DSSSB TGT (Social Science) Official Paper (Held On: 08 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given: DEN KIF BUN CAR

According to the question:

Each vowel is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is replaced by the previous letter.

Now, changing each letter in the words:

DEN: D → C, E → F, N → M

KIF: K → J, I → J, F → E

BUN: B → A, U → V, N → M

CAR: C → B, A → B, R → Q

Thus, the new clusters formed are:

DEN → CFM

KIF → JJE

BUN → AVM

CAR → BBQ

Now, checking clusters with no vowels (A, E, I, O, U):

CFM (No vowel)

JJE (Contains vowel E)

AVM (Contains vowel A)

BBQ (No vowel)

Clusters without vowels: CFM, BBQ

Hence, the number of such clusters is: 2

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: (Left) 856 456 567 846 589 (Right)

According to the question:

So,

Lowest number → 456

Second digit of lowest number → 456 → 5

Highest number → 856

Third digit of highest number → 856 → 6

Resultant → 5 + 6 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the given information,

To reach point P again, he should drive 12 - (8 + 2) = 2 km in North direction.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Seven boxes E, F, G, H, I, J and W are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only two boxes are kept below G.
2. Only one box is kept above J.
3. Only one box is kept between J and W.
4. I is kept immediately above F.
5. E is kept at some place below H. 

Five boxes are kept between H and F.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Statements:

I. Amit got diagnosed with Type-II diabetes few days ago during a regular check-up. - Cause (This is a medical condition identified, which can influence future decisions.)

II. Amit has decided to stop consuming sugar and foods, which have high carbohydrates. - Effect (This is a decision taken likely due to the diagnosis.)

Statement I is the cause, and statement II is its possible effect.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic: Difference of 104

235 is related to 131  

235 - 104 = 131

268 is related to 164

268 - 104 = 164

Similarly,

315 related to,

315 - 104 = 211

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

(I): Some slates are papers → Does not follow (It is given that no paper is slate. so, it is not possible).

(II): Some papers are copies → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between papers and copies. so, it is possible not definite).

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

20 + 3 = 23

23 + 6 = 29

29 + 9 = 38

38 + 12 = 50

50 + 15 = 65

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Equation: 25 D 36 C 12 Q 3 P 36 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the signs using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 25 + 36 ÷ 12 × 3 - 36

⇒ 25 + 3 × 3 - 36

⇒ 25 + 9 - 36

⇒ 34 - 36

⇒ -2

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

(1) HLP

H + 4 = L

L + 4 = P

(2) GKO

G + 4 = K

K + 4 = O

(3) SAW

S + 8 = A

A - 4 = W

(4) AEI

A + 4 = E

E + 4 = I

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Equation: 10C17D32A48B8 = ?

Decoding the signs:

After replacing symbols:

10 × 17 − 32 + 48 ÷ 8

BODMAS Rule:

Now solving step by step:

= 10 × 17 − 32 + 48 ÷ 8

= 170 − 32 + 6

= 170 − 32 + 6

= 138 + 6

= 144

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Given:

Total number of people = 48

Harry is 13^th from the right end.

Roshan is 20^th from the left end.

Position from left = Total − Position from right + 1

Position of Harry from left = 48 − 13 + 1 = 36

Position of Roshan from left = 20

Number of people between them = Difference − 1

= (36 − 20) − 1 = 16 − 1 = 15

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

‘HERD’ is coded as ‘0136’

And

‘ERHU’ is coded as ‘1390’

Code for "U" is "9".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

According to the given information,

Given equation: $M - A \times T \div E - C \times N \div D$ → M is brother of A, A is wife of T, T is father of E, E is brother of C, C is wife of N and N is father of D.

T is D's mother's Father.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic:

(First number ÷ 3)- 4 = Second number

78 is related to 22,

(78 ÷ 3) - 4 = 26 - 4 = 22

And 

99 is related to 29,

(99 ÷ 3) - 4 = 33 - 4 = 29

Similarly,

66 is related to,

(66 ÷ 3) - 4 = 22 - 4 = 18

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

(1) MJH

M - 3 = J

J - 2 = H

(2) FCA

F - 3 = C

C - 2 = A

(3) KNO

K + 3 = N

N + 1 = O

(4) VSQ

V - 3 = S

S - 2 = Q

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Seven people D, E, F, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. P sits third to the left of S.
2. Q sits second to the left of D.
3. S is an immediate neighbour of both F and Q.
4. R is not an immediate neighbour of P. 

Two people sit between E and Q when counted from the right of E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

KSNJ is related to MUPL,

And,

HPKG is related to JRMI.

Similarly,

NVQM related to,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is Consumption Expenditure.

Key Points

• Consumer durable goods, such as appliances, vehicles, and electronics, are considered part of Consumption Expenditure in the calculation of GDP.
• Consumption Expenditure is a major component of GDP and reflects the spending by households on goods and services for their personal use.
• Durable goods are classified under final consumption expenditure because they are purchased for end-use rather than resale or further production.
• Examples of consumer durable goods include refrigerators, washing machines, cars, furniture, and televisions, which represent long-lasting goods primarily used by households.
• This category differs from Investment Expenditure, which includes spending on assets for future production, and from Government Expenditure, which covers spending by the government on public services.

Additional Information

• Components of GDP:
• Consumption Expenditure: Refers to spending by households on goods and services. It includes durable goods, non-durable goods (like food and clothing), and services (such as healthcare and education).
• Investment Expenditure: Covers spending on capital goods like buildings, machinery, and equipment, which are used for production purposes.
• Government Expenditure: Includes government spending on public services, infrastructure, and administration.
• Net Exports: Calculated as the difference between a country’s exports and imports. Positive net exports contribute to GDP, while negative net exports reduce it.
• Characteristics of Consumer Durable Goods:
• These goods have a long lifespan and are used repeatedly over time, usually for more than three years.
• Examples include automobiles, household appliances, and electronic devices.
• They are purchased by households to improve their standard of living and provide utility over time.
• Durable goods are sensitive to economic conditions; demand tends to decrease during economic downturns and increase during periods of growth.
• Difference Between Consumption and Investment:
• Consumption: Refers to spending on goods and services for immediate use or personal satisfaction. This includes both durable and non-durable goods.
• Investment: Involves spending on goods that will be used for future production, such as machinery, factories, or infrastructure.
• Consumer durable goods are categorized under consumption because they are purchased for personal use rather than for production purposes.
• Global Context:
• In many developed countries, Consumption Expenditure forms the largest share of GDP, reflecting the importance of household spending in driving economic growth.
• In developing economies, other components like Investment Expenditure may play a larger role due to ongoing infrastructure development.

Important Points

• Consumer Durables in India:
• The consumer durables market in India has witnessed significant growth due to urbanization, rising incomes, and increased access to credit facilities.
• Popular brands in the Indian market include LG, Samsung, Whirlpool, Sony, and Bajaj.
• The demand for consumer durables is higher during festive seasons, such as Diwali, due to cultural trends and offers by companies.
• Economic Indicators:
• Consumption Expenditure serves as an important economic indicator, reflecting the health and confidence of households in the economy.
• Higher consumption expenditure generally indicates robust economic growth, while lower levels suggest economic distress or reduced purchasing power.

The correct answer is Arabian Sea.

Key Points

• The western coast of India is a narrow plain sandwiched between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea. This geographical feature is well-known for its distinct topography.
• The Arabian Sea forms the western boundary of the Indian subcontinent and serves as a crucial part of India's maritime geography.
• The western coastal plains of India are divided into two regions: the Konkan Coast (Maharashtra, Goa) in the north and the Malabar Coast (Kerala) in the south, both of which lie adjacent to the Arabian Sea.
• The Western Ghats, running parallel to the Arabian Sea, significantly influence the climate and ecology of the western coast, making it a biodiversity hotspot.
• The Arabian Sea is strategically important for India in terms of trade, fishing, and transportation. Major ports such as Mumbai, Mangalore, and Cochin are located along this coastline.

Additional Information

• Thar Desert:
• Located in the northwestern part of India, the Thar Desert does not influence the western coastal plains as it lies far from this region.
• The Thar Desert is characterized by arid conditions and sand dunes and is located in states like Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat.
• It is unrelated to the geographical setup of the western coast of India.
• Persian Gulf:
• The Persian Gulf is located far west of India and does not have any geographical connection with the western coastal plains.
• It is a critical region for oil trade and maritime activities but is geographically distinct from the Arabian Sea.
• Bay of Bengal:
• The Bay of Bengal lies to the eastern side of India and is separated from the western coast by the Indian mainland.
• It forms the eastern coastal boundary of India and does not influence the geography of the western coast.
• Arabian Sea:
• The Arabian Sea is part of the northern Indian Ocean and serves as a maritime boundary for the western coast of India.
• It plays a crucial role in monsoon patterns, fishing, and trade in the region.
• Major rivers such as the Narmada and Tapi drain into the Arabian Sea, enhancing its importance for the western coast.

Important Points

• Western Ghats:
• Western Ghats are UNESCO World Heritage Sites and are known for their rich biodiversity and ecological significance.
• They run parallel to the western coast and influence the climate and agriculture of the region.
• Ports:
• Major ports like Mumbai, Kochi, and Mangalore are located along the Arabian Sea, making it a hub for India's trade and shipping activities.
• These ports facilitate international trade and boost India's economy.
• Tourism:
• The western coast is known for its scenic beaches like Goa, Kerala's backwaters, and coastal towns that attract tourists globally.
• The Arabian Sea enhances the beauty and economic potential of this region.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• The Hola Mohalla festival is celebrated primarily in the state of Punjab, especially in the town of Anandpur Sahib.
• It was initiated by the tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh, in the year 1701. The festival was introduced as a gathering for Sikhs to demonstrate their martial skills and valor.
• Hola Mohalla is celebrated one day after the Hindu festival of Holi. Unlike Holi, which is associated with color and fun, Hola Mohalla emphasizes martial spirit, bravery, and community service.
• The event includes mock battles, swordsmanship displays, horse riding, and other martial arts demonstrations, reflecting the militaristic tradition of the Sikhs.
• It also features spiritual gatherings, kirtans (devotional singing), and langars (community kitchens), which are an integral part of Sikh culture.

Additional Information

• Historical Context:
• The festival was established by Guru Gobind Singh to prepare Sikhs for self-defense and to instill the spirit of courage and sacrifice.
• The word "Hola" is derived from "Holi," and "Mohalla" means an organized gathering or procession.
• Cultural Significance:
• The festival fosters a sense of unity and community among Sikhs, as they come together to celebrate their shared heritage and faith.
• It is a time of reflection, where the teachings and sacrifices of Sikh Gurus are remembered and honored.
• Key Features:
• The festival includes mock battles, known as Gatka demonstrations, which showcase Sikh martial arts.
• Processions with traditional music and devotional singing are held, often led by the Nihangs, a prestigious Sikh warrior group.
• Modern Observances:
• In present times, Hola Mohalla has become a grand event, attracting thousands of visitors from across the globe to Anandpur Sahib.
• The festival is a mix of religious fervor, cultural displays, and martial arts demonstrations, making it a unique experience for participants and spectators alike.

Important Points

• Connection to Sikhism: Hola Mohalla embodies the Sikh principle of Chardi Kala (eternal optimism) and the martial teachings of Guru Gobind Singh.
• Location: The most prominent celebrations take place at Anandpur Sahib, but it is also observed in various other parts of Punjab.
• Global Recognition: The festival has gained international recognition for its unique blend of spirituality, culture, and martial traditions.
• Participation: Devotees, including Sikh warriors (Nihangs), participate enthusiastically, showcasing their skills and devotion to their faith.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• Punjab has the highest percentage of Sikh population in India as per the 2011 Census. Approximately 57.69% of Punjab's total population identifies as Sikhs.
• The Sikh religion, founded by Guru Nanak Dev Ji in the 15^th century, originated in Punjab, making the state the cultural and religious hub for Sikhs globally.
• The majority of Sikh population in Punjab is due to the state's historical significance, being the birthplace of Sikhism and the location of several key Sikh shrines, including the Golden Temple (Harmandir Sahib) in Amritsar.
• Other states or union territories, such as Delhi (3.4%), Chandigarh (13.11%), and Haryana (4.91%), also have notable Sikh populations, but their percentages are significantly lower compared to Punjab.
• The predominance of Sikhs in Punjab is also reflected in its culture, festivals, and political landscape, as the state has a rich legacy tied to Sikhism.

Additional Information

• Sikhism and Its Origin:
• Sikhism was founded in the late 15^th century by Guru Nanak Dev Ji in Punjab.
• The religion emphasizes values like equality, service, and devotion to one God.
• Punjab is home to the five Takhts (temporal seats of authority) of Sikhism, including the Golden Temple.
• Punjab's Demographic Composition:
• As per the 2011 Census, Punjab has a population of approximately 2.77 crore, with 57.69% being Sikhs.
• It is the only Indian state where Sikhs form a majority.
• Sikh Population in Other Areas:
• Delhi: Delhi has a Sikh population of approximately 3.4%, with notable Sikh communities in areas like Tilak Nagar and Rajouri Garden.
• Chandigarh: The union territory of Chandigarh has a Sikh population of 13.11%, reflecting its proximity to Punjab.
• Haryana: Haryana's Sikh population stands at 4.91%, especially in districts bordering Punjab, such as Ambala and Karnal.
• Sikhism's Global Presence:
• Globally, Sikhism is the fifth-largest religion, with a population of over 25 million, most of whom reside in Punjab or are part of the Indian diaspora.
• Countries like Canada, the United States, the United Kingdom, and Australia also have significant Sikh populations.

Important Points

• Golden Temple (Harmandir Sahib): Located in Amritsar, Punjab, it is the most important religious site for Sikhs and attracts millions of visitors annually.
• Sikh Festivals: Key festivals like Vaisakhi, Gurpurabs, and Hola Mohalla are celebrated with great fervor in Punjab.
• Partition of India (1947): The partition significantly impacted Punjab, leading to mass migration and the concentration of Sikh population in Indian Punjab.
• Sikh Diaspora: The Sikh diaspora plays a major role in promoting Sikh culture and values globally, with organizations and gurdwaras (Sikh temples) in various countries.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra state government organized ‘Bal Sabhas’ on 24 April 2022, coinciding with the Panchayati Raj Day. This initiative was aimed at empowering children by providing them a platform to express their views.
• The ‘Bal Sabha’ initiative focused on involving children in the Panchayati Raj system, a decentralized governance model in India. This is part of the government’s effort to strengthen democratic participation from a young age.
• These sessions were held in every village across Maharashtra, ensuring the participation of children from diverse backgrounds in rural areas.
• The initiative aligns with the spirit of Panchayati Raj, which emphasizes grassroots governance and inclusive decision-making.
• It provided children an opportunity to discuss issues concerning their education, health, and welfare, bringing their concerns to the forefront for local administration.
• The event also aimed to create awareness about the importance of local governance and foster leadership qualities among the younger generation.

Additional Information

• Panchayati Raj Day:
• 24 April is celebrated as National Panchayati Raj Day in India to commemorate the passing of the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1992.
• This amendment provided a constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj system, making it an integral part of decentralized governance in India.
• Key Features of the Panchayati Raj System:
• It functions as a three-tier system of governance at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
• The system empowers local self-governments to plan and implement development initiatives in rural areas.
• The Gram Sabha, consisting of all adult members of a village, is the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system.
• Importance of Bal Sabhas:
• Bal Sabhas serve as a platform to engage children in governance and decision-making processes, fostering a sense of responsibility and leadership.
• They highlight issues such as child rights, education, nutrition, and sanitation that directly impact children’s well-being.
• This initiative also promotes child-friendly governance at the grassroots level.
• Other Initiatives in Maharashtra:
• Maharashtra has been at the forefront of implementing innovative grassroots governance models, with initiatives such as the ‘Gram Sabha’ and ‘Mahila Sabha’ for women empowerment.
• The state has also emphasized education and child welfare programs to improve the standard of living in rural areas.

Important Points

• Historical Context: The 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) laid the foundation for the Panchayati Raj system by adding Part IX to the Constitution and including the 11^th Schedule, which lists 29 subjects under its purview.
• UNICEF’s Role: Organizations like UNICEF often collaborate with state governments to promote child participation initiatives like Bal Sabhas.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Initiatives like Bal Sabhas contribute to achieving SDG 4 (Quality Education) and SDG 16 (Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions).
• Way Forward: Scaling up such initiatives across other states can ensure inclusive governance and prepare future generations for active civic participation.

The correct answer is Net Neutrality Regulations.

Key Points

• Net Neutrality regulations are designed to ensure equal treatment of all online content, preventing internet service providers (ISPs) from favoring or blocking specific websites, applications, or services.
• The principle of Net Neutrality prohibits differential pricing for internet access, ensuring that all users have unrestricted access to the internet without discrimination.
• In India, the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) issued guidelines on Net Neutrality in July 2018, banning differential pricing for data services and emphasizing the importance of an open internet.
• Net Neutrality protects users from practices such as content throttling, where ISPs intentionally slow down access to certain websites or services.
• It also prevents ISPs from offering exclusive bundles for specific sites or blocking open internet access, ensuring all online content is treated equally.

Additional Information

• Net Neutrality:
• Net Neutrality is the principle that ISPs must treat all data equally, without discriminating or charging differently based on the user, content, website, platform, or application.
• Major countries supporting Net Neutrality include India, the United States, and the European Union, although the level of enforcement varies.
• The concept gained global attention due to concerns over corporate control over internet access and the potential for limiting innovation.
• Proprietary Content Throttling:
• This practice involves ISPs deliberately slowing down access to certain websites or services to favor their own proprietary content or services.
• Such actions are prohibited under Net Neutrality regulations as they lead to unfair competition and limit user choice.
• Exclusive ISP Bundles:
• These bundles offer access to specific websites or services at preferential rates, while restricting access to others.
• Such practices are considered discriminatory and undermine the principle of an open and accessible internet.
• India’s Role in Net Neutrality:
• The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) and the Indian government have actively supported Net Neutrality, issuing strong regulations to ensure fair internet access.
• TRAI’s Prohibition of Discriminatory Tariffs for Data Services Regulations, 2016, explicitly bans differential pricing.
• India has been recognized as one of the leading countries advocating for internet equality.

Important Points

• Global Perspective:
• In the United States, Net Neutrality faced setbacks with the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) repealing regulations in 2017.
• However, countries like India and the European Union continue to enforce Net Neutrality to protect users' rights.
• Advantages of Net Neutrality:
• It promotes innovation and fair competition by allowing equal access to all online platforms.
• Protects users from unfair practices such as content blocking or throttling.
• Ensures freedom of expression and access to diverse content online.
• Challenges:
• Opposition from ISPs and certain corporations who argue for paid prioritization to generate revenue.
• Continuous monitoring is required to ensure compliance with Net Neutrality regulations.

The correct answer is 3) Presently, it deals with both urban and rural local governments..

Key Points

• Statement 1: Originally, it was called the Central Council of Local Self-Government. This is correct as the Council was initially established under this name in 1954.
• Statement 2: It was set up in 1954 under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. This is correct. Article 263 provides for the establishment of councils to resolve disputes or coordinate between the Union and state governments.
• Statement 3: Presently, it deals with both urban and rural local governments. This statement is incorrect. The Central Council of Local Government is specifically concerned with urban local governments, such as municipalities and municipal corporations, and does not deal with rural local governments like Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• Statement 4: The Union Minister for Urban Development acts as the Chairman of the Council. This is correct, as the Council operates under the Ministry of Urban Development, and the Union Minister chairs its meetings and proceedings.

Additional Information

• Central Council of Local Government:
• Established in 1954 under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution, the Council aimed to improve coordination between the Union and state governments regarding urban local governance.
• The Council primarily deals with matters related to urban local bodies, including municipal corporations, municipalities, and town area committees.
• The main objective is to discuss and make recommendations on urban development policies, administration, and financial matters.
• Article 263 of the Indian Constitution:
• Empowers the President of India to establish councils for resolving disputes or better coordination between states or between the Union and states.
• Examples include the Central Council of Local Government and the Inter-State Council.
• Urban Local Governments in India:
• Urban local governments include municipal corporations, municipalities, and town area committees.
• These institutions are governed by the provisions of the 74^th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992), which provided constitutional status to urban local bodies.
• The primary functions include urban planning, water supply, waste management, public health, and slum improvement.
• Rural Local Governments:
• Rural local governments are governed by the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992), which established the Panchayati Raj system.
• These institutions operate independently of urban local governments and are focused on rural development and governance.

Important Points

• Distinction between Urban and Rural Local Governments:
• Urban local governments focus on cities and towns, while rural local governments manage villages and rural areas.
• The Central Council of Local Government deals exclusively with urban governance and does not interfere with Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• Relevance of Article 263:
• This Article plays a critical role in establishing coordination mechanisms between different levels of government in India.
• It ensures smooth governance and cooperation on various issues of national and regional importance.

The correct answer is Jawan.

Key Points

• Jawan, a Bollywood blockbuster directed by Atlee Kumar, won the Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival Award 2024 for Best Film.
• The film stars Shah Rukh Khan in a dual role and features prominent actors such as Nayanthara and Vijay Sethupathi. It was released on 7^th September 2023.
• Jawan is known for its powerful storyline addressing social justice, corruption, and women's empowerment, making it a critical and commercial success.
• The film also features high-octane action sequences and an emotional narrative, resonating with audiences across India and globally.
• The Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival Awards is an annual event that recognizes and honors outstanding contributions to Indian cinema. Winning this award is a testament to the film's widespread impact and artistic excellence.

Additional Information

• Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival Awards:
• Named after Dadasaheb Phalke, regarded as the "Father of Indian Cinema."
• The awards honor excellence in the Indian film industry, across various categories such as acting, directing, and technical expertise.
• It is an important event in the Indian entertainment calendar and recognizes both mainstream and regional cinema.
• Shah Rukh Khan:
• Often referred to as the "King of Bollywood," Shah Rukh Khan has acted in over 80 films and is one of the most successful actors in the Indian film industry.
• His performances in Jawan and other films like Pathaan have further solidified his position as a global icon.
• Jawan - Synopsis and Highlights:
• The movie combines elements of action, drama, and social commentary, making it a unique addition to Indian cinema.
• The storyline revolves around themes of justice, familial bonds, and societal change.
• Its high production values and a gripping narrative contributed to its critical acclaim and box office success.
• Other Nominees:
• Pathaan: Another Shah Rukh Khan starrer, known for its action-packed sequences and massive box office success.
• Sam Bahadur: A biographical drama about Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw, directed by Meghna Gulzar.
• Animal: Directed by Sandeep Reddy Vanga, this action-drama stars Ranbir Kapoor and explores complex family relationships.

Important Points

• The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is different from the Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival Awards. The former is a lifetime achievement award given by the Indian government, while the latter is an independent event recognizing annual cinematic achievements.
• Jawan broke several box office records and became one of the highest-grossing Indian films of 2023.
• The film's soundtrack, composed by Anirudh Ravichander, also received critical acclaim for its impactful and emotionally resonant music.

The correct answer is 96.

Key Points

• India was ranked 96^th in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2024, as per the Transparency International report released in February 2025.
• The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is a global benchmark for measuring perceived levels of public sector corruption across countries.
• The CPI uses a scale from 0 to 100, where 0 indicates a highly corrupt nation and 100 signifies a very clean nation.
• India’s CPI score for 2024 was 40, which shows a slight improvement compared to previous years but still indicates significant challenges in tackling corruption.
• The ranking reflects factors such as public sector transparency, accountability, and the effectiveness of anti-corruption measures.

Additional Information

• About Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI):
• The CPI is published annually by Transparency International, a global civil society organization fighting against corruption.
• It ranks 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector corruption, based on expert assessments and surveys.
• Countries with a higher score are perceived to be less corrupt, while those with a lower score are seen as more corrupt.
• India’s Performance in the CPI:
• India has consistently struggled with corruption issues, ranking around the middle of the table in recent years.
• Some of the factors affecting India’s ranking include weak enforcement of anti-corruption laws, bureaucratic inefficiencies, and lack of transparency in governance.
• Global Trends in the CPI (2024):
• The top-ranking countries in 2024 were Denmark, Finland, and New Zealand, with scores of 88, 87, and 87, respectively.
• The lowest-ranked countries included Somalia, Syria, and South Sudan, with scores below 15.
• Steps Taken by India to Combat Corruption:
• Establishment of institutions like the Lokpal and the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) to address corruption issues.
• Implementation of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, and its amendments to strengthen anti-corruption frameworks.
• Digitization initiatives such as Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) and e-governance to reduce manual intervention and increase transparency.

Important Points

• Transparency International:
• An independent, non-governmental, and non-profit organization founded in 1993.
• Its mission is to combat global corruption and prevent criminal activities arising due to corruption.
• Challenges India Faces in Tackling Corruption:
• Issues like political interference, lack of independence of anti-corruption agencies, and widespread bureaucratic red tape.
• Public perception of corruption in sectors like healthcare, education, and public procurement.
• Global Impact of Corruption:
• Corruption undermines economic development, increases inequality, and erodes trust in public institutions.
• It is also linked to issues such as poverty, environmental degradation, and human rights abuses.

The correct answer is fast bowler.

Key Points

• Javagal Srinath is one of India's finest fast bowlers and is renowned for his significant contributions to Indian cricket, especially in the 1990s and early 2000s.
• He was known for his pace, bounce, and ability to swing the ball, making him one of the most feared bowlers during his time.
• Srinath was among the very few Indian bowlers to consistently bowl at speeds exceeding 140 km/h, earning him the title of a genuine fast bowler in a country traditionally known for its spinners.
• He played a pivotal role in many international cricket matches, representing India in 67 Test matches and 229 One-Day Internationals (ODIs).
• Javagal Srinath is the second Indian bowler after Kapil Dev to claim more than 300 wickets in ODIs. He retired with 315 ODI wickets and 236 Test wickets.

Additional Information

• Fast Bowling in Cricket:
• Fast bowlers rely on speed, swing, and seam movement to dismiss batsmen. They are often crucial in creating early breakthroughs in matches.
• Famous international fast bowlers include Glenn McGrath (Australia), Wasim Akram (Pakistan), and James Anderson (England).
• In Indian cricket, fast bowling has traditionally been less prominent, but players like Kapil Dev, Zaheer Khan, and Javagal Srinath have been instrumental in changing this perception.
• Javagal Srinath's Career Highlights:
• Born on 31^st August 1969 in Karnataka, India, Srinath is known for being a part of India's golden bowling era.
• He made his international debut in 1991 against Pakistan in Sharjah.
• Notable performances include his brilliant spells in the 1996 Cricket World Cup and the 2003 Cricket World Cup, where India reached the finals.
• Post-retirement, Srinath has been actively involved in cricket administration and is also a respected match referee for the International Cricket Council (ICC).
• Types of Cricket Bowling:
• Fast Bowling: Focuses on speed and includes types like outswingers, inswingers, and bouncers.
• Off Spin: A type of spin bowling where the ball turns from the off side to the leg side for a right-handed batsman.
• Leg Spin: A spin bowling style where the ball turns from the leg side to the off side for a right-handed batsman.
• Chinaman Bowling: A rare style where a left-arm wrist spinner turns the ball into a right-handed batsman, similar to leg spin.
• Comparison of Options:
• Fast Bowler: The correct answer, as Srinath was renowned for his fast bowling prowess.
• Off Spinner: Incorrect, as Srinath was not an off-spinner.
• Leg Spinner: Incorrect, as Srinath was not a leg-spinner.
• Chinaman Bowler: Incorrect, as Srinath was not a left-arm wrist spinner.

The correct answer is Aircraft Objects Bill.

Key Points

• The Aircraft Objects Bill, passed in April 2025, aims to protect the rights of aircraft lessors in cases of payment defaults.
• This legislation ensures that aircraft lessors can regain possession of leased aircraft in the event of defaults by lessees, strengthening their legal rights.
• It addresses the concerns of international leasing companies and improves India's compliance with global aviation leasing norms.
• The bill aligns with global practices under agreements like the Cape Town Convention, which provides uniform rules for repossession of leased aircraft.
• India’s aviation industry benefits from this legislation as it enhances investor confidence in leasing deals and attracts more international players.

Additional Information

• Cape Town Convention:
• The Cape Town Convention and its Aircraft Protocol provide a legal framework for the protection of interests in aircraft objects.
• It ensures that creditors can repossess aircraft in case of payment defaults, promoting confidence among international lessors.
• India is a signatory to the Cape Town Convention, and this bill reinforces its commitments under the convention.
• Aircraft Leasing Industry in India:
• India is one of the fastest-growing aviation markets globally, with a rising demand for leased aircraft.
• Currently, most aircraft leasing is carried out through international hubs such as Ireland and Singapore.
• This bill is expected to establish India as a favorable destination for aircraft leasing and financing.
• Benefits of the Bill:
• It reduces legal uncertainties for lessors, encouraging more leasing activities within India.
• Boosts India's aviation industry by attracting foreign investment and partnerships.
• Improves operational efficiency by ensuring timely resolution of payment disputes and repossession processes.
• Global Practices:
• Countries like Ireland and Singapore have robust legal frameworks to protect aircraft lessors, which make them preferred hubs for aircraft leasing.
• India’s adoption of similar practices through this bill ensures competitiveness in the global aviation leasing market.

Important Points

• Legal Framework:
• The bill provides clarity on legal recourse for lessors, ensuring streamlined repossession processes.
• It includes provisions for dispute resolution and adherence to international conventions like the Cape Town Convention.
• Impact on Indian Aviation:
• Expected to reduce dependency on foreign leasing hubs by creating a conducive environment for leasing within India.
• Strengthens India's position in the global aviation leasing market and enhances its appeal to foreign investors.
• Implementation:
• The success of the bill depends on effective implementation and coordination between aviation authorities and legal systems.
• It requires collaboration with international leasing companies to ensure compliance with global standards.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• The Mesolithic site of Langhnaj is located in the Mehsana district of Gujarat, India.
• Langhnaj is situated on one of the numerous sand dunes found in the Mehsana district, which is known for its archaeological significance.
• Excavations at Langhnaj have revealed evidence of Mesolithic tools, indicating human habitation during the Mesolithic period (Middle Stone Age).
• The site has yielded microliths (small stone tools) and evidence of hunting and gathering activities, characteristic of the Mesolithic era.
• Langhnaj also provides insights into the transition from the Mesolithic to the Neolithic period, showcasing early human adaptation and survival strategies.

Additional Information

• Mesolithic Period:
• The Mesolithic period, also known as the Middle Stone Age, is characterized by the development of microlithic tools and the shift to semi-nomadic lifestyles.
• It serves as a transitional phase between the Paleolithic (Old Stone Age) and the Neolithic (New Stone Age).
• In India, the Mesolithic period is dated between 10,000 BCE to 8,000 BCE.
• Key features include the use of stone tools, hunting, gathering, and the beginning of domestication of animals.
• Archaeological Significance of Gujarat:
• Gujarat is home to several important archaeological sites, including Harappan civilization sites like Lothal and Dholavira.
• Mesolithic sites like Langhnaj highlight the region's historical importance in understanding prehistoric human activities in India.
• The state has a rich legacy of cultural and historical artifacts dating back to various ancient periods.
• Langhnaj Excavations:
• Excavations at Langhnaj have revealed animal bones, suggesting hunting practices and dietary patterns.
• Archaeologists have also found evidence of burial practices, indicating early human social and cultural development.
• Other Mesolithic Sites in India:
• India has several notable Mesolithic sites, including Bagor (Rajasthan), Bhimbetka (Madhya Pradesh), and Adamgarh (Madhya Pradesh).
• These sites provide valuable insights into human evolution, tool-making, and adaptation strategies during the Mesolithic period.

Important Points

• Microliths:
• Microliths are small, finely crafted stone tools often used as arrowheads, blades, or other implements.
• They are indicative of advanced tool-making techniques during the Mesolithic period.
• Burial Practices:
• Evidence of burial practices at Langhnaj suggests early forms of ritualistic behavior and social organization.
• Transition to Neolithic:
• Langhnaj shows evidence of the transition from hunting and gathering to early forms of agriculture and animal domestication.

The correct answer is I, II, III, and IV.

Key Points

• Indian Citizenship Act, 1955: This act lays down provisions for acquiring, renouncing, or terminating Indian citizenship. It provides four methods of acquiring citizenship: by birth, descent, registration, and naturalisation.
• By Birth: A person born in India on or after 26^th January 1950 but before 1^st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth, irrespective of the nationality of their parents. After 1^st July 1987, at least one parent must be an Indian citizen. This statement is correct.
• By Descent: A person born outside India is considered an Indian citizen if at least one of their parents is an Indian citizen at the time of their birth. This provision ensures the continuation of citizenship for children of Indian citizens residing abroad. This statement is correct.
• By Registration: A person of Indian origin or an individual married to an Indian citizen can acquire citizenship by registration. They must have resided in India for a specified period (e.g., 7 years) before applying. This statement is correct.
• By Naturalisation: Foreign nationals who have resided in India for a substantial period (usually 12 years) and meet certain qualifications can apply for Indian citizenship through naturalisation. This statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Special Provisions for Overseas Citizens: The Indian Constitution provides a legal framework to grant Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) to individuals of Indian origin residing abroad. Though not full citizens, OCI cardholders enjoy several benefits such as visa-free travel to India and permission to own property.
• Renunciation and Termination: Indian citizenship can be voluntarily renounced by an individual or terminated by the government if the individual has acquired citizenship of another country, as India does not allow dual citizenship.
• Constitutional Provisions: Article 5 to Article 11 of the Indian Constitution deal with citizenship. These articles empower Parliament to regulate citizenship matters through legislation such as the Indian Citizenship Act, 1955.
• Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) 2019: This controversial amendment provides a pathway for certain persecuted religious minorities from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh to acquire Indian citizenship, provided they entered India before 31^st December 2014.
• Dual Citizenship: India does not allow dual citizenship. However, persons of Indian origin can avail of the OCI scheme to enjoy select privileges without surrendering their foreign citizenship.

Important Points

• By Birth: After 3^rd December 2004, a person is not considered a citizen by birth unless both parents are Indian citizens, or one parent is an Indian citizen and the other is not an illegal migrant.
• By Registration: Persons of Indian origin residing in India for at least 7 years, or spouses of Indian citizens residing in India for at least 7 years, can apply for citizenship under this category.
• By Naturalisation: Applicants must renounce their previous nationality and take an oath of allegiance to the Indian Constitution. This route is commonly used by foreign nationals with long-term residency in India.
• By Descent: This method helps maintain the connection between India and its diaspora, especially for children born to Indian citizens in foreign countries.
• Exceptions: The President of India has special powers to grant citizenship in exceptional circumstances, bypassing the usual requirements.

The correct answer is ₹1 lakh crore.

Key Points

• The Government of India allocated a ₹1 lakh crore corpus in 2024 for long-term financing to encourage innovation and research in various sectors.
• This initiative aims to provide financial support to projects that focus on technological advancements, scientific research, and innovation-driven solutions.
• The corpus is expected to focus on startups, research institutions, and enterprises working on cutting-edge technologies.
• Such financial backing will help India enhance its global position in scientific research and development and boost indigenous technological innovations.
• The fund also aligns with the government’s goals of achieving self-reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat) and fostering a robust innovation ecosystem in the country.

Additional Information

• Significance of Innovation and Research:
• Innovation is critical for economic growth and development, leading to new products, improved services, and efficient processes.
• India has been focusing on enhancing its R&D expenditure, which currently stands at about 0.7% of GDP, compared to the global average of around 2%.
• Encouraging research ensures advancements in sectors like healthcare, agriculture, defense, and technology, which are crucial for national development.
• Government Initiatives Supporting Research:
• Startup India Initiative: Provides funding and mentorship to startups focusing on innovative solutions.
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): Promotes a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in schools, colleges, and industries.
• National Research Foundation (NRF): A proposed framework to strengthen India's research capabilities by providing targeted funding.
• Key Features of the Corpus:
• The fund will have provisions for low-interest loans and grants to support research projects.
• It aims to target both basic research (for scientific discoveries) and applied research (for practical applications).
• The initiative will focus on collaborations between academia, industry, and government to maximize the impact of research outcomes.
• Examples of Countries Leading in R&D Funding:
• United States: Allocates around 2.8% of GDP to R&D, leading in sectors like technology and healthcare innovation.
• China: Invests heavily in innovation, dedicating over 2.4% of GDP to R&D.
• Germany: Focuses on industrial and scientific research, spending about 3.1% of GDP on R&D.

Important Points

• National Innovation Goals:
• India aims to be among the top three countries globally in scientific research by 2030.
• Increasing private sector participation in R&D funding is essential for achieving long-term growth.
• Focusing on green technologies and sustainable innovation to address climate challenges.
• Global Recognition:
• India ranks 40^th in the Global Innovation Index 2023, showcasing improvement in innovation capabilities.
• Collaborations with countries like Japan, Germany, and the US have helped strengthen India's research infrastructure.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• The Manipur government introduced the 'School on Wheels' program to provide education to students residing in relief camps across the state.
• This initiative is aimed at ensuring that children affected by the unrest or displacement do not miss out on their educational opportunities.
• The program involves the use of mobile classrooms equipped with necessary educational resources to reach students in remote and inaccessible areas affected by violence or natural calamities.
• The target beneficiaries of the program include children from families who have been sheltered in relief camps due to the ongoing ethnic conflict or other emergencies in Manipur.
• This innovative approach highlights the government's commitment to addressing the educational needs of vulnerable children in times of crisis.

Additional Information

• Manipur Ethnic Conflict:
• Manipur has been facing ethnic violence between communities like the Meitei and Kuki tribes, leading to mass displacement and the setup of relief camps.
• As of 2023, thousands of people have been rendered homeless and are living in temporary shelters.
• The government has been working to provide basic amenities, including food, healthcare, and education in these camps.
• Importance of Education in Relief Camps:
• Education is crucial for maintaining normalcy and providing psychological stability to children affected by displacement.
• Programs like 'School on Wheels' play a vital role in ensuring that children do not lose out on their academic progress while dealing with challenging circumstances.
• Such initiatives also help prevent dropouts and keep children engaged in productive activities.
• Mobile Classroom Concept:
• Mobile classrooms are designed to deliver education in areas where traditional school setups are unavailable.
• These classrooms are equipped with teaching materials, digital tools, and seating arrangements to replicate the school environment.
• Examples of such programs have been implemented globally in disaster-hit areas to ensure uninterrupted learning.
• Relief Camp Statistics in Manipur:
• According to recent data, there are over 50,000 displaced individuals in relief camps across Manipur.
• About 10,000 children have been directly affected, highlighting the need for targeted educational interventions.

Important Points

• National Initiatives for Education During Crises:
• The Right to Education Act (2009) mandates free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14 years, even during emergencies.
• Programs like Mid-Day Meal Scheme and Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan aim to provide food and education to children in vulnerable circumstances.
• States are encouraged to adopt innovative methods like mobile classrooms to ensure education continuity during crises.
• Global Examples of Mobile Classrooms:
• Countries like Japan and Indonesia have used mobile classrooms during disasters like earthquakes and tsunamis.
• In Syria, educational buses have been employed to educate children in war-torn areas.
• These programs have demonstrated success in keeping children engaged and ensuring minimal disruption to their education.

The correct answer is Ludhiana.

Key Points

• The women’s team from Ludhiana emerged as the champion in the 13^th Junior Punjab Baseball Championship, showcasing excellent teamwork and strategy.
• The championship was organized to promote baseball among young athletes in Punjab and encourage participation in sports at the grassroots level.
• The event featured teams from various cities across Punjab, including Amritsar, Moga, Ferozpur, and Ludhiana, competing for the prestigious title.
• Ludhiana’s team demonstrated exceptional skills in pitching, hitting, and fielding, securing their victory over other competing teams.
• The championship is an annual event that aims to identify and nurture talented players who can represent Punjab at the national level.

Additional Information

• Baseball in Punjab:
• Punjab has emerged as a key state in promoting baseball, with several championships held annually to encourage participation and skill development.
• The state has a dedicated Punjab Baseball Association that organizes tournaments and training camps for players of all age groups.
• Baseball is gaining popularity among youth in Punjab, with increasing participation in school and college-level competitions.
• Ludhiana’s Sports Culture:
• Ludhiana is known for its active participation in sports, with athletes excelling in various disciplines like baseball, cricket, hockey, and athletics.
• The city has several sports academies and facilities that nurture young talent and prepare them for state and national-level competitions.
• Ludhiana’s players have consistently performed well in regional and national championships, earning recognition for their dedication and skill.
• Importance of Junior Championships:
• Junior-level championships like the 13^th Junior Punjab Baseball Championship play a crucial role in identifying young talent and providing them with a competitive platform.
• These tournaments help players gain valuable experience and prepare them for higher-level competitions.
• Such events also promote physical fitness, teamwork, and discipline among youth, contributing to their overall development.
• Baseball Basics:
• Baseball is a bat-and-ball sport played between two teams, where players aim to score runs by hitting a pitched ball and running around bases.
• The game emphasizes skills like pitching, hitting, fielding, and strategic teamwork.
• Globally, baseball is popular in countries like the United States, Japan, and South Korea, with professional leagues attracting millions of fans.

Important Points

• Punjab Baseball Association:
• The Punjab Baseball Association is responsible for promoting baseball in the state, organizing tournaments, and training camps for players.
• It works in collaboration with schools, colleges, and local clubs to increase participation in the sport.
• Ludhiana’s Contribution:
• Ludhiana has been a consistent contributor to sports in Punjab, producing players who excel at regional and national levels.
• The city’s sports facilities and coaching centers play a significant role in nurturing young talent.
• Growth of Baseball in India:
• Baseball is gradually gaining recognition in India, with efforts to promote the sport at the grassroots level.
• Regional championships like the Junior Punjab Baseball Championship are essential for the sport’s development and popularity.

The correct answer is Anandkumar Velkumar.

Key Points

• Anandkumar Velkumar won the gold medal in the 42 km marathon at the 2025 World Speed Skating Championships, showcasing exceptional endurance and speed.
• The World Speed Skating Championships is a prestigious international event that attracts top athletes from around the globe to compete in various skating disciplines.
• Anandkumar Velkumar is an Indian athlete known for his remarkable performance in long-distance skating events and has been a significant figure in promoting the sport in India.
• This victory marks a historic achievement for India in the field of speed skating, as it demonstrates the growing talent and recognition of Indian athletes on the global stage.
• The marathon event required athletes to complete a grueling 42 km skating course, demanding high levels of physical fitness, mental resilience, and strategic pacing.

Additional Information

• World Speed Skating Championships:
• The World Speed Skating Championships is an annual event organized by the International Skating Union (ISU) that includes races in various distances such as sprints, middle distances, and marathons.
• Athletes from different countries compete to win medals and gain international recognition in the sport of speed skating.
• The event is a platform to showcase the highest level of skill, speed, and endurance in skating.
• Anandkumar Velkumar:
• Anandkumar Velkumar is an Indian speed skater who has consistently represented India in international skating championships.
• He has achieved notable recognition for his performances in various national and international events, making him a prominent figure in Indian speed skating.
• His success in the 2025 World Speed Skating Championships is a testament to his dedication, rigorous training, and skill.
• 42 km Marathon:
• The 42 km marathon is a long-distance skating event that tests an athlete's stamina, strategy, and ability to maintain consistent speed over extended periods.
• Participants must balance speed and endurance while navigating challenges such as turns, slopes, and competition dynamics.
• The marathon format is similar to traditional running marathons but is conducted on skates, adding an element of skill and balance.
• India’s Growing Presence in Speed Skating:
• India has been steadily developing its presence in speed skating, with increasing participation in international competitions.
• The success of athletes like Anandkumar Velkumar highlights the potential and talent in India’s sports sector, encouraging more investments and training facilities for skating.
• This victory serves as an inspiration for young athletes in India to pursue speed skating professionally.

Important Points

• International Skating Union (ISU):
• The ISU is the governing body for ice skating and speed skating sports worldwide.
• It organizes world championships and sets regulations for competitions, ensuring fair play and safety for athletes.
• Preparation for Marathon Events:
• Athletes undergo rigorous training that includes endurance exercises, speed drills, and mental conditioning.
• Proper nutrition and hydration are critical to maintaining energy levels during long-distance events.
• Technological advancements in skating gear also play a significant role in enhancing performance.

The correct answer is Blood cancers.

Key Points

• CAR-T cell therapy is a revolutionary form of immunotherapy designed to treat certain types of blood cancers, such as leukemia, lymphoma, and multiple myeloma.
• It involves genetically modifying a patient's T cells (a type of white blood cell) to target and destroy cancer cells.
• CAR-T therapy is particularly effective in cases where patients have relapsed or are resistant to conventional treatments, such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy.
• This therapy works by equipping the T cells with chimeric antigen receptors (CARs), which enable them to identify specific proteins on the surface of cancer cells.
• CAR-T cell therapy has shown remarkable success in treating B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and large B-cell lymphoma, leading to long-term remission in many patients.

Additional Information

• How CAR-T Cell Therapy Works:
• Blood is drawn from the patient to isolate T cells.
• In a laboratory, these T cells are genetically engineered to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs), which allow them to recognize and attack cancer cells.
• The modified T cells are expanded and then infused back into the patient's body, where they actively seek and destroy cancer cells.
• Advantages of CAR-T Cell Therapy:
• Offers a targeted approach to cancer treatment, minimizing damage to healthy cells.
• Has the potential to provide long-lasting remission for patients with certain blood cancers.
• Shows effectiveness in cases where other treatments fail, making it a vital option for patients with drug-resistant or relapsed cancers.
• Challenges and Limitations:
• High cost of treatment can make it inaccessible for many patients.
• Side effects such as Cytokine Release Syndrome (CRS) and neurological toxicity may occur.
• Currently, CAR-T cell therapy is mostly approved for treating blood cancers; its effectiveness in solid tumors is still being researched.
• Global Development:
• CAR-T cell therapy was first approved by the US FDA in 2017 for B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia and large B-cell lymphoma.
• Countries like China, Germany, and India have also begun adopting CAR-T therapies, with ongoing research to expand its applications.

Important Points

• Eligibility: CAR-T cell therapy is typically reserved for patients who have not responded to traditional treatments like chemotherapy.
• Cost: The therapy is expensive, with costs exceeding $300,000 in some cases.
• Research: Efforts are underway to expand CAR-T therapy applications to solid tumors and other diseases.
• Success Rate: Studies show a success rate of around 70-90% in achieving remission for certain blood cancers$.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• The Vaishali Pillar Inscription, an important relic from the Mauryan Empire, is located in the state of Bihar, India.
• The pillar is attributed to Emperor Ashoka, who ruled during the 3^rd century BCE and is renowned for spreading the message of Dhamma and promoting Buddhism.
• The Vaishali Ashokan Pillar is made of a single piece of polished sandstone and is topped by a lion capital, symbolizing strength and authority.
• This pillar is located near the village of Kolhua in Vaishali, which is also historically significant as the birthplace of Lord Mahavira, the 24^th Tirthankara of Jainism.
• The inscription on the pillar represents Ashoka's commitment to his subjects and his efforts to promote peace, non-violence, and ethical governance.

Additional Information

• About Emperor Ashoka:
• Emperor Ashoka (268–232 BCE) was one of the greatest rulers of ancient India and a key figure in the history of Buddhism.
• He adopted the policy of Dhamma (righteousness) after the Kalinga War, emphasizing moral values, tolerance, and welfare for all beings.
• Ashoka is credited with the establishment of numerous edicts and inscriptions across his empire, written in Prakrit and other regional languages.
• Vaishali:
• Vaishali is an ancient city in present-day Bihar and holds immense historical and religious importance.
• It was the capital of the Vajjian Confederacy and is considered one of the first examples of a republican system of governance in the world.
• The city is associated with both Buddhism and Jainism. Lord Buddha delivered his last sermon here, and it is also the birthplace of Lord Mahavira.
• Ashokan Pillars:
• The Ashokan Pillars are a series of columns erected throughout the Indian subcontinent during Ashoka's reign to spread his message of Dhamma.
• These pillars are notable for their craftsmanship, inscriptions, and animal capitals, such as lions, bulls, and elephants.
• The lion capital of the Sarnath pillar was adopted as the national emblem of India.
• Other Locations of Ashokan Pillars:
• Some prominent locations of Ashokan pillars include Sarnath (Uttar Pradesh), Lauriya Nandangarh (Bihar), Rampurva (Bihar), and Delhi.
• Each pillar typically contains inscriptions in Brahmi script, detailing Ashoka's edicts and his commitment to Dhamma.

Important Points

• The Vaishali Ashokan Pillar is unique as it is associated with both Buddhism and Jainism, showcasing the religious harmony and historical significance of the region.
• The lion capital of the Vaishali pillar is symbolic of Ashoka's strong yet compassionate rule.
• Vaishali is a UNESCO tentative site and a key destination for heritage and religious tourism in India.
• The Ashokan inscriptions provide vital insights into ancient Indian polity, society, and religious practices.

The correct answer is Total value of goods and services produced within the country during a year.

Key Points

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country's borders in a specific time period, typically measured annually.
• GDP is a comprehensive measure used to capture the economic performance of a nation and is considered one of the most important indicators of a country's economic health.
• It includes the value of all final goods and services produced, meaning intermediate goods (used in production) are excluded to avoid double counting.
• GDP is measured in three main ways: Production Approach (output method), Income Approach (earnings method), and Expenditure Approach (spending method).
• It is a key indicator used globally by policymakers, economists, and analysts to gauge economic growth, compare economies, and make decisions on monetary and fiscal policies.

Additional Information

• Components of GDP:
• Consumption (C): The spending by households on goods and services, including durable goods (e.g., cars), non-durable goods (e.g., food), and services (e.g., healthcare).
• Investment (I): Expenditure on capital goods that will be used for future production, such as machinery, buildings, and infrastructure.
• Government Spending (G): The total government expenditure on goods and services, including salaries of public servants, public infrastructure projects, and defense spending.
• Net Exports (NX): Exports minus imports. It represents the value of a country's exports to the rest of the world minus the value of goods and services it imports.
• Types of GDP:
• Nominal GDP: Measures a country's economic output using current prices, without adjusting for inflation.
• Real GDP: Adjusts for inflation and reflects the true value of goods and services produced, providing a more accurate measure of economic growth.
• Per Capita GDP: GDP divided by the population, indicating the average economic output per person and often used as a measure of living standards.
• GDP vs GNP:
• Gross National Product (GNP): Includes the total value of goods and services produced by a country's residents, both domestically and abroad, whereas GDP focuses solely on production within the country's borders.
• For example, if a company based in India operates in the US, its revenue would contribute to India's GNP but not GDP.
• Significance of GDP:
• GDP growth indicates economic progress and is used by governments to evaluate and shape economic policies.
• It helps compare the economic performance of different countries and analyze trends over time.
• A high GDP often correlates with better living standards, higher employment rates, and increased investment opportunities.
• Limitations of GDP:
• GDP does not measure income inequality or the distribution of wealth within a country.
• It does not account for non-market activities (e.g., unpaid household labor) or environmental degradation.
• GDP focuses on quantity over quality, overlooking factors like happiness, health, or social well-being.

Given:

Discount = 29%

Profit = 29%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 − Discount)

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 + Profit)

Calculation:

⇒ Let Cost Price = 100

⇒ Selling Price = 100 × 129 ÷ 100

⇒ Selling Price = 129

⇒ Let Marked Price = M

⇒ 129 = M × (1 − 29 ÷ 100)

⇒ 129 = M × 71 ÷ 100

⇒ M = 129 × 100 ÷ 71

⇒ M = 181.69

⇒ Markup % = (181.69 − 100)

⇒ Markup % = 81.69

∴ The correct answer is 81.69%.

Given:

Discount = 11%

Selling price = ₹1,602

Formula Used:

Marked Price = Selling Price ÷ (1 - Discount ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Marked Price = ₹1,602 ÷ (1 - 11 ÷ 100)

⇒ Marked Price = ₹1,602 ÷ (1 - 0.11)

⇒ Marked Price = ₹1,602 ÷ 0.89

⇒ Marked Price = ₹1,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,800.

Given:

P and Q together can fill the cistern in 8 hours.

P alone can fill the cistern in 40 hours.

Formula Used:

Total work = LCM of individual times.

Work rate = Total work ÷ Time taken.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 8 and 40 = 40 units.

⇒ Work rate of P and Q together = 40 ÷ 8 = 5 units/hour.

⇒ Work rate of P alone = 40 ÷ 40 = 1 unit/hour.

⇒ Work rate of Q alone = 5 - 1 = 4 units/hour.

⇒ Time taken by Q alone = 40 ÷ 4 = 10 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Given:

Total marks per subject = 75

Total subjects = 4

Tanya: 50, 65, 60, 46

Daksh: 62, 70, 69, 56

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Total obtained ÷ Total maximum) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Total maximum marks = 75 × 4

⇒ Total maximum marks = 300

⇒ Tanya total = 50 + 65 + 60 + 46

⇒ Tanya total = 221

⇒ Tanya percentage = 221 ÷ 300 × 100

⇒ Tanya percentage = 73.67

⇒ Daksh total = 62 + 70 + 69 + 56

⇒ Daksh total = 257

⇒ Daksh percentage = 257 ÷ 300 × 100

⇒ Daksh percentage = 85.67

∴ The correct answer is 73.67% and 85.67%.

Given:

Length of train = 501 m

Length of tunnel = 149 m

Time = 26 seconds

Formula Used:

Total distance = Length of train + Length of tunnel

Speed = Total distance ÷ Time

Speed (in km/hr) = Speed (in m/s) × 18 ÷ 5

Calculation:

⇒ Total distance = 501 + 149 = 650 m

⇒ Speed (in m/s) = 650 ÷ 26 = 25 m/s

⇒ Speed (in km/hr) = 25 × 18 ÷ 5 = 90 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 90 km/hr.

Given:

Height = 97 cm

Diameter = 13 cm

Radius = 6.5 cm

Formula Used:

Internal surface area (open cylinder) = 2 × π × r × h + π × r²

Calculation:

⇒ Curved surface area = 2 × π × 6.5 × 97

⇒ = 2 × π × 630.5

⇒ = 1261π

⇒ Base area = π × (6.5)²

⇒ = π × 42.25

⇒ Total area = 1261π + 42.25π

⇒ Total area = 1303.25π

⇒ Using π = 22 ÷ 7

⇒ Total area = 1303.25 × 22 ÷ 7

⇒ Total area = 4095.9

∴ The correct answer is 4095.9.

Given:

20% of number + 360 = number

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Part ÷ 100) × Number

Calculation:

⇒ Let number = x

⇒ 20 ÷ 100 × x + 360 = x

⇒ 0.2x + 360 = x

⇒ x − 0.2x = 360

⇒ 0.8x = 360

⇒ x = 360 ÷ 0.8

⇒ x = 450

⇒ 70% of x = 70 ÷ 100 × 450

⇒ = 315

∴ The correct answer is 315.

Given:

Total = 11535

Deductions = 64, 32, 25

Ratio = 6 : 2 : 5

Formula Used:

Quantity = Ratio × common factor

Total = Sum of parts + deductions

Calculation:

⇒ Let shares after deduction = 6x, 2x, 5x

⇒ Actual A = 6x + 64

⇒ Actual B = 2x + 32

⇒ Actual C = 5x + 25

⇒ Total = (6x + 64) + (2x + 32) + (5x + 25)

⇒ 13x + 121 = 11535

⇒ 13x = 11535 − 121

⇒ 13x = 11414

⇒ x = 11414 ÷ 13

⇒ x = 878

⇒ B = 2x + 32

⇒ B = 1756 + 32

⇒ B = 1788

⇒ C = 5x + 25

⇒ C = 4390 + 25

⇒ C = 4415

⇒ Difference = 4415 − 1788

⇒ Difference = 2627

∴ The correct answer is 2627.

Given:

Average of 13 numbers = 13

Each number is multiplied by 9

Formula Used:

New average = Old average × Multiplier

Calculation:

⇒ New average = 13 × 9

⇒ New average = 117

∴ The correct answer is 117.

Given:

First 13 multiples of 12

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of terms) ÷ (Number of terms)

Sum of n multiples of x = x × [n(n + 1)] ÷ 2

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of first 13 multiples of 12 = 12 × [13 × (13 + 1)] ÷ 2

⇒ Sum = 12 × [13 × 14] ÷ 2

⇒ Sum = 12 × 182 ÷ 2

⇒ Sum = 2184 ÷ 2

⇒ Sum = 1092

⇒ Average = 1092 ÷ 13

⇒ Average = 84

∴ The correct answer is 84.

Given:

P = 10 days

Q = 15 days

R = 25 days

Formula Used:

Work = LCM of days

Work per day = LCM ÷ days

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 10, 15, 25 = 150

⇒ P's 1 day work = 150 ÷ 10 = 15

⇒ Q's 1 day work = 150 ÷ 15 = 10

⇒ R's 1 day work = 150 ÷ 25 = 6

⇒ Odd day work (P + Q) = 15 + 10 = 25

⇒ Even day work (P + R) = 15 + 6 = 21

⇒ Work in 2 days = 25 + 21 = 46

⇒ Work in 6 days = 3 × 46 = 138

⇒ Remaining work = 150 − 138 = 12

⇒ 7^th day (odd): work = 25

⇒ Required fraction of day = 12 ÷ 25

⇒ Total days = $6\frac{12}{25}$

∴ The correct answer is $6\frac{12}{25}$ days.

Given:

$9 \times (19 \times (4^2)) \div 11 + 80 - 19$

Formula Used:

$\text{BODMAS rule}$

Calculation:

$\Rightarrow 9 \times (19 \times 16) \div 11 + 80 - 19$

$\Rightarrow 9 \times 304 \div 11 + 80 - 19$

$\Rightarrow \frac{2736}{11} + 80 - 19$

$\Rightarrow \frac{2736}{11} + 61$

$\Rightarrow \frac{2736}{11} + \frac{671}{11}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{3407}{11}$

∴ The correct answer is $\frac{3407}{11}$

Given:

49

y

100

Formula Used:

49 : y = y : 100

49 × 100 = y × y

Calculation:

⇒ 49 × 100 = y²

⇒ 4900 = y²

⇒ y = √4900

⇒ y = 70

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Given:

Initial speed = 49 km/h

Reduction percentage = 46%

Formula Used:

Reduced speed = Initial speed × (1 - Reduction percentage ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Reduction percentage ÷ 100 = 46 ÷ 100 = 0.46

⇒ 1 - Reduction percentage ÷ 100 = 1 - 0.46 = 0.54

⇒ Reduced speed = 49 × 0.54 = 26.46 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 26.46 km/h.

Given:

Cost price₁ = 200

Loss = 30%

Gain = 75%

Formula Used:

Selling price = Cost price × (1 ± percentage)

Overall gain % = (Final amount − Initial cost) ÷ Initial cost × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Selling price₁ = 200 × (1 − 0.30)

⇒ Selling price₁ = 200 × 0.70 = 140

⇒ Cost price₂ = 140

⇒ Selling price₂ = 140 × (1 + 0.75)

⇒ Selling price₂ = 140 × 1.75 = 245

⇒ Gain = 245 − 200 = 45

⇒ Gain % = (45 ÷ 200) × 100

⇒ Gain % = 22.5%

∴ The correct answer is 22.5%.

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle = 4 cm

Formula Used:

Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × side²

Calculation:

⇒ Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × 4²

⇒ Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × 16

⇒ Area = 4√3 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 4√3.

Given:

Principal = 29200

Rate = 8%

Time = 2 years

Formula Used:

Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)²

Calculation:

⇒ Difference = 29200 × (8 ÷ 100)²

⇒ Difference = 29200 × (64 ÷ 10000)

⇒ Difference = 29200 × 0.0064

⇒ Difference = 186.88

⇒ Rounded value = 186.9

∴ The correct answer is 186.9.

Given:

Salary per month = ₹9,880

Savings per month = 75%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Salary × (100% - Savings%)

Calculation:

⇒ Expenditure = ₹9,880 × (100% - 75%)

⇒ Expenditure = ₹9,880 × 25%

⇒ Expenditure = ₹9,880 × 25 ÷ 100

⇒ Expenditure = ₹2,470

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,470.

Given:

Principal = ₹3,00,000

Rate of Interest = 5%

Time = 4 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (3,00,000 × 5 × 4) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (60,00,000) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = ₹60,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹60,000.

Given:

$72, 63, 210$, 112

Formula Used:

Prime factorization

LCM = Product of highest powers of all prime factors

Calculation:

⇒ 72 = 2³ × 3²

⇒ 63 = 3² × 7

⇒ 210 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7

⇒ 112 = 2⁴ × 7

⇒ LCM = 2⁴ × 3² × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 16 × 9 × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 5040

∴ The correct answer is 5040.

The correct answer is Option 4: Reverential.

Key Points

• The tone of the passage is reverential, which reflects deep respect or admiration.
• Option 4, "Reverential," is the most appropriate description of the tone.
• The other options, "Informal," "Humorous," and "Critical," do not accurately describe the tone of the passage.

Additional Information

• Option 1, "Informal," would imply a casual or conversational tone, which is not evident in the passage.
• Option 2, "Humorous," would suggest the passage is funny or witty, which is not the case.
• Option 3, "Critical," would mean the passage is expressing disapproval or judgment, which is also not applicable.

The correct answer is Option 1: Socialite.

Key Points

• The word 'recluse' refers to someone who lives a solitary life and avoids social interaction.
• An antonym for 'recluse' would be someone who actively engages in social activities and interactions.
• Among the given options, 'Socialite' is the correct antonym, as it represents a person who is socially active and well-connected.
• The other options such as 'Insolent,' 'Philosopher,' and 'Hermit' do not fit as antonyms for 'recluse.'

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Explanation: The word 'Socialite' captures the essence of being the opposite of a recluse, as it describes someone who thrives in social environments.

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'Insolent' – This means rude or disrespectful, and is not related to the meaning of 'recluse.'
• Option 3: 'Philosopher' – This refers to a person engaged in the study of philosophy, which is unrelated to the term 'recluse.'
• Option 4: 'Hermit' – This is a synonym of 'recluse,' as it also refers to someone who lives in solitude.

The correct answer is Option 4: His deep connection with Zen philosophy.

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes Gaitonde's deep connection with Zen philosophy, showcasing how this philosophy influenced his artistic vision and approach.
• Gaitonde's art is known for its meditative and introspective qualities, reflecting the principles of Zen philosophy.
• His abstract art often invites viewers to experience a sense of stillness and contemplation, aligning with Zen ideals.
• Thus, the correct aspect highlighted in the passage is his deep connection with Zen philosophy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Additional Information

• Option 1: His extravagant lifestyle and wealth – The passage does not mention Gaitonde's lifestyle or wealth, making this option incorrect.
• Option 2: His influence on modern Western art – While Gaitonde's art is significant, the passage focuses on his connection with Zen philosophy rather than his influence on Western art.
• Option 3: His collaboration with other artists – There is no mention of collaborations in the passage, making this option irrelevant.

The correct answer is Option 2: The life and legacy of the Indian painter, Vasudeo Santu Gaitonde.

Key Points

• The central theme of the passage revolves around the life and legacy of the Indian painter, Vasudeo Santu Gaitonde.
• The passage highlights how Gaitonde's contributions to the world of art have influenced modern Indian painting.
• It explores his journey as an artist, his inclination towards abstract art, and his unique style that set him apart from his contemporaries.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Explanation: The passage does not focus on the commercialization of art, the rise of abstract art in general, or the role of Zen philosophy in Western art. Instead, it provides an in-depth look at Vasudeo Santu Gaitonde's life and achievements.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The commercialisation of art in modern India and its results" – This is not the focus of the passage, as it does not delve into the commercialization aspect of Indian art.
• Option 3: "The rise of abstract art among painters in the 20^th Century" – While abstract art is mentioned, the passage specifically focuses on Gaitonde's contributions rather than the broader trend of abstract art.
• Option 4: "The role of Zen philosophy in Western art and its impact" – This is incorrect as the passage does not discuss Zen philosophy or its influence on Western art.

The correct answer is Option 1: The artist should begin by absorbing silence and stillness.​

Key Points

• Gaitonde's philosophy emphasizes the importance of silence and stillness as a foundational element for artistic creation.
• He believed that absorbing silence allows an artist to connect deeply with their inner self and creative vision.
• Rather than focusing solely on vibrant colors or bold designs, his approach was introspective and meditative.
• This makes option 1 the correct summary of Gaitonde's philosophy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Explanation: Gaitonde's artwork reflects his unique philosophy, where silence and stillness play a pivotal role in inspiring creativity and depth.

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Painting should reflect vibrant colours and bold designs" – While Gaitonde's paintings are visually striking, his philosophy was rooted in introspection rather than a focus on external vibrancy.
• Option 3: "Art should be created quickly and spontaneously" – Gaitonde's process was meticulous and meditative, not rushed or spontaneous.
• Option 4: "The artist must prioritize fame over artistic purity" – Gaitonde valued artistic integrity and purity over fame.

The correct answer is: Omnivorous.

Key Points

• The word "Omnivorous" refers to an organism that eats both plants and animals as food. (सर्वभक्षी)
• Example: Bears are omnivorous animals as they consume both plants like berries and animals like fish.
• Explanation: The given group of words "eating both plants and animals" describes the diet of an omnivorous organism. (सर्वभक्षी)
• Example: Humans are generally considered omnivorous because they consume a variety of food sources, including vegetables, fruits, and meat.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Omnivorous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Piscivorous (मछलीभक्षी): Refers to animals that primarily eat fish.
• Example: Penguins are piscivorous as their diet mainly consists of fish.
• Frugivorous (फलभक्षी): Refers to animals that primarily eat fruits.
• Example: Many species of bats are frugivorous as they feed on fruits like bananas and mangoes.
• Granivorous (अन्नभक्षी): Refers to animals that primarily eat seeds and grains.
• Example: Sparrows are granivorous birds as they eat seeds and grains as their main food source.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. "To be well prepared for something that is going to happen".

Key Points

• The idiom "To get one's ducks in a row" refers to the act of organizing or preparing everything meticulously before undertaking a task or event. (अपने काम को व्यवस्थित करना)
• Example: Before starting the big project, she made sure to get her ducks in a row by gathering all the necessary resources and information.
• "To be well prepared for something that is going to happen" means ensuring all preparations are complete to achieve the desired outcome. (आगामी घटना के लिए अच्छी तैयारी करना)
• Example: The team got their ducks in a row before the presentation to make sure everything went smoothly.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To socialise with a large group (एक बड़े समूह के साथ मेलजोल बढ़ाना): This refers to interacting with or mingling among a large gathering of people.
• Example: She loves to socialise with a large group at community events.
• Option 2: To engage in a competitive activity (प्रतिस्पर्धात्मक गतिविधि में भाग लेना): This refers to participating in an activity where individuals or teams compete against each other.
• Example: He engages in competitive activities like chess tournaments every weekend.
• Option 3: To finalise an agreement hastily (जल्दबाजी में समझौते को अंतिम रूप देना): This implies rushing to conclude an agreement without thorough consideration.
• Example: They finalised the deal hastily without reviewing the terms properly.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. DECAB .

Key Points

• The sentences need to be arranged in a logical sequence to form a coherent paragraph.
• Sentence 'D' introduces Manav Singh and establishes the context of farming.
• Sentence 'E' builds upon the introduction by describing the challenges his father faces, such as groundwater depletion and irregular rains.
• Sentence 'C' provides a potential solution to the irrigation problem—using canal irrigation initiated by the government.
• Sentence 'A' shifts the focus to a broader perspective, discussing the need to meet global crop demands through either land expansion or productivity enhancement.
• Sentence 'B' concludes by highlighting the ecological and social trade-offs of expanding agricultural land, particularly in tropical regions.

Correct sentence order: D, E, C, A, B.

Additional Information

• Jumbled Sentence Tips:
• Identify the sentence that introduces the topic or main character (often the first sentence).
• Look for sentences that provide supporting details or expand upon the introduction.
• Check for sentences that provide solutions, broader perspectives, or conclusions (often placed towards the end).
• Ensure the paragraph flows logically and is coherent.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. "meassures".

Key Points

• The word "meassures" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "measures". (मापन / उपाय)
• English meaning of "meassures": (Incorrect spelling) Does not have a valid meaning in English.
• English meaning of "measures": An action or step taken to achieve a particular purpose, or a standard unit used to express the size, amount, or degree of something. (उपाय / मापदंड)
• Example of "measures": The government has implemented strict measures to control pollution.
• The incorrect spelling "meassures" likely resulted from adding an extra "s".
• The correct spelling is "measures" and should be used in the given sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Committee (समिति): A group of people appointed for a specific function or task.
• Example: The committee will review the project proposal before approval.
• Option 2: Presented (प्रस्तुत किया): To show or offer something for others to consider or judge.
• Example: She presented her research findings at the conference.
• Option 3: Address (संबोधित करना / निपटना): To speak to someone or to deal with a problem or issue.
• Example: The mayor addressed the concerns of the citizens during the meeting.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. comprehensive.

Key Points

• The word "in-depth" refers to a thorough and detailed examination or description of a subject. (गहराई से)
• Example: The scientist conducted an in-depth study of climate change effects on marine life.
• "Comprehensive" means covering all or nearly all elements or aspects of something; complete and thorough. (व्यापक)
• Example: The report provided a comprehensive overview of the company's financial performance over the last decade.
• Hence, the word "comprehensive" aligns with the meaning of "in-depth" as detailed and thorough.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Brief (संक्षिप्त): Short in duration or length; not detailed.
• Example: The manager gave a brief explanation of the new policies during the meeting.
• Indistinct (अस्पष्ट): Not clear or sharply defined; vague.
• Example: The image was indistinct and difficult to interpret due to poor lighting.
• Shallow (उथला): Lacking depth; superficial or not thorough.
• Example: His shallow understanding of the topic led to a weak argument during the debate.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. succes.

Key Points

• The word "succes" is incorrectly spelled. It is missing an additional 's'.
• English Meaning: The term "succes" does not exist in the English language as it is a misspelling.
• Hindi Meaning: Not applicable as it is an incorrect word.
• Example: Not applicable as the word is incorrect.
• The correct spelling is "success".
• English Meaning: The accomplishment of an aim or purpose. (सफलता)
• Hindi Meaning: सफलता
• Example: Hard work and determination often lead to success in life.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Momentous (महत्वपूर्ण): Of great importance or significance.
• Example: The signing of the treaty was a momentous occasion in history.
• Partial (आंशिक): Existing only in part; incomplete.
• Example: The project was only a partial success because the deadline was missed.
• Enterprise (उद्यम): A project or undertaking, typically one that is difficult or requires effort.
• Example: Starting a new business requires a lot of enterprise and determination.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. The ; the.

Key Points

• The sentence refers to a specific window and answer keys, making the use of the definite article "the" necessary.
• Definite articles are used to refer to something specific or previously mentioned in a context.
• The phrase "The window for students to challenge the answer keys" is grammatically correct and fits the context.

Correct sentence: The window for students to challenge the answer keys will be open till 9 July 2024.

Additional Information

• Usage of Articles:
• "The": Refers to something specific or previously mentioned. Example: "The book on the table is mine."
• "A/An": Refers to something non-specific or mentioned for the first time. Example: "I saw a bird in the park."
• Context in Sentences:
• Always analyze the context to determine whether the subject is specific or general.
• Specific subjects require "the" while general ones may use "a/an".

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. has been experiencing .

Key Points

• The sentence is in the present perfect continuous tense, which is used to describe an action that started in the past and is still continuing.
• The phrase "since last week" indicates a time duration, making the present perfect continuous tense the appropriate choice.
• The correct form of the verb is "has been experiencing", as it correctly conveys the meaning of an ongoing action.

Correct sentence: She has been experiencing fever and cough since last week.

Additional Information

• Present Perfect Continuous Tense:
• Structure: Subject + has/have been + verb (-ing) + time duration.
• Example: I have been studying for three hours.
• Usage: Describes actions that started in the past and are still continuing.
• Incorrect Options:
• Option 2 (will have experienced): Refers to a future action, which does not fit the time frame indicated by "since last week."
• Option 3 (has been experienced): This is grammatically incorrect as "experienced" is a past participle and does not fit the continuous tense.
• Option 4 (is experiencing): Refers to an ongoing present action but does not align with the "since last week" time frame.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. The ; the .

Key Points

• The sentence requires definite articles to specify the "Education Department" and the "school education department's purview."
• The definite article "The" is used to refer to a specific noun that is known to both the speaker and the listener.
• In the given sentence, both references are specific and require the definite article "The".

Correct sentence: The Education Department flagged 4,907 names, later excluding 1,190 college teachers, as they were outside the school education department's purview.

Additional Information

• Usage of Articles:
• "A" or "An": Used with singular nouns when referring to something for the first time or something non-specific.
• "The": Used with singular and plural nouns to refer to something specific or previously mentioned.
• Example Sentences:
• Indefinite Article: A teacher visited the school yesterday.
• Definite Article: The teacher who visited yesterday was very experienced.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. within .

Key Points

• The blank requires a preposition that indicates the time frame within which the customer will receive the product.
• The word "within" is used to indicate that something will happen before a specific time or inside a certain time limit.
• Other options are incorrect:
• "since": Refers to a point in time in the past to now; does not fit the sentence context.
• "during": Refers to something happening throughout the course of a time period; does not apply here.
• "before": Indicates something happening earlier than a specific time; it is not suitable for the intended meaning.

Correct sentence: The customer will receive the product within 10 days after the successful payment.

Additional Information

• Preposition Usage:
• "Within": Refers to a time frame or boundary (e.g., "within two days").
• "Since": Refers to a starting point in time up to the present moment (e.g., "since Monday").
• "During": Refers to something happening throughout a time period (e.g., "during the meeting").
• "Before": Refers to something happening earlier than a specific time (e.g., "before sunset").