DSSSB TGT (Social Science) Official Paper (Held On: 07 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) CGFI

Option 2) AFDH

Option 3) MRPT

Option 4) WBZD

Thus, out of all 'CGFI' is the odd one out.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: E, F, G, H, K, L and M each have their exam on a different day of the week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1) Only K has exam before H.

2) Only three people have exam between L and H. 

3) Only three people have exam between M and F.

4) G has his exam on a day before F and on a day after E.

Thus, four people have their exam after M.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) Some soups are coffees → Follow (As some soups are teas and all teas are coffees. As some part of soups is common with tea which whole comes in coffee, therefore it is true.)

(II) No tea is water → Follow (As all teas are coffees and no coffee is water. As whole tea comes in coffee which cannot be water, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Both conclusion (I) and conclusion (II) follow.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given: Six students, Sunita, Tina, Meena, Neela, Piyal, and Rehana, are sitting around a round table, facing the center.

1) Neela sits third to the right of Meena.

2) Piyal sits to the immediate right of Meena.

3) Sunita sits to the immediate left of Rehana. 

The remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. Tina.

Thus, Sunita sits second to the right of Tina.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer

Given Statement: Company X has seen a decline in profits over the past five years. An audit firm's report attributes this to unsustainable government policies in the textile sector, in which Company X operates, over the past five years. The firm has advised Company X to diversify its business into other sectors.

Given conclusions:

1. Stable government policy in the textile sector is necessary to increase Company X's profits. → Follow

Cause is given, but 'necessary condition' is assumed.

2. Company X has not diversified its business, which is why profits are declining. → Follow

Lack of diversification is not stated as the cause.

Therefore, Both I and II conclusions follows.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) RJB

Option 2) SKI

Option 3) TLD

Option 4) WOG

Thus, out of all 'SKI' is the odd one out.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Decoding signs:

Given: 13 D 56 A 4 C 4 B 11 = ?

13 D 56 A 4 C 4 B 11 = ? ⇒ 13 - 56 ÷ 4 + 4 × 11 = ?

⇒ 13 - 56 ÷ 4 + 4 × 11 = ?

⇒ 13 - 14 + 4 × 11 = ?

⇒ 13 + 44 - 14 = ?

⇒ 57 - 14 = ?

⇒ 43 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given series: (Right) 156 856 865 165 423 (Left)

According to the question.

So,

First digit of the largest number → 865 → 8

Third digit of the smallest number → 156 → 6

So, the first digit of the largest number is added to the third digit of the smallest number → 8 + 6 = 14

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given:

Total people → 26

Karan's rank from the left → 7^th

Mahi's rank from the right → 4^th

Total people between Karan and Mahi → Total people - Karan's rank from the left - Mahi's rank from the right

→ 26 - 7 - 4 = 15 

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given:

Ram starts running from point A and runs 4 km towards the east.

Then he turns left and runs 4 km. Then he turns right and runs 4 km.

He again turns right and runs 6 km.

Finally, he turns right and runs 8 km to reach point B.

Thus, Ram should run 2 km in the north direction in order to reach point A again.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic followed here is:

630 : 5 → 5⁴ + 5 = 625 + 5 ⇒ 630​

And,

1302 : 6 → 64 + 6 = 1296 + 6 ⇒ 1302

Similarly,

84 : ? → 34 + 3 = 81 + 3 ⇒ 84

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the question:

Thus, 'S' is coded as '3'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Decoding signs:

Given: 11 - 155 × 5 ÷ 29 + 44 = ?

11 - 155 × 5 ÷ 29 + 44 = ? ⇒ 11 × 155 ÷ 5 + 29 - 44 = ?

⇒ 11 × 155 ÷ 5 + 29 - 44 = ?

⇒ 11 × 31 + 29 - 44 = ?

⇒ 341 + 29 - 44 = ?

⇒ 370 - 44 = ?

⇒ 326 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

KO 4 is related to NL 1​

And,

DZ 9 is related to GW 6

Similarly,

SD 7 is related to

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given series: (Left) 493 896 397 382 317 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

Third digit of the largest number → 896 → 6

Second digit of the smallest number → 317 → 1

So, the third digit of the largest number is added to the second digit of the smallest number → 6 + 1 = 7

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

(216, 131) → 216 - 85 = 131​

And,

(245, 160) → 245 - 85 = 160

Similarly,

(168, 83) → 168 - 85 = 83

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Decoding symbols:

Given: N – O + B × L ÷ E – D

N – O → N is the brother of O.

O + B → O is the mother of B.

B × L → B is the wife of L.

L ÷ E → L is the father of E.

E – D → E is the brother of D.

Here, O is D's mother's mother.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The Ganeshwar-Jodhpura Chalcolithic culture is primarily located in the northeastern part of the state of Rajasthan, India.
• It is named after two prominent archeological sites: Ganeshwar, located in the Sikar district, and Jodhpura, located in the Jaipur district.
• The culture flourished during the 3^rd millennium BCE, with its peak period dated approximately between 2800 BCE and 2200 BCE.
• The Ganeshwar site was discovered and excavated by the renowned archeologist R.C. Agrawal in the 1970s (specifically around 1977-1978).
• This culture is uniquely significant because it served as a major copper-producing center that supplied copper artifacts and raw materials to the Indus Valley Civilization (Harappa and Mohenjo-daro).

Additional Information

• Geographical Context: The culture is situated near the Aravalli Range and is closely associated with the Kantli River (Ganeshwar) and the Sahibi River (Jodhpura). This region is part of the Khetri Copper Belt, which is one of the oldest copper mining zones in India.
• Pottery Features: The people of this culture produced a specific type of pottery known as Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP). This pottery is characterized by its orange to red color and a porous texture that often leaves a powdery residue when touched.
• Artifacts and Metallurgy: Excavations have revealed a massive quantity of copper objects, including 5,000 copper tools such as arrowheads, fishhooks, spearheads, chisels, and bangles. The high purity of copper (often 99%) suggests advanced knowledge of smelting and metallurgy.
• Subsistence and Economy: While their primary economic activity was mining and metallurgy, they also practiced hunting, fishing, and agriculture. The presence of fishhooks indicates that fishing in the Kantli River was a significant part of their diet.
• Trade Links: The Ganeshwar-Jodhpura culture was a contemporary of the early and mature Harappan phases. It acted as an industrial hub, trading copper ingots and finished goods to Harappan cities in exchange for other commodities.

Important Points

• Cultural Distinction: Unlike the urbanized Indus Valley Civilization, the Ganeshwar-Jodhpura culture was a rural, specialized metallurgical community. It did not possess the grid-iron town planning or the script found in Harappan sites.
• Chronology: The culture is often divided into three phases. Phase I (c. 3800-3000 BCE) shows early hunting-gathering; Phase II (c. 3000-2800 BCE) shows the beginning of copper use; and Phase III (c. 2800-2000 BCE) represents the zenith of copper production.
• Discovery of Microliths: Along with copper, a large number of microliths (small stone tools) were found, indicating a transition from the Mesolithic to the Chalcolithic lifestyle.
• Legacy: The sites highlight the importance of Rajasthan in the proto-history of the Indian subcontinent, establishing it as the "Cradle of Copper Technology" in ancient India.

The correct answer is 14.

Key Points

• On 19 July 1969, the Government of India, under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, took the historic step of nationalizing 14 major private commercial banks.
• The primary criterion for nationalization during this first wave was that the banks must have deposits exceeding Rs. 50 crore.
• This decision was initially implemented through the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance, 1969, which later became an Act in 1970.
• The fundamental objective of this move was to align the banking sector with the socialist goals of the government, ensuring that credit reached the priority sectors such as agriculture, small-scale industries, and exports, rather than being concentrated in the hands of a few industrial houses.
• This process marked a significant shift from "class banking" to "mass banking" in India, aimed at expanding the banking network into rural and semi-urban areas.

Additional Information

• Second Wave of Nationalization: Following the 1969 initiative, a second phase of nationalization took place on 15 April 1980. During this phase, 6 more private banks with deposits of over Rs. 200 crore were brought under government control.
• State Bank of India (SBI): Prior to the 1969 nationalization, the Imperial Bank of India was nationalized in 1955 under the State Bank of India Act, 1955, to become the State Bank of India. It served as the principal agent of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) across the country.
• Legal Challenges: The 1969 nationalization was challenged in the Supreme Court of India in the famous R.C. Cooper vs. Union of India case (also known as the Bank Nationalization Case). The court initially struck down the ordinance, leading the government to amend the law to address compensation issues.
• Impact on Credit Flow: Post-nationalization, there was a massive expansion of bank branches in unbanked areas. The share of agriculture in total bank credit rose significantly, and the Lead Bank Scheme was introduced to coordinate credit planning at the district level.

Important Points

• The 14 banks nationalized in 1969 included: Allahabad Bank, Bank of Baroda, Bank of India, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Central Bank of India, Dena Bank, Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank, Punjab National Bank, Syndicate Bank, Union Bank of India, United Bank of India, and United Commercial Bank (UCO Bank).
• The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, provides the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) the power to supervise and regulate these Public Sector Banks (PSBs) to maintain financial stability.
• In recent years, the Government of India has initiated a process of consolidation. For example, in 2020, a major merger exercise reduced the number of Public Sector Banks from 27 in 2017 to 12, aiming to create "next-generation" banks with better capital adequacy and global competitiveness.
• The nationalization era is often associated with the "Green Revolution" as it provided the necessary financial liquidity to farmers to adopt high-yielding variety seeds and modern irrigation techniques.

The correct answer is ₹32.44 crore.

Key Points

• The PM-YASASVI (Prime Minister Young Achievers Scholarship Award Scheme for Vibrant India) is a comprehensive umbrella scheme designed by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• For the year 2023 (specifically the financial cycle 2023-24), the Government of India released an amount of ₹32.44 crore earmarked specifically for the Pre-Matric Scholarship component of the scheme.
• This scholarship is aimed at students belonging to Other Backward Classes (OBC), Economically Backward Classes (EBC), and De-Notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNT/SNT) categories.
• The Pre-Matric component specifically supports students studying in Class 9 and Class 10 in government schools or schools identified by the relevant authorities.
• The primary objective of this financial release is to reduce the dropout rate at the secondary school level and provide social security through financial assistance to students from marginalized backgrounds.

Additional Information

• Eligibility Criteria: To avail of the benefits under the PM-YASASVI scheme, the annual income of the parents or guardians from all sources must not exceed ₹2.5 lakh.
• Structure of the Scheme: PM-YASASVI is not a single scholarship but an umbrella program that merged several existing schemes. It includes Pre-Matric Scholarships, Post-Matric Scholarships, Top Class Education in schools, Top Class Education in colleges, and the construction of hostels for OBC boys and girls.
• Target Groups: The scheme covers four main categories: OBC (Other Backward Classes), EBC (Economically Backward Classes), DNT (De-Notified Tribes), and SNT (Semi-Nomadic Tribes). It is estimated to benefit millions of students across India.
• Top Class School Education: Under this specific sub-component, shortlisted students in Class 9 and Class 11 are provided with a scholarship that covers school tuition fees and hostel fees, often amounting up to ₹75,000 per annum for Class 9 and ₹1,25,000 per annum for Class 11.
• Post-Matric Scholarship: This component provides financial assistance to students pursuing education beyond the matriculation stage, covering various diploma, graduate, and post-graduate courses.

Important Points

• Selection Process Update 2023: In 2023, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment announced a significant change in the selection process. Instead of the YASASVI Entrance Test (YET) which was previously conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA), it was decided that selection would be based on merit, specifically the marks obtained in Class 8 and Class 10.
• Implementation Agency: The scheme is implemented through the National Scholarship Portal (NSP). Funds are generally disbursed via the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mode directly into the bank accounts of the beneficiaries or their parents to ensure transparency.
• State-wise Allocation: While the ₹32.44 crore was the central release for pre-matric in the reported period, the total allocation for all components of PM-YASASVI is significantly higher, often exceeding ₹1,000 crore to cover the vast population of OBC/EBC/DNT students across various states.
• Geographical Reach: The scheme is applicable throughout India, and state governments play a crucial role in identifying Top Class Schools where students can gain admission and receive the full scholarship benefits.

The correct answer is Great Indian bustard.

Key Points

• The Great Indian bustard (scientific name: Ardeotis nigriceps) is a large bird characterized by a black crown on its head, which contrast with its pale or light black neck and head. Its body is predominantly brown, while its wings display a mixture of black, brown, and grey feathers. Hence, the description provided in the question correctly identifies this bird.
• It is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world, with adult males weighing between 10 to 15 kg and standing about 1 meter tall.
• The Great Indian bustard is the State Bird of Rajasthan, India. It is most commonly found in the Thar Desert and the Desert National Park in Jaisalmer.
• This species is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List due to its dwindling population, which is estimated to be fewer than 150 individuals in the wild.
• The bird is omnivorous, feeding on a variety of insects (like grasshoppers and beetles), seeds, grains, and occasionally small rodents or reptiles.

Additional Information

• Indian Pelican:
• Also known as the Spot-billed Pelican, it is a large water bird found across South Asia.
• Unlike the bustard, it has a greyish-white plumage and a distinctive large bill with a pouch used for catching fish.
• It inhabits freshwater and saline wetlands, and its conservation status is Near Threatened.
• Old World Sparrow:
• These are small passerine birds belonging to the family Passeridae.
• The most common example is the House Sparrow, which has a streaked brown and grey body but lacks the massive size and specific black crown of the Great Indian bustard.
• They are found in urban and rural environments globally and are known for their seed-eating habits.
• Himalayan Woodpecker:
• This bird is found in the Himalayan regions of India, Nepal, and Bhutan.
• It features a black and white plumage with a crimson (red) patch on the head or under-tail.
• It lives in montane forests and uses its strong beak to drill into trees for insects.

Important Points

• Conservation Efforts: The Government of India launched Project Great Indian Bustard in 2013 to protect the habitat and breeding grounds of this bird, particularly in Rajasthan.
• Threats: The primary threats to the Great Indian bustard include habitat loss due to agriculture, mining, and the collision with high-voltage power lines in their flight paths.
• Habitat: They prefer dry grasslands and scrublands with low vegetation, making them an indicator species for the health of the grassland ecosystem.
• Legal Protection: It is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which provides the highest level of legal protection against hunting and trade.

The correct answer is Sex Ratio.

Key Points

• The Census of India 2011 was the 15^th National Census of the country and the 7^th after Independence. It is a massive exercise conducted every 10 years to collect demographic, social, and economic data.
• Sex Ratio is a vital demographic indicator defined as the number of females per 1000 males in a population. In the 2011 Census, the sex ratio of India was recorded at 943, showing a slight increase from 933 in 2001. Hence, the statement regarding Sex Ratio is correct.
• India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is an economic indicator representing the total monetary value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period. It is calculated by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not through the household census survey. Hence, the statement regarding GDP is incorrect.
• Industrial Production refers to the output of industrial establishments, typically measured by the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). This data is collected on a monthly basis by MoSPI to track the growth of various sectors like Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity. It is not a demographic indicator of the population census. Hence, the statement regarding Industrial Production is incorrect.
• Agricultural Productivity measures the relationship between agricultural output and the inputs (like land, labor, and capital) used to produce it. This data is gathered by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare through separate surveys and reports, rather than the decennial population census. Hence, the statement regarding Agricultural Productivity is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Historical Context: The first non-synchronous census in India was conducted in 1872 under Lord Mayo. However, the first synchronous census took place in 1881 under Lord Ripon, and it has been conducted every decade since then.
• 2011 Census Details: The motto of the 2011 Census was "Our Census, Our Future". The Census Commissioner of India during this period was C. Chandramouli. The census covered 640 districts, 5,924 sub-districts, and more than 6 lakh villages.
• Literacy Rate: According to the 2011 data, the overall literacy rate in India was 74.04%. The male literacy stood at 82.14%, while the female literacy was 65.46%. Kerala retained its position as the most literate state with 94%.
• Population Density: The density of population in India as per the 2011 Census was 382 persons per square kilometer. Among states, Bihar had the highest density (1,106), while Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest (17).
• Child Sex Ratio: A concerning finding in the 2011 Census was the decline in the Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years), which dropped to 919 from 927 in the 2001 Census.

Important Points

• Constitutional Provision: The conduct of the Population Census is a Union Subject under Article 246 of the Constitution of India. It is listed at Serial number 69 of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
• Legislative Framework: The census is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948. This law guarantees the confidentiality of the information collected, meaning the data cannot be used as evidence in a court of law or accessed by other authorities.
• Administrative Authority: The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is responsible for planning, executing, and analyzing the census data.
• Urbanization: The 2011 Census revealed that 31.16% of the total population lived in urban areas, while 68.84% resided in rural areas.

The correct answer is Bagor.

Key Points

• Bagor is a prominent Mesolithic site located in the Bhilwara district of Rajasthan, situated on the banks of the Kothari River.
• It was extensively excavated by V.N. Misra between 1968 and 1970, revealing a wealth of information about prehistoric life in India.
• The site is recognized as the largest Mesolithic site in India, providing a continuous sequence of human occupation from the Mesolithic to the Iron Age.
• One of the most significant findings at Bagor is the earliest evidence of animal domestication in the Indian subcontinent, specifically of cattle, sheep, and goats, dating back to approximately 5000–4500 BC. Hence, Bagor is the correct option.
• The inhabitants of Bagor produced a vast quantity of microliths, which were small stone tools used for hunting and daily tasks.

Additional Information

• Langhnaj:
• This is a major Mesolithic site located in the Mehsana district of Gujarat.
• It is well-known for yielding microliths, pottery, and several human burials, as well as remains of wild animals like rhinos and blackbucks.
• Since it is located in Gujarat and not Rajasthan, it is not the answer to this specific question. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Mahadaha:
• Located in the Pratapgarh district of Uttar Pradesh, Mahadaha is an important Mesolithic settlement.
• The site is famous for bone artifacts, antler ornaments, and evidence of double burials (male and female buried together).
• Because this site is situated in Uttar Pradesh, it does not match the criteria for a Rajasthan site. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Damdama:
• Damdama is also situated in the Pratapgarh district of Uttar Pradesh and was excavated in the late 1980s.
• It is significant for the discovery of 41 human burials, including rare triple burials (three people in one grave) and a high density of microliths and animal bones.
• As it is located in Uttar Pradesh, it is not the site associated with Rajasthan. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Important Points

• The Mesolithic Period, also known as the Middle Stone Age, in India roughly spans from 10,000 BC to 6,000 BC, serving as a transitional phase between the Palaeolithic and Neolithic ages.
• Microliths are the defining technology of this era; these are tiny stone tools, usually 1 to 5 cm in length, made of chert, agate, or chalcedony, often shaped into triangles, crescents, or trapezes.
• The cultural sequence at Bagor is divided into three phases:
• Phase I (Mesolithic): Characterized by a high frequency of microliths and the hunting-gathering way of life mixed with early pastoralism.
• Phase II (Chalcolithic): Marks the arrival of copper tools and hand-made pottery.
• Phase III (Iron Age): Features iron tools and wheel-made pottery, indicating a more settled and advanced social structure.
• The geographical location of Bagor in the Mewar region provided a favorable environment for early humans due to the proximity of the Aravalli hills and the Kothari river, ensuring a steady supply of water and game.

The correct answer is 4.2 Lakh.

Key Points

• On June 17, 2024, the Chief Minister of Assam, Himanta Biswa Sarma, inaugurated the Janata Bhawan Solar Project located at the Assam Secretariat complex in Guwahati.
• The solar power plant has a total capacity of 2.5 MW (megawatts) and is a grid-connected rooftop solar PV system designed to make the secretariat complex energy-efficient and sustainable.
• The project is expected to generate approximately 4.2 Lakh units of electricity per month, which will significantly cater to the power requirements of the administrative hub of the state. Hence, the option 4.2 Lakh is the correct answer.
• The implementation of this project will result in a monthly saving of approximately Rs 30 Lakh on the electricity bills of Janata Bhawan, contributing to the fiscal prudence of the state government.
• This initiative marks the Assam Secretariat as the first state-level secretariat in India to transition towards a green and net-zero energy campus by utilizing renewable energy sources.

Additional Information

• Project Investment and Payback: The solar project was completed with a total investment of Rs 12.56 Crore. Given the monthly savings of Rs 30 Lakh, the government expects the capital expenditure to be recovered within a payback period of approximately four years.
• Role of APDCL: The project was executed under the supervision of the Assam Power Distribution Company Limited (APDCL). The state government aims to replicate this model in other government buildings, educational institutions, and hospitals across the state.
• PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana: This state-level initiative aligns with the broader national goal under the PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, which was launched in February 2024 to encourage rooftop solar installations in 1 crore households across India.
• Assam's Renewable Targets: The Assam government has set an ambitious target to generate 3,000 MW of solar power by the year 2030 to meet the increasing energy demands while reducing dependency on fossil fuels.
• Environmental Impact: The 2.5 MW plant is expected to reduce Carbon Dioxide (CO2) emissions by several thousand metric tonnes annually, supporting India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement.

Important Points

• Technical Specifications: The Janata Bhawan Solar Project utilizes monocrystalline solar panels, which are known for higher efficiency in varied climatic conditions, making them suitable for the weather patterns of Northeast India.
• Net Metering Facility: The plant is equipped with a net metering facility, allowing any surplus power generated during holidays or non-working hours to be fed back into the main power grid, further optimizing resource utilization.
• Operational Life: The solar PV system installed at the Assam Secretariat has a functional life expectancy of 25 years, ensuring long-term energy security and environmental benefits for the region.
• Future Expansion: During the inauguration, the Chief Minister announced that all government offices in Assam will gradually transition to solar energy to minimize carbon footprints and set a benchmark for environmental governance.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The Union Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports officially announced that the state of Bihar will host the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) 2025. This marks the first time that Bihar has been selected to host this prestigious national-level multi-sport event. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The games are scheduled to be held in January 2025 across various venues in the state, with primary events expected to take place in Patna and the newly developed State Sports Academy and Bihar Sports University in Rajgir.
• The 2025 edition will be the 7^th installment of the Khelo India Youth Games, following the 6^th edition which was successfully hosted by Tamil Nadu in January 2024.
• While Gujarat has a robust sports infrastructure and hosted the 36^th National Games in 2022, it is not the host for the 2025 Youth Games. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Uttar Pradesh previously hosted the 3^rd edition of the Khelo India University Games in 2023, but it is not the venue for the KIYG 2025. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Kerala has frequently hosted national championships, but the 2025 youth games calendar specifically designates Bihar as the host state. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Evolution of Khelo India Youth Games:
• The initiative was launched by the Government of India in 2018 as Khelo India School Games to revive the sports culture in India at the grassroots level.
• The first edition was held in New Delhi, where Haryana emerged as the overall champion.
• In 2019, the scope was widened, and the event was renamed Khelo India Youth Games, allowing for two categories: Under-17 school students and Under-21 college students.
• Objectives and Benefits:
• The primary goal is to identify talented players in priority sports disciplines at various levels by a High-Powered Committee.
• Selected athletes receive annual financial assistance of Rs 5 lakh per annum for 8 years to support their training and development.
• It serves as a pipeline for international events like the Olympics, Asian Games, and Commonwealth Games.
• Host Infrastructure in Bihar:
• The State Sports Academy in Rajgir is a state-of-the-art facility built at a cost of over Rs 740 crore, featuring international-standard tracks, indoor stadiums, and specialized centers for various Olympic sports.
• Hosting the games is expected to boost sports tourism and infrastructure development in Eastern India.

Important Points

• Historical Winners: Maharashtra and Haryana have traditionally dominated the medals tally across the previous six editions. Maharashtra secured the top spot in the 2024 Tamil Nadu edition.
• Inclusion of Indigenous Sports: The Khelo India mission promotes traditional Indian games such as Gatka, Kalaripayattu, Thang-Ta, Mallakhamba, and Yogasana to ensure cultural sports are preserved and promoted globally.
• The "Khelo India" Scheme Verticals: The scheme operates under 12 verticals, including "Play Field Development," "State Level Khelo India Centres," and "Promotion of sports among persons with disabilities."
• Digital Monitoring: All athletes are registered through the National Sports Repository System (NSRS) to maintain data on performance and health, ensuring transparency in selection and support.

The correct answer is Government Spending on Infrastructure.

Key Points

• The Circular Flow of Income is an economic model that describes the reciprocal circulation of income between producers (firms) and consumers (households). In this model, injections refer to additions to the flow of income that do not originate from the consumption expenditure of households.
• Government Spending on Infrastructure: This represents money that the government introduces into the economy from its own resources (often collected via debt or accumulated reserves) to pay for services, projects, or goods. Since this money enters the flow from an external source (the government sector) to the production sector, it is a primary example of an injection. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Household Savings: When households decide to save a portion of their income instead of spending it on goods and services, that money is withdrawn from the current circular flow. These are classified as leakages or withdrawals because they reduce the circular flow of income. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Wages earned by workers: This represents the factor payment flowing from firms to households in exchange for labor. While it is a vital part of the circular flow, it is a flow within the domestic loop of the two-sector model (households and firms) rather than an external injection into the system. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Taxes paid by families: Taxes represent a compulsory payment to the government, which removes purchasing power from households. Like savings, taxes are a leakage from the circular flow because they divert money away from the consumption of goods and services produced by firms. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Components of Injections (J): In a modern four-sector economy, injections consist of Investment (I), Government Spending (G), and Exports (X). Investment refers to spending by firms on capital goods like machinery or factories. Exports involve money flowing into the domestic economy from foreign countries in exchange for local goods.
• Components of Leakages (W): Leakages are variables that reduce the flow of income and include Savings (S), Taxes (T), and Imports (M). Imports are considered leakages because the money paid for foreign goods leaves the domestic economy and flows to international producers.
• Economic Equilibrium: An economy is said to be in equilibrium when the sum of total injections equals the sum of total leakages (I + G + X = S + T + M). If injections exceed leakages, the level of National Income tends to rise; conversely, if leakages exceed injections, the economy may experience a contraction.
• The Role of Government: The government acts as both a collector of leakages (through taxation) and a provider of injections (through expenditure). When the government spends on infrastructure, such as building highways, bridges, or public schools, it creates a multiplier effect, where the initial spending leads to a larger overall increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• Types of Circular Flow Models:
• Two-Sector Model: Involves only Households and Firms.
• Three-Sector Model: Includes Households, Firms, and the Government.
• Four-Sector Model: Includes the Foreign Sector (Rest of the World), capturing International Trade dynamics.

Important Points

• Real Flow vs. Money Flow: The Real Flow refers to the movement of factor services (land, labor, capital) from households to firms and goods and services from firms to households. The Money Flow refers to the movement of wages, rent, and interest to households and consumption expenditure back to firms.
• Impact of Injections: High levels of Government Spending or Investment can stimulate employment and economic growth. For instance, in India, increased capital expenditure on the National Infrastructure Pipeline is intended to serve as a massive injection to boost the economy.
• Data and Facts: Economists monitor the Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) and Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) to predict how injections will affect the National Income. A higher MPC usually results in a larger Investment Multiplier.

The correct answer is Sikkim.

Key Points

• In March 2025, the Sikkim Legislative Assembly created history by passing the Sikkim State Commission for Senior Citizens Bill, 2025, making it the first state in India to enact legislation for a dedicated statutory commission for the elderly.
• The commission is designed to function as an autonomous body to protect the human rights and legal interests of individuals aged 60 years and above within the state of Sikkim.
• The primary function of the commission is to oversee the implementation of welfare programs and to advise the State Government on policy matters related to the aging population.
• It possesses the authority to investigate specific complaints regarding the deprivation of rights or the harassment of senior citizens, ensuring they receive timely justice and rehabilitation.
• By establishing this commission, Sikkim aims to provide a specialized institutional framework to address the unique socio-economic and health-related challenges faced by the elderly in the Himalayan region.

Additional Information

• Definition of Senior Citizen: In the context of Indian laws, a senior citizen is defined as any citizen of India who has attained the age of 60 years or above.
• National Framework: The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, is a central legislation that mandates children to provide maintenance to their parents; however, Sikkim's new law goes a step further by creating a permanent state commission.
• Composition of the Commission: The commission typically consists of a Chairperson, who is a person of eminence in the field of social justice or law, and other members with expertise in geriatrics, social welfare, or public administration.
• Demographic Trends: According to Census 2011 and subsequent surveys, the elderly population in India is growing at a faster rate than the overall population, necessitating state-level interventions to manage the dependency ratio.
• Powers of the Commission: The body is often granted quasi-judicial powers similar to those of a civil court, allowing it to summon witnesses, require the discovery of documents, and receive evidence on affidavits.

Important Points

• Social Security Schemes: The Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS) provides financial assistance to senior citizens belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) households, which the new commission in Sikkim will now monitor more closely.
• Health Initiatives: The National Programme for Health Care of the Elderly (NPHCE) is a key initiative by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare aimed at providing dedicated healthcare facilities to the aged at Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary levels.
• Vayoshreshtha Samman: This is a National Award conferred by the President of India every year on the International Day of Older Persons (1^st October) to eminent senior citizens and institutions for their outstanding services.
• Location and Impact: Being a state with a significant rural and hilly terrain, Sikkim's initiative ensures that even the elderly in remote areas have access to a redressal forum without having to navigate complex civil court procedures.

The correct answer is Biodegradable paper supercapacitor.

Key Points

• A Biodegradable paper supercapacitor is an innovative energy storage device that utilizes cellulose extracted from seaweed, specifically from the Cladophora algae, to create a structural framework for charge storage.
• Researchers, notably from Uppsala University in Sweden, developed this technology to address the environmental impact of traditional batteries, which often contain toxic heavy metals and non-biodegradable plastics.
• The seaweed-derived paper consists of exceptionally thin nanofibers that provide a very high surface area. This feature is critical because it allows for a larger amount of conductive polymer to be coated onto the fibers, increasing the total energy capacity. Hence, the statement regarding the use of seaweed-derived paper for charge storage is correct.
• The manufacturing process involves coating the cellulose fibers with a conductive polymer known as polypyrrole. This combination creates a flexible, lightweight, and recyclable material capable of conducting electricity and storing energy.
• These devices are designed to be compostable, meaning they can break down naturally at the end of their useful life, unlike a Standard lead battery which requires specialized recycling to prevent lead poisoning. Hence, the option "Standard lead battery" is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Supercapacitors vs. Batteries: While batteries store energy through chemical reactions, supercapacitors store energy electrostatically. This allows supercapacitors to charge and discharge much faster than traditional batteries, making them suitable for applications requiring quick bursts of power.
• Environmental Benefits: The use of Cladophora algae is beneficial because this type of seaweed often grows in excess and can become an environmental hazard in coastal regions. Harvesting it for green electronics provides a sustainable way to manage marine biomass.
• Applications: These biodegradable devices are ideal for low-power electronics, smart packaging, wearable medical sensors, and Internet of Things (IoT) devices that are intended for single-use or short-term functions.
• Technical Specifications: These paper-based storage devices can achieve current densities of up to 160 milliamperes per square centimeter. They typically use saltwater (sodium chloride solution) as an electrolyte, which is far safer than the corrosive acids used in Gasoline generators' starter batteries or industrial storage systems.

Important Points

• Standard lead batteries: These rely on lead plates and sulfuric acid. They are highly toxic and heavy, making them the opposite of a biodegradable paper concept.
• Gasoline generators: These are energy conversion devices that turn chemical energy from fossil fuels into mechanical and then electrical energy through combustion. They do not store energy in seaweed paper. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Nuclear reactor cores: These generate heat and electricity through nuclear fission of elements like Uranium-235 or Plutonium-239. They are large-scale power plants and have no relation to biodegradable charge-storage paper. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Historical Context: The first major breakthrough for the seaweed-based battery was reported around 2009. Since then, research has expanded into using other organic materials like lignin and hemp fibers for renewable energy storage solutions.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The Rajasthan state government organized a special ‘Bal Sabha’ in every village on April 24, 2022. This initiative was designed to provide a dedicated platform for children to express their views and actively participate in the Panchayati Raj system.
• This event coincided with National Panchayati Raj Day, highlighting the importance of grassroots democracy and the inclusion of the younger generation in local governance processes.
• The primary objective of these Bal Sabhas was to sensitize children about their rights, discuss issues affecting them, such as education, health, and protection, and encourage their involvement in the development of their respective Gram Panchayats.
• The initiative was conducted in collaboration with the Panchayati Raj Department and UNICEF (United Nations Children's Fund), aiming to make the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) more child-friendly and responsive to the needs of the youth.
• During these sessions, children were encouraged to raise concerns regarding school facilities, anganwadi services, and cleanliness in their villages, which were then noted by the Sarpanch and other local officials for future action.

Additional Information

• Panchayati Raj System in Rajasthan:
• Rajasthan holds a significant place in the history of Indian local governance as it was the first state to adopt the Panchayati Raj system in 1959.
• The system was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on October 2, 1959, at Nagaur district.
• This development followed the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, which advocated for a three-tier structure: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• National Panchayati Raj Day:
• This day is celebrated every year on April 24 across India.
• The first National Panchayati Raj Day was observed in 2010.
• It commemorates the passing of the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which came into force on April 24, 1993, providing constitutional status to local self-government institutions in rural India.
• Child-Friendly Panchayats:
• The concept of Child-Friendly Panchayats is a national priority under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), specifically targeting Goal 16 (Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions) and Goal 4 (Quality Education).
• By organizing Bal Sabhas, the Rajasthan government aimed to fulfill the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC), which emphasizes the right to participation for all children.

Important Points

• Administrative Involvement: The Bal Sabhas were supervised by Village Development Officers (VDOs) and School Teachers to ensure a safe and structured environment for children to speak.
• Demographic Impact: With thousands of Gram Panchayats in Rajasthan, this initiative reached millions of children, making it one of the largest state-led exercises in child participation in governance.
• Other States: While Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka have their own robust Panchayati Raj frameworks, the specific state-wide Bal Sabha drive on April 24, 2022, was a flagship event of the Rajasthan government under the leadership of Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot.
• Outcomes: Such initiatives help in reducing child marriage, increasing enrollment rates in rural schools, and empowering girl children to take up leadership roles in the future.

The correct answer is Article 25.

Key Points

• Article 25 of the Constitution of India guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion to all persons. Hence, this option is correct.
• This right is not absolute and is subject to public order, morality, and health, ensuring that religious practices do not infringe upon the well-being of the general public.
• The article provides that the State can regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political, or other secular activity that may be associated with religious practice.
• It further allows for social welfare and reform, specifically the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
• In the context of Article 25, the term 'Hindus' is construed as including individuals who profess the Sikh, Jaina, or Buddhist religions, and the wearing and carrying of kirpans is deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion.

Additional Information

• Article 22: This article deals with protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. It mandates that an arrested person must be informed of the grounds of arrest and produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Article 23: This provision focuses on the prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (begar). It protects citizens and non-citizens against exploitation by the State or private individuals. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Article 24: This article prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous employment. It is a vital provision for child rights in India. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Right to Freedom of Religion: This fundamental right is encompassed within Articles 25 to 28 of the Indian Constitution, reflecting the secular nature of the Indian polity as established by the Preamble.

Important Points

• Article 26: Grants religious denominations the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes and to manage their own affairs in matters of religion.
• Article 27: Ensures freedom from taxation for the promotion of any particular religion, stating that no person shall be compelled to pay taxes for religious maintenance.
• Article 28: Provides freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions maintained wholly out of State funds.
• Secularism in India: The 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976 formally inserted the word 'Secular' into the Preamble, although the Supreme Court in the S.R. Bommai case (1994) held that secularism has always been a basic feature of the Constitution.
• Key Judicial Interpretation: The Supreme Court has often applied the "essential religious practices" test to determine which religious rituals are protected under Article 25 and Article 26.

The correct answer is Article 243-J and Article 243-Z.

Key Points

• Article 243-J of the Constitution of India specifically provides for the audit of accounts of Panchayats. According to this article, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts.
• Article 243-Z addresses the audit of accounts of Municipalities. Similar to the provision for rural local bodies, it empowers the State Legislature to frame laws regarding the maintenance and periodical auditing of the financial records of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
• The inclusion of these articles ensures financial accountability and fiscal transparency within the three-tier system of local self-government in India.
• These provisions were incorporated into the Constitution through the 73^rd Amendment Act and the 74^th Amendment Act of 1992, which provided constitutional status to Panchayats and Municipalities respectively.
• The auditing process under these articles is vital for verifying that the grants and funds released by the State and Central Government are utilized for their intended socio-economic development purposes.

Additional Information

• The 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
• This Act added Part IX to the Constitution, titled “The Panchayats,” consisting of Articles 243 to 243-O.
• It also added the Eleventh Schedule, which contains 29 functional items of the Panchayats such as agriculture, land improvement, and minor irrigation.
• The Act mandated a three-tier structure: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (intermediate level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• The 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
• This Act introduced Part IXA, titled “The Municipalities,” covering Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
• It added the Twelfth Schedule, which lists 18 functional items for Municipalities, including urban planning, regulation of land use, and public health.
• It categorizes urban bodies into Nagar Panchayats, Municipal Councils, and Municipal Corporations.
• State Finance Commission (Articles 243-I and 243-Y):
• Article 243-I requires the Governor of a State to constitute a Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of the Panchayats.
• Article 243-Y performs a similar function for Municipalities, ensuring they receive a fair share of taxes, duties, and tolls collected by the State.
• State Election Commission (Articles 243-K and 243-ZA):
• Article 243-K vests the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and conduct of all elections to the Panchayats in a State Election Commission.
• Article 243-ZA provides similar powers to the State Election Commission for conducting elections to Municipalities.

Important Points

• Role of the CAG: While the audit of local bodies is a state subject under Articles 243-J and 243-Z, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India often provides Technical Guidance and Supervision (TGS) to the State Audit Departments to improve the quality of audits.
• Article 243-G: This article deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. It is not related to auditing, which makes that specific option incorrect.
• Article 243-M: This Article specifies certain areas (like Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas in certain states) where the provisions of Part IX do not apply directly unless extended by Parliament.
• Article 243-ZB: This relates to the application of the provisions of Part IXA (Municipalities) to Union Territories.
• The correct matching of Articles for the audit of accounts is essential for administrative law and governance studies in the Indian context.

The correct answer is Sumit Antil.

Key Points

• Sumit Antil won the gold medal for India in the men's F64 javelin throw event, demonstrating his continued dominance in the sport. This victory further solidifies his position as one of the world's premier para-athletes.
• The F64 classification is specifically designated for athletes with lower limb impairments, such as those competing with prosthetic limbs due to leg amputations. Sumit Antil has been the face of this category globally.
• During the competition, he achieved a remarkable performance, often reaching distances near his own world record. In major championships like the 2024 Kobe World Para Athletics (which precedes the 2025 cycle), he secured gold with a throw of 69.50 meters.
• His success is a result of rigorous training at the Sports Authority of India (SAI) facilities and support from the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Hence, the statement regarding Sumit Antil winning the gold is correct.

Additional Information

• Sumit Antil:
• He was born on 7^th June 1998 in Sonepat, Haryana. Before his accident in 2015, he aspired to be a wrestler.
• He currently holds the World Record in the F64 Javelin Throw with a massive distance of 73.29 meters, set during the 2022 Asian Para Games (held in 2023) in Hangzhou, China.
• He is a back-to-back Paralympic Gold Medalist, winning at both Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024.
• For his outstanding contributions to sports, he was honored with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021 and the Padma Shri in 2022.
• Devendra Jhajharia:
• He is a legendary Indian para-javelin thrower competing in the F46 category.
• He is the first Indian paralympian to win two gold medals at the Paralympics (Athens 2004 and Rio 2016).
• In 2024, he was elected as the President of the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI).
• Sharad Kumar:
• He is a high jumper competing in the T42/T63 category.
• He won a silver medal at the Paris 2024 Paralympics and a bronze at Tokyo 2020.
• He hails from Patna, Bihar and has been a consistent performer at the World Para Athletics Championships.

Important Points

• Classification System: In Para Athletics, the letter 'F' stands for Field events. The number 64 indicates athletes with limb deficiency who compete in a standing position with prosthetics.
• Support Schemes: Most top-tier Indian para-athletes are supported under the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS), which provides customized training, international exposure, and a monthly stipend to medal prospects.
• World Para Athletics Championships: This event is organized by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC) and serves as a primary qualifying event for the Paralympic Games. India's performance in these championships has seen a significant upward trend since 2016.
• Global Ranking: Sumit Antil has consistently maintained the World Number 1 ranking in his category, making him one of the most reliable athletes in the Indian contingent.

The correct answer is Aerial metagenomics.

Key Points

• Aerial metagenomics is a cutting-edge technique used to monitor the genetic structure of airborne microorganisms by analyzing the collective DNA or RNA recovered directly from atmospheric samples.
• This method involves the use of high-volume air samplers that capture bioaerosols, followed by Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) to identify the various taxonomic groups present in the air without the need for laboratory culturing.
• It provides a comprehensive view of the microbial diversity in the troposphere, including bacteria, fungi, viruses, and archaea, allowing researchers to study how these organisms move across geographical boundaries.
• The process typically utilizes bioinformatics tools to process terabytes of sequence data, helping to map the functional potential of microbial communities in different altitudes and climatic conditions.
• By monitoring genetic markers, scientists can detect the presence of pathogens or antibiotic-resistance genes circulating in the environment, making it a vital tool for biosecurity and public health.

Additional Information

• Bioaerosols: These are biological particles suspended in the atmosphere, ranging in size from nanometers to micrometers. They include pollen, spores, and cell fragments which impact human health and cloud formation.
• Metagenomics vs. Traditional Microbiology: Traditional methods rely on culturing microbes in Petri dishes, but it is estimated that 99% of microbes cannot be grown in a lab. Metagenomics bypasses this limitation by studying environmental DNA (eDNA) directly.
• Simple Smoke Test: This is a mechanical technique used to visualize airflow patterns, detect leaks in ventilation systems, or study aerodynamics. It cannot provide any biological or genetic information about microorganisms.
• Analog Barometer: Invented by Evangelista Torricelli in 1643, this instrument is used exclusively to measure atmospheric pressure. While useful in meteorology, it has no application in genetic monitoring.
• History and Development: The field of metagenomics gained momentum in the early 2000s. Aerial metagenomics specifically has seen growth in the last 10 years as sequencing costs have decreased.

Important Points

• Environmental Applications: Aerial metagenomics is used in agriculture to track the dispersal of crop pathogens like wheat rust, helping farmers take preventative measures before outbreaks occur.
• Climate Change: Research indicates that airborne microbes can act as ice-nucleating particles, influencing precipitation and global climate patterns. Metagenomic analysis helps identify which species are most active in these processes.
• Urban Health: In metropolitan areas, this technique is employed to monitor indoor and outdoor air quality, identifying allergens and infectious agents in transportation hubs like airports and subways.
• Data and Facts: A single cubic meter of air can contain between 10,000 and 1,000,000 microbial cells. Metagenomic surveys have identified thousands of novel species in the upper atmosphere that were previously unknown to science.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• The Saputara Monsoon Festival, also popularly known as Megh Malhar Parv, is a major cultural event organized annually in the state of Gujarat.
• The festival is primarily held in Saputara, which is the only hill station in Gujarat, located in the Dang district.
• It is organized by the Tourism Corporation of Gujarat Limited (TCGL) to promote tourism during the rainy season, typically spanning the months of August and September.
• The event focuses on showcasing the vibrant tribal culture of the Dang region through traditional folk dances, music, and local art exhibitions.
• The celebration aims to highlight the natural beauty of the Sahyadri mountain range when it is lush green during the monsoon.

Additional Information

• Geographical Location: Saputara is situated at an elevation of about 875 meters above sea level on a plateau in the Dang forest area of the Sahyadri range. It is located near the Maharashtra-Gujarat border.
• Etymology: The name Saputara literally translates to the "Abode of Serpents." Local tribes worship the Snake god on the banks of the river Sarpaganga, especially during festivals like Holi.
• Tribal Heritage: The region is home to several indigenous tribes, including the Kukana, Bhil, and Warli communities. Their unique lifestyle, Warli paintings, and woodcraft are major attractions for visitors.
• Major Attractions: Apart from the festival, tourists visit the Gira Falls, which is in its full glory during the monsoon, the Saputara Lake for boating, and Sunrise/Sunset points for panoramic views.
• Environmental Significance: The area around Saputara is rich in biodiversity, featuring the Vansda National Park and the Purna Wildlife Sanctuary, which house various species of flora and fauna endemic to the Western Ghats.

Important Points

• Tourism Impact: The Monsoon Festival has significantly boosted the local economy of the Dang district by providing employment to tribal artisans and local guides.
• Accessibility: Saputara is well-connected by road from major cities like Surat (about 156 km) and Nashik (about 80 km). The nearest railway station is Waghai, though Bilimora is a more common junction.
• Activities: During the month-long festival, activities such as paragliding, trekking, cultural parades, and craft workshops are organized to engage visitors of all age groups.
• Climate: While the rest of Gujarat experiences high temperatures, Saputara remains cool throughout the year, with the monsoon bringing heavy rainfall that transforms the landscape into a misty retreat.

The correct answer is 1961.

Key Points

• The Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports (NSNIS) was established by the Government of India on May 7, 1961. It was initially known as the National Institute of Sports (NIS). Hence, the statement regarding its establishment in 1961 is correct.
• The institute is located in the city of Patiala, Punjab, and is housed in the palatial Moti Bagh Palace, which was the residence of the former Maharajas of Patiala.
• The primary objective of the institute is to produce highly qualified coaches for different sports disciplines and to provide scientific orientation to the coaching process in India.
• On January 23, 1973, which marks the birth anniversary of the great freedom fighter Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, the institute was renamed the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports to honor his legacy.
• The institute is widely regarded as the "Mecca" of Indian sports because it has produced some of the finest coaches and athletes who have represented the country at international levels, including the Olympics and Asian Games.

Additional Information

• Organizational Structure:
• In 1987, the NSNIS Patiala was merged with the Sports Authority of India (SAI) to streamline sports administration and training across the country.
• The Executive Director is the administrative head of the institute, which functions as the academic wing of SAI.
• Facilities and Infrastructure:
• The campus is spread over a massive area of 268 acres and features world-class infrastructure, including synthetic tracks, indoor halls, swimming pools, and gymnasiums.
• It houses a specialized Sports Science Center that focuses on Sports Medicine, Sports Psychology, Sports Sociology, and Exercise Physiology to enhance athlete performance.
• Academic Courses:
• The institute offers a prestigious Diploma in Sports Coaching in various disciplines such as Athletics, Boxing, Wrestling, Hockey, and Weightlifting.
• It also conducts Master's Degrees in Sports Coaching and several certificate courses for physical education teachers and sports enthusiasts.
• Significance in Indian Sports:
• The National Coaching Camps for major international events are frequently held at this location due to its comprehensive features and elite training environment.
• The institute serves as a hub for talent identification and data-driven training, utilizing modern applications of technology in biomechanics and nutrition.

Important Points

• The decision to establish a centralized institute was a result of the All India Council of Sports identifying the need for professional coaching after India's performance in the 1950s international competitions.
• The Moti Bagh Palace was purchased by the Government of India from the Patiala royalty to facilitate this project, making it one of the most historic locations for any sports institute in Asia.
• The institute remains Asia's largest sports institute, catering not only to Indian participants but also to students and coaches from neighboring countries under various exchange programs.

The correct answer is Rath Yatra.

Key Points

• The Jagannath Puja festival in Odisha is most famously and significantly associated with the Rath Yatra, also known as the Chariot Festival.
• This world-renowned event takes place in the holy city of Puri, Odisha, and is dedicated to Lord Jagannath (a manifestation of Lord Vishnu), his elder brother Lord Balabhadra, and their sister Goddess Subhadra.
• The festival commemorates the annual journey of the three deities from the main Jagannath Temple to the Gundicha Temple, which is considered the home of their maternal aunt.
• The Rath Yatra is celebrated on the second day (Dwitiya) of the Shukla Paksha (bright fortnight) of the Hindu month of Ashadha, which typically falls in June or July of the Gregorian calendar.
• It is the only day when devotees who are not allowed inside the temple premises (as per traditional norms) can get a Darshan (glimpse) of the deities as they come out of the Sanctum Sanctorum.

Additional Information

• Raja Festival:
• Also known as Mithuna Sankranti, it is a three-day long festival celebrated in Odisha to honor womanhood and the Earth Mother.
• It marks the onset of the monsoon and the agricultural year, usually occurring in mid-June.
• Janmashtami:
• This is a nationwide Hindu festival celebrating the birth of Lord Krishna, who is the eighth avatar of Vishnu.
• While Lord Jagannath is identified with Krishna, the specific "Jagannath Puja" cultural identity of Odisha is more central to the Rath Yatra than the general celebration of Janmashtami.
• Holi (Dola Purnima):
• In Odisha, Holi is celebrated as Dola Purnima. During this time, the representative idols of the deities, known as Chalanti Pratima, are taken out in a procession to the Dolamandapa.
• The festival signifies the end of winter and the arrival of spring.
• Chariot Characteristics:
• Nandighosha: The chariot of Lord Jagannath, which stands 45 feet high and has 16 wheels.
• Taladhwaja: The chariot of Lord Balabhadra, which has 14 wheels and is wrapped in blue and red cloth.
• Darpadalana: The chariot of Goddess Subhadra, which has 12 wheels and is wrapped in black and red cloth.

Important Points

• Chhera Pahara Ritual: A unique feature of the Rath Yatra where the Gajapati King (the titular Maharaja of Puri) sweeps the floor of the chariots with a golden broom. This ritual reinforces the concept that all devotees are equal before the Lord, regardless of their social status.
• Temple History: The Jagannath Temple in Puri was constructed by King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty in the 12^th century. It is one of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites for Hindus.
• Nabakalebara: This is a ritual of re-embodiment where the old wooden idols are replaced by new ones. This occurs every 8, 12, or 19 years when there are two months of Ashadha in a year (intercalary month). The new idols are carved from sacred Neem trees (Daru Brahma).
• Kalinga Architecture: The temple is a classic example of Kalinga style architecture, characterized by its towering Shikhara (Deula) and intricate stone carvings.

The correct answer is Feb 2024.

Key Points

• The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, was officially passed in the Lok Sabha on February 6, 2024, following its introduction on February 5, 2024. Hence, the statement regarding its passage in February 2024 is correct.
• The bill was introduced by Dr. Jitendra Singh, who serves as the Union Minister of State for Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions.
• The primary objective of this legislation is to curb unfair means and malpractices in public examinations conducted across the country to ensure transparency and credibility.
• It targets organized groups and individuals involved in paper leaks and tampering with computer networks during competitive exams.
• The bill covers several major recruitment and entrance bodies, including the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), Staff Selection Commission (SSC), Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs), Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), and the National Testing Agency (NTA).

Additional Information

• Definition of Unfair Means: The Act defines "unfair means" to include leakage of question papers, unauthorized possession of question papers or Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) sheets, providing solutions by unauthorized persons, and tampering with computer systems or networks.
• Punishments and Penalties: For individuals resorting to unfair means, the Act prescribes imprisonment for a term between 3 to 5 years and a fine of up to Rs 10 lakh.
• Organized Crime Penalties: If the offense is categorized as an organized crime (committed by a group or syndicate), the punishment is more severe, with imprisonment ranging from 5 to 10 years and a fine not less than Rs 1 crore.
• Liability of Service Providers: If a service provider (private agency conducting the exam) is found involved in malpractices, they may be fined up to Rs 1 crore, and the cost of the examination will be recovered from them. Additionally, they may be barred from conducting public examinations for 4 years.
• Cognizable Offenses: All offenses under this Act are cognizable, non-bailable, and non-compoundable, meaning the police can arrest without a warrant and the accused cannot be released on bail easily.

Important Points

• Protection of Candidates: A crucial feature of the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, is that it does not target students or candidates. Instead, they remain governed by the existing administrative provisions and rules of the respective examination authorities.
• National Technical Committee: The Act proposes the formation of a High-level National Technical Committee on Computer-Based Tests (CBT). This committee will focus on developing protocols to secure digital platforms and enhance cybersecurity during exams.
• Timeline of Approval: Following its passage in the Lok Sabha on February 6, the bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on February 9, 2024. It received the Presidential Assent from President Droupadi Murmu on February 12, 2024.
• Context of the Law: This central legislation was necessitated by the frequent cancellation of major recruitment exams in states like Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat due to paper leaks, which affected the future of millions of youths and caused economic loss to the state exchequer.

Shortcut Trick

Let the total number be 100%.

If 20% is added to 360 to get 100%, then 360 must be 80%.

80% of the number = 360

1% of the number = 360 ÷ 80 = 4.5

50% of the number = 4.5 × 50 = 225

∴ Answer = 225

Alternate Method

Given:

20% of a number + 360 = The number itself

Formula used:

Value = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total Number

20% 80% = 360 Total Number (100%) Number Breakdown

Calculations:

Let the number be x.

⇒ 20% of x + 360 = x

⇒ 360 = x − 0.20x

⇒ 360 = 0.80x

⇒ x = 360 ÷ 0.80 = 450

⇒ 50% of the number = 0.50 × 450

⇒ 50% of the number = 225

∴ The correct answer is 225 (Option 2).

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To solve faster, use fractions: 20% = 1/5 and 50% = 1/2. The remaining part is 1 − 1/5 = 4/5.

Base Change Rule

If number A is x% more than B, then B is [x ÷ (100 + x)] × 100% less than A.

Successive Percentage Formula

If a number is increased by a% and then by b%, the net change is [a + b + (a × b ÷ 100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

Speed from A to B (S₁) = 27 km/hr

Speed from B to A (S₂) = 27 × 1.16 = 31.32 km/hr

Average Speed = (2 × S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ + S₂)

Average Speed = (2 × 27 × 31.32) ÷ (27 + 31.32) = 1691.28 ÷ 58.32 = 29 km/hr

∴ Answer = 29

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed (A to B) = 27 km/hr

Percentage increase in return speed = 16%

Formula used:

Average Speed = (2 × S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ + S₂) [When distances are equal]

A B S1 = 27 km/hr S2 = 27 + 16% = 31.32 km/hr Average Speed = 29 km/hr

Calculations:

⇒ Return speed (S₂) = 27 × (1 + 16/100) = 27 × 1.16

⇒ S₂ = 31.32 km/hr

⇒ Average Speed = (2 × 27 × 31.32) ÷ (27 + 31.32)

⇒ Average Speed = 1691.28 ÷ 58.32

⇒ Average Speed = 29 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 29 (Option 3).

Additional Information

Average Speed (General Case)

For any journey with different distances (d₁, d₂, ...) and different times (t₁, t₂, ...), Average Speed = (d₁ + d₂ + ...) ÷ (t₁ + t₂ + ...).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂. In the same direction, relative speed = |S₁ − S₂|.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Mean CP of mixture = Selling Price ÷ (1 + Profit%)

Mean CP = 60.2 ÷ 1.4 = 43

Apply Alligation: (75 − 43) : (43 − 16)

Ratio = 32 : 27

∴ Answer = 32 : 27

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost of Sugar₁ = Rs 16/kg

Cost of Sugar₂ = Rs 75/kg

Selling Price (SP) of mixture = Rs 60.2/kg

Profit percentage = 40%

Formula used:

Cost Price (CP) = [100 ÷ (100 + Profit%)] × SP

Alligation Ratio = (CP₂ − Mean CP) : (Mean CP − CP₁)

CP1: 16 CP2: 75 Mean: 43 32 (75 − 43) 27 (43 − 16)

Calculations:

First, calculate the cost price of the mixture per kg:

⇒ Mean CP = (60.2 × 100) ÷ (100 + 40)

⇒ Mean CP = 6020 ÷ 140 = 43

Now, use the alligation rule to find the ratio:

⇒ Ratio = (Dearer Price − Mean Price) : (Mean Price − Cheaper Price)

⇒ Ratio = (75 − 43) : (43 − 16)

⇒ Ratio = 32 : 27

∴ The correct answer is 32 : 27.

Additional Information

Rule of Alligation

It states that (Quantity of Cheaper) ÷ (Quantity of Dearer) = (CP of Dearer − Mean Price) ÷ (Mean Price − CP of Cheaper).

Mean Price

The mean price is the cost price of a unit quantity of the mixture, always calculated as Total Cost ÷ Total Quantity.

Profit and Cost Price Relation

When SP and Profit% are given, CP = [100 ÷ (100 + P%)] × SP. Always ensure all values in the alligation are Cost Prices.

Shortcut Trick

Total Surface Area of Cube = 6 × edge²

Calculate using unit digit: 6 × (2)² = 6 × 4 = 24

The unit digit of the final result must be 4.

Checking the given options: (1) 177510, (2) 177540, (3) 177504, (4) 177528.

Only option (3) has 4 as the unit digit.

∴ Answer = 177504

Alternate Method

Given:

Edge of the cube (a) = 172 m

Formula used:

Total Surface Area of Cube = 6 × a²

   edge (a) = 172 m a = 172 m a = 172 m Cube: TSA = 6a²

Calculations:

Total Surface Area = 6 × (172)²

⇒ TSA = 6 × (172 × 172)

⇒ TSA = 6 × 29584

⇒ TSA = 177504 m²

∴ The correct answer is 177504.

Additional Information

Volume of a Cube

The total space occupied by the cube is given by the formula: Volume = a³, where a is the edge length.

Lateral Surface Area (LSA)

The area of the four vertical faces (excluding top and bottom) is: LSA = 4 × a².

Diagonal of a Cube

The longest distance between two opposite corners of a cube is calculated as: Diagonal = a × √3.

Surface Area of a Cuboid

For a rectangular box with dimensions length (l), breadth (b), and height (h): TSA = 2(lb + bh + hl).

Shortcut Trick

Daily wage of one worker = Total Wages ÷ (Total Workers × Total Days)

Daily wage = 1700 ÷ (5 × 2)

Daily wage = 1700 ÷ 10

Daily wage = 170

∴ Answer = 170

Alternate Method

Given:

Total wages = ₹1,700, Number of workers = 5, Number of days = 2

Formula used:

Total Wages = (Number of Workers) × (Number of Days) × (Daily wage of one worker)

   W1 W2 W3 W4 W5 Day 1 Day 2 Total Blocks = 5 × 2 = 10 Units Total Wages = ₹1,700  1 Unit = Daily Wage

Calculations:

Total wage units = 5 workers × 2 days = 10 worker-days

⇒ 10 worker-days = ₹1,700

⇒ 1 worker-day (Daily wage) = 1700 ÷ 10

⇒ Daily wage = ₹170

∴ The correct answer is 170.

Additional Information

Chain Rule (MDH Formula)

The relationship between men (M), days (D), hours (H), and work (W) is given by (M₁×D₁×H₁)/W₁ = (M₂×D₂×H₂)/W₂. In wage problems, W represents the total wages earned.

Work and Wages Proportionality

Wages are always distributed in direct proportion to the amount of work done. If efficiencies are different, Wages ∝ Efficiency × Time.

Daily Wage Definition

Daily wage is the amount earned by a single person for one day of work. It is calculated as Total Wages ÷ (Number of Persons × Number of Days).

Shortcut Trick

Markup % above CP = [(Profit % + Discount %) ÷ (100 − Discount %)] × 100

Markup % = [(19 + 19) ÷ (100 − 19)] × 100

Markup % = [38 ÷ 81] × 100 ≈ 46.91%

In decimal form, 46.91% = 0.4691

∴ Answer = 0.4691

Alternate Method

Given:

Discount offered = 19%

Profit required = 19%

Formula used:

CP ÷ MP = (100 − Discount %) ÷ (100 + Profit %)

CP (81) SP (96.39) MP (119) +19% Profit −19% Discount Markup % = ?

Calculations:

Ratio of CP to MP:

⇒ CP ÷ MP = (100 − 19) ÷ (100 + 19)

⇒ CP ÷ MP = 81 ÷ 119

⇒ Let CP = 81 and MP = 119

⇒ Markup Amount = MP − CP = 119 − 81 = 38

⇒ Markup Percentage = (38 ÷ 81) × 100

⇒ Markup Percentage ≈ 46.9135%

⇒ In decimal notation = 46.9135 ÷ 100 ≈ 0.4691

∴ The correct answer is (2).

Additional Information

CP, MP and SP Relation

The relationship is governed by the equation: CP × (1 + Profit/100) = MP × (1 − Discount/100).

Markup Percentage

It is the percentage by which MP is greater than CP: Markup % = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts x% and y% are given, the equivalent single discount is [x + y − (xy/100)]%.

Effective Profit with Markup and Discount

If an item is marked up by m% and then a discount of d% is given, Net Profit % = m − d − (md/100).

Shortcut Trick

Assume the common number is 100.

Value 1 = 5% of 100 = 5

Value 2 = 2% of 100 = 2

Required percentage = (Value 1 ÷ Value 2) × 100 = (5 ÷ 2) × 100 = 250%.

In the given options, the value 2.5 represents this ratio/percentage.

∴ Answer = 2.5

Alternate Method

Given:

Target value = 5% of a number; Base value = 2% of the same number.

Formula used:

Required Percentage = (Target Value ÷ Base Value) × 100

Percentage Comparison 2% of Number (Base Value = 2 units) 5% of Number (Target Value = 5 units) Ratio = 5 ÷ 2 = 2.5

Calculations:

Let the common number be x.

⇒ Target value = 5% of x = 0.05x

⇒ Base value = 2% of x = 0.02x

⇒ Required Percentage = (0.05x ÷ 0.02x) × 100

⇒ Percentage = (5 ÷ 2) × 100 = 2.5 × 100 = 250%

⇒ Converting the percentage to its decimal ratio value: 250 ÷ 100 = 2.5

∴ The correct answer is 2.5.

Additional Information

Percentage of a Number

To find P% of a number N, use the formula (P × N) ÷ 100.

Expressing x as what percent of y

When comparing two quantities x and y, the percentage is calculated as (x ÷ y) × 100.

Percentage to Decimal

To convert a percentage into a decimal factor, divide the percentage value by 100. For example, 250% = 2.5.

Shortcut Trick

Discount = 11% → Selling Price = 89% of Marked Price

89% = ₹1,513

1% = 1,513 ÷ 89 = 17

Marked Price (100%) = 17 × 100 = ₹1,700

∴ Answer = ₹1,700

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹1,513

Discount percentage = 11%

Formula used:

Marked Price (MP) = SP × [100 ÷ (100 − Discount%)]

Marked Price (100 units) Selling Price = 89 units (₹1,513) Discount = 11 units  MP = SP × 100 ÷ 89

Calculations:

Let the Marked Price be MP.

⇒ SP = MP × (100 − 11) ÷ 100

⇒ 1,513 = MP × (89 ÷ 100)

⇒ MP = (1,513 × 100) ÷ 89

⇒ MP = 17 × 100

⇒ MP = 1,700

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,700.

Additional Information

Selling Price Formula

SP is the final price after discount: SP = MP − (Discount% × MP ÷ 100).

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, total discount = [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂ ÷ 100)]%.

Markup and Profit Relation

Relation between CP and MP: MP ÷ CP = (100 + Profit%) ÷ (100 − Discount%).

Shortcut Trick

Volume of cylinder is proportional to r²h.

New radius factor = 1 − 0.19 = 0.81

New height factor = 1 + 1.29 = 2.29

New Volume factor = (0.81)² × 2.29 = 0.6561 × 2.29 = 1.502469

Increase in volume = 1.502469 − 1 = 0.502469 ≈ 0.5

∴ Answer = 0.5

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage decrease in radius (r) = 19%

Percentage increase in height (h) = 129%

Formula used:

Volume of a right circular cylinder = πr²h

Original (V<sub>1</sub>) r = 100 h = 100    New (V<sub>2</sub>) r = 81 h = 229 Volume Increase ≈ 50%

Calculations:

Let initial radius r₁ = 100 and initial height h₁ = 100

⇒ Initial Volume V₁ = π × (100)² × 100 = 1,000,000π

⇒ New radius r₂ = 100 − 19 = 81

⇒ New height h₂ = 100 + 129 = 229

⇒ New Volume V₂ = π × (81)² × 229

⇒ V₂ = π × 6561 × 229 = 1,502,469π

⇒ Increase in Volume = 1,502,469π − 1,000,000π = 502,469π

⇒ Percentage increase = (502,469π ÷ 1,000,000π) × 100 = 50.2469%

⇒ In decimal form, increase ≈ 0.5

∴ The correct answer is 0.5.

Additional Information

Volume of Cylinder

The volume of a cylinder is given by V = πr²h, where r is the base radius and h is the height.

Successive Percentage Change

If a value changes by x%, y%, and z% successively, the final multiplying factor is (1 + x/100)(1 + y/100)(1 + z/100).

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

The CSA of a cylinder is 2πrh. Percentage change in CSA depends on the first power of both radius and height.

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The TSA of a cylinder is 2πr(r + h). Percentage change here is more complex as it involves the sum of terms.

Shortcut Trick

Net Profit Multiplier = Claimed Multiplier × Weight Multiplier

1.10 = 0.65 × (1000 ÷ Actual Weight)

Actual Weight = (0.65 × 1000) ÷ 1.10

Actual Weight = 650 ÷ 1.1 = 590.909...

∴ Answer = 590.9 gm

Alternate Method

Given:

Claimed Loss = 35%, Actual Profit = 10%, True Weight = 1000 gm

Formula used:

(100 + Profit%) ÷ (100 − Loss%) = True Weight ÷ Actual Weight

Actual Weight (x gm) Gap/Cheating Total: 1000 gm (True Weight) Claim: 35% Loss | Reality: 10% Profit Effective Gain Factor: 1.1 / 0.65

Calculations:

Let the actual weight used be x gm.

⇒ (100 + 10) ÷ (100 − 35) = 1000 ÷ x

⇒ 110 ÷ 65 = 1000 ÷ x

⇒ 11 ÷ 6.5 = 1000 ÷ x

⇒ x = (1000 × 6.5) ÷ 11

⇒ x = 6500 ÷ 11

⇒ x = 590.909... ≈ 590.9 gm

∴ The correct answer is 590.9 gm (Option 3).

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Profit Percentage

If a dealer sells at cost price but uses a false weight, Profit % = [Error ÷ (True Value − Error)] × 100.

Effective Ratio Method

For multiple conditions like markup, discount, and false weight, Net Ratio = (SP⁄CP)_price × (True Weight⁄False Weight).

Markup with False Weight

If a dealer marks up by x% and uses y% less weight, Net Profit % = [(x + y) ÷ (100 − y)] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Total Investment = (Profit ÷ Profit %) × 100 = (98,800 ÷ 38) × 100 = 2,60,000

Total ratio parts = 4 + 3 + 6 = 13 units

13 units → 2,60,000

1 unit → 20,000

Arul's investment (6 units) = 6 × 20,000 = 1,20,000

∴ Answer = ₹1,20,000

Alternate Method

Given:

Investment ratio (Avi : Mahi : Arul) = 4 : 3 : 6

Total Profit = ₹98,800

Profit percentage on investment = 38%

Formula used:

Total Investment = (Total Profit ÷ Profit %) × 100

Individual Investment = (Individual Ratio ÷ Total Ratio) × Total Investment

Avi (4) Mahi (3) Arul (6) Profit = ₹98,800 (38% of Total) Total Inv = 100% Sum of Ratio = 13

Calculations:

Total Investment = (98,800 ÷ 38) × 100

Sum of ratio parts = 4 + 3 + 6 = 13

⇒ Arul's investment = (6 ÷ 13) × 2,60,000

⇒ Arul's investment = 6 × 20,000 = ₹1,20,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,20,000.

Additional Information

Partnership Profit Distribution

In a partnership, the profit is distributed in the ratio of the product of capital and time period: P₁ : P₂ = C₁ × T₁ : C₂ × T₂.

Working and Sleeping Partners

A working partner manages the business and may receive a salary or additional commission before the remaining profit is divided based on investment ratios.

Capital Calculation

If time is constant, Capital Ratio = Profit Ratio. Capital = Profit ÷ (Rate of Return on Investment).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of the first two numbers = 2 : 42 = 1 : 21

The second pair 24 : y must follow the same ratio 1 : 21

y = 24 × 21

y = 504

∴ Answer = 504

Alternate Method

Given:

Four numbers in proportion: 2, 42, 24, and y

Formula used:

If a, b, c, and d are in proportion, then a ÷ b = c ÷ d (or a × d = b × c)

2 : 42 :: 24 : y Product of Extremes (2 × y) Product of Means (42 × 24)

Calculations:

Since 2, 42, 24, y are in proportion:

⇒ 2 ÷ 42 = 24 ÷ y

⇒ 2 × y = 42 × 24

⇒ y = (42 × 24) ÷ 2

⇒ y = 21 × 24

⇒ y = 504

∴ The correct answer is 504.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is calculated as x = √(a × b).

Third Proportional

If a, b, and c are in continued proportion (a:b :: b:c), then c is the third proportional, where c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

In the proportion a:b :: c:d, d is the fourth proportional and is given by d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Componendo and Dividendo

If a/b = c/d, then (a + b) / (a − b) = (c + d) / (c − d).

Shortcut Trick

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Total Distance = 336 + 925 + 432 = 1693 km

Total Time = (336 ÷ 24) + (925 ÷ 5) + (432 ÷ 12) = 14 + 185 + 36 = 235 hours

Average Speed = 1693 ÷ 235 = 7 48/235 km/hr

∴ Answer = 7 48/235

Alternate Method

Given:

D₁ = 336 km, S₁ = 24 km/hr

D₂ = 925 km, S₂ = 5 km/hr

D₃ = 432 km, S₃ = 12 km/hr

Formula used:

Average Speed = (Total Distance) ÷ (Total Time)

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

  336 km 24 km/h 925 km 5 km/h 432 km 12 km/h Total Journey = 1693 km

Calculations:

Step 1: Calculate time taken for each segment.

⇒ T₁ = 336 ÷ 24 = 14 hours

⇒ T₂ = 925 ÷ 5 = 185 hours

⇒ T₃ = 432 ÷ 12 = 36 hours

Step 2: Calculate total distance and total time.

⇒ Total Distance = 336 + 925 + 432 = 1693 km

⇒ Total Time = 14 + 185 + 36 = 235 hours

Step 3: Calculate average speed.

⇒ Average Speed = 1693 ÷ 235

⇒ Average Speed = 7 (with remainder 48) → 7 48/235 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Additional Information

Average Speed for Two Equal Distances

If a person covers two equal distances at speeds x and y, the average speed is given by 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S₁ − S₂. In opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply the speed by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

For 2 years, Difference (D) = Principal × (Rate/100)²

D = 83300 × (3/100) × (3/100)

D = 833 × 0.09

D = 74.97

Rounding to one decimal place ≈ 75.0

∴ Answer = ₹75.0

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹83,300

Rate (R) = 3% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula used:

Difference (D) between CI and SI for 2 years = P × (R ÷ 100)²

 Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 P = ₹83,300  SI = 3%  SI = 3%  Extra CI: 3% of 1<sup>st</sup> year interest Diff = ₹74.97

Calculations:

Interest for the first year = 3% of 83300 = 2499

⇒ Simple Interest for 2 years = 2499 × 2 = 4998

⇒ Compound Interest for 2 years = 2499 (Year 1) + 2499 (Year 2) + 3% of 2499

⇒ Difference = 3% of 2499

⇒ Difference = (3 ÷ 100) × 2499 = 0.03 × 2499 = 74.97

⇒ Rounded off to one decimal place, the difference is 75.0

∴ The correct answer is (3).

Additional Information

Difference for 3 Years

The difference between CI and SI for 3 years is given by D = P(R/100)² × (3 + R/100).

Effective Rate of Interest

For CI at a rate of R% for 2 years, the effective rate is R + R + (R × R)/100 %.

Compounding Periods

If interest is compounded half-yearly, the rate becomes R/2 and the time period becomes 2n in the formula A = P(1 + r/100)^t.

Simple Interest Formula

The SI is calculated uniformly on the principal amount: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Total Interest Percentage = Rate × Time

Effective Interest = 4% × 3 = 12%

Simple Interest = 12% of 300,000

Simple Interest = 300,000 × 0.12 = 36,000

∴ Answer = 36000

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹300,000, Rate (R) = 4% p.a., Time (T) = 3 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Principal (P) = ₹300,000 0 yr 1 yr 2 yr 3 yr 4% 4% 4% Total Interest Period = 3 Years

Calculations:

SI = (300,000 × 4 × 3) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 3,000 × 12

⇒ SI = 36,000

∴ The correct answer is 36000.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total amount (A) to be paid after the time period is the sum of Principal and Simple Interest: A = P + SI.

Compound Interest vs SI

Simple interest is calculated only on the principal, while Compound Interest (CI) is calculated on the principal plus the accumulated interest of previous periods.

Difference Formula (2 Years)

The difference between CI and SI for a period of 2 years is given by: D = P(R ÷ 100)².

SI for Months or Days

If time is in months, divide by 12. If time is in days, divide by 365. Formula: SI = (P × R × d) ÷ (100 × 365).

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(20, 25) = 100 units.

Efficiencies: A = 100 ÷ 20 = 5 units/day, B = 100 ÷ 25 = 4 units/day.

Work done in 1 cycle (2 days) = 5 + 4 = 9 units.

In 11 cycles (22 days), work completed = 11 × 9 = 99 units.

Remaining work = 100 − 99 = 1 unit, done by A on 23^rd day in 1/5 day.

∴ Answer = 22 1/5 days

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 20 days

Time taken by B = 25 days

Working pattern = Alternate days starting with A

Formula used:

Total Work = LCM of all given days

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Number of Days

Work in 2 days (A + B) = 5 + 4 = 9 units

For 100 units: 100 ÷ 9 = 11 cycles with 1 unit remaining

Calculations:

Work done in 11 cycles (11 × 2 days) = 11 × 9 = 99 units

⇒ Remaining work = 100 − 99 = 1 unit

⇒ Time taken by A to do 1 unit = Work ÷ Efficiency = 1/5 day

⇒ Total time = 22 + 1/5 = 22 1/5 days

∴ The correct answer is 22 1/5 days.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Concept

In alternate work, tasks are done in cycles. If A starts, Day 1 is A, Day 2 is B. The total work done in 2 days forms one complete cycle efficiency.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual work done by each individual, not necessarily their efficiency ratio if they work for different durations.

Pipes and Cisterns

Similar logic applies where filling pipes have positive efficiency and emptying pipes (leaks) have negative efficiency. Total capacity is the LCM of time.

Efficiency-Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken. If the ratio of time taken by A and B is x:y, then the ratio of their efficiencies is y:x.

Shortcut Trick

Divide the number 29767 by 39 to find the remainder.

29767 ÷ 39 → Quotient = 763, Remainder = 10.

Smallest number to add = Divisor − Remainder.

Required addition = 39 − 10 = 29.

∴ Answer = 29

Alternate Method

Given:

Dividend = 29767

Divisor = 39

Formula used:

Smallest number to be added = Divisor − Remainder

29757 (39 × 763) 29767 29796 (39 × 764) Add 29 Remainder = 10 Result: 29

Calculations:

Divide 29767 by 39:

⇒ 297 ÷ 39 = 7 (Remainder = 24)

⇒ 246 ÷ 39 = 6 (Remainder = 12)

⇒ 127 ÷ 39 = 3 (Remainder = 10)

⇒ The remainder is 10.

⇒ Required number to be added = 39 − 10 = 29.

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Additional Information

Smallest Number to Subtract

To make a number perfectly divisible by another, the smallest number to subtract is always the remainder (R).

Division Algorithm

Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder. This can be used to verify the division result.

Divisibility by 39

A number is divisible by 39 if it is divisible by both 3 (sum of digits rule) and 13 (oscillator method or long division).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of students in two groups = 12 : (30 − 12) = 12 : 18 = 2 : 3

Assume base average = 62

Deviation of group 1 from base = 70 − 62 = +8

Net deviation for the whole class = (2 × 8) ÷ (2 + 3) = 16 ÷ 5 = 3.2

Required Average = 62 + 3.2 = 65.2

∴ Answer = 65.2

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of students = 30

Number of students in first group = 12, Average = 70

Number of students in second group = 30 − 12 = 18, Average = 62

Formula used:

Total Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

12 Students Avg: 70 18 Students Avg: 62 Total Average = ?

Calculations:

Sum of scores of 12 students = 12 × 70 = 840

⇒ Sum of scores of remaining 18 students = 18 × 62 = 1116

⇒ Total sum of scores for 30 students = 840 + 1116 = 1956

⇒ Average of the class = 1956 ÷ 30

⇒ Average = 195.6 ÷ 3 = 65.2

∴ The correct answer is 65.2.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

The average of combined groups is given by A_w = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is the number of items and A is the average.

Deviation Method

New Average = Assumed Average + (Total Deviation ÷ Total Number). This saves calculation time during exams.

Effect of Operations

If every value in a set is increased, decreased, multiplied, or divided by a constant k, the average also changes by the same operation with k.

Shortcut Trick

³√4096 = 16 and &sup4;√1296 = 6

Expression = (16 ÷ 6) × (3 ÷ 48) × 90

Cancel 16 and 48: 16 ÷ 48 = 1 ÷ 3

Expression = (1 ÷ 6) × (3 ÷ 3) × 90 = 90 ÷ 6

∴ Answer = 15

Alternate Method

Given:

Term 1 = ³√4096 / &sup4;√1296, Term 2 = 3 / 48, Term 3 = 90

Formula used:

Value = (Numerator₁ ÷ Denominator₁) × (Numerator₂ ÷ Denominator₂) × Multiplier

³√4096 16 ÷ &sup4;√1296 6 × 3/48 1/16 × 90 Result: (16/6) × (1/16) × 90 = 15

Calculations:

Simplify individual terms:

⇒ ³√4096 = ³√(16³) = 16

⇒ &sup4;√1296 = √(√1296) = √36 = 6

⇒ 3 ÷ 48 = 1 ÷ 16

Substitute values back into the expression:

⇒ (16 ÷ 6) × (1 ÷ 16) × 90

⇒ (16 ÷ 16) × (1 ÷ 6) × 90

⇒ 1 × 15 = 15

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Additional Information

Power and Roots Table

Memorizing cubes up to 20 (e.g., 16³ = 4096) and fourth powers up to 10 (e.g., 6⁴ = 1296) saves significant time in exams.

Fraction Simplification

Always reduce fractions like 3/48 to their simplest form (1/16) before performing multi-step multiplication to avoid large numbers.

Rule of Radicals

The n^th root of a number a can be written as a^1/n. For higher roots, use factorization: ⁴√x = √(√x).

Shortcut Trick

Total students appeared from Institute R = 400 + 450 + 480 + 550 + 500 + 600 + 570 = 3550

Total students passed from Institute R = (75% of 400) + (70% of 450) + (60% of 480) + (80% of 550) + (85% of 500) + (78% of 600) + (70% of 570)

Total Passed = 300 + 315 + 288 + 440 + 425 + 468 + 399 = 2635

Total % = (2635 ÷ 3550) × 100 = 74.22% ≈ 74%

∴ Answer = 74%

Alternate Method

Given:

Appeared students and Pass % for Institute R (2011 to 2017) as per the table.

Formula used:

Total Pass % = (Total Passed Students ÷ Total Appeared Students) × 100

Total Appeared: 3550 students (100%) Total Passed: 2635 students Aggregate Percentage ≈ 74%

Calculations:

Sum of Appeared Students (R) = 400 + 450 + 480 + 550 + 500 + 600 + 570 = 3550

⇒ Passed in 2011 = 400 × 75/100 = 300

⇒ Passed in 2012 = 450 × 70/100 = 315

⇒ Passed in 2013 = 480 × 60/100 = 288

⇒ Passed in 2014 = 550 × 80/100 = 440

⇒ Passed in 2015 = 500 × 85/100 = 425

⇒ Passed in 2016 = 600 × 78/100 = 468

⇒ Passed in 2017 = 570 × 70/100 = 399

⇒ Total Passed = 300 + 315 + 288 + 440 + 425 + 468 + 399 = 2635

⇒ Total Pass % = (2635 ÷ 3550) × 100 = 74.225%

∴ The correct answer is 74% (Option 1).

Additional Information

Aggregate Percentage Rule

When data consists of different base values, the total percentage is the sum of raw quantities divided by the sum of bases, not the average of the given percentages.

Weighted Average Formula

Overall Average = (n₁w₁ + n₂w₂ + ... + n_kw_k) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + ... + n_k), where n is the base and w is the percentage/weight.

Nearest Integer Rounding

If the fractional part is 0.5 or more, round up to the next integer; if less than 0.5, round down to the current integer.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• A) Innovation and Problem-Solving.
• The passage explicitly states that one of the primary benefits is "innovation and problem-solving," noting that right-brain processes can lead to more efficient designs in engineering and innovative products in finance.
• B) Enhanced Design Thinking and Aesthetics.
• The text mentions that creative thinking can "improve the aesthetics and user experience of products," leading to results that are visually appealing and user-friendly.
• C) Improved Adaptability.
• The passage notes that creative thinking helps professionals "become more adaptable," allowing them to handle unexpected challenges or market volatility more effectively.

Therefore, the correct answer is Increased focus on traditional methodologies and standards.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: This is mentioned as a benefit under "Enhanced Design Thinking."
• Option 2: This is mentioned as a benefit under "Improved adaptability."
• Option 3: This is mentioned as the first major benefit in the passage.
• Option 4: This is incorrect because the passage suggests that traditional methodologies and standards are something to be "balanced" with innovation, not that right-brain thinking causes an increase in focus on them. In fact, right-brain thinking is used to move beyond strictly traditional left-brain dominance.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• A) Balancing Innovation and Standards.
• The passage concludes by stating that successfully incorporating right-brain processes "requires a balance between innovation and the rigorous standards that define these professions." This highlights the difficulty of being creative while maintaining the precision required in engineering and finance.
• B) Managing Professional Rigor.
• Engineering and finance are described as "traditionally left-brain-dominated fields." The challenge is not just being creative, but doing so without compromising the accuracy and strict methodologies inherent to those fields.
• C) Integration of Cognitive Processes.
• The text notes that while these processes offer benefits, they present challenges that "must be carefully managed," specifically referring to the tension between unconventional exploration and professional standards.

Therefore, the correct answer is The challenge lies in finding a balance between innovation and the rigorous standards of these professions.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Incorrect because the goal is to integrate right-brain thinking, not to encourage professionals to stay limited to left-brain processes.
• Option 3: Incorrect because while aesthetics are mentioned, the passage does not describe "limiting" creativity as the primary challenge.
• Option 4: Incorrect because the passage suggests right-brain thinking leads to "unconventional" and "novel" solutions, which are the opposite of predictable outcomes.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• A) Objective Examination of the Subject.
• An analytical tone is characterized by a logical, methodical examination of a topic. The passage breaks down the incorporation of right-brain processes into specific categories like "Innovation," "Design Thinking," and "Adaptability," providing examples for both engineering and finance.
• B) Inclusion of Both Pros and Cons.
• The passage is balanced because it does not purely praise the idea. It starts by acknowledging that while there are "numerous benefits," the process "also presents challenges." This dual perspective avoids bias.
• C) Neutral and Professional Language.
• The language used (e.g., "requires a balance," "must be carefully managed," "can offer") is informative and professional rather than emotional or persuasive, which is a hallmark of a balanced, analytical piece.

Therefore, the correct answer is Analytical and balanced.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect because the author does not express disapproval; in fact, the author lists many positive outcomes of the proposed change.
• Option 2: Incorrect because while it mentions "challenges," the overall message is one of constructive integration rather than a warning of failure or a gloomy outlook.
• Option 3: Incorrect because the passage is too structured and factual to be considered "inspiring." It focuses on professional application and management rather than emotional motivation.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• A) Comprehensive Scope.
• A perfect title must reflect both the benefits and the challenges discussed. Option 1 captures the "Creativity" (the benefits) and the "Structure" (the rigorous standards/left-brain dominance) mentioned throughout the passage.
• B) Central Thesis.
• The passage explicitly concludes that the key to success in these fields is finding a "balance between innovation and the rigorous standards." This title perfectly mirrors the author's primary conclusion.
• C) Subject Matter Accuracy.
• By using the term "Professional Fields," it covers the specific examples of engineering and finance while acknowledging the broader application of the left-brain vs. right-brain debate presented by the author.

Therefore, the correct answer is Balancing Creativity with Structure in Professional Fields.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: While relevant, it focuses primarily on the "role" (the benefits) and does not sufficiently highlight the "management" and "balance" aspects emphasized in the passage's opening and closing.
• Option 3: This is too narrow; the passage spends more time discussing the advantages and the concept of cognitive integration than just listing challenges.
• Option 4: This title is somewhat misleading, as the passage does not frame left-brain thinking as a "limitation" to be overcome, but rather as a rigorous foundation that should be complemented by right-brain processes.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. rigidity.

Key Points

• The word "adaptability" refers to the ability to adjust to new conditions or changes.
• Example: Her adaptability to different work environments has been a key factor in her success.
• Rigidity is the antonym of "adaptability," as it denotes an inability or unwillingness to change or adapt.
• The other options, such as innovation, recurrence, and flexibility, do not serve as direct opposites of "adaptability."

Therefore, the most appropriate antonym of the word 'adaptability' given in the passage is: rigidity.

Additional Information

Here are the other options and their meanings:

• Innovation (नवाचार): The act of introducing new ideas, devices, or methods.
• Recurrence (पुनरावृत्ति): The act of occurring or happening again, especially at regular intervals.
• Flexibility (लचीलापन): The quality of bending easily without breaking, or the ability to adapt to different circumstances.