DSSSB TGT (Natural Science) Official Paper (Held On: 06 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Reason I is logical and relevant. Higher pricing compared to well-established competitors can discourage customers, making it difficult for Company A to grow its customer base despite offering high-speed internet.

Reason II is illogical. Customers generally prefer high-speed internet; saying they are never interested is unrealistic and does not explain the situation.

• Only Reason I follows.

Logic : 

6 - 4 - 5

• (6+4) ÷ 2 = 10 ÷ 2 = 5

9 - 3 - 6 

• (9+3) ÷ 2 = 12 ÷ 2 = 6

Similarly,

• (8+4) ÷ 2 = 12 ÷ 2 = 6

​Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

**Given :**15 ÷ 3 + 7 × 45 − 5 = ?

According to the question , ‘÷ ’ and ‘−’ are interchanged, and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged:

⇒ 15 - 3 x 7 + 45 ÷ 5 = ?

⇒ 15 - 3 x 7 + 9 = ?

⇒ 15 + 9 - 21 = ?

⇒ 24 - 21 = ?

⇒ 3

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given :  (Left) 853 716 567 349 527 (Right)

Third digit of the second highest number = 716

Second digit of the lowest number = 349

6 x 4 = 24.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Seven boxes, C, D, E, I, J, K and N, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

• Only C is kept above I.
• Only E is kept below K.
• Only J is kept between D and K.

The Final Arrangement is, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I: No Hydrogens are Nitrogens. - False (As their is n direct relation between Hydrogens and Nitrogens may be it is possible but not definite. Henceit is false)

II: Some Oxygens are Carbons. - True (Some Oxygens are Nitrogens.All Nitrogens are Carbons.Some Oxygens are Carbons is True)

Only conclusion (II) follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

**Given:**Each of M, N, B, V, C, X and Z has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

• Only V has an exam after X.
• Only three people have exams between X and Z.
• Only three people have exams between V and C.
• B has an exam immediately before N

The Final Arrangement is, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given :  51 ÷ 133 × 7 – 3 + 102 = ?

⇒ 51 ÷ 133 × 7 – 3 + 102 = ?

• means –, – means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +

⇒ 51 + 133 ÷ 7 × 3 - 102 

⇒ 51 + 19 × 3 - 102 

⇒ 51 + 57 - 102 

⇒108 - 102 

⇒6

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Family Chart:

As per the given information,

P is wife of G and daughter of Q.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The pattern followed here is:

Similarly,

FK-HE-LN

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Bharat starts from Point Y and drives 31 km towards north.

• He then takes a left turn, drives 31 km, turns left and drives 43 km.
• He then takes a right turn and drives 17 km.
• He takes a right turn and drives 51 km.
• He then turns right, drives 23 km, turns right and drives 39 km to stop at Point Z.

The Final Arrangement is, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic follows here,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

**Given:**Six students Abram, Belle, Wendy, Xavier, Yami and Zara are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

• Yami is an immediate neighbour of both Xavier and Zara.
• Belle is sitting third to the right of Zara.
• Abram is sitting second to the left of Xavier.
• Wendy is an immediate neighbour of both Abram and Zara.

The Final Arrangement is, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given :  ‘GONE’ is coded as ‘7103’ and ‘ONES’ is coded as ‘0123’

‘GONE’ - ‘7103’ 

‘ONES’ - ‘0123’

Code for S is 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic follows here, 

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given : (Left) 674 621 435 376 215 (Right)

3 is added to the first digit of every number,

(Left) 974 921 735 676 515 (Right)

Numbers will the first digit be exactly divisible by the second digit = 515.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The correct answer is phenotype.

Key Points

• Phenotype refers to the observable traits or characteristics of an organism, such as physical appearance, behavior, and physiological attributes.
• It is the result of the interaction between the organism's genetic makeup (genotype) and environmental factors.
• Examples of phenotypes include eye color, hair texture, height, flower color in plants, and blood type.
• Phenotypes can change over time or under different environmental conditions, while the genotype remains constant.
• Phenotypic traits are often used in genetics and biology to study inheritance patterns, natural selection, and evolutionary processes.

Additional Information

• Genotype:
• The genotype is the genetic makeup of an organism, consisting of the alleles inherited from both parents.
• It includes all the hereditary information encoded in the DNA, regardless of whether it is expressed as a visible trait.
• For example, the genotype for eye color may include alleles for both brown and blue eyes, though only one may be expressed in the phenotype.
• Genotypes are crucial in determining the potential traits an organism may exhibit and are used in genetic studies to understand inheritance patterns.
• Genome:
• The genome is the complete set of DNA in an organism, including all of its genes.
• It includes both the coding regions (genes) and non-coding regions of DNA.
• The human genome, for instance, contains approximately 3 billion base pairs of DNA, encoding around 20,000-25,000 genes.
• Genome studies, such as genomics, are essential for understanding genetic disorders, evolutionary biology, and personalized medicine.
• Gene:
• A gene is a specific segment of DNA that encodes instructions for synthesizing proteins or functional RNA molecules.
• Genes act as the basic units of heredity and are responsible for transmitting traits from one generation to the next.
• Each gene resides at a specific location on a chromosome and can exist in different versions, called alleles.
• Mutations in genes can lead to genetic disorders or variations in phenotypic traits.
• Main Theme:
• The relationship between genotype and phenotype is a fundamental concept in genetics.
• While the genotype represents the genetic code, the phenotype is how this code is expressed in observable traits.
• Environmental factors play a critical role in shaping the phenotype, highlighting the dynamic interaction between genes and the environment.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• Punjab emerged as the overall champion at the 2025 National Kickboxing Championship held in Raipur, showcasing their dominance in multiple categories of the competition.
• The state’s athletes delivered exceptional performances, winning the maximum number of gold, silver, and bronze medals across various weight categories and disciplines.
• The championship featured participants from across India, with Punjab securing the top position due to their strong infrastructure for training and support for athletes.
• The event aimed to promote the sport of kickboxing and identify talent for national and international competitions, with Punjab’s comprehensive preparation yielding excellent results.
• The victory reflects the state’s commitment to promoting sports and fostering young talent through initiatives such as dedicated sports academies and training facilities.

Additional Information

• Andhra Pradesh
• Andhra Pradesh is known for its significant contributions to sports like badminton, chess, and cricket, with players like P.V. Sindhu and Humpy Koneru achieving international recognition.
• The state actively promotes sports through various initiatives, including the establishment of sports academies and infrastructure development.
• However, Andhra Pradesh did not secure the championship title at the 2025 National Kickboxing Championship.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra has a strong presence in various sports, including wrestling, kabaddi, and cricket, and is home to many accomplished athletes.
• The state has hosted several national and international sporting events and has a robust sports policy to encourage young talent.
• Despite its competitive edge, Maharashtra was not the winner of the 2025 National Kickboxing Championship.
• West Bengal
• West Bengal is renowned for its passion for football, cricket, and athletics, with a strong legacy in these sports.
• The state has produced numerous notable athletes and continues to invest in sports infrastructure and training programs.
• Although West Bengal participated in the kickboxing championship, it did not achieve the top position in the 2025 event.
• National Kickboxing Championship
• The National Kickboxing Championship is an annual event organized to promote the sport and provide a platform for athletes to showcase their skills.
• Participants compete in various categories based on weight, age, and style, including point fighting, full contact, and low kick.
• The event plays a crucial role in identifying talent for international competitions such as the World Kickboxing Championship.
• It also aims to popularize kickboxing as a sport across India, encouraging young athletes to take up the discipline.

The correct answer is protecting the circuits.

Key Points

• A fuse is a safety device used in electrical circuits to protect appliances and wiring from excessive current flow caused by short circuits or overloads.
• It consists of a thin metal wire or strip that melts when the current exceeds a certain limit, breaking the circuit and preventing further damage.
• Fuses are rated based on their current-carrying capacity and are designed to operate at specific voltage levels.
• They are essential for preventing electrical fires and damage to devices, ensuring both safety and longevity of the electrical system.
• Once a fuse blows, it must be replaced to restore the circuit's functionality.

Additional Information

• Voltage Stabilization in the Circuit:
• A voltage stabilizer is a device used to maintain a stable voltage level in electrical circuits, ensuring that appliances receive a constant voltage irrespective of fluctuations in the supply.
• It is not related to the function of a fuse, as fuses are designed for circuit protection, not voltage regulation.
• Voltage stabilizers are commonly used with sensitive appliances like refrigerators, air conditioners, and televisions to prevent damage from voltage spikes or drops.
• Generation of Power:
• Power generation involves converting energy from natural resources such as coal, wind, solar, or water into electrical energy using power plants.
• This is unrelated to the function of a fuse, as fuses do not generate power but are designed to protect circuits from excessive current.
• Examples of power generation methods include thermal power plants, hydroelectric power stations, solar panels, and wind turbines.
• Storage of Power:
• Power storage refers to devices or systems, such as batteries or supercapacitors, that store electrical energy for later use.
• Fuses do not store power; their sole purpose is to protect electrical systems by breaking the circuit during overcurrent conditions.
• Examples of power storage technologies include lithium-ion batteries, lead-acid batteries, and pumped hydroelectric storage.

The correct answer is 89.45 metres.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra secured the silver medal at the Paris Olympics 2024 with a best throw of 89.45 metres in the men's javelin throw event.
• This remarkable performance further solidified Neeraj Chopra's position as one of the world's top javelin throwers.
• Neeraj is India's most decorated track and field athlete, having previously won the gold medal at the Tokyo Olympics 2020.
• His throw of 89.45 metres was his second-best career performance, narrowly missing his personal best of 89.94 metres.
• Neeraj's silver medal win was celebrated across India as a historic achievement in athletics, showcasing his consistency and dedication.

Additional Information

• 88.77 metres:
• This distance was not Neeraj Chopra's throw at the Paris Olympics 2024, but it is a competitive mark in international javelin throw events.
• Throws in the range of 88 metres are often enough to secure medals in global competitions like the World Championships or Olympics.
• The javelin throw requires a combination of speed, strength, and technique to achieve such distances.
• 86.47 metres:
• This distance is below Neeraj Chopra's usual competitive performance and would not have been sufficient to secure a medal at the Paris Olympics 2024.
• Neeraj regularly throws beyond the 85-metre mark in major competitions, establishing himself as a consistent elite performer.
• 90.58 metres:
• This distance is exceptional and would typically secure a gold medal in international javelin throw competitions.
• Although Neeraj Chopra has come close to crossing the 90-metre mark, this throw was not recorded at the Paris Olympics 2024.
• The 90-metre mark is considered a benchmark for elite javelin throwers and is achieved by only a few athletes globally.
• Javelin Throw Overview:
• The javelin throw is a track and field event where athletes aim to throw a spear-like implement as far as possible.
• It requires a combination of explosive power, precise technique, and optimal angle of release.
• Javelin throwers typically undergo rigorous training to develop strength, speed, and flexibility.
• Major competitions include the Olympics, World Championships, and Continental Games.

The correct answer is 1960.

Key Points

• The Central Hindi Directorate (CHD) was established on March 1, 1960, under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
• The primary objective of CHD is the promotion and propagation of Hindi as an official language across India.
• It works towards the development of Hindi by preparing educational and reference materials, including dictionaries and glossaries, in Hindi.
• The directorate also organizes training programs, seminars, and workshops to promote Hindi as a medium of communication in various parts of the country.
• CHD plays a significant role in standardizing Hindi terms for administrative, technical, and scientific use to foster uniformity in official communication.

Additional Information

• 1953
• In 1953, the University Grants Commission (UGC) was established to regulate and maintain standards of higher education in India.
• It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Education and plays a significant role in funding universities and colleges.
• 1954
• The National Film Awards were instituted in 1954 to honor the best films and filmmakers in India.
• This initiative aimed to promote excellence in Indian cinema and recognize contributions to its growth.
• 1959
• The All India Radio (AIR) introduced its first television broadcast from Delhi in 1959, marking the beginning of television services in India.
• This was a significant milestone in Indian media, laying the foundation for television as a powerful medium of communication.
• Main Theme: Development of Hindi
• The Central Hindi Directorate was set up to fulfill the constitutional mandate of promoting Hindi as the official language of India.
• Article 351 of the Indian Constitution directs the Union to promote the spread of Hindi and develop it as a medium of expression for all elements of Indian culture.
• The directorate works in conjunction with other organizations like the Kendriya Hindi Sansthan to achieve these objectives.

The correct answer is Demand and supply of a good.

Key Points

• The level of national income indicates the total value of goods and services produced in a country, but it does not directly determine the demand and supply of a specific good.
• Demand and supply of an individual good are influenced by factors such as price of the good, consumer preferences, availability of substitutes, and production costs, rather than national income alone.
• While aggregate demand and aggregate supply are tied to national income, the demand and supply of a specific commodity are determined by microeconomic factors specific to that market.
• National income, being a macroeconomic concept, encompasses overall economic activity but does not directly dictate the behavior of individual goods’ markets.
• The demand and supply of a good are primarily governed by the law of demand and supply, which operates independently of the level of national income.

Additional Information

• Private Investment Expenditure
• Private investment expenditure refers to the spending by businesses on capital goods such as machinery, buildings, and technology.
• The level of national income significantly influences private investment, as higher income levels generally lead to greater demand for goods and services, encouraging businesses to invest in expanding production capacity.
• Investment decisions are also affected by interest rates, government policies, and economic stability, but national income remains a crucial determinant.
• Import of Goods and Services
• National income plays a crucial role in determining the import of goods and services. As income levels rise, individuals and businesses have greater purchasing power, which often leads to increased imports.
• Higher national income generally results in a higher demand for foreign goods, especially luxury items and raw materials not available domestically.
• This is explained through the concept of the marginal propensity to import (MPI), which measures how much of an additional unit of income is spent on imports.
• Aggregate Consumption
• Aggregate consumption refers to the total spending by households on goods and services in an economy.
• It is directly influenced by national income, as higher income levels enable households to spend more on consumption.
• In macroeconomics, this relationship is often represented by the consumption function, which shows how consumption levels vary with disposable income.
• The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is a key concept in this context, highlighting the proportion of additional income that is spent on consumption.

The correct answer is 109.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi, in August 2024, introduced 109 climate-resilient and biofortified seed varieties to strengthen food security and address the impacts of climate change.
• These seed varieties were developed with traits like drought resistance, pest resistance, and enhanced nutritional value to tackle changing climatic conditions.
• The initiative aligns with India’s commitment to ensuring sustainable agriculture and supporting farmers in adapting to climate variability.
• The launch was a part of the government’s broader strategy to promote self-reliance in agriculture and improve the nutritional health of the population.
• Biofortified crops introduced include varieties enriched with essential nutrients such as zinc, iron, and protein, aimed at combating malnutrition in India.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 200
• The number 200 does not align with the actual figure of climate-resilient and biofortified seed varieties introduced by PM Modi in August 2024.
• Although it is an overestimate, the figure might represent the broader scope of seed varieties under research and development for future introduction.
• Option 3: 150
• While 150 is closer to the correct answer, it still does not match the precise number of seed varieties launched, which is 109.
• This number might reflect previous estimates or targets set for crop development under earlier agricultural initiatives.
• Option 4: 75
• The figure of 75 is significantly lower than the actual number of varieties introduced (109).
• It may relate to earlier programs or pilot initiatives focused on a smaller set of crops for specific regions or climatic conditions.
• Main Theme: Climate-Resilient and Biofortified Seed Varieties
• Climate-resilient seeds are designed to withstand extreme weather conditions such as droughts, floods, and high temperatures, ensuring stable agricultural productivity.
• Biofortified seeds are enhanced with nutrients like iron, zinc, and vitamin A to address deficiencies and improve public health, particularly in malnourished populations.
• These initiatives form a critical part of India’s strategy to achieve agricultural sustainability and food security in the face of global climate challenges.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The Anundoram Borooah Institute of Language, Art, and Culture is located in Assam, India.
• This institute was established with the aim of promoting and preserving the languages, arts, and culture of Assam and the northeastern region of India.
• It is named after Anundoram Borooah, a renowned Sanskrit scholar and the first Assamese to join the Indian Civil Service (ICS).
• The institute undertakes research, documentation, and initiatives for the development of various ethnic cultures and languages of Assam.
• It contributes to the study and dissemination of knowledge regarding the rich heritage and traditions of the region.

Additional Information

• West Bengal
• West Bengal is known for its rich cultural heritage, including Bengali literature, music, and art.
• The state is home to prestigious institutions like the Visva-Bharati University, founded by Rabindranath Tagore, which focuses on art, culture, and education.
• West Bengal does not host the Anundoram Borooah Institute but has several centers promoting Bengali culture and heritage.
• Meghalaya
• Meghalaya is renowned for its tribal cultures, particularly those of the Khasi, Jaintia, and Garo communities.
• It has institutions like the North-Eastern Hill University (NEHU) that work towards preserving the unique cultural aspects of the state.
• However, the Anundoram Borooah Institute is not located in Meghalaya.
• Tripura
• Tripura is known for its blend of Bengali and tribal cultures, including traditional art forms like bamboo craft and tribal dances.
• The state has institutions working towards the preservation of its unique cultural identity, such as the Tribal Research and Cultural Institute.
• The Anundoram Borooah Institute is not situated in Tripura.
• Theme: Language, Art, and Culture
• The Anundoram Borooah Institute reflects India's efforts to preserve and promote regional languages, arts, and cultures, particularly in the northeastern states.
• Such institutions play a vital role in fostering research, documentation, and education about the diverse traditions of India.

The correct answer is Odia.

Key Points

• Odia is the official language of Odisha, as per the Odisha Official Language Act, 1954.
• Odia is one of the 22 scheduled languages of India recognized under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• In 2014, Odia was accorded the status of a Classical Language of India, making it the sixth Indian language to receive this distinction.
• The language is spoken by over 80% of the population of Odisha and is also used in neighboring states such as West Bengal, Jharkhand, and Andhra Pradesh.
• Odia is one of the oldest languages in India, with its earliest inscriptions dating back to the 10^th century AD.

Additional Information

• Sanskrit:
• Sanskrit is an ancient language of India and is often referred to as the language of the Vedas.
• It is considered the mother of several modern Indian languages and has significant importance in Hinduism, Buddhism, and Jainism.
• Though not widely spoken in daily life, Sanskrit is one of the 22 scheduled languages of India.
• Efforts are being made to revive Sanskrit as a spoken language through educational initiatives and cultural programs.
• English:
• English serves as an associate official language of India alongside Hindi.
• It is widely used in government, legal, educational, and business contexts across India.
• English acts as a link language in a country with diverse linguistic traditions, facilitating communication between different regions.
• Odisha also uses English for administrative purposes along with Odia.
• Hindi:
• Hindi is the most widely spoken language in India and is the official language of the Indian Union as per Article 343 of the Constitution.
• It is one of the 22 scheduled languages and is written in the Devanagari script.
• Though Hindi is not the official language of Odisha, it is understood and spoken by a small percentage of the population, especially in urban areas.
• Main Theme - Official Language of Odisha:
• The state of Odisha is unique in its linguistic culture, with Odia being the sole official language recognized under the Odisha Official Language Act.
• Efforts are made to promote Odia in government operations, education, and cultural activities to preserve and enrich the language.

The correct answer is 20.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India provides for a maximum of 20 representatives from Union Territories (UTs) in the Lok Sabha.
• Representation from Union Territories is governed under Article 81 of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha.
• Union Territories are represented in the Lok Sabha based on their population and are allocated specific seats accordingly.
• Unlike states, which have representation based on direct elections from territorial constituencies, members from Union Territories may sometimes be elected indirectly depending on specific provisions.
• Currently, significant Union Territories like Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir have elected representatives in the Lok Sabha, while smaller UTs like Lakshadweep have single-member constituencies.

Additional Information

• Option 2: 40
• The figure 40 is much higher than the actual provision for Union Territories in the Lok Sabha.
• The maximum representation in the Lok Sabha is determined by the population of the Union Territories, which collectively do not require such a high number of seats.
• India has a total of 543 elected seats in the Lok Sabha, and an exaggerated number like 40 for UTs would leave insufficient seats for state representation.
• Option 3: 10
• The number 10 is less than the actual maximum cap of 20 representatives for Union Territories.
• While smaller UTs like Lakshadweep and Dadra & Nagar Haveli have only one representative, larger UTs like Delhi and Jammu & Kashmir require more seats due to their population size.
• Option 4: 30
• The number 30 is higher than the constitutionally allowed maximum of 20 representatives for Union Territories.
• This option does not align with Article 81 or any legislative provisions governing Lok Sabha representation.
• Understanding Representation in Lok Sabha
• The Lok Sabha, or the House of the People, is composed of representatives from both states and Union Territories.
• The total strength of the Lok Sabha is 543 elected members, with an additional 2 members nominated by the President to represent the Anglo-Indian community (if required).
• Seats are distributed among the states and Union Territories based on population, with periodic delimitation exercises to adjust boundaries and representation.

The correct answer is Average Cost.

Key Points

• The Average Cost (AC), also referred to as the unit cost, represents the total cost divided by the number of units of output produced.
• It includes both fixed costs (costs that remain constant regardless of output) and variable costs (costs that change with the level of output).
• The formula for Average Cost is AC = Total Cost (TC) / Quantity (Q).
• Average Cost typically decreases as production increases due to the spreading of fixed costs over more units, but it may rise again if variable costs increase substantially.
• It helps in determining the profitability of producing additional units and is crucial for pricing strategies in economics and business.

Additional Information

• Average Variable Cost (AVC):
• It refers to the variable cost per unit of output produced.
• The formula for AVC is AVC = Variable Cost (VC) / Quantity (Q).
• AVC declines with an increase in production initially due to economies of scale but may rise later due to diminishing returns.
• It is an essential component in determining the break-even point and shutdown decisions in the short run.
• Average Fixed Cost (AFC):
• AFC is the fixed cost per unit of output produced.
• The formula for AFC is AFC = Fixed Cost (FC) / Quantity (Q).
• Since fixed costs remain constant, AFC decreases as production increases, leading to a "spreading effect" of fixed costs over a larger number of units.
• It is a significant factor in understanding cost structures and determining the impact of scale on production costs.
• Marginal Cost (MC):
• Marginal Cost is the additional cost incurred by producing one more unit of output.
• The formula for MC is MC = Change in Total Cost (ΔTC) / Change in Quantity (ΔQ).
• It plays a critical role in decision-making, particularly when determining whether to increase production.
• When MC is less than AC, the AC decreases, and when MC is greater than AC, the AC increases.
• Main Theme: Cost Concepts in Economics:
• The study of costs is fundamental in economics as it helps businesses and policymakers understand production efficiency, pricing, and profitability.
• Costs are categorized into fixed, variable, average, marginal, and total costs, each serving a unique purpose in economic analysis.
• Understanding these cost concepts allows firms to optimize production levels and make informed financial decisions.

The correct answer is National Highway 44.

Key Points

• National Highway 44 (NH 44) is the longest National Highway in India, stretching approximately 4,112 kilometers.
• It spans across multiple states in India, including Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
• This highway was previously known as NH 7 before the renumbering of highways in 2010.
• NH 44 connects major cities such as Srinagar, Delhi, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Bengaluru, and Kanyakumari, making it a critical route for trade and travel.
• It plays a significant role in connecting the northernmost point of India (Srinagar) to the southernmost point (Kanyakumari), facilitating seamless movement of goods and passengers.

Additional Information

• National Highway 17
• Also known as NH 66 after the renumbering in 2010, this highway runs along the western coast of India.
• It connects Panvel (Maharashtra) to Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu) and passes through Goa, Karnataka, and Kerala.
• NH 66 is notable for its scenic coastal route and provides connectivity to popular tourist destinations like Goa and Kerala.
• National Highway 31
• NH 31 is a significant highway in eastern India, connecting Barhi (Jharkhand) to Jalukbari (Assam).
• This highway is crucial for connecting Assam and other northeastern states to the rest of India.
• It passes through important cities like Siliguri and Guwahati and serves as a lifeline for trade and transportation in the region.
• National Highways in India
• National highways in India are a network of trunk roads that are managed and maintained by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
• They are essential for the economic and social development of the country, facilitating trade, tourism, and connectivity between states.
• India’s national highway network spans over 1.4 lakh kilometers, making it one of the largest in the world.
• The Golden Quadrilateral and North-South & East-West Corridors are two major highway projects aimed at improving connectivity and reducing travel time.

The correct answer is Sayyid.

Key Points

• Khizr Khan was the founder of the Sayyid dynasty, the fourth dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, which ruled from 1414 to 1451 CE.
• He was appointed as the governor of Multan by Timur, the Central Asian conqueror, and later gained control of Delhi after Timur's invasion in 1398 CE.
• Khizr Khan did not adopt the title of Sultan but ruled as a vassal of the Timurids, recognizing Timur’s authority.
• The Sayyid dynasty is considered a period of transition in the Delhi Sultanate, marked by political instability and frequent invasions.
• Khizr Khan’s rule focused on consolidating power in Delhi and surrounding regions, although his authority was limited and faced challenges from regional rulers.

Additional Information

• Tughluq Dynasty
• The Tughluq dynasty (1320–1414 CE) was known for its ambitious rulers, including Muhammad bin Tughluq and Firoz Shah Tughluq.
• Muhammad bin Tughluq is infamous for his failed experiments, such as moving the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad and introducing token currency.
• The dynasty witnessed territorial expansion but also faced rebellions, administrative challenges, and economic decline, leading to its eventual downfall.
• Khilji Dynasty
• The Khilji dynasty (1290–1320 CE) was marked by the military conquests of Alauddin Khilji, who expanded the Sultanate's territory significantly.
• Alauddin Khilji implemented market reforms, controlled prices, and strengthened the administrative system to support his military campaigns.
• The dynasty is remembered for resisting Mongol invasions and achieving significant victories in South India.
• Lodhi Dynasty
• The Lodhi dynasty (1451–1526 CE) was the last ruling dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate before the establishment of the Mughal Empire.
• It was founded by Bahlul Lodhi, followed by Sikandar Lodhi and Ibrahim Lodhi.
• The dynasty ended with Ibrahim Lodhi's defeat by Babur in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526, marking the beginning of Mughal rule in India.
• Delhi Sultanate
• The Delhi Sultanate was a series of five dynasties that ruled northern India from 1206 to 1526 CE: the Mamluks, Khiljis, Tughluqs, Sayyids, and Lodhis.
• The Sultanate was known for its contributions to architecture, culture, and the spread of Islam in the Indian subcontinent.
• It laid the foundation for centralized administration and introduced Persian culture and language to India.

The correct answer is The Chauri Chaura Incident.

Key Points

• The Chauri Chaura Incident occurred on 5 February 1922 in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
• A violent clash broke out between a group of protesters and the police, resulting in the burning down of the Chauri Chaura police station and the death of 22 policemen.
• Mahatma Gandhi, who was committed to non-violence, was deeply disturbed by the incident and felt that the movement was veering off course due to the violent actions.
• Consequently, Gandhi decided to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement on 12 February 1922, emphasizing the importance of adhering to non-violent principles.
• The suspension of the movement marked a turning point in India's struggle for independence, highlighting Gandhi's steadfast commitment to non-violence as a tool for achieving freedom.

Additional Information

• The Quit India Movement:
• Also known as the Bharat Chhodo Andolan, it was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942 during World War II, demanding an end to British rule in India.
• The movement was marked by widespread protests, strikes, and demonstrations, but was met with severe repression by the British authorities.
• Although it did not achieve immediate success, it played a crucial role in galvanizing public opinion against colonial rule and accelerating India's independence process.
• The Jallianwala Bagh Incident:
• On 13 April 1919, British troops under General Dyer fired on a peaceful gathering at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar, Punjab, killing hundreds of unarmed civilians.
• The massacre was a response to protests against the Rowlatt Act, which allowed the colonial government to arrest and detain Indians without trial.
• The incident shocked the nation and marked a turning point in India's independence movement, leading to widespread anger and intensified anti-British sentiment.
• The Simon Commission's Arrival:
• The Simon Commission was a group of British parliamentarians sent to India in 1928 to review the Government of India Act 1919 and suggest reforms.
• It was widely boycotted by Indians because it lacked any Indian representation, leading to protests and the slogan "Simon Go Back."
• These protests were significant in uniting Indians against colonial oppression and further highlighted the demand for self-governance.
• Non-Cooperation Movement:
• Launched by Gandhi in 1920, this movement aimed to boycott British goods, institutions, and services, promoting the use of Indian-made goods (Swadeshi).
• It was the first mass-scale campaign led by Gandhi against British rule, encouraging peaceful resistance and non-violent protests.
• The movement was suspended after the Chauri Chaura Incident, but it laid the groundwork for future independence campaigns.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Karnataka is one of the leading states in India for betel nut (areca nut) cultivation, contributing significantly to the country's production of this crop.
• Betel nut is primarily grown in the coastal and Malnad regions of Karnataka, including districts such as Dakshina Kannada, Udupi, Uttara Kannada, Shivamogga, Chikkamagaluru, and Kodagu.
• India is the largest producer and consumer of betel nut in the world, and Karnataka plays a pivotal role in meeting the national demand for this cash crop.
• Betel nut cultivation in Karnataka benefits from the region's favorable tropical climate, high humidity, and well-drained soil, which are essential for its growth.
• Areca nut farming is a vital source of income for many farmers in Karnataka, contributing significantly to the state’s agricultural economy.

Additional Information

• Uttarakhand
• Uttarakhand is not a major producer of betel nut. The state is known for its production of temperate crops such as apples, pears, and peaches due to its mountainous terrain and cool climate.
• The agricultural focus in Uttarakhand is largely on horticulture and medicinal plants rather than tropical crops like betel nut.
• Himachal Pradesh
• Himachal Pradesh, like Uttarakhand, is also unsuitable for betel nut cultivation due to its cooler climate and higher altitude.
• The state specializes in the cultivation of fruits like apples, cherries, and apricots, alongside tea and other hill crops.
• Punjab
• Punjab is not a traditional betel nut-growing region; instead, it is known as the agricultural hub of India, primarily cultivating wheat, rice, and sugarcane.
• The state’s climate and soil conditions are more suited for cereals and cash crops rather than tropical crops like betel nut.
• About Betel Nut Cultivation
• Betel nut, also known as areca nut, is the seed of the Areca palm (Areca catechu). It is a tropical crop grown extensively in South and Southeast Asia.
• It is primarily used for chewing, often as part of betel quid (a mixture of betel leaf, slaked lime, and other ingredients).
• Major producers in India include Karnataka, Kerala, Assam, and parts of Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.
• The crop requires a warm and humid climate with consistent rainfall, making coastal and tropical regions ideal for its cultivation.

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

• Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of Lok Sabha seats in India, with 80 seats, as per the Delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies Order, 2008.
• This large number of seats is attributed to Uttar Pradesh being the most populous state in India, with a population of over 200 million.
• The Lok Sabha, also known as the House of the People, is the lower house of India's Parliament. The allocation of seats to states is based on their population.
• Uttar Pradesh's significant representation in the Lok Sabha plays a crucial role in shaping national policies and politics.
• The state has consistently been a critical factor in determining the formation of the central government, given its large number of parliamentary constituencies.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu has 39 Lok Sabha seats, which makes it one of the most politically active states in South India.
• The state has a history of strong regional parties like DMK and AIADMK, which play a significant role in national coalition politics.
• Tamil Nadu is also known for its high voter turnout and active political engagement.
• West Bengal
• West Bengal has 42 Lok Sabha seats, making it the third-largest state in terms of parliamentary constituencies.
• The state has been historically significant in Indian politics, with key contributions to the independence movement and the post-independence political landscape.
• It is a densely populated state and has a diverse cultural and political history.
• Bihar
• Bihar has 40 Lok Sabha seats, making it the fourth-largest state in terms of representation in the lower house of Parliament.
• The state is known for its rich cultural heritage and has been a focal point of historical and political developments in India.
• Bihar has a significant role in influencing national politics due to its demographic and historical importance.
• Theme of the Question
• The distribution of Lok Sabha seats among Indian states is determined by the population of each state as per the last Census.
• The Delimitation of Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies Order, 2008, governs the division of constituencies to ensure fair representation.
• The Lok Sabha has a total of 543 elected seats, and the allocation is designed to maintain proportional representation based on population.

The correct answer is Article 9.

Key Points

• Article 9 of the Indian Constitution states that any person who voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign state will cease to be a citizen of India.
• This article ensures that India does not allow dual citizenship, emphasizing that individuals must choose either Indian citizenship or foreign citizenship.
• Voluntary acquisition refers to cases where an individual willingly applies for and accepts the citizenship of another country.
• The provision is consistent with India's single-citizenship policy, which distinguishes Indian law from countries that permit dual nationality.
• This article is critical for regulating citizenship laws in India and ensuring that individuals cannot simultaneously owe allegiance to two nations.

Additional Information

• Article 5
• Article 5 deals with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., on January 26, 1950).
• It specifies that a person who had a domicile in India and fulfilled conditions such as birth in India, parentage, or ordinary residence for at least five years before the commencement of the Constitution would be a citizen of India.
• This article primarily addressed citizenship status during the transitional period following independence.
• Article 7
• Article 7 pertains to individuals who migrated to Pakistan after March 1, 1947, but later returned to India with proper permits for resettlement.
• Such individuals could become Indian citizens provided they fulfilled certain residency and procedural requirements.
• The article was crucial for addressing the citizenship of people affected by partition-related migration.
• Article 11
• Article 11 grants Parliament the authority to regulate citizenship through legislation.
• It empowers Parliament to make laws concerning the acquisition, termination, and other matters related to Indian citizenship.
• Under this provision, the Citizenship Act of 1955 was enacted, laying down detailed rules and procedures for citizenship.

The correct answer is Andaman and Nicobar Islands had the literacy rate above 85%.

Key Points

• The literacy rate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands was recorded at 86.63% in the Census 2011.
• It was one of the Union Territories to achieve a literacy rate above 85%, highlighting significant progress in educational attainment.
• The male literacy rate in Andaman and Nicobar Islands was 90.27%, while the female literacy rate was 82.43%, showing a gender gap but still a commendable achievement.
• Overall, India’s literacy rate in Census 2011 was 74.04%, with a male literacy rate of 82.14% and a female literacy rate of 65.46%.
• The government has implemented various programs, such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan and mid-day meal schemes, to improve literacy rates in remote areas, including Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Additional Information

• In two states of India, Kerala and Goa, the literacy rate was higher for the females:
• This statement is incorrect as per Census 2011. Although Kerala had the highest literacy rate in India at 94%, the male literacy rate (96.11%) was still higher than the female literacy rate (92.07%).
• Similarly, in Goa, the male literacy rate (92.81%) was higher than the female literacy rate (84.66%).
• Despite these differences, both states have made remarkable progress in reducing the gender literacy gap.
• Both Nagaland and Orissa crossed 80% in the literacy rate:
• This statement is incorrect as per Census 2011. While Nagaland achieved a literacy rate of 80.11%, Odisha (formerly Orissa) recorded a literacy rate of 72.87%, which is below 80%.
• The literacy rate in Nagaland improved significantly due to focused educational initiatives in tribal and rural areas.
• Odisha, despite lagging behind, showed notable progress compared to previous census reports.
• Puducherry showed a remarkable rise in the literacy rate compared to 2001 Census, with 92% literacy rate in 2011:
• This statement is partially incorrect. While Puducherry did show a rise in literacy rate and recorded 85.85% literacy in 2011, it did not reach the claimed 92% mark.
• The male literacy rate in Puducherry was 91.26%, while the female literacy rate was 80.67%, showcasing notable improvement in both genders.
• Puducherry remains one of the Union Territories with a high literacy rate due to extensive government efforts to promote education.
• General Information on Census 2011 Literacy Data:
• Kerala had the highest literacy rate in India at 94%, while Bihar had the lowest at 61.8%.
• The literacy rate among males was significantly higher than females across most states, reflecting persistent gender inequalities.
• The Census 2011 marked a steady improvement in the overall literacy rate compared to the Census 2001, with an increase of 8.15 percentage points.
• Focused programs like the National Literacy Mission and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao have played key roles in improving literacy in India.

The correct answer is Dependency theory.

Key Points

• Dependency theory highlights the structural inequalities between developed (core) and developing (peripheral) nations in the global economic system.
• It argues that underdevelopment in peripheral nations is perpetuated by their dependence on the core nations for trade, investment, and technology.
• The theory asserts that global economic institutions and systems, such as multinational corporations and trade agreements, reinforce this dependency.
• Proponents of dependency theory, such as Andre Gunder Frank, contend that poverty and inequality in developing nations are not accidental but are systematically maintained through exploitative relationships.
• The theory critiques the assumption that underdeveloped countries will follow the same growth trajectory as developed nations under the existing global economic framework.

Additional Information

• Modernisation theory
• Modernisation theory suggests that societies progress through a series of stages toward modernization and development, typically modeled after Western industrialized nations.
• It emphasizes internal factors, such as cultural values, infrastructure, and political reforms, as key to achieving development.
• This theory assumes that traditional societies are stagnant and need to adopt modern economic and social practices to achieve growth.
• Critics argue that it overlooks the impact of external factors, such as colonialism and global economic systems, in shaping underdevelopment.
• Structural adjustment theory
• This theory is tied to the structural adjustment programs (SAPs) introduced by international financial institutions like the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
• SAPs require developing countries to implement economic reforms, such as reducing public expenditure, liberalizing trade, and privatizing industries, to receive financial assistance.
• Supporters argue that these measures promote economic growth and stability, while critics claim they often lead to increased poverty, inequality, and reduced access to essential services.
• Human capital theory
• This theory focuses on the role of education, skills, and health in enhancing the productivity and economic potential of individuals and societies.
• It views investments in human capital (such as education and training) as crucial for economic development and growth.
• While it emphasizes internal factors in development, it does not address the structural and systemic causes of poverty, as highlighted by dependency theory.

The correct answer is Old Stone Age.

Key Points

• The Palaeolithic Period is also known as the Old Stone Age, as it represents the earliest phase of human prehistory characterized by the use of simple stone tools.
• This period roughly spans from about 2.5 million years ago to 10,000 BCE.
• The hallmark of this era was the use of chipped stone tools made from materials like flint and quartzite.
• Humans during this period were primarily hunters and gatherers, depending on wild animals and plants for food.
• The Palaeolithic Age is divided into three phases: Lower, Middle, and Upper Palaeolithic, marking advances in tool-making techniques and societal organization.

Additional Information

• Stone Age
• The Stone Age is a broad prehistoric period during which humans primarily used stone tools. It is divided into three periods: Palaeolithic (Old Stone Age), Mesolithic (Middle Stone Age), and Neolithic (New Stone Age).
• Each phase reflects advancements in tool-making, subsistence patterns, and cultural practices.
• Iron Age
• The Iron Age is the period that followed the Bronze Age, characterized by the extensive use of iron and steel tools and weapons.
• It began around 1200 BCE in parts of the world and is associated with the development of complex societies, trade networks, and written scripts.
• Old Iron Age
• This is not a recognized archaeological term. It may refer to an early phase of the Iron Age, but such terminology is generally not used in academic classifications.
• General Information about the Palaeolithic Age
• Fire was discovered and controlled during this period, significantly impacting human life.
• Cave art and carvings, such as those found in Lascaux (France) and Bhimbetka (India), provide evidence of early human creativity and symbolic thinking.
• Humans lived in caves or temporary shelters and formed small nomadic groups.

Given:

Listed price = 80% more than cost price

Discount = 66%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Listed Price × (1 - Discount/100)

Loss % = [(Cost Price - Selling Price) / Cost Price] × 100

Calculation:

Let the Cost Price = 100

⇒ Listed Price = Cost Price + (80% of Cost Price) = 100 + (80/100) × 100 = 100 + 80 = 180

⇒ Selling Price = Listed Price × (1 - Discount/100) = 180 × (1 - 66/100) = 180 × (34/100) = 61.2

⇒ Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price = 100 - 61.2 = 38.8

⇒ Loss % = (Loss / Cost Price) × 100 = (38.8 / 100) × 100 = 38.8%

∴ The correct answer is 38.8%.

Solution:

Speed of stream = 4 km/hr

Let speed of boat in still water = b km/hr

Downstream speed = b + 4

Upstream speed = b − 4

Step 1: Use given condition

Time taken downstream = Time taken upstream

87 ÷ (b + 4) = 29 ÷ (b − 4)

Cross multiply:

87(b − 4) = 29(b + 4)

87b − 348 = 29b + 116

87b − 29b = 116 + 348

58b = 464

b = 8 km/hr

Step 2: Find actual speeds

Downstream speed = 8 + 4 = 12 km/hr

Upstream speed = 8 − 4 = 4 km/hr

Step 3: Time for given distances

Time for 46 km downstream:

= 46 ÷ 12 = 23/6 hours

Time for 99 km upstream:

= 99 ÷ 4 = 24.75 hours

Step 4: Total time

Total time = 23/6 + 99/4

LCM of 6 and 4 = 12

= (46 + 297) ÷ 12

= 343/12 hours

= 28.58 hours (approx)

Final Answer:

Time required = 343/12 hours

Given:

Seats for Chemistry, Physics, and Mathematics are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 4.

Increase in Chemistry seats = 20%.

Increase in Physics seats = 50%.

Increase in Mathematics seats = 50%.

Formula Used:

New seats = Original seats × (1 + Percentage increase / 100).

Ratio = Simplified form of new seat values.

Calculation:

Original seats for Chemistry = 5x, Physics = 7x, Mathematics = 4x.

New Chemistry seats = 5x × (1 + 20 / 100) = 5x × 1.2 = 6x.

New Physics seats = 7x × (1 + 50 / 100) = 7x × 1.5 = 10.5x.

New Mathematics seats = 4x × (1 + 50 / 100) = 4x × 1.5 = 6x.

New ratio = 6x : 10.5x : 6x.

Simplify: 6 : 10.5 : 6 = 4 : 7 : 4 (divide all terms by 1.5).

∴ The correct answer is 4 : 7 : 4.

Given:

Cost of rice variety 1 = ₹273 per kg

Cost of rice variety 2 = ₹170 per kg

Cost of mixture = ₹223 per kg

Formula Used:

Ratio = (Cost of rice 1 - Cost of mixture) : (Cost of mixture - Cost of rice 2)

Calculation:

⇒ Ratio = (273 - 223) : (223 - 170)

⇒ Ratio = 50 : 53

∴ The correct answer is 53 : 50.

Given:

Hemant can complete the work in 7 days.

Irfan can complete the work in 19 days.

Hemant and Irfan worked together for 4 days.

Formula Used:

Work done by a person in 1 day = 1 / Total days to complete work.

Work done together in 1 day = Work done by Hemant in 1 day + Work done by Irfan in 1 day.

Work remaining = Total work - Work done together in 4 days.

Time taken to complete remaining work = Remaining work / Work done by Hemant in 1 day.

Calculation:

⇒ Work done by Hemant in 1 day = 1 / 7.

⇒ Work done by Irfan in 1 day = 1 / 19.

⇒ Work done by Hemant and Irfan together in 1 day = (1 / 7) + (1 / 19).

⇒ Work done by Hemant and Irfan together in 1 day = (19 + 7) / (7 × 19).

⇒ Work done by Hemant and Irfan together in 1 day = 26 / 133.

⇒ Work done by Hemant and Irfan together in 4 days = (26 / 133) × 4.

⇒ Work done by Hemant and Irfan together in 4 days = 104 / 133.

⇒ Work remaining = 1 - (104 / 133).

⇒ Work remaining = (133 - 104) / 133.

⇒ Work remaining = 29 / 133.

⇒ Time taken by Hemant to complete remaining work = (29 / 133) ÷ (1 / 7).

⇒ Time taken by Hemant to complete remaining work = (29 / 133) × 7.

⇒ Time taken by Hemant to complete remaining work = 203 / 133.

⇒ Time taken by Hemant to complete remaining work = 1 70 / 133.

⇒ Time taken by Hemant to complete remaining work = 1101911019

.

∴ The correct answer is 1101911019

.

Given:

Pipe A can fill the tank in 27 hours.

Pipe B can fill the tank in 10 hours.

Formula Used:

Work done by a pipe in 1 hour = 1 / Time taken by the pipe to fill the tank.

Total work = 1.

Time taken when two pipes work together = Total work / (Work done by Pipe A + Work done by Pipe B).

Calculation:

Work done by Pipe A in 1 hour = 1 / 27.

Work done by Pipe B in 1 hour = 1 / 10.

⇒ Total work done in 1 hour by both pipes = (1 / 27) + (1 / 10).

⇒ Total work done in 1 hour = (10 + 27) / (27 × 10).

⇒ Total work done in 1 hour = 37 / 270.

Time taken to fill the tank = Total work / Work done in 1 hour.

⇒ Time taken = 1 / (37 / 270).

⇒ Time taken = 270 / 37.

⇒ Time taken = 7 11/37 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 71137hours71137hours

.

Given:

20% of a number is added to 120, resulting in the same number.

Formula Used:

20% of a number = (20 / 100) × number

Calculation:

⇒ Let the number be x.

⇒ (20 / 100) × x + 120 = x

⇒ (20x / 100) + 120 = x

⇒ 120 = x - (20x / 100)

⇒ 120 = (100x - 20x) / 100

⇒ 120 = 80x / 100

⇒ x = (120 × 100) / 80

⇒ x = 150

⇒ 20% of x = (20 / 100) × 150

⇒ 20% of x = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Given:

Number of children with height ≤ 125 cm = 16

Number of children with height ≤ 145 cm = 72

Number of children with height ≤ 150 cm = 86

Formula Used:

Total children with height less than or equal to 125 cm or greater than 145 cm = (Children with height ≤ 125 cm) + (Children with height > 145 cm)

Children with height > 145 cm = (Children with height ≤ 150 cm) - (Children with height ≤ 145 cm)

Calculation:

⇒ Children with height > 145 cm = 86 - 72

⇒ Children with height > 145 cm = 14

⇒ Total children = 16 + 14

⇒ Total children = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Given:

Selling price of each article = ₹6,000

Gain on the first article = 50%

Loss on the second article = 25%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (C.P.) = Selling Price (S.P.) × 100 / (100 ± Gain or Loss %)

Total Cost Price = C.P. of first article + C.P. of second article

Total Loss % = [(Total Cost Price - Total Selling Price) / Total Cost Price] × 100

Calculation:

For the first article:

⇒ C.P. = 6000 × 100 / (100 + 50)

⇒ C.P. = 6000 × 100 / 150

⇒ C.P. = ₹4,000

For the second article:

⇒ C.P. = 6000 × 100 / (100 - 25)

⇒ C.P. = 6000 × 100 / 75

⇒ C.P. = ₹8,000

Total Cost Price:

⇒ Total C.P. = 4000 + 8000

⇒ Total C.P. = ₹12,000

Total Selling Price:

⇒ Total S.P. = 6000 + 6000

⇒ Total S.P. = ₹12,000

Loss %:

⇒ Total Loss % = [(Total C.P. - Total S.P.) / Total C.P.] × 100

⇒ Total Loss % = [(12000 - 12000) / 12000] × 100

⇒ Total Loss % = 0%

∴ The correct answer is 0.

Given:

Expression: 272 \div \left[\frac{14}{7} \times \left{9 + 7 - \left(3 + 8 - (4 + 8)\right)\right}\right]

Formula Used:

Order of operations: Parentheses → Multiplication/Division → Addition/Subtraction

Calculation:

⇒ 272 \div \left[\frac{14}{7} \times \left{9 + 7 - \left(3 + 8 - (4 + 8)\right)\right}\right]

⇒ 272 \div \left[\frac{14}{7} \times \left{9 + 7 - \left(3 + 8 - 12\right)\right}\right]

⇒ 272 \div \left[\frac{14}{7} \times \left{9 + 7 - \left(3 - 4\right)\right}\right]

⇒ 272 \div \left[\frac{14}{7} \times \left{9 + 7 - (-1)\right}\right]

⇒ $272 \div \left[\frac{14}{7} \times \left(9 + 7 + 1\right)\right]$

⇒ $272 \div \left[\frac{14}{7} \times 17\right]$

⇒ $272 \div \left[2 \times 17\right]$

⇒ $272 \div 34$

⇒ 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Solution:

Work rates:

A’s 1-day work = 1/14

B’s 1-day work = 1/17

They work on alternate days, starting with B.

Step 1: Work done in 2 days (B + A)

Day 1 (B) = 1/17

Day 2 (A) = 1/14

Work in 2 days = 1/17 + 1/14

LCM of 17 and 14 = 238

= 14/238 + 17/238

= 31/238

Step 2: Number of complete 2-day cycles

Total work = 1

Number of cycles = 238 ÷ 31 = 7

Work done in 7 cycles = 7 × 31/238

= 217/238

Remaining work = 1 − 217/238

= 21/238

Step 3: Next day is B’s turn

B’s 1-day work = 1/17

Time taken = (21/238) ÷ (1/17)

= 21/238 × 17

= 357/238 days

Step 4: Total time

Time for 7 cycles = 14 days

Total time = 14 + 357/238

= (3332 + 357) ÷ 238

= 3689/238 days

= 15.5 days (approx)

Final Answer:

Work will be completed in approximately 15.5 days.

Shortcut Trick

Time for P = 28 × (9/7) = 36 hours

Time for Q = 24 × (3/2) = 36 hours

Time for R = 18 × (3/1) = 54 hours (Emptying)

Combined Efficiency (P+Q−R) = 1/36 + 1/36 − 1/54 = 2/36 − 1/54 = 1/18 − 1/54 = (3−1)/54 = 2/54 = 1/27

∴ The correct answer is 27 hours.

Alternate Method

Given:

P fills 7/9 tank in 28 hours.

Q fills 2/3 tank in 24 hours.

R empties 1/3 tank in 18 hours.

Formula Used:

Total Work = LCM of individual times; Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

⇒ Time taken by P to fill full tank = 28 × 9 ÷ 7 = 36 hours

⇒ Time taken by Q to fill full tank = 24 × 3 ÷ 2 = 36 hours

⇒ Time taken by R to empty full tank = 18 × 3 ÷ 1 = 54 hours

⇒ Total Work = LCM(36, 36, 54) = 108 units

⇒ Combined Efficiency of (P + Q + R) = 3 + 3 − 2 = 4 units/hour

⇒ Time taken to fill the tank = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency

⇒ Time = 108 ÷ 4 = 27 hours

∴ The correct answer is 27 hours.

Additional Information

Inlet and Outlet Pipes

Inlet pipes have positive efficiency (+) as they add water, while outlet/leakage pipes have negative efficiency (−) as they remove water.

Fractional Work Rule

If 1/x part of work is done in T hours, then the total work is completed in T × x hours.

Pipes and Cisterns Formula

If two pipes fill a tank in x and y hours and a third empties it in z hours, net work in 1 hour = (1/x + 1/y − 1/z).

Solution:

Dimensions of the cuboidal tank:

Length = 2 m

Breadth = 49 m

Height = 46 m

Step 1: Use volume formula

Volume = length × breadth × height

= 2 × 49 × 46

Step 2: Calculate

49 × 46 = 2254

2 × 2254 = 4508

Final Answer:

Volume of the tank = 4508 cubic metres

Given:

16% of 50−26×729−−−√3×64−−√=y50−26×7293×64=y

Options: 1) −19, 2) −26, 3) −16, 4) −21

Formula Used:

729−−−√3=97293=9

64−−√=864=8

16% of a value = value × (16 / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ 50−26×729−−−√3×64−−√50−26×7293×64

⇒ 50−26×9×850−26×9×8

⇒ 50−26×7250−26×72

⇒ 50−2450−24

⇒ 2626

Now, 16% of 26:

⇒ 26×1610026×16100

⇒ 26×0.16=4.1626×0.16=4.16

Finally, subtract from 26:

⇒ 26−4.16=−19.84≈−1926−4.16=−19.84≈−19

∴ The correct answer is −19.

Given:

Side of the cube = 12 cm

Length of the container = 20 cm

Breadth of the container = 18 cm

Height of the container = 14 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of cube = side³

Volume of water displaced = Volume of cube

Rise in water level = Volume of water displaced / (Length × Breadth of container)

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of cube = 12 × 12 × 12 = 1728 cm³

⇒ Volume of water displaced = 1728 cm³

⇒ Rise in water level = 1728 / (20 × 18)

⇒ Rise in water level = 1728 / 360

⇒ Rise in water level = 4.8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 4.8 cm.

Given:

Ratio of cost prices of X and Y = 6 : 7

Profit on X = 11%

Loss on Y = 28%

Formula Used:

Total cost price = Cost price of X + Cost price of Y

Total selling price = Selling price of X + Selling price of Y

Overall gain/loss percentage = [(Total selling price - Total cost price) / Total cost price] × 100

Calculation:

Let the cost price of X = 6a and cost price of Y = 7a.

⇒ Total cost price = 6a + 7a = 13a

Selling price of X = Cost price of X × (1 + Profit%)

⇒ Selling price of X = 6a × (1 + 11/100) = 6a × 111/100 = 666a/100

Selling price of Y = Cost price of Y × (1 - Loss%)

⇒ Selling price of Y = 7a × (1 - 28/100) = 7a × 72/100 = 504a/100

Total selling price = Selling price of X + Selling price of Y

⇒ Total selling price = 666a/100 + 504a/100 = (666a + 504a)/100 = 1170a/100

Overall gain/loss percentage = [(1170a/100 - 13a) / 13a] × 100

⇒ Overall gain/loss percentage = [(1170a - 1300a) / 1300a] × 100

⇒ Overall gain/loss percentage = (-130a / 1300a) × 100

⇒ Overall gain/loss percentage = -10%

∴ The correct answer is Loss, 10%.

Given:

Time taken for the journey = 9 hours

Speed for the first half = 26 km/hr

Speed for the second half = 91 km/hr

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Total time = Time for first half + Time for second half

Time = Distance / Speed

Calculation:

Let the total distance = D km.

Distance covered in the first half = D/2

Distance covered in the second half = D/2

Time for the first half = (D/2) / 26 = D / 52

Time for the second half = (D/2) / 91 = D / 182

Total time = Time for first half + Time for second half

⇒ 9 = D / 52 + D / 182

Taking LCM of 52 and 182, LCM = 364

⇒ 9 = (7D + 2D) / 364

⇒ 9 = 9D / 364

⇒ D = (9 × 364) / 9

⇒ D = 364

∴ The correct answer is 364 km.

Calculation:

272 ÷ \left[\frac{20}{10} × \left{6 + 5 - \left(5 + 2 - (2 + 2)\right)\right}\right]

⇒ 272 ÷ [2 × {6 + 5 - (5 + 2 - 4)}]

⇒ 272 ÷ [2 × {6 + 5 - (7 - 4)}]

⇒ 272 ÷ [2 × {6 + 5 - 3}]

⇒ 272 ÷ [2 × {11 - 3}]

⇒ 272 ÷ [2 × 8]

⇒ 272 ÷ 16 = 17

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Value 1 = 24

Value 2 = 54

Formula Used:

Mean Proportional = √(Value 1 × Value 2)

Calculation:

⇒ Mean Proportional = √(24 × 54)

⇒ Mean Proportional = √1296

⇒ Mean Proportional = 36

∴ The correct answer is 36.

Solution:

Marks obtained:

B = 64

A = 80

Step 1: Find percentage

Percentage = (A's marks ÷ B's marks) × 100

= (80 ÷ 64) × 100

= 1.25 × 100

= 125%

Final Answer:

A's marks are 125% of B's marks.

The correct answer is: Considerate.

Key Points

• The word "flippant" means not showing a serious or respectful attitude; it refers to being frivolous or lacking in seriousness. (गंभीरता का अभाव / चंचल)
• Example: The student’s flippant response to the teacher’s question upset everyone in the classroom.
• "Considerate" refers to being thoughtful, kind, and respectful of others' feelings and circumstances. (विचारशील / ध्यान रखने वाला)
• Example: She is a considerate neighbor who always checks in on elderly residents in the building.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'flippant' is 'considerate'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Considerate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Detailed (विस्तृत): Giving a lot of information with many details.
• Example: The professor provided a detailed explanation of the scientific concept.
• Confused (भ्रमित): Unable to think clearly or understand something.
• Example: She was confused about which route to take to reach the destination.
• Insolent (असभ्य): Showing a rude and arrogant lack of respect.
• Example: The employee was fired for his insolent attitude toward the manager.

The correct answer is: Hedonist.

Key Points

• The word "Hedonist" refers to a person who believes that the pursuit of pleasure is the most important thing in life and seeks to maximize personal enjoyment. (भोगवादी)
• Example: As a hedonist, she spends her weekends indulging in delicious food and luxurious experiences.
• Explanation: A hedonist is someone whose main goal is to seek pleasure and avoid pain. They prioritize personal satisfaction and enjoyment above all else. (भोगवादी)
• Example: John’s hedonistic lifestyle often leads him to exotic vacations and extravagant parties.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Hedonist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Antagonist (विरोधी): A person who opposes or is hostile to someone or something.
• Example: The antagonist in the story made it difficult for the hero to achieve his goals.
• Puritan (सदाचारी): A person who practices strict religious or moral behavior and avoids all forms of indulgence.
• Example: Her puritan values made her stay away from parties and social gatherings.
• Ascetic (संन्यासी): A person who practices severe self-discipline and abstention from all forms of indulgence, often for religious reasons.
• Example: The monk led an ascetic life, dedicating himself to prayer and meditation.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Sentence B, which introduces the protagonist embarking on a research journey:
• "She embarked on a year-long journey to gather data from various cultures."
• Sentence C follows, as it explains the significance and impact of her study:
• "Her study challenges existing norms about societal structures."
• Sentence D comes next, highlighting the publication of her findings:
• "Results from her anthropological research were published in a best-selling book."
• Sentence A is the final sentence, showing the result of the book's success:
• "The book has been well-received, leading to numerous speaking engagements."
• The correct sequence is BCDA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"She embarked on a year-long journey to gather data from various cultures. Her study challenges existing norms about societal structures. Results from her anthropological research were published in a best-selling book. The book has been well-received, leading to numerous speaking engagements."

The correct answer is C.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. To end a conflict.

Key Points

• The idiom "Bury the hatchet" means to resolve differences or disputes and make peace. (झगड़ा खत्म करना और शांति स्थापित करना)
• Example: After years of hostility, the two families decided to bury the hatchet and celebrate the festival together.
• It symbolizes the act of forgiving and forgetting past conflicts to move forward harmoniously. (अतीत के झगड़े को भूलकर शांति से आगे बढ़ने का प्रतीक)

Therefore, the correct answer is: To end a conflict.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To reveal a secret (राज़ को उजागर करना): To disclose or share information that was meant to be kept confidential.
• Example: He revealed the secret about the surprise party to his friend.
• To plant a tree (पेड लगाना): The act of placing a tree or sapling in the ground to grow.
• Example: On World Environment Day, we planted trees in the park.
• To forget something (कुछ भूल जाना): To fail to remember something or to intentionally put it out of one’s mind.
• Example: She tends to forget her keys every time she leaves the house.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'quintissential'.

• The correct spelling would be 'quintessential'.
• The word 'quintessential' is an adjective which means 'representing the most perfect or typical example of a quality or class'. (सर्वोत्कृष्ट)
• For Example -
• She is the quintessential teacher, inspiring and dedicated.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'quintissential'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Obfuscation - the action of making something obscure, unclear, or unintelligible (धुंधला बनाना)
• Contemporary - living or occurring at the same time (समकालीन)
• Insurmountable - too great to be overcome (अपराजेय)

The correct answer is C.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Sentence A, which introduces classical physics and its limitations:
• "While classical physics explains macroscopic phenomena, it fails to describe behaviours observed at the subatomic level."
• Sentence B follows, as it highlights the development of quantum mechanics and its revolutionary impact:
• "Quantum mechanics, developed in the early 20^th century, revolutionised our understanding of atomic and subatomic particles."
• Sentence C is the third sentence, as it elaborates on key principles of quantum mechanics that challenged classical physics:
• "The wave-particle duality and uncertainty principle challenged long-held deterministic views in physics."
• Sentence D concludes the paragraph, as it reflects on the broader impact of quantum mechanics:
• "This fundamental shift in perspective paved the way for groundbreaking advancements in fields such as quantum computing and nanotechnology."
• The correct sequence is A-B-C-D.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"While classical physics explains macroscopic phenomena, it fails to describe behaviours observed at the subatomic level. Quantum mechanics, developed in the early 20^th century, revolutionised our understanding of atomic and subatomic particles. The wave-particle duality and uncertainty principle challenged long-held deterministic views in physics. This fundamental shift in perspective paved the way for groundbreaking advancements in fields such as quantum computing and nanotechnology."

The correct answer is D.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Adapt to the customs of the place you are in.

Key Points

• The proverb "When in Rome, do as the Romans do" means that when you are in a new place, you should try to follow or adapt to the customs, traditions, and behaviors of the people living there. (जब रोम में हों, तो रोमवासियों जैसा करें।)
• Example: While visiting Japan, she bowed to greet people as the locals do, embracing the culture.
• Adapt refers to the act of adjusting oneself to new conditions or environments. (अनुकूलित करना)
• Example: The students quickly adapted to the new school routine after transferring.
• Hence, following the customs of the place you are in is the correct interpretation of this proverb.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Always follow your own culture wherever you go (जहां भी जाएं, अपनी संस्कृति का पालन करें): This suggests staying true to one's own traditions, but it contradicts the idea of adapting to a new place.
• Example: Despite traveling across the world, he always wore traditional attire as a mark of his culture.
• Option 2: Keep looking for better options everywhere (हर जगह बेहतर विकल्पों की तलाश करें): This conveys the idea of constantly searching for alternatives, but it is not related to the meaning of the given proverb.
• Example: She kept browsing different markets to find the best deal for her shopping list.
• Option 3: Doing as others do is wrong (दूसरों जैसा करना गलत है): This implies rejecting conformity, which is the opposite of the proverb’s meaning.
• Example: He refused to follow the crowd and chose to act differently during the event.

The correct answer is B.

The correct answer is: Deliberate.

Key Points

• The word "impetuous" means acting or done quickly without thought or care; impulsive or reckless behavior. (आवेगी)
• Example: His impetuous remarks during the meeting created unnecessary tension.
• "Deliberate" refers to something that is done consciously and intentionally, with careful thought and consideration. (सोचा-समझा)
• Example: The manager’s deliberate planning ensured the success of the project.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'impetuous' is 'deliberate'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Deliberate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Reckless (लापरवाह): Acting without thinking about the consequences; careless.
• Example: His reckless driving caused a major accident.
• Hasty (जल्दबाज़): Done quickly or without sufficient thought.
• Example: He made a hasty decision to resign from his job.
• Impulsive (आवेगी): Acting on instinct without thinking about the outcomes.
• Example: Her impulsive shopping habits often left her with unnecessary items.

The correct answer is C.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Independant'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Independent'.
• The word 'Independent' is an adjective which means 'free from outside control; not depending on another's authority'. (���्वतंत्र)
• For Example -
• She is an independent woman who manages her own business.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Independant'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words -

• Accommodate - to provide lodging or sufficient space for someone (समायोजित करना)
• Necessary - required to be done, achieved, or present; needed; essential (आवश्यक)
• Occasion - a particular event, or the time at which it takes place (अवसर)

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Etymologist.

Key Points

• The word "Philologist" refers to a person who studies language in written historical sources; it is a combination of literary studies, history, and linguistics. (भाषाशास्त्री)
• Example: The philologist analyzed ancient manuscripts to uncover the evolution of the language.
• "Etymologist" refers to a person who studies the origin and history of words and how their meanings and forms have changed over time. (शब्द-व्युत्पत्तिशास्त्री)
• Example: The etymologist traced the origin of the word "pandemic" to Greek roots.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct one-word substitute for a person who studies the origin and history of words is "Etymologist".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Lexicographer (शब्दकोश-निर्माता): A person who compiles dictionaries.
• Example: The lexicographer spent years compiling a comprehensive dictionary of regional dialects.
• Philologist (भाषाशास्त्री): A person who studies language in written historical sources.
• Example: The philologist's research contributed to understanding ancient Greek literature.
• Linguist (भाषाविद्): A person skilled in foreign languages or who studies linguistics.
• Example: As a linguist, she is fluent in seven languages and studies how they are related.

The correct answer is: Option (1) i.e. coal.

Key Points

• Coal is a fossil fuel, not a renewable energy source. It is finite and contributes significantly to environmental degradation and greenhouse gas emissions.
• The passage describes wind, solar, and hydro as renewable energy sources that are abundant and environmentally friendly.
• Renewable sources can be replenished naturally and do not deplete over time, unlike coal.

Therefore, the correct answer is- coal

Additional Information

• Wind: Renewable energy captured by wind turbines.
• Solar: Renewable energy harnessed from the sun.
• Hydro: Renewable energy generated from flowing water.

The correct answer is: Option (3) i.e. It gives little to no emissions.

Key Points

• One major environmental benefit of renewable energy, as highlighted in the passage, is that it produces little to no emissions during operation.
• This helps mitigate climate change and reduces air pollution, unlike fossil fuels that release large amounts of carbon dioxide and other harmful pollutants.
• The other options do not directly address the environmental benefit discussed.

Therefore, the correct answer is- It gives little to no emissions

Additional Information

• Relies on imported fuels: Renewable energy promotes energy independence, not dependence on imports.
• Cheaper: While costs are decreasing, the main environmental benefit is reduced emissions.
• Needs high technological advancements: This is about feasibility, not an environmental benefit.

The correct answer is: Option (3) i.e. It reduces dependency on imported fuels.

Key Points

• Renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and hydro can be harnessed from a country's own natural resources, reducing the need to import fuels from other nations.
• This increases national energy independence and security, as countries are less vulnerable to international supply disruptions.
• The other options do not reflect how renewable energy supports energy security.

Therefore, the correct answer is- It reduces dependency on imported fuels.

Additional Information

• It is more expensive: Not relevant to energy security.
• It leads to environmental degradation: Renewable energy is environmentally friendly.
• It uses fossil fuels: Renewable energy is an alternative to fossil fuels.

The correct answer is: Option (4) i.e. solar energy.

Key Points

• Photovoltaic cells are used to convert sunlight directly into electricity, which is the defining technology of solar energy.
• Other options like hydro energy, biomass, and wind energy use different mechanisms to generate power.

Therefore, the correct answer is- solar energy

Additional Information

• Hydro energy: Uses water flow, not photovoltaic cells.
• Biomass: Uses organic materials, not photovoltaic cells.
• Wind energy: Uses wind turbines, not photovoltaic cells.

The correct answer is: Option (4) i.e. Renewable energy and its importance.

Key Points

• The passage explains the significance of renewable energy for a sustainable future, describing its sources and key benefits such as environmental protection, energy security, and economic growth.
• It emphasizes why investing in renewable energy is essential, making "its importance" the most fitting summary.
• The other options—sources, impact, reluctance—are either too narrow or not directly representative of the passage’s main message.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Renewable energy and its importance

Additional Information

• Renewable energy and its reluctance: The passage does not discuss reluctance.
• Renewable energy and its sources: Covered, but not as comprehensive as "its importance."
• Renewable energy and its impact: Discussed, but the passage focuses on why it matters most.

सही उत्तर है- वीरगति प्राप्त होना

Key Pointsयाद आना-

• अर्थ- वीरगति प्राप्त होना
• वाक्य प्रयोग-
• जब उसने पुरानी डायरी खोली, तो उसे बचपन की यादें याद आ गईं।

Additional Information​गायब होने का नाटक करना=

• इसका अर्थ है जानबूझकर किसी जगह से गायब हो जाना।
• उदाहरण: जब भी काम करने का समय होता है, मेरे बच्चे गायब होने का नाटक करने लगते हैं।​

हाथ पकड़ना-

• अर्थ- मदद करना या सहारा देना
• उदाहरण- "मेरे बुरे वक्त में मेरे दोस्तों ने मेरा हाथ पकड़ा।"

​गाँठ में बाँधना -

• अर्थ- किसी बात या अनुभव को हमेशा याद रखना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग :- तुम मेरी ये महत्वपूर्ण बातें गाँठ में बांध लो।

Important Points

• मुहावरे की परिभाषा :-
• किसी भाषा की अभिव्यंजना के विशिष्ट रूप को ‘मुहावरा’ कहते हैं। विशिष्ट शब्दों, विचित्र प्रयोगों एवं प्रयोग-सिद्ध विशिष्ट वाक्यांशों को ‘मुहावरा’ कहते हैं।

सही उत्तर है- का संघठन 

Key Pointsसही वाक्य होगा-

• हमने एक सभा का संगठन किया।

Important Points

• वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Informationवर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

सही उत्तर है- खींचातानी करना

Key Pointsखींचातानी करना-

• अर्थ: कड़ा संघर्ष, खींचतान या रस्साकशी करना।
• उदाहरण: "जमीन के टुकड़े पर दो भाइयों में घंटों खींचातानी होती रही"

Important Points

• मुहावरा एक ऐसा वाक्य होता है
• जो वाक्य की रचना करने पर अपना एक अलग अर्थ या विशेष अर्थ प्रकट करता है
• इनका प्रयोग करने से भाषा,आकर्षक, प्रभावपूर्ण तथा रोचक बन जाती है।

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण मुहावरा, अर्थ और उनके वाक्य प्रयोग:- ​

• खून के आँसू रोना- बहुत दुःखी या परेशान होना
• वाक्य प्रयोग-
• ​व्यापार में घाटा होने पर सेठजी "खून के आँसू रो रहे हैं"।
• दाँतों पसीना आना- बहुत अधिक परेशानी उठाना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग- 
• ​कार्यालय में सुबह से शाम इतना काम करते करते "दांतो पसीना आ जाता है"।
• लोहे के चने चबाना- बहुत कठिनाई उठाना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग- 
• ​कला प्रतियोगिता में प्रथम आने के लिए प्रतिभा को "लोहे के चने चबाने पड़े"।
• हाथ-पाँव फूल जाना- घबरा जाना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग- 
• ​मनविंदर की कार एक्सीडेंट की खबर को सुनकर उसके परिवार वालों के "हाथ पैर फूल गए"।
• रंग दिखाना- प्रभाव या स्वरूप दिखाना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग- 
• ​परिवार में समस्याओं की वजह से सभी परेशान थे ऐसे वक्त में छोटे बेटे ने अपना असली "रंग दिखा दिया"।

सही उत्तर है- के बोध के लिए हर्दय 

Key Pointsसही वाक्य होगा-

• पारमार्थिक वस्तु या सत्य के बोध के लिए हृदय का स्वच्छ एवं निर्मल होना आवश्यक है।

Important Points

• वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Informationवर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

सही उत्तर है- कसरत

Key Points

• कसरत का अर्थ- शारीरिक मेहनत

Important Points

• पर्यायवाची शब्द - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-