DSSSB TGT (Social Science) Official Paper (Held On: 04 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

According to the question:

Total students → 45

Yashvi's position from the right end → 32

Suman's is 12^th positions to the left of Yashvi, Suman's position from the right end → 32 + 12 = 44

Suman's position from the left end of the row → Total students - Suman's position from the right end + 1

→ 45 - 44 + 1 = 2^nd

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Each of E, F, G, H, K, L and M has exam on a different day of the week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.

1) Only two people have exam before E.

2) Only one person has exam after L.

3) Only three people have exam between E and K.

4) Only one person has exam between M and F.

5. H has exam just before M.

The remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. G.

Thus, two people have exam between G and M.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Decoding signs:

Given: 63 D 7 A 4 C 8 B 13 = ?

63 D 7 A 4 C 8 B 13 = ? ⇒ 63 ÷ 7 + 4 × 8 - 13 = ?

⇒ 63 ÷ 7 + 4 × 8 - 13 = ?

⇒ 9 + 4 × 8 - 13 = ?

⇒ 9 + 32 - 13 = ?

⇒ 41 - 13 = ?

⇒ 28 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

118 is related to 72 → 118 - 46 = 72

And,

125 is related to 79 → 125 - 46 = 79

Similarly,

135 is related to → 135 - 46 = 89

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

37 - 61 - 85 - 109 

→ 37 + 24 = 61

→ 61 + 24 = 85

→ 85 + 24 = 109

And,

54 - 78 - 102 - 126

→ 54 + 24 = 78

→ 78 + 24 = 102

→ 102 + 24 = 126

Similarly,

62 - 86 - 110 - 134

→ 62 + 24 = 86

→ 86 + 24 = 110

→ 110 + 24 = 134

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) NQ-LJ

Option 2) QT-OM

Option 3) SV-QP

Option 4) JM-HF

Thus, out of all 'SV-QP' is the odd one out.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

According to the question:

Thus, 'S' is coded as '3'. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given series: (Left) 591 321 486 618 973 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

Third digit of the largest number → 973 → 3

Second digit of the smallest number → 321 → 2

So, the third digit of the largest number is added to the second digit of the smallest number → 3 + 2 = 5

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given Expression: O × C ÷ L × R - K + N

O × C → O is the wife of C. 

C ÷ L → C is the father of L.

L × R → L is the wife of R. 

R - K → R is the brother of K. 

K + N → K is the mother of N. 

Thus, O is R's wife’s mother.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

According to the given Venn diagram:

The shaded area represents the number of businessmen, AI experts and researchers → 5 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

KBI : HGF

And,

YDK : VIH

Similarly,

GTI : DYF

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Decoding signs:

Given: 26 – 5 ÷ 216 × 6 + 14 = ?

26 – 5 ÷ 216 × 6 + 14 = ? ⇒ 26 × 5 + 216 ÷ 6 - 14 = ?

⇒ 26 × 5 + 216 ÷ 6 - 14 = ?

⇒ 26 × 5 + 36 - 14 = ?

⇒ 130 + 36 - 14 = ?

⇒ 166 - 14 = ?

⇒ 152 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Six people, Asma, Bilal, Sierra, Danish, Ishal, and Fakhra, are sitting in a straight line facing north.

1) Asma sits at the left end of the line.

2) Ishal sits fourth to the right of Bilal.

3) Sierra is the immediate neighbor of both Bilal and Danish.

The remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. Fakhra.

Thus, Danish sits to the immediate left of Fakhra.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: LAP SIT CAN DEN

According to the question:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, in only one word thus formed will have no vowel.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given:

City P is to the south of city Q.

City Q is to the west of city R.

City S is to the south of city R.

City T is to the west of city S.

City P is to the north-west of city S.

City T is to the south of city Q.

Thus, City P is to the north of city T.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) PS - WZ

Option 2) AD - HK

Option 3) HK - OS

Option 4) DG - KN

Thus, out of all 'HK - OS' is the odd one out.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given statement: After Company X's employees received a more attractive salary offer from Company Y, the number of employees at Company X decreased.

Given Courses of Action:

(I) Company X should increase its salary payments. → Follows

The loss of employees is directly linked to better salary offers elsewhere, so increasing salaries is a logical step to retain employees.

(II) Company X should increase its working hours. → Does not follows

Increasing working hours would likely make the job less attractive and could worsen employees attrition instead of solving the problem.

Thus, Only I follows.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Best Documentary (Short Film).

Key Points

• The film 'The Elephant Whisperers' created history at the 95^th Academy Awards (Oscars) held in March 2023 by winning the award in the Best Documentary (Short Film) category. Hence, the statement regarding the Best Documentary (Short Film) category is correct.
• This documentary was directed by Kartiki Gonsalves, marking her directorial debut, and was produced by Guneet Monga and Achin Jain under the banner of Sikhya Entertainment.
• It holds the distinction of being the first Indian production to win an Oscar in this specific category, showcasing the growing influence of Indian cinema on the global stage.
• The documentary portrays the heartwarming story of an indigenous couple, Bomman and Bellie, who belong to the Kattunayakan tribe and reside in the Theppakadu Elephant Camp within the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve.
• The narrative focuses on their tireless efforts to raise and rehabilitate two orphaned baby elephants, Raghu and Ammu, highlighting the profound human-animal bond and environmental conservation.

Additional Information

• Mudumalai Tiger Reserve: Located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu, it is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is a vital wildlife sanctuary established in 1940 and is home to diverse flora and fauna, including Bengal tigers and Indian elephants.
• Kattunayakan Tribe: This is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) found in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Their name translates to "King of the Jungle," and they have historically been honey hunters and expert elephant mahouts.
• Oscars 2023 India's Presence: Apart from this win, the year 2023 was monumental for India as the song 'Naatu Naatu' from the film RRR, composed by M.M. Keeravani and lyrics by Chandrabose, won the award for Best Original Song.
• Documentary Feature Category: In the same year, the Indian film 'All That Breathes', directed by Shaunak Sen, was nominated for Best Documentary (Feature Film), although it did not win the award.
• Global Platform: The documentary was distributed by Netflix and released on December 8, 2022, allowing it to reach a global audience across 190 countries prior to the award ceremony.

Important Points

• Category Definitions: The Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences defines a Short Film as having a running time of 40 minutes or less, including all credits. 'The Elephant Whisperers' has a runtime of approximately 39 minutes.
• Significance of the Win: This victory brought international attention to indigenous wisdom and traditional methods of wildlife preservation practiced in India for centuries.
• Previous Achievements: While individuals like Bhanu Athaiya (Costume Design, 1983), Satyajit Ray (Honorary, 1992), and A.R. Rahman (Original Score/Song, 2009) have won Oscars, this was a rare win for a purely Indian-produced documentary.
• Theppakadu Elephant Camp: Established in 1927, it is one of the oldest elephant camps in Asia, serving as a center for elephant rehabilitation and eco-tourism.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• The 12^th Divya Kala Mela was successfully organized in Surat, Gujarat, from December 29, 2023, to January 7, 2024.
• The event was held at the Citylight Road venue in Surat and was inaugurated by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), which operates under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India.
• This initiative aims to showcase the products and craftsmanship of Divyang (differently-abled) entrepreneurs and artisans from across the country, providing them with a national platform to market their skills.
• Approximately 100 Divyang artisans and entrepreneurs representing around 20 states and Union Territories participated in this edition, displaying a wide variety of handicrafts, handlooms, and packaged food.
• The mela serves as a vital tool for the economic empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) and aligns with the vision of Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-reliant India) and the Vocal for Local campaign.

Additional Information

• Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD): It is the nodal department for all matters related to the welfare, empowerment, and rehabilitation of Persons with Disabilities in India. It functions under the leadership of the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• Broad Range of Products: The items available at the Divya Kala Mela included home décor, lifestyle accessories, clothing, paintings, jewelry, and organic products, all produced by Divyangjan.
• Cultural Inclusion: Apart from the commercial aspect, the event featured Divya Kala Shakti, a cultural program where Divyang artists performed music, dance, and skits, highlighting their immense potential and creativity.
• Series of Events: The Surat mela was part of a larger series of Divya Kala Melas held across major cities in India, such as Delhi, Mumbai, Bhopal, Guwahati, and Jaipur, to ensure widespread socio-economic reach.
• NHFDC Support: The National Handicapped Finance and Development Corporation (NHFDC) provides financial support and concessional loans to Divyang individuals to help them start and sustain their business ventures, many of which are promoted during these melas.

Important Points

• Empowerment through Entrepreneurship: By providing a marketplace, the government ensures that Divyangjan are not just beneficiaries of welfare but active contributors to the Indian economy.
• Accessibility: The venue for the mela is typically designed to be barrier-free and accessible, ensuring that both participants and visitors with disabilities can navigate the space comfortably.
• Government Policy: These events are governed by the principles of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, which emphasizes equality, non-discrimination, and full participation in social and economic life.
• Timeline of Reaching 2023-24: The 12^th edition marks a milestone in the Ministry's commitment to organizing regular events that foster inclusive growth throughout the year.

The correct answer is Absorbing harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun.

Key Points

• The ozone layer is a thin part of the Earth's atmosphere that contains relatively high concentrations of ozone (O3). It acts as a protective shield for the planet by absorbing the majority of the Sun's high-frequency ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
• Specifically, the ozone layer absorbs about 97% to 99% of the Sun's medium-frequency ultraviolet light (wavelengths from 200 nm to 315 nm), which has the potential to cause significant biological damage to life forms on the surface. Hence, statement A is correct.
• The ozone layer is primarily located in the lower portion of the stratosphere, approximately 15 to 35 kilometers (9 to 22 miles) above the Earth's surface. Its thickness varies depending on the season and geographical location.
• The function of trapping carbon dioxide to regulate temperature is characteristic of Greenhouse Gases like CO2, Methane, and Water Vapor, which operate mainly in the troposphere. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
• The process of inducing rainfall is typically associated with cloud seeding or natural condensation processes, while the reflection of sunlight is known as the Albedo effect. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
• Oxygen is produced and supplied to the atmosphere through the process of photosynthesis by plants, algae, and cyanobacteria. Ozone is actually formed by the action of sunlight on oxygen molecules. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Discovery and Measurement: The ozone layer was discovered in 1913 by French physicists Charles Fabry and Henri Buisson. The standard unit for measuring the concentration of ozone is the Dobson Unit (DU), named after G.M.B. Dobson, who designed the first instrument to measure stratospheric ozone from the ground.
• Ozone Depletion: Scientists discovered in the 1970s and 1980s that the ozone layer was being depleted by man-made chemicals known as Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODS). The most prominent among these are Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and carbon tetrachloride, which were widely used in refrigeration, air conditioning, and aerosol propellants.
• The Montreal Protocol: In response to the thinning of the ozone layer (the "Ozone Hole"), the Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987. This international treaty aims to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances. It is widely considered the most successful environmental treaty in history, with the ozone layer showing signs of recovery.
• Tropospheric vs. Stratospheric Ozone: While ozone in the stratosphere is "good ozone" because it protects us, ozone at ground level (troposphere) is "bad ozone." Ground-level ozone is a major component of smog and is a toxic air pollutant formed by the reaction of Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight.

Important Points

• Biological Impact: Without the protection of the ozone layer, increased levels of UV-B radiation would reach the Earth, leading to higher incidences of skin cancer, cataracts, and weakened immune systems in humans. It also damages terrestrial plant life, single-celled organisms, and aquatic ecosystems (especially phytoplankton).
• Chemical Formation: Ozone is created through the Chapman Cycle. High-energy UV radiation strikes an oxygen molecule (O2), splitting it into two free oxygen atoms. These highly reactive atoms then collide with other O2 molecules to form ozone (O3).
• The Antarctic Ozone Hole: A severe depletion of ozone occurs annually over Antarctica during the Southern Hemisphere spring (September to November). This is exacerbated by unique meteorological conditions, such as Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs), which provide surfaces for chemical reactions that release chlorine.

The correct answer is Himachal.

Key Points

• The Himachal range, also known as the Lesser Himalaya or Lower Himalaya, lies to the south of the Himadri (Great Himalayas) and forms the most rugged mountain system.
• This range is famous for its highly scenic valleys, including the Kashmir Valley in Jammu and Kashmir, and the Kangra and Kullu valleys in Himachal Pradesh. Hence, the statement regarding these valleys being in the Himachal range is correct.
• The altitude of the Himachal range varies between 3,700 and 4,500 meters, and its average width is approximately 50 kilometers.
• The Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range in this section, while the Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges are also prominent features of the Lesser Himalayas.
• The region is well known for its beautiful hill stations such as Shimla, Mussoorie, Nainital, and Ranikhet, which attract millions of tourists every year.

Additional Information

• Himadri (Great Himalayas):
• This is the northernmost range and is also known as the Inner Himalayas or Greater Himalayas.
• It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 meters.
• It contains world-famous peaks such as Mount Everest (8,848 meters) in Nepal and Kanchenjunga in India.
• The folds of the Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature and the core is composed of Granite.
• Shivalik (Outer Himalayas):
• This is the outermost range of the Himalayas, with an altitude varying between 900 and 1,100 meters.
• The Shivaliks are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges located farther north.
• The longitudinal valleys lying between the Lesser Himalaya and the Shivaliks are known as Duns, such as Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun, and Patli Dun.
• Geological Features:
• The Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains that stretch over the northern borders of India.
• These mountain ranges run in a west-east direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra, covering a distance of about 2,400 kilometers.

Important Points

• Kashmir Valley: It is situated between the Pir Panjal range to the southwest and the Main Himalayan Range to the northeast. It is famous for Saffron cultivation and Dal Lake.
• Kullu Valley: Located in Himachal Pradesh, it is known as the "Valley of Gods" and is famous for its Apple orchards and the Beas River.
• Kangra Valley: This is a strike valley in Himachal Pradesh known for its historical Kangra Fort and the administrative headquarters at Dharamshala.
• Vegetation: The Himachal range is covered with dense forests of Pine, Deodar, Oak, and Rhododendron, which are vital for the regional ecosystem and biodiversity.

The correct answer is I, II, III and IV.

Key Points

• The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952). It recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, consisting of Gram Panchayats at the village level, Panchayat Samitis at the block level, and Zila Parishads at the district level. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The G.V.K. Rao Committee was appointed by the Planning Commission in 1985 to review the existing Administrative Arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes. The committee observed that the development process was becoming bureaucratized and divorced from the Panchayati Raj, famously describing it as "grass without roots." It recommended making the Zila Parishad the pivot of local planning and development. Hence, statement II is correct.
• The Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed in December 1977 by the Janata Government to suggest measures to strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj Institutions in India. Unlike the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, it recommended a two-tier system consisting of a Zila Parishad at the district level and a Mandal Panchayat (representing a group of villages with a population of 15,000 to 20,000). Hence, statement III is correct.
• The Gadgil Committee, headed by V.N. Gadgil, was formed in 1988 to consider the question of "How best Panchayati Raj Institutions could be made effective." This committee specifically recommended that Constitutional status should be conferred on Panchayati Raj Institutions and suggested a three-tier system with fixed five-year terms and direct elections. Its recommendations became the basis for drafting the Amendment Bill. Hence, statement IV is correct.

Additional Information

• 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992: This landmark legislation gave constitutional recognition to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) by adding a new Part IX to the Constitution of India, titled “The Panchayats,” and a new 11^th Schedule containing 29 functional items of the Panchayats.
• L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986): Appointed by the Rajiv Gandhi government, it recommended that Panchayati Raj Institutions should be constitutionally recognized, protected, and preserved. It also suggested the creation of Nyaya Panchayats for a cluster of villages.
• Article 40: This Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution mandates that the State shall take steps to organize Village Panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
• Thungon Committee (1988): A sub-committee of the Consultative Committee of Parliament, headed by P.K. Thungon, which also strongly advocated for the constitutional recognition of local government bodies and recommended a five-year tenure for them.

Important Points

• Evolution Timeline: The journey of Panchayati Raj evolved through various committees: Balwant Rai Mehta (1957) → Ashok Mehta (1977) → G.V.K. Rao (1985) → L.M. Singhvi (1986) → Thungon (1988) → Gadgil (1988).
• First Implementation: Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj. The scheme was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district. This was followed by Andhra Pradesh in the same year.
• Structure: Under the 73^rd Amendment, a three-tier system is mandatory for all states with a population exceeding 20 lakhs. It ensures reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in proportion to their population, and not less than one-third reservation for women.

The correct answer is Shekhawati Strikers.

Key Points

• The Shekhawati Strikers emerged victorious as the champions of the Khelo Creators League (KCL) 2025, securing the prestigious trophy in a highly anticipated final.
• The final match of the 2025 season took place on February 2, 2025, at the iconic Sawai Mansingh Stadium (SMS Stadium) located in Jaipur, Rajasthan.
• In the grand finale, the Shekhawati Strikers, captained by the popular social media influencer Thara Bhai Joginder, defeated the Judges Lions to claim the title.
• The tournament was designed to bring together India’s most influential digital content creators from platforms like YouTube and Instagram, transitioning them from digital screens to the cricket field.
• The Khelo Creators League 2025 witnessed a massive turnout, with over 25,000 fans attending the live event in Jaipur, showcasing the immense popularity of creator-led sports initiatives in India.

Additional Information

• Judges Lions:
• Led by the famous creator Nishu Deshwal, the Judges Lions performed exceptionally well throughout the league but finished as the Runners-up after a competitive final match against the Shekhawati Strikers.
• Pink City Paltan:
• Representing the host city of Jaipur, Pink City Paltan was one of the major teams in the 2025 edition. The team was supported heavily by the local Rajasthan crowd, emphasizing the regional connection of the league.
• Admin Warriors:
• This team comprised several prominent digital personalities and competed fiercely in the group stages. Their participation highlighted the diversity of creators involved in the KCL, ranging from gamers to vloggers and entertainers.
• Format and Participation:
• The Khelo Creators League follows a T10 or T20 style format, emphasizing fast-paced entertainment. The 2025 edition featured multiple teams, each led by a marquee creator, aiming to promote physical fitness and sportsmanship among the youth of India.
• Economic and Cultural Impact:
• The event significantly boosted sports tourism in Jaipur and generated millions of views across digital streaming platforms. It served as a bridge between traditional sports broadcasting and modern digital entertainment.

Important Points

• Organizers: The league was conceptualized and organized by Waseem Ahmed and his team to provide a professional platform for creators to showcase their athletic skills.
• Star-Studded Rosters: The league featured famous names such as Elvish Yadav, Fukra Insaan (Abhishek Malhan), and members of Round2Hell, which ensured high engagement on social media throughout the year 2025.
• Venue Significance: The Sawai Mansingh Stadium is a historic cricket venue that has hosted numerous International and IPL matches. Selecting this venue for the KCL 2025 finale added a layer of professional prestige to the creators' league.
• Broadcasting: The matches were streamed live on official YouTube channels and attracted a peak concurrent viewership in the hundreds of thousands, proving the commercial viability of such niche sporting events.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• The 2011 Census of India officially identified the state of Punjab as having the highest percentage of the Sikh population in the country.
• In Punjab, the Sikh community constitutes approximately 57.69% of the total population, making it the only state in India where Sikhs are the majority religious group. Hence, option C is correct.
• The total population of Punjab as per the 2011 data was 2,77,43,338, with the Sikh population numbering around 1,60,04,754.
• The Union Territory of Chandigarh follows with a significant Sikh presence, recorded at 13.11% of its total population. Hence, option B is incorrect.
• Haryana has a Sikh population of approximately 4.91%, while the National Capital Territory of Delhi has about 3.40%. Hence, options A and D are incorrect.

Additional Information

• Overview of Sikhism in India: Sikhism is the fourth largest religion in India. According to the 2011 Census, Sikhs make up about 1.7% of the total population of India, which is approximately 2.08 crore people.
• 2011 Census Details: The 2011 Census was the 15^th national census of India and was conducted under the Census Act, 1948. The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India at that time was C. Chandramouli.
• Geographic Concentration: While the majority of Sikhs live in Punjab, there are notable populations in other states such as Uttarakhand (2.34%), Rajasthan (1.27%), Himachal Pradesh (1.16%), and Jammu & Kashmir (1.87%).
• Demographic Features: The Sikh community is primarily located in the northwestern part of India. They played a vital role in the Green Revolution during the 1960s, significantly boosting India's agricultural productivity.
• National Religious Composition: The 2011 survey indicated that Hindus comprise 79.8%, Muslims 14.2%, Christians 2.3%, and Sikhs 1.7% of the 1.21 billion total population.

Important Points

• The Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966: This act led to the creation of the linguistic state of Punjab (Punjabi-speaking) and Haryana (Hindi-speaking), while certain regions were transferred to Himachal Pradesh. This reorganization further concentrated the Sikh population within the modern borders of Punjab.
• Chandigarh Administration: Chandigarh acts as the shared capital for both Punjab and Haryana. Despite its proximity to Punjab, its Sikh percentage is significantly lower than that of the state itself due to its status as a cosmopolitan Union Territory.
• Global Context: Outside of India, countries like Canada, the United Kingdom, and the United States have the largest Sikh diaspora populations. In Canada, for example, Sikhs represent a significant portion of the total population, approximately 2.1% as per recent reports.

The correct answer is Expenditure on purchase of second-hand goods.

Key Points

• The Expenditure Method is one of the three primary ways to calculate National Income, which measures the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a specific financial year.
• Personal Consumption Expenditure: This refers to the total spending by households on durable goods, non-durable goods, and services. It is a major component of GDP. Hence, statement A is correct as it is included in the calculation.
• Gross Private Domestic Investment: This includes expenditures by businesses on capital goods like machinery, factories, and equipment, as well as residential construction and changes in inventories. Hence, statement B is correct as it is included in the calculation.
• Government Procurement of Goods and Services: This covers all government spending on final goods and services, including public infrastructure, defense, and salaries of government employees. Hence, statement C is correct as it is included in the calculation.
• Expenditure on purchase of second-hand goods: These are excluded from the National Income because the value of these goods was already counted in the GDP of the year they were originally produced. Including them again would lead to double counting. Hence, statement D is not included in the calculation.

Additional Information

• Formula for Expenditure Method: The standard equation is GDP = C + I + G + (X - M), where C is Consumption, I is Investment, G is Government Spending, and (X - M) is Net Exports (Exports minus Imports).
• Transfer Payments: Items like old-age pensions, scholarships, and unemployment benefits are excluded from National Income because they do not reflect any current production or value addition.
• Intermediate Goods: The purchase of raw materials or intermediate goods by a firm is excluded to prevent double counting; only the value of the final product is considered.
• Financial Transactions: The purchase and sale of shares, stocks, and bonds are not included as they are merely paper claims and do not represent the production of new goods or services.
• Net Exports: If the value of exports exceeds imports, it adds to the National Income. Conversely, if imports are higher, it is subtracted from the total expenditure.

Important Points

• Double Counting: This is a major pitfall in National Income accounting. To avoid this, economists use the Value Added Method or ensure that only final expenditures are summed up in the Expenditure Method.
• Self-Consumption: The imputed value of goods produced for self-consumption (like crops kept by a farmer) is included in National Income because they contribute to current production.
• Brokerage and Commission: While second-hand goods themselves are excluded, any commission or brokerage paid to agents for the sale of such goods is included, as it represents a service rendered in the current year.
• Non-Market Activities: Services provided out of love, affection, or duty (such as a homemaker's services) are excluded due to the difficulty in valuation and the absence of a market transaction.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The Ashoka Pillar at Vaishali is currently located in Kolhua, in the Vaishali district of the state of Bihar. Hence, the statement regarding its location in Bihar is correct.
• This particular pillar is distinct from other Mauryan pillars as it consists of a single monolithic shaft of polished Chunar sandstone, surmounted by a bell-shaped capital.
• It features a life-sized seated lion figure at the top, which faces North. This direction is significant as it is believed to be the path Lord Buddha took during his final journey.
• The site of Kolhua is historically vital because it is the place where Buddha delivered his last sermon and announced his approaching Nirvana.
• Unlike many other pillars erected by Emperor Ashoka, the Vaishali Pillar does not bear any of the major edicts, although it remains one of the best-preserved specimens of Mauryan art.

Additional Information

• Mauryan Empire and Ashoka: Emperor Ashoka reigned from approximately 268 to 232 BCE. He utilized these pillars as a medium to propagate Dhamma (righteousness) across his vast empire, which included parts of modern-day India, Pakistan, Nepal, and Afghanistan.
• Sarnath Pillar (Uttar Pradesh): Located near Varanasi, this pillar features the famous Lion Capital with four lions standing back to back. It was adopted as the National Emblem of India on 26 January 1950.
• Sanchi Pillar (Madhya Pradesh): Situated near the Great Stupa at Sanchi, this pillar is another example of Mauryan architecture and features a similar four-lion capital, though it is less preserved than the Sarnath version.
• Dhauli and Jaugada (Odisha): These sites are famous for Ashoka's Rock Edicts rather than free-standing pillars. They contain the Kalinga Edicts, which reflect Ashoka's remorse after the Kalinga War in 261 BCE.
• Lauriya Nandangarh (Bihar): Another significant pillar in Bihar located in the West Champaran district. It stands 32 feet high and features a seated lion capital and clear Brahmi inscriptions.

Important Points

• Material and Craftsmanship: Most Ashokan pillars were carved from Chunar sandstone quarried near Mirzapur. They are known for their characteristic mirror-like polish, often referred to as Mauryan polish.
• Inscriptions: The inscriptions on these pillars were mostly written in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script, making the Emperor's messages accessible to the general public of that era.
• Symbolism: The Lion, Bull, Elephant, and Horse found on different capitals symbolize various stages or aspects of Buddha’s life. For example, the Lion represents Shakyasimha (the lion of the Sakya clan).
• Geographical Spread: These pillars were strategically placed along ancient trade routes and at sites of religious pilgrimage to maximize their visibility and influence.

The correct answer is It distributes funds allocated by the state directly to the Gram Panchayats.

Key Points

• The District Council, also known as the Zilla Parishad, serves as the topmost tier of the Panchayati Raj System in India, established to manage rural development at the district level.
• One of its primary functions is to coordinate the activities and functions of all the Panchayat Samitis (the middle tier) within the district. Hence, statement A is correct.
• The Zilla Parishad acts as an advisory body to the State Government on all matters relating to the development activities and the Panchayati Raj institutions in the district. Hence, statement B is correct.
• It possesses the authority to examine and approve the budgets of the Panchayat Samitis within its jurisdiction, ensuring fiscal discipline and alignment with district plans. Hence, statement C is correct.
• Regarding financial distribution, the Zilla Parishad is responsible for distributing the grants and funds allocated by the State Government among the various Panchayat Samitis, rather than distributing them directly to the Gram Panchayats. The Panchayat Samitis then further allocate funds to the village level. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

• 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992: This Act provided constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and mandated a three-tier structure consisting of the Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zilla Parishad (district level).
• Composition of Zilla Parishad: It typically includes elected members from the district, Chairpersons of all Panchayat Samitis, Members of Parliament (MPs), and Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs) representing the district.
• Administrative Leadership: The Chief Executive Officer (CEO), who is usually an IAS officer or a senior state service officer, heads the administrative wing and implements the decisions of the Council.
• Planning Role: The Zilla Parishad prepares the District Development Plan by consolidating the plans prepared by the lower tiers, ensuring a bottom-up approach to governance.
• Social and Economic Functions: It carries out functions related to agriculture, social forestry, primary health, education, and rural electrification under various Government schemes.

Important Points

• Tenure: The normal term of the Zilla Parishad is 5 years from the date of its first meeting. Elections must be held before the expiry of this period.
• Reservations: Seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in proportion to their population, and not less than one-third (33%) of the total seats are reserved for women.
• State Finance Commission: This body is appointed every 5 years to review the financial position of the Panchayats and recommend the devolution of taxes and grants-in-aid from the State.
• Article 243G: This Article of the Constitution of India empowers the State Legislature to endow Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.

The correct answer is Mumbai Indians.

Key Points

• The Mumbai Indians won the third edition of the Women's Premier League (WPL) in 2025.
• They defeated the Delhi Capitals by eight runs in the final held on 15 March 2025 at the Brabourne Stadium in Mumbai.
• Captain: Harmanpreet Kaur led Mumbai Indians to their second title in three seasons.
• Player of the Match: Harmanpreet Kaur was awarded for her match-winning knock of 66 runs off 44 balls in the final.
• Most Valuable Player (MVP): Nat Sciver-Brunt (Mumbai Indians) won the MVP award, also finishing as the leading run-scorer with 523 runs.
• Purple Cap: Amelia Kerr (Mumbai Indians) took the most wickets in the tournament (18).

Additional Information

• History of WPL Winners:
• The inaugural edition in 2023 was won by Mumbai Indians, led by Harmanpreet Kaur, who defeated Delhi Capitals in the final.
• The second edition in 2024 saw Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB), led by Smriti Mandhana, clinching the title by defeating Delhi Capitals.
• Tournament Structure:
• The Women's Premier League is organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
• The 2025 edition followed a double round-robin format followed by an Eliminator and a Final. The league was held across multiple venues, including Bengaluru and Ahmedabad, to increase the geographic reach of the sport.

The correct answer is IoT- and Data-Driven Precision Farming.

Key Points

• Precision Farming utilizes the Internet of Things (IoT), Artificial Intelligence (AI), and Big Data to optimize the functions of agricultural management, ensuring that crops and soil receive exactly what they need for optimum health and productivity.
• It employs soil moisture sensors and weather data to determine the exact numerical value of water required by crops at any specific time, which prevents over-irrigation and significantly reduces freshwater waste. Hence, statement A is correct.
• Completely eliminating irrigation is not a viable application for most geographical locations as it would lead to total crop failure and food insecurity. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
• Burning crop residues is a practice that causes air pollution and soil degradation; it does not contribute to water conservation or agricultural efficiency. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
• Irregular flood irrigation is a highly inefficient method where nearly 50% of the water used is lost to evaporation, runoff, and deep percolation, making it the opposite of a conservation innovation. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Global Water Usage: According to facts from the World Bank, agriculture accounts for approximately 70% of all freshwater withdrawals globally. In some developing countries, this number can rise as high as 95%.
• Drip Irrigation: This is a key feature of precision water management where water is delivered directly to the root zone. Israel is the country credited with pioneering this technology, achieving water use efficiency rates of over 90%.
• Smart Irrigation Systems: These systems use automated controllers that adjust irrigation schedules based on real-time data from weather stations and sensors, reducing unnecessary water uses by 20% to 50%.
• Government Initiatives: In India, the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) was launched in July 2015 with the motto of "Per Drop More Crop" to expand the applications of precision irrigation and improve on-farm water use efficiency.
• Remote Sensing: Satellite data and Drones are used for spatial variability mapping, allowing farmers to identify water stress in specific parts of a field rather than treating the entire area uniformly.

Important Points

• Resource Optimization: The primary feature of precision farming is its ability to reduce inputs (water, fertilizers, pesticides) while maintaining or increasing yields, which is critical for sustainable development.
• Data-Driven Decisions: Farmers utilize mobile applications and software platforms to monitor crop health and soil moisture in real-time, leading to better management decisions based on facts rather than intuition.
• Future Projections: By the year 2050, the global population is expected to reach nearly 10 billion, requiring a 70% increase in food production. Efficient freshwater management through IoT innovations is essential to meet this demand without exhausting natural resources.
• Economic Impact: While the initial cost of IoT sensors and automated systems can be high, the long-term numerical value of savings in water and energy provides a significant return on investment for agricultural organizations.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• The government of Gujarat became the first state in India to announce a dedicated Semiconductor Policy 2022-27 to attract investments in the chip manufacturing sector.
• The policy was officially launched on July 27, 2022, by the Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel, aiming to create at least 2 lakh new jobs over the next five years.
• It is strategically aligned with the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), which was launched by the Union Government with an outlay of ₹76,000 crore to build a robust semiconductor and display ecosystem in the country.
• A primary objective of this policy is to establish Dholera Semicon City at the Dholera Special Investment Region (DSIR), providing a specialized environment for fabrication units.
• Under this policy, the state government offers a 75% subsidy on the purchase of the first 200 acres of land for setting up a fabrication (fab) unit, making it highly competitive for global investors.

Additional Information

• Fiscal Incentives and Subsidies:
• The Gujarat policy provides a power tariff subsidy of ₹2 per unit for a duration of 10 years for units engaged in semiconductor manufacturing.
• Eligible projects are granted a 100% exemption from electricity duty under the provisions of the Gujarat Electricity Duty Act, 1958.
• The policy ensures a 100% reimbursement of stamp duty and registration fees paid on the lease, sale, or transfer of land for the project.
• To support high-tech manufacturing, the government provides potable water at a subsidized rate of ₹12 per cubic meter for the first five years.
• Investment and Infrastructure:
• The Dholera Special Investment Region (DSIR) is being developed as a global hub, offering world-class infrastructure, including plug-and-play facilities for the semiconductor industry.
• The state government has also committed to providing additional capital assistance of 40% of the financial support provided by the Central Government for projects approved under the India Semiconductor Mission.

Important Points

• Major Global Investments:
• Following the policy launch, Micron Technology, a US-based semiconductor giant, signed an MoU to set up an Assembly, Testing, Marking, and Packaging (ATMP) facility in Sanand, Gujarat, with a total investment of $2.75 billion.
• Tata Electronics, in partnership with Taiwan’s Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corp (PSMC), is establishing India's first mega semiconductor fab in Dholera with an investment of ₹91,000 crore.
• In 2024, the Kaynes Semicon project was also approved to be set up in Sanand, further solidifying Gujarat's position as a semiconductor hub.
• Strategic Significance:
• Semiconductors are essential components for various industries, including automotive, telecommunications, healthcare, and defense; thus, this policy helps reduce India's import dependency on countries like Taiwan, China, and South Korea.
• The policy focuses on the Entire Value Chain, including Silicon Photonics, Sensor Fab, Discrete Semiconductor Fab, and Display Fab units$.

The correct answer is IIT Bombay.

Key Points

• In July 2024, the Indian Register of Shipping (IRS), headquartered in Mumbai, entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay.
• The partnership focuses on the development of a ship trajectory prediction tool, which is a sophisticated software solution designed to forecast the future path of a vessel based on its current state and environmental factors.
• The Indian Register of Shipping (IRS) aims to leverage IIT Bombay's research capabilities in Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) to create predictive models that can identify potential risks in real-time.
• This initiative is primarily aimed at enhancing maritime safety, reducing the risk of ship collisions, and optimizing navigation in congested maritime corridors. Hence, the statement regarding the collaboration for a trajectory tool with IIT Bombay is correct.
• The tool will utilize complex algorithms to process data points such as ship speed, heading, hull characteristics, and engine performance to provide accurate trajectory estimates.

Additional Information

• Indian Register of Shipping (IRS):
• Established in 1975, it is an internationally recognized ship classification society.
• It is a member of the International Association of Classification Societies (IACS), which consists of the top 12 classification societies globally.
• Its functions include setting technical standards for ship construction and maintenance, ensuring compliance with International Maritime Organization (IMO) conventions.
• The organization is located in Powai, Mumbai, and operates through a network of 25 offices across India and several international locations.
• IIT Bombay:
• Founded in 1958, it was the second Indian Institute of Technology to be established and is currently an Institute of Eminence.
• The institute has a dedicated Ocean Engineering and Civil Engineering department that contributes significantly to maritime research and structural health monitoring.
• It has been a pioneer in indigenous technology development under the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
• Ship Trajectory Prediction:
• The uses of this technology include collision avoidance, fuel efficiency analysis, and assisting Vessel Traffic Services (VTS) in managing port traffic.
• By predicting trajectories, ships can adjust their maneuvers well in advance, accounting for environmental conditions like wind speed, water currents, and tide levels.

Important Points

• Technological Features: The proposed tool is expected to integrate Automatic Identification System (AIS) data with hydrodynamic modeling to improve the reliability of predictions during extreme weather conditions.
• Strategic Goal: This collaboration aligns with the Maritime India Vision 2030, a Government of India blueprint to modernize the maritime sector through digital transformation and innovation.
• Data and Facts: Maritime accidents often occur due to human error or equipment failure; predictive tools can provide a safety buffer by alerting navigators minutes or hours before a potential incident.
• Global Context: Similar projects are being undertaken by leading maritime nations like Norway and Singapore to move towards autonomous shipping and smart ports.

The correct answer is Deep-sea mining.

Key Points

• The Blue Economy 2.0 scheme was announced by the Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman during the Interim Budget 2024-25 presented on February 1, 2024.
• Mariculture: This refers to the specialized branch of aquaculture involving the cultivation of marine organisms for food and other products in the open ocean or enclosed sections of the ocean. Under Blue Economy 2.0, the government aims to promote climate-resilient activities and expand mariculture to enhance fisheries productivity. Hence, this is included in the scheme.
• Climate-Resilient Activities: The Blue Economy 2.0 framework specifically focuses on restoration and adaptation measures. It encourages climate-resilient activities to protect coastal ecosystems and livelihoods against the impacts of climate change. Hence, this is included in the scheme.
• Coastal Aquaculture: The scheme proposes an integrated and multi-sectoral approach for the development of coastal aquaculture. This is aimed at boosting the income of fishermen and improving the overall marine economy of India. Hence, this is included in the scheme.
• Deep-sea mining: While deep-sea mining is a component of India's broader Deep Ocean Mission (launched in 2021) and the overarching Blue Economy Policy, it is not listed as a primary focus of the Blue Economy 2.0 "restoration and adaptation" scheme announced in the 2024 budget. The 2.0 version specifically targets restoration, adaptation, mariculture, and aquaculture. Hence, statement 3 is the correct answer as it is not part of this specific scheme.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY): The Blue Economy 2.0 works in tandem with PMMSY, which was launched in May 2020. The government aims to step up implementation to enhance aquaculture productivity from the current 3 tonnes to 5 tonnes per hectare.
• Export Targets: Through these initiatives, India aims to double its seafood exports to Rs. 1 lakh crore and generate nearly 55 lakh employment opportunities in the fisheries sector in the near future.
• Aquaparks: To support the Blue Economy, the government has planned to set up five integrated aquaparks across the country to provide a boost to processing and marketing infrastructure.
• Geographic Scope: India has a vast coastline of over 7,516 kilometers and an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of over 2 million square kilometers, making the Blue Economy vital for national GDP.

Important Points

• Deep Ocean Mission: This mission is spearheaded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). It focuses on deep-sea exploration of polymetallic nodules, ocean climate change advisory services, and underwater vehicles. It is distinct from the Blue Economy 2.0 budget sub-scheme.
• Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 14: The Blue Economy 2.0 aligns with SDG 14, which aims to "conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas, and marine resources for sustainable development."
• Economic Contribution: The Blue Economy currently contributes approximately 4% to India's GDP. The government seeks to increase this contribution through sustainable and resource-efficient marine practices.
• FIDF: The Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund provides concessional finance to State Governments, Cooperatives, and private entrepreneurs for the creation of fisheries infrastructure.

The correct answer is Fourteen.

Key Points

• According to Article 51A(k) of the Constitution of India, it is the fundamental duty of every citizen who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.
• This specific duty was added to the list of Fundamental Duties by the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• The amendment recognizes that the primary responsibility for ensuring a child attends school lies with the parents or guardians, complementing the state's obligation to provide free education.
• The provision aims to ensure that no child is deprived of primary and elementary education due to negligence or lack of initiative from the family unit.
• Prior to this amendment, there were only 10 Fundamental Duties in the Constitution; the addition of this clause brought the total number to 11.

Additional Information

• Article 21A (Fundamental Right):
• The 86^th Amendment Act, 2002 also inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, which declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
• This made the right to education a Fundamental Right, elevating it from a Directive Principle to a justiciable right.
• Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009:
• To give effect to Article 21A, the Parliament enacted the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act in August 2009.
• This Act came into force on 1 April 2010, making India one of the countries in the world to have a dedicated law for universal education.
• It mandates a 25% reservation for economically disadvantaged sections in private unaided schools.
• Article 45 (Directive Principles of State Policy):
• Before the 2002 amendment, Article 45 directed the State to provide free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
• Post-amendment, the scope of Article 45 was changed to focus on Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) for all children until they complete the age of six years.
• Swaran Singh Committee:
• The Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) were originally incorporated into the Constitution by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Initially, there were 10 duties, and they are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be enforced directly by the courts unless backed by a specific law.

Important Points

• The age group 6 to 14 is a crucial demographic for Universal Elementary Education (UEE) in India, aligning with various global goals like the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG 4).
• The Supreme Court of India, in the Unni Krishnan vs. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993) case, had already recognized that the right to education is a fundamental right flowing from Article 21 (Right to Life).
• The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 now seeks to expand this framework further, proposing to cover children from 3 to 18 years (preschool to secondary level), though the constitutional mandate currently remains 6 to 14.

The correct answer is Marginal product decreases as the quantity of variable inputs increases.

Key Points

• The Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns is a fundamental principle of economics that states that as more units of a variable input (such as labor) are added to fixed inputs (such as machinery or land), the additional output generated by each new unit of the variable input will eventually decline.
• Statement A: It suggests that total product increases when marginal product decreases. While this occurs during the stage of diminishing returns (as long as marginal product is positive), the law specifically defines the behavior of the incremental output rather than the total. Hence, statement A is a secondary observation and not the primary definition.
• Statement B: It states that marginal product decreases as the quantity of variable inputs increases. This is the core definition of the law, indicating that the efficiency of additional inputs drops after an optimal point. Hence, statement B is correct.
• Statement C: It claims total output decreases when the quantity of fixed inputs increases. Generally, increasing fixed inputs (like expanding a factory) shifts the production function upward and increases capacity. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
• Statement D: It posits that marginal product increases when total product decreases. If total product is decreasing, the marginal product must be negative, not increasing. Hence, statement D is incorrect.
• The law is a short-run concept because it assumes that at least one factor of production is fixed in quantity.

Additional Information

• Historical Context: The concept was early recognized by Classical economists like Anne Robert Jacques Turgot in 1767 and later refined by David Ricardo and Thomas Malthus. They initially applied it to agriculture, observing that adding more labor to a fixed plot of land resulted in smaller increases in harvest.
• Three Stages of Production:
• Stage 1 (Increasing Returns): In this stage, Total Product (TP) increases at an increasing rate, and Marginal Product (MP) rises due to better utilization of fixed factors.
• Stage 2 (Diminishing Returns): This is where the Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns operates. MP begins to fall but remains positive, and TP increases at a decreasing rate.
• Stage 3 (Negative Returns): Here, MP becomes negative, and TP actually starts to decline because the variable inputs crowd each other out.
• Assumptions: The law holds true only if technology remains constant. If there is a technological breakthrough, the entire production curve shifts upward, delaying the onset of diminishing returns. It also assumes that all units of the variable factor are homogeneous (identical in quality).
• Applications: This law is widely used in manufacturing and business management to determine the optimal level of employment. For example, in a kitchen with one oven (fixed input), adding a second chef (variable input) helps, but adding 10 chefs causes them to get in each other's way, reducing the extra pizzas made per hour.

Important Points

• Relationship with Marginal Cost: As the marginal product starts to diminish, the Marginal Cost (MC) of producing one additional unit starts to increase. This is because more variable input is required to produce the same amount of extra output.
• Returns to Scale vs. Diminishing Returns: It is vital to distinguish this law from Returns to Scale. Diminishing returns occur in the short-run when one input is fixed. Returns to scale occur in the long-run when all inputs (both labor and capital) are increased simultaneously.
• Numerical Example: If 1 farmer produces 10 units and 2 farmers produce 25 units, the MP is 15. If 3 farmers produce 35 units, the MP drops to 10. The drop from 15 to 10 signifies the onset of diminishing marginal returns.

The correct answer is Mollywood.

Key Points

• Mollywood is the colloquial name used for the Malayalam film industry, which is primarily based in the Indian state of Kerala. It is one of the most prominent regional film industries in India, known for its high-quality content-driven cinema and cinematography.
• The industry had its humble beginnings in 1928 with the release of the first silent film titled Vigathakumaran, which was produced and directed by J. C. Daniel, who is often referred to as the Father of Malayalam Cinema.
• The first talkie (sound film) in the Malayalam language was Balan, which was released in the year 1938. This marked a significant transition from silent films to sound, paving the way for musical and dialogue-heavy dramas.
• Mollywood films are distinguished globally for their realism, technical finesse, and the portrayal of socio-political issues. The industry has consistently secured the National Film Award for Best Feature Film and other prestigious accolades, showcasing its artistic excellence.
• The industry functions with major production centers located in Thiruvananthapuram and Kochi. It has produced legendary actors and technicians who have gained recognition not only in India but also in international film festivals.

Additional Information

• Tollywood:
• This name is used for the Telugu film industry based in Hyderabad, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
• It is one of the largest film industries in India in terms of the number of films produced annually and box office revenue.
• Historically, the term Tollywood also referred to the Bengali film industry located in Tollygunge, Kolkata, which was the first to use the suffix.
• Kollywood:
• This refers to the Tamil film industry based in the Kodambakkam area of Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• It is known for its massive fan base, influential political connections, and high-budget commercial entertainers.
• Kollywood has a significant global reach, particularly in Singapore, Malaysia, and Sri Lanka, where there is a large Tamil-speaking population.
• Sandalwood:
• This is the name for the Kannada film industry, which operates out of Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• The name is derived from the fact that Karnataka is famous for its sandalwood trees and products.
• The industry has seen a massive surge in popularity recently due to pan-India hits that have broken box office records across the country.
• Bollywood:
• The Hindi film industry, based in Mumbai, Maharashtra, is known globally as Bollywood.
• It is the most widely recognized segment of Indian cinema and contributes significantly to the national economy and cultural exports.

Important Points

• The suffix "-wood" for all these regional industries is a portmanteau derived from Hollywood, the American film industry located in Los Angeles, California.
• The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is the highest official recognition in the field of cinema in India, presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals.
• The government of India established the National Film Development Corporation (NFDC) in 1975 to encourage high-quality cinema and provide financial assistance to independent filmmakers across various languages.
• The first Indian feature film was Raja Harishchandra, released in 1913, directed by Dadasaheb Phalke, which laid the foundation for the world's largest film-producing nation.

The correct answer is Anurag Thakur.

Key Points

• Anurag Singh Thakur assumed the charge of the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports in July 2021. He was appointed during the major Cabinet reshuffle conducted by the Government of India.
• He is a four-time Member of Parliament (MP) from the Hamirpur constituency in Himachal Pradesh. His appointment in 2021 marked a significant transition in the leadership of Indian sports administration.
• Before taking over the sports ministry, Anurag Thakur served as the Minister of State for Finance and Corporate Affairs. In the 2021 reshuffle, he was also given the portfolio of Minister of Information and Broadcasting.
• Anurag Thakur has a deep association with sports administration, having previously served as the President of the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) from May 2016 to January 2017.
• Under his tenure in 2021, India participated in the Tokyo 2020 Olympics (which were delayed to 2021 due to the pandemic), where the country achieved its best-ever medal tally of 7 medals, including 1 gold.

Additional Information

• Kiren Rijiju (Option C):
• He served as the Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Youth Affairs and Sports from May 2019 until July 2021.
• During his tenure, he was instrumental in promoting the Fit India Movement and the Khelo India initiatives. Following the 2021 reshuffle, he was appointed as the Union Minister of Law and Justice.
• Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore (Option B):
• He is a retired Indian Army officer and an Olympic silver medalist in shooting (Athens 2004).
• He served as the Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Youth Affairs and Sports from September 2017 to May 2019. He was the first sportsman to hold this ministerial position.
• Vijay Goel (Option A):
• He held the office of the Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Youth Affairs and Sports from July 2016 to September 2017.
• He is a veteran politician from the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and has represented both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• Structure of the Ministry:
• The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports was initially set up as the Department of Sports in 1982, during the IX Asian Games held in New Delhi.
• It was later upgraded to a full-fledged Ministry in the year 2000 to provide better focus on youth development and sports excellence.

Important Points

• Khelo India Scheme: This is a flagship program introduced by the ministry to revive the sports culture in India at the grassroot level by building a strong framework for all sports played in the country.
• Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS): Established in September 2014, this scheme identifies and provides specialized training and financial assistance to potential Olympic medal winners.
• National Sports Awards: The ministry is responsible for conferring the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, Arjuna Award, Dronacharya Award, and Dhyan Chand Award annually to recognize excellence in sports.
• National Sports Day: Celebrated on August 29 every year, marking the birth anniversary of the legendary hockey player Major Dhyan Chand. The President of India confers the sports awards on this day.

The correct answer is Mahavamsa.

Key Points

• The Mahavamsa is a famous Pali epic and historical chronicle that records the history of Sri Lanka and the Indian subcontinent, particularly focusing on the Mauryan Dynasty and the spread of Buddhism.
• According to the Mahavamsa and other Buddhist traditions like the Mahabodhivamsa, Chandragupta Maurya belonged to the Kshatriya clan of the Moriyas, who ruled at Pipphalivana. Hence, option C is correct.
• The text provides a detailed account of how Chanakya (Kautilya) identified Chandragupta as a member of this royal clan and groomed him to overthrow the Nanda Dynasty around 322 BCE.
• In contrast, Brahmanical sources like the Puranas describe the Mauryas as being of low origin (Shudras) or associated with Mura, a woman of low caste in the court of the Nandas.
• The Buddhist records were intent on establishing the high-born Kshatriya status of the Mauryas to legitimize the rule of Emperor Ashoka, who became a great patron of the Buddhist faith.

Additional Information

• Indica:
• Written by Megasthenes, who was the Greek ambassador sent by Seleucus Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya.
• It provides a detailed account of the Mauryan administration, the capital city of Pataliputra, and the seven-caste system in India, but it does not specifically focus on the Kshatriya clan origins of the king. Hence, option A is incorrect.
• Arthashastra:
• This is a comprehensive treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy authored by Kautilya (also known as Vishnugupta or Chanakya).
• While it is the most important source for understanding the Mauryan governance, it focuses on the principles of ruling rather than the genealogical details of Chandragupta’s clan. Hence, option B is incorrect.
• Aṅguttara Nikāya:
• This is a Buddhist scripture and one of the five nikayas in the Sutta Pitaka.
• It is primarily known for mentioning the sixteen Mahajanapadas (great kingdoms) that existed in ancient India during the 6^th century BCE, before the rise of the Mauryan Empire. Hence, option D is incorrect.
• Mauryan Empire:
• Founded in 322 BCE, it was the first major empire to encompass most of the Indian subcontinent.
• Its major rulers included Chandragupta Maurya, Bindusara, and Ashoka the Great.

Important Points

• The debate regarding Chandragupta Maurya’s origin remains a significant topic in ancient Indian history due to conflicting literary traditions.
• The Mudrarakshasa, a Sanskrit play by Vishakhadatta (composed around the 4^th-8^th century CE), refers to Chandragupta as ‘Vrishala’ and ‘Kula-hina’, terms implying a lowly birth or a person of no family lineage.
• The Junagadh Rock Inscription of Rudradaman (dated 150 CE) also mentions Chandragupta Maurya, highlighting the historical authenticity of his reign and his provincial administration.
• Modern historians often lean towards the Buddhist and Jaina accounts (such as Parishishtaparvan by Hemachandra), which generally agree on his Kshatriya background or his association with a community of peacock-tamers (from which the name Moriya or Maurya is derived).

Shortcut Trick

Let number = 100 (easy base)

4% = 4 and 16% = 16

Required % = (4 ÷ 16) × 100

= 1/4 × 100 = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Let number = x

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Part ÷ Whole) × 100

⇒ 4% of x = 4x/100

⇒ 16% of x = 16x/100

⇒ Required % = (4x/100 ÷ 16x/100) × 100

⇒ = (4x ÷ 16x) × 100

⇒ = 1/4 × 100 = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Percentage Ratio Trick

When comparing two percentages of same number, cancel the base and compare directly as a ratio.

Basic Percentage Formula

Percentage = (Part ÷ Whole) × 100.

Fraction to Percentage

1/4 = 25%, 1/2 = 50%, 3/4 = 75% — useful for quick conversion.

Same Base Concept

If percentages are taken on the same number, the number cancels out automatically.

Shortcut Trick

Solve using BODMAS: Order → Division → Multiplication → Addition − Subtraction.

Step 1: 4² = 16

Step 2: 84 ÷ 12 = 7 and 12 ÷ 4 = 3

Step 3: 7 × 16 − 17 × 3 + 9 = 112 − 51 + 9

Step 4: 112 − 51 + 9 = 70

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Alternate Method

Given: 84 ÷ 12 × 4² − 17 × 12 ÷ 4 + 9 = z

Formula Used: BODMAS Rule

⇒ z = 84 ÷ 12 × 16 − 17 × 12 ÷ 4 + 9

⇒ z = (84 ÷ 12) × 16 − 17 × (12 ÷ 4) + 9

⇒ z = 7 × 16 − 17 × 3 + 9

⇒ z = 112 − 51 + 9

⇒ z = 61 + 9

⇒ z = 70

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Additional Information

VBODMAS Rule

It stands for Vinculum, Bracket, Of/Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction, representing the standard hierarchy of arithmetic operations.

Order of Division and Multiplication

Division and Multiplication hold the same priority level and are executed from left to right as they appear in the expression.

Exponents in BODMAS

The O in BODMAS stands for Of or Orders, which includes powers (like 4²) and roots (like √16), which must be simplified before multiplication or division.

Shortcut Trick

For a mean proportion a : y :: y : b, the value of y is the square root of the product of extremes.

y = √(a × b)

y = √(49 × 100)

y = 7 × 10 = 70

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Alternate Method

Given:

49 : y :: y : 100

Formula Used:

In a proportion a : b :: c : d, the product of means equals the product of extremes ⇒ b × c = a × d

49 : y :: y : 100 Product of Extremes (49 × 100) Product of Means (y × y)

Calculations:

⇒ 49 ÷ y = y ÷ 100

⇒ y × y = 49 × 100

⇒ y² = 4900

⇒ y = √4900

⇒ y = 70

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is √(a × b).

Third Proportional

If a : b :: b : c, then c is the third proportional to a and b, given by c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

If a : b :: c : d, then d is the fourth proportional, given by d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Invertendo and Alternendo

If a : b = c : d, then b : a = d : c (Invertendo) and a : c = b : d (Alternendo).

Shortcut Trick

Net percentage change = a + b + (a × b)/100

Net Increase = 4 + 25 + (4 × 25)/100 = 29 + 1 = 30%

Current Sales = 100% + 30% = 130% = ₹208,000

Initial Sales (100%) = (208,000 ÷ 130) × 100 = 1,600 × 100 = ₹1,60,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,60,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Current Sales = ₹208,000

Increase in 1^st year (r₁) = 4%

Increase in 2^nd year (r₂) = 25%

Formula Used:

Final Value = Initial Value × (1 + r₁/100) × (1 + r₂/100)

Initial (X) +4% Year 1 +25% ₹208,000 Successive Increase Timeline

Calculations:

⇒ Let the sales two years ago be ₹X.

⇒ X × (1 + 4/100) × (1 + 25/100) = 208,000

⇒ X × (104/100) × (125/100) = 208,000

⇒ X × (26/25) × (5/4) = 208,000

⇒ X × (130/100) = 208,000

⇒ X × 1.3 = 208,000

⇒ X = 208,000 ÷ 1.3

⇒ X = 1,60,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,60,000.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by a% and then by b%, the net effective change is given by (a + b + ab/100)%. For decrease, use negative values for a or b.

Reverse Percentage Calculation

To find the initial value given the final value and percentage increase (r%), use Initial = Final ÷ (1 + r/100).

Ratio Method for Successive Change

Express percentages as fractions (e.g., 25% = 1/4). If it's an increase, the ratio is 4:5. Multiply successive ratios to get the overall initial:final ratio.

Population/Depreciation Formula

Value after n years = P × (1 ± r/100)ⁿ. This formula is essentially the same as compound interest.

Shortcut Trick

Cricket = 40%, Football = 10%

Difference = 30%

30% of 80,000 = 0.3 × 80000

= 24,000 crore

∴ The correct answer is ₹24,000 crore.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total expenditure = ₹80,000 crore

Cricket = 40%, Football = 10%

Formula Used:

Value = Percentage × Total

⇒ Cricket expenditure = 40% of 80000 = 0.4 × 80000 = 32000

⇒ Football expenditure = 10% of 80000 = 0.1 × 80000 = 8000

⇒ Difference = 32000 − 8000 = 24000

∴ The correct answer is ₹24,000 crore.

Additional Information

Percentage Difference Shortcut

Difference between two categories = (Difference of %) × Total directly.

Pie Chart Concept

Total pie = 100% ⇒ each sector represents its proportion of total value.

Quick Percentage Conversion

10% = divide by 10, 40% = 4 × 10% — useful for fast calculation.

Ratio Insight

Cricket : Football = 40 : 10 = 4 : 1, so difference = 3 parts out of 10 parts total.

Shortcut Trick

Total units (man-days) = 5 workers × 2 days = 10 units.

Daily wage per worker = Total Wages ÷ Total units

Wage = 1670 ÷ 10 = 167.

∴ The correct answer is ₹167.

Alternate Method

Given: Total workers = 5, Number of days = 2, Total wages = ₹1,670.

Formula: Total Wages = (Number of Workers × Days) × Daily Wage

Total Wage = ₹1,670 5 Workers 2 Days Daily Wage = 1670 ÷ (5 × 2) = ₹167

⇒ Total Wages = 5 × 2 × Daily Wage

⇒ 1,670 = 10 × Daily Wage

⇒ Daily Wage = 1,670 ÷ 10

⇒ Daily Wage = 167

∴ The correct answer is ₹167.

Additional Information

Work-Wages Formula

Total Wages are directly proportional to the total work done: W_total = (M₁ × D₁ × H₁ × E₁).

Efficiency and Wages

If workers have different efficiencies, the ratio of their wages is equal to the ratio of the work performed by each worker.

The Unitary Method

To find the value of one unit, divide the total value by the total number of components (Daily wage = Total ÷ People ÷ Days).

Shortcut Trick

For half-yearly compounding, new Rate = 8% ÷ 2 = 4% and Time = 1 × 2 = 2 periods.

Effective Interest Rate for 2 periods = 4 + 4 + (4 × 4) ÷ 100 = 8.16%.

Compound Interest = 7,90,000 × 8.16% = 7,900 × 8.16.

CI = ₹64,464.

∴ The correct answer is ₹64,464.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹7,90,000

Annual Rate (R) = 8%

Time (T) = 1 year

Compounding = Half-yearly

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P[1 + (r/100)]ⁿ, where r = rate per period and n = number of periods.

Calculations:

⇒ Number of half-yearly periods (n) = 1 × 2 = 2

⇒ Rate per half-year (r) = 8% ÷ 2 = 4%

⇒ A = 7,90,000 × [1 + (4/100)]²

⇒ A = 7,90,000 × (1.04) × (1.04)

⇒ A = 7,90,000 × 1.0816

⇒ A = ₹8,54,464

⇒ Compound Interest (CI) = Amount − Principal

⇒ CI = 8,54,464 − 7,90,000

⇒ CI = ₹64,464

∴ The correct answer is ₹64,464.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Interest

When interest is compounded more than once a year, the effective rate is higher than the nominal rate. For 2 periods: R_eff = r + r + (r × r)/100.

Compounding Frequencies

For Quarterly compounding, divide annual rate by 4 and multiply time by 4. For Monthly, divide/multiply by 12.

CI vs SI for 1 Year

If compounded annually, SI = CI for the first year. If compounded half-yearly or quarterly, CI > SI even in the first year.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of students in two groups = 12 : 18 = 2 : 3

Let the overall average score be x.

Using deviation method from 68: Net increase = [3 × (80 − 68)] ÷ (2 + 3)

Average increase = (3 × 12) ÷ 5 = 36 ÷ 5 = 7.2

Overall average = 68 + 7.2 = 75.2

∴ The correct answer is 75.2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of students in Group 1 (n₁) = 12

Average score of Group 1 (A₁) = 68

Number of students in Group 2 (n₂) = 30 − 12 = 18

Average score of Group 2 (A₂) = 80

Formula Used:

Combined Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂)

12 Std Avg: 68 18 Std Avg: 80 Combined Avg = 75.2 Average Score Calculation

Calculations:

⇒ Total score of 12 students = 12 × 68 = 816

⇒ Total score of 18 students = 18 × 80 = 1440

⇒ Sum of scores of all 30 students = 816 + 1440 = 2256

⇒ Total number of students = 30

⇒ Class average score = 2256 ÷ 30

⇒ Class average score = 75.2

∴ The correct answer is 75.2.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

Used when different groups have different sizes: Average = (w₁x₁ + w₂x₂ + ...) ÷ (w₁ + w₂ + ...).

Deviation Method

Average = Assumed Average + (Net Deviation ÷ Total Count). This simplifies calculation with large numbers.

Ratio Shortcut

If group sizes are in a ratio a:b, the weighted average depends only on this ratio, not the absolute numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Volume of Cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height

Product of unit digits = 1 × 6 × 6 = 36

The unit digit of the volume must be 6.

Comparing with options, only 2976 ends with 6.

∴ The correct answer is 2976 m³.

Alternate Method

Given: Length (L) = 31 m, Breadth (B) = 16 m, Height (H) = 6 m.

Formula: Volume of Cuboid = L × B × H

Length = 31 m Breadth = 16 m Height = 6 m Cuboidal Tank

⇒ Volume = 31 × 16 × 6

⇒ Volume = 496 × 6

⇒ Volume = 2976 m³

∴ The correct answer is 2976 m³.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Cuboid

The total area of all six faces is given by 2 × (LB + BH + HL).

Lateral Surface Area of Cuboid

The area of the four side walls is given by 2 × H × (L + B).

Diagonal of a Cuboid

The longest rod that can be placed inside the tank is √(L² + B² + H²).

The correct answer is option4. The detailed solution will be updated soon.

Shortcut Trick

Assume equal quantity = 1 sharpener each type

CP₁ = 8 ÷ 9, CP₂ = 8

Total CP = (8 ÷ 9) + 8 = 80 ÷ 9

SP = 8 + 8 = 16

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 = [(16 − 80/9) ÷ (80/9)] × 100

∴ The correct answer is 80%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Type 1: 9 sharpeners = ₹8 ⇒ 1 sharpener = 8 ÷ 9

Type 2: 1 sharpener = ₹8

Equal number purchased

Formula Used:

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let number of each type = 9 (LCM)

⇒ Type 1: 9 sharpeners cost = ₹8

⇒ Type 2: 9 sharpeners cost = 9 × 8 = ₹72

⇒ Total CP = 8 + 72 = ₹80

⇒ Total sharpeners = 18

⇒ Selling price = 18 × 8 = ₹144

⇒ Profit = 144 − 80 = ₹64

⇒ Profit % = (64 ÷ 80) × 100 = 80%

∴ The correct answer is 80%.

Additional Information

Equal Quantity Trick

When equal items are bought at different rates, take LCM to simplify calculation.

Profit Percentage Formula

Profit % = (SP − CP) ÷ CP × 100

Unitary Method

Convert bulk price into per unit price for quick comparison.

Smart LCM Usage

Using LCM removes fractions and speeds up exam calculations.

Shortcut Trick

Total Distance = 266 + 441 + 616 = 1323 km

Total Time = (266 ÷ 19) + (441 ÷ 7) + (616 ÷ 14)

Total Time = 14 + 63 + 44 = 121 hours

Average Speed = 1323 ÷ 121 = 10 113/121 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 10 113/121 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance₁ (d₁) = 266 km, Speed₁ (s₁) = 19 km/hr

Distance₂ (d₂) = 441 km, Speed₂ (s₂) = 7 km/hr

Distance₃ (d₃) = 616 km, Speed₃ (s₃) = 14 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

  266 km 19 km/hr 441 km 7 km/hr 616 km 14 km/hr Total Distance: 1323 km

Calculations:

⇒ Time taken for 1^st part (t₁) = 266 ÷ 19 = 14 hr

⇒ Time taken for 2^nd part (t₂) = 441 ÷ 7 = 63 hr

⇒ Time taken for 3^rd part (t₃) = 616 ÷ 14 = 44 hr

⇒ Total Distance = 266 + 441 + 616 = 1323 km

⇒ Total Time = 14 + 63 + 44 = 121 hr

⇒ Average Speed = 1323 ÷ 121

⇒ Average Speed = 10 113/121 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 10 113/121 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed Concepts

Average speed is the total displacement-independent distance divided by total time. It is NOT the simple average of speeds unless time intervals are equal.

Harmonic Mean Case

If two equal distances are covered at speeds s₁ and s₂, then Average Speed = (2 × s₁ × s₂) ÷ (s₁ + s₂).

Relative Speed

Relative speed is the sum of speeds (s₁ + s₂) if objects move in opposite directions and the difference (s₁ − s₂) if they move in the same direction.

Shortcut Trick

³√6859 = 19 (Since 19³ ends in 9 and 10³ < 6859 < 20³)

⁴√4096 = 8 (Since √4096 = 64 and √64 = 8)

Expression → (19 ÷ 8) × (4 ÷ 57) × 48

Shortcut → (19/57) × (4/8) × 48 = (1/3) × (1/2) × 48 = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Alternate Method

Given:

(³√6859 ÷ ⁴√4096) × (4 ÷ 57) × 48

Formula Used: BODMAS Rule and Root Calculation

⇒ Calculate the cube root: 19 × 19 × 19 = 6859 ∴ ³√6859 = 19

⇒ Calculate the fourth root: 8 × 8 × 8 × 8 = 4096 ∴ ⁴√4096 = 8

⇒ Substitute the values: (19 ÷ 8) × (4 ÷ 57) × 48

⇒ Rearrange terms: (19 ÷ 57) × (4 ÷ 8) × 48

⇒ Simplify fractions: (1 ÷ 3) × (1 ÷ 2) × 48

⇒ Final multiplication: (1 ÷ 6) × 48 = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Additional Information

Cube Root Extraction

For perfect cubes, the unit digit of the number determines the unit digit of its cube root. Numbers ending in 9 have cube roots ending in 9.

Fourth Root Property

The fourth root of a number can be computed by taking the square root twice: ⁴√x = √(√x). For example, ⁴√4096 = √64 = 8.

BODMAS Rule

Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction. Multiplication and Division have the same priority and are solved from left to right.

The correct answer is option1. The detailed solution will be updated soon.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of CP : MP = (100 − Discount%) : (100 + Profit%)

CP : MP = (100 − 18) : (100 + 18) = 82 : 118

Markup value = 118 − 82 = 36 units

Markup percentage = (36 ÷ 82) × 100 ≈ 43.90%

∴ The correct answer is 43.90%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Discount = 18% of Marked Price

Profit = 18% of Cost Price

Formula Used:

SP = CP × (1 + Profit%) = MP × (1 − Discount%)

CP = 100 SP = 118 MP = 143.90 Profit +18% Discount −18% Markup % = 43.90%

Calculations:

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) = ₹100

⇒ Profit = 18% ⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 100 + 18 = ₹118

⇒ Discount is given on Marked Price (MP), so SP = MP − 18% of MP = 82% of MP

⇒ 0.82 × MP = 118

⇒ MP = 118 ÷ 0.82 ≈ ₹143.9024

⇒ Markup = MP − CP = 143.9024 − 100 = 43.9024

⇒ Markup % = (43.9024 ÷ 100) × 100 = 43.90%

∴ The correct answer is 43.90%.

Additional Information

Direct CP and MP Relation

The relationship between Cost Price and Marked Price is given by CP/MP = (100 − D%)/(100 + P%).

Effective Profit with Successive Percentage

Successive percentage change formula: Profit% = Markup% − Discount% − (Markup% × Discount%)/100.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts d₁ and d₂ are given, the total discount = d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100.

Shortcut Trick

Marked Price (MP) = ₹ 200

Price after first 25% discount = 200 × 0.75 = ₹ 150

Final Selling Price (SP) = ₹ 117

Additional discount required = 150 − 117 = ₹ 33

Additional discount % = (33 ÷ 150) × 100 = 22%

∴ The correct answer is 22%.

Alternate Method

Given: MP = ₹ 200, First Discount (d₁) = 25%, Final SP = ₹ 117

Formula: Final SP = MP × (100 − d₁)/100 × (100 − d₂)/100

MP: ₹ 200 −25% Price: ₹ 150 −x% SP: ₹ 117 Discount = 150 − 117 = ₹ 33

⇒ Price after first discount = 200 × (100 − 25) ÷ 100

⇒ Price after first discount = 200 × 75 ÷ 100 = ₹ 150

⇒ Let the additional discount be x%.

⇒ 117 = 150 × (100 − x) ÷ 100

⇒ 117 ÷ 150 = (100 − x) ÷ 100

⇒ 0.78 = (100 − x) ÷ 100

⇒ 78 = 100 − x

⇒ x = 100 − 78 = 22

∴ The correct answer is 22%.

Additional Information

Successive Discount Formula

When two successive discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, the single equivalent discount is (d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100)%.

Marked Price (MP) and Selling Price (SP)

Selling Price is calculated as SP = MP × (1 − Discount%/100). Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price.

Net Discount Calculation

Net Discount = Marked Price − Final Selling Price. Discount percentage = (Net Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Total Interest Percentage = Rate × Time

Total SI % = 3% × 5 = 15%

Total Interest = 15% of ₹1560 = 0.15 × 1560 = ₹234

Total Amount = Principal + Interest = ₹1560 + ₹234 = ₹1794

∴ The correct answer is ₹1794.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal (P) = ₹1560, Rate (R) = 3% p.a., Time (T) = 5 years

Formula Used: Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100; Amount (A) = P + SI

 P = ₹1560  A = ₹?  5 Years @ 3% p.a. Total SI = 15% Principal (Start) Amount (End)

⇒ SI = (1560 × 3 × 5) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (1560 × 15) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 23400 ÷ 100

⇒ SI = ₹234

⇒ Amount = Principal + Simple Interest

⇒ Amount = 1560 + 234

⇒ Amount = ₹1794

The correct answer is ₹1794.

Additional Information

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

Simple interest is calculated only on the principal amount, whereas compound interest is calculated on the principal plus the accumulated interest of previous periods.

Compound Interest Formula

Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ, where n is the number of years or compounding periods.

Rule of 72

A quick way to estimate how long it takes for money to double: Years to double ≈ 72 ÷ Interest Rate.

Shortcut Trick

Radius r = Diameter ÷ 2 = 51 ÷ 2 = 25.5 cm.

Surface area of cylinder open at top = 2πrh + πr² = πr(2h + r).

Internal Area = (22/7) × 25.5 × (2 × 70 + 25.5) = (22/7) × 25.5 × 165.5.

Internal Area = 92845.5 ÷ 7 ≈ 13263.6 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 13263.6 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Height (h) = 70 cm

Internal Diameter (d) = 51 cm ⇒ Radius (r) = 51/2 = 25.5 cm

Formula Used:

Internal Surface Area (ISA) = Curved Surface Area + Area of Base = 2πrh + πr²

  h = 70 cm  r = 25.5 Open Top Area = 2πrh + πr<sup>2</sup>

Calculations:

⇒ ISA = π × r × (2h + r)

⇒ ISA = (22/7) × 25.5 × (2 × 70 + 25.5)

⇒ ISA = (22/7) × 25.5 × (140 + 25.5)

⇒ ISA = (22/7) × 25.5 × 165.5

⇒ ISA = (561 × 165.5) ÷ 7

⇒ ISA = 92845.5 ÷ 7

⇒ ISA = 13263.6428...

Rounding to one decimal place, ISA = 13263.6 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 13263.6 cm².

Additional Information

Volume of Cylinder

The volume of a cylinder is given by V = πr²h, representing the capacity of the internal space.

Total Surface Area (Closed Cylinder)

For a closed cylinder, both top and bottom bases are included: TSA = 2πrh + 2πr² = 2πr(h + r).

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

The lateral or curved surface area excluding the base areas is given by CSA = 2πrh.

Units Conversion

1 m² = 10,000 cm². Area units are always squared, while volume units are always cubed.

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(11, 77, 70) = 770 units.

Efficiencies: A = 70, B = 10, C = 11.

Work done by all in 2 days = (70 + 10 + 11) × 2 = 182 units.

Remaining work = 770 − 182 = 588 units.

Time for B and C = 588 ÷ (10 + 11) = 28 days.

∴ The correct answer is 28 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by A = 11 days, B = 77 days, and C = 70 days.

Formula Used: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

⇒ Total work = LCM(11, 77, 70) = 770 units.

⇒ Combined efficiency of A, B, and C = 70 + 10 + 11 = 91 units/day.

⇒ Work completed by A, B, and C in 2 days = 91 × 2 = 182 units.

⇒ Remaining work = 770 − 182 = 588 units.

⇒ Combined efficiency of B and C = 10 + 11 = 21 units/day.

⇒ Days required by B and C to finish remaining work = 588 ÷ 21 = 28 days.

∴ The correct answer is 28 days.

Additional Information

Work and Efficiency Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. Efficiency = Work ÷ Time.

Work and Wages

Wages are generally distributed in the ratio of the work done by each individual. Wage ∝ Efficiency × Time.

Pipes and Cisterns

The same LCM method applies where filling pipes have positive efficiency and leakage/outlet pipes have negative efficiency.

Alternate Day Work

In cases where people work on alternate days, calculate the work done in one complete cycle (set of days) before finding the total duration.

Shortcut Trick

Net deviation method: Take 61 as the base average.

Deviation of first 6 numbers = (65 − 61) × 6 = +4 × 6 = +24

Deviation of last 6 numbers = (62 − 61) × 6 = +1 × 6 = +6

Total deviation = +24 + 6 = +30

Since the 6^th number is counted twice, 6^th number = Base Average + Total Deviation = 61 + 30 = 91.

∴ The correct answer is 91.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of 11 numbers = 61

Average of first 6 numbers = 65

Average of last 6 numbers = 62

Formula: Sum = Average × Number of terms

Total 11 Numbers (Avg = 61) First 6 Numbers (Avg = 65) Last 6 Numbers (Avg = 62) Overlap: 6^th Number 1 11

Calculations:

⇒ Total Sum of 11 numbers = 11 × 61 = 671

⇒ Sum of first 6 numbers = 6 × 65 = 390

⇒ Sum of last 6 numbers = 6 × 62 = 372

⇒ Sum of (first 6 + last 6) = 390 + 372 = 762

⇒ This sum includes the 6^th number twice.

⇒ 6^th number = (Sum of first 6 + Sum of last 6) − Total Sum

⇒ 6^th number = 762 − 671 = 91

∴ The correct answer is 91.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When two groups are combined, the overall average is (n₁a₁ + n₂a₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Overlapping Terms

In a series of n terms, if the first x and last y terms are given such that x + y > n, then (x + y − n) terms are being overlapped.

Deviation Concept

The sum of deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• Option 1: the destructive consequences of valuing material gain above personal integrity
• This is correct because the passage emphasizes that Kino's pursuit of wealth leads to illusion, moral compromise, and eventual ruin, showing the dangers of prioritizing materialism over values like love and integrity.
• Option 2: the inevitability of social inequality and the futility of resisting it
• This is incorrect as the passage does not focus on social inequality or resistance, but on the moral dangers of materialism.
• Option 3: the transformative power of ambition on a person's life
• This is incorrect because the transformation described is negative, tied to corruption and loss rather than positive ambition.
• Option 4: the essential need for wealth to provide security and happiness
• This is incorrect as the passage argues that true happiness is not found in wealth, but in family, integrity, and peace.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Correct, as it aligns with Steinbeck's central message about the dangers of materialism.
• Options 2, 3, and 4: Incorrect, as they do not accurately reflect the main theme highlighted in the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• Option 3: The bonds of family, integrity and a purposeful life
• This is correct as the passage clearly states that Steinbeck’s message is that the true 'greatest riches' are not found in material wealth, but in family, integrity, and living with purpose.
• Option 1: The dominance and control over one's fate through material means
• This is incorrect because the passage warns against seeking fulfillment through materialism.
• Option 2: The prestige and social power achieved through financial success
• This is incorrect as Steinbeck cautions that such pursuits are hollow and not truly fulfilling.
• Option 4: The satisfaction that comes from overcoming adversities through wealth
• This is incorrect since the passage focuses on non-material values as the true source of happiness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 3: Correct, as the passage repeatedly emphasizes the value of love, integrity, and purpose above material wealth.
• Options 1, 2, and 4: Incorrect, as they all focus on material gain, which the passage presents as ultimately unsatisfying and even dangerous.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• Option 4: Reflective and admonitory
• This is correct as the passage thoughtfully analyses Steinbeck's message, encouraging readers to reflect on the dangers of materialism and heed the cautionary lesson presented in 'The Pearl'. The tone is both contemplative and warning.
• Option 1: Enthusiastic and persuasive
• This is incorrect because the passage is not marked by excitement or an attempt to persuade, but rather by thoughtful consideration and caution.
• Option 2: Reverent and nostalgic
• This is incorrect as the passage does not focus on admiration for the past or express longing for it.
• Option 3: Skeptical and dismissive
• This is incorrect because the passage treats the novel's message with seriousness and respect, not doubt or disregard.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• Option 4: Correct, as the passage both reflects on and warns against the dangers of materialism, in line with the cautionary nature of Steinbeck's message.
• Options 1, 2, and 3: Incorrect, as they do not accurately capture the thoughtful and cautionary tone of the discussion.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• Option 1: The Hollow Pursuit of Wealth: Lessons from The Pearl
• This is correct as the passage focuses on the dangers of materialism, the emptiness of prioritizing wealth, and the deeper values that Steinbeck highlights through Kino’s journey in 'The Pearl'.
• Option 2: Material Success and its Rewards in The Pearl
• This is incorrect because the passage argues that material success is hollow and leads to moral compromise, not rewards.
• Option 3: An Exploration of Love and Family in Steinbeck's Works
• This is less suitable as the main focus is on materialism and its dangers, not broadly on love and family in Steinbeck's works.
• Option 4: Kino's Journey: The Struggles of Ambition
• This is incorrect as the passage centers on the negative outcomes of ambition driven by materialism rather than ambition itself.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Correct, as it directly addresses the main message and lesson of the passage.
• Options 2, 3, and 4: Incorrect, as they either misrepresent the message or do not fully capture the passage’s central theme.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Dense.

Key Points

• The word "hollow" means having a space or cavity inside, not solid or empty.
• "Dense" is the most appropriate antonym, as it means something thick, closely compacted or solid, which is the opposite of hollow.
• The other options, namely shallow, empty, and fragile, do not convey the sense of being solid or compacted.
• Shallow: Of little depth, not deep.
• Empty: Containing nothing.
• Fragile: Easily broken or damaged.

Therefore, the most appropriate antonym for the word ‘hollow’ is: Dense.

Additional Information

Here are the other options and their meanings:

• Shallow (उथला): Of little depth, not deep.
• Empty (खाली): Containing nothing.
• Fragile (नाजुक): Easily broken or damaged.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Enivied'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Envied'.
• The word 'envied' is the past tense of the verb 'envy' which means to desire something that belongs to someone else or to feel resentment toward someone for their possessions or qualities. (ईर्ष्या करना)
• For Example -
• She envied her friend's ability to stay calm under pressure.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Enivied'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Meticulous - showing great attention to detail; very careful and precise (सावधानीपूर्वक)
• Organisation - an organized group of people with a particular purpose, such as a business or government department (संगठन)
• Proclivity - a tendency to choose or do something regularly; an inclination or predisposition toward a particular thing (झुकाव)

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Reminiscing.

Key Points

• The word "Reminiscing" means recalling past experiences or events with fondness or nostalgia. (स्मरण करना)
• Example: She spent the evening reminiscing about her childhood days spent at her grandparents' house.
• In the given sentence, the old man is clearly reflecting on and talking about his past experiences, which aligns with the meaning of "reminiscing."
• Example: The old man reminisced about his adventures with friends during his youth.
• Hence, the correct word to describe the old man's activity is "reminiscing" (स्मरण करना).

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Reminiscing.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Comprehending (समझना): To understand the nature or meaning of something.
• Example: The student had difficulty comprehending the complex mathematical formula.
• Assimilating (अवशोषित करना): To absorb or integrate information, ideas, or culture into one's own mind or system.
• Example: It took her some time to assimilate all the information from the training session.
• Misconceiving (ग़लत समझना): To interpret or understand something incorrectly.
• Example: He misconceived the instructions and ended up submitting the wrong assignment.