SSC CHSL 2025 Tier-1 (Held On: 27 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is: Accessible.

Key Points

• The word "obtainable" means something that can be acquired or gained. (प्राप्त करने योग्य)
• Example: The information about the new policy is easily obtainable online.
• The word "accessible" refers to something that is easy to reach, enter, or use. It is often used to describe places, information, or resources that are available for use. (सुलभ)
• Example: The library is accessible to everyone in the community.
• In this context, the sentence talks about insecticides that are "not easily obtainable." The closest synonym to "obtainable" is "accessible," as it conveys the same meaning of availability or ease of access.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Accessible.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Acceptable (स्वीकार्य): Something that is satisfactory or suitable in a given situation.
• Example: The solution provided by the team was acceptable to the client.
• Probable (संभव): Something that is likely to happen or be true.
• Example: It is probable that it will rain tomorrow, so carry an umbrella.
• Interminable (अंतहीन): Something that seems endless or unending.
• Example: The meeting felt interminable as it dragged on for hours.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The main issue in the sentence lies in part 4, where the word "responsibility" is incorrect in this context.
• The correct word to use is "responsible", which is an adjective, as it is required to describe the subject.
• "Responsibility" is a noun and does not fit grammatically in the sentence structure.
• Thus, the error is found in part 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Recycling is now an essential measure and it is time for everyone in society to become more responsible."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Recycling is now an essential measure" – This part of the sentence is correct and does not contain any grammatical errors.
• Option 2: "and it is time for everyone" – This part of the sentence is also correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "in society to become" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct as well and does not need modification.
• Option 4: "more responsibility" – This part contains the error as explained above. The correct form should be "more responsible."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's analyze each option to identify the grammatically and contextually correct sentence:

• Option 1: He suggested me to take rest.
• This sentence is incorrect because "suggest" is not followed by "me" when expressing a suggestion. Instead, it is followed by "that + subject + base verb."
• Option 2: He suggested that I take rest.
• This sentence is grammatically correct because the verb "suggested" is correctly followed by "that + subject (I) + base verb (take)."
• Option 3: He suggested me that I take rest.
• This sentence is incorrect because "suggested" cannot take "me" as an indirect object in this context.
• Option 4: He suggested for me to take rest.
• This sentence is incorrect because "suggested" is not followed by "for me to" when giving a suggestion. The correct structure is "suggested that + subject + base verb."

Correct sentence: "He suggested that I take rest."

Additional Information

• The verb "suggest" is typically followed by:
• "that + subject + base verb" (e.g., He suggested that she study harder.)
• Or, directly by a gerund (e.g., He suggested taking a break.)
• Using "to + infinitive" or "me" with "suggest" is grammatically incorrect in this context.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'of'.

 

Key Points

• The word "accused" is typically followed by the preposition "of" to indicate the specific crime or wrongdoing someone is being charged with.
• The phrase "accused of" is a standard collocation in English grammar.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not fit the grammatical structure or meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "He was accused of misappropriating company funds."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "for" is incorrect because "accused for" is not a proper grammatical construction in English.
• Option 3: "with" is incorrect because "accused with" is not a standard collocation.
• Option 4: "about" is incorrect because it does not convey the specific charge or wrongdoing.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. conciliatory.

 

Key Points

• The word "conciliatory" means intended to pacify or reconcile, which aligns with the ambassador's tone of balancing diplomacy with quiet authority.
• Option 1, "belligerent," is incorrect as it means hostile or aggressive, which contradicts the tone described in the sentence.
• Option 3, "erratic," is incorrect because it means unpredictable or inconsistent, which does not align with the description of quiet authority.
• Option 4, "morose," is incorrect as it means sullen or gloomy, which also does not match the context of diplomacy and authority.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "The ambassador's tone was conciliatory, balancing diplomacy with quiet authority."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Belligerent" refers to aggression and conflict, which is unsuitable for describing diplomatic tone.
• Option 3: "Erratic" implies inconsistency, which does not fit the context of balancing diplomacy with authority.
• Option 4: "Morose" denotes gloominess, which is unrelated to the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The correctly spelt word is 'Adulteration'.

• Adulteration refers to the process of making something impure by adding inferior or harmful substances.
• The other options are incorrect because:
• Option 2: Addulturation - The spelling is incorrect due to the extra 'd'.
• Option 3: Adulltration - The spelling is incorrect due to the extra 'l'.
• Option 4: Adulterashion - The spelling is incorrect due to the substitution of 'tion' with 'shion'.
• Correct Usage: The government has strict laws to prevent the adulteration of food products.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Adulteration'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the concept of 'Adulteration' further:

• Definition: Adulteration is the act of adding inferior or harmful substances to a product to increase quantity or reduce production costs.
• Examples:
• Adding water to milk is a common form of adulteration.
• Detection of adulteration is vital to ensure food safety and public health.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The word 'Minuscule' is correctly spelled.
• Meaning: Extremely small or tiny.
• Example: The amount of error in the calculation was so minuscule that it was negligible.

Additional Information

• Option 2: Miniscule - Incorrect spelling. Commonly mistaken due to phonetic similarity.
• Option 3: Miniscuele - Incorrect spelling with an extra 'e'.
• Option 4: Minouscule - Incorrect spelling with an added 'o'.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. after a long time.

 

Key Points

• The sentence refers to meeting someone after a considerable gap of time, so the correct preposition to use is "after."
• The phrase "after a long time" correctly conveys the intended meaning of the sentence.
• Other options like "till" or "before" are incorrect as they do not fit the context of the sentence.
• Option 4 (No substitution) is incorrect because the original sentence is grammatically incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "We met at the restaurant after a long time."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "till a long time" is incorrect because "till" is used to indicate a point in time up to which something happens, and it does not fit the context here.
• Option 3: "before a long time" is incorrect because "before" does not convey the intended meaning in this context.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the given sentence needs improvement to be grammatically correct.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. 'Married to'.

 

Key Points

• The correct preposition to use with the word "married" is "to" when referring to the person someone is married to.
• The phrase "married with" is incorrect in this context, as it implies something different (e.g., "married with children").
• The other options ("married for" and "married by") are not appropriate in this sentence, as they do not convey the intended meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "He is married to a woman who works in the Navy."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Married for" is incorrect because "for" is not used to describe the person someone is married to.
• Option 3: "Married by" is incorrect; this phrase is used to describe who officiated the marriage, not the person someone is married to.
• Option 4: "No substitution" is incorrect because the original sentence uses the wrong preposition ("with").

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The farmer said that there was a well nearby their village which was filled with different kinds of snails.
• Key Conversions:
• "There is" becomes "there was"
• The reporting verb "said" is in the past tense, so the present tense "is" is converted to the past tense "was" in indirect speech.
• "nearby our village" becomes "nearby their village"
• The first-person possessive pronoun "our" is converted to the third-person possessive pronoun "their" to match the perspective in indirect speech.
• "is filled" becomes "was filled"
• Since the reporting verb is in the past tense, the present tense "is filled" is converted to the past tense "was filled" in indirect speech.
• Accuracy of Option 3:
• The sentence correctly reflects the tense, pronoun, and structure changes required in indirect narration.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "The farmer said that there was a well nearby their village which was filled with different kinds of snails."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The farmer said that there was a well nearby their village which had been filled with different kinds of snails."
• The phrase "had been filled" is incorrect as it implies a completed past action, which changes the intended meaning.
• Option 2: "The farmer said that there had been a well nearby their village which was filled with different kinds of snails."
• The use of "had been" incorrectly suggests the well no longer exists, altering the meaning.
• Option 4: "The farmer said that there was a well nearby your village which was filled with different kinds of snails."
• The possessive pronoun "your" is incorrect as it does not match the perspective of indirect speech.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the passive voice: "It was being said that the new policy would be a disaster."
• To change the sentence into the active voice, we need to identify the implied subject of the action. In this case, the implied subject is "people" or "someone."
• The structure of the active voice sentence should follow: [Subject] + [was/were saying] + [that clause].
• "People were saying that the new policy would be a disaster" is the correct active voice conversion because it keeps the meaning intact and follows proper grammatical structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "People were saying that the new policy would be a disaster."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The new policy would be a disaster." – This is not an active voice conversion but a standalone statement.
• Option 2: "The news said the new policy would be a disaster." – This changes the subject to "news," which is not implied in the original sentence.
• Option 4: "Someone has said that the new policy was a disaster." – Incorrect tense; it uses "has said," which is present perfect, and changes the meaning.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Indirect Speech: The child said that he was afraid of the dark and requested the lady to stay with him.
• Key Conversions:
• "he was afraid of the dark" becomes "I am afraid of the dark":
• The pronoun "he" changes to "I" because the child is speaking in direct speech.
• The verb "was" is changed to "am" to reflect the present tense in direct speech.
• "requested the lady to stay with him" becomes "Please stay with me":
• The polite request in indirect speech is transformed into a direct request using "Please."
• The pronoun "him" is replaced with "me" to align with the speaker's point of view in direct speech.
• Punctuation and Format:
• Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks.
• The first letter of the sentence starts with a capital letter, and the sentence ends with a period or appropriate punctuation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "The child said, "I am afraid of the dark. Please stay with me.""

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "I was afraid of the dark. Kindly stay with me."
• Incorrect tense: "was" implies past tense, which does not align with the context of the child's current fear.
• "Kindly" is less commonly used in such contexts compared to "Please."
• Option 3: "I am afraid of the dark. Will you stay with me?"
• Incorrect request format: "Will you stay with me?" changes the polite request into a question, altering the intended tone.
• Option 4: "I was afraid of the dark. Stay with me."
• Incorrect tense: "was" implies past tense, which does not match the current context of fear.
• The tone of "Stay with me" is more commanding than a polite request.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'concreet'.

• The correct spelling is 'concrete'.
• The word 'concrete' is an adjective or noun and means something real or tangible, or a type of building material. (ठोस/कंक्रीट)
• For Example -
• Adjective: She provided concrete evidence to support her claim.
• Noun: The sidewalk was made of concrete.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'concreet'.

Additional Information

Let's review the other sentences:

• Option 1: "The architect suggested using concrete for the foundation to ensure durability." (Correct spelling and usage.)
• Option 3: "She needed more concrete examples to support her argument." (Correct spelling and usage.)
• Option 4: "The committee asked for a concrete plan before approving the project." (Correct spelling and usage.)

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the given active voice sentence: "The diligent team of researchers, who had been analyzing the data for months, finally published their findings."
• The object "their findings" becomes the subject in the passive voice sentence.
• The correct verb transformation: "published" (past tense) becomes "were published" in the passive voice.
• The rest of the sentence structure remains unchanged, preserving the original meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: "Their findings were finally published by the diligent team of researchers, who had been analyzing the data for months."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Their findings had been finally published by the diligent team of researchers, who had been analyzing the data for months." – Incorrect because "had been published" indicates past perfect tense, which does not align with the original sentence's timeframe.
• Option 3: "Their findings have been finally published by the diligent team of researchers, who had been analyzing the data for months." – Incorrect because "have been published" (present perfect) does not match the original past tense context.
• Option 4: "The diligent team of researchers was finally published by their findings." – Incorrect because it reverses the subject-object relationship, leading to a nonsensical sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Simple sentence
• A simple sentence contains only one independent clause. An independent clause has a subject and a verb and expresses a complete thought.
• In the given sentence, the subject is "Each region" and the verb is "contributes." Even though the sentence is long and contains lists and phrases, it only has one main subject-verb pair forming a single independent clause.
• Option 2: Compound sentence
• This is incorrect. A compound sentence must have at least two independent clauses joined by a coordinating conjunction (like and, but, or) or a semicolon. There is no second independent clause here.
• Option 3: Complex sentence
• This is incorrect. A complex sentence requires one independent clause and at least one dependent (subordinate) clause. The phrase starting with "reflecting" is a participle phrase, not a clause, because it does not have its own subject and finite verb.
• Option 4: Compound-complex sentence
• This is incorrect. This type requires at least two independent clauses and one or more dependent clauses. This sentence meets neither requirement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Clause vs. Phrase: It is easy to confuse long phrases with clauses. A clause must have a finite verb (a verb that shows tense). "Reflecting" is a present participle (non-finite), so it forms a phrase that modifies the noun "style," not a new clause.
• The Role of Colons: The colon in this sentence is used to introduce a list of examples. It does not separate two different clauses, so it doesn't change the sentence type.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• Option 3: Present Simple - because it states a general fact
• The Present Simple tense is the standard choice for expressing general truths, scientific facts, and scheduled or recurring events.
• The phrase "every year" is a frequency marker that signals a habitual or fixed schedule, making the Present Simple appropriate. Even though "observed" is a past participle here, it functions within a reduced relative clause (e.g., "which is observed"), which is inherently in the Present Simple.
• Option 1: Past Continuous
• This is incorrect. Past Continuous (e.g., "was observing") describes an action that was ongoing at a specific time in the past. It does not fit a recurring yearly event.
• Option 2: Present Perfect
• This is incorrect. Present Perfect (e.g., "has observed") links the past to the present or describes a recently completed action. It is not used for fixed annual calendar dates.
• Option 4: Future Simple
• This is incorrect. While the event will happen again in the future, we use the Present Simple to talk about fixed timetables and recurring celebrations (e.g., "Christmas is on December 25^th").

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Main Verb Context: In the original passage, the main verb of this sentence is "commemorates," which is also in the Present Simple tense to show a timeless relationship between the date and the historical movement.
• Reduced Relative Clauses: In formal writing, "World Handloom Day, observed..." is a shorter way of saying "World Handloom Day, which is observed..." The verb "to be" is omitted, but the underlying tense remains Present Simple.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• Option 3: Stability and health of the environment
• The term "ecological" pertains to ecology, which is the study of how living organisms interact with their environment. "Balance" refers to a state of equilibrium or stability.
• In the context of the passage, handlooms are linked to "sustainable fashion" and "eco-friendly choices," suggesting that they do not harm the natural world and help maintain environmental health.
• Option 1: Equal distribution of fabric
• This is incorrect. While "distribution" involves "balance" in a literal sense, it has nothing to do with the "eco" (environmental) prefix.
• Option 2: Balance between different cultures
• This is incorrect. Although the passage mentions "cultural identity," ecological balance specifically refers to nature and biological systems, not social or cultural ones.
• Option 4: Government trade regulations
• This is incorrect. Trade regulations are part of a political or economic framework, whereas ecological balance is a biological and environmental concept.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Sustainable Fashion: This refers to clothing that is designed, manufactured, and consumed in ways that are environmentally friendly and socially responsible. Handlooms fit this category because they often use natural fibers and involve manual labor rather than high-emission machinery.
• Ecological Balance in Practice: In the textile industry, this involves using biodegradable materials, reducing water waste, and avoiding toxic dyes that disrupt local ecosystems.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Kill two birds with one stone.

Key Points

• The idiom "kill two birds with one stone" means:
• To achieve two different objectives or solve two problems with a single action. (एक पंथ दो काज)
• Example: By exercising, you can improve your health and reduce stress, killing two birds with one stone.
• "Correct answer" means:
• Referring to the specific answer that properly defines or fits the context of the question. (सही उत्तर)
• Example: The correct answer to the quiz question assured him a perfect score.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Kill two birds with one stone.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Burn the midnight oil (रात देर तक काम करना): To work late into the night.
• Example: He burned the midnight oil to finish the project on time.
• Add fuel to the fire (आग में घी डालना): To make a bad situation worse.
• Example: His rude comments only added fuel to the fire and made the argument worse.
• Let the cat out of the bag (राज़ खोल देना): To reveal a secret or a surprise by accident.
• Example: She let the cat out of the bag about the surprise party.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Key Points

• Option 3: To highlight the value of handlooms and support traditional artisans
• The passage explicitly states that World Handloom Day "highlights the importance of India's handloom industry" and its representation of craftsmanship and cultural identity.
• It further explains that the day serves to "empower artisans" and reminds the public that supporting these products preserves tradition and supports local economies.
• Option 1: To promote the export of machine-made textiles
• This is incorrect. The passage mentions that the rise of machine-made fabrics is actually a "significant challenge" for traditional weavers.
• Option 2: To encourage people to wear Western clothing
• This is incorrect. The text promotes handloom garments as a "natural alternative to fast fashion" and emphasizes their role in "sustainable fashion."
• Option 4: To replace traditional weaving with modern technology
• This is incorrect. The passage focuses on "preserving a centuries-old tradition" and mentions government efforts to "revive interest" in hand-woven products, not replace them.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• Historical Context: The date, August 7^th, is significant because it commemorates the Swadeshi Movement launched in 1905, which was a major step toward Indian self-reliance.
• Social Impact: The industry is a major source of employment, supporting over 43 lakh weavers, particularly women in rural areas.
• Environmental Impact: Handlooms are presented as an eco-friendly choice that supports ecological balance compared to the industrial "fast fashion" model.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes the process of repainting a vehicle and its final outcome.
• Sentence P is the first sentence as it begins the process of repainting the automobile:
• "He removed all old paint and flaws from the whole automobile body by sanding it."
• Sentence R follows as it describes the next step in the process, masking the windows and trim:
• "He shielded the windows and trim from overspray by carefully masking them off."
• Sentence Q is the third sentence as it explains the application of fresh paint:
• "He watched the fresh paint dry to a smooth finish after applying multiple thin, even coats."
• Sentence S concludes the paragraph by describing the final outcome:
• "The vehicle had a perfect colour, appeared brand new, and was prepared for driving."
• The correct sequence is P, R, Q, S.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"He removed all old paint and flaws from the whole automobile body by sanding it. He shielded the windows and trim from overspray by carefully masking them off. He watched the fresh paint dry to a smooth finish after applying multiple thin, even coats. The vehicle had a perfect colour, appeared brand new, and was prepared for driving."

The correct answer is: Wordy.

Key Points

• The word "Laconic" means using very few words; concise or brief in speech or writing. (संक्षिप्त)
• Example: His laconic reply made it clear that he didn’t want to discuss the matter further.
• The word "Wordy" refers to someone or something that uses too many words; verbose or long-winded. (शब्दाडंबरपूर्ण)
• Example: The essay was too wordy and could have been more concise.
• Since "Laconic" means concise, its antonym would be "Wordy," which means verbose or overly detailed.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Wordy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Elliptical (संक्षिप्त): Refers to speech or writing that is deliberately obscure or concise by omitting words.
• Example: His elliptical style of speaking often left others confused.
• Compendious (संक्षिप्त): Refers to something that is concise but comprehensive.
• Example: The book provides a compendious overview of world history.
• Clipped (कटे-छंटे): Refers to speech that is short, often abrupt in tone.
• Example: Her clipped responses indicated that she was annoyed.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Gruesome.

Key Points

• The word "ghastly" means something that is extremely unpleasant, horrible, or shocking. It can also refer to something causing great fear or horror. (डरावना)
• Example: The ghastly accident left everyone in shock.
• "Gruesome" is the closest in meaning to "ghastly." It refers to something that causes horror or disgust, often due to its graphic or violent nature. (भयानक)
• Example: The movie depicted a gruesome murder scene that was hard to watch.
• Both words are used to describe situations, events, or visuals that are horrifying or deeply unpleasant.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Gruesome.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Simple (सरल): Something that is easy to understand or not complicated.
• Example: The instructions were so simple that even a child could follow them.
• Light (हल्का): Something that is not heavy or is easy to carry; can also mean not serious in tone or mood.
• Example: The bag was light enough for her to carry without any help.
• Boring (उबाऊ): Something that is dull, uninteresting, or causes a lack of excitement.
• Example: The lecture was so boring that half the students fell asleep.

The correct answer is: 1 i.e. To improve the hardness and elasticity of things.

Key Points

• The word "condition" has multiple meanings depending on the context in which it is used.
• One of its meanings refers to "to improve the hardness and elasticity of things". However, this specific meaning is not commonly associated with the primary interpretations of the word "condition" in general language usage. (चीजों की कठोरता और लोच में सुधार करना)
• Example: The metal was conditioned to withstand extreme temperatures.
• Another common meaning of "condition" is "a requirement that must be met for something to happen." (शर्त)
• Example: The loan will be approved under the condition that you provide collateral.
• Hence, the meaning "To improve the hardness and elasticity of things" is not one of the primary meanings associated with the word "condition."

Therefore, the correct answer is: 1 i.e. To improve the hardness and elasticity of things.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• 2. The physical state of something or someone (स्थिति): Refers to the current state or condition of a person or object.
• Example: The car is in excellent condition after the repairs.
• 3. To train someone to behave in a certain way (शिक्षित करना): Refers to teaching or training someone to act in a particular manner.
• Example: Soldiers are conditioned to follow orders without hesitation.
• 4. A requirement that must be met for something to happen (शर्त): Indicates a stipulation or prerequisite for an event or action.
• Example: One condition for joining the club is paying the membership fee.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Cortege.

Key Points

• The word "Cortege" refers to a solemn procession, especially for a funeral. (अंतिम यात्रा)
• Example: The cortege made its way slowly through the streets as mourners paid their respects.
• This term is specifically used to describe a ceremonial procession, particularly one associated with a funeral.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Cortege.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Parade (परेड): A public procession, typically celebrating a special day or event.
• Example: The Independence Day parade showcased the country’s cultural diversity.
• Carousal (महोत्सव/धूमधाम): A noisy or lively drinking party or revelry.
• Example: The students organized a carousal after their final exams were over.
• Carnival (मेला/उत्सव): A period of public revelry, entertainment, and festivities, often involving parades and costumes.
• Example: The Rio Carnival is famous for its vibrant parades and samba music.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Anarchist.

Key Points

• The word "Anarchist" refers to a person who opposes all forms of authority, control, or traditional societal norms and advocates for the absence of government or hierarchical systems. (अराजकतावादी)
• Example: The anarchist refused to follow the rules set by the government and advocated for self-governance.
• In the given sentence, Ravi is described as someone who vehemently opposes authority, control, or tradition. This aligns with the definition of an anarchist.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Anarchist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Conformist (अनुरूपतावादी): A person who conforms to accepted behavior, practices, or established norms.
• Example: He is a conformist who always follows the rules without questioning them.
• Optimist (आशावादी): A person who tends to look on the bright side of things and expects positive outcomes.
• Example: As an optimist, she believes that every challenge is an opportunity to grow.
• Traditionalist (परंपरावादी): A person who upholds or adheres strictly to traditional ideas, values, or customs.
• Example: The traditionalist prefers old customs and rituals over modern practices.

By, decoding the given symbols we get.

Given:

6 ^ 8 ^ 7 ! 5 = ?

Substituting the given operator in the given expression:

⇒ 6 ^ 8 ^ 7 ! 5

⇒ 6 - 8 - (7 ÷ 5)

⇒ 6 - 8 - 7/5

⇒ -17/5

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Total number of soldiers in the parade = 48

Position of Soldier M from the front = 23^rd

Position of Soldier N from the back = 13^th

To find the number of soldiers between M and N:

Soldiers between M and N = Total - (Position of M from front + Position of N from back)

= 48 - (23 + 13)

= 48 - 36

= 12.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Total number of lamps in the rangoli = 12

Position of the green lamp from the left = 4^th

To find the number of lamps to its right:

Number of lamps to the right = Total lamps - Position from the left

= 12 - 4

= 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is -420**.**

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is -8013**.**

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic followed for the second image is:

Symbols decoded: '!' denotes '÷' and '*' denotes '-'

Equation 1: 420 ! 21 * 201

→ (420 ÷ 21) - 201

→ 20 - 201 = -181

Equation 2: 728 ! 26 * 905

→ (728 ÷ 26) - 905

→ 28 - 905 = -877

Similarly, for 56 ! 2 * 367:

→ (56 ÷ 2) - 367

⇒ 28 - 367 = -339

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct mirror image is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The paper will appear when opened.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The paper will appear when opened.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Five persons A, B, C, D, and E belong to different cities and have different favorite colors.

1. A lives in Chennai and likes Blue.

2. B lives in Mumbai and D lives in Jaipur.

3. E likes Black. Since E cannot live in Jaipur (already taken by D) and his city isn't Delhi (as Delhi likes Red), E must live in Lucknow (the only remaining city besides Delhi).

4. Now, only one city is left: Delhi. Since A, B, D, and E have assigned cities, C must live in Delhi.

5. The clue states: "Delhi person likes Red". Therefore, C likes Red.

 

Based on the final arrangement, C lives in Delhi and likes Red.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 126**.**

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

In a row: (Product of first three numbers) × 2 = Fourth number

Row 2: (1 × 7 × 3)  → 21 × 2 = 42

Row 3: (3 × 8 × 2) → 48 × 2 = 96

Similarly,

Row 1: (6 × 5 × ?) × 2 → (30 × ?) × 2 = 180

⇒ 60 × ? = 180

⇒ ? = 180 ÷ 60

⇒ ? = 3

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The total number of triangles in the figure is:

So, the total number of triangles in the figure is 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The total number of triangles in the figure is:

So, the total number of triangles in the figure is 12.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

To find how many "colour" are "pink", we look for the intersection of the Circle (colour) and the Triangle (pink).

Area inside both the Circle and Triangle contains the numbers: 5 and 18.

Total = 5 + 18 = 23

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: Thickness of five tyres R, S, T, U, and W is compared.

1) R is thicker than T but not than W.

W > R > T

2) S is thicker than U and U is thicker than W.

S > U > W.

By merging the two sequences

S > U > W > R > T

Analyzing the thickness:

It is given that the thickness of tyre R = 50.

From our sequence,

Thickness of T < 50.

5) Evaluating the options:

1. 52 (Greater than 50)

2. 55 (Greater than 50)

3. 49 (Less than 50)

4. 56 (Greater than 50)

The only possible value for the thickness of T that is less than 50 is 49.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: Length of six rectangles A, B, C, D, E, and F is compared.

1) Length of A is the second longest.

__ > A > __ > __ > __ > __

2) Length of F is more than C and B but less than D and E.

(D, E) > F > (C, B).

3) Length of E is not the maximum.

D > A > E > F > (B or C) > (C or B)

The rectangles longer than F are D, A, and E.

There are 3 rectangles longer than F.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

1. D is immediate right of H. G is second to the right of H. So D and G are placed clockwise from H.

                     H D G
   

2. B is second to the left of H. C is the immediate neighbour of both H and B. So C sits between H and B (counter-clockwise). B at top-left, C at left.

           H D G C B
   

3. A is third to the left of B. So A at bottom-right. F is fourth to the left of D. So F at bottom-left. E fills the remaining seat at bottom.

            H D G A E F B C
   

So, the immediate neighbours of F are B and E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The given numbers to be interchanged: 7 and 6

The original equation: 4 × 7 + 6 − 9 ÷ 3 = ?

After interchanging the numbers 7 and 6, the new equation is:

4 × 6 + 7 − 9 ÷ 3 = ?

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

4 × 6 + 7 − 9 ÷ 3

⇒ 4 × 6 + 7 − 3

⇒ 24 + 7 − 3 = 28

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

BODMAS Rule:

The given equation is:

64 * 16 * 34 * 8 * 3 = 14

Now, let's check each option by applying the proposed signs sequentially and following BODMAS step-by-step:

1) Signs with ×, -, +, ÷

New Equation: 64 × 16 - 34 + 8 ÷ 3 = ?

⇒ 64 × 16 - 34 + (8 ÷ 3)

⇒ (64 × 16) - 34 + 2.66...

⇒ (1024 + 2.66...) - 34

⇒ 1026.66... - 34

⇒ 992.66... ≠ 14 (Incorrect)

2) Signs with ÷, +, -, ×

New Equation: 64 ÷ 16 + 34 - 8 × 3 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS/PEMDAS:

⇒ (64 ÷ 16) + 34 - 8 × 3

⇒ 4 + 34 - (8 × 3)

⇒ (4 + 34) - 24

⇒ 38 - 24

⇒ 14

14 = 14 (Correct)

3) Signs with ÷, +, ×, -

New Equation: 64 ÷ 16 + 34 × 8 - 3 = ?

⇒ (64 ÷ 16) + 34 × 8 - 3

⇒ 4 + (34 × 8) - 3

⇒ (4 + 272) - 3

⇒ 276 - 3

⇒ 273 ≠ 14 (Incorrect)

4) Signs with ÷, -, ×, +

New Equation: 64 ÷ 16 - 34 × 8 + 3 = ?

⇒ (64 ÷ 16) - 34 × 8 + 3

⇒ 4 - (34 × 8) + 3

⇒ (4 + 3) - 272

⇒ 7 - 272

⇒ -265 ≠ 14 (Incorrect)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here involves two parts: a vertical shift in the letter positions and a mathematical operation on the whole numbers.

For Option 1) XR432 - ZU216:

For Option 2) FN504 - HQ252:

For Option 3) TC386 - VF193:

For Option 4) BM290 - DP155:

Thus, the letter-number pair that DOES NOT belong to that group is BM290 - DP155.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'UPEND' is coded as 'AJBLR'

'AUDIT' is coded as 'QEAQX'

Similarly, for AIMED:

So, 'AIMED' is coded as 'AAJEX'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For, 'BUSBOY' is coded as 'YKYNQT'

'COMBAT' is coded as 'ZWYHKO'

Similarly, for ZENANA:

So, 'ZENANA' is coded as 'WJXIAV'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is WL230.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is ET64.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

Expression = (a² − b²)² − (2ab)²

Formula Used:

(x − y)² = x² − 2xy + y²

(a² − b²)² = a⁴ − 2a²b² + b⁴

(2ab)² = 4a²b²

Calculation:

⇒ (a² − b²)² = a⁴ − 2a²b² + b⁴

⇒ Subtract (2ab)²

⇒ = a⁴ − 2a²b² + b⁴ − 4a²b²

⇒ = a⁴ − 6a²b² + b⁴

∴ The correct answer is a⁴ − 6a²b² + b⁴.

Given:

√18, 2√5, and √40

Formula Used:

√a = a^0.5

2√a = 2 × a^0.5

Calculation:

⇒ √18 = 18^0.5 = 4.24

⇒ 2√5 = 2 × 5^0.5 = 2 × 2.24 = 4.48

⇒ √40 = 40^0.5 = 6.32

∴ The correct answer is √40.

Given:

Income ratio (A : B) = 7 : 5

Expenditure ratio (A : B) = 3 : 2

Savings of each = 4000

Formula Used:

Income − Expenditure = Savings

Calculation:

⇒ Let incomes = 7x and 5x

⇒ Let expenditures = 3y and 2y

⇒ For A: 7x − 3y = 4000

⇒ For B: 5x − 2y = 4000

⇒ Multiply second equation by 3

⇒ 15x − 6y = 12000

⇒ Multiply first equation by 2

⇒ 14x − 6y = 8000

⇒ Subtract

⇒ x = 4000

⇒ A's income = 7x

⇒ A's income = 7 × 4000 = 28000

∴ The correct answer is 28000.

Given:

Total amount = Rs. 300

Amount in question = Rs. 45

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Part ÷ Whole) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage = (45 ÷ 300) × 100

⇒ Percentage = 0.15 × 100

⇒ Percentage = 15%

∴ The correct answer is 15%.

Given:

Cost price weight = 1 kg

False weight used = 950 g

Formula Used:

Profit percentage = [(True weight − False weight) ÷ False weight] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Profit percentage = [(1000 − 950) ÷ 950] × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = [50 ÷ 950] × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = 0.0526 × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = 5.26%

∴ The correct answer is 5.26%.

Given:

Time = 2 hours

Reduced time = 1.5 hours

Increase in speed = 5 km/h

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

⇒ Let original speed = x

⇒ Distance = x × 2 = 2x

⇒ New speed = x + 5

⇒ Distance = (x + 5) × 1.5

⇒ 2x = 1.5(x + 5)

⇒ 2x = 1.5x + 7.5

⇒ 2x − 1.5x = 7.5

⇒ 0.5x = 7.5

⇒ x = 7.5 ÷ 0.5

⇒ x = 15

∴ The correct answer is 15 km/h.

Given:

Total distance = 528 km

Time = 4 hours

Speed ratio (A : B) = 1.2 : 1

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Total speed = Sum of individual speeds

Calculation:

⇒ Let speed of slower train (B) = x

⇒ Speed of faster train (A) = 1.2x

⇒ Total speed = x + 1.2x = 2.2x

⇒ Distance = Total speed × Time

⇒ 528 = 2.2x × 4

⇒ 528 = 8.8x

⇒ x = 528 ÷ 8.8

⇒ x = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60 km/h.

Given:

Principal = 6250

Amount = 7290

Time = 2 years

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + Rate ÷ 100)^Time

Calculation:

⇒ 7290 = 6250 × (1 + Rate ÷ 100)²

⇒ (1 + Rate ÷ 100)² = 7290 ÷ 6250

⇒ (1 + Rate ÷ 100)² = 1.1664

⇒ 1 + Rate ÷ 100 = √1.1664

⇒ 1 + Rate ÷ 100 = 1.08

⇒ Rate ÷ 100 = 0.08

⇒ Rate = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Given:

(A + B) time = 20 days

Working together = 8 days

Remaining work done by C in 4 days

Formula Used:

Work rate = 1 ÷ Time

Total work = Sum of individual works

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 20 and 4 = 20

⇒ Rate (A + B) = 1 ÷ 20

⇒ Work done in 8 days = 8 ÷ 20

⇒ Remaining work = 20 ÷ 20 − 8 ÷ 20 = 12 ÷ 20

⇒ C completes 12 ÷ 20 work in 4 days

⇒ Rate of C = (12 ÷ 20) ÷ 4

⇒ Rate of C = 12 ÷ 80 = 3 ÷ 20

⇒ Time of C = 20 ÷ 3

⇒ Time of C ≈ 6.67 days

∴ The correct answer is 6.67 days.

Given:

Amount = 8800

Rate = 10%

Time = 2 years

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + (Rate × Time) ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ 8800 = Principal × (1 + (10 × 2) ÷ 100)

⇒ 8800 = Principal × (1 + 20 ÷ 100)

⇒ 8800 = Principal × 1.2

⇒ Principal = 8800 ÷ 1.2

⇒ Principal = 7333.33

∴ The correct answer is 7333.33.

Given:

Area = 84

Parallel sides = 10 and 14

Formula Used:

Area of trapezium = (1 ÷ 2) × (sum of parallel sides) × height

Calculation:

⇒ 84 = (1 ÷ 2) × (10 + 14) × height

⇒ 84 = (1 ÷ 2) × 24 × height

⇒ 84 = 12 × height

⇒ height = 84 ÷ 12

⇒ height = 7

∴ The correct answer is 7 cm.

Given:

Length = 3 m

Breadth = 2 m

Height = 1.5 m

Rate = 15 per m²

Formula Used:

Surface area of cuboid = 2 × (lb + bh + hl)

Cost = Surface area × rate

Calculation:

⇒ Surface area = 2 × (3 × 2 + 2 × 1.5 + 1.5 × 3)

⇒ Surface area = 2 × (6 + 3 + 4.5)

⇒ Surface area = 2 × 13.5

⇒ Surface area = 27

⇒ Cost = 27 × 15

⇒ Cost = 405

∴ The correct answer is 405.

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle = 12 cm

Height of pyramid = 10 cm

Formula Used:

Area of equilateral triangle = (√3 ÷ 4) × side²

Volume of pyramid = (1 ÷ 3) × base area × height

Calculation:

⇒ Base area = (√3 ÷ 4) × 12²

⇒ Base area = (√3 ÷ 4) × 144

⇒ Base area = 36√3

⇒ Volume = (1 ÷ 3) × 36√3 × 10

⇒ Volume = 12 × 10 × √3

⇒ Volume = 120√3 = 207.8 cm3

∴ The correct answer is 207.8 cm3.

Given:

AB = 18

Right angle at B

AC = 2 × BD

∠A = ∠C

Formula Used:

In right triangle with ∠A = ∠C ⇒ AB = BC

AC = √(AB² + BC²)

Altitude to hypotenuse BD = (AB × BC) ÷ AC

Calculation:

⇒ AB = BC = 18

⇒ AC = √(18² + 18²)

⇒ AC = √(324 + 324) = √648

⇒ AC = 18√2

⇒ BD = (18 × 18) ÷ (18√2)

⇒ BD = 324 ÷ (18√2)

⇒ BD = 18 ÷ √2 = 9√2

⇒ AC² = (18√2)² = 648

⇒ BD² = (9√2)² = 162

⇒ AC² − BD² = 648 − 162

⇒ AC² − BD² = 486

∴ The correct answer is 486.

Given:

The point equidistant from all triangle sides is called:

Formula Used:

The incenter of a triangle is the point of intersection of its angle bisectors.

It is equidistant from all sides of the triangle.

Calculation:

⇒ The angle bisectors of the triangle meet at a single point, the incenter.

⇒ This point is equidistant from the sides of the triangle.

∴ The correct answer is Incenter.

Given:

Volume of cone = 0.8 × volume of cylinder

Radius of cone = 36 cm

Height of cylinder = 1.5 × height of cone

Formula Used:

Volume of cone = (1 ÷ 3) × π × r² × h

Volume of cylinder = π × R² × H

Calculation:

⇒ (1 ÷ 3) × π × 36² × h = 0.8 × π × R² × (1.5h)

⇒ (1 ÷ 3) × 1296 × h = 0.8 × 1.5 × R² × h

⇒ 432h = 1.2 × R² × h

⇒ 432 = 1.2 × R²

⇒ R² = 432 ÷ 1.2

⇒ R² = 360

⇒ R = √360

⇒ R = 6√10

∴ The correct answer is 6√10 cm.

Given:

Distance between centers < |r₁ − r₂|

Formula Used:

If one circle lies completely inside another without touching, number of common tangents = 0

Calculation:

⇒ Distance < difference of radii

⇒ Smaller circle lies completely inside larger circle

⇒ No common tangents exist

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Given:

Expression = tan x ÷ sec x

Formula Used:

tan x = sin x ÷ cos x

sec x = 1 ÷ cos x

Calculation:

⇒ tan x ÷ sec x = (sin x ÷ cos x) ÷ (1 ÷ cos x)

⇒ = (sin x ÷ cos x) × (cos x ÷ 1)

⇒ = sin x

∴ The correct answer is sin x.

Given:

Investment ratio (A : B) = 3 : 1

Charity = 5%

A's share = 855

Formula Used:

Profit after charity = Total profit × (95 ÷ 100)

Share of A = (3 ÷ 4) × remaining profit

Calculation:

⇒ Let total profit = x

⇒ Remaining profit = 0.95x

⇒ A's share = (3 ÷ 4) × 0.95x

⇒ (3 ÷ 4) × 0.95x = 855

⇒ 0.7125x = 855

⇒ x = 855 ÷ 0.7125

⇒ x = 1200

∴ The correct answer is 1200.

Given:

Initial price = ₹1,200

First discount = 10%

Second discount = 20%

Formula Used:

Price after discount = Initial price × (1 - Discount Rate)

Calculation:

⇒ Price after first discount = ₹1,200 × (1 - 10/100)

⇒ Price after first discount = ₹1,200 × 0.9

⇒ Price after first discount = ₹1,080

⇒ Price after second discount = ₹1,080 × (1 - 20/100)

⇒ Price after second discount = ₹1,080 × 0.8

⇒ Price after second discount = ₹864

∴ The correct answer is ₹864.

Given:

Price ratio of adult ticket to child ticket = 5 : 3

Price of adult ticket = 250

Formula Used:

Price of child ticket = (Price of adult ticket × Child ticket ratio) ÷ Adult ticket ratio

Calculation:

⇒ Price of child ticket = (250 × 3) ÷ 5

⇒ Price of child ticket = 750 ÷ 5

⇒ Price of child ticket = 150

∴ The correct answer is 150.

Given:

Runs in 1^st match = 45

Runs in 2^nd match = 60

Runs in 3^rd match = 55

Runs in 4^th match = 40

Desired average after 5 matches = 55

Total matches = 5

Formula Used:

Average = Total runs ÷ Number of matches

Total runs required = Desired average × Total matches

Calculation:

⇒ Total runs required = 55 × 5

⇒ Total runs required = 275

⇒ Runs scored in 4 matches = 45 + 60 + 55 + 40

⇒ Runs scored in 4 matches = 200

⇒ Runs needed in 5^th match = Total runs required − Runs scored in 4 matches

⇒ Runs needed in 5^th match = 275 − 200

⇒ Runs needed in 5^th match = 75

∴ The correct answer is 75.

Given:

r₁ = 4

r₂ = 9

Tangent length = 12

Formula Used:

Length of common internal tangent = √(d² − (r₁ + r₂)²)

Calculation:

⇒ 12 = √(d² − (4 + 9)²)

⇒ 12² = d² − 13²

⇒ 144 = d² − 169

⇒ d² = 144 + 169 = 313

⇒ d = √313

∴ The correct answer is √313.

Given:

sin(x) = 3/5

Formula Used:

sin²(x) + cos²(x) = 1

Calculation:

⇒ sin²(x) = (3/5)²

⇒ sin²(x) = 9/25

⇒ cos²(x) = 1 - sin²(x)

⇒ cos²(x) = 1 - 9/25

⇒ cos²(x) = 25/25 - 9/25

⇒ cos²(x) = 16/25

⇒ cos(x) = √(16/25)

⇒ cos(x) = 4/5

∴ The correct answer is 4/5.

Given:

$\tan \theta = \frac{4}{3}$

Formula Used:

$\cos^{2}\theta - \sin^{2}\theta = \frac{1 - \tan^{2}\theta}{1 + \tan^{2}\theta}$

Calculation:

⇒ $\tan^{2}\theta = \left(\frac{4}{3}\right)^{2} = \frac{16}{9}$

⇒ $\frac{1 - \tan^{2}\theta}{1 + \tan^{2}\theta} = \frac{1 - \frac{16}{9}}{1 + \frac{16}{9}}$

⇒ $= \frac{\frac{9 - 16}{9}}{\frac{9 + 16}{9}}$

⇒ $= \frac{-7}{25}$

∴ The correct answer is $-\frac{7}{25}$.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Alauddin Khalji mobilized a large standing army in Delhi as a response to the Mongol invasions, which posed a serious threat to the Sultanate during his reign. He strengthened the military infrastructure by building forts and increasing the size of the army. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Muhammad bin Tughluq also faced challenges from Mongol invasions and organized a large standing army. He introduced reforms in administration and taxation to support the military expenses. Hence, statement II is correct.
• Mongol invasions were frequent during the Delhi Sultanate period, and both rulers had to adapt their strategies to defend their territories effectively.
• The mobilization of a large army posed administrative challenges, including logistics, financing, and coordination, which both rulers had to address through various reforms.
• Both I and II are correct as both Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad bin Tughluq played significant roles in countering the Mongol threat through military and administrative measures.

Additional Information

• Mongol Invasions:
• The Mongol Empire was one of the largest empires in history, originating from Central Asia under the leadership of Genghis Khan.
• During the Delhi Sultanate period, Mongol invasions were frequent, targeting northern India, especially the regions around Delhi.
• These invasions caused widespread destruction and posed a significant threat to the stability of the Sultanate.
• Alauddin Khalji's Military Reforms:
• Alauddin Khalji established a large standing army to counter the Mongol threat and maintain the security of his empire.
• He introduced strict measures to ensure the efficiency of his army, such as regulating the prices of goods to manage the expenses of soldiers.
• Forts were constructed, and he undertook extensive military campaigns to expand his empire and secure its borders.
• Muhammad bin Tughluq's Initiatives:
• Muhammad bin Tughluq faced Mongol invasions and organized a large army, but his methods often led to administrative difficulties.
• He introduced innovative measures, such as token currency, to fund military operations, though these were not always successful.
• His reign was marked by ambitious projects, such as shifting the capital to Daulatabad, which created logistical challenges.
• Impact on Administration:
• The mobilization of large armies required substantial resources, leading to reforms in taxation and administration.
• Both rulers faced challenges in maintaining the morale and efficiency of their troops, as well as managing the logistics of warfare.

Important Points

• Key Challenges:
• The Mongol invasions highlighted the vulnerability of the Delhi Sultanate and necessitated robust military strategies.
• Both Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad bin Tughluq demonstrated their ability to adapt to the changing geopolitical landscape through reforms and military actions.
• Historical Context:
• The Delhi Sultanate period was marked by frequent foreign invasions, requiring rulers to focus on military strength and administrative efficiency.
• Both rulers are remembered for their contributions to the defense and administration of the Sultanate, despite facing numerous challenges.

The correct answer is Divya Prabandham.

Key Points

• Divya Prabandham is a revered collection of hymns composed by the Alvar saints, who were devotional poets in South India.
• The term "Divya Prabandham" translates to "Sacred Compilation" in Tamil, emphasizing its spiritual significance.
• This compilation includes 4,000 hymns (Naalayira Divya Prabandham) written in Tamil, celebrating the glory of Lord Vishnu and his various forms.
• The Alvar saints were twelve prominent Vaishnavite saints who lived between the 6^th and 9^th centuries CE and expressed their devotion through poetry.
• The hymns in the Divya Prabandham cover themes like bhakti (devotion), surrender, and divine love, making it a cornerstone of Tamil Vaishnavism.

Additional Information

• Ettutogai:
• Ettutogai is a collection of classical Tamil literary works belonging to the Sangam period (circa 300 BCE–300 CE).
• It consists of eight anthologies, including works like Ahananuru, Purananuru, Kuruntokai, and others, focusing on themes of love and war.
• It is not related to Vaishnavite devotional literature but reflects the socio-cultural aspects of ancient Tamil society.
• Tipitaka:
• Tipitaka, meaning "Three Baskets," is the sacred scripture of Buddhism, written in the Pali language.
• It comprises three parts: Vinaya Pitaka (disciplinary rules), Sutta Pitaka (teachings of Buddha), and Abhidhamma Pitaka (philosophical analysis).
• It is entirely distinct from the Vaishnavite tradition of the Alvar saints.
• Adi-Puran:
• Adi-Puran is a Jain scripture written by Jinasena, focusing on the life stories of Rishabhdev, the first Tirthankara.
• It delves into Jain philosophy and ethics, making it unrelated to the hymns of the Alvar saints.
• Divya Prabandham:
• The Divya Prabandham is central to the Tamil Vaishnavite tradition and is recited in temples during rituals and festivals.
• It forms the basis for the liturgical practices in many Vaishnavite temples, including Sri Rangam, one of the most famous temples dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
• The hymns are still preserved and celebrated for their linguistic beauty and spiritual depth, showcasing the cultural richness of Tamil Nadu.

Important Points

• Compilation: The Divya Prabandham is considered a divine revelation and was compiled by Nathamuni, a Vaishnavite scholar, in the 9^th century CE.
• Language: The hymns are written in Tamil, making it accessible to common people while promoting spiritual and cultural values.
• Themes: The hymns emphasize concepts like surrender (sharanagati), divine grace, and the glory of Vishnu's avatars.
• Festivals: Many verses from the Divya Prabandham are recited during Vaishnavite festivals like Vaikuntha Ekadashi and temple processions.

The correct answer is To protect the natural environment.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, added by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• One of the Fundamental Duties explicitly states that it is the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
• The inclusion of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of Russia (Soviet Union) to inculcate a sense of responsibility among citizens toward the nation and society.
• While Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, they act as moral obligations for citizens to ensure active participation in nation-building.
• Protecting the environment is critical to addressing issues like climate change, pollution, and loss of biodiversity, thereby ensuring sustainable development.

Additional Information

• Other Fundamental Duties:
• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag, and the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• Environmental Protection in India:
• The Environment Protection Act, 1986 is one of the key legislative frameworks to safeguard the environment.
• India is a signatory to international agreements such as the Paris Agreement under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change.
• Various government initiatives like National Green Tribunal and Clean India Mission aim to enhance environmental sustainability.
• Role of Citizens:
• Active participation in tree plantation drives, waste management, and conservation of water resources.
• Promoting renewable energy usage and adopting eco-friendly practices in daily life.
• Awareness campaigns to educate people about the importance of protecting the environment.
• Global Environmental Efforts:
• The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) focuses on global climate action.
• The Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement aim to reduce greenhouse gas emissions globally.
• Organizations like the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and Greenpeace work to protect biodiversity and mitigate environmental degradation.

Important Points

• Constitutional Provisions:
• Article 48A: The State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
• Article 51A(g): It is the duty of every citizen to protect the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
• 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976:
• This amendment introduced the concept of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
• It was enacted during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• Environmental Challenges:
• India faces issues like air pollution, deforestation, water scarcity, and waste management.
• Efforts are needed to balance economic development with environmental conservation.

The correct answer is 36^th Amendment Act, 1975.

Key Points

• The 36^th Amendment Act of 1975 was responsible for making Sikkim a full-fledged state of India.
• Before this amendment, Sikkim was recognized as an associate state of India under the provisions of the 35^th Amendment Act, 1974.
• With the 36^th Amendment Act, Sikkim was officially included as the 22^nd state of India.
• The amendment added Article 371F to the Constitution of India to provide special provisions for Sikkim, considering its unique socio-political and cultural characteristics.
• This amendment was essential to integrate Sikkim into the Indian Union and ensure its governance under the Indian Constitution.

Additional Information

• Sikkim's Status Before 1975:
• Sikkim functioned as a protectorate under India since the treaty signed in 1950 between the Indian government and the Chogyal (monarch) of Sikkim.
• It maintained a unique status and was governed by the Chogyal, with India handling its defense, external affairs, and communications.
• 35^th Amendment Act, 1974:
• This amendment introduced the concept of an associate state for Sikkim, a status that was unique in the Indian Constitution.
• It provided limited representation for Sikkim in the Indian Parliament.
• However, political instability and demands for full integration into India led to the passing of the 36^th Amendment Act.
• Special Provisions Under Article 371F:
• Article 371F was incorporated to protect customs, laws, and traditions of Sikkim while ensuring its integration into India.
• It allowed for special provisions regarding the composition of the Legislative Assembly of Sikkim.
• It recognized the unique rights of the Sikkimese people, including their cultural and social heritage.
• Geographical Significance:
• Sikkim is located in the northeastern region of India and shares borders with Bhutan, Nepal, and China (Tibet).
• Its strategic location is crucial for India's defense and foreign relations in the Himalayan region.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• Sikkim's merger with India was facilitated by a referendum held in 1975, where the majority of Sikkim's population voted for integration.
• The Chogyal's rule was abolished following the referendum, and Sikkim's monarchy came to an end.
• Impact of the Amendment:
• Sikkim's inclusion in India as a state strengthened India's territorial integrity.
• It ensured that Sikkim's residents enjoyed the rights and privileges of Indian citizens.
• The state's unique identity and heritage were preserved through the special provisions under Article 371F.
• Examples of State Reorganization:
• Similar amendments have been made for other regions, such as the creation of Telangana in 2014.
• The Indian Constitution provides a framework for the reorganization of states through Article 3.

The correct answer is Afghanistan.

Key Points

• SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) was established in 1985 with the aim of promoting regional cooperation and development in South Asia.
• The founding members of SAARC were India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Maldives.
• Afghanistan officially joined SAARC as its eighth member in 2007, during the 14^th SAARC Summit held in New Delhi, India.
• The organization's primary objectives include improving economic growth, social progress, and cultural development among its member states.
• Countries like Iraq, UAE, and Egypt are not members of SAARC as they do not belong to the South Asian region, which is the geographical focus of the association.

Additional Information

• SAARC Key Features:
• SAARC is a regional organization headquartered in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• The organization operates through a Charter that outlines its objectives, principles, and operational procedures.
• SAARC's decisions are made by consensus, ensuring that all member states have equal representation and authority.
• Afghanistan's Membership:
• Afghanistan joined SAARC in 2007 to strengthen its regional ties and actively participate in South Asian development and cooperation.
• Its inclusion marked a significant expansion of SAARC, both in terms of geography and geopolitical scope.
• Non-Members:
• Iraq: Located in the Middle East, Iraq is part of the Arab League and not eligible for SAARC membership.
• UAE: Situated in the Gulf region, UAE is a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) and does not fall within South Asia's geographical boundaries.
• Egypt: As an African nation, Egypt primarily participates in African Union activities and is outside the scope of SAARC.
• SAARC Achievements:
• Promotes regional integration through initiatives like the SAARC Development Fund and the SAARC Food Bank.
• Encourages cultural and academic exchange through platforms such as the SAARC Cultural Centre.

Important Points

• Geographical Focus:
• SAARC focuses exclusively on South Asia, encompassing countries geographically located in this region.
• It does not extend its membership to countries outside of South Asia, even if they share cultural or historical ties.
• Challenges Faced by SAARC:
• Political tensions between member states, especially India and Pakistan, have often hindered effective cooperation.
• Economic disparity among member countries makes it challenging to implement uniform policies and programs.
• Key SAARC Initiatives:
• The SAARC Regional Centres focus on areas like agriculture, human resource development, and disaster management.
• SAARC has established SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area) to boost intra-regional trade and economic cooperation.

The correct answer is Discus throw.

Key Points

• Praveen Kumar Sobti, an Indian athlete, was renowned for his achievements in the Discus throw event.
• He represented India in various international competitions, including the Asian Games.
• Praveen Kumar Sobti won two medals in the Asian Games in the Discus throw category:
• A gold medal at the 1966 Asian Games held in Bangkok.
• A silver medal at the 1970 Asian Games held in Bangkok.
• In addition to his success in the Asian Games, he also represented India in the Olympics in 1968 and 1972.
• Praveen Kumar was not only an athlete but later became famous as an actor, particularly for his role as Bheem in the Indian television series Mahabharat.

Additional Information

• Discus Throw:
• The Discus throw is a track and field event where an athlete throws a heavy disc called a discus to achieve the longest distance possible.
• The sport has its roots in ancient Greece and was part of the original Olympic Games.
• Athletes require a combination of strength, technique, and agility to excel in this sport.
• The discus used in competitions typically weighs 2 kilograms for men and 1 kilogram for women.
• Asian Games:
• The Asian Games, also known as the Asiad, is a multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from all over Asia.
• The first Asian Games were held in 1951 in New Delhi, India.
• India has a strong history of participation in the Asian Games, winning medals in various sports such as athletics, wrestling, shooting, and hockey.
• Praveen Kumar Sobti’s Career:
• Born on 6 December 1947 in Punjab, India.
• He joined the Border Security Force (BSF) at the age of 20 and pursued athletics while serving the nation.
• Besides his medals in the Asian Games, he also secured four medals at the Commonwealth Games.
• After retiring from sports, Praveen Kumar Sobti transitioned to acting and politics.
• Other Sports Options:
• Long Jump: Involves jumping as far as possible from a take-off point. Not related to Praveen Kumar Sobti.
• Shooting: A sport involving precision and aiming skills. Praveen Kumar was not associated with this sport.
• Wrestling: A combat sport involving grappling techniques. While India has a strong wrestling tradition, Praveen Kumar’s achievements were in discus throw.

The correct answer is Sailesh C. Mehta.

Key Points

• Sailesh C. Mehta was appointed as the Chairperson of the Fertilizer Association of India (FAI) in June 2025.
• The Fertilizer Association of India (FAI) is a non-profit, non-trading organization established to represent the fertilizer sector in India.
• As Chairperson, Sailesh C. Mehta will focus on driving initiatives related to sustainable agriculture, ensuring efficient fertilizer distribution, and promoting balanced fertilizer use.
• His appointment is expected to bring innovative strategies to address challenges such as soil health degradation and the need for environmentally friendly fertilizers.
• FAI plays a critical role in coordinating with the government and industry stakeholders to ensure the availability of fertilizers and promote policies for agricultural growth.

Additional Information

• Fertilizer Association of India (FAI):
• Established in 1955, FAI represents the fertilizer sector, including manufacturers, distributors, and importers in India.
• The organization works towards promoting the efficient and balanced use of fertilizers to enhance crop productivity and soil health.
• It conducts extensive research, policy advocacy, and training programs to address issues in the fertilizer industry.
• FAI collaborates with international organizations to adopt global best practices in fertilizer production and usage.
• Role of Chairperson in FAI:
• The Chairperson of FAI leads the association, representing the interests of the fertilizer industry at national and international forums.
• He/she ensures the implementation of policies to improve fertilizer accessibility and usage.
• The Chairperson plays a key role in promoting sustainable agriculture practices and addressing environmental concerns related to fertilizer use.
• Challenges in the Fertilizer Industry:
• India faces challenges such as imbalanced fertilizer use, over-reliance on chemical fertilizers, and soil health deterioration.
• The need for environmentally friendly fertilizers, such as biofertilizers and organic fertilizers, is growing to address these concerns.
• Efforts are required to promote awareness among farmers regarding balanced fertilizer application and its benefits.
• Government Policies on Fertilizers:
• The Government of India implements subsidy programs to make fertilizers affordable for farmers.
• It promotes initiatives like Neem-coated urea to reduce wastage and improve efficiency.
• Programs such as the Soil Health Card Scheme aim to educate farmers about nutrient requirements and improve fertilizer application.

Important Points

• Balanced Fertilizer Use:
• Excessive use of chemical fertilizers like nitrogen-based urea can lead to soil degradation and environmental pollution.
• Balanced fertilization involves using the right mix of nutrients such as nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K) along with micronutrients.
• Promoting balanced fertilizer use is crucial for ensuring sustainable agricultural productivity.
• Environmental Impact:
• Overuse of fertilizers can lead to issues like eutrophication, groundwater contamination, and greenhouse gas emissions.
• Sustainable practices, including the use of organic fertilizers and precision farming, can mitigate these impacts.
• Future Trends:
• Innovations in fertilizer technology, such as slow-release fertilizers, are being explored to improve nutrient efficiency.
• Advancements in soil testing and nutrient mapping are helping farmers optimize fertilizer application.

The correct answer is Sanjay Jaiswal.

Key Points

• The Chairperson of the Estimates Committee in the Lok Sabha as of July 2025 is Sanjay Jaiswal, a prominent Member of Parliament and a senior leader from the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
• The Estimates Committee is one of the three financial committees in the Indian Parliament, tasked with examining budgetary allocations and ensuring efficient use of public resources.
• The committee consists of 30 members, all of whom are elected from the Lok Sabha (House of the People) based on proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• The Chairperson of the committee is always chosen from the ruling party or alliance in the Lok Sabha to ensure effective coordination between the government and the committee.
• Sanjay Jaiswal has been actively involved in parliamentary proceedings and is known for his expertise in financial oversight and governance matters, making him a suitable choice for this role.

Additional Information

• Estimates Committee Overview:
• The Estimates Committee was first constituted in 1950 and is the largest parliamentary committee, consisting of 30 members.
• Its function is to scrutinize the budget estimates presented by the government to ensure that expenditure aligns with the principles of economy and efficiency.
• The committee also examines whether the expenditure is within the policy framework approved by Parliament.
• The committee does not question the policy but focuses on its implementation and financial implications.
• Eligibility and Membership:
• Only members of the Lok Sabha can be part of this committee. Members from the Rajya Sabha are not included.
• The Chairperson is usually a member of the ruling party or coalition, ensuring smooth communication with the executive branch.
• Sanjay Jaiswal:
• Sanjay Jaiswal is a senior BJP leader and a Member of Parliament from Paschim Champaran constituency in Bihar.
• He has been serving as an MP since 2009 and is known for his contributions to parliamentary debates and his leadership roles within the party.
• His experience and expertise in public administration and financial matters make him a trusted leader for overseeing the functioning of the Estimates Committee.
• Important Functions of the Estimates Committee:
• To suggest alternative policies for achieving the efficiency and economy in administration.
• To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
• To suggest the form in which the estimates shall be presented to Parliament to make them transparent and comprehensible.

Important Points

• Other Financial Committees:
• The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines the accounts showing the appropriation of funds and ensures transparency in government spending.
• The Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) reviews the working of public sector enterprises and evaluates their financial performance.
• Relevance of the Estimates Committee:
• This committee plays a crucial role in ensuring that government spending is in line with public welfare and economic development goals.
• It acts as a watchdog, holding the executive accountable for its financial decisions and implementation.

The correct answer is 195 per 100,000 population.

Key Points

• In December 2024, the Union Health Minister announced that the Tuberculosis (TB) incidence rate in India had declined to 195 per 100,000 population in 2023.
• This decline reflects the success of the government’s initiatives under the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP).
• The World Health Organization (WHO) had earlier estimated India's TB incidence rate for 2021 as 210 per 100,000 population, showcasing a significant improvement in disease control efforts.
• The reduction aligns with India’s commitment to achieve the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and eliminate TB by 2025, five years ahead of the global target.
• Various initiatives like the “Nikshay Poshan Yojana” (nutritional support for TB patients) and the introduction of new diagnostic tools have contributed to this progress.

Additional Information

• Tuberculosis (TB):
• TB is a contagious disease caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
• It primarily affects the lungs but can also impact other parts of the body, such as the spine, brain, and kidneys.
• The disease spreads through the air when people with active TB in their lungs cough, sneeze, or spit.
• National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP):
• Previously known as the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), it was renamed in 2020 to reflect India’s commitment to eliminating TB.
• NTEP aims to eliminate TB in India by 2025 through early diagnosis, treatment, and care for patients.
• Key components include free diagnostic services, drug delivery, and nutritional support through the Nikshay Poshan Yojana.
• WHO Global TB Report:
• The World Health Organization (WHO) releases an annual Global TB Report to track progress in eliminating TB worldwide.
• As per the 2022 report, India accounted for 26% of the global TB burden, but significant strides have been made in reducing the incidence rate.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDG 3 aims to ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all ages, including ending the epidemics of TB by 2030.
• India has advanced its target to eliminate TB by 2025, showing strong political commitment and implementation of health programs.

Important Points

• Nikshay Poshan Yojana:
• Launched in 2018, this scheme provides ₹500 per month to TB patients for nutritional support during their treatment.
• The funds are directly transferred to patients' bank accounts under the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system.
• Advanced Diagnostic Tools for TB:
• India has adopted modern diagnostic techniques like CB-NAAT (Cartridge-Based Nucleic Acid Amplification Test) and TrueNat to detect TB and drug-resistant TB quickly and accurately.
• These tools have improved early detection rates, helping to reduce TB transmission.
• Patient-Centric Care:
• Under the NTEP, patients receive free access to TB drugs and treatment, including for multi-drug resistant TB (MDR-TB).
• Community engagement and awareness campaigns have been crucial in reducing the stigma associated with TB.