DSSSB TGT (Natural Science) Official Paper (Held On: 07 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Given E×pression: Z#G×L%T-E% P

Z#G → Z is the daughter of G. 

G×L → G is the wife of L.

L%T → L is the father of T. 

T-E → T is the brother of E.

E% P → E is the father of P.

Thus, Z is P's father's sister.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given: Seven boxes, L, M, O, Q, T, V and W, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1) Only two boxes are kept below Q.

2. Only one box is kept above W.

3. Only one box is kept between W and L.

4. T is kept immediately above V.

5. Only two boxes are kept between T and M. 

After position the left box 'O' will be positioned at the only position left.

Thus, four boxes are kept between O and T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

• 138 − 119 = 19
• 119 − 100 = 19
• 100 − 81 = 19
• 81 − 62 = 19
• 62 − 43 = 19

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The pattern followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given :  4 C 7 A 56 D 8 B 13 = ?

4 C 7 A 56 D 8 B 13 = ?

‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stands for ‘−’, ‘C’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘÷’

⇒ 4 x 7 + 56 ÷ 8 - 13 

⇒ 4 x 7 + 7 - 13

⇒ 28 + 7 - 13

⇒ 35 - 13

⇒ 22.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given :  ‘HOPE’ is coded as ‘7416’ and ‘POLE’ is coded as ‘1367’.

‘H O P E’ - ‘7 4 1 6’ 

‘P O L E’ -  ‘1 3 6 7’

The Code for L is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given :  11 ÷ 3 + 30 × 6 − 12 = ?

⇒ 11 ÷ 3 + 30 × 6 − 12 = ?

‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged, and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

⇒ 11 × 3 - 30 ÷ 6 + 12 

⇒ 11 × 3 - 5+ 12 

⇒ 33 - 5 + 12 

⇒ 33 + 12 - 5 

⇒ 40

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given:  (Left) 574 249 592 746 240 (Right)

First digit of the second highest number =   592

Second digit of the lowest number = 240 

5 x 4 = 20.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Reason

• I (launch during the holiday season) would normally boost sales, not reduce them, so it does not explain poor performance.
• II (large-scale recall due to a battery fault with heavy media coverage) could negatively affect consumer trust and brand image, leading to weak sales of the new model.
• Thus,Only II is a possible reason.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given :  

• Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
• Karl is an immediate neighbour of both Pamela and Nadia.
• Laura is sitting second to the left of Pamela.
• Milo is sitting third to the right of Nadia.
• Olin is an immediate neighbour of both Laura and Nadia

The Final Arrangement is, 

The position(s) of how many persons will remain unchanged if all persons are arranged in the English alphabetical order, in clockwise direction, starting from Karl (including Karl) - Kalr and Milo.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

• Avneet starts from Point Y and drives 38 km towards east.
• He then takes a right turn, drives 12 km, turns right and drives 17 km.
• He then takes a right turn and drives 55 km.
• He takes a left turn and drives 21 km.
• He then turns left and drives 29 km to stop at Point Z

 

The Final Diagram,

14 km towards south 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given: Each of P, O, I, U, Y, T and R has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

• T has an exam on Friday.
• Only two people have exams between R and O.
• Only three people have exams between R and T.
• P has an exam immediately before I.
• P doesn’t have an exam on Tuesday.

The Final Arrangement is, 

 

Five people have exams before I and after R

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Logic:  

(6+4) ÷ 2 = 10÷2 = 5

(7+9) ÷ 2 = 16 ÷ 2 = 8

Similarly,

(6 + 12) ÷ 9 = 18 ÷ 9 = 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) ST-WX

Option 2) JK-MN

Option 3) CD-GH

Option 4) LM-PQ

Thus, out of all 'JK-MN' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given :  (Left) 963 458 386 321 437 (Right)

Third digit of the second highest number = 458 

second digit of the second lowest number = 386 

8 + 8 = 16.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) No logs are blankets. - False (Their is no direct relation between logs and blankets may be it is possible but not definite. Hence, it is False)

(II) No shoes are pies. - True (All shoes are blankets.No pies are blankets.No shoes are pies is True)

Only conclusion (II) follows. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The correct answer is The growth rate of the population of the Muslim community was 24.6%.

Key Points

• As per Census 2011, the growth rate of the Muslim population in India during the decade 2001-2011 was recorded at 24.6%.
• The Muslim population grew from 13.43% in 2001 to 14.2% in 2011, with a total population of approximately 17.22 crore in 2011.
• This growth rate is higher compared to other major religious communities in India during the same period.
• The Muslim community is the second-largest religious community in India after Hindus, forming a significant demographic group in the country.
• The overall population growth rate in India during this decade was 17.7%, highlighting a decline in growth rate trends across most religious communities.

Additional Information

• Religious Demographics in India (Census 2011)
• Hindus: 79.8% of the population.
• Muslims: 14.2% of the population.
• Christians: 2.3% of the population.
• Sikhs: 1.7% of the population.
• Buddhists: 0.7% of the population.
• Jains: 0.4% of the population.
• The 2011 Census revealed India's population hit 1.21 billion, a rise in overall sex ratio to 943 females/1000 males (though child sex ratio dropped to 919), a literacy rate of 74.04%, and a density of 382 persons/sq km.

The correct answer is one.

Key Points

• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended only once since its adoption on January 26, 1950.
• The amendment was made during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi through the 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976, which is also referred to as the "Mini-Constitution."
• This amendment added three new words to the Preamble: "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity."
• The 42^nd Amendment Act was enacted during the Emergency period (1975–1977), making it one of the most significant amendments in Indian constitutional history.
• The Preamble now reads: “We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens...”

Additional Information

• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution
• The Objective Resolution, introduced by Nehru in 1946 and adopted in 1947, was the foundation of India's Constitution, later forming the core ideals of the Preamble of India.
• The Preamble serves as the introductory statement of the Constitution, outlining its objectives and guiding principles.
• It reflects the aspirations of the people of India and embodies the fundamental values of justice, liberty, equality, fraternity, and unity.
• While not legally enforceable, the Preamble acts as an interpretative tool for understanding the Constitution.
• Any amendments to the Preamble must adhere to Article 368 of the Constitution, which governs the amendment procedure.

The correct answer is 3 : 8.

Key Points

• The mass of one atom of carbon (C) is 12 atomic mass units (amu), and the mass of one atom of oxygen (O) is 16 amu.
• In carbon dioxide (CO2), one molecule contains 1 atom of carbon and 2 atoms of oxygen.
• Therefore, the total mass of carbon in CO2 is 12 amu, and the total mass of oxygen is 2 × 16 = 32 amu.
• The mass ratio of carbon to oxygen in CO2 is calculated as 12 : 32, which simplifies to 3 : 8.
• This ratio (3 : 8) is constant for all molecules of CO2, as per the law of definite proportions.

Additional Information

• Law of Constant Proportions: A compound always has the same elements in the same fixed ratio by mass (e.g., CO₂ is always 3:8 C:O).
• Carbon Dioxide (CO₂): Mass ratio of Carbon to Oxygen is 3:8 (12 amu C : 2 * 16 amu O = 12:32 = 3:8).
• Mass Percent: Ratios can be expressed as mass percentages (e.g., ~74.8% Carbon in methane), useful for elemental analysis.
• C/N Ratio: In environmental contexts, the ratio of Carbon to Nitrogen (C/N) in organic matter (like 20-30 for digestion) is important for biological processes.
• Carbon Isotopes: The natural ratio of Carbon-14 to Carbon-12 (approx. 1:1 trillion) is fundamental for radiometric dating.

The correct answer is physical relation between inputs and output.

Key Points

• The theory of production is a concept in economics that studies the physical relationship between inputs (factors of production) and output.
• It involves determining the optimal combination of inputs like labor, capital, and raw materials to achieve maximum output.
• The production function represents this relationship mathematically, where output is a function of inputs, often denoted as Q = f(L, K, etc.), where Q is the quantity of output, and L and K represent labor and capital.
• This theory is essential for understanding concepts like returns to scale and marginal productivity, which analyze how changes in input quantities affect output levels.
• It helps businesses and policymakers in making decisions regarding resource allocation and production efficiency, ensuring optimal utilization of available inputs.

Additional Information

• Return based relation between inputs and output
• This concept is related to returns to scale, where the output increases at a varying rate compared to the increase in inputs.
• It includes three types of returns to scale: increasing, constant, and diminishing returns to scale.
• Economic relation of inputs and output
• The economic relationship emphasizes the cost-effectiveness of inputs and their influence on output, focusing on profit maximization and cost minimization.
• This is studied under cost theory and not directly under production theory.
• It involves economic analysis of inputs rather than their physical relationship.
• Accounting relation between inputs and output
• This refers to the accounting aspect of production, such as calculating costs and revenues, but does not explain the physical relationship between inputs and outputs.
• It is concerned with financial data rather than the production process itself.

The correct answer is 2070.

Key Points

• India has committed to achieving net-zero carbon emissions by the year 2070 under the Panchamrit action plan.
• This announcement was made by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during the COP26 Summit in Glasgow, Scotland, in November 2021.
• The Panchamrit action plan includes five key commitments (or "nectars") to tackle climate change, including achieving net-zero by 2070.
• Net-zero emissions mean that the amount of greenhouse gases emitted is balanced by the amount removed from the atmosphere through measures such as carbon sequestration.
• This target aligns with India's development needs and its commitment to contributing to global climate change mitigation efforts while ensuring sustainable development.

Additional Information

• Five key commitments of Panchamrit action plan:
• Non-Fossil Fuel Capacity: Achieve 500 Gigawatts (GW) of non-fossil energy capacity by 2030.
• Renewable Energy Share: Meet 50% of India's energy requirements from renewable sources by 2030.
• Emission Reduction: Reduce total projected carbon emissions by 1 billion tonnes by 2030.
• Carbon Intensity: Lower the carbon intensity of the economy by 45% by 2030 (from 2005 levels).
• Net-Zero Target: Achieve net-zero emissions by the year 2070.

The correct answer is Consolidated Fund of India.

Key Points

• The salaries, allowances, and pensions of Supreme Court Judges and the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India are charged directly from the Consolidated Fund of India.
• This mechanism ensures the independence of these constitutional authorities by securing their financial autonomy.
• The Consolidated Fund of India is the most important fund of the Government of India, created under Article 266(1) of the Constitution.
• All revenues received by the government, loans raised, and money received in repayment of loans form part of this fund.
• Any expenditure by the government, including salaries and pensions, requires authorization through parliamentary approval.

Additional Information

• Reserve Bank of India
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India, responsible for regulating the monetary policy and issuing currency.
• It does not directly fund salaries, allowances, or pensions of constitutional authorities.
• RBI oversees the financial stability and manages foreign exchange reserves but does not allocate funds for government expenditures.
• Public Accounts
• The Public Account of India is created under Article 266(2) of the Constitution.
• It deals with transactions where the government acts as a banker, such as provident funds, small savings, and reserve funds.
• Money in the Public Account does not require parliamentary approval for withdrawal and is not used for regular government expenses.
• Contingency Fund of India
• The Contingency Fund of India was established under Article 267 of the Constitution.
• It is used to meet unforeseen and emergency expenditures that cannot wait for parliamentary approval.
• Expenditures from this fund are made with the approval of the President of India, but it is replenished through parliamentary approval.

The correct answer is Judo.

Key Points

• Kapil Parmar won the bronze medal in Judo at the Paris Paralympics 2024, marking a significant achievement for India in the sport.
• Judo is a highly competitive Paralympic sport, and athletes with visual impairments compete in specific categories.
• The victory of Kapil Parmar highlights India’s growing prominence in adaptive sports and its commitment to supporting differently-abled athletes.
• Judo at the Paralympics is conducted under specific classification systems to ensure fair competition, and it requires exceptional technique, strength, and strategy.
• Kapil Parmar’s success is a testament to the dedication of Indian para-athletes and the improved support for para-sports in India.

Additional Information

• High Jump:
• The High Jump is an athletic event where participants aim to clear a horizontal bar at various heights without dislodging it.
• It is part of the Paralympic Games, and athletes with physical disabilities compete in different classifications.
• Shooting:
• Shooting is a prominent Paralympic sport requiring precision, control, and accuracy.
• Athletes with physical impairments use specialized equipment and participate in events such as rifle and pistol shooting.
• Long Jump:
• The Long Jump is a track and field event where competitors aim to jump as far as possible from a take-off point.
• Para-athletes compete in classifications based on physical and visual impairments.

The correct answer is Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.

Key Points

• Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first Vice President of India, serving from 1952 to 1962.
• He was a renowned scholar, philosopher, and statesman, widely respected for his contributions to education and philosophy.
• Dr. Radhakrishnan played a pivotal role in shaping India’s higher education system and was a staunch advocate of Indian culture and philosophy on global platforms.
• His birthday, September 5^th, is celebrated as Teacher's Day in India in honor of his dedication to education and his role as a teacher.
• Dr. Radhakrishnan later served as the second President of India from 1962 to 1967.

Additional Information

• VV Giri:
• VV Giri was the fourth President of India, serving from 1969 to 1974.
• He was also the third Vice President of India, serving from 1967 to 1969.
• Giri played a significant role in labor rights and trade union movements in India, earning him the title of "Father of the Indian Trade Union Movement."
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad:
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India, serving from 1950 to 1962.
• He was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi.
• He was known for his simplicity, integrity, and dedication to public service.
• Dr. Zakir Hussain:
• Dr. Zakir Hussain was the third President of India and served from 1967 until his death in 1969.
• He was also the second Vice President of India, serving from 1962 to 1967.
• Dr. Hussain was an educationist and the co-founder of Jamia Millia Islamia University.
• He was the first Muslim to hold the office of President of India.

The correct answer is Agra.

Key Points

• The headquarters of the Kendriya Hindi Sansthan is located in Agra, Uttar Pradesh.
• It was established in the year 1960 under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• The main objective of the Kendriya Hindi Sansthan is to promote Hindi as a national language and support its teaching and development.
• The institution conducts research, organizes training programs, and develops educational materials to enhance the propagation of Hindi.
• Kendriya Hindi Sansthan also works towards the development of Hindi as a link language across various regions of India and abroad.

Additional Information

• Patna
• Patna is the capital city of Bihar and is historically significant as one of the oldest continuously inhabited places in the world.
• It is known for its association with ancient Indian empires such as the Maurya and Gupta Empires.
• Patna is home to various educational institutions, but it is not the headquarters of the Kendriya Hindi Sansthan.
• Allahabad (Prayagraj)
• Allahabad, now officially known as Prayagraj, is located in Uttar Pradesh and is famous for the confluence of three rivers: Ganga, Yamuna, and the mythical Saraswati.
• It is an important center for education and culture but is not associated with the Kendriya Hindi Sansthan headquarters.
• New Delhi
• New Delhi is the capital city of India and serves as the center of governance, politics, and administration for the country.
• It is home to several national institutions and ministries but is not the location of the Kendriya Hindi Sansthan headquarters.

The correct answer is attempting to assassinate Douglas H Kingsford along with Prafulla Chaki.

Key Points

• Khudiram Bose was a prominent revolutionary during the Indian freedom struggle against British colonial rule.
• He and Prafulla Chaki were tasked with assassinating Douglas H. Kingsford, the British magistrate of Muzaffarpur, who was infamous for his harsh punishments against Indian nationalists.
• On April 30, 1908, Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki threw bombs at the carriage believed to be carrying Kingsford; however, the attack mistakenly killed two British women instead.
• Khudiram Bose was arrested shortly after the incident and later sentenced to death. He was executed on August 11, 1908, at the age of 18, making him one of the youngest martyrs of India's independence movement.
• His courage and sacrifice inspired many young Indians to join the revolutionary efforts against British rule.

Additional Information

• Revolutionary Movements in India
• The Indian independence movement saw the emergence of revolutionary groups like the Anushilan Samiti and Jugantar, which sought to overthrow British rule through armed rebellion.
• These groups were inspired by the ideals of freedom, self-sacrifice, and nationalism, with figures like Khudiram Bose, Chandrashekhar Azad, and Bhagat Singh leading such efforts.
• Their actions were instrumental in galvanizing public opinion and pressuring the British administration to eventually leave India.
• Subhash Chandra Bose was influenced by revolutionary ideas but was primarily associated with the Indian National Army (INA)
• Major uprisings in Bengal during the British colonial period include the Chuar Rebellion (1799) and the Quit India Movement (1942).

The correct answer is Union.

Key Points

• Article 351 of the Indian Constitution mandates the Union of India to promote the spread of the Hindi language.
• The Union is responsible for developing Hindi so that it serves as a medium of expression for all elements of India's composite culture.
• The objective is to enrich Hindi by assimilating forms, styles, and expressions used in Hindustani and other languages mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
• This duty is essential for fostering national integration and promoting the official language as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• The Union's role also includes implementing policies and programs aimed at the propagation and promotion of Hindi across various states and regions.

Additional Information

• Rajya Sabha:
• The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India.
• It represents the states and union territories and is primarily responsible for reviewing and amending legislation proposed by the Lok Sabha.
• It does not have specific duties related to the promotion of the Hindi language.
• Lok Sabha:
• The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament of India.
• Its primary role is to legislate and govern, including passing laws and budgets.
• While the Lok Sabha may legislate on language-related matters, it is not directly entrusted with promoting Hindi under Article 351.
• State:
• States have the autonomy to promote their regional languages and implement policies related to language development.
• However, the responsibility of promoting Hindi as per Article 351 lies with the Union, not individual states.

The correct answer is Dietary fibers.

Key Points

• Roughage primarily consists of dietary fibers, which are indigestible parts of plant-based foods such as vegetables, fruits, grains, and legumes.
• Dietary fibers aid in maintaining proper bowel movements and prevent constipation by adding bulk to the stool.
• Fiber helps in regulating blood sugar levels by slowing down the absorption of sugar into the bloodstream, which is beneficial for managing diabetes.
• Consumption of fiber-rich roughage supports heart health by lowering cholesterol levels, thus reducing the risk of cardiovascular diseases.
• Dietary fibers promote a feeling of fullness, aiding in weight management by reducing overeating.

Additional Information

• Proteins:
• Proteins are macronutrients essential for building and repairing body tissues, including muscles, skin, and organs.
• They are composed of amino acids, some of which are essential and must be obtained through diet.
• Sources of proteins include meat, fish, eggs, dairy products, legumes, nuts, and seeds.
• Proteins play a significant role in enzyme functions, hormone production, and maintaining immune health.
• Fats:
• Fats are another macronutrient that provides energy and supports cell structure and function.
• They are categorized into saturated, unsaturated, and trans fats, each with varying effects on health.
• Healthy fats, like omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids, are found in nuts, seeds, fish, and avocado.
• Fats assist in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K.
• Minerals:
• Minerals are inorganic elements like calcium, iron, potassium, and magnesium that are vital for various bodily functions.
• They support bone health, nerve function, muscle contraction, and maintaining fluid balance in the body.
• Minerals are obtained through fruits, vegetables, dairy, and whole grains.
• Unlike roughage, minerals do not provide bulk but are crucial for metabolic processes.

The correct answer is Delhi.

Key Points

• The National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language (NCPUL) is headquartered in Delhi, India.
• It operates under the Ministry of Education, Government of India, and was established in 1996.
• The NCPUL is tasked with the promotion, development, and propagation of the Urdu language throughout the country.
• It provides financial assistance to institutions and organizations that work towards Urdu education and cultural development.
• The council also organizes seminars, workshops, and training programs to encourage the use of Urdu in various fields, including modern technology.

Additional Information

• Mumbai
• Mumbai, the financial capital of India, is known for being the headquarters of several major financial institutions, including the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.
• It is also the hub of India's film industry, famously known as Bollywood.
• However, it is not related to the location or functioning of the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language.

The correct answer is Barber.

Key Points

• Aziz Khummar was a barber by profession, appointed to a high administrative post by Muhammad bin Tughluq.
• Muhammad bin Tughluq, the Sultan of Delhi (1325–1351), was known for his unconventional decisions and administrative experiments.
• This appointment reflected Muhammad bin Tughluq’s policy of promoting individuals based on personal trust and merit rather than social status or traditional qualifications.
• Aziz Khummar’s elevation demonstrates the Sultan’s tendency to challenge established norms and practices during his reign.
• Such decisions were part of Muhammad bin Tughluq’s broader attempts at administrative reform, though they often resulted in controversy and opposition.

Additional Information

• Lok Sabha Speaker:
• The Lok Sabha Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of India’s Parliament.
• The Speaker’s role includes maintaining order during debates, deciding points of order, and ensuring the smooth functioning of parliamentary proceedings.
• This role is unrelated to the historical context of Muhammad bin Tughluq’s reign.
• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister is the head of the government in contemporary parliamentary systems, such as India.
• During Muhammad bin Tughluq’s reign, the concept of Prime Minister did not exist in the same manner as in modern governance structures.
• Vice President:
• The Vice President is the second highest constitutional office in India after the President.
• In historical contexts like the Delhi Sultanate, administrative titles and roles were vastly different and did not include positions like Vice President.

The correct answer is Enhancing operational efficiency.

Key Points

• Restructuring financial institutions is primarily aimed at improving their operational efficiency and ensuring long-term sustainability.
• Operational efficiency involves streamlining processes, reducing costs, and optimizing resource utilization, which directly enhances profitability and service delivery.
• Increased operational efficiency allows financial institutions to maintain competitiveness in a rapidly changing economic environment.
• Restructuring may include measures such as mergers, acquisitions, technological upgrades, and workforce optimization to achieve better organizational performance.
• Regulatory compliance and risk management are often integrated into the restructuring process to ensure stability and adherence to legal norms.

Additional Information

• Types of Financial Institutions
• Financial institutions can be broadly categorized into several types, each serving specific functions:
• Depository Institutions
• These institutions accept and manage deposits and provide loans.
• Commercial Banks: The most common type of FI, they offer a wide range of services to both individuals and businesses, including checking and savings accounts, personal and business loans, and wealth management.
• Non-Depository Institutions
• These entities provide financial services without accepting deposits in traditional checking or savings accounts.
• Investment Banks: They specialize in complex financial transactions for corporations and governments, such as underwriting securities, facilitating mergers and acquisitions (M&A), and acting as financial advisors.
• Brokerage Firms: These firms act as intermediaries, helping individuals and institutions buy and sell financial securities like stocks, bonds, and mutual funds.
• Central Banks
• These are governmental financial institutions that oversee and manage a country's entire banking system. In the U.S., this is the Federal Reserve Bank (the Fed).

The correct answer is 70.

Key Points

• The Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is defined as the fraction of additional income that is saved rather than spent. It can be expressed as: MPS = Change in Savings / Change in Income.
• In this case, the MPS is given as 0.7, meaning 70% of the additional income will be saved.
• The change in income is ₹1,100 - ₹1,000 = ₹100.
• Substituting the values: Change in Savings = 0.7 × ₹100 = ₹70.

Additional Information

• Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS):
• MPS is a crucial concept in Keynesian economics, as it determines how much of an increase in income is directed toward savings.
• MPS complements the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC), with the relationship: MPS + MPC = 1.
• Higher MPS values indicate a greater tendency to save additional income, which can affect overall economic growth and investment.
• Using the formula, the change in savings can be calculated as: Change in Savings = MPS × Change in Income.

The correct answer is Palaeolithic Period.

Key Points

• The discovery of fire is one of the most significant milestones in human history and is generally attributed to the Palaeolithic Period.
• During the Palaeolithic era (Old Stone Age), early humans learned to control fire, which drastically changed their way of life.
• Fire was used for multiple purposes, including cooking food, providing warmth, protection from predators, and facilitating social interactions.
• Evidence of the controlled use of fire during this period has been found in archaeological sites such as caves and open-air settlements.
• Research suggests that early humans used natural sources of fire, such as lightning strikes, and later learned to create fire using tools like flint stones.

Additional Information

• Neolithic Period:
• The Neolithic Period, also known as the New Stone Age, is characterized by the advent of agriculture, domestication of animals, and permanent settlements.
• It marked a significant shift from a nomadic lifestyle to a more sedentary way of living.
• Humans in this era began using polished stone tools and developed pottery, but fire had already been discovered in earlier periods.
• Chalcolithic Period:
• The Chalcolithic Period, also known as the Copper Age, saw the introduction of metal tools made from copper alongside stone tools.
• It is primarily characterized by advancements in metallurgy and trade, but fire was already a well-established tool by this time.
• This period is considered a transitional phase between the Stone Age and the Bronze Age.
• Mesolithic Period:
• The Mesolithic Period is the middle phase between the Palaeolithic and Neolithic periods.
• During this era, humans refined their tools and continued to hunt and gather, but fire had already been discovered in the Palaeolithic period.
• Evidence from the Mesolithic era includes microliths (small stone tools) and increased interaction with the environment.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• The Punjab government announced a cash reward of ₹1 crore each to hockey players from the state who contribute to winning a bronze medal in the Paris Olympics 2024.
• This is part of the state’s effort to promote and support sports and motivate athletes representing India at the international level.
• Punjab has a rich history of producing elite hockey players who have contributed significantly to the Indian national hockey teams.
• The initiative reflects the state’s commitment to encouraging sports excellence and recognizing the hard work of athletes.
• Punjab is known for its robust sports policy, which includes financial incentives, job opportunities, and infrastructure development for athletes.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh has initiated various programs to promote sports, such as the "Khelo India" scheme and the establishment of sports universities.
• UP hosts major sports events and has supported athletes through its ‘One District One Sport’ scheme.
• Haryana
• The state offers one of the highest cash awards for Olympic medalists (₹6 crores for gold, ₹4 crores for silver, and ₹2.5 crores for bronze).
• Haryana’s sports policy includes job reservations, pension schemes, and training facilities for athletes.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra has been focusing on developing sports infrastructure and promoting sports culture through initiatives like the Maharashtra Olympic Movement.
• Maharashtra runs the Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Award, the state’s highest sports honour.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• The South Coastal Railway Zone, also known as the South Coast Railway (SCoR), is one of the newly proposed railway zones in India, and its headquarters is located in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
• The formation of this new railway zone was officially announced by the Ministry of Railways in February 2019, following demands for better regional representation in railway administration.
• This zone was carved out from the existing East Coast Railway and South Central Railway zones to improve the efficiency of operations and services in the region.
• The South Coast Railway Zone comprises three divisions: Vijayawada, Guntur, and Guntakal, which were previously part of the South Central Railway Zone.
• The creation of the South Coast Railway Zone is expected to boost railway infrastructure development and enhance connectivity in Andhra Pradesh, benefiting industries, tourism, and local passengers.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu is served by the Southern Railway Zone, which is headquartered in Chennai.
• The Southern Railway Zone is one of the oldest zones in India, established in 1951, and serves Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, and parts of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
• Major railway stations in Tamil Nadu include Chennai Central, Chennai Egmore, and Coimbatore Junction.
• Karnataka
• Karnataka is primarily served by the South Western Railway Zone, headquartered in Hubballi.
• The zone was formed in 2003 and comprises three divisions: Bengaluru, Mysuru, and Hubballi.
• Bengaluru City Railway Station (Krantivira Sangolli Rayanna) is a major hub for rail connectivity in Karnataka.
• Telangana
• Telangana is mainly served by the South Central Railway Zone, headquartered in Secunderabad.
• The South Central Railway Zone was formed in 1966 and covers parts of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
• Important railway stations in Telangana include Secunderabad Junction, Hyderabad Deccan, and Kacheguda.

The correct answer is Pir Panjal Range.

Key Points

• The Pir Panjal Range is part of the Inner Himalayan region and runs from northwest to southeast, forming a natural boundary between the Kashmir Valley and the outer plains.
• This range separates the Kashmir Valley from the lesser Himalayan regions and lies south of the main Himalayan range.
• It is known for its significant mountain passes like the Pir Panjal Pass, Banihal Pass, and Rohtang Pass, which have been crucial for trade and travel.
• The range is home to dense forests and is rich in biodiversity, contributing significantly to the ecology of the region.
• The Pir Panjal Range is also known for its beautiful landscapes and is a popular destination for trekking and tourism in India.

Additional Information

• Karakoram Range
• The Karakoram Range lies to the north of the Himalayan Range and forms the border between India, Pakistan, and China.
• It is home to some of the world’s highest peaks, including K2 (Mount Godwin-Austen), the second-highest peak in the world.
• The Siachen Glacier, the largest glacier in India, is located in the Karakoram Range.
• Known for its rugged terrain and harsh climate, the region has a sparse population.
• Ladakh Range
• The Ladakh Range lies to the north of the Zanskar Range and runs parallel to it.
• This range is a part of the Trans-Himalayas and is located in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
• Famous for its arid, barren landscapes and high-altitude passes, it plays a crucial role in Ladakh’s topography.
• Popular passes in this range include Khardung La and Chang La, which are among the highest motorable passes in the world.
• Dhauladhar Range
• The Dhauladhar Range is part of the Lesser Himalayas and lies to the south of the Pir Panjal Range.
• It is known for its steep slopes and sharp ridges and is prominent in the Kangra Valley region of Himachal Pradesh.
• It serves as a prominent tourist destination and is home to numerous trekking routes.
• Triund, a popular trekking spot, is located in the Dhauladhar Range.

Given:

Anusha's initial investment = ₹3,000

Anusha's investment period = 12 months

Minal's profit share ratio = 5

Anusha's profit share ratio = 4

Formula Used:

Profit sharing ratio = (Investment × Time period)

Total profit ratio = Anusha's share : Minal's share

Calculation:

⇒ Let Minal's investment = ₹X

⇒ Anusha's profit ratio = ₹3,000 × 12 = ₹36,000

⇒ Minal's profit ratio = ₹X × 9 (since Minal joined after 3 months)

⇒ Ratio = 36,000 : 9X = 4 : 5

⇒ (36,000 / 9X) = (4 / 5)

⇒ 5 × 36,000 = 4 × 9X

⇒ 1,80,000 = 36X

⇒ X = 1,80,000 / 36

⇒ X = ₹5,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹5,000.

Given:

Income in 2019 = ₹25,700

Annual increment = 10%

Formula Used:

Income in subsequent year = Previous year's income × (1 + Increment Percentage/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Income in 2020 = ₹25,700 × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ Income in 2020 = ₹25,700 × 1.10

⇒ Income in 2020 = ₹28,270

⇒ Income in 2021 = ₹28,270 × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ Income in 2021 = ₹28,270 × 1.10

⇒ Income in 2021 = ₹31,097

∴ The correct answer is ₹31,097.

Given:

Total production in 2021 = 400 tonnes

Total production in 2023 = 500 tonnes

Total production in 2018 = 470 tonnes

Total production in 2020 = 530 tonnes

Formula Used:

Total production (2021 + 2023) = 900

Total production (2018 + 2020) = 1000

Ratio = 900 / 1000

Calculation:

⇒ Total production (2021 + 2023) = 900

⇒ Total production (2018 + 2020) = 1000

⇒ Ratio = 900 / 1000

⇒ Ratio = 9 / 10

∴ The correct answer is 9 : 10.

Given:

Cost price ratio of X : Y = 2 : 3

Profit percentage on X = 36%

Loss percentage on Y = 14%

Formula Used:

Total cost price = Sum of individual cost prices

Total selling price = Selling price of X + Selling price of Y

Profit/Loss percentage = [(Total selling price - Total cost price) / Total cost price] × 100

Calculation:

Let the cost price of X = 2a and Y = 3a

⇒ Total cost price = 2a + 3a = 5a

Selling price of X = Cost price of X × (1 + Profit percentage)

⇒ Selling price of X = 2a × (1 + 36/100) = 2a × (136/100) = 2.72a

Selling price of Y = Cost price of Y × (1 - Loss percentage)

⇒ Selling price of Y = 3a × (1 - 14/100) = 3a × (86/100) = 2.58a

Total selling price = Selling price of X + Selling price of Y

⇒ Total selling price = 2.72a + 2.58a = 5.3a

Profit/Loss percentage = [(Total selling price - Total cost price) / Total cost price] × 100

⇒ Profit/Loss percentage = [(5.3a - 5a) / 5a] × 100

⇒ Profit/Loss percentage = (0.3a / 5a) × 100

⇒ Profit percentage = 6%

∴ The correct answer is Gain, 6%.

Given:

Number of students = 47

Average age of students = 12 years

Average age of the group including the teacher = 13 years

Formula Used:

Total age = Average × Number

Calculation:

⇒ Total age of students = 12 × 47 = 564

⇒ Total age of the group including the teacher = 13 × (47 + 1) = 13 × 48 = 624

⇒ Age of the teacher = Total age of group - Total age of students

⇒ Age of the teacher = 624 - 564 = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Given:

Marked Price = ₹738

Selling Price = ₹258

Formula Used:

Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price

Discount Percentage = (Discount / Marked Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount = ₹738 - ₹258

⇒ Discount = ₹480

⇒ Discount Percentage = (₹480 / ₹738) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = 65.04%

∴ The correct answer is 65.04%.

Given:

Profit percentage = 34%

Cost price increased by ₹50

Selling price reduced by ₹65

Profit percentage after changes = 16.4%

Formula Used:

Profit percentage = (Profit / Cost price) × 100

Profit = Selling price - Cost price

Calculation:

Let the original cost price be ₹x.

Original selling price = x + (34 / 100) × x = 1.34x

New cost price = x + 50

New selling price = 1.34x - 65

Profit with changes = New selling price - New cost price

Profit percentage with changes = (Profit / New cost price) × 100

Substitute values:

⇒ (1.34x - 65 - (x + 50)) / (x + 50) × 100 = 16.4

⇒ (1.34x - 65 - x - 50) / (x + 50) × 100 = 16.4

⇒ (0.34x - 115) / (x + 50) × 100 = 16.4

Divide by 100:

⇒ (0.34x - 115) / (x + 50) = 0.164

Multiply by (x + 50):

⇒ 0.34x - 115 = 0.164(x + 50)

Expand:

⇒ 0.34x - 115 = 0.164x + 8.2

Combine like terms:

⇒ 0.34x - 0.164x = 115 + 8.2

⇒ 0.176x = 123.2

Divide by 0.176:

⇒ x = 123.2 / 0.176

⇒ x = 700

∴ The correct answer is 700.

Given:

Product of two numbers = 20000

H.C.F = 100

Formula Used:

L.C.M × H.C.F = Product of two numbers

L.C.M = Product of two numbers / H.C.F

Calculation:

⇒ L.C.M = 20000 / 100

⇒ L.C.M = 200

∴ The correct answer is 200.

Solution:

Given ratio = 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4

Step 1: Convert to whole number ratio

LCM of 2, 3 and 4 = 12

Multiply each term by 12:

1/2 × 12 = 6

2/3 × 12 = 8

3/4 × 12 = 9

New ratio = 6 : 8 : 9

Step 2: Find total parts

6 + 8 + 9 = 23 parts

Step 3: Find value of one part

Total amount = 8510

One part = 8510 ÷ 23 = 370

Step 4: Find third part

Third part = 9 × 370

= 3330

Final Answer:

₹3330

Given:

Speed while going = 63 km/hr

Speed while returning = 99 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average speed = (2 × Speed while going × Speed while returning) / (Speed while going + Speed while returning)

Calculation:

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 63 × 99) / (63 + 99)

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 6237) / 162

⇒ Average speed = 12474 / 162

⇒ Average speed = 77 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 77 km/hr.

Given:

Average age of 39 students = 11 years

Number of students = 39

Average age of the group (including teacher) = 12 years

Total number of people (students + teacher) = 39 + 1 = 40

Formula Used:

Total age = Average age × Number of people

Age of teacher = Total age of group - Total age of students

Calculation:

⇒ Total age of students = 11 × 39 = 429

⇒ Total age of group = 12 × 40 = 480

⇒ Age of teacher = 480 - 429 = 51

∴ The correct answer is 51.

Given:

Percentage of number: 3%

Percentage of same number: 2%

Formula Used:

Percentage of one value to another = (Value 1 / Value 2) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ (3 / 2) × 100

⇒ 1.5 × 100

⇒ 150%

∴ The correct answer is 150%.

Given:

Length = 8 m

Breadth = 35 m

Height = 13 m

Formula Used:

Volume of cuboidal tank = Length × Breadth × Height

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = 8 × 35 × 13

⇒ Volume = 280 × 13

⇒ Volume = 3640 m³

∴ The correct answer is 3640.

Given:

Pipe A can fill the cistern in 14 hours.

Pipe B can fill the cistern in 36 hours.

We need to find the time taken to fill half the cistern when both pipes operate together.

Formula Used:

Work done by A in 1 hour = 1 / Time taken by A.

Work done by B in 1 hour = 1 / Time taken by B.

Work done by A and B together in 1 hour = Work done by A in 1 hour + Work done by B in 1 hour.

Time taken to fill half the cistern = (1 / Combined rate) × Required fraction of the cistern.

Calculation:

⇒ Work done by A in 1 hour = 1 / 14.

⇒ Work done by B in 1 hour = 1 / 36.

⇒ Combined work in 1 hour = (1 / 14) + (1 / 36).

⇒ Combined work in 1 hour = (36 + 14) / (14 × 36).

⇒ Combined work in 1 hour = 50 / 504.

⇒ Combined work in 1 hour = 25 / 252.

Time taken to fill half the cistern = (1 / (25 / 252)) × 1/2.

⇒ Time taken = (252 / 25) × 1/2.

⇒ Time taken = 252 / 50.

⇒ Time taken = 5(1/25) hours.

∴ The correct answer is 5(1/25) hours.

Given:

Diameter of the larger sphere = Diameter of the smaller sphere + 14 cm

Surface area of the larger sphere = Surface area of the smaller sphere + 6776 cm²

Formula Used:

Surface area of a sphere = 4πr²

Radius (r) = Diameter / 2

Calculation:

Let the diameter of the smaller sphere be d.

⇒ Diameter of the larger sphere = d + 14

⇒ Radius of the smaller sphere = d / 2

⇒ Radius of the larger sphere = (d + 14) / 2

Surface area of the smaller sphere = 4π(d / 2)²

Surface area of the larger sphere = 4π((d + 14) / 2)²

Difference in surface areas = 6776

⇒ 4π((d + 14) / 2)² - 4π(d / 2)² = 6776

⇒ 4π((d + 14)² / 4 - d² / 4) = 6776

⇒ π((d + 14)² - d²) = 6776

⇒ π(d² + 28d + 196 - d²) = 6776

⇒ π(28d + 196) = 6776

⇒ 28d + 196 = 6776 / π

⇒ 28d + 196 = 2156 (approximating π = 3.14)

⇒ 28d = 2156 - 196

⇒ 28d = 1960

⇒ d = 1960 / 28

⇒ d = 70

Diameter of the larger sphere = d + 14

⇒ Diameter of the larger sphere = 70 + 14

⇒ Diameter of the larger sphere = 84

∴ The correct answer is 84.

Solution:

Given expression:

20 × (10 × (2²)) ÷ 10 + 30 − 75

Step 1: Solve the innermost bracket

2² = 4

So,

10 × 4 = 40

Step 2: Multiply

20 × 40 = 800

Step 3: Divide

800 ÷ 10 = 80

Step 4: Add and subtract

80 + 30 = 110

110 − 75 = 35

Final Answer:

35

Solution:

From the ring chart:

Expenditure on Hockey = 14%

Step 1: Use central angle formula

Central angle = (Percentage ÷ 100) × 360

= (14 ÷ 100) × 360

= 0.14 × 360

= 50.4 degrees

Final Answer:

50.4°

Given:

Average price = ₹17,820

Ratio of prices = 3 : 5 : 7

Formula Used:

Sum of terms in ratio = 3 + 5 + 7

Price of cheapest item = (Ratio of cheapest item / Sum of terms in ratio) × Total price

Total price = Average price × 3

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of terms in ratio = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15

⇒ Total price = ₹17,820 × 3 = ₹53,460

⇒ Price of cheapest item = (3 / 15) × ₹53,460

⇒ Price of cheapest item = ₹10,692

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,692.

Given:

Time taken by pipe A to fill the tank = 29 hours

Time taken by pipe B to fill the tank = 10 hours

Formula Used:

Work done by a pipe in 1 hour = 1 / Time taken by the pipe

Total time to fill the tank when both pipes work together = 1 / (Work done by A in 1 hour + Work done by B in 1 hour)

Calculation:

⇒ Work done by A in 1 hour = 1 / 29

⇒ Work done by B in 1 hour = 1 / 10

⇒ Total work done in 1 hour = (1 / 29) + (1 / 10)

⇒ Total work done in 1 hour = (10 + 29) / (29 × 10)

⇒ Total work done in 1 hour = 39 / 290

⇒ Time taken to fill the tank = 1 / (39 / 290)

⇒ Time taken to fill the tank = 290 / 39

⇒ Time taken to fill the tank = 7(17/39) hours

∴ The correct answer is 7(17/39) hours.

Given:

Distance covered in the first part of the journey = 150 km

Time taken for the first part of the journey = 3 hours

Distance covered in the second part of the journey = 200 km

Time taken for the second part of the journey = 4 hours

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

Calculation:

⇒ Total Distance = 150 + 200 = 350 km

⇒ Total Time = 3 + 4 = 7 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 350 / 7 = 50 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 50 km/h.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by stating the inherent challenge of financial markets.
• Sentence A is the first sentence as it introduces the unpredictability of markets:
• "The unpredictable nature of financial markets makes it challenging for investors to devise foolproof strategies."
• Sentence B follows because it explains the limitations of analyses:
• "Although fundamental and technical analyses provide valuable insights, no method can completely eliminate uncertainty."
• Sentence C is the third sentence as it elaborates on the causes of volatility:
• "Hence, market volatility is influenced by a range of factors, including geopolitical events, economic indicators, and investor sentiment."
• Sentence D is the fourth as it concludes with the importance of risk management:
• "Therefore, risk management strategies, such as portfolio diversification and hedging, are essential to mitigate potential losses."
• The correct sequence is ABCD.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"The unpredictable nature of financial markets makes it challenging for investors to devise full proof strategies. Although fundamental and technical analyses provide valuable insights, no method can completely eliminate uncertainty. Hence, market volatility is influenced by a range of factors, including geopolitical events, economic indicators, and investor sentiment. Therefore, risk management strategies, such as portfolio diversification and hedging, are essential to mitigate potential losses."

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence discusses a passion for music and playing the flute, requiring specific articles.
• The article "the" is used with "flute" to indicate a specific instrument.
• No article is required before "music" as it is a general reference to music.
• Option 4 correctly matches the requirements of the sentence structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "My daughter has a passion for music and often accompanies me on the flute."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "the, the" is incorrect because "the" is not required before "music."
• Option 2: "the, a" is incorrect because "a" is inappropriate for a specific instrument like "flute."
• Option 3: "No article, No article" is incorrect as "the" is necessary before "flute."

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Modern).

Key Points

• The word "antiquated" means outdated, old-fashioned, or no longer useful due to being old. (पुराना, अप्रचलित)
• Example: The factory replaced its antiquated machines with more advanced technology.
• "Modern" refers to something that is current, up-to-date, or in line with the latest trends or technologies. (आधुनिक)
• Example: The modern library is equipped with a wide range of digital resources and facilities.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'antiquated' is 'modern'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Modern).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Expensive (महंगा): Something that costs a lot of money or is high in price.
• Example: The antique vase was very expensive and sold for thousands of dollars.
• Obsolete (अप्रचलित): No longer in use or outdated; similar in meaning to "antiquated."
• Example: The old typewriter is now considered obsolete due to the rise of computers.
• Slow (धीमा): Something that moves or operates at a low speed or takes a long time to perform.
• Example: The slow internet connection made it hard to download the files.

The correct answer is 'colder than yesterday'.

 

Key Points

• The correct comparative form of the adjective "cold" is "colder."
• The sentence uses a comparison ("than yesterday"), which requires the comparative form of the adjective.
• Option 1 ("more colder than yesterday") is incorrect because "more colder" is redundant.
• Option 2 ("colder to yesterday") is grammatically incorrect; the correct preposition is "than."
• Option 3 ("more cold than yesterday") is incorrect because "more cold" is not proper English usage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "The weather today is colder than yesterday."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "more colder than yesterday" is incorrect because "more" and "colder" cannot be used together.
• Option 2: "colder to yesterday" is incorrect because the preposition "to" is not used in comparisons.
• Option 3: "more cold than yesterday" is incorrect because "cold" should be replaced with the comparative form "colder."

The correct answer is 'faster than any other'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "faster than any other" is grammatically correct and conveys the intended comparison appropriately.
• In comparative sentences, "faster than" is used to compare one object with all others of the same kind.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are grammatically incorrect due to improper usage of comparative and superlative forms or incorrect sentence structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "This car is faster than any other model available at the dealership."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "fastest than any" is incorrect because "fastest" is a superlative form and cannot be used with "than any."
• Option 2: "more fast than any other" is incorrect because "more fast" is not a valid comparative form; the correct form is "faster."
• Option 3: "fastest than other" is incorrect because "fastest" (a superlative) cannot be used with "than other."

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by introducing the impact of artificial intelligence on decision-making processes.
• Sentence A is the first sentence as it sets the context of AI’s emergence:
• "The emergence of artificial intelligence has transformed traditional decision-making processes, integrating automation into various industries."
• Sentence C follows because it highlights both efficiency and the biases revealed in AI applications:
• "While AI offers efficiency and precision, its application in areas such as criminal justice and hiring has revealed inherent biases in algorithms."
• Sentence B is the third sentence as it raises ethical concerns linked to these biases:
• "However, ethical concerns have been raised regarding bias, transparency, and accountability in AI-driven decision-making."
• Sentence D is the fourth since it concludes with the solution—regulations and transparency:
• "To mitigate these risks, policymakers and researchers are advocating for stricter regulations and more transparent AI frameworks."
• The correct sequence is ACBD.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"The emergence of artificial intelligence has transformed traditional decision-making processes, integrating automation into various industries. While AI offers efficiency and precision, its application in areas such as criminal justice and hiring has revealed inherent biases in algorithms. However, ethical concerns have been raised regarding bias, transparency, and accountability in AI-driven decision-making. To mitigate these risks, policymakers and researchers are advocating for stricter regulations and more transparent AI frameworks."

The correct answer is: Equanimity.

Key Points

• The word "Equanimity" means mental calmness, composure, and evenness of temper, especially under stress. (समभाव / धैर्य)
• Example: She handled the heated debate with equanimity, never losing her calm.
• "Equanimity" allows a person to remain grounded and composed while everything around them shifts. (समभाव)
• Example: Despite the chaos in the office, his equanimity helped the team stay focused.
• Hence, the quality described in the passage is Equanimity.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Equanimity.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Temerity (अविवेकपूर्ण साहस): Reckless boldness or rashness.
• Example: He had the temerity to challenge the judge without proper evidence.
• Nihilism (नास्तिकवाद / शून्यवाद): The belief that life is meaningless and rejects all religious and moral principles.
• Example: His philosophy of nihilism made him indifferent to social norms.
• Vanity (अहंकार / घमंड): Excessive pride in one's appearance or achievements.
• Example: Her vanity about her looks often annoyed her colleagues.

The correct answer is: Harmony.

Key Points

• The word "cacophony" refers to a harsh, discordant mixture of sounds, often unpleasant to hear. (कर्कश ध्वनि)
• Example: The cacophony of construction work outside my house made it impossible to relax.
• "Harmony" refers to a pleasing and orderly arrangement of sounds or elements, often creating a sense of peace and balance. (सामंजस्य)
• Example: The gentle harmony of the orchestra created a serene atmosphere in the concert hall.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'cacophony' is 'harmony'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Harmony.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Clamour (कोलाहल): A loud and confused noise, usually made by a group of people.
• Example: The clamour of protesters outside the building echoed through the streets.
• Discord (विरोध): Disagreement or lack of harmony between people or sounds.
• Example: The discord between the band members led to their breakup.
• Racket (शोर): A loud, unpleasant noise, usually chaotic and disruptive.
• Example: The children were making such a racket that I couldn't focus on my work.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Some people or things are incompatible by nature.

Key Points

• The proverb "Oil and water do not mix" means that certain things or individuals are naturally incompatible and cannot function well together. (तेल और पानी कभी नहीं मिलते)
• Example: Despite their best efforts, the two co-workers could never get along—like oil and water, they simply didn’t mix.
• "Incompatible" refers to people, objects, or ideas that cannot exist harmoniously or be combined successfully. (असंगत)
• Example: The two friends had such incompatible personalities that they eventually drifted apart.
• Hence, the proverb emphasizes the impossibility of merging certain things or individuals due to their fundamental differences.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: It is never too late to correct one's mistake (अपनी गलती को सुधारने में कभी देर नहीं होती): This emphasizes that we can always make amends for our wrong actions, regardless of the time.
• Example: He finally apologized to his friend, proving that it is never too late to correct one's mistake.
• Option 2: A bad parent brings up bad children (एक खराब माता-पिता खराब बच्चे को पालता है): This highlights how the behavior and values of parents can impact their children negatively.
• Example: It is often said that a bad parent brings up bad children, as children learn from their parents' actions.
• Option 4: It is bad to compare people to one another (लोगों की तुलना करना बुरा है): This teaches that comparison can hurt relationships and individual self-esteem.
• Example: Comparing siblings can create unnecessary rivalry, which shows that it is bad to compare people to one another.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'convergance'.

• The correct spelling would be 'convergence'.
• The word 'convergence' is a noun which means 'the process or state of coming together from different directions to meet at a point'. (सम्मिलन)
• For Example -
• The convergence of technology and education has brought about innovative teaching methods.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'convergance'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Transcendent - surpassing the ordinary; exceptional (असाधारण)
• Interdisciplinary - relating to more than one branch of knowledge (अंतरविषयक)
• Fosters - encourages or promotes the development of something (प्रोत्साहित करना)

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Happening infrequently.

Key Points

• The idiom "Once in a blue moon" refers to something that happens very rarely or infrequently. (बहुत ही कम बार)
• Example: She visits her grandparents once in a blue moon, as her schedule is always packed.
• Happening infrequently is the correct interpretation of the idiom "Once in a blue moon." It emphasizes the rare occurrence of something. (कभी-कभार होने वाली घटना)
• Example: The phenomenon of seeing a comet is something that happens once in a blue moon.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Happening bimonthly (दो महीने में एक बार होने वाला): Refers to something that occurs every two months or twice a month.
• Example: We have a team meeting bimonthly to discuss progress.
• Happening during the full moon (पूर्णिमा के समय होने वाला): Refers to events that occur during the full moon.
• Example: The festival is celebrated during the full moon in October.
• Happening frequently (अक्सर होने वाला): Refers to something that occurs very often or regularly.
• Example: She visits the library frequently to borrow books.

The correct answer is 'the ; No article required'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence uses the definite article "the" before the word "relevance" because it refers to a specific relevance being discussed.
• The second blank does not require an article before "democracy" as it refers to the concept of democracy in general.
• Option 1 correctly matches this pattern, while the other options either use incorrect articles or omit them incorrectly.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "They discussed the relevance of No article required democracy in modern times."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "No article required; a" is incorrect because "a" cannot precede "democracy" in this context.
• Option 3: "a ; the" is incorrect because "a" cannot precede "relevance," which is specific in this context.
• Option 4: "a ; a" is incorrect because "a" is not appropriate for either blank.

The correct answer is: Verbosity.

Key Points

• The word "verbosity" refers to the use of more words than necessary; excessive wordiness in speech or writing. (बातूनीपन या अत्यधिक शब्द उपयोग)
• Example: His verbosity made it difficult to follow the main point of his speech.
• "Conciseness" means expressing ideas clearly and succinctly, using the fewest words possible while still conveying the intended meaning. (संक्षिप्तता)
• Example: The conciseness of her explanation helped everyone understand the concept quickly.
• In the context of the statement, "Be precise to communicate effectively. Avoid unnecessary details and descriptions," the correct word to use is "Verbosity", as it describes the state of using unnecessary details and descriptions.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Verbosity.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Verbosity (बातूनीपन): The quality of using more words than needed in communication.
• Example: The professor’s verbosity made his lectures unnecessarily long.
• Ambiguity (अस्पष्टता): The quality of being open to more than one interpretation; lack of clarity.
• Example: The ambiguity in his statement caused confusion among the audience.
• Clarity (स्पष्टता): The quality of being clear and easy to understand.
• Example: Her clarity in explaining the topic impressed everyone.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Intermitent'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Intermittent'.
• The word 'Intermittent' is an adjective which means 'occurring at irregular intervals; not continuous or steady'. (रुक-रुक कर होने वाला)
• For Example -
• The rain was intermittent throughout the day.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Intermitent'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Jewellery - personal ornaments, such as necklaces, rings, or bracelets, that are typically made from or contain jewels and precious metal (आभूषण)
• Professional - relating to or connected with a profession (पेशेवर)
• Immediate - occurring or done at once; instant (तत्काल)

The correct answer is 'fastest'.

 

Key Points

• The blank requires a superlative form to indicate that she was the best among all contestants.
• The word "fastest" is the correct superlative form of the adjective "fast."
• Option 1: "faster" is incorrect because it is a comparative form, not superlative.
• Option 2: "more fast" is grammatically incorrect as "fast" does not take "more" to form a comparative or superlative.
• Option 4: "most fast" is incorrect because "fast" already has a superlative form: "fastest."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Out of all the contestants, she was the fastest to finish the race."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "faster" is a comparative adjective used for comparing two entities, e.g., "She is faster than him."
• Option 2: "more fast" is grammatically incorrect as "fast" should not use "more" for comparisons.
• Option 4: "most fast" is incorrect because "fast" has a proper superlative form: "fastest."

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The passage clearly states: "The Sun, a medium-sized star, is the centre of the Solar System and contains about 99.8% of its total mass."
• Therefore, the correct answer is The Sun.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: The Sun.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2 (The Moon): Incorrect, as the Moon is a satellite of Earth, not the centre of the Solar System.
• Option 3 (The Earth): Incorrect, as Earth is one of the planets orbiting the Sun.
• Option 4 (The Stars): Incorrect, as the Sun is the specific star at the centre of our Solar System.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The passage states: "The terrestrial planets—Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars—are rocky and have solid surfaces."
• Therefore, the terrestrial planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.
• Other options incorrectly include gas giants like Jupiter and Saturn.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect, as Jupiter and Saturn are gas giants, not terrestrial planets.
• Option 3: Incorrect, as Jupiter is a gas giant.
• Option 4: Incorrect, as Saturn is a gas giant.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The passage states: "Jupiter is the largest planet in the Solar System with a prominent system of rings and moons."
• This makes rings and moon the correct answer.
• Other options (high temperature, low pressure belt, hot surface) are not mentioned as unique features of Jupiter in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: Rings and moon.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect, high temperature is not mentioned as Jupiter's unique feature.
• Option 3: Incorrect, low pressure belt is not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 4: Incorrect, hot surface is not a characteristic of Jupiter in the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• The passage states: "The asteroid belt, located between Mars and Jupiter, contains numerous rocky bodies."
• Therefore, the asteroid belt is between Mars and Jupiter.
• Other options list incorrect locations not supported by the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: Between Mars and Jupiter.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect; the asteroid belt is not between Jupiter and Saturn.
• Option 3: Incorrect; it is not between Mercury and Venus.
• Option 4: Incorrect; it is not between Mars and Earth.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

• The passage states: "Comets, which originate from the Kuiper Belt and the distant Oort Cloud, are made of ice and dust and develop spectacular tails when they approach the Sun."
• Therefore, comets are primarily made of ice and dust.
• Other options do not accurately reflect the composition as described in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: Ice and dust.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect; water and gas are not specified as the primary components.
• Option 3: Incorrect; sand and stones are not mentioned.
• Option 4: Incorrect; rock and metal are typical of asteroids, not comets.

सही उत्तर है - पशुचारण काव्य में आदिम मनोभावों की अभिव्यक्ति होती है।

Key Points

• शुद्ध वाक्य: "पशुचारण काव्य में आदिम मनोभावों की अभिव्यक्ति होती है।"
• इसमें 'पशुचारण काव्य' (विषय/आधार) सबसे पहले है,
• उसके बाद 'आदिम मनोभावों की अभिव्यक्ति' (विषय वस्तु) और अंत में 'होती है' (क्रिया) का प्रयोग हुआ है।
• यह एक व्यवस्थित और अर्थपूर्ण प्रवाह बनाता है।

Important Pointsवाक्य शुद्धि के लिए मुख्य नियम:

• पदक्रम: कर्ता सबसे पहले और क्रिया सबसे अंत में आती है।
• समय और स्थान: सामान्यतः कर्ता के बाद समय और स्थान का उल्लेख किया जाता है।
• विशेषण: जिस शब्द की विशेषता बतानी हो, विशेषण उससे ठीक पहले आता है।

Additional Information 

सही उत्तर है - के लिए

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य: "प्रदूषण को कम करने के लिए अधिकाधिक वृक्षारोपण करना चाहिए।"
• यहाँ संप्रदान कारक का प्रयोग हुआ है।
• जब वाक्य में किसी को कुछ दिया जाए या किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए तो वहां पर सम्प्रदान कारक होता है।
• सम्प्रदान कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह के लिए या को हैं।
• जैसे -
• भिखारी को दान दो।
• बच्चों के लिए खिलौने लाओ।

Important Pointsहिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Information कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- राम ने रावण को मारा ।

सही उत्तर है - दुर्बोध

Key Points

• 'कठिनाई से समझने योग्य' वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा - दुर्बोध
• वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

• दुर्गम: जहाँ पहुँचना कठिन हो।
• वाणी: बोलने की शक्ति या शब्द।
• गणित: अंकों या गणना का शास्त्र।

Additional Information

  कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

सही क्रम है- 2413

Key Points

• वाक्य का सही संयोजन इस प्रकार होगा:
• दो साल पहले हम (2)
• कश्मीर गए थे, तब यह (4)
• शॉल तुम्हारे पिताजी (1)
• के लिए खरीदी थी (3)
• पूरा वाक्य: "दो साल पहले हम कश्मीर गए थे, तब यह शॉल तुम्हारे पिताजी के लिए खरीदी थी।"

Additional Informationक्रम व्यवस्थापन-

• किसी अव्यवस्थित वाक्य के खंडों (य, र, ल, व) या वाक्यों को व्याकरण
• और अर्थ के आधार पर सही क्रम में लगाना ताकि वे एक सार्थक अनुच्छेद या वाक्य बना सकें।

सही उत्तर है - के, पर

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य: "संतानों के पालन पोषण पर समुचित ध्यान देना आवश्यक है।"
• यहाँ 'के' का प्रयोग संतानों और उनके 'पालन पोषण' के बीच संबंध दर्शाने के लिए किया गया है।
• पालन पोषण पर (अधिकरण कारक) 'ध्यान देना' क्रिया के लिए आधार की आवश्यकता होती है।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।
• सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं।
• उदाहरण - भरत राम के भाई थे। वह राहुल की कार है।
• अधिकरण का अर्थ होता है – आश्रय। संज्ञा का वह रूप जिससे क्रिया के आधार का बोध हो उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं।
• इसकी विभक्ति में और पर होती है। भीतर, अंदर, ऊपर, बीच आदि शब्दों का प्रयोग इस कारक में किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण - वह स्कूल में पढ़ता है। मेज पर किताब है।

Important Pointsहिन्दी में आठ कारक हैं -

Additional Informationकारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- मैंने बच्चे को किताब दी।

सही उत्तर है - से दीछा लेकर

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - नामदेव किसी गुरु से दीछा लेकर अपनी सगुण भक्ति में प्रवृत्त नहीं हुए थे।
• दिए गये वाक्य में वर्तनी प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'से दीछा लेकर' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'से दीक्षा लेकर' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - नामदेव किसी गुरु से दीक्षा​ लेकर अपनी सगुण भक्ति में प्रवृत्त नहीं हुए थे।
• वर्तनी - भाषा के किसी शब्द ��ो को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के सही क्रम को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Information वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

सही उत्तर है - ईंधन

Key Points

• वाक्य - तुम जा कर चूल्हे के लिए जलावन ले आओ ।
• 'ईंधन' का पर्यायवाची शब्द - जलावन होगा।
• 'ईंधन' के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - ​काष्ठ, ईंधन सामग्री, आग जलाने का सामान, ऊर्ज़ा स्रोत। ​
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

• 'गुड़' ​के पर्यायवाची शब्द - ​शर्करा, रसज, और बेला।
• 'स्तम्भ' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - ​खंभा, थंभ, थूनी, स्तूप, आधार।
• 'थाल' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - थाली, तश्तरी, परात, स्थाली, कांसा/कांस्य पात्र, बड़ा बर्तन ।

Additional Information  कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - निषेध

Key Points

• वाक्य - अपराधी ने अपने ऊपर लगे सभी आरोपों का खंडन किया।
• 'खंडन'​ का पर्यायवाची शब्द - 'निषेध' होगा।
• 'खंडन'​ के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द- अस्वीकार, अस्वीकृति, प्रतिवाद, रद्द करना, विरोध, निराकरण, मिथ्याकरण, काट । ​
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

• 'खड्डा' के पर्यायवाची शब्द ​ - गड्ढा, गर्त, खात, खाई, गड़हा, और खोल जागा।
• 'खांड' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - खँडसार, शक्कर, राब, और कच्ची शक्कर।
• 'खेती' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - कृषि, किसानी, खेतीबाड़ी, काश्त, कृषिकर्म।

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -