• Ensuring financial inclusion and digital transformation in the banking system.
• Managing external pressures like global economic uncertainties and exchange rate fluctuations.

Important Points

• RBI Governors are appointed by the Government of India for a tenure of 3 years, which can be extended based on performance and requirements.
• The Governor works in coordination with the Deputy Governors, who assist in various functions like banking regulation, financial markets, and monetary policy implementation.
• The RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), headed by the Governor, meets periodically to decide on interest rates and other monetary measures.
• India’s financial stability heavily depends on the effective leadership of the RBI Governor, making this role one of the most critical in the country’s economic governance.

The correct answer is Sweden.

Key Points

• Anurag Bhushan has been appointed as India's next Ambassador to Sweden in May 2025.
• Sweden, a country in northern Europe, is known for its progressive policies, innovation, and strong diplomatic ties with India.
• India and Sweden share a bilateral relationship that focuses on areas such as trade, technology, sustainable development, and innovation.
• The appointment of Anurag Bhushan reflects India's efforts to strengthen its diplomatic presence and enhance collaboration with Sweden in strategic sectors.
• Sweden is an important partner for India in the areas of renewable energy, climate change, and innovation ecosystems.

Additional Information

• Sweden:
• Sweden is located in Northern Europe and is a part of the Scandinavian Peninsula.
• Its capital is Stockholm, and it is known for its high standard of living, innovation, and sustainable practices.
• Sweden has a strong economy driven by technology, automotive, and renewable energy sectors.
• India-Sweden Relations:
• India and Sweden have a long-standing diplomatic relationship, with Sweden being one of the first countries to recognize India’s independence in 1947.
• Both countries collaborate in areas like trade, technology, innovation, and climate action.
• Sweden is also a strong proponent of the India-European Union Free Trade Agreement (FTA).
• Past Diplomatic Representation:
• India has maintained a strong diplomatic presence in Sweden, with ambassadors facilitating bilateral trade and cultural exchange.
• Sweden has also been actively involved in promoting green energy and innovation partnerships with India.
• Relevant Facts About Sweden:
• Sweden ranks high on the Human Development Index and is known for its welfare policies.
• It is a member of the European Union and plays an active role in global diplomatic and environmental initiatives.
• Sweden is home to globally renowned companies like IKEA, Volvo, and Ericsson.

Important Points

• Bilateral Trade:
• India and Sweden have a robust trade relationship, with bilateral trade amounting to several billion USD annually.
• Sweden is also a significant investor in India, especially in sectors like manufacturing, pharmaceuticals, and technology.
• Technology and Innovation:
• Sweden is one of the most innovative countries globally and collaborates with India on smart cities, digitalization, and green technology.
• The India-Sweden Innovation Partnership aims to address global challenges through joint initiatives.
• Climate Action:
• Both countries are committed to the Paris Agreement and work together on renewable energy projects and carbon reduction strategies.
• Sweden has supported India’s International Solar Alliance (ISA) initiative.

The correct answer is 10 years.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2025-26 highlights the significant growth in the total number of students enrolled in 23 Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs).
• The number of students has increased 100%, growing from 65,000 to 1.35 lakh over a period of 10 years.
• This growth demonstrates the rapid expansion and infrastructure development of IITs, as well as the increased focus on higher education in India.
• The 10-year period indicates a consistent focus on capacity building in premier institutions between the years 2015 and 2025.
• The increase in student intake also reflects the government’s commitment to enhancing access to quality education in the field of science, engineering, and technology.

Additional Information

• Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs):
• IITs are autonomous public technical universities under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• As of 2025, there are 23 IITs spread across India, offering undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs in various engineering, technology, and scientific disciplines.
• They are globally recognized for their academic excellence and contribute significantly to research and innovation.
• Expansion of IITs:
• The government has introduced new IITs in locations such as Tirupati, Palakkad, Bhilai, Jammu, Dharwad, and others under the 11th and 12th Five-Year Plans.
• This expansion aims to improve access to quality education for students from diverse regions of India.
• Focus on Education in Union Budgets:
• Union Budgets in recent years have emphasized education reforms, including increased funding for higher education and research programs.
• Initiatives like National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and funding schemes for IITs reflect this focus.
• Important IIT Statistics:
• IITs collectively enroll students based on the Joint Entrance Examination (JEE Advanced) and are considered among the most competitive institutions globally.
• In 2025, the student-to-faculty ratio in IITs is being improved to ensure better academic support and mentorship.

Important Points

• Global Rankings: IITs are consistently ranked in global university rankings such as QS World University Rankings and Times Higher Education Rankings.
• Research and Development: IITs are at the forefront of technological innovation, contributing to fields like artificial intelligence, renewable energy, and biotechnology.
• Government Initiatives: Programs like HEFA (Higher Education Financing Agency) and Prime Minister’s Research Fellowship aim to strengthen IITs' research capabilities.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• The Waqf (Amendment) Bill 2025 aims to streamline the management of Waqf properties, ensuring their better utilization and preventing misuse.
• The bill seeks to bring transparency and accountability to the administration of Waqf boards, which are responsible for managing properties dedicated for religious or charitable purposes under Islamic law.
• Statement I, which suggests the complete abolition of Waqf boards, is incorrect. The bill does not propose eliminating Waqf boards but rather focuses on enhancing their functioning.
• Statement II, which emphasizes streamlining the management of Waqf properties, is correct, as the bill is designed to address inefficiencies and corruption within the current system.
• The correct option is Only II, as the primary objective of the amendment is improving the operational framework of Waqf boards without abolishing them.

Additional Information

• Waqf:
• A Waqf is an endowment made by a Muslim for charitable or religious purposes, including properties such as mosques, schools, or orphanages.
• Waqf properties are managed by Waqf boards, which are established under the Waqf Act.
• India has a significant number of Waqf properties, with an estimated 6 lakh registered properties.
• Waqf Act:
• The Waqf Act, 1995, governs the administration of Waqf properties in India. The act provides mechanisms for registration, monitoring, and utilization of Waqf properties.
• State Waqf boards are established under this act to oversee the management of Waqf properties at the state level.
• Issues with Waqf Management:
• There have been concerns over corruption, mismanagement, and encroachment of Waqf properties.
• Lack of transparency and accountability has hindered the effective use of Waqf properties for their intended purposes.
• Key Features of the Amendment Bill:
• The bill seeks to enhance transparency by mandating digital records of Waqf properties.
• It proposes stricter penalties for encroachment or misuse of Waqf properties.
• The amendment emphasizes improved oversight by state and central governments to ensure better governance.

Important Points

• Background:
• Waqf properties have historically played a crucial role in supporting education, healthcare, and community welfare.
• The government periodically amends the Waqf Act to address emerging challenges and improve management practices.
• Global Context:
• Similar systems of endowments, like trusts and foundations, exist in other countries to manage properties for charitable purposes.
• Countries such as Turkey and Saudi Arabia have well-developed frameworks for managing Waqf properties.
• Legal Framework in India:
• The Constitution of India provides provisions for protecting religious and charitable endowments under Article 26.
• Waqf boards are recognized as statutory bodies under the Waqf Act.
• Proposed Benefits:
• The amendment aims to ensure better utilization of Waqf properties for socio-economic development.
• It seeks to protect Waqf properties from encroachment and ensure their intended use for religious and charitable purposes.

The correct answer is Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.

Key Points

• SOAR (Skilling for AI Readiness) is a national-level initiative launched in July 2025 by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. This program aims to prepare the workforce for Artificial Intelligence (AI)-driven jobs.
• The initiative focuses on upskilling and reskilling individuals, ensuring they are equipped with the necessary AI-related technical and analytical skills.
• It aligns with the broader goals of India's Digital India mission, fostering innovation and technological growth through AI adoption.
• This program targets students, professionals, and young entrepreneurs, aiming to bridge the gap between industry demands and workforce preparedness.
• The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship has been instrumental in launching various programs to enhance the employability of India's youth, making SOAR a significant addition to its portfolio.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship:
• Established in 2014, this ministry focuses on creating a robust skill development framework, ensuring the economic empowerment of individuals.
• It is responsible for initiatives like Skill India Mission, Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY), and various other vocational training programs.
• The ministry emphasizes partnerships with industries and academia to provide job-oriented training.
• It has collaborated with organizations like National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) to implement large-scale skilling programs across the country.
• Artificial Intelligence (AI) in India:
• AI has emerged as a transformative technology, impacting sectors like healthcare, education, agriculture, and manufacturing.
• India aims to become a global leader in AI, leveraging initiatives like SOAR to build a skilled workforce.
• The government has also launched AI research and innovation programs, such as the National AI Portal, to foster growth in this domain.
• Skill India Mission:
• Launched in 2015, this mission aims to train over 40 crore individuals by 2022 to meet the demands of various industries.
• It includes programs like PMKVY, National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS), and Jan Shikshan Sansthan.
• Global AI Trends:
• Countries like USA, China, and Germany are leading in AI adoption, focusing on research, innovation, and commercialization.
• India is rapidly catching up, with government-backed initiatives and industry collaborations driving AI growth.

Important Points

• AI Readiness:
• AI readiness refers to the ability of individuals, organizations, and governments to adopt and integrate AI technologies effectively.
• SOAR addresses the skills gap, ensuring a workforce prepared for AI-based roles.
• Other Ministries in Context:
• Ministry of Electronics & IT: Focuses on digital transformation and promoting cybersecurity, but does not primarily handle skill development initiatives.
• Ministry of Education: Responsible for academic reforms and higher education, but not workforce skilling.
• Ministry of Science & Technology: Drives research and innovation, focusing on scientific advancements rather than direct skilling programs.
• National AI Portal:
• Launched by the Ministry of Electronics and IT in 2020, this portal is a repository of AI-related research, data, and resources.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• The Export Preparedness Index (EPI) is developed by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute of Competitiveness.
• The EPI aims to identify challenges and opportunities, enhance the effectiveness of government policies, and promote a facilitative regulatory framework for export growth in India.
• The first edition of the Export Preparedness Index was released in August 2020, and it aims to rank states and union territories based on their export performance and export ecosystem.
• The EPI evaluates states on four pillars: Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem, and Export Performance.
• Gujarat emerged as the top-performing state in the first edition of the EPI, followed by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.

Additional Information

• NITI Aayog:
• NITI Aayog stands for National Institution for Transforming India.
• It was established in 2015 as a policy think tank of the Government of India, replacing the Planning Commission.
• The organization provides strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments.
• NITI Aayog focuses on fostering cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the states.
• Export Preparedness Index (EPI) Pillars:
• Policy: Examines export-related policies at the state level to support exports.
• Business Ecosystem: Evaluates the ease of doing business in a state to promote exports.
• Export Ecosystem: Analyzes the export-related infrastructure and trade support available in a state.
• Export Performance: Measures the actual export performance of the states and union territories.
• Significance of EPI:
• Helps identify strengths and weaknesses of the export ecosystem at the state level.
• Encourages healthy competition among states and union territories to improve their export ecosystem.
• Provides a comprehensive framework to policymakers for boosting exports.
• Other Related Indices by NITI Aayog:
• India Innovation Index: Measures innovation performance of states and union territories.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index: Tracks the progress of states and UTs toward achieving SDGs.
• Health Index: Evaluates the performance of states in the health sector.

Important Points

• The Export Preparedness Index is India's first comprehensive tool for ranking states and union territories on their export performance and readiness.
• It encourages state-level initiatives to improve export competitiveness and provides actionable insights for policymakers.
• Gujarat, with its robust industrial base and export-oriented policies, has consistently performed well in the EPI rankings.
• The EPI also highlights the role of district-level export hubs in promoting local products and contributing to the national export strategy.

The correct answer is Fruit Bats.

Key Points

• The natural host of the Nipah Virus (NiV) is fruit bats of the family Pteropodidae, particularly those belonging to the genus Pteropus.
• Fruit bats are reservoir hosts, meaning the virus naturally exists in these bats without causing them any harm.
• The Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus, meaning it can spread from animals to humans, and outbreaks have been directly linked to interactions with infected bats or their secretions.
• Infected bats can shed the virus in their saliva, urine, and excreta, contaminating fruits or other objects that humans or other animals may come in contact with.
• Although other animals, such as pigs, can act as intermediate hosts, they are not the natural reservoirs of the virus.

Additional Information

• Nipah Virus (NiV):
• First identified in 1998 during an outbreak in Malaysia and Singapore.
• The name "Nipah" comes from Sungai Nipah, a village in Malaysia where cases were first detected.
• It is a member of the Henipavirus genus in the family Paramyxoviridae.
• NiV infection can cause a range of illnesses, from asymptomatic infection to acute respiratory illness and fatal encephalitis.
• Transmission:
• Humans can contract the virus through direct contact with infected bats, pigs, or other animals.
• Consumption of raw date palm sap contaminated by bat saliva or urine is a common mode of transmission in certain regions.
• Human-to-human transmission has also been documented, especially in healthcare settings.
• Geographical Distribution:
• Outbreaks have been reported in Southeast Asia, particularly in countries such as Bangladesh, India, Malaysia, and Singapore.
• Bangladesh has faced repeated outbreaks since 2001, often linked to the consumption of contaminated date palm sap.
• Symptoms:
• Initial symptoms include fever, headache, and respiratory issues.
• Severe cases may progress to encephalitis, causing confusion, seizures, and coma.
• The disease has a high fatality rate, ranging from 40% to 75%, depending on outbreak management and healthcare infrastructure.
• Prevention and Control:
• Avoiding contact with bats and contaminated fruits or sap is crucial for prevention.
• Strict infection control measures, including personal protective equipment (PPE), are necessary to prevent human-to-human transmission.
• Public health awareness campaigns are vital in high-risk areas to educate people about safe practices.

Important Points

• Other Hosts:
• Pigs: Pigs can act as intermediate hosts, and the 1998 Malaysian outbreak was linked to the transmission of NiV from infected pigs to humans.
• Humans: Humans are accidental hosts and can contract the virus through direct or indirect contact with infected animals or other humans.
• Global Concern:
• The World Health Organization (WHO) has included Nipah virus in its list of priority diseases for research and development.
• There is no specific treatment or vaccine for Nipah virus, making it a significant public health concern.
• Recent Outbreaks in India:
• In 2018, Kerala experienced a Nipah virus outbreak that claimed multiple lives.
• Since then, Kerala has implemented robust surveillance and response mechanisms to detect and control potential outbreaks.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• The Jhajjar-Bachauli Wildlife Sanctuary in Punjab is set to be developed as the state’s first leopard safari destination, aiming to boost tourism and wildlife conservation.
• This initiative is part of Punjab's efforts to promote eco-tourism while ensuring the protection of wildlife in their natural habitats.
• The sanctuary is located in the Rupnagar district of Punjab, and it is known for its diverse flora and fauna, including leopards and other wildlife species.
• The leopard safari will be designed to provide visitors with an opportunity to observe leopards in a secure and controlled environment, ensuring their safety and reducing human-wildlife conflicts.
• The project aligns with the state's broader goal of wildlife conservation, public awareness, and sustainable tourism development.

Additional Information

• Leopards in India:
• Leopards are widely distributed across India and are found in various states, including Punjab, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat.
• They are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which provides them maximum protection.
• The leopard population in India faces threats due to habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflicts.
• Eco-tourism in Punjab:
• Punjab has been actively promoting eco-tourism by leveraging its natural resources, including wetlands, wildlife sanctuaries, and forests.
• Popular eco-tourism destinations in Punjab include Harike Wetlands, Kanjli Wetland, and Bir Moti Bagh Wildlife Sanctuary.
• The state government focuses on balancing tourism development with the conservation of biodiversity.
• Wildlife Sanctuaries in Punjab:
• Punjab is home to several wildlife sanctuaries, including Jhajjar-Bachauli Wildlife Sanctuary, Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary, and Bir Bhunerheri Wildlife Sanctuary.
• These sanctuaries serve as critical habitats for various species, including leopards, blackbucks, and migratory birds.
• The state government regularly undertakes projects to enhance the facilities and conservation efforts in these sanctuaries.
• Government Initiatives for Wildlife Conservation:
• The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, is the key legislative framework for wildlife conservation in India.
• Projects like Project Tiger and Project Elephant have been instrumental in protecting endangered species.
• State governments, including Punjab, are increasingly focusing on community participation and awareness campaigns to mitigate human-wildlife conflicts.

Important Points

• Eco-tourism Benefits:
• Promotes sustainable tourism by minimizing environmental impact and conserving wildlife.
• Generates employment opportunities for local communities.
• Creates awareness about the importance of biodiversity and wildlife conservation.
• Human-Wildlife Conflict Mitigation:
• Measures include setting up protected areas, wildlife corridors, and community awareness programs.
• State governments often implement compensation schemes for damages caused by wildlife.
• Use of modern technology, such as camera traps and tracking devices, helps monitor wildlife movements.
• Wildlife Conservation Challenges:
• Challenges include poaching, deforestation, and climate change.
• Increasing urbanization often leads to habitat fragmentation and loss.
• Collaborative efforts between government, NGOs, and local communities are essential for effective conservation.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The Mishras of Bettiah Gharana are a prominent lineage of the Dhrupad singing tradition, which is one of the oldest and most profound forms of Indian classical music.
• The Bettiah Gharana is deeply rooted in the state of Bihar, specifically in the town of Bettiah, located in the West Champaran district.
• Dhrupad is a genre of Hindustani classical music with origins in ancient Indian temples. The Bettiah Gharana has played a significant role in preserving and promoting this art form.
• The Bettiah Gharana is unique for its focus on haveli sangeet, a devotional style of music performed in temples, and it has a rich heritage of compositions in various Indian languages.
• The Mishra family has contributed immensely to the propagation of this tradition, passing it down through generations and maintaining its authenticity and spiritual essence.

Additional Information

• Dhrupad Music:
• Dhrupad is considered one of the oldest and most prestigious forms of Hindustani classical music, with its origins tracing back to the Samaveda.
• It emphasizes rigorous discipline, the purity of notes, and spiritual devotion, making it a highly meditative and profound art form.
• The performance typically begins with an elaborate alap (an improvisational exploration of the raga) followed by a composition sung with rhythmic accompaniment.
• The themes of Dhrupad compositions often revolve around spirituality, nature, and devotion to deities.
• Bettiah Gharana:
• This gharana specializes in haveli sangeet, which is devotional music performed in temples.
• The compositions in Bettiah Gharana are often multilingual, incorporating Sanskrit, Hindi, Maithili, and Braj Bhasha.
• The Gharana has been instrumental in keeping alive the ancient traditions of Dhrupad music, which is now a UNESCO-recognized art form.
• Other Prominent Dhrupad Gharanas:
• Dagur Gharana: Known for its unique singing style with an emphasis on melody.
• Darbhanga Gharana: Another Bihar-based gharana famous for its vibrant and energetic Dhrupad renditions.
• Betul Gharana: Known for its contributions to the evolution of Dhrupad music over the centuries.
• Significance of Dhrupad:
• Dhrupad is often referred to as the “soul of Indian classical music” due to its spiritual and meditative essence.
• It is practiced with the accompaniment of instruments like the Rudra Veena, Pakhawaj, and Tanpura.
• The genre has been preserved through oral traditions and trained under the guru-shishya parampara (teacher-disciple tradition).
• Important Points:
• The Bettiah Gharana is one of the few surviving Dhrupad gharanas that uphold the tradition in its purest form, ensuring its legacy for future generations.
• The cultural and historical significance of the Bettiah Gharana extends beyond Bihar and is recognized globally for its contributions to Indian classical music.