DSSSB TGT (Natural Science) Official Paper (Held On: 06 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given: Seven boxes, A, S, D, F, G, H and J, are placed one above the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1) Only one box is placed above D.

2. Only three boxes are placed between D and H.

3) Only J is placed between S and D. 

4) F is placed one of the places below H.

5) A is placed one of the places below G.

Thus, three boxes are placed between G and A.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

(17, 102, 204)

17 × 6 = 102

102 × 2 = 204

And,

(12, 72, 144) 

12 × 6 = 72

72 × 2 = 144

Similarly,

(14, 84, 168)

14 × 6 = 84

84 × 2 = 168

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: Six students are seated around a round table, facing the center. 

1) Henry sits third to the right of Fiona.

2. Fiona is the immediate neighbor of both Ilan and Albie. 

3) Galvin is the immediate neighbor of both Ilan and Henry.

4) Jack sits to the immediate left of Albie.

Thus, two people sit between Ilan and Jack, counting from Jack's left.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) PSO

Option 2) NQM

Option 3) DGC

​Option 4) KIH

Thus, out of all 'KIH' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

48-41-34-27

48 - 7 = 41

41 - 7 = 34

34 - 7 = 27

And,

59-52-45-38

59 - 7 = 52

52 - 7 = 45

45 - 7 = 38

Similarly,

76-69-62-55

76 - 7 = 69

69 - 7 = 62

62 - 7 = 55

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given series: (Left) 458 372 496 527 612 (Right)

According to the question:

Thus, one number will remain unchanged if all the numbers are arranged in descending order.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given Expression: P % L-K #V #T + Z

P % L → P is the father of L.

L-K → L is the brother of K.

K #V → K is the daughter of V. 

V #T → V is the daughter of T. 

T + Z → T is the mother of Z. 

Thus, L is Z's sister's son.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) All wings are cars → Does not follow (As all wings are toys and all cars are toys. So it is possible but not definite.)

(II) No cars are dogs → Follow (As all cars are toys and no toys are dogs. As whole cars comes in toys which cannot be dogs, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion (II) follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) LQ-OS

Option 2) PU-SX

Option 3) CH-FK

​Option 4) GL-JO

Thus, out of all 'LQ-OS' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

EDIT-DIET - TIDE

And,

SOLD-OLSD - DLOS

Similarly,

MAKE-AKME - EKAM

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Decoding signs:

Given: 24 B 5C 6A 44 D 2 = ? 

24 B 5C 6A 44 D 2 = ? ⇒ 24 - 5 × 6 + 44 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 24 - 5 × 6 + 44 ÷ 2 = ?

⇒ 24 - 5 × 6 + 22 = ?

⇒ 24 + 22 - 30 = ?

⇒ 46 - 30 = ?

⇒ 16 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

According to the question:

Thus, 'D' is coded as '2'.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: All 91 people are standing in a line, facing north. Rest is 15^th from the right end, while Work is 39^th from the left end.

Total people → 91

Rest's rank from the right end → 15^th

Work's rank from the left end → 39^th

Total people between Rest and Work → Total people - Rest's rank from the right end - Work's rank from the left end

→ 91 - 15 - 39 = 37

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given series: (Left) 238 462 892 854 513 (Right)

According to the question:

Third digit of the second highest number → 854 → 4

Second digit of the lowest number → 238 → 3

Thus, the result of the third digit of the second highest number is added to the second digit of the lowest number is → 4 + 3 = 7

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: 

In a school parade, the Grade 2 students were south of the Grade 1 students and east of the Grade 3 students.

The Grade 4 students were south of the Grade 3 students.

Thus, Grade 4 students to the southwest of Grade 1 students.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Decoding signs:

Given: 32 ÷ 198 × 18 + 5 - 7 = ? 

32 ÷ 198 × 18 + 5 - 7 = ? ⇒ 32 + 198 ÷ 18 - 5 × 7 = ?

⇒ 32 + 198 ÷ 18 - 5 × 7 = ?

⇒ 32 + 11 - 5 × 7 = ?

⇒ 32 + 11 - 35 = ?

⇒ 43 - 35 = ?

⇒ 8 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given Statement: Despite having a large number of skilled graduates, country A is facing a shortage of skilled workforce in the technology sector.

Reasons:

I. Many skilled graduates from country A migrate to other countries for better career opportunities and higher salaries. → Possible

This explains that even though the country produces many skilled graduates, a large portion of them migrate abroad, so fewer remain to work in the technology sector. This directly leads to a shortage of skilled workforce.

II. The technology sector in country A is facing challenges such as under-developed infrastructure and limited investment in research and development. → Possible

This explains that technology sector itself is weak due to poor infrastructure and research & development investment. This results in fewer quality jobs, fewer opportunities, and slower industry growth, contributing to the shortage.

Thus, Both I and II are possible reasons.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The Correct answer is Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

Key Points

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy is considered the founder of Brahmo Samaj, which was one of the earliest socio-religious reform movements in India.
• Brahmo Samaj was established in 1828 in Kolkata to reform and modernize Hindu society.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a prominent social reformer and is often regarded as the Father of the Indian Renaissance.
• He worked to abolish practices like sati (the immolation of widows) and advocated for widow remarriage.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a strong proponent of Western education, rational thinking, and scientific temper.
• Brahmo Samaj promoted the principles of monotheism and opposed idol worship and caste discrimination.
• It played a significant role in shaping the socio-cultural reform movements in India during the 19^th century.
• Raja Ram Mohan Roy also worked to modernize India by advocating for freedom of the press and human rights.

Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi
• Mahatma Gandhi, also known as the Father of the Nation in India, was a key figure in India's struggle for independence from British rule.
• He led movements like the Non-Cooperation Movement, Dandi March, and Quit India Movement.
• He is closely associated with the principles of non-violence (ahimsa) and civil disobedience.
• Gandhi focused on socio-economic reforms such as abolishing untouchability and promoting khadi (hand-spun cloth).
• Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
• Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the architect of the Indian Constitution.
• He was a social reformer who worked extensively for the upliftment of Dalits and the abolition of caste-based discrimination.
• He was the leader of the Dalit Buddhist Movement and emphasized education and political participation for marginalized communities.
• Swami Vivekananda
• Swami Vivekananda was a disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and a key figure in spreading Indian philosophy worldwide.
• He represented India at the Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago in 1893 and spoke about the universal values of Hinduism.
• He founded the Ramakrishna Mission, focusing on social service and spiritual development.
• Swami Vivekananda emphasized the importance of education, self-confidence, and youth empowerment.

The Correct answer is Swaran Singh Committee.

Key Points

• The Swaran Singh Committee was constituted during the National Emergency (1975-1977) by the Indira Gandhi Government.
• This committee was tasked with studying and recommending the incorporation of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution.
• Based on its recommendations, the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976 was enacted, which introduced a new part, Part IVA, to the Constitution.
• The 42^nd Amendment added ten Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution. These duties emphasize the moral obligations of citizens to promote patriotism and uphold the unity of India.
• Later, the 86^th Amendment Act, 2002, added one more duty, bringing the total number of Fundamental Duties to eleven.
• The Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not legally enforceable but act as a moral code for citizens.

Additional Information

• J.S. Verma Committee
• The J.S. Verma Committee was constituted in 1999 to operationalize the ideas of Fundamental Duties and suggest ways to enforce them.
• This committee emphasized the importance of spreading awareness among citizens about their Fundamental Duties.
• Iyengar Committee
• The Iyengar Committee was set up in 1948 to prepare the draft of the Indian Constitution.
• It is not directly related to the Fundamental Duties.
• Santhanam Committee
• The Santhanam Committee was formed in 1964 to examine and recommend measures to combat corruption in India.
• Its focus was on administrative reforms, not on Fundamental Duties.

The Correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The Odisha government has pledged sponsorship for the Indian men's and women's hockey teams till the year 2036.
• This sponsorship reflects Odisha's strong commitment to promoting hockey and supporting the development of the sport in India.
• Odisha has emerged as the hub for hockey in India, hosting several national and international hockey tournaments.
• The state has constructed world-class hockey infrastructure, including the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, which is recognized as one of the best hockey venues globally.
• Odisha has a rich history of supporting sports, including its role as the official sponsor of the Indian hockey teams since 2018.
• The sponsorship deal ensures consistent funding, facilities, and resources for the Indian hockey teams, contributing to their performance and global competitiveness.
• By extending the sponsorship till 2036, Odisha reinforces its position as a key stakeholder in Indian sports development.

Additional Information

• West Bengal
• West Bengal is known for its cultural heritage and contributions to sports like football and cricket.
• The state is home to famous football clubs such as Mohun Bagan and East Bengal.
• However, West Bengal has not been prominently involved in sponsoring hockey teams at the national level.
• Chhattisgarh
• Chhattisgarh is known for its mineral resources and tribal culture.
• The state has shown interest in promoting sports but does not have a significant history of hockey sponsorships.
• It focuses on sports like archery, wrestling, and athletics, popular among its tribal communities.
• Bihar
• Bihar is primarily recognized for its contributions to traditional sports like kabaddi.
• The state has not made substantial investments in hockey infrastructure or sponsorships at the national level.
• Bihar has been working on improving its sports facilities in recent years but is not associated with hockey sponsorships.

The correct answer is Special Officer.

Key Points

• The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed under Article 350B of the Indian Constitution.
• This officer is responsible for investigating all matters relating to the constitutional safeguards provided for linguistic minorities and reporting to the President of India.
• The Special Officer submits annual or special reports to the President, which are then laid before each House of Parliament and sent to the concerned state governments.
• The position of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created to ensure the protection of the rights of linguistic minorities in India and to promote linguistic harmony.
• The officer works under the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India.
• The primary objective of this role is to address issues related to language barriers, discrimination, and challenges faced by linguistic minorities.

Additional Information

• Prime Minister
• The Prime Minister is the head of the government of India and is responsible for the administration of the country.
• The Prime Minister does not directly investigate matters related to linguistic minorities but oversees the functioning of ministries, including the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
• President
• The President of India is the constitutional head of the state and receives reports from the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
• The President lays these reports before the Parliament but does not directly investigate matters related to linguistic minorities.
• Language Commission
• The Language Commission is constituted under Article 344 of the Indian Constitution to make recommendations regarding the official language of India.
• It primarily deals with the promotion and development of the official language and does not handle issues specific to linguistic minorities.

The correct answer is 0.798.

Key Points

• According to the 2011 Census of India, the percentage of the Hindu population in India was approximately 79.8%.
• The Hindu population in India forms the majority religious group, accounting for nearly four-fifths of the total population.
• The census data is collected by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India.
• India is home to various religious communities, but Hinduism is the predominant religion.
• The census categorizes the population into major religious groups such as Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, and others.
• The 2011 Census highlighted the religious diversity of India while affirming that Hindus form the largest group.
• Hinduism has a deep cultural and historical influence in India, with its practices, beliefs, and traditions shaping the country's social fabric.
• The data is critical for understanding demographic trends and planning policies related to education, healthcare, and social welfare.

Additional Information

• 2011 Census
• The 2011 Census of India is the 15^th National Census conducted by the Government of India.
• It provides detailed information on various demographic factors such as population size, religion, literacy, and age distribution.
• The census acts as a foundation for policy-making, developmental planning, and resource allocation in India.
• Demographic Trends
• India is one of the world's most religiously diverse nations.
• The religious composition of the population impacts the country's social, cultural, and political landscape.
• Understanding demographic trends helps in addressing regional imbalances and fostering social harmony.

The Correct answer is Arvind Panagariya.

Key Points

• Arvind Panagariya is an eminent economist and academician, well-known for his contribution to economic policy and research.
• He served as the first Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog, which replaced the Planning Commission as India's primary policy think tank.
• He is a professor of economics at Columbia University, United States, specializing in international trade, economic development, and Indian economic policies.
• He was formerly the Chief Economist at the Asian Development Bank.
• Arvind Panagariya has authored several books, including "India: The Emerging Giant", which provides insight into India's economic transformation.
• He holds a Ph.D. in Economics from Princeton University.
• His expertise in economic policy and governance makes him a suitable candidate for chairing a significant commission like the Finance Commission, which plays a pivotal role in India's financial resource distribution.

Additional Information

• Nirmala Sitharaman
• Nirmala Sitharaman is the current Finance Minister of India.
• She is responsible for presenting the Union Budget and managing India's financial and economic affairs.
• She is the first full-time female Finance Minister of India.
• She has also served as the Minister of Defence before taking charge of the Finance Ministry.
• Annie George Mathew
• Annie George Mathew is an officer of the Indian Revenue Service (IRS).
• She has held significant positions in the Ministry of Finance, contributing to policy implementation related to taxation and revenue collection.
• Soumya Kanti Ghosh
• Soumya Kanti Ghosh is the Chief Economic Advisor of the State Bank of India (SBI).
• He is known for his expertise in banking and financial sector policies.
• He regularly provides insights into India's banking system and macroeconomic trends.

The Correct answer is By establishing an integrated digital platform for inter-ministerial coordination.

Key Points

• The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan was launched by the Indian government to ensure multi-modal connectivity and efficient project implementation.
• The plan involves creating an integrated digital platform that facilitates coordination among various ministries and departments.
• This platform provides real-time information, enabling synergized decision-making for infrastructure projects.
• The aim is to reduce project delays, eliminate redundancies, and optimize resources to enhance India's infrastructure development.
• The platform allows ministries to share data, track progress, and ensure alignment between projects such as highways, railways, ports, and airports.
• The plan also supports the logistics sector by improving transportation and reducing costs, which is vital for economic growth.
• This initiative aligns with India's goal of becoming a global hub for manufacturing and trade by fostering seamless connectivity.
• The GIS-based system under the plan integrates data related to economic zones, industrial parks, and connectivity infrastructure.

Additional Information

• By developing new ports specifically for international trade
• Developing new ports is important for enhancing international trade, but the PM Gati Shakti plan focuses on integrating existing infrastructure rather than solely constructing new ports.
• India is already working on port development under initiatives such as the Sagar Mala project.
• By increasing the number of highways in rural areas
• While rural connectivity is a priority under other schemes such as the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana, the PM Gati Shakti plan is aimed at multi-modal infrastructure development rather than focusing solely on rural highways.
• By focusing solely on urban infrastructure development
• The PM Gati Shakti plan does not limit itself to urban infrastructure. It is a comprehensive initiative that includes infrastructure development in both urban and rural areas.
• It seeks to create a balanced approach for economic zones, logistics parks, and connectivity across regions.

The correct answer is 13.

Key Points

• The National Science Awards were introduced in 2024 to recognize and celebrate outstanding contributions in the field of science and technology in India.
• In the first edition of these awards, a total of 13 scientists were honored with the prestigious Vigyan Shri Award.
• The award aims to acknowledge the efforts of individuals who have made significant advancements in scientific research and innovation, contributing to national growth and global recognition.
• The selection process for the Vigyan Shri Award involves rigorous evaluation by a panel of experts to ensure that only the most deserving scientists are recognized.
• The awardees represent diverse fields of science, including physics, chemistry, biology, engineering, and environmental sciences, highlighting the multidisciplinary approach to scientific development.
• These awards are part of the government’s initiative to promote a culture of scientific inquiry and inspire young minds to pursue careers in science and technology.

Additional Information

• Key Points to Remember:
• The Vigyan Shri Award is one of the most esteemed science awards in India.
• It encourages scientific innovation and recognizes excellence in cutting-edge research and development.
• The introduction of the National Science Awards reflects the growing emphasis on science and technology for national progress.
• Such awards also play a critical role in fostering an environment of scientific excellence and innovation.

The Correct answer is 1950.

Key Points

• The Bihar Official Languages Act was enacted in the year 1950.
• According to this act, Hindi in the Devanagari script was officially adopted as the language for official purposes of the state.
• This act was a significant step in ensuring the implementation of linguistic uniformity in the state administration and governance.
• During that period, the focus was on promoting Hindi as a national language in newly independent India, and states including Bihar adhered to this directive.
• The use of Hindi in official purposes aimed to improve administrative efficiency and foster a sense of national integration.
• The adoption of Hindi in the Devanagari script was in line with Article 343 of the Indian Constitution, which declares Hindi as the official language of the Union.
• This act played an important role in standardizing administrative processes and promoting the cultural heritage of the Hindi-speaking population in Bihar.

Additional Information

• 1949
• No specific act regarding the official language of Bihar was passed in this year.
• The year 1949 is significant in Indian history as it marked the adoption of the Constitution of India on November 26, which came into effect in 1950.
• 1948
• No official language act was passed in Bihar during this year.
• 1948 was a period of transition for India post-independence, focusing on the reorganization of administrative systems.
• 1947
• 1947 is the year of India’s independence, but no specific legislation regarding the official language of Bihar was enacted during this year.

The correct answer is Akbar.

Key Points

• Akbar, the third Mughal emperor, introduced the policy of Sulh-i-Kul, meaning "peace for all."
• This policy was based on the principles of religious tolerance and aimed at ensuring harmony among people of different religions.
• The idea of Sulh-i-Kul was rooted in Akbar's vision of a secular administration, where all religions were treated equally.
• Under Sulh-i-Kul, Akbar abolished the Jizya tax, which was levied on non-Muslims, and encouraged interfaith dialogue.
• Akbar established the Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) in Fatehpur Sikri, where scholars of various religions, including Islam, Hinduism, Christianity, and Zoroastrianism, would debate and discuss religious matters.
• The policy was part of Akbar's broader efforts to integrate the diverse population of India into a unified political framework.
• Sulh-i-Kul laid the foundation for Akbar's administrative reforms, which focused on creating an inclusive and efficient governance system.

Additional Information

• Humayun
• Humayun was the second Mughal emperor and the father of Akbar.
• His reign was marked by frequent conflicts and struggles with Sher Shah Suri, who briefly displaced him from power.
• Humayun was known for his interest in Persian culture and art, but he did not implement a policy like Sulh-i-Kul.
• Jahangir
• Jahangir, Akbar's son, was the fourth Mughal emperor. His reign saw the continuation of Akbar's policies of tolerance but did not involve the initiation of Sulh-i-Kul.
• Jahangir was known for his love of art and architecture and his support for Persian aesthetics.
• Babur
• Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, established Mughal rule in India after the Battle of Panipat in 1526.
• While Babur laid the foundation of the empire, he did not implement policies like Sulh-i-Kul, as his reign was more focused on military conquests.

The correct answer is in parallel.

Key Points

• Street lights and house lights are connected in parallel to ensure that each light operates independently.
• In a parallel connection, the components are connected across common points or junctions, allowing the current to split and flow through multiple paths.
• This arrangement ensures that even if one light fails, the other lights will continue to function, providing reliability and safety.
• Parallel connections maintain the same voltage across all components, which is essential for devices like household electrical appliances and street lights that require a constant voltage supply.
• Such a configuration allows for efficient power distribution and prevents the entire system from shutting down due to a single fault.
• Parallel circuits are extensively used in domestic and industrial electrical systems to ensure smooth operation and proper functioning of multiple devices.
• In contrast to series circuits, parallel circuits avoid voltage drops across individual components, thereby providing better energy management.

Additional Information

• In series - in parallel
• This option suggests a combination of series and parallel circuits, but street lights and house lights are typically connected in pure parallel configurations.
• While some systems may combine series and parallel arrangements for specific purposes, this is not the standard setup for lighting systems.
• In series
• In a series circuit, components are connected end-to-end, allowing the same current to flow through all components.
• If one component fails in a series circuit, the entire system stops functioning, making it unsuitable for street and house lighting systems.
• Voltage drops occur across each component, which can result in unequal brightness or failure to operate some lights effectively.
• End to end
• End-to-end is not a standard electrical configuration for connecting lights.
• This term may refer to a physical arrangement rather than an electrical connection.
• It does not ensure independent operation or reliability of lights in case of faults.

The Correct answer is December and January only.

Key Points

• The months of December and January are considered the coldest months in the northern part of India.
• During this period, the region experiences low temperatures, especially in states like Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Delhi.
• The northern plains are impacted by the western disturbances, which bring occasional rain and snowfall, further lowering the temperatures.
• In these months, cold waves and dense fog are common occurrences in northern India.
• The temperature can drop below freezing point in some areas of the northern mountains.
• This period is characterized by a dry winter season, with minimal precipitation in most parts of northern India.
• The agricultural cycle during these months involves the Rabi crops, which are sown in winter and harvested in spring.

Additional Information

• December to February
• While December to February is considered the winter season in India, the peak cold months are specifically December and January.
• February usually experiences a gradual rise in temperatures due to the onset of spring in many parts of northern India.
• November and December only
• November is generally not among the coldest months, as temperatures are relatively higher compared to December and January.
• November marks the transition between the post-monsoon season and the start of winter.
• October to December
• October is considered part of the post-monsoon season and does not fall under the coldest months of the year.
• December is cold, but the inclusion of October in this option makes it incorrect.

The correct answer is 58.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu won a total of 58 gold medals during the Khelo India Youth Games 2025.
• The Khelo India Youth Games is a flagship initiative by the Government of India aimed at promoting sports culture and identifying young talent in India.
• Tamil Nadu has consistently performed well in various sports categories, showcasing its athletic prowess and well-established sports infrastructure.
• The state has invested significantly in its sports development programs, allowing young athletes to excel in national-level competitions like the Khelo India Youth Games.
• The 2025 edition of the games featured participants from all over India, competing across multiple disciplines.
• The success of Tamil Nadu reflects its strong focus on fostering grassroots sports development and providing opportunities for budding athletes.

Additional Information

• Khelo India Youth Games:
• Started under the Khelo India Programme launched by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Aims to enhance India’s sports ecosystem by encouraging grassroots talent and promoting sports infrastructure development.
• Provides a platform for young athletes to compete nationally and gain recognition.
• Participants represent their respective states and union territories in disciplines like athletics, swimming, wrestling, boxing, and more.
• Importance of Tamil Nadu's Performance:
• Tamil Nadu's achievement of 58 gold medals underscores the state's dedication to fostering sporting talent.
• Its performance can serve as an example for other states to invest in athlete training and sports facilities.
• Highlights the role of state-level initiatives and collaboration with the central government for achieving excellence in sports.

The Correct answer is semi-autonomous.

Key Points

• Mitochondria are considered semi-autonomous organelles because they contain their own DNA and ribosomes, allowing them to synthesize some of their proteins independently.
• Despite being able to produce some proteins, mitochondria are dependent on the cellular nucleus for the majority of their protein requirements.
• The presence of circular DNA in mitochondria is similar to the DNA found in prokaryotic cells, supporting the theory of their endosymbiotic origin.
• Mitochondria are often referred to as the "powerhouse of the cell" because they generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the primary energy currency of the cell.
• They play a crucial role in cellular respiration, where nutrients are broken down to release energy.
• They exhibit a unique feature of being able to replicate independently within the cell.
• Mitochondrial functions extend beyond energy production, including involvement in calcium storage, apoptosis regulation, and cell signaling.
• Due to their ability to perform certain functions autonomously while relying on the cell for others, they are classified as semi-autonomous organelles.

Additional Information

• Autonomous
• Autonomous organelles are capable of performing all their functions independently without relying on the cellular nucleus.
• Mitochondria are not fully autonomous as they depend on the nucleus for most of their proteins.
• Non-autonomous
• Non-autonomous organelles rely entirely on the cellular nucleus for their functions.
• Mitochondria are not considered non-autonomous because they exhibit partial independence through their DNA and ribosomes.
• Dependent
• The term "dependent" implies complete reliance on external sources, which is inaccurate for mitochondria as they have their own DNA and protein synthesis machinery.

The Correct answer is Supreme Court.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court is the apex judicial authority in India and is regarded as the ultimate custodian of the Indian Constitution.
• It ensures the enforcement and protection of fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution.
• The Supreme Court interprets the provisions of the Constitution and resolves disputes related to its application.
• Under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, individuals can approach the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of their fundamental rights.
• The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review, which allows it to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions.
• It also acts as the guardian of federalism, ensuring a balance between the powers of the Union and State governments.
• Through its decisions, the Supreme Court provides authoritative guidance on constitutional matters and establishes precedents for lower courts.

Additional Information

• High Courts
• High Courts are the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory of India.
• They have the power to interpret and apply the Constitution but are subordinate to the Supreme Court.
• High Courts can issue writs under Article 226 for the enforcement of rights, but their jurisdiction is limited to the state or territory they preside over.
• Subordinate Courts
• Subordinate Courts include District and Sessions Courts, which function under the High Courts.
• They handle civil, criminal, and other cases at the grassroots level but do not have jurisdiction over constitutional matters.
• Nyaya Panchayats
• Nyaya Panchayats are village-level judicial bodies aimed at resolving local disputes in rural areas.
• They are informal and lack the authority to interpret or enforce constitutional provisions.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station is located in Singrauli district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is the largest power plant of NTPC (National Thermal Power Corporation) and one of the biggest in India.
• The plant has a total installed capacity of 4760 MW, making it a significant contributor to India's power production.
• The power station runs on coal as its primary fuel, sourced from nearby coal mines in Singrauli, a region known as the "Energy Capital of India."
• It plays a critical role in supplying electricity to various regions of the country and supports industrial and domestic energy requirements.
• The Vindhyachal plant is part of the NTPC's vision to enhance power generation to meet the growing energy demand in India.
• It also contributes to the region's economic development by creating employment opportunities and supporting local infrastructure.

Additional Information

• Odisha
• Odisha is known for its power plants like Talcher Super Thermal Power Station, but it does not host the Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station.
• The state contributes significantly to India's energy sector with its coal reserves and thermal plants.
• Jharkhand
• Jharkhand has several thermal power plants, including the Patratu Thermal Power Plant, but the Vindhyachal plant is not located here.
• The state is rich in coal and mineral resources, which are utilized in energy production.
• Chhattisgarh
• Chhattisgarh is known for its Korba Thermal Power Station, which is one of the largest power stations in India.
• It is a major hub for thermal energy production, but it is not the location of the Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station.

The Correct answer is Chennai.

Key Points

• The Central Institute of Classical Tamil (CICT) is a premier institution located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India.
• The institute was established with the aim of promoting and preserving classical Tamil language and literature.
• CICT operates under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• It plays a crucial role in conducting research and academic activities to support the rich heritage of Tamil culture.
• One of its significant contributions is the publication of scholarly works and ancient Tamil texts to preserve the classical Tamil language.
• The institute organizes seminars, workshops, and research programs to encourage scholars and students to delve into Tamil studies.
• It also provides fellowships and financial assistance to researchers working on Tamil language and literature.
• Chennai, being the cultural hub of Tamil Nadu, serves as a suitable location for CICT to carry out its mission of preserving the classical heritage of Tamil.

Additional Information

• Mumbai
• Mumbai, the capital of Maharashtra, is also known as the financial capital of India.
• It is home to institutions like the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay High Court, but it does not host the Central Institute of Classical Tamil.
• New Delhi
• New Delhi, the capital city of India, houses many important government institutions like the Parliament of India and the Supreme Court of India.
• While it is an administrative hub, it does not host the Central Institute of Classical Tamil.
• Lucknow
• Lucknow, the capital of Uttar Pradesh, is known for its historic monuments and cultural heritage.
• It is primarily recognized for its contributions to Awadhi culture and does not host the Central Institute of Classical Tamil.

The correct answer is Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Key Points

• Co-operative banks in India are regulated under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the Co-operative Societies Act of respective states.
• The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 provides a legal framework for the regulation and supervision of banking companies and co-operative banks.
• Co-operative banks are financial entities established on a co-operative basis and are owned by their members.
• The Act ensures that co-operative banks adhere to banking regulations, including minimum capital requirements, maintenance of cash reserves, and submission of financial returns.
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates and supervises co-operative banks under the provisions of this Act to ensure financial stability and protect depositors' interests.
• Co-operative banks in India cater to the needs of rural and semi-urban areas by providing credit to agriculture, small industries, and self-employed individuals.

Additional Information

• The Indian Contract Act, 1872
• This Act regulates contracts and agreements in India.
• It provides a framework for the formation, performance, and enforceability of contracts.
• It does not govern the operations of banking or financial institutions.
• Companies Act, 2013
• This Act governs the incorporation, functioning, and regulation of companies in India.
• It focuses on corporate governance and is not related to the regulation of co-operative banks.
• Companies Act, 1956
• This Act was the predecessor to the Companies Act, 2013, and dealt with the incorporation and operation of companies.
• It has since been replaced and does not govern the operations of co-operative banks.

The Correct answer is Kushans.

Key Points

• The Kushans played a crucial role in the development of art and architecture during the ancient period of Indian history.
• The Gandhara and Mathura schools of sculpture flourished under the patronage of the Kushan rulers, particularly during the reign of Kanishka.
• The Gandhara school of art is renowned for its Greco-Roman influence on Indian sculptures, resulting in beautifully carved images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas.
• The Mathura school of art, on the other hand, is more indigenous in its features and focused on creating sculptures with Indian characteristics.
• Under the Kushans, the first images of the Buddha in human form were sculpted, marking a significant shift in Buddhist art.
• The Gandhara school used materials like grey schist, while the Mathura school used red sandstone.
• The influence of Kushan art extended beyond India, affecting the art and culture of Central Asia and China.

Additional Information

• Mauryans
• The Mauryan Empire was founded by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 BCE.
• During the reign of Ashoka, the Mauryans promoted Buddhism, but their contribution to art was primarily related to pillar edicts, stupas, and rock-cut caves.
• The Mauryan art is known for the construction of the Great Stupa at Sanchi and the rock edicts of Ashoka.
• Pallavas
• The Pallavas were known for their contributions to Dravidian architecture.
• They constructed the famous rock-cut temples of Mahabalipuram and the Kanchipuram temples.
• The Pallava art focused on Hindu deities and was heavily influenced by the Bhakti movement.
• Guptas
• The Gupta period is often referred to as the Golden Age of Indian culture.
• They were significant patrons of art, architecture, and literature.
• The Gupta art is known for temples, paintings, and terracotta sculptures, but it does not have direct influence on Gandhara or Mathura schools of art.
• The famous Ajanta caves and the Dashavatara Temple were developed during the Gupta era.

The Correct answer is John Maynard Keynes.

Key Points

• John Maynard Keynes was a renowned British economist whose ideas profoundly influenced modern economic theory and policy.
• He authored the revolutionary book "A General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money" in 1936.
• This book laid the foundation of Keynesian economics, which focuses on the role of government intervention in stabilizing economies during periods of fluctuation.
• Keynesian economics emphasizes aggregate demand as the principal driver of economic activity and employment.
• The book challenged the classical economic theories that relied on free-market equilibrium, introducing the concept of macroeconomic analysis for addressing unemployment and recessions.
• Keynes advocated increased government spending and monetary policies to spur economic growth during economic downturns.
• He is often credited as the father of modern macroeconomics.

Additional Information

• Alfred Marshall
• Alfred Marshall was a British economist and one of the founders of modern economic thought.
• He is best known for his book "Principles of Economics", published in 1890, which introduced key concepts such as supply and demand, elasticity, and consumer surplus.
• Marshall's contributions primarily focused on microeconomics, unlike Keynes' focus on macroeconomics.
• A.C. Pigou
• Arthur Cecil Pigou was a British economist who was a prominent figure in welfare economics.
• He authored "The Economics of Welfare" in 1920, focusing on economic welfare and externalities.
• Pigou's work laid the foundation for environmental economics and policy-making to address market failures.
• Gustav Cassel
• Gustav Cassel was a Swedish economist known for his work on general equilibrium theory.
• He contributed to the study of interest rates and capital theory but did not focus on Keynesian principles.
• Cassel is credited with advancing the ideas of classical economics rather than macroeconomic intervention.

Given:

Two numbers are respectively 15% and 45% more than a third number.

Calculation:

Let the third number be x.

First number = x + 15% of x = x + (15/100) × x = 1.15x

Second number = x + 45% of x = x + (45/100) × x = 1.45x

Ratio = First number : Second number

Ratio = 1.15x : 1.45x

⇒ Ratio = 115 : 145

⇒ Ratio = 23 : 29

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Number of candidates who appeared:

CAT = 3.4 lakh, CSAT = 5.1 lakh

Calculations:

Required ratio = CAT : CSAT

⇒ Ratio = 3.4 : 5.1

⇒ Multiply both by 10 to remove decimal → 34 : 51

⇒ Divide by 17 → 2 : 3

∴ Required ratio = 2 : 3

Given:

Total payment per day = 440

X is paid 200% of Y ⇒ X = 2Y

Calculation:

X + Y = 440

⇒ 2Y + Y = 440

⇒ 3Y = 440

⇒ Y = 440 ÷ 3

⇒ Y = 146.67

∴ Y is paid ₹146.67 per day.

Given:

Price of variety A = 300 per kg

Price of variety B = 155 per kg

Mean price = 255 per kg

Formula used:

Alligation ratio = (Mean − Lower price) : (Higher price − Mean)

Calculations:

⇒ Mean − Lower = 255 − 155 = 100

⇒ Higher − Mean = 300 − 255 = 45

⇒ Ratio = 100 : 45

⇒ Ratio = 20 : 9

∴ The grocer should mix the two varieties in the ratio 20 : 9.

Given:

Pipe A can fill the tank in 16 hours.

Pipe B can fill the tank in 35 hours.

We need to find the time taken to fill half of the tank when both pipes are turned on simultaneously.

Calculation:

Let total work = LCM (16, 35) = 560

Efficiency of Pipe A = 560 ÷ 16 = 35 units/hour

Efficiency of Pipe B = 560 ÷ 35 = 16 units/hour

Combined efficiency = 35 + 16 = 51 units/hour

Work to fill half of the tank = 560 ÷ 2 = 280 units

⇒ Time taken = 280 ÷ 51

⇒ Time taken = $5\frac{25}{51}$ hours

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Claimed profit = 24%

Actual weight used = 13% less ⇒ customer gets 87% of 1 kg = 0.87 kg

Formula used:

Profit% = (Actual profit ÷ Actual cost) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Selling price of “1 kg” = 1.24 (taking CP of 1 kg = 1)

⇒ Actual cost to merchant for 0.87 kg = 0.87

⇒ Actual profit = 1.24 − 0.87 = 0.37

⇒ Profit% = 0.37 ÷ 0.87 × 100

⇒ Profit% ≈ 42.53%

∴ Overall profit ≈ 43%.

Given:

Distance = 88 km

Anirudh speed = a km/h

Burhan speed = b km/h

Anirudh takes 3 h more than Burhan; if Anirudh doubles speed, he takes 8 h less than Burhan

Formula used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ 88/a − 88/b = 3

⇒ 88/2a = 88/b − 8

⇒ 44/a = 88/b − 8

⇒ From 2: 88/b = (44/a) + 8

⇒ Substitute in 1: 88/a − (44/a + 8) = 3

⇒ 44/a − 8 = 3

⇒ 44/a = 11

⇒ a = 44/11 = 4 km/h

∴ Anirudh's original speed = 4 km/h.

Given:

P fills 3/7 of tank in 18 hours

Q fills 2/7 of tank in 16 hours

Both P and Q opened 1 hour then closed

After that pipe R (pipe 2) alone empties the tank filled to that state in 6 hours (so R is an emptying pipe)

Formula used:

Time = Total work ÷ rate; LCM = Total work; Efficiency (units/hour) = Total work ÷ time

Calculations:

Time taken by each pipe to fill/empty whole tank

⇒ P rate = (3/7) ÷ 18 = 3 ÷ 126 = 1/42

⇒ P fills whole tank in 42 hours

⇒ Q rate = (2/7) ÷ 16 = 2 ÷ 112 = 1/56

⇒ Q fills whole tank in 56 hours

After 2 hour P + Q fill = 2 × (1/42 + 1/56) = 2 × (4/168 + 3/168) = (2 × 7)/168 = 1/12 of tank

R empties that 1/12 in 6 hours ⇒ R emptying rate = (1/12) ÷ 6 = 1/72 (tank per hour) removed

⇒ R would empty a full tank in 72 hours, sign negative

⇒ LCM(42, 56, 72) = 504 ⇒ Total work = 504 units

Efficiencies (units/hour) ⇒ P = 504 ÷ 42 = 12 units/hour

⇒ Q = 504 ÷ 56 = 9 units/hour

⇒ R (emptying) = 504 ÷ 72 = 7 units/hour (removed)

⇒ Net rate = 12 + 9 − 7 = 14 units/hour

⇒ Time to fill = Total work ÷ Net rate = 504 ÷ 14 = 36 hours

∴ Time = 36 hours.

Given:

Speed while going = 81 km/hr

Speed while returning = 54 km/hr

Formula used:

Average speed = $\dfrac{2 \times S_1 \times S_2}{S_1 + S_2}$

Where, S₁ = Speed while going, S₂ = Speed while returning

Calculation:

Average speed = $\dfrac{2 \times 81 \times 54}{81 + 54}$

⇒ Average speed = $\dfrac{2 \times 81 \times 54}{135}$

⇒ Average speed = $\dfrac{8748}{135}$

⇒ Average speed = 64.8 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

30% of a number is 96 more than its 25%.

Calculation:

Let the number be x.

30% of x - 25% of x = 96

0.30x - 0.25x = 96

⇒ 0.05x = 96

⇒ x = 96 ÷ 0.05

⇒ x = 1920

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹883

Selling Price (SP) = ₹463

Formula used:

Discount Percentage = $\dfrac{MP - SP}{MP} \times 100$

Calculation:

Discount Percentage = $\dfrac{883 - 463}{883} \times 100$

⇒ Discount Percentage = $\dfrac{420}{883} \times 100$

⇒ Discount Percentage = 47.57%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Total numbers = 12

Average of 12 numbers = 43

First five numbers = 32, 39, 41, 85, 109

Formula used:

Average = Sum of all numbers ÷ Total numbers

Sum of all numbers = Average × Total numbers

Calculation:

Sum of all 12 numbers = 43 × 12

⇒ Sum of all 12 numbers = 516

Sum of the first five numbers = 32 + 39 + 41 + 85 + 109

⇒ Sum of the first five numbers = 306

Sum of remaining numbers = Sum of all numbers - Sum of first five numbers

⇒ Sum of remaining numbers = 516 - 306

⇒ Sum of remaining numbers = 210

Average of remaining numbers = Sum of remaining numbers ÷ Total remaining numbers

⇒ Average = 210 ÷ 7

⇒ Average = 30

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Ratios: 17:6, 23:2, 3:19, 28:4

Formula used:

To compare ratios, calculate their decimal values: ratio = numerator ÷ denominator.

Calculations:

17:6 = 17 ÷ 6 = 2.833

23:2 = 23 ÷ 2 = 11.5

3:19 = 3 ÷ 19 = 0.158

28:4 = 28 ÷ 4 = 7

Arranging in descending order:

23:2 (11.5) > 28:4 (7) > 17:6 (2.833) > 3:19 (0.158)

∴ The correct answer is option (3): 23:2, 28:4, 17:6, 3:19.

Given:

Numbers: 47, 79, 87

Formula used:

The largest number leaving the same remainder is the HCF (Highest Common Factor) of the differences of these numbers.

Calculation:

The differences of the given numbers.

79 - 47 = 32

87 - 79 = 8

87 - 47 = 40

The HCF of 32, 8, and 40.

Prime factors:

32 = 2⁵

8 = 2³

40 = 2³ × 5

HCF = 2³ = 8

∴ The correct answer is option (1): 8.

Given:

The dimensions of the cuboidal factory are:

Length = 780 m, Width = 28 m, Height = 28 m

It is covered by a semi-cylindrical structure.

Formula used:

Volume of a semi-cylinder = (1/2) × π × r² × h

Calculation:

Radius (r) = Width/2 = 28/2 = 14 m

Height (h) = Length = 780 m

Volume = (1/2) × π × r² × h

⇒ Volume = (1/2) × (22/7) × (14 × 14) × 780

⇒ Volume = (1/2) × (22/7) × 196 × 780

⇒ Volume = (1/2) × (22 × 196 × 780)/7

⇒ Volume = (1/2) × (22 × 196 × 780)/7

⇒ Volume = (1/2) × 480,240

⇒ Volume = 240,120 m³

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

6-digit number = N49M44

The number is divisible by 11.

Formula Used:

A number is divisible by 11 if: (Sum of digits at odd places) - (Sum of digits at even places) = 0 or a multiple of 11.

Calculations:

Sums of digits at odd and even places:

Odd places (1^st, 3^rd, 5^th from right) = Sum_Odd = 4 + M + 4 = M + 8

Even places (2^nd, 4^th, 6^th from right) = Sum_Even = 4 + 9 + N = N + 13

Divisibility Rule of 11:

The difference must be 0 or a multiple of 11.

Difference = Sum_Even - Sum_Odd

Difference = (N + 13) - (M + 8)

⇒ Difference = N - M + 5

Case A: Difference = 0

N - M + 5 = 0

⇒ N - M = -5

⇒ M - N = 5 (This is one of the options.)

Case B: Difference = 11

N - M + 5 = 11

⇒ N - M = 11 - 5

⇒ N - M = 6

⇒ M - N = -6 (Not an option.)

The only possible relationship that satisfies the divisibility rule and matches an option is M - N = 5.

∴ The possible correct relation is M - N = 5.

Calculations:

Kajal finishes 1000 m in T seconds.

Kajal beats Srishti by 50 s

⇒ Srishti's time = T + 50.

Kajal beats Sujata by 550 m

⇒ when Kajal finishes 1000 m, Sujata has done 450 m

⇒ Sujata's speed = 450 / T (m/s).

When Srishti and Sujata run 1000 m, Srishti wins by 60 s

⇒ Sujata's time for 1000 m = (T + 50) + 60 = T + 110.

Suja­ta's time for 1000 m = 1000 ÷ (450/T) = 1000 × T / 450 = (20/9) T.

So (20/9)T = T + 110.

⇒ (20/9 − 1)T = 110

⇒ (11/9)T = 110.

⇒ T = 110 × 9/11 = 90 seconds.

∴ Kajal takes 90 seconds to cover 1 km.

Given:

Base (b) = 86 cm

Height (h) = 18 cm

Formula used:

Area of a parallelogram = Base × Height

Calculation:

Area = b × h

⇒ Area = 86 × 18

⇒ Area = 1548 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

CP ratio of X : Y = 6 : 7

Profit on X = 19%

Loss on Y = 7%

Formula used:

SP = CP × (1 ± $\frac{\text{gain or loss \%}}{100}$)

Overall % = $\frac{\text{Total SP - Total CP}}{\text{Total CP}} \times 100$

Calculations:

Let CP of X = ₹6 and CP of Y = ₹7

SP of X = 6 × $(1+\frac{19}{100})$ = 6 × 1.19 = 7.14

SP of Y = 7 × $(1-\frac{7}{100})$ = 7 × 0.93 = 6.51

Total CP = 6 + 7 = 13

Total SP = 7.14 + 6.51 = 13.65

Profit = 13.65 − 13 = 0.65

Profit % = $\frac{0.65}{13} \times 100$

⇒ 5%

∴ Overall profit = 5%

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2,900

Rate of Interest (R) = 6% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = $\frac{P×R×T}{100}$

Calculation:

SI = $\frac{2900×6×2}{100}$

⇒ SI = $\frac{34800}{100}$

⇒ SI = ₹348

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

The correct answer is: Barren.

Key Points

• The word "prolific" means producing a large amount of something, especially creative work or results. It refers to being highly productive or fertile. (सृजनशील, उर्वर)
• Example: The prolific artist created over 500 paintings in his lifetime.
• "Barren" refers to something that is unproductive, infertile, or unable to produce anything of value. It is the opposite of prolific. (अनुपजाऊ, बंजर)
• Example: The barren land yielded no crops despite months of hard work.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'prolific' is 'barren'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Barren.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Productive (उत्पादक): Refers to someone or something that produces a large amount of output or is efficient in creating results.
• Example: She had a productive day at work and completed all her tasks.
• Abundant (प्रचुर): Refers to something that is plentiful or available in large quantities.
• Example: The forest is abundant in natural resources.
• Profuse (प्रचुर मात्रा में): Refers to something that exists or is given in large amounts.
• Example: He offered profuse apologies for being late.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Entrepraneur'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Entrepreneur'.
• The word 'Entrepreneur' is a noun which means 'a person who sets up a business or businesses, taking on financial risks in the hope of profit'. (उद्यमी)
• For Example -
• She is a successful entrepreneur who owns several companies.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Entrepraneur'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Acknowledgment - the acceptance of the truth or existence of something (स्वीकृति)
• Maintenance - the process of maintaining or preserving someone or something (रखरखाव)
• Bureaucracy - a system of government in which most of the important decisions are taken by state officials rather than by elected representatives (प्रशासनिक व्यवस्था)

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. C, D, B, A

Key Points

• The paragraph logically begins with C: "As a scholar, she has contributed extensively to the field, with over 20 publications." This introduces the subject and her scholarly credentials.
• Next comes D: "One of her major works involves a comprehensive study on urban green spaces." This specifies a key contribution among her many publications.
• Then follows B: "Her publication has filled a significant gap in the literature on sustainable urban planning." This describes the impact of the major work mentioned in D.
• Finally, A: "This has led to an increase in both local and international collaborations." This concludes with the positive outcome resulting from her impactful publication.

Therefore, the correct sequence is C, D, B, A.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (D, C, A, B): Introduces a specific work before establishing her broader achievements, which is less logical.
• Option 2 (A, B, D, C): Starts with the result before explaining the contributions and works.
• Option 3 (B, A, C, D): Begins with the impact, not the scholar or her contributions, making the paragraph less coherent.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Definately'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Definitely'.
• The word 'Definitely' is an adverb which means 'without doubt; clearly'. (निश्चित रूप से)
• For Example -
• I will definitely join you for dinner tonight.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Definately'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Requirement - a thing that is needed or wanted (आवश्यकता)
• Possible - able to be done; within the power or capacity of someone or something (संभव)
• Decision - a conclusion or resolution reached after consideration (निर्णय)

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'No article, the'.

Key Points

• The sentence refers to society in general, and in such cases, no article is used before the word "society."
• However, the phrase "the contributions of artists" specifies a particular group (artists), so the article "the" is used before "contributions."
• The combination "No article, the" is grammatically correct for this sentence construction.
• Using "A" or "The" before "society" would be incorrect because it does not refer to any specific society.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• The article "A": "A" is used before singular, countable nouns when referring to something non-specific. In this case, society is not non-specific, so "A" is not appropriate.
• The article "The" before society: "The" is used to refer to something specific, but "society" is being mentioned in general terms, not as a specific entity.
• No article: When referring to general concepts, like society in this case, no article is needed.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "To get angry quickly".

Key Points

• The idiom "Fly off the handle" means to lose control of one's temper or get angry very quickly without warning. (बिना चेतावनी के जल्दी गुस्सा होना)
• Example: He flew off the handle when he found out someone had damaged his car.
• The correct meaning here is "To get angry quickly". (जल्दी गुस्सा होना)
• Example: When she heard the criticism about her work, she flew off the handle and stormed out of the meeting.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To handle something carefully (किसी चीज़ को ध्यानपूर्वक संभालना): Refers to managing or dealing with something cautiously.
• Example: You need to handle this antique vase carefully; it’s very fragile.
• Option 2: To ignore somebody (किसी को नजरअंदाज करना): Refers to deliberately avoiding or disregarding someone.
• Example: She ignored her colleague's rude remarks during the meeting.
• Option 4: To fly an airplane (हवाई जहाज उड़ाना): Refers to the act of piloting or controlling an airplane.
• Example: He learned how to fly an airplane during his training as a pilot.

The correct answer is: Option 2 - Sensible.

Key Points

• The word "ludicrous" means something that is foolish, unreasonable, or ridiculous to the point of being laughable. (हास्यास्पद)
• Example: It is ludicrous to think that we could finish this massive project in just one day.
• "Sensible" refers to something that shows good sense, judgment, or practicality. (समझदारी)
• Example: It is sensible to save money for emergencies rather than spending it all at once.
• Hence, the antonym of "ludicrous" is "sensible".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 - Sensible.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Thrifty (मितव्ययी): Showing care with how money or resources are spent; being economical.
• Example: Being thrifty, she always looks for discounts before shopping.
• Beautiful (सुंदर): Pleasing the senses or mind aesthetically.
• Example: The sunset over the mountains was absolutely beautiful.
• Unique (अद्वितीय): Being the only one of its kind; unlike anything else.
• Example: This handmade necklace is unique and cannot be found anywhere else.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'oldest'.

Key Points

• The word “oldest” is the superlative form of the adjective “old.” It is used to compare one individual against all others within a group.
• In the sentence, the comparison is being made among all the employees, and Mr. Jackson is being identified as the one who is the most advanced in age.
• The other options (elder, eldest, older) are incorrect in this context as they are either comparative forms or incorrect grammatical usages here.
• Oldest is grammatically correct when referring to the highest degree of age among a group of people or things.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• Older: This is the comparative form of “old” and is used to compare the age of two individuals or things, not within a group of more than two.
• Eldest: This is primarily used in familial contexts to describe the oldest sibling but is less commonly used in general comparisons.
• Elder: This is also used in familial contexts, but it functions as a comparative adjective and cannot be used as a superlative.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. To challenge.

Key Points

• The idiom "Throw down the gauntlet" means to issue a challenge, especially to argue or compete in a contest. (चुनौती देना)
• Example: The CEO threw down the gauntlet by challenging competitors to match their innovative product designs.
• Explanation: - The word "gauntlet" historically refers to a glove worn by knights in medieval times. - When someone threw down their gauntlet, it was a formal way of challenging another to combat or duel. - Over time, it evolved to mean issuing any kind of challenge. (चुनौती देने के लिए दस्ताना फेंकने की प्रथा से यह मुहावरा बना।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. To challenge.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: To accept (स्वीकार करना): To agree to something, such as a challenge or offer.
• Example: She accepted the offer to lead the project.
• Option 3: To write (लिखना): To compose or put down thoughts in written form.
• Example: He decided to write a letter to his old friend.
• Option 4: To speak (बोलना): To express thoughts or feelings verbally.
• Example: She was asked to speak about her experiences as an entrepreneur.

The correct answer is Archaic.

Key Points

• Archaic expressions are words or phrases that are no longer commonly used in everyday language but are sometimes retained in literature or historical writing for stylistic effect.
• These words help to evoke a specific era, tone, or atmosphere, making the text feel more authentic to a particular historical period.
• Authors intentionally use archaic language to give their work a sense of antiquity or to immerse readers in a certain time frame.
• For example, words like "thou," "thee," or "hither" are considered archaic in modern English but frequently appear in older literature or works aiming to replicate that style.
• Identifying archaic expressions requires knowledge of language history and the context in which certain words have fallen out of general use.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• Malapropism: The mistaken use of a word in place of a similar-sounding one, often with unintentionally amusing effect (e.g., "dance a flamingo" instead of "flamenco").
• Colloquialism: Informal words or phrases used in everyday conversation but not usually in formal writing (e.g., "gonna," "y'all").
• Portmanteau: A word formed by blending two words together, combining their meanings (e.g., "smog" from "smoke" + "fog").

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e. BFAEDC

Key Points

• B opens the paragraph by stating the pivotal role of the press in democratic societies.
• F follows, expanding on the influence of the press, from creating awareness to ensuring accountability.
• A continues by specifying how a responsible press presents facts, aiding informed choices.
• E further explains that this power (influence and responsibility) comes with the duty to serve the public interest.
• D adds that it's important to balance press freedom with accountability.
• C concludes with the consequences when journalistic ethics are not upheld.

Therefore, the correct sequence is BFAEDC.

Additional Information

• Option 2 (BFAECD): Puts the consequence of lack of ethics before the need for balance, which breaks logical flow.
• Option 3 (BFECAD): Places the need for balance and the consequences out of logical order.
• Option 4 (BEAECD): Repeats A and E and disrupts the logical and grammatical structure.

The correct answer is Prosaic.

Key Points

• Prosaic refers to language or expression that is straightforward, ordinary, and lacking in poetic beauty or imagination.
• This style is often unemotional, plain, and matter-of-fact, focusing on clarity rather than flair or vivid description.
• Prosaic writing or speech can sometimes be perceived as dull or unimaginative due to its lack of embellishment or enthusiasm.
• The term originates from "prose," distinguishing it from more colorful or expressive forms like poetry.
• Prosaic communication prioritizes directness and simplicity over emotional or artistic expression.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Pedantic: Overly concerned with minute details or formalisms, often in teaching or learning.
• Terse: Brief and to the point, sometimes to the point of rudeness or abruptness.
• Laconic: Using very few words, concise to the point of seeming mysterious or blunt.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'a, the'.

Key Points

• We use "a" before "deep respect" because "respect" is a singular, countable noun in this context, and we are referring to one instance of respect.
• We use "the" before "traditions" because we are talking about the specific traditions of indigenous peoples, making "the" the appropriate definite article.
• The correct sentence is: She has a deep respect for the traditions of indigenous peoples.
• Using any other article combination would result in an ungrammatical or less specific sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (the, the): Using "the" before "deep respect" is incorrect because we are not referring to a specific, previously mentioned respect.
• Option 3 (no article, the): Omitting "a" before "deep respect" is incorrect as the noun needs an article in this singular, countable usage.
• Option 4 (a, no article): Omitting "the" before "traditions" would make the sentence too general; we are referring to the specific traditions of indigenous peoples.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'unique'.

Key Points

• The word "unique" is an adjective that means "one of a kind" or "unmatched." It cannot be modified by comparative or superlative adjectives such as "more" or "most."
• Using "unique" without any modifiers is grammatically correct as "unique" already implies being incomparable.
• The options "more unique" and "most unique" are incorrect, as they are redundant and grammatically inaccurate.
• "Much unique" is also incorrect, as it does not follow standard grammatical usage.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Adjective: "Unique" is an adjective that describes a noun or pronoun by indicating its singularity or distinctiveness.
• Comparative forms: Adjectives that describe absolute states, such as "unique," do not have comparative or superlative forms.
• Grammatical accuracy: It is essential to use adjectives like "unique" in their correct form to maintain proper grammatical structure.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'more'.

Key Points

• The word "more" is used for comparing two entities and highlights the difference in degree or quantity.
• In the given sentence, "more entertaining" compares the entertainment value of the current movie with the last one.
• Other options like "most", "much", and "quite" do not fit grammatically or contextually in the sentence.
• Thus, the correct choice is "more", which appropriately conveys the comparison.

The correct answer is - Option 2.

Additional Information

• Most: This is used to refer to the highest degree of something, typically in superlative comparisons, but it doesn't fit here since we are comparing two movies.
• Much: This typically emphasizes quantity but does not fit in the blank grammatically or contextually.
• Quite: This word is used to indicate the extent or degree, but it is not suitable for comparative sentences.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Jane Austen's most famous novel is 'Pride and Prejudice', as highlighted in the passage.
• It was published in 1813 and follows the story of Elizabeth Bennet and Mr. Darcy.
• The novel explores themes of love, pride, and societal expectations, making it a classic in English literature.
• Other notable works by Austen include 'Sense and Sensibility', 'Emma', and 'Mansfield Park', but 'Pride and Prejudice' remains the most celebrated.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: Pride and Prejudice.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Emma – Another popular novel by Austen, but not considered her most famous.
• Option 2: Sense and Sensibility – Also a major work, but less renowned than 'Pride and Prejudice'.
• Option 3: Mansfield Park – Important, yet not as widely recognized as 'Pride and Prejudice'.
• Option 4: Pride and Prejudice – The novel that brought Austen lasting fame and remains her signature work.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Jane Austen's novels frequently explore the themes of marriage, morality, and social status, as highlighted in the passage.
• Her stories often focus on young women facing issues related to marriage and societal expectations.
• Austen uses her keen observations and subtle irony to critique the social norms of her time.
• These themes are central to her most famous works, including 'Pride and Prejudice', 'Sense and Sensibility', and 'Emma'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: Marriage, morality and social status.

Additional Information

• Option 1: While historical context is present, patriotism and war are not the central themes in Austen's novels.
• Option 3: Women's worth and family relationships do appear, but not in the specific context of "family dysfunction" as the main theme.
• Option 4: Patriarchal norms are depicted, but the focus is more broadly on social status, not just in the lower middle classes.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• When a work is published anonymously, the author's name is not revealed to the public.
• The passage states that Jane Austen's novels "were published anonymously during her lifetime," meaning her identity as the author was hidden from readers.
• Her authorship only became widely known after her death in 1817.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: hidden.

Additional Information

• Option 1: known – This is incorrect, as her name was not known during her lifetime.
• Option 3: written – This does not convey the idea of anonymity.
• Option 4: shown – Her name was not shown; it was kept hidden.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• 'Pride and Prejudice' primarily critiques the social expectations for women in early 19^th-century British society.
• The novel explores how societal norms influence women's choices regarding marriage, status, and personal happiness.
• Through the character of Elizabeth Bennet, Austen highlights the pressures and limitations faced by women due to these expectations.
• While themes like marriage and the landed gentry are present, the central critique is on the roles and expectations imposed upon women.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: Social expectations for women.

Additional Information

• Option 2: While Mr. Darcy's character is proud, the novel's critique is broader than simply focusing on wealthy young men.
• Option 3: Marriage is a significant theme, but it serves as a lens to examine social expectations for women.
• Option 4: The landed gentry provide the setting, but are not the primary focus of critique.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage provides a brief overview of Jane Austen's life, mentioning her birth, family background, and personal history.
• It highlights her major literary works such as 'Pride and Prejudice', 'Sense and Sensibility', 'Emma', and 'Mansfield Park'.
• The passage discusses the themes and impact of her novels, including their continued celebration and adaptations.
• Overall, the passage serves as a summary of Austen's life, her contributions to literature, and her enduring legacy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: A brief overview of Jane Austen's life, her literary contributions, major works and the lasting impact of her novels.

Additional Information

• Option 1: The passage mentions the landed gentry but does not focus solely on their portrayal.
• Option 2: While anonymity is discussed, it is not the main theme.
• Option 4: The celebration in cinema and television is mentioned, but not as the central theme.

सही उत्तर है- तिरलोचन है। 

Key Pointsसही वाक्य होगा-

• शिव का एक नाम त्रिलोचन है।

Important Points

• वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Informationवर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

सही उत्तर है- संगम

Key Points

• वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।​

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

सही उत्तर है- से

Key Pointsपूर्ण वाक्य है-

• सुनंदा के घर का खर्च दूसरों के द्वारा दी जाने वाली आर्थिक सहायता से चलता है।

Important Points

सही उत्तर है- मनोवैज्ञानिक

Key Points

• मानसिक तनाव के लिए पर्याय है- मनोवैज्ञानिक

Important Points

• पर्यायवाची शब्द - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-