DSSSB TGT (Maths) Official Paper (Held On: 12 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only G is kept above A. 2. Only two boxes are kept between A and F. 3. Only E is kept below C. 4. B is not kept immediately above F.

Two boxes are kept between D and E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Equation: 44×11÷9−7+15 = ?

‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

After interchanging the signs:

44 ÷ 11 × 9 + 7 − 15

Applying BODMAS Rule:

⇒ 44 ÷ 11 × 9 + 7 − 15

= 4 × 9 + 7 − 15

= 36 + 7 − 15

= 43 − 15

= 28

Hence, the correct option is "Option 4".

LINE – NELI – IELN

FIND – NDFI – IDFN

Similarly,

Option (1): JUMP – MPJU – UPJM

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic: (1^st number × 3^rd number × 4) = 2^nd number

Now,

For (3, 24, 2)

⇒ 3 × 2 × 4 = 24

For (5, 80, 4)

⇒ 5 × 4 × 4 = 80

Checking options:

Option 2: (4, 112, 7)

⇒ 4 × 7 × 4 = 112 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

(1) IM-LP

(2) KO-NR

(3) QU-TX

(4) TY-AW

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given:

Total students in the row = 56

Yen is 21^st from the right end.

Dollar is 19 positions to the left of Yen.

Total = Left position + Right position - 1

So, Yen's position from the left = 56 - 21 + 1

= 36

Dollar is 19 positions to the left of Yen:

Dollar's position from left = 36 - 19

= 17

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: (Left) 328 475 234 153 782 (Right)

Highest number = 782

Second digit of the highest number = 8

Lowest number = 153 

Third digit of the lowest number = 3

Now, 8 + 3 = 11

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

(1) MO-RK

(2) SU-XQ

(3) PR-UM

(4) KM-PI

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

According to the given information,

 

Given equation: P % Q # R + S → P is wife of Q, Q is father of R and R is sister of S.

(1) P is the wife of S → False

(2) R is the daughter of Q → True

(3) Q is the father of S → True

(4) P is the mother of R → True

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.()M−A×T÷E−C×N÷ → M is brother of A, A is wife of T, T is father of E, E is brother of C, C is wife of N and N is father of Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given: Recently, the water level in Reservoir X reached a critically low point, affecting the water supply to communities in the downstream areas. Experts attribute this to a prolonged drought situation in the region.

I. A prolonged drought situation is responsible for the low water level in Reservoir X → The text explicitly states: "Experts attribute this [low water level] to a prolonged drought situation in the region." Since we must assume all given information is true, it is a direct and logical conclusion that the drought is responsible for the reservoir's status. it canbe drawn as a conclusion.

II. Constructing more dams upstream will resolve the water supply problems faced by the communities in the downstream areas → The text does not mention construction, additional dams, or potential solutions. In fact, constructing more dams upstream would likely further restrict the flow of water to downstream communities, potentially worsening their situation. Because this information is not supported by the text, it cannot be drawn as a conclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

(I): No apples are pears → Does not follow (There is no direction given between apples and pears. so, it is not followed).

(II): Some grapes are bananas → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between grapes and bananas. so, it is possible not definite).

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

K, L, M, N, U, V and X are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. U sits to the immediate right of K.
2. Only three people sit between U and N when counted from the left of U.
3. Only three people sit between K and V.
4. L sits to the immediate right of X. 

Two people sit between M and X when counted from the left of X.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 88 A 8 C 83 D 16 B 3 = ?

Replacing symbols:

A = ÷, B = ×, C = +, D = −

⇒ 88 ÷ 8 + 83 − 16 × 3 = ?

⇒ 88 ÷ 8 + 83 − 16 × 3 = ?

⇒ 11 + 83 − 48 = ?

⇒ 11 + 83 − 48 = ?

⇒ 94 − 48 = 46

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Concept:

Vowels (A, E, I, O, U) → replaced by the letter two positions before them

Consonants → replaced by the next letter

Given words: OPT, SEW, DAY, BYE

Apply the rule

OPT → O→M, P→Q, T→U → MQU

SEW → S→T, E→C, W→X → TCX

DAY → D→E, A→Y, Y→Z → EYZ

BYE → B→C, Y→Z, E→C → CZC

MQU → contains vowel U 

TCX → contains no vowel 

EYZ → contains vowel E 

CZC → contains no vowel 

Groups without vowels = 2

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

According to the given information,

To reach point A again, he should drive 11 - 5 = 6 km in East direction.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Check the differences:

35 − 14 = 21

62 − 35 = 27

95 − 62 = 33

134 − 95 = 39

The differences form a pattern:

21, 27, 33, 39 → increasing by +6

So next difference = 39 + 6 = 45

Now add it to the last term:

134 + 45 = 179

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic: (1^st number × 3) − 3 = 2^nd number

Now,

For 10 - 27

⇒ (10 × 3) − 3 = 30 − 3 = 27 

For 8 - 21

⇒ (8 × 3) − 3 = 24 − 3 = 21 

For 13 - 54

⇒ (13 × 3) − 3 = 39 − 3 = 36 ≠ 54 

For 7 - 18

⇒ (7 × 3) − 3 = 21 − 3 = 18 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

‘sir rat scale’ is coded as 'fn am yr'

And ,

‘scale kid bow’ is coded as ‘gh dv am’. 

Code for "scale" is "am".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body established under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Annual Report of the UPSC is submitted by its Chairman to the President of India, as mandated by Article 323(2) of the Constitution.
• After the President receives the report, it is forwarded to the Parliament for discussion and review.
• The Annual Report contains details about the activities, performance, and recommendations of the UPSC for the preceding year.
• The report is crucial for ensuring transparency in the functioning of the UPSC and facilitating legislative oversight.

Additional Information

• Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):
• Established in 1926 as the Public Service Commission, it was reconstituted as the UPSC after Independence.
• UPSC is responsible for conducting examinations for civil services, defense services, and other government positions.
• It ensures merit-based recruitment and upholds the principles of fairness and impartiality.
• Article 323 of the Constitution:
• Article 323(1) outlines the composition of the UPSC, including the Chairman and other members.
• Article 323(2) mandates the submission of an annual report by the UPSC to the President.
• This article ensures accountability and provides a mechanism for performance evaluation of the UPSC.
• Role of the President:
• The President of India acts as the constitutional authority to whom the UPSC is directly accountable.
• The President forwards the UPSC’s Annual Report to the Parliament for scrutiny and public dissemination.
• Parliament's Role:
• The Parliament reviews the Annual Report submitted by the UPSC and discusses any recommendations or concerns raised.
• This ensures legislative oversight of the functioning of the UPSC.

Important Points

• UPSC Composition:
• The UPSC consists of a Chairman and other members appointed by the President of India.
• The members typically have extensive experience in administration, academia, or other relevant fields.
• The tenure of the Chairman and other members is 6 years or until they reach the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• UPSC Functions:
• Conducting examinations like the Civil Services Examination, Indian Forest Service Examination, and Engineering Services Examination.
• Advising the government on matters related to recruitment, promotion, and disciplinary actions.
• Providing recommendations on framing and amending recruitment rules.
• Historical Context:
• The UPSC was originally set up under the Government of India Act, 1935.
• Post-independence, its role and powers were expanded under the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is Bordoisila.

Key Points

• Bordoisila is the local name for Nor'westers in Assam. These are pre-monsoon thunderstorms that occur during the months of March to May.
• It is derived from Assamese folklore and refers to a strong wind associated with the arrival of spring and the transition to summer.
• Nor'westers, or Bordoisila, are known for their high-speed winds and intense rainfall, often accompanied by thunder and lightning.
• Bordoisila plays an essential role in replenishing soil moisture and is crucial for agricultural activities in Assam.
• These thunderstorms are typically caused by the interaction of moist air from the Bay of Bengal with dry, warm air over land, leading to convective activity and atmospheric instability.

Additional Information

• Mistral:
• The Mistral is a cold and dry northerly wind that blows from southern France toward the Mediterranean Sea, particularly during winter and spring.
• It is not related to thunderstorms or the climatic conditions of Assam.
• Loo:
• The Loo is a hot and dry wind that blows over northern India during the summer months, especially in May and June.
• It is associated with extreme heat and has no connection to Nor'westers or Assam's climate.
• Chinook:
• The Chinook is a warm, dry wind that occurs in the western United States and Canada, particularly in the Rocky Mountain region.
• It is known as a ""snow eater"" for its ability to quickly melt snow, and it is unrelated to thunderstorms like Bordoisila.
• Nor'westers:
• Nor'westers, also known as ""Kalbaisakhi"" in West Bengal and ""Bordoisila"" in Assam, are a seasonal phenomenon in eastern India.
• They bring short but intense thunderstorms, often causing damage to infrastructure and crops due to strong winds and hail.
• These storms are critical for agriculture as they provide moisture to the soil before the onset of the monsoon.
• The name ""Bordoisila"" is rooted in Assamese culture, symbolizing the arrival of seasonal change.

Important Points

• Impact on Agriculture: Bordoisila is crucial for Assam's agriculture as it helps prepare the soil for sowing before the monsoon season begins.
• Associated Risks: While beneficial, Bordoisila can also cause damage to property, crops, and infrastructure due to its high-speed winds and hail.
• Regional Variations: While Bordoisila is specific to Assam, Nor'westers are known by different names in other regions, such as Kalbaisakhi in West Bengal and Odisha.
• Scientific Explanation: These storms are caused by the convergence of moist air from the Bay of Bengal with dry, warm air over land, leading to convective thunderstorms.

The correct answer is Radicle.

Key Points

• The radicle is the embryonic root of a plant seed, which emerges during seed germination.
• The radicle is the first structure to appear when a seed germinates, and it grows downward into the soil to anchor the plant and absorb water and nutrients.
• The radicle grows into the primary root of the plant, which later develops into the root system.
• This structure is crucial for the initial establishment of the plant as it provides stability and access to essential resources for growth.
• Unlike the other options provided, the radicle is directly associated with seed anatomy and germination processes, making it the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Tegmina:
• The term tegmina refers to the hardened forewings found in certain insects, such as cockroaches and grasshoppers.
• These wings are not related to plant anatomy or seed germination.
• Pronotum:
• The pronotum is the dorsal plate of the first segment of the thorax in insects.
• It is entirely unrelated to plants or seeds.
• Abdomen:
• The abdomen is the posterior part of an insect's body, containing digestive and reproductive organs.
• It is not associated with plant anatomy or seed germination.
• Seed Anatomy:
• Seeds consist of three main parts: the embryo, endosperm, and seed coat.
• The embryo contains the radicle (root), plumule (shoot), and cotyledons (seed leaves).
• The radicle is the part of the embryo that develops into the root system of the plant.
• Seed Germination Process:
• During germination, the seed absorbs water, leading to the activation of enzymes that trigger growth.
• The radicle emerges first, followed by the plumule, which develops into the shoot system.
• Environmental factors such as temperature, oxygen, and moisture are essential for successful germination.

Important Points

• Plant Growth: The radicle serves as the foundation for the plant’s growth, enabling the plant to access water and nutrients from the soil.
• Seed Types: Seeds can be monocotyledonous (e.g., maize) or dicotyledonous (e.g., beans), but the radicle is present in both types.
• Functions of the Radicle: It anchors the plant in the soil and ensures stability during early development.
• Botanical Studies: Understanding seed anatomy, including the radicle, is essential for agricultural science and plant breeding.

The correct answer is Jain Deemed to be University.

Key Points

• Jain Deemed to be University in Bengaluru was awarded the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar (RKPP) 2023 for identifying and nurturing budding and young talent in sports.
• The RKPP is a prestigious award instituted by the Government of India to recognize entities that promote sports at the grassroots level and provide training and facilities to young athletes.
• Jain University has been instrumental in developing sports infrastructure and providing opportunities for athletes through its dedicated sports programs and initiatives.
• The university has produced several national-level athletes and Olympians, showcasing its commitment to sports development.
• This recognition highlights the university’s efforts in creating a robust ecosystem for sports excellence and fostering talent among the youth.

Additional Information

• Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar:
• The RKPP was established in 2009 to honor entities that contribute significantly to sports development in India.
• It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports under various categories such as sports promotion, training, and support for athletes.
• The award aims to encourage organizations and institutions to invest in sports and create pathways for young talent to excel.
• Jain Deemed to be University:
• Located in Bengaluru, Karnataka, Jain University is known for its emphasis on holistic education and extracurricular activities, especially sports.
• It has advanced sports facilities, including state-of-the-art stadiums, coaching centers, and fitness programs to groom athletes.
• Several alumni from Jain University have represented India in prestigious tournaments such as the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and Asian Games.
• Other Universities in Bengaluru:
• Alliance University: Known for academic excellence but less focused on sports infrastructure.
• RV University: A relatively new institution focusing primarily on education and research.
• Christ University: Renowned for cultural and academic activities but does not have a significant sports focus like Jain University.
• Importance of Sports Promotion:
• Sports promotion at the grassroots level helps identify talent early and provides necessary training to excel.
• Institutions like Jain University play a pivotal role in building a strong sports culture and ensuring India’s representation on global platforms.

Important Points

• RKPP Categories:
• Identification and nurturing of budding talent.
• Encouragement to sports through corporate social responsibility (CSR).
• Employment of sports persons and sports welfare measures.
• Sports for development initiatives.
• Other Notable Awardees:
• Institutions like ONGC, Railways, and Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) have also received RKPP in the past for their contribution to sports promotion.

The correct answer is alleles.

Key Points

• Alleles are alternative forms of a gene that exist at the same locus on homologous chromosomes. They are responsible for variations in inherited traits, such as eye color or blood type.
• Each organism inherits two alleles for each gene, one from each parent. These alleles may be identical (homozygous) or different (heterozygous).
• Alleles can be classified as dominant or recessive. A dominant allele expresses its trait even when paired with a recessive allele, while a recessive allele expresses its trait only when both alleles are recessive.
• The phenomenon of alleles being different or identical in a pair influences the genotype (genetic makeup) and phenotype (observable characteristics) of an organism.
• Examples of alleles include ABO blood groups, where the A, B, and O are different alleles of the same gene determining blood type.

Additional Information

• Factors:
• Factors were the term used by Gregor Mendel to describe units of inheritance before the discovery of genes.
• They are now understood to represent genes, the basic unit of heredity.
• Traits:
• Traits are the observable characteristics of an organism, such as height, eye color, or hair texture.
• They result from the interaction between genes and environmental factors.
• Hybrids:
• Hybrids are organisms that arise from the crossbreeding of two genetically different parents.
• For example, a mule is a hybrid of a horse and a donkey.
• Homologous Chromosomes:
• These are pairs of chromosomes in a diploid organism, one inherited from each parent, that have the same genes at the same loci.
• Each homologous chromosome may carry different alleles of a gene.
• Genetics:
• Genetics is the branch of biology that studies genes, inheritance, and variation in living organisms.
• It provides insights into how traits are passed from one generation to another and how genetic disorders occur.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• The Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli was merged with Daman and Diu to form a single Union Territory named Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu on 26 January 2020.
• The merger was carried out under the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019, which was passed by the Indian Parliament in December 2019.
• The merger aimed to improve administrative efficiency, reduce duplication of administrative infrastructure, and ensure better utilization of resources.
• The newly formed Union Territory has Daman as its capital, combining the administrative operations of the two previous Union Territories.
• Before the merger, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu were treated as separate Union Territories, each governed by its own Administrator.

Additional Information

• Reason for Merger:
• The merger was carried out to enhance efficiency in governance and reduce administrative costs.
• The two Union Territories had similar administrative structures and geographical proximity, making it feasible to combine them.
• The merger reduced the number of Union Territories in India from 9 to 8.
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli:
• Located in western India, it was a Union Territory since 1961 after its liberation from Portuguese rule.
• The territory is known for its lush greenery, tribal culture, and industrial development.
• Silvassa is the largest city in Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
• Daman and Diu:
• Daman and Diu were also liberated from Portuguese rule in 1961 and subsequently became Union Territories.
• Daman is famous for its beaches and historical sites, while Diu is known for its Portuguese architecture and cultural heritage.
• The territories had separate administrative setups prior to the merger.
• Administrative Changes:
• The merger meant that both territories would now function under a single Administrator, simplifying governance.
• All government departments and services were streamlined under a unified system to ensure better resource allocation and management.
• The capital of the new Union Territory, Daman, serves as the central hub for administrative activities.

Important Points

• Union Territories in India:
• India currently has 8 Union Territories, including Delhi, Chandigarh, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and others.
• Union Territories are governed directly by the Central Government, unlike states which have their own elected governments.
• The merger of Union Territories is governed by Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, which allows Parliament to reorganize states and territories.
• Historical Context:
• Both Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu were former Portuguese colonies before their liberation in 1961.
• Their cultural heritage, including Portuguese influence in architecture and traditions, continues to be a significant aspect of their identity.
• The merger represents a step toward better integration and administrative modernization.
• Significance of the Merger:
• The merger ensures economies of scale in governance and reduces overlapping administrative functions.
• It allows for better coordination of developmental initiatives and ensures efficient utilization of resources.
• The combined Union Territory now has a larger geographical area and population, making it easier to implement policies uniformly.

The correct answer is Raniganj in West Bengal.

Key Points

• Raniganj in West Bengal is the location where coal mining first began in India in the year 1774.
• The mining activity in Raniganj was initiated by the East India Company under the supervision of John Sumner and Suetonius Grant Heatly.
• Raniganj Coalfield is one of the oldest and most significant coalfields in India, contributing heavily to the industrialization of the country.
• The primary reason for selecting Raniganj was the abundance of coal reserves, which were essential for the functioning of industries and for powering locomotives during the British era.
• The coal extracted from Raniganj was extensively used for railway engines, manufacturing processes, and other energy requirements during the early phases of industrial development in India.

Additional Information

• Coal Mining History in India:
• Coal mining in India dates back to 1774, with the first excavation taking place in Raniganj. This marked the beginning of organized coal mining activities in India.
• Coal is a vital source of energy and has played a key role in the economic and industrial development of India.
• Post-independence, coal mining was nationalized in stages, leading to the establishment of organizations like Coal India Limited in 1975.
• Importance of Raniganj Coalfield:
• The Raniganj Coalfield is located in the Damodar River Valley, and its coal reserves are of high quality, primarily consisting of bituminous coal.
• It spans across the districts of Bardhaman and Paschim Bardhaman in West Bengal and partially into Jharkhand.
• The Raniganj Coalfield is renowned for its coking coal, which is used in steel-making processes.
• Coal Mining Process:
• The process involves exploration, extraction, processing, and distribution of coal to various industries.
• Coal mining activities can be categorized into surface mining and underground mining, depending on the depth and location of coal seams.
• India’s coal mining activities are overseen by organizations like Coal India Limited and its subsidiaries.
• Other Coalfields in India:
• Besides Raniganj, prominent coalfields in India include Jharia (Jharkhand), Bokaro (Jharkhand), Talcher (Odisha), Singrauli (Madhya Pradesh/Uttar Pradesh), and Korba (Chhattisgarh).
• These coalfields collectively contribute to India’s rank among the top coal-producing nations globally.

Important Points

• Coal Reserves in India: India has the fifth-largest coal reserves in the world, with major deposits concentrated in states like Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Contribution to Energy Sector: Coal accounts for nearly 55% of India’s energy requirements, making it a crucial component of the nation’s energy mix.
• Environmental Impacts: Coal mining has significant environmental consequences, including deforestation, land degradation, and air pollution, necessitating sustainable practices and technologies.
• Government Initiatives: The Indian government has introduced reforms to enhance coal production, such as commercial mining auctions to promote private sector participation.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• As per the report titled Vital Statistics of India based on Civil Registration System (CRS) 2023, Jharkhand recorded the lowest Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) in the country. The SRB indicates the number of female births per 1,000 male births.
• Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) is a critical indicator of gender equality, reflecting the societal preference for male children in some areas.
• The data is collected and analyzed under the Civil Registration System (CRS), which is managed by the Office of the Registrar General, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The report highlights regional disparities in SRB, with Jharkhand showing concerning figures, suggesting a need for focused policy interventions.
• The low SRB in Jharkhand could be attributed to cultural, social, and economic factors, including preferences for male offspring and inadequate implementation of laws against sex-selective practices.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB):
• The SRB is defined as the number of female live births per 1,000 male live births in a specific region and time period.
• It serves as a key demographic indicator to measure gender balance and identify regions where gender-based discrimination might exist.
• Civil Registration System (CRS):
• The CRS is an official system in India for the continuous, permanent, and compulsory recording of vital events, such as births and deaths.
• The data collected under CRS is critical for policymaking, especially for programs aimed at addressing gender disparities.
• Challenges Leading to Low SRB:
• Social norms and cultural biases often favor male children in patriarchal societies.
• Lack of awareness about gender equality and poor enforcement of laws like the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act exacerbate the issue.
• Steps to Improve SRB:
• Government schemes like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao aim to address the declining child sex ratio by promoting awareness and improving education for girls.
• Strict implementation of anti-sex determination laws and community-driven initiatives are crucial for improving SRB.

Important Points

• National Trends in SRB:
• According to the CRS 2023, the national average SRB has shown slight improvement due to targeted interventions.
• States like Kerala and Chhattisgarh reported higher SRB, indicating better gender equality.
• Relevant Legal Framework:
• The PCPNDT Act, 1994, prohibits sex selection and aims to prevent female foeticide.
• Stringent penalties are imposed on violators, including medical practitioners involved in illegal sex determination practices.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points

• The National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR) is located in Hyderabad, Telangana, India.
• It was established in 1958 as an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India.
• Its primary objective is to provide training, research, and consultancy services for rural development and Panchayati Raj institutions.
• The institute acts as a nodal center for capacity building and knowledge dissemination in rural development and decentralization governance in India.
• NIRDPR is internationally recognized for its efforts in promoting sustainable rural development through various programs and initiatives.

Additional Information

• Functions of NIRDPR:
• It offers training programs for government officials, NGOs, and other stakeholders involved in rural development.
• Conducts research in areas such as poverty alleviation, rural infrastructure, and sustainable development.
• Provides policy inputs to the Ministry of Rural Development and other government bodies for effective implementation of rural development programs.
• Promotes decentralized governance through Panchayati Raj institutions by providing training and capacity-building programs.
• Key Programs and Initiatives:
• Programs like MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) and PMAY-G (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin) are often supported by the institute through training and evaluation.
• Special focus on empowering women and marginalized communities in rural areas through skill development and livelihood programs.
• Other Centers of NIRDPR:
• The institute also has a North Eastern Regional Center (NERC) located in Guwahati, Assam, to cater to the specific needs of the northeastern states.
• Significance:
• The institute plays a vital role in achieving the goals of Sustainable Development in rural areas by addressing issues like poverty, unemployment, and inequality.
• It serves as a platform for sharing best practices and innovations in rural development across India and internationally.

Important Points

• Ministry of Rural Development:
• The Ministry of Rural Development is the nodal ministry for policy-making, planning, and coordination of programs for rural development in India.
• It oversees flagship schemes like PMGSY (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana) and NSAP (National Social Assistance Program).
• Panchayati Raj Institutions:
• These are the local self-government bodies in rural India, established under the 73^rd Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution.
• They play a crucial role in implementing development programs and ensuring grassroots democracy.
• Hyderabad:
• Hyderabad, the capital of Telangana, is known as a hub for education and research institutions like NIRDPR, IIT Hyderabad, and IIIT Hyderabad.
• It serves as a strategic location for organizations focusing on rural and regional development due to its connectivity and resources.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

Key Points

• Jharkhand, particularly Parasnath Hill (also known as Shikharji), is recognized as one of the most sacred Jain pilgrimage sites where 20 of the 24 Tirthankaras attained Moksha (liberation).
• Parasnath Hill is located in the Giridih district of Jharkhand and is the highest mountain in the state, standing at an elevation of approximately 1,365 meters.
• The site holds immense significance in Jainism as it is associated with the Nirvana Kanda, describing the final liberation of Jain monks and Tirthankaras.
• Among the 24 Tirthankaras, notable figures such as Shri Parshvanatha (the 23^rd Tirthankara) attained Moksha at Parasnath Hill.
• The site is a popular destination for Jain pilgrims, who undertake long treks to visit the sacred temples and shrines built on the hilltop.

Additional Information

• Parasnath Hill:
• It is named after the 23^rd Jain Tirthankara, Parshvanatha, who attained Moksha here.
• The hill is home to numerous Jain temples, collectively known as Shikharji.
• Shikharji is considered one of the most important pilgrimage sites for Jains, alongside places like Mount Abu and Palitana.
• The pilgrimage route spans approximately 27 km and involves visiting temples dedicated to various Tirthankaras.
• Jain Tirthankaras:
• Jainism recognizes 24 Tirthankaras, who are spiritual teachers guiding followers toward liberation.
• The Tirthankaras are believed to have attained Moksha (salvation) through spiritual enlightenment and detachment from worldly desires.
• Notable Tirthankaras include Rishabhanatha (the first Tirthankara) and Mahavira (the 24^th Tirthankara).
• Jain Scriptures:
• The Nirvana Kanda is a part of Jain texts that describe the liberation of Tirthankaras and monks.
• Jain literature emphasizes non-violence (Ahimsa), truth (Satya), and detachment (Aparigraha).
• Importance of Jharkhand:
• Jharkhand is known for its rich cultural heritage and natural landscapes, including forests, hills, and waterfalls.
• It is also home to various tribal communities and holds historical significance in India's socio-political movements.

Important Points

• Other Jain Pilgrimage Sites:
• Palitana: Located in Gujarat, it is home to Shatrunjaya Hill, where numerous Jain temples are built.
• Mount Abu: Rajasthan's Dilwara Temples are renowned for their intricate marble architecture.
• Shravanabelagola: Karnataka's Gomateshwara statue, dedicated to Lord Bahubali, is a significant site.
• Significance of Jainism:
• Jainism is one of the oldest religions in India, dating back to the 6^th century BCE.
• It promotes the principles of non-violence, truth, and spiritual discipline.
• Jains are known for their contributions to architecture, philosophy, and literature.

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points

• The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, enacted in 1969, aimed to prevent monopolistic and unfair trade practices in India. However, it was considered outdated and inadequate to address the needs of a modern and liberalized economy.
• The Competition Act, passed by the Parliament of India in 2002, replaced the MRTP Act to promote competition and curb anti-competitive practices in the market. This was in response to the changing dynamics of the Indian economy after liberalization in 1991.
• The Competition Act, 2002, was enacted to ensure fair competition by prohibiting practices such as abuse of dominant position, anti-competitive agreements, and mergers that adversely affect market competition.
• The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established under this Act to enforce its provisions and ensure healthy competition in the economy.
• The MRTP Act was officially repealed in 2009, but its replacement, the Competition Act, came into force starting from 2002, with provisions implemented gradually.

Additional Information

• Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act:
• The MRTP Act was enacted in 1969 to prevent monopolistic and restrictive trade practices in India.
• It primarily focused on curbing the concentration of economic power and ensuring consumer protection.
• However, the Act did not address issues related to competition, innovation, or globalization effectively.
• Competition Act, 2002:
• The Competition Act was introduced to replace the MRTP Act and align India's regulatory framework with global practices.
• Its primary aim was to promote fair competition, protect consumer interests, and ensure freedom of trade in Indian markets.
• The Act prohibits anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position, and regulates mergers and acquisitions that may adversely affect competition.
• Competition Commission of India (CCI):
• The CCI was established in 2003 under the Competition Act, 2002.
• It is responsible for enforcing the Act and ensuring fair competition across sectors in India.
• The CCI has the authority to investigate anti-competitive practices and impose penalties on entities found guilty of violating competition laws.
• Economic Liberalization in India:
• India's economic liberalization began in 1991, leading to the need for updated regulatory frameworks to address competition in a globalized market.
• The MRTP Act was inadequate to handle the complexities of a liberalized economy, necessitating the introduction of the Competition Act.
• Important Developments:
• The Competition Act was passed in 2002, but certain provisions were implemented gradually.
• The MRTP Act was repealed in 2009, but its replacement began with the enactment of the Competition Act in 2002.
• The shift from MRTP to the Competition Act marked a significant step in modernizing India's economic policies.

Important Points

• Global Context: The enactment of the Competition Act aligned India with global practices in competition law, which are essential for fostering innovation and economic growth.
• Consumer Protection: The Competition Act places a strong emphasis on protecting consumer interests by ensuring competitive pricing and access to quality goods and services.
• Regulatory Transition: The transition from MRTP to the Competition Act reflects India's commitment to modernizing its legal and economic frameworks.
• Enforcement Mechanism: The establishment of the CCI ensures robust enforcement of competition laws and provides a dedicated authority to regulate market dynamics.
• Impact: The Competition Act has played a crucial role in promoting fair trade practices and curbing anti-competitive behavior, contributing to India's economic growth and development.

The correct answer is Air India.

Key Points

• Air India launched a Digital Innovation Centre in Kochi in the year 2025, marking a significant technological milestone in India's aviation sector.
• The Digital Innovation Centre aims to leverage advanced digital technologies to enhance operational efficiency, improve customer service, and optimize various business processes.
• Kochi, located in Kerala, was chosen as the hub for this innovation centre due to its strategic geographical location and access to a skilled workforce, particularly in the field of information technology and digital innovation.
• Air India is one of India's oldest and most prominent airlines, now owned by the Tata Group after its privatization in 2022. This initiative is part of its broader strategy to modernize and digitally transform its operations.
• The Digital Innovation Centre is expected to focus on areas such as artificial intelligence, data analytics, cloud computing, and other emerging technologies to streamline processes and offer a better travel experience to customers.

Additional Information

• Air India:
• Founded: Air India was originally established in 1932 by J.R.D. Tata as Tata Airlines and later became a government-owned entity.
• Privatization: In 2022, Air India was acquired by the Tata Group, marking its return to its original founders after decades of government ownership.
• Fleet: Air India operates a diverse fleet of aircraft, including Airbus and Boeing models, catering to both domestic and international routes.
• It is known for its extensive network, connecting India with major cities worldwide.
• Kochi as a Technological Hub:
• Kochi has emerged as a leading city in technology and innovation, hosting several IT parks such as Infopark and SmartCity Kochi.
• The city is home to a highly skilled workforce specializing in software development, data analytics, and emerging technologies.
• Kochi's connectivity through its international airport and seaport makes it a strategic location for global business operations.
• Digital Transformation in Aviation:
• Airlines worldwide are increasingly adopting digital technologies to improve customer experience, manage operations, and enhance safety.
• Key technologies include AI-driven flight scheduling, predictive maintenance, and real-time passenger data analytics.
• Digital innovation centres like the one launched by Air India aim to stay competitive in the rapidly evolving aviation industry.
• Tata Group's Role:
• The Tata Group has been actively investing in technology-driven solutions across its various sectors, including aviation, steel, IT, and automobiles.
• Its acquisition of Air India aligns with its vision to modernize India's aviation sector and make Air India a globally competitive airline.
• The group also owns Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), a leader in digital transformation services globally.

Important Points

• Privatization of Air India: The privatization in 2022 marked a turning point in India's aviation history, enabling strategic investments in modernization and customer service.
• Digital Innovation Centres: Such centres are critical for industries to adapt to changing technological trends and meet customer expectations efficiently.
• Impact on Economy: Air India's digital initiatives are expected to create numerous job opportunities in the IT and aviation sectors, boosting local economies such as that of Kochi.
• Global Competitiveness: With initiatives like this, Air India aims to compete with leading global airlines, leveraging technology to enhance efficiency and customer satisfaction.

The correct answer is Article 343.

Key Points

• Article 343 of the Indian Constitution specifically deals with the official language of the Union. It declares that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script.
• It also states that the numerical forms used for official purposes shall be the international form of Indian numerals.
• However, the Constitution provides for the continued use of English for all official purposes of the Union for a period of 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution, which was extended later.
• Article 343(3) empowers the Parliament to provide by law for the continued use of English even beyond the initial 15-year period.
• This article forms the basis for the Official Languages Act, 1963, which allows the continued use of English along with Hindi for official purposes.

Additional Information

• Article 344:
• Deals with the constitution and functions of the Official Language Commission.
• The commission is tasked with making recommendations regarding the progressive use of Hindi as the official language of the Union and restrictions on the use of English.
• Article 345:
• Relates to the official language of states. It allows states to adopt any language for official purposes, including Hindi or the language spoken in the state.
• This provides flexibility to states in deciding their official language.
• Official Languages Act, 1963:
• This act ensures the continued use of English for official purposes alongside Hindi after the initial 15-year period mentioned in Article 343.
• The act was amended in 1967 to provide for the indefinite use of English as an associate official language in India.
• Constitutional Provisions for Language:
• The Constitution recognizes 22 languages under the Eighth Schedule, ensuring their promotion and development.
• Languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, and Marathi are part of this list, showcasing India's linguistic diversity.

Important Points

• Historical Context:
• The debate on the official language of India was one of the most contentious issues during the framing of the Constitution.
• Hindi was chosen as the official language, but provisions for the continued use of English were included to accommodate non-Hindi-speaking regions.
• Committee Recommendations:
• The Official Language Commission (1955) recommended measures for promoting Hindi while ensuring the continued use of English.
• These recommendations laid the foundation for the Official Languages Act, 1963.
• Controversies:
• The push for Hindi as the sole official language led to protests in southern states, particularly Tamil Nadu, during the 1960s.
• The protests resulted in amendments to the Official Languages Act, ensuring the use of English alongside Hindi.

The correct answer is Bonnard standard.

Key Points

• The Bonnard standard is a legal principle originating from English jurisprudence, which establishes that courts should avoid granting injunctions to restrain publications that might be defamatory unless it is clear that the statement is both false and defamatory.
• In the 2024 case involving Bloomberg, the Supreme Court of India reaffirmed the Bonnard standard, emphasizing the necessity of protecting freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
• The principle protects against prior restraint, which is a preventive measure that prohibits speech or publication before it occurs, thereby safeguarding the press's independence and ensuring a democratic flow of information.
• This standard is critical in defamation cases, as it prevents courts from issuing ex parte injunctions (orders given without hearing the opposing party) unless the publication is manifestly unjustifiable.
• The reaffirmation of the Bonnard standard underscores the Indian judiciary's commitment to balancing freedom of expression with responsible journalism, ensuring that democratic values remain intact.

Additional Information

• Bonnard Standard in Detail:
• Originating in the UK case of Bonnard v. Perryman (1891), this standard was developed to protect the right of free speech while ensuring justice in defamation matters.
• It requires the plaintiff to prove that the material is defamatory, false, and likely to cause irreparable harm before an injunction can be granted.
• Freedom of Speech in India:
• Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression to all citizens, subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2).
• Reasonable restrictions include considerations like national security, public order, decency, morality, defamation, or contempt of court.
• Defamation in Indian Law:
• Defamation is addressed under Section 499 and Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), defining defamation and prescribing punishments respectively.
• The IPC provides remedies for both civil and criminal defamation, with criminal defamation carrying penalties of imprisonment or fines.
• Ex Parte Injunctions:
• An ex parte injunction is granted without hearing the opposing party, often used in urgent situations to prevent irreparable harm.
• Such injunctions are controversial in defamation cases as they may suppress freedom of expression before the truth or falsity of the statement is determined.

Important Points

• Reynolds Defence:
• This legal principle originated in the UK and pertains to responsible journalism in cases involving public interest.
• It provides a defense to journalists and publishers against defamation claims if the publication involves matters of public importance and was created responsibly.
• Sullivan Principle:
• Originating in the US case **New York Times Co.

v. Sullivan (1964)**, this principle protects the press from defamation suits unless the plaintiff proves ""actual malice.""

• Actual malice means publishing false information knowingly or with reckless disregard for the truth.
• Hicklin Test:
• This principle, derived from the English case R v. Hicklin (1868), was used to determine obscenity based on whether a publication corrupted those susceptible to immoral influences.
• India initially adopted the Hicklin test but later moved to broader standards for determining obscenity.

The correct answer is IIT-Delhi.

Key Points

• Anna-Chakra tool is an advanced digital tool designed to enhance food security and nutrition planning. It is being developed in collaboration with the World Food Programme (WFP) and IIT-Delhi.
• IIT-Delhi, a premier Indian institute, is actively involved in the technical development of this tool to ensure data-driven decision-making for food distribution and monitoring.
• The tool integrates data analytics and geographical mapping to help policymakers identify areas with acute food insecurity and design targeted interventions.
• The World Food Programme contributes its expertise in global food security and logistics to improve the tool's efficiency and applicability.
• This initiative supports the broader goal of achieving Sustainable Development Goal 2 (Zero Hunger), ensuring food access for all, particularly vulnerable populations.

Additional Information

• Indian Institute of Technology (IIT-Delhi):
• Located in Delhi, India, IIT-Delhi is one of the leading institutions in science, technology, and engineering education in India.
• It is renowned for its research and innovation in diverse fields, including artificial intelligence, data analytics, and public policy tools.
• Ranked among the top institutes globally, IIT-Delhi plays a crucial role in addressing national and global challenges through technology.
• World Food Programme (WFP):
• The World Food Programme is the United Nations' largest humanitarian organization addressing hunger and promoting food security globally.
• It was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020 for its efforts to combat hunger, improve conditions for peace in conflict areas, and prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war.
• WFP operates in over 80 countries, providing food assistance and supporting sustainable development initiatives.
• Anna-Chakra Tool:
• The tool uses big data and geospatial technology to assess food distribution systems and address malnutrition effectively.
• It aims to identify gaps in food supply chains and provide actionable insights for policymakers.
• It aligns with India's efforts to improve its Public Distribution System (PDS) and reduce food wastage.
• Sustainable Development Goal 2 (Zero Hunger):
• One of the 17 SDGs adopted by the United Nations in 2015, it aims to end hunger, achieve food security, improve nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture by 2030.
• India's initiatives such as the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and Mid-Day Meal Scheme are critical steps toward achieving this goal.

Important Points

• Other IITs:
• IIT-Bombay: Known for its innovation and research in engineering and technology, but not related to the Anna-Chakra tool.
• IIT-Madras: Focuses on areas like clean energy and artificial intelligence, but not involved in this project.
• IIT-Kharagpur: Specializes in agriculture and rural development, yet no role in developing the Anna-Chakra tool.
• Food Security in India:
• India ranks 68^th in the Global Hunger Index (2023), highlighting the need for improved food distribution and nutrition policies.
• Programs such as Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and PM Poshan Abhiyaan aim to combat malnutrition and hunger.

The correct answer is Munim Khan.

Key Points

• Wakil-us Sultanate was an important administrative position under the Mughal Empire, responsible for overseeing the functioning of the empire and acting as the chief advisor to the emperor.
• After the dismissal of Bairam Khan, who served as the regent during Akbar’s early reign, the position of Wakil-us Sultanate was given to Munim Khan.
• Munim Khan was a trusted officer and a loyal supporter of Akbar. He played a significant role in consolidating the Mughal administration after the removal of Bairam Khan.
• Munim Khan’s appointment marked a shift in Akbar’s policy of centralizing authority and reducing reliance on regents or powerful nobles like Bairam Khan.
• This decision was part of Akbar’s broader strategy to establish his direct control over the empire and ensure loyalty among his administrators.

Additional Information

• Bairam Khan:
• Bairam Khan was a prominent regent of Akbar during the initial years of his reign. He served as the guardian and mentor of the young emperor.
• He was removed from his position in 1560 due to growing discontent among the nobles and Akbar’s desire to assert his authority.
• Akbar’s Centralization Policy:
• After taking control of the empire, Akbar focused on centralizing administrative power to reduce the influence of powerful nobles and regents.
• This included appointing loyal officers like Munim Khan to key positions.
• Munim Khan’s Role:
• Munim Khan was a seasoned administrator and military commander.
• He later served as the governor of Bengal and played a crucial role in expanding and consolidating Mughal control in eastern India.
• Other Notable Officials:
• Shamsuddin Atka: Another trusted officer of Akbar, who served in various administrative capacities but was not appointed Wakil-us Sultanate.
• Adham Khan: A military commander and foster brother of Akbar, who was executed for disobedience and arrogance.
• Muzaffar Khan: Another noble in Akbar’s court, but he did not hold the position of Wakil-us Sultanate.

Important Points

• Akbar’s Administrative Reforms:
• Akbar implemented significant administrative reforms to ensure the efficient functioning of the empire.
• He introduced the Mansabdari system to organize his military and administration.
• Significance of Wakil-us Sultanate:
• The position of Wakil-us Sultanate was crucial in the Mughal administration, as it acted as the emperor’s chief advisor and executor of policies.
• The appointment of Munim Khan to this position reflected Akbar’s trust in his competence and loyalty.

The correct answer is Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.

Key Points

• Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was a prominent leader of the Aligarh Movement, which aimed to promote modern education and social reforms among Muslims in India during British rule.
• The Aligarh Movement was instrumental in the establishment of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875, which later became Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) in 1920.
• He was a staunch advocate of modern, scientific, and secular education for Muslims to help them adapt to the changing socio-political and economic environment under British rule.
• Through his writings and speeches, Sir Syed Ahmed Khan emphasized the need for Muslims to embrace modern education while preserving their religious and cultural identity.
• He published the Aligarh Institute Gazette and other journals to spread awareness about the importance of education and social reform among Indian Muslims.

Additional Information

• Sir Syed Ahmed Khan:
• Born on 17 October 1817, in Delhi, he was a scholar, reformer, and educationist.
• He worked as a jurist in British India and later devoted his life to educational and social reforms.
• He was knighted by the British in 1888 for his services to society and education.
• The Aligarh Movement:
• Its primary goal was to uplift the Muslim community through modern education and social reforms.
• The movement sought to encourage Muslims to learn English and participate in the British administrative system to secure better socio-political opportunities.
• Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College:
• Founded in 1875 by Sir Syed Ahmed Khan in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
• The institution became a model of modern education and served as a center for intellectual and cultural renaissance among Indian Muslims.
• It was upgraded to Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) in 1920.
• Other Contributions:
• Sir Syed Ahmed Khan was the author of several works, including a commentary on the Bible, which highlighted the commonalities between Islam and Christianity.
• He also established the Scientific Society of Aligarh in 1864 to translate English works into Urdu, promoting scientific and technical knowledge.

Important Points

• Muhammad Iqbal:
• Known as Allama Iqbal, he was a philosopher and poet credited with inspiring the idea of Pakistan. However, he was not directly associated with the Aligarh Movement.
• Mirza Ghulam Ahmad:
• The founder of the Ahmadiyya Movement in Islam, he focused on religious reforms rather than modern education or social reforms as emphasized by the Aligarh Movement.
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad:
• A prominent freedom fighter, scholar, and the first Education Minister of independent India, he played a major role in the promotion of education but was not part of the Aligarh Movement.

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• Mangrove forests are coastal wetlands found in tropical and subtropical regions. They thrive in intertidal zones where saltwater and freshwater mix.
• Sundarbans, located in West Bengal, is the largest mangrove forest in the world and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The Sundarbans is home to the Royal Bengal Tiger and a wide variety of flora and fauna, including saltwater crocodiles, deer, and numerous bird species.
• Mangroves in West Bengal act as a natural barrier against cyclones and coastal erosion, thus protecting the region's ecosystem and human settlements.
• Other states like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Assam do not possess suitable coastal or intertidal regions required for mangrove forests. Hence, they are not associated with mangroves.

Additional Information

• Sundarbans Mangrove Forest:
• Spread across an area of approximately 10,000 square kilometers, the Sundarbans is shared between India and Bangladesh.
• The name ""Sundarbans"" is derived from the Sundari trees (Heritiera fomes) that dominate the region.
• The area is a unique estuarine ecosystem formed by the confluence of the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers.
• Importance of Mangroves:
• Mangroves act as carbon sinks, absorbing large amounts of carbon dioxide and mitigating climate change.
• They serve as breeding grounds for marine life, making them crucial for fisheries and biodiversity.
• Mangroves protect coastal areas from natural disasters like cyclones, tsunamis, and storm surges.
• Threats to Mangroves:
• Deforestation and human encroachment for agriculture, aquaculture, and urbanization.
• Climate change, rising sea levels, and pollution significantly impact mangrove ecosystems.
• Illegal logging and overharvesting of resources are also major concerns.
• Conservation Efforts:
• The National Mangrove Conservation Programme in India aims to protect and regenerate mangrove ecosystems.
• The Sundarbans is a designated Ramsar Wetland, emphasizing its ecological importance.
• Community-based initiatives and eco-tourism are promoted to raise awareness and ensure sustainable development.

Important Points

• West Bengal: The state is located in eastern India and has a vast coastline along the Bay of Bengal, making it suitable for mangrove growth.
• Sundarbans Tiger Reserve: Established in 1973 under the Project Tiger initiative, it is a critical habitat for the endangered Royal Bengal Tiger.
• UNESCO Recognition: Sundarbans was declared a World Heritage Site in 1987 due to its ecological and cultural significance.
• Role of Mangroves: In addition to ecological benefits, mangroves support local livelihoods through fishing, honey collection, and eco-tourism.

The correct answer is Vinaya Pitaka .

Key Points

• Key Aspects of the Vinaya Pitaka:
• Purpose: It maintains the moral, ethical, and practical framework for the Sangha (monastic community), including the 227 rules for monks and 311 rules for nuns (Pātimokkha).
• Content: It includes detailed guidelines on monastic life, including rules on etiquette, daily affairs, clothing, food, and the penal code for violations (such as the four grave offenses known as Pārājikas).
• Structure: It is generally divided into three parts: the Sutta Vibhanga (analysis of the 227 rules), the Khandhaka (procedural rules for the community), and the Parivara (appendix/summary).
• Origin: The rules within were formulated by the Buddha in response to specific incidents requiring regulation.

The correct answer is Kapilendra Deva.

Key Points

• Kapilendra Deva was the founder of the Gajapati dynasty of Odisha, which ruled during the 15^th and 16^th centuries.
• He established the dynasty in 1434 CE, marking the beginning of a powerful and prosperous era in Odisha's history.
• The Gajapati dynasty under Kapilendra Deva expanded its territory, covering parts of present-day Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and West Bengal.
• Kapilendra Deva was a patron of art, culture, and religion. He is known for building and renovating temples, including contributions to the Jagannath Temple in Puri.
• His reign is considered a golden period for Odisha due to its political stability, economic growth, and cultural advancements.

Additional Information

• Gajapati Dynasty:
• The term ""Gajapati"" translates to ""Lord of Elephants,"" symbolizing strength and power.
• It was a medieval Hindu dynasty that played a significant role in shaping the political and cultural landscape of eastern India.
• They were devout followers of Lord Jagannath and actively promoted the Jagannath cult.
• Kapilendra Deva’s Military Campaigns:
• Kapilendra Deva was a skilled military leader and expanded the Gajapati Empire through successful conquests.
• His campaigns extended the empire to the Krishna-Godavari delta in the south and the Ganga region in the north.
• Contributions to Art and Architecture:
• Kapilendra Deva was instrumental in promoting temple architecture in Odisha.
• He contributed to the development of the Kalinga architectural style, which is characterized by intricate carvings and towering spires.
• Other Options:
• Rana Kumbha: A ruler of Mewar in Rajasthan, known for his contributions to Rajput architecture and music. He was not connected to Odisha.
• Purushottama Deva: A later ruler of the Gajapati dynasty, known for continuing the policies of his predecessor Kapilendra Deva.
• Rao Chanda: A ruler from central India, unrelated to the Gajapati dynasty of Odisha.

Important Points

• Kapilendra Deva’s Legacy:
• He left behind a legacy of prosperity and cultural richness, laying the foundation for his successors.
• His administrative reforms and military strategies were instrumental in maintaining the empire's stability.
• Jagannath Temple Contributions:
• Kapilendra Deva's contributions to the Jagannath Temple solidified its role as a cultural and religious hub.
• The temple remains a symbol of Odisha's heritage and the Gajapati dynasty's devotion.

Shortcut Trick

To find the percentage of a percentage, simply multiply the two percentage values and divide by 100.

Required percentage = (1 × 36) ÷ 100 %

Required percentage = 36 ÷ 100 % = 0.36%

∴ The correct answer is 0.36%.

Alternate Method

Given: Expression 1% of 36% of a number.

Formula Used: x% of y = (x ÷ 100) × y

Original Number (100 units) 36% of Number (36 units) 1% of 36 units = 0.36 units Result: 0.36% of Total

⇒ Let the original number be x.

⇒ 36% of the number = (36 ÷ 100) × x = 0.36x

⇒ 1% of (36% of the number) = (1 ÷ 100) × 0.36x

⇒ Value = 0.01 × 0.36x = 0.0036x

⇒ To express 0.0036x as a percentage of x: (0.0036x ÷ x) × 100

⇒ Required percentage = 0.0036 × 100 = 0.36%

∴ The correct answer is 0.36%.

Additional Information

Percentage of a Percentage

When calculating a% of b% of a number, the effective percentage of the number is (a × b) ÷ 100 %.

Decimal to Percentage Conversion

To convert any decimal value to a percentage, multiply the decimal by 100 and append the % sign.

The 'Of' Operator

In mathematical word problems, the word 'of' always indicates the multiplication (×) operation.

Shortcut Trick

Total visitors = 20,00,000

Percentage difference between B and D = 24% − 10% = 14%

Difference in value = 14% of 20,00,000

Difference = 14 × 20,000 = 2,80,000

∴ The correct answer is 2,80,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of visitors = 20 lakhs = 20,00,000

Percentage of visitors from place B = 24%

Percentage of visitors from place D = 10%

Formula Used:

Value = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total Value

Difference = Value_B − Value_D

Calculations:

⇒ Number of visitors from place B = (24 ÷ 100) × 20,00,000

⇒ Number of visitors from place B = 24 × 20,000 = 4,80,000

⇒ Number of visitors from place D = (10 ÷ 100) × 20,00,000

⇒ Number of visitors from place D = 10 × 20,000 = 2,00,000

⇒ Difference = 4,80,000 − 2,00,000

⇒ Difference = 2,80,000

∴ The correct answer is 2,80,000.

Additional Information

Central Angle in Pie Chart

To convert percentage to degrees: Angle = (Percentage ÷ 100) × 360°. For example, 10% corresponds to 36°.

Percentage to Value

To find the absolute value from a pie chart: Value = (Sector Percentage ÷ 100) × Grand Total.

Ratio of Sectors

The ratio of the number of visitors between two places is equal to the ratio of their respective percentages or central angles.

Shortcut Trick

Profit % = [Error ÷ (True Value − Error)] × 100

Error in weight = 45%

Profit % = [45 ÷ (100 − 45)] × 100

Profit % = (45 ÷ 55) × 100 = (9 ÷ 11) × 100 = 81 9/11%

∴ The correct answer is 81 9/11%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) per unit weight

Weight used = 45% less than actual

Formula Used:

Profit % = [(True Weight − Actual Weight Given) ÷ Actual Weight Given] × 100

Weight Given: 55 units (CP) Saved: 45 units Total Claimed Weight = 100 units (SP) Profit = SP − CP = 100 − 55 = 45 units

Calculations:

⇒ Let the True Weight be 1000g and CP of 1g be ₹1.

⇒ Actual Weight used = 1000 − 45% of 1000 = 1000 − 450 = 550g.

⇒ CP for the shopkeeper = CP of 550g = ₹550.

⇒ SP for the shopkeeper = CP of 1000g (as he sells at CP) = ₹1000.

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 1000 − 550 = ₹450.

⇒ Profit % = (450 ÷ 550) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (9 ÷ 11) × 100 = 81 9/11%.

∴ The correct answer is 81 9/11%.

Additional Information

General Gain Formula for Dishonest Dealer

Gain % = [Error ÷ (True Value − Error)] × 100. This applies when the dealer claims to sell at Cost Price.

Cheating during both Buying and Selling

If a dealer cheats x% while buying and y% while selling using false weights, Net Gain % = [((100+x)(100+y))÷100] − 100.

Markup and Faulty Weight Combination

If a dealer marks up his goods by M% and also uses a weight that is W% less, Net Profit % = [(M + W) ÷ (100 − W)] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

New speed percentage = 100% − 49% = 51%

New Speed = 51% of 98

Calculation: (50% of 98) + (1% of 98) = 49 + 0.98

New Speed = 49.98 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 49.98 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Speed = 98 km/h, Reduction = 49%

Formula Used: New Speed = Initial Speed × (100 − Reduction %)/100

Initial Speed (100%) = 98 km/h New Speed (51%) Reduction (49%) Result: 49.98 km/h

⇒ New Speed = 98 × (100 − 49) / 100

⇒ New Speed = 98 × (51 / 100)

⇒ New Speed = 98 × 0.51

⇒ New Speed = 49.98 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 49.98 km/h.

Additional Information

Percentage Decrease Formula

To find a value after a percentage decrease: New Value = Original Value × (1 − Decrease%/100).

Conversion of km/h to m/s

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply the value by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Base Value Concept

Whenever a percentage change is applied, it is always calculated on the initial or base value unless stated otherwise.

Shortcut Trick

Net percentage interest = Rate × Time = 8% × 8.5 = 68%

Simple Interest = 68% of Principal = 68% of ₹400

SI = 0.68 × 400 = ₹272

∴ The correct answer is ₹272.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹400

Rate of Interest (R) = 8% per annum

Time Period (T) = 8.5 years

Formula Used: Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Principal = ₹400 Time = 8.5 Years Rate = 8% p.a.  Total Interest Growth

⇒ SI = (400 × 8 × 8.5) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 4 × 8 × 8.5

⇒ SI = 32 × 8.5

⇒ SI = 272

∴ The correct answer is ₹272.

Additional Information

Total Amount Formula

The total amount (A) payable after the time period is the sum of Principal and Simple Interest: A = P + SI = P × (1 + RT/100).

Constant Interest Rule

In Simple Interest, the interest earned remains the same every year because it is always calculated on the original principal.

SI vs CI Difference

For a period of 2 years, the difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest is given by CI − SI = P × (R/100)².

Shortcut Trick

Marked Price (MP) = 100% = ₹13,000

Discount = 12%

Selling Price (SP) = (100 − 12)% = 88% of MP

SP = 13,000 × 0.88 = 11,440

∴ The correct answer is ₹11440.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹13,000

Discount Percentage = 12%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP × (100 − Discount%)/100

Marked Price (MP) = ₹13,000 Discount: 12% Selling Price (SP) = 88% of 13,000 Final SP = ₹11,440

Calculations:

⇒ Discount Amount = (12/100) × 13,000

⇒ Discount Amount = 12 × 130 = ₹1,560

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price − Discount Amount

⇒ SP = 13,000 − 1,560

⇒ SP = ₹11,440

∴ The correct answer is ₹11440.

Additional Information

Discount and Marked Price

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). Discount = MP − SP.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, the equivalent single discount is (d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100)%.

Relation between CP and MP

MP/CP = (100 + Profit%)/(100 − Discount%). This is used to find the markup percentage.

Shortcut Trick

Net percentage increase = 15 + 20 + (15 × 20 ÷ 100) = 35 + 3 = 38%

Population after 2 years = Initial Population × (100 + Net Increase)%

Population after 2 years = 2,10,000 × 138 ÷ 100

Population after 2 years = 2,100 × 138 = 2,89,800

∴ The correct answer is 2,89,800.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Population = 2,10,000; Growth Rate 1 = 15%; Growth Rate 2 = 20%

Formula: Final Population = P × (1 + r₁/100) × (1 + r₂/100)

2,10,000 Initial +15% 2,41,500 After 1 Year +20% 2,89,800 After 2 Years

⇒ Population after 1^st year = 2,10,000 × (115 ÷ 100)

⇒ Population after 1^st year = 2,100 × 115 = 2,41,500

⇒ Population after 2^nd year = 2,41,500 × (120 ÷ 100)

⇒ Population after 2^nd year = 2,415 × 120 = 2,89,800

∴ The correct answer is 2,89,800.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by a% and then by b%, the effective net change is (a + b + ab ÷ 100)%.

Population Growth Formula

If the population grows at a constant rate r% per year, the population after n years is P_n = P(1 + r ÷ 100)ⁿ.

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

15% = 3 ÷ 20 and 20% = 1 ÷ 5. Using fractions: 2,10,000 × (23 ÷ 20) × (6 ÷ 5) = 2,89,800.

Shortcut Trick

Height (h) = Curved Surface Area ÷ (2 × π × r)

h = 110 ÷ (2 × 22/7 × 3.5)

h = 110 ÷ 22 = 5 feet

∴ The correct answer is 5 feet.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) = 3.5 feet

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 110 square feet

π = 22/7

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area of Cylinder = 2 × π × r × h

  r = 3.5 ft h = ? CSA = 110 ft<sup>2</sup>

Calculations:

⇒ 110 = 2 × (22/7) × 3.5 × h

⇒ 110 = 2 × 22 × (3.5 ÷ 7) × h

⇒ 110 = 44 × 0.5 × h

⇒ 110 = 22 × h

⇒ h = 110 ÷ 22

⇒ h = 5 feet

∴ The correct answer is 5 feet.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of a Cylinder

It includes the CSA and the area of the two circular bases: TSA = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of a Cylinder

The capacity or space occupied by a cylinder is given by the formula: Volume = πr²h.

Area of the Base

The area of the circular base of a cylinder is calculated as: A = πr².

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of prices = 3 : 5 : 7

Average of ratio parts = (3 + 5 + 7) ÷ 3 = 5 units

Average value → 5 units = ₹5,240

1 unit = 5,240 ÷ 5 = 1,048

Price of costliest item (7 units) = 7 × 1,048 = ₹7,336

∴ The correct answer is ₹7336.

Alternate Method

Given: Average price of 3 items = ₹5,240; Price ratio = 3 : 5 : 7.

Formula: Total Sum = Average × Number of items

3 units 5 units 7 units (Costliest) Total = 15 units = Avg × 3 Price Distribution Scale

⇒ Total price of 3 items = 5,240 × 3 = 15,720

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15 units

⇒ 15 units = ₹15,720

⇒ 1 unit = 15,720 ÷ 15 = 1,048

⇒ Price of costliest item = 7 × 1,048

⇒ Price = ₹7,336

∴ The correct answer is ₹7336.

Additional Information

Relationship between Average and Sum

The sum of 'n' observations is always equal to the Average × n. If values are in a ratio, divide the sum by the total number of ratio parts to find the value of one unit.

Weighted Average

When different groups have different averages, the combined average = (n₁a₁ + n₂a₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Properties of Ratios

Multiplying or dividing all terms of a ratio by the same non-zero number does not change the ratio. To find an individual share: (Individual ratio ÷ Total ratio) × Total Value.

Shortcut Trick

In a data set, if every observation is multiplied by a constant factor 'k', then the new average is also 'k' times the original average.

Original Average = 59

Multiplier factor (k) = 2 (since marks are doubled)

New Average = Old Average × 2

New Average = 59 × 2 = 118

∴ The correct answer is 118.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of students = 13

Average marks of 13 students = 59

Formula Used:

Average = Total Sum of Marks ÷ Number of Students

Avg: 59 Original × 2 Avg: 118 Doubled

Calculations:

⇒ Total marks of 13 students = Average × Number of students

⇒ Total marks = 59 × 13 = 767

⇒ If marks of each student are doubled, the new total marks = 767 × 2

⇒ New Total marks = 1534

⇒ New Average = New Total Marks ÷ 13

⇒ New Average = 1534 ÷ 13

⇒ New Average = 118

∴ The correct answer is 118.

Additional Information

Effect of Addition/Subtraction on Average

If a constant 'k' is added to or subtracted from each observation, the new average will be (Old Average + k) or (Old Average − k) respectively.

Weighted Average Formula

When two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂ are combined, Weighted Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Properties of Averages

The sum of deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero. If each value is divided by 'k', the new average is (Old Average ÷ k).

Shortcut Trick

Total Cost Price (CP) = ₹9,11,000 + ₹97,000 = ₹10,08,000

Selling Price (SP) = 113% of Total CP

SP = 1.13 × 10,08,000 = 11,39,040

∴ The correct answer is ₹11,39,040.

Alternate Method

Given:

Purchase Price = ₹9,11,000

Repair Costs = ₹97,000

Profit % = 13%

Formula:

Total CP = Purchase Price + Overheads

SP = Total CP × [(100 + Profit%)/100]

CP: ₹9,11,000 Repair: ₹97,000 Total CP = ₹10,08,000 +13% Profit SP = ₹11,39,040

⇒ Total CP = 9,11,000 + 97,000 = 10,08,000

⇒ Profit amount = 13% of 10,08,000

⇒ Profit amount = (13 ÷ 100) × 10,08,000 = 1,31,040

⇒ SP = Total CP + Profit amount

⇒ SP = 10,08,000 + 1,31,040

⇒ SP = 11,39,040

∴ The correct answer is ₹11,39,040.

Additional Information

Overhead Expenses

Any additional expenditure incurred on an item after purchase (like repairs, transport, labor) is added to the purchase price to calculate the Total Cost Price.

Profit and Loss Percentage

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100 | Loss % = (Loss ÷ Total CP) × 100. Always use Total CP as the base.

Effective SP Formula

SP = CP × (100 ± k)/100, where k is the profit (+) or loss (−) percentage.

Shortcut Trick

For 2 years, the difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest is given by:

Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)²

Difference = 55700 × (3 ÷ 100) × (3 ÷ 100)

Difference = 55700 × 0.0009 = 50.13

Rounding off to one decimal place, we get ₹50.1.

∴ The correct answer is ₹50.1.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal (P) = ₹55,700, Rate (R) = 3% p.a., Time (T) = 2 years.

Principal: ₹55,700

3% (Yr 1)
3% (Yr 2)

₹1671 (SI)

₹1671 (SI)

3% on Yr 1 Interest

₹50.13
Difference (CI − SI) = ₹50.13

⇒ Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (55700 × 3 × 2) ÷ 100 = 557 × 6 = ₹3,342

⇒ Amount (CI) = P × (1 + R ÷ 100)^T

⇒ Amount = 55700 × (1 + 3 ÷ 100)²

⇒ Amount = 55700 × (1.03)² = 55700 × 1.0609 = ₹59,092.13

⇒ Compound Interest (CI) = Amount − P = 59092.13 − 55700 = ₹3,392.13

⇒ Difference = CI − SI = 3392.13 − 3342 = ₹50.13

⇒ Rounding to one decimal place = ₹50.1

∴ The correct answer is ₹50.1.

Additional Information

Difference for 3 Years

The difference between CI and SI for 3 years is P × (R ÷ 100)² × (3 + R ÷ 100).

Effective Rate Method

For 2 years, effective SI rate is 2R% and effective CI rate is (2R + R² ÷ 100)%. The difference is (R² ÷ 100)% of P.

Compounding Frequencies

If interest is compounded half-yearly, the rate becomes R ÷ 2 and time becomes 2T. For quarterly, rate is R ÷ 4 and time is 4T.

Shortcut Trick

Individual time for A = (Product of days) ÷ (Difference of days)

Days for A = (16 × 32) ÷ (32 − 16)

Days for A = (16 × 32) ÷ 16 = 32 days.

∴ The correct answer is 32 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by (A + B) = 16 days, Time taken by B = 32 days.

Formula: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

⇒ Total work = LCM(16, 32) = 32 units.

⇒ Efficiency of (A + B) = 32 ÷ 16 = 2 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of B = 32 ÷ 32 = 1 unit/day.

⇒ Efficiency of A = Efficiency of (A + B) − Efficiency of B

⇒ Efficiency of A = 2 − 1 = 1 unit/day.

⇒ Time taken by A = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of A

⇒ Time taken by A = 32 ÷ 1 = 32 days.

∴ The correct answer is 32 days.

Additional Information

Pipes & Cisterns

Same logic applies where an inlet pipe is positive work and an outlet/leakage pipe is negative work.

Work & Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of the work done. If time is constant, wages are proportional to efficiencies.

Alternate Day Work

When workers work on alternate days, find the work completed in one full cycle (e.g., 2 days) to find the total time.

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM(16, 12) = 48 units.

Efficiency: A = 3 units/day, B = 4 units/day.

Work done by A and B in 3 days = (3 + 4) × 3 = 21 units.

Remaining work = 48 − 21 = 27 units.

Days taken by A for remaining work = 27 ÷ 3 = 9 days.

∴ The correct answer is 9 days.

Alternate Method

Given: A completes work in 16 days, B completes work in 12 days.

Formula Used: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

⇒ Total work (LCM of 16 and 12) = 48 units

⇒ One day work of (A + B) = 3 + 4 = 7 units

⇒ Work done by (A + B) in 3 days = 7 × 3 = 21 units

⇒ Remaining work = Total work − Work done = 48 − 21 = 27 units

⇒ Efficiency of A = 3 units/day

⇒ Time taken by A to finish the remaining work = 27 ÷ 3 = 9 days

∴ The correct answer is 9 days.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns

This follows the same logic as Time & Work, where an inlet pipe has positive efficiency and an outlet pipe (leak) has negative efficiency.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the total work done by each individual, which is calculated as (Efficiency × Time).

Alternate Day Work

In alternate day problems, calculate the work done in one full cycle (e.g., 2 days) and then divide the total work by this cycle's efficiency.

Shortcut Trick

Scale 1 : 317659 means 1 cm on map = 3.17659 km in reality (as 1 km = 10⁵ cm).

Actual distance = Map distance × Scale factor in km

Actual distance = 3 × 3.17659 = 9.52977 km

Rounding to two decimal places, we get 9.53 km.

∴ The correct answer is 9.53 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance on map = 3 cm

Scale of the map = 1 : 317659

Formula Used:

Actual Distance = Map Distance × Scale Factor

Conversion: 1 km = 1000 m = 100000 cm

Map: 3 cm Scale 1 : 317659 Actual Distance 1 cm on map = 317,659 cm on ground 3 cm on map = 3 × 317,659 cm on ground

Calculations:

⇒ Actual distance in cm = 3 × 317659

⇒ Actual distance in cm = 952977 cm

⇒ To convert cm to km, divide by 100000

⇒ Actual distance in km = 952977 ÷ 100000

⇒ Actual distance in km = 9.52977 km

⇒ Rounded to two decimal places = 9.53 km

∴ The correct answer is 9.53 km.

Additional Information

Representative Fraction (RF)

It is the ratio of map distance to the corresponding ground distance, expressed as RF = Map Distance ÷ Actual Distance.

Metric Conversions

1 km = 10 hectometers = 100 decameters = 1000 meters = 1,00,000 centimeters = 10,00,000 millimeters.

Area Scale

If the linear scale of a map is 1 : n, then the area scale is 1 : n². For example, 1 cm² on a map represents n² cm² on the ground.

Shortcut Trick

Perform a last-digit and tens-digit check for speed.

Unit digits: 6 + 4 = 10 (Last digit is 0).

Tens digits: 8 + 0 + 1 (carry) = 9 (Last two digits are 90).

Checking the options, only Option B ends in 90.

∴ The correct answer is 4,23,490.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Population = 3,54,986

Population Increase = 68,504

Formula: Total Population = Initial Population + Population Increase

Initial: 3,54,986 + 68,504 Total Population = 4,23,490

⇒ Total Population = 3,54,986 + 68,504

⇒ Total Population = 4,23,490

∴ The correct answer is 4,23,490.

Additional Information

Percentage Increase

To find the percentage growth, use the formula: % Increase = (Increase ÷ Initial Value) × 100.

Population Growth Formula

For compounding growth over 'n' years at rate 'r': P = P₀(1 + r/100)ⁿ.

Digit Sum Method

Digital root of 354986 (35) is 8. Digital root of 68504 (23) is 5. Sum: 8 + 5 = 13 → 4. Digital root of 423490 (22) is 4. Match confirmed.

Shortcut Trick

Coin count ratio = Value ratio × Number of coins in ₹1.

Ratio = (26 × 1) : (21 × 2) : (10 × 4) = 26 : 42 : 40.

Sum of ratio parts = 26 + 42 + 40 = 108 units.

108 units = 540 coins ⇒ 1 unit = 5 coins.

Number of 25 paisa coins = 40 units = 40 × 5 = 200 coins.

∴ The correct answer is 200 coins.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of coins = 540

Ratio of values (in ₹) = 26 : 21 : 10

Formula Used:

Number of coins = Total Value ÷ Value of one coin

Coin Distribution Visualization ₹1 Coins 26 parts 50p 42 parts 25p 40 parts Total Ratio Parts = 26 + 42 + 40 = 108 Total Coins = 540

Calculations:

⇒ Let the value of ₹1, 50p and 25p coins be 26x, 21x and 10x respectively.

⇒ Number of ₹1 coins = 26x ÷ 1 = 26x

⇒ Number of 50 paisa coins = 21x ÷ 0.50 = 42x

⇒ Number of 25 paisa coins = 10x ÷ 0.25 = 40x

⇒ Total coins = 26x + 42x + 40x = 108x

⇒ 108x = 540

⇒ x = 540 ÷ 108 = 5

⇒ Number of 25 paisa coins = 40 × 5 = 200

∴ The correct answer is 200 coins.

Additional Information

Conversion Factors

To find the number of coins from the total value, multiply the value by 1 for ₹1, by 2 for 50p, and by 4 for 25p.

Value Calculation

To find the value from the number of coins, divide the number of coins by the respective conversion factor (e.g., Value of 25p coins = Count ÷ 4).

Ratio of Values vs Ratio of Counts

Ratio of Counts = (Value Ratio₁ × C₁) : (Value Ratio₂ × C₂) : (Value Ratio₃ × C₃), where C is the number of coins per Rupee.

Shortcut Trick

726 = 6 × 11² ⇒ To make it a square, multiply by a = 6, then b = √(726 × 6) = 66.

Next perfect square after 726 is 27² = 729.

∴ c = 729 − 726 = 3 and d = 27.

Required value = √(66 + 3 + 27 + 8 × 6) = √(96 + 48) = √144 = 12.

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Alternate Method

Given:

Original Number = 726

Condition 1: 726 × a = b²

Condition 2: 726 + c = d²

Formula Used:

Perfect Square Factorization: All prime factors must have even exponents.

Original Number: 726 +3 Addition Rule: 726 + 3 = 729 (27²) Multiply by a = 6 → b = 66 Target: √(b + c + d + 8a)

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 726 = 2 × 3 × 121 = 2¹ × 3¹ × 11²

⇒ For b², exponents must be even ∴ a = 2¹ × 3¹ = 6

⇒ b² = 726 × 6 = 4356 ⇒ b = 66

⇒ For d², nearest squares to 726 are 26² = 676 and 27² = 729

⇒ Since c is the smallest added number, 726 + c = 729 ⇒ c = 3

⇒ d² = 729 ⇒ d = 27

⇒ Required value = √(b + c + d + 8a) = √(66 + 3 + 27 + 8 × 6)

⇒ Value = √(96 + 48) = √144 = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Additional Information

Perfect Square Prime Factorization

For a number N = p₁^a × p₂^b ... to be a perfect square, all exponents a, b, ... must be even integers.

Smallest Multiplier/Divisor

To find the smallest multiplier/divisor to make N a square, multiply/divide by the product of prime factors having odd exponents.

Unit Digits of Squares

Perfect squares can only end in 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, or 9. They never end in 2, 3, 7, or 8.

Shortcut Trick

Given recurrence: S_n+2 = (S_n + S_n+1) ÷ 2

Characteristic equation: 2r² − r − 1 = 0

Roots: r = 1 and r = −1÷2

General term: S_n = A + B(−1÷2)ⁿ

Using S₁ = 5 and S₂ = 7 gives S_n = 19÷3 + (8÷3)(−1÷2)ⁿ

∴ The correct answer is S₂₀₂₃ + 2S₂₀₂₄ = 19.

Alternate Method

Given:

S₁ = 5, S₂ = 7

S_n+2 = (S_n + S_n+1) ÷ 2

Method Used:

Characteristic equation method

Calculations:

⇒ 2S_n+2 − S_n+1 − S_n = 0

⇒ Assume S_n = rⁿ

⇒ 2r² − r − 1 = 0

⇒ (2r + 1)(r − 1) = 0

⇒ r = 1, −1÷2

⇒ General solution:

⇒ S_n = A + B(−1÷2)ⁿ

⇒ Using S₁ = 5:

⇒ A − B÷2 = 5

⇒ Using S₂ = 7:

⇒ A + B÷4 = 7

⇒ Solving gives:

⇒ A = 19÷3, B = 8÷3

⇒ Therefore,

⇒ S_n = 19÷3 + (8÷3)(−1÷2)ⁿ

⇒ Now evaluate:

⇒ S₂₀₂₃ + 2S₂₀₂₄

⇒ = [19÷3 + (8÷3)(−1÷2)²⁰²³] + 2[19÷3 + (8÷3)(−1÷2)²⁰²⁴]

⇒ = 19 + (8÷3)[(−1÷2)²⁰²³ + 2(−1÷2)²⁰²⁴]

⇒ = 19 + (8÷3)[(−1÷2)²⁰²³ − (−1÷2)²⁰²³]

⇒ = 19

∴ The correct answer is S₂₀₂₃ + 2S₂₀₂₄ = 19.

Additional Information

Linear Recurrence Relation

A recurrence relation connects each term with previous terms using a fixed rule.

Characteristic Equation

For recurrence relations, assume S_n = rⁿ to form an algebraic equation in r.

Convergence of Sequence

Since (−1÷2)ⁿ → 0, the sequence converges to 19÷3.

Geometric Decay

If |r| < 1, then rⁿ approaches 0 as n becomes very large.

Shortcut Trick

Roots are in A.P. ⇒ assume roots = a − d, a, a + d

Sum of roots = 9 ⇒ 3a = 9 ⇒ a = 3

Possible roots become 3 − d, 3, 3 + d

Put x = 3 in equation ⇒ 27 − 81 + 69 − 15 = 0

Remaining quadratic gives roots 1 and 5

∴ The correct answer is x = 1, 3, 5.

Alternate Method

Given:

x³ − 9x² + 23x − 15 = 0

Method Used:

Factorisation using A.P. root property

Calculations:

⇒ Since roots are in A.P., let roots be a − d, a, a + d

⇒ Sum of roots = 9

⇒ (a − d) + a + (a + d) = 9

⇒ 3a = 9

⇒ a = 3

⇒ One root is x = 3

⇒ Put x = 3:

⇒ 3³ − 9(3²) + 23(3) − 15

⇒ 27 − 81 + 69 − 15 = 0

⇒ Therefore, (x − 3) is a factor

⇒ Divide polynomial by (x − 3)

⇒ x³ − 9x² + 23x − 15 = (x − 3)(x² − 6x + 5)

⇒ x² − 6x + 5 = 0

⇒ (x − 1)(x − 5) = 0

⇒ x = 1 or 5

⇒ Hence roots are 1, 3, 5

∴ The correct answer is x = 1, 3, 5.

Additional Information

Roots in A.P.

If three roots are in A.P., represent them as a − d, a, a + d.

Relation Between Roots and Coefficients

For x³ + bx² + cx + d = 0, sum of roots = −b.

Factor Theorem

If f(a) = 0, then (x − a) is a factor of the polynomial.

Quadratic Factorisation

x² − 6x + 5 = (x − 1)(x − 5)

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses historical figures and their struggles with flatulence, followed by a comparison with Gaddafi.
• Sentence D is the first sentence as it introduces the context of the paragraph:
• "Hitler, Mao and Mussolini suffered from one type of stomach problem or the other."
• Sentence A follows because it provides a specific example and introduces Hitler's struggle with flatulence:
• "Hitler, in particular, suffered from chronic flatulence."
• Sentence B is the third sentence as it expands on Hitler's struggles and his remedy attempts:
• "He was so troubled by it that in desperation he allowed a quack, Dr. Theodor Morell, to dose him with 28 different medicines, including one made from the extract of faeces of healthy young German soldiers."
• Sentence C is the fourth sentence because it contrasts Hitler's struggles with Gaddafi's unabashed attitude toward flatulence:
• "On the other hand, the famously flatulent Gaddafi seemed to have been untroubled by this affliction as he unabashedly farted on!"
• The correct sequence is DABC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Hitler, Mao and Mussolini suffered from one type of stomach problem or the other. Hitler, in particular, suffered from chronic flatulence. He was so troubled by it that in desperation he allowed a quack, Dr. Theodor Morell, to dose him with 28 different medicines, including one made from the extract of faeces of healthy young German soldiers. On the other hand, the famously flatulent Gaddafi seemed to have been untroubled by this affliction as he unabashedly farted on!"

The correct answer is: Exceptional.

Key Points

• The word "mediocre" means average or of only moderate quality, not very good. (सामान्य)
• Example: The student's grades were mediocre; they were neither outstanding nor poor.
• The correct antonym, "Exceptional", refers to something that is unusually good, outstanding, or above average. (असाधारण)
• Example: Her exceptional performance in the exams earned her a scholarship.
• Hence, the opposite of "mediocre" is "exceptional."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Exceptional.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Unexceptional (असाधारण नहीं): Something that is ordinary or not out of the ordinary.
• Example: The design was unexceptional and failed to grab attention.
• Undistinguished (अप्रतिष्ठित): Lacking distinction or special qualities; not noteworthy.
• Example: The book was undistinguished and failed to make an impact on readers.
• Ordinary (साधारण): Something that is common, usual, or not special.
• Example: His performance was ordinary, with nothing particularly remarkable about it.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'archaoelogists'.

• The correct spelling would be 'archaeologists'.
• The word 'archaeologists' is a noun which refers to individuals who study human history and prehistory through the excavation of sites and the analysis of artifacts and other physical remains. (पुरातत्वविद)
• For Example -
• The archaeologists discovered ancient tools that dated back thousands of years.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'archaoelogists'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Captivate - to attract and hold the interest of someone (मोहित करना)
• Celestial - relating to the sky or outer space (आकाशीय)
• Explanations - a statement that makes something clear (व्याख्या)

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Subterfuge.

Key Points

• The word "Subterfuge" means a trick or a dishonest way of achieving something. (चालाकी या धोखाधड़ी के माध्यम से कुछ प्राप्त करने का तरीका)
• Example: He used subterfuge to gain access to the restricted area.
• The correct word "Subterfuge" has a clear meaning associated with deceit or trickery. (धोखा या चालाकी)
• Example: The spy resorted to subterfuge to complete his mission.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Subterfuge.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Persistence (दृढ़ता): The quality of continuing steadily despite difficulties or opposition.
• Example: Her persistence in pursuing her dreams eventually paid off.
• Sabotage (तोड़फोड़): The act of deliberately destroying or damaging something to prevent it from working properly.
• Example: The workers accused the company of sabotage during the negotiations.
• Espionage (जासूसी): The practice of spying or using spies to obtain secret information.
• Example: He was arrested for espionage after being caught passing classified information to a foreign agent.

The correct answer is: Obscure.

Key Points

• The word "lucid" refers to something that is clear, easily understood, and expressed in a straightforward manner. (स्पष्ट, साफ़)
• Example: Her lucid explanation of the complex topic helped everyone understand it better.
• "Obscure", on the other hand, means something that is unclear, difficult to understand, or not easily expressed. (अस्पष्ट)
• Example: The meaning of the ancient text was obscure, making it hard for the historians to interpret.
• Hence, the antonym of "lucid" is "obscure."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Obscure.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Exaggerated (बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर बताया गया): Represented as being larger, greater, or more extreme than is actually the case.
• Example: His claims about his achievements were highly exaggerated.
• Nostalgic (अतीत के प्रति उदासीनता): Feeling sentimental longing or affection for the past.
• Example: Listening to old songs makes her feel nostalgic about her childhood.
• Creative (रचनात्मक): Having the ability to produce original ideas or imaginative work.
• Example: The creative design of the building was admired by everyone.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• To form a meaningful and coherent paragraph, it is important to identify the logical sequence of ideas presented in the sentences.
• Sentence 3 is the starting sentence as it introduces the historical context of humans using poison for assassination and warfare:
• "Man has used poisons for assassination purposes ever since the dawn of civilisation, against individual enemies but also occasionally against armies."
• Sentence 4 follows as it builds upon the historical use of poisons and connects it to the development of microbiology, which offered new prospects for biological weapons:
• "The foundation of microbiology by Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch offered new prospects for those interested in biological weapons because it allowed agents to be chosen and designed on a rational basis."
• Sentence 1 is next as it discusses the recognition of dangers associated with biological weapons and mentions international efforts to prohibit their use:
• "These dangers were soon recognised and resulted in two international declarations—in 1874 in Brussels and in 1899 in The Hague—that prohibited the use of poisoned weapons."
• Sentence 2 is the final sentence as it highlights the limitations of these treaties, concluding the paragraph by showing their failure to prevent the development of biological weapons:
• "Though treaties were all made in good faith, they contained no means of control, and so failed to prevent interested parties from developing and using biological weapons."
• The correct sequence is 3412.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Man has used poisons for assassination purposes ever since the dawn of civilisation, against individual enemies but also occasionally against armies. The foundation of microbiology by Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch offered new prospects for those interested in biological weapons because it allowed agents to be chosen and designed on a rational basis. These dangers were soon recognised and resulted in two international declarations—in 1874 in Brussels and in 1899 in The Hague—that prohibited the use of poisoned weapons. Though treaties were all made in good faith, they contained no means of control, and so failed to prevent interested parties from developing and using biological weapons."

The correct answer is 'at'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "at" is used to refer to specific points or locations, such as a particular place or building.
• The sentence indicates a specific location ("the airport"), so the correct preposition to use is "at".
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect because they do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "She arrived at the airport early in the morning."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "from" is incorrect because it indicates the origin of movement, not the specific location where someone arrived.
• Option 2: "in" is incorrect because it is used for larger areas, such as cities or countries, rather than specific points like "the airport."
• Option 4: "on" is incorrect because it is used for surfaces or platforms, not locations like "the airport."

The correct answer is '1' i.e. able.

 

Key Points

• The sentence refers to an unexpected positive observation about someone’s ability as an editor.
• The word "able" means capable or skilled, which fits the context of the sentence.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 do not align with the intended meaning of the sentence:
• Stable: Refers to steadiness or balance, which is unrelated to the skills of an editor.
• Comfortable: Refers to ease or relaxation, which does not describe editorial competence.
• Affordable: Refers to cost, which is irrelevant in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "I hadn't expected but he turned out to be an able editor. The edited work looks very promising."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "Stable" is incorrect as it does not describe editorial skill or competence.
• Option 3: "Comfortable" is incorrect as it conveys ease but not capability.
• Option 4: "Affordable" is incorrect since it relates to cost, not skill or ability.

The correct answer is '4' i.e. The.

 

Key Points

• The article "The" is used to refer to something specific or already known to the reader or listener.
• In this case, "the climax of the story" refers to a specific part of the story, making "The" the correct article to use.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because they do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "The climax of the story can be found in the fifteenth chapter of the book."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "A" is incorrect because "A" is used for non-specific singular nouns, which does not fit here.
• Option 2: "An" is incorrect because "An" is used before singular nouns starting with a vowel sound, and "climax" does not start with a vowel sound.
• Option 3: "No article required" is incorrect because an article is needed to specify "the climax of the story."

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. A person who pays for something has the right to decide how it is done..

Key Points

• The proverb "He who plays the piper calls the tune" means that the person who pays for something has the authority to make decisions regarding it. (जिस व्यक्ति ने भुगतान किया है, उसे निर्णय लेने का अधिकार है।)
• Example: Since Sarah was the one paying for the event, she decided on the menu and the guest list.
• In this context, the meaning emphasizes the financial control or authority one holds when they are the sponsor or payer of an activity or task. (यह कहावत यह दर्शाती है कि जो भुगतान करता है, वह निर्णय लेने का अधिकार रखता है।)
• Example: The investor decided the direction of the project because, as they say, "He who pays the piper calls the tune."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A person's success is determined by their connections (किसी व्यक्ति की सफलता उनके संबंधों से निर्धारित होती है):
• This option refers to the idea that networking and relationships play a role in success, but it is unrelated to the proverb.
• Example: John's rise to success was due to his connections in the industry, not his talent.
• Option 2: Never tell people about your plans (कभी भी अपनी योजनाओं के बारे में लोगों को न बताएं):
• This option suggests secrecy as a strategy, which is unrelated to the meaning of the proverb.
• Example: He always kept his business ideas to himself, believing in the saying, "Never tell people about your plans."
• Option 3: Money is the source of all power (पैसा सभी शक्ति का स्रोत है):
• This option emphasizes the influence of money but does not correctly explain the proverb.
• Example: Many believe that money is the source of all power in modern society.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. an.

 

Key Points

• The sentence is referring to a single, unspecified movie that is described as "entertaining."
• The correct article to use before a noun beginning with a vowel sound (like "entertaining") is "an."
• Option 1 ("the") is incorrect because it refers to a specific movie, which is not implied in the context.
• Option 2 ("No article required") is incorrect because an article is necessary here to maintain grammatical correctness.
• Option 4 ("a") is incorrect because "a" is used before nouns that begin with a consonant sound, not a vowel sound.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "It was an entertaining movie."

 

Additional Information

• Usage of Articles:
• "A" is used before singular nouns that begin with a consonant sound. Example: "a cat."
• "An" is used before singular nouns that begin with a vowel sound. Example: "an apple."
• "The" is used to refer to specific or previously mentioned nouns. Example: "the book on the table."
• No article is required before plural or uncountable nouns when referring to them in general. Example: "Movies are entertaining."

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word in the sentence is 'fascenating'.

• The correct spelling is 'fascinating'.
• The word 'fascinating' is an adjective which means 'extremely interesting or charming'. (आकर्षक)
• For Example -
• The scientist shared a fascinating discovery about the universe.

Correct sentence: The scientist presented a fascinating discovery about the behaviour of deep-sea creatures.

Additional Information

Let's analyze the other options:

• Option 2: fasinating - Incorrect spelling. The correct word has a 'c' after 's'.
• Option 3: fascenating - Incorrect spelling. The correct word does not include an 'e' after 'c'.
• Option 4: facinating - Incorrect spelling. The correct word has an 's' after 'f'.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. hostility.

Key Points

• The word "hostility" refers to feelings of opposition, hatred, or unfriendliness. (शत्रुता/द्वेष)
• Example: The hostility between the two rival groups made reconciliation impossible.
• The sentence mentions a war zone, which suggests a situation filled with conflict. The word "hostility" perfectly fits the context, as it is commonly associated with war or animosity between groups. (युद्ध या द्वेष से जुड़ा संदर्भ)
• Example: Despite the ongoing conflict, there was no hostility among the civilians.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. hostility.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Admiration (प्रशंसा): A feeling of respect and approval for someone or something.
• Example: The audience was filled with admiration for the speaker's eloquence.
• Peace (शांति): A state of tranquility or absence of conflict.
• Example: After years of war, the leaders finally signed a peace treaty.
• Tolerance (सहनशीलता): The ability to accept or endure something, especially opinions or behavior that one may not agree with.
• Example: A society thrives when its people practice tolerance toward different cultures.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: new cells
• Incorrect. The passage does not mention that HIV targets new cells specifically.
• Option 2: dead cells
• Incorrect. HIV does not target dead cells.
• Option 3: specific cells
• Partially correct, but not precise. The passage specifically states "immune cells".
• Option 4: immune cells
• Correct. The passage clearly states that HIV specifically targets the immune cells responsible for combating infections.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: immune cells.

 

Additional Information

• Option 4 is directly supported by the passage: “HIV is a viral pathogen that specifically targets the immune cells responsible for combating infections.”
• Other options do not accurately reflect the information given in the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Eliminates it completely
• Incorrect. The passage states that the human body is unable to eliminate HIV completely and there is no cure.
• Option 2: Keeps it at moderate levels
• Incorrect. ART reduces the viral load to minimal levels, not just moderate levels.
• Option 3: Increases the viral load
• Incorrect. ART is meant to decrease, not increase, the viral load.
• Option 4: Reduces it to minimal levels
• Correct. The passage explains that ART significantly diminishes the concentration of HIV in the bloodstream to a state of minimal magnitude, also known as viral suppression.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: Reduces it to minimal levels.

 

Additional Information

• Option 4 is directly supported by the passage: ART reduces the viral load to a state of minimal magnitude (viral suppression).
• Other options do not accurately reflect what ART does according to the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

• Option 1: Impact of HIV and AIDS
• Correct. The passage discusses what HIV is, how it affects the body, its progression to AIDS, transmission methods, and treatment through ART. The focus is on the impact of HIV and AIDS.
• Option 2: Impact of disease
• Too broad. The passage specifically addresses HIV and AIDS, not diseases in general.
• Option 3: Impact of less immune body
• Incorrect. While the passage mentions a weakened immune system, the main focus is HIV/AIDS, not just a weak immune body in general.
• Option 4: Impact of unprotected sexual intercourse
• Incorrect. This is mentioned as a mode of transmission, but it is not the central idea.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: Impact of HIV and AIDS.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 directly reflects the main theme and details of the passage.
• Other options are either too broad, too narrow, or not centrally focused on the passage's theme.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• Option 4: Cause and remedy of AIDS
• Correct. The passage discusses both how HIV progresses to AIDS (the cause) and the use of antiretroviral therapy (ART) as a remedy.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: Cause and remedy of AIDS.

 

Additional Information

• Only Option 4 accurately reflects the main theme of the passage as it covers both the cause (HIV leading to AIDS) and the remedy (ART).
• Other options do not fully capture the central idea discussed in the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Key Points

• Option 4: A viable remedy in the form of HIV medication
• Correct. The passage states that antiretroviral therapy, or ART, is a viable remedy in the form of HIV medication.
• Other Options
• Options 1, 2, and 3 do not accurately describe ART as per the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: A viable remedy in the form of HIV medication.

 

Additional Information

• Option 4 directly matches the description given in the passage for ART.
• Other options do not match the definition provided in the passage.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Dipsomania.

Key Points

• The word "Dipsomania" refers to an uncontrollable craving or strong need to drink alcohol. (शराब पीने की तीव्र आवश्यकता)
• Example: His dipsomania led him to seek professional help to overcome his addiction.
• This term is used in medical and psychological contexts to describe a condition where individuals repeatedly feel the urge to consume alcohol in large quantities.

Hence, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Dipsomania.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Megalomania (मेगालोमेनिया) refers to an obsession with power, wealth, or grandiose delusions of one's importance.
• Example: His megalomania made him believe he was destined to rule the world.
• Pyromania (आग लगाने की सनक) refers to an uncontrollable desire to start fires.
• Example: The suspect's pyromania led to several cases of arson in the city.
• Agromania (खुले स्थानों के प्रति अत्यधिक आकर्षण) refers to an intense love or obsession with open spaces or fields.
• Example: Her agromania made her spend most of her time in the countryside.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Someone who dabbles in many things but is not skilled in any.

Key Points

• The proverb "Jack of all trades, master of none" refers to someone who has a range of skills but is not an expert in any of them. (कई कामों का जानकार, लेकिन किसी भी काम में निपुण नहीं)
• Example: Rahul knows how to play several musical instruments, but he isn’t particularly good at any of them. He is a jack of all trades, master of none.
• The correct interpretation of this proverb is that it implies a lack of specialization or mastery in a particular field, despite trying out or dabbling in many areas. (विशेषज्ञता की कमी को दर्शाता है)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Someone who dabbles in many things but is not skilled in any.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A person skilled in many areas and is often the best at everything (कई क्षेत्रों में कुशल और हर चीज में सर्वश्रेष्ठ)
• Example: This option is incorrect as the proverb does not imply being the best at everything, but rather a lack of mastery in any field.
• Option 2: Someone who gains multiple skills to succeed (सफलता के लिए कई कौशल प्राप्त करने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: This option is incorrect because the proverb does not focus on gaining multiple skills for success, but highlights the lack of expertise in one area.
• Option 3: Someone who is uninterested in learning new skills (नए कौशल सीखने में रुचि न रखने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: This option is incorrect as the proverb does not imply a lack of interest in learning but rather a tendency to dabble in various things without mastering any of them.