DSSSB TGT (Maths) Official Paper (Held On: 06 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

According to the question:

Thus, code for "video" is 'yf'.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) KD-FI

Option 2) MF-HK

Option 3) PI-KM

Option 4) HA-CF

Thus, out of all 'PI-KM' is the odd one out.

Hence "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given

Statement:

Despite being located in an area with rich mineral deposits, State M has not become a major mining hub in the country.

Given:

I. State M has strict environmental regulations that restrict mining activities. → Possible cause

Directly restricts mining activity in state M. This clearly explains why it hasn't become a hub.

II. Neighboring State N offers better incentives for mining companies. → Possible cause

Mining companies are profit driven. Even if state M has rich mineral, companies may prefer shifting to state N due to better benefits. This indirectly prevents state M from developing into a major hub.

Thus, Both I and II are possible causes.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: HIM THE YAK LET

According to the question:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, in four words thus formed will have no vowel.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some plates are forks → Does not follow (As all plates are cups, some cups are spoons and all forks are spoons. So it is possible but not definite.)

II. Some spoons are plates → Does not follow (As all plates are cups, some cups are spoons and all forks are spoons. So it is possible but not definite.)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 3 - 125 → (3 + 2)³ ⇒ (5)³ = 125

Option 2) 4 - 66 → (4 + 2)3 ⇒ (6)3 = 216 ≠ 66

Option 3) 1 - 27 → (1 + 2)3 ⇒ (3)3 = 27

Option 4) 2 - 64 → (2 + 2)3 ⇒ (4)3 = 64

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) HL-KO

Option 2) CG-FJ

Option 3) QS-RB

Option 4) VZ-YC

Thus, out of all 'QS-RB' is the odd one out.

Hence "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

44 - 52 - 39 - 78

→ 44 + 8 = 52

→ 52 - 13 = 39

→ 39 × 2 = 78

And,

63 - 71 - 58 - 116

→ 63 + 8 = 71

→ 71 - 13 = 58

→ 58 × 2 = 116

Similarly,​

76 - 84 - 71 - 142

→ 76 + 8 = 84

→ 84 - 13 = 71

→ 71 × 2 = 142

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Sarthak starts driving from point A and drives 11 km towards the east.

He then turns right, drives 3 km, then turns right again and drives 17 km.

He then turns right again and drives 12 km.

Finally, he turns right, drives 6 km and stops at point P.

Thus, Sarthak must drive 9 km in the south direction to reach point A again.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the question:

Arpit's ranks from the top → 19^th

Arpit's ranks from the bottom → 15^th

Total students → Arpit's ranks from the top + Arpit's ranks from the bottom - 1

→ 19 + 15 - 1 = 33​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given series: (Left) 238 745 324 523 872 (Right)

According to the question.

So, third digit of the largest number → 872 → 2

And, second digit of the smallest number → 238 → 3

Thus, the resultant of third digit of the largest number and the second digit of the smallest number are added → 2 + 3 = 5

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: K, L, M, N, U, V, and X are seated around a round table facing the center.

1) M sits immediate left of V.

2) L sits third to the left of V.

3) U sits immediate left of X.

4. X sits second to the left of K.

The remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. N.

Thus, K sits third to the left of N.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Decoding signs:

Given: 12 B 2 C 8 D 40 A 4 = ?

12 B 2 C 8 D 40 A 4 = ? ⇒ 12 × 2 + 8 - 40 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 12 × 2 + 8 - 40 ÷ 4 = ?

⇒ 12 × 2 + 8 - 10 = ?

⇒ 24 + 8 - 10 = ?

⇒ 32 - 10 = ?

⇒ 22 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: A, B, C, D, E, F and G each watched a movie on different days of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday.

1) Only one person watched the movie after B.

2) Only two persons watched the movie between B and D.

3) C watched the movie on Monday.

4. E watched the movie just before A.

5. No one watched the movie between B and G. 

The remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. F.

Thus, F watched the movie on Tuesday.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Decoding signs:

Given: 30 + 1 ÷ 4 × 70 - 7 = ?

30 + 1 ÷ 4 × 70 - 7 = ? ⇒ 30 - 1 × 4 + 70 ÷ 7 = ?

⇒ 30 - 1 × 4 + 70 ÷ 7 = ?

⇒ 30 - 1 × 4 + 10 = ?

⇒ 30 + 10 - 4 = ?

⇒ 40 - 4 = ?

⇒ 36 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

MEAL – MLEA – ALEM

And,

BACK – BKAC – CKAB

Similarly,

ABLE – AEBL – LEBA

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given Expression: A + C & M # N × O

A + C → A is the son of C. 

C & M → C is the father of M.

M # N → M is the daughter of N. 

N × O → N is the sister of O. 

Thus, A is O's sister's son.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the nodal agency in India responsible for the preparation and publication of the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI). Hence, option D is correct.
• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280 that primarily focuses on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, rather than poverty indexing. Hence, option A is incorrect.
• The Ministry of Rural Development implements various poverty alleviation programs like MGNREGA and PMAY-G, but it is not the publisher of the National MPI report. Hence, option B is incorrect.
• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) conducts various socio-economic surveys through the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), but the specific task of coordinating the MPI belongs to NITI Aayog. Hence, option C is incorrect.
• The National MPI was first released in November 2021 as a baseline report, using data from the National Family Health Survey-4 (NFHS-4) conducted in 2015-16.
• It uses the globally recognized Alkire-Foster (AF) methodology, which captures overlapping deprivations at the individual level across multiple dimensions.

Additional Information

• Dimensions and Indicators:
• The National MPI consists of 3 dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living.
• Unlike the Global MPI which has 10 indicators, India’s National MPI includes 12 indicators. The two additional indicators are Antenatal Care (under Health) and Bank Account (under Standard of Living).
• The Health dimension includes Nutrition and Child-Adolescent Mortality; Education includes Years of Schooling and School Attendance; Standard of Living includes Cooking Fuel, Sanitation, Drinking Water, Electricity, Housing, and Assets.
• Global Context:
• The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index is published annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) since 2010.
• India’s index is closely aligned with the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) Target 1.2, which aims to reduce at least by half the proportion of men, women, and children of all ages living in poverty in all its dimensions by 2030.
• Recent Data and Trends:
• According to the 2023 Progress Review, nearly 13.5 crore people escaped multidimensional poverty between 2015-16 and 2019-21.
• The Headcount Ratio of multidimensional poverty in India declined from 24.85% to 14.96% during this period.
• Rural areas saw the fastest decline in poverty, with the poverty rate dropping from 32.59% to 19.28%.

Important Points

• State-wise Performance:
• States like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Odisha recorded the steepest decline in the number of MPI poor.
• Uttar Pradesh registered the largest decline in the number of poor with 3.43 crore people escaping poverty.
• Despite improvements, Bihar remains the state with the highest percentage of multidimensionally poor population.
• Significance of the Index:
• It serves as a powerful policy tool to identify the most vulnerable regions and specific areas of deprivation (e.g., lack of sanitation or nutrition).
• The MPI Coordination Committee (MPICC), led by NITI Aayog, involves 12 Line Ministries to ensure a whole-of-government approach to poverty reduction.
• The index facilitates Competitive Federalism by ranking states and Union Territories on their progress toward SDG targets.

The correct answer is Article 59.

Key Points

• Article 59 of the Indian Constitution explicitly lays down the conditions of the President's office. It ensures that the highest constitutional office in the country functions with independence and dignity. Hence, Option D is correct.
• According to this Article, the President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) or of a House of the Legislature of any State. If a person who is already a member is elected as President, they are deemed to have vacated their seat in that House on the date they enter the office.
• The President is prohibited from holding any other office of profit. This restriction is intended to prevent any conflict of interest and ensure that the President remains impartial in their duties toward the Government of India.
• The Article further guarantees that the President is entitled to the use of his official residence, the Rashtrapati Bhavan, without the payment of rent. He is also entitled to such emoluments, allowances, and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law.
• A crucial provision in Article 59 states that the emoluments and allowances of the President shall not be diminished during his term of office. This protects the President from any executive or legislative pressure that could be exerted by reducing their financial security.

Additional Information

• Article 50: Separation of Judiciary from Executive
• This article is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). It directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State to ensure the rule of law and judicial independence.
• Article 56: Term of Office of President
• This Article specifies that the President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters his office. It also mentions that the President may resign by writing to the Vice-President or be removed through impeachment for violation of the Constitution under Article 61.
• Article 66: Election of Vice-President
• This Article details the electoral college and the procedure for the election of the Vice-President of India. The Vice-President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• Article 58: Qualifications for Election as President
• To be eligible for election as President, a person must be a citizen of India, must have completed the age of 35 years, and must be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• Historical Context and Salary
• The President of India is the Head of State and the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces. As of the latest revisions (2018), the monthly salary of the President is Rs. 5 lakh, along with various other allowances and post-retirement benefits.

The correct answer is Copper sulfide with copper oxide.

Key Points

• Researchers at the Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India, have achieved a breakthrough in sustainable energy. This research, coming to the forefront in 2024-2025, focuses on the Hydrogen Evolution Reaction (HER). Hence, the statement regarding the location and objective is correct.
• The innovative material developed is a heterostructure composed of Copper sulfide (CuS) and Copper oxide (CuO). This combination is designed to optimize the catalytic surface for the gradual evolution of advanced hydrogen. Hence, the statement regarding the chemical composition is correct.
• The primary function of this CuS-CuO heterostructure is to act as a highly efficient and cost-effective electrocatalyst or photocatalyst for splitting water molecules. This process is essential for generating Green Hydrogen, which is a key component of India’s energy transition goals for 2025 and beyond. Hence, the statement regarding its application is correct.
• By utilizing Copper-based materials, which are abundant in nature compared to precious metals like Platinum, the researchers have ensured that the technology is economically viable for large-scale industrial applications. Hence, the statement regarding economic feasibility is correct.
• The INST Mohali team, located in Punjab, utilized advanced synthesis techniques to create an interface between the sulfide and oxide layers, which significantly enhances charge carrier mobility and reduces energy loss during the chemical reaction. Hence, the statement regarding technical innovation is correct.

Additional Information

• Copper Sulfide (CuS): This is a transition metal chalcogenide known for its excellent electrical conductivity and optical properties. In the context of energy, it serves as a robust semiconductor that helps in capturing a broad spectrum of solar energy if used in photocatalysis.
• Copper Oxide (CuO): It is a p-type semiconductor with a narrow bandgap (approx 1.2 eV to 1.7 eV). It is widely used in gas sensors, batteries, and solar cells due to its high absorption coefficient and non-toxic nature.
• Heterostructure Significance: A heterostructure refers to the interface between two different solid-state materials. In this case, the CuS-CuO junction creates an internal electric field that prevents the recombination of electrons and holes, thereby increasing the efficiency of hydrogen production.
• National Green Hydrogen Mission: Launched by the Government of India in January 2023 with an initial outlay of Rs. 19,744 crore, this mission aims to make India a global hub for the production and export of Green Hydrogen. The research at INST Mohali aligns directly with the mission's goal of achieving a production capacity of 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) per annum by 2030.
• Green Hydrogen Applications: It is used in fuel cells for transportation, as a reducing agent in the steel industry, and for ammonia production in the fertilizer sector. Achieving "gradual evolution" means the process is controlled and stable, preventing the sudden degradation of the catalyst.

Important Points

• Geographic and Institutional Context: INST Mohali is a premier research organization established under the Society Registration Act, 1860. It specializes in Nanotechnology to solve issues in agriculture, healthcare, and energy.
• The Role of Catalysts: In the Hydrogen Evolution Reaction (HER), the overpotential (the extra energy required to move the reaction) is a major hurdle. The CuS-CuO structure helps in lowering this overpotential, making the production of Hydrogen more energy-efficient.
• Sustainability Data: Unlike Noble Metals (e.g., Iridium or Ruthenium) which are rare and expensive, Copper is one of the most widely available elements on Earth, making this 2025 development a landmark for sustainable chemistry.
• Year 2025 Targets: Many global energy indices and reports suggest that 2025 will be the tipping point where renewable hydrogen becomes competitive with fossil-fuel-based hydrogen (Grey Hydrogen).

The correct answer is A and C Only.

Key Points

• The headstream of the Ganga, called the Bhagirathi, is fed by the Gangotri Glacier and joins the Alaknanda at Devprayag in Uttarakhand. The Bhagirathi originates at Gaumukh, which is at an elevation of about 3,892 meters. Hence, statement A is correct.
• While the Ganga is officially formed at the confluence of Bhagirathi and Alaknanda at Devprayag, the river actually descends from the mountains and enters the Indo-Gangetic plains at Haridwar. Devprayag is located in the mountainous Tehri Garhwal district. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
• The Ghaghara, Gandak, and Kosi rivers are major left-bank tributaries of the Ganga that originate in the Nepal Himalayas. These rivers are perennial and bring massive amounts of silt, though they are also responsible for periodic flooding in parts of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Hence, statement C is correct.
• The River Yamuna, which originates from the Yamunotri Glacier on the western slopes of the Banderpoonch range, flows parallel to the Ganga and meets it at the Triveni Sangam in Prayagraj (formerly Allahabad), not Patna. The major tributary that joins the Ganga near Patna is the Son River. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The Ganga River System: The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point of view of its basin and cultural significance. It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. It has a total length of about 2,525 km and its basin covers about 8.6 lakh sq. km in India alone.
• Major Tributaries: The river system is fed by both Himalayan (left-bank) and Peninsular (right-bank) rivers.
• Left-bank tributaries: Ramganga, Gomti, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, and Mahananda.
• Right-bank tributaries: Yamuna (the longest), Son, Punpun, and Damodar (via the Hooghly).
• The Yamuna River: It is the westernmost and the longest tributary of the Ganga. It flows for a distance of 1,376 km. It passes through Delhi, Mathura, and Agra before meeting the Ganga. Its own main tributaries include the Chambal, Sind, Betwa, and Ken.
• The Son River: It is a large south-bank tributary of the Ganga, originating in the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh. It joins the Ganga just above Patna in Bihar.
• Sundarbans Delta: Before emptying into the Bay of Bengal, the Ganga along with the Brahmaputra forms the Sundarbans Delta, which is the largest delta in the world and a UNESCO World Heritage site known for its mangrove forests.

Important Points

• The Panch Prayag: These are five sacred river confluences in Uttarakhand that lead to the formation of the Ganga.
• Vishnuprayag: Alaknanda meets Dhauliganga.
• Nandaprayag: Alaknanda meets Nandakini.
• Karnaprayag: Alaknanda meets Pindar River.
• Rudraprayag: Alaknanda meets Mandakini.
• Devprayag: Alaknanda meets Bhagirathi.
• Namami Gange Programme: Launched in June 2014, this is an Integrated Conservation Mission to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution and conservation and rejuvenation of the National River Ganga.
• National River Status: The Ganga was declared the National River of India on November 4, 2008, by the then Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.

The correct answer is Inactivation of reaction centers and formation of reactive oxygen species.

Key Points

• Photoinhibition is defined as the light-induced reduction in the quantum yield and the maximum rate of photosynthesis. This occurs when the amount of solar energy absorbed by the chlorophyll exceeds the capacity of the photosynthetic apparatus to utilize it for carbon fixation.
• The primary site of damage during photoinhibition is Photosystem II (PSII), which is located in the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast. Specifically, the D1 protein within the reaction center of PSII is degraded under high-intensity light. Hence, statement B is correct.
• When light intensity is excessive, the electron transport chain becomes over-saturated. This leads to the transfer of energy to oxygen, resulting in the production of Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) such as singlet oxygen, superoxide radicals, and hydrogen peroxide.
• These ROS molecules are highly reactive and cause oxidative damage to the pigment-protein complexes, leading to the functional inactivation of the reaction centers. This prevents the normal flow of electrons from water to NADP+.
• While chloroplast membranes and pigments can eventually degrade (a process known as photobleaching) under prolonged stress, it is a secondary effect following the initial inactivation of reaction centers. Hence, statement A is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Photoprotective Mechanisms: Plants have evolved mechanisms like Non-Photochemical Quenching (NPQ) to dissipate excess excitation energy safely as heat. This involves the Xanthophyll cycle, where the pigment violaxanthin is converted into zeaxanthin via the intermediate antheraxanthin.
• Stomatal Behavior: Under conditions of high irradiance and temperature, plants often experience water stress, leading to stomatal closure mediated by Abscisic Acid (ABA). This reduces transpiration but also limits CO2 intake, worsening photoinhibition. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
• Repair Cycle: The plant performs a continuous repair cycle where damaged D1 proteins are removed by proteases and replaced with de novo synthesized proteins. Photoinhibition becomes visible when the rate of damage exceeds the rate of this repair.
• Metabolic Impact: Excessive light does not enhance glucose storage; instead, it leads to a "bottleneck" in the Calvin Cycle. The reduction in carbon fixation efficiency means the plant cannot convert light energy into chemical energy (glucose) effectively. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Important Points

• Environmental Interactions: The severity of photoinhibition is often amplified by other stressors such as low temperatures, drought, or nutrient deficiency (especially Nitrogen or Magnesium), which slow down the metabolic enzymes and repair processes.
• Heliophytes vs. Sciophytes: Heliophytes (sun-loving plants) have a higher light saturation point and more robust photoprotective systems compared to Sciophytes (shade-loving plants), which can suffer photoinhibition at relatively low light levels.
• Agricultural Significance: In crops like rice, wheat, and maize, photoinhibition during mid-day peak sunlight can reduce the potential biomass yield by 10% to 30%, making it a critical subject in plant physiology and agronomy.

The correct answer is The income a person has after all taxes have been paid.

Key Points

• Disposable Income, also known as Disposable Personal Income (DPI), refers to the total amount of money that individuals and households have available for spending and saving after income taxes have been deducted.
• The formula to calculate this is: Disposable Income = Personal Income – Personal Tax Payments. This includes Direct Taxes like Income Tax and Property Tax, but does not usually include Indirect Taxes like GST or VAT paid at the point of sale.
• Statement A: This statement accurately defines disposable income as the net pay remaining after tax liabilities are met. Hence, statement A is correct.
• Statement B: This describes Gross Income, which is the total earnings before any deductions like taxes, Provident Fund (PF), or Insurance premiums. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
• Statement C: This refers to Discretionary Income, which is the amount left after paying for necessities such as food, rent, and medicine. While related, it is a subset of disposable income. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
• Statement D: This refers to Capital Gains or Rental Income derived from assets like real estate or stocks, which is just one source of total income, not the definition of disposable income itself. Hence, statement D is incorrect.
• Economists use Disposable Income as a vital economic indicator to monitor the purchasing power of households and the health of the economy.

Additional Information

• Discretionary Income: This is the Disposable Income minus all fixed costs or essential expenses like mortgage/rent, utilities, and groceries. It represents the money used for luxury items, vacations, or additional savings.
• Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC): This concept measures how much of an increase in disposable income a consumer spends on goods and services as opposed to saving. It is a key factor in Keynesian Economics.
• Macroeconomic Significance: Aggregate Disposable Income is one of the primary determinants of Consumer Spending, which typically accounts for nearly 60% to 70% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in many developed and developing nations like India and the USA.
• Standard of Living: A rise in Real Disposable Income (adjusted for Inflation) generally indicates an improvement in the Standard of Living, as citizens can afford better goods and services.
• Data Sources: In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) track household financial savings and income trends to formulate monetary policy.

Important Points

• Fiscal Policy Impact: If the Government reduces Direct Taxes (e.g., changing Income Tax Slabs), the Disposable Income of citizens increases, which usually stimulates demand in the market.
• Transfer Payments: In some economic models, Disposable Income also includes Transfer Payments from the government, such as Unemployment Benefits, Welfare Pensions, or subsidies provided via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
• Inflation Factor: Even if Nominal Disposable Income increases, if Inflation is higher, the Purchasing Power may actually decrease. This is why economists differentiate between nominal and Real Disposable Income.
• Savings Rate: The portion of Disposable Income that is not consumed is diverted to Savings, which provides the capital necessary for Investment in the corporate and government sectors.

The correct answer is The Truth of the Creator (God).

Key Points

• The Four Noble Truths (Chatvari Arya Satyani) are the central philosophy of Buddhism, discovered by Gautama Buddha during his enlightenment. They explain the nature of human existence and the path to liberation.
• The Truth of Suffering (Dukkha): This statement explains that all life involves suffering, including birth, aging, sickness, and death. It highlights the unsatisfactoriness of mundane existence. Hence, statement A is a correct part of the Four Noble Truths.
• The Truth of the Cause of Suffering (Samudaya): This statement posits that the root cause of suffering is Tanha (craving, desire, or attachment) and ignorance. We suffer because we cling to impermanent things. Hence, statement B is a correct part of the Four Noble Truths.
• The Truth of the Cessation of Suffering (Nirodha): This statement teaches that suffering can be ended by overcoming and eliminating craving and attachment, leading to a state of Nirvana. Hence, statement C is a correct part of the Four Noble Truths.
• The Truth of the Creator (God): This statement is not part of the Four Noble Truths. Buddhism is generally considered a non-theistic religion that does not rely on a creator deity for salvation, focusing instead on personal spiritual development. Hence, statement D is not a part of the Four Noble Truths.
• The fourth truth, which is not listed in the incorrect options but is essential, is Magga (The Truth of the Path), which refers to the Eightfold Path (Astangika Marga) leading to the end of suffering.

Additional Information

• Gautama Buddha: Known as Siddhartha Gautama, he was born in 563 BCE in Lumbini (present-day Nepal) into the Shakya clan. He attained enlightenment under a Pipal tree at Bodh Gaya at the age of 35.
• The Eightfold Path: It consists of eight practices: Right View, Right Resolve, Right Speech, Right Conduct, Right Livelihood, Right Effort, Right Mindfulness, and Right Samadhi (concentration).
• First Sermon: After achieving enlightenment, the Buddha delivered his first sermon, known as the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta (Setting the Wheel of Dhamma in Motion), at Sarnath near Varanasi.
• Major Sects: Over time, Buddhism divided into several branches, most notably Hinayana (Theravada), Mahayana, and Vajrayana, each with different interpretations of the Buddha's teachings.
• Religious Texts: The primary teachings are recorded in the Tripitakas (Three Baskets), written in the Pali language. These include the Sutta Pitaka (discourses), Vinaya Pitaka (monastic rules), and Abhidhamma Pitaka (philosophy).

Important Points

• Buddhist Councils: Four major councils were held to codify teachings. The First Council was held at Rajgir (483 BCE), the Second at Vaishali (383 BCE), the Third at Pataliputra (250 BCE) under Ashoka, and the Fourth in Kashmir (72 CE) under Kanishka.
• The Three Jewels (Triratna): These represent the core pillars of the faith: Buddha (The Enlightened One), Dhamma (The Teachings), and Sangha (The Monastic Community).
• Concept of Nirvana: It is the ultimate goal of Buddhism, representing a state of liberation from the cycle of rebirth (Samsara) and the total extinction of suffering and individual consciousness.
• Spread of Buddhism: From India, Buddhism spread extensively across Asia, reaching Sri Lanka, China, Japan, Korea, and South-East Asia, primarily through the efforts of emperors like Ashoka the Great.

The correct answer is Malik Sarwar.

Key Points

• In 1394, Sultan Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq, the last ruler of the Tughlaq Dynasty, appointed Malik Sarwar as his minister (Wazir) and governor of the eastern provinces.
• Malik Sarwar was bestowed with the prestigious title of Sultan-ush-Sharq (which means 'King of the East') and Malik-us-Sharq.
• He was sent to the eastern regions to suppress the growing rebellions in areas such as Kanauj, Kara, Awadh, and Sandila.
• Taking advantage of the administrative vacuum and the subsequent invasion of India by Timur (Tamerlane) in 1398, Malik Sarwar declared independence and founded the Sharqi Dynasty with its capital at Jaunpur.
• His reign marked the beginning of an era where Jaunpur emerged as a powerful independent sultanate, challenging the authority of the Delhi Sultanate.

Additional Information

• Mubarak Shah Sharqi:
• He was the adopted son and successor of Malik Sarwar, who ascended the throne in 1399.
• He was the first ruler of the Sharqi Dynasty to formally assume the title of Sultan and issue coins in his own name.
• Husain Shah Sharqi:
• He was the last independent ruler of the Sharqi Dynasty, reigning from 1458 to 1479.
• Despite being a great patron of arts and music (credited with the development of Khiyal), he lost his kingdom after a series of conflicts with Bahlul Lodi.
• The City of Jaunpur:
• The city was founded by Firoz Shah Tughlaq in 1359 to honor the memory of his cousin Muhammad bin Tughlaq, whose real name was Jauna Khan.
• Under the Sharqi rulers, Jaunpur became a major center for Islamic art, culture, and architecture in North India.
• The Fall of Sharqi Dynasty:
• In 1479, Bahlul Lodi, the founder of the Lodi Dynasty, defeated Husain Shah Sharqi and annexed Jaunpur back into the Delhi Sultanate.

Important Points

• Shiraz-i-Hind: Due to its status as a premier center of learning and education during the reign of Ibrahim Shah Sharqi, the city of Jaunpur was famously known as the "Shiraz of the East" (Shiraz-i-Hind).
• Sharqi Architecture: The dynasty is renowned for its unique architectural style, characterized by massive pylon-like gateways. Examples include the Atala Masjid (completed in 1408), the Jhañjhari Masjid, and the Lal Darwaza Masjid.
• Geographical Extent: At the height of its power, the Sharqi Sultanate controlled a vast territory stretching from Aligarh in the west to Darbhanga (Bihar) in the east.
• Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq: He was the son of Nasir ud din Muhammad Shah III and served as the last Sultan of the Tughlaq Dynasty before the Sayyid Dynasty took over.

The correct answer is 900 to 1100.

Key Points

• The outermost range of the Himalayas is known as the Shivaliks (also spelled Shiwaliks). Hence, the identification of the range as Shivaliks is correct.
• The Shivalik range extends across a width of approximately 10 to 50 km. Hence, the statement regarding the width of the range is correct.
• The elevation or altitude of this range typically lies between 900 and 1100 meters above sea level. Hence, the value of 900 to 1100 meters for elevation is correct.
• This range is primarily composed of unconsolidated sediments like sand, gravel, and clay brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges located farther north.
• The longitudinal valleys situated between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shivaliks are famously known as Duns. Notable examples include Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun, and Patli Dun.

Additional Information

• Greater Himalayas (Himadri): This is the northernmost range and is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks. It has an average elevation of about 6000 meters and contains world-famous peaks like Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga.
• Lesser Himalayas (Himachal): Located to the south of the Himadri, this range is mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks. The altitude varies between 3700 and 4500 meters, and the average width is about 50 km. Famous ranges here include the Pir Panjal, Dhaula Dhar, and Mahabharat ranges.
• Geological Age: The Shivaliks are considered the youngest part of the Himalayan mountain system, having formed during the Pliocene to Lower Pleistocene periods (approximately 5 million to 1.6 million years ago).
• Geographical Spread: The Shivalik hills run almost parallel to the Lesser Himalayas for a distance of about 2400 km from the Indus River in the west to the Brahmaputra River in the east, spanning across India, Pakistan, Nepal, and Bhutan.

Important Points

• Regional Divisions: Besides longitudinal divisions, the Himalayas are divided from west to east by river valleys:
• Punjab Himalayas: Lying between the Indus and Sutlej rivers (traditionally known as Kashmir and Himachal Himalaya).
• Kumaon Himalayas: Lying between the Sutlej and Kali rivers.
• Nepal Himalayas: Lying between the Kali and Teesta rivers.
• Assam Himalayas: Lying between the Teesta and Dihang (Brahmaputra) rivers.
• Purvanchal Hills: Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas bend sharply to the south and spread along the eastern boundary of India, known as the Purvanchal or Eastern hills and mountains, which include the Patkai, Naga, Manipur, and Mizo hills.

The correct answer is Bhubaneswar.

Key Points

• The Government of Odisha, in collaboration with NITI Aayog and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), organized a national-level workshop in Bhubaneswar.
• The workshop was held in February 2024 to focus on the fast-tracking and reporting of progress regarding the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• It was conducted under the State Support Mission (SSM), a flagship initiative of NITI Aayog designed to strengthen the capacity of states to achieve socio-economic targets. Hence, the mention of Bhubaneswar as the venue is correct.
• The primary objective was to facilitate knowledge sharing among different states and union territories regarding the localization of SDGs and the District Indicator Framework (DIF).
• The event saw participation from senior officials, including the Chief Secretary of Odisha and representatives from UNDP India, emphasizing data-driven governance for monitoring global goals at the sub-national level.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs consist of 17 global goals established by the United Nations in 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• They aim to address global challenges such as poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice.
• India, as a signatory, has committed to achieving these goals by the year 2030 through integrated policy frameworks.
• NITI Aayog’s Role:
• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the nodal agency for coordinating SDG implementation in India.
• It releases the SDG India Index annually to track the progress of states and UTs, categorizing them as Aspirants, Performers, Front Runners, or Achievers.
• The State Support Mission (SSM) was launched in 2022 to provide technical assistance and build institutional capacity within state governments.
• United Nations Development Programme (UNDP):
• UNDP provides technical expertise and policy advice to the Indian government to help localize the SDGs.
• It supports the creation of SDG Coordination Centres (SDGCC) in various states, including Odisha, Haryana, and Uttarakhand.

Important Points

• Odisha’s Progress: Odisha has been recognized for its significant improvements in sectors like disaster management, health, and poverty reduction, moving steadily up in the SDG India Index rankings.
• Fast-tracking Mechanism: The process involves identifying bottlenecks in policy implementation and using real-time data to accelerate progress in aspirational districts.
• Reporting Framework: India utilizes the National Indicator Framework (NIF), which is mirrored at the state level by the State Indicator Framework (SIF) and at the district level by the District Indicator Framework (DIF) to ensure granular monitoring.
• Financial Year 2023-24: The workshop in Bhubaneswar marked a critical milestone in the post-pandemic strategy to realign state priorities with global sustainability targets.

The correct answer is Jibril.

Key Points

• Jibril (also known as Gabriel) is recognized as the Archangel of revelation in Islam. He served as the primary intermediary between Allah (God) and the Prophet Muhammad.
• The process of imparting the knowledge of the Quran began in the year 610 CE. At this time, the Prophet Muhammad was 40 years old and had retired to the Cave of Hira on Mount Nur (the Mountain of Light) near Mecca for meditation.
• The first communication from Jibril involved the first five verses of Surah Al-Alaq. The very first word revealed was "Iqra", which means "Read" or "Proclaim". This event marked the beginning of the Prophet's mission as the final messenger of Islam.
• The revelation of the Quran was not a single event but occurred gradually over a period of approximately 23 years. It continued until shortly before the Prophet's death in 632 CE.
• Jibril is described in Islamic tradition as possessing extraordinary power and wisdom. He appeared to the Prophet in various forms, sometimes in his original angelic form and sometimes as a human being, to deliver the divine messages accurately.

Additional Information

• Michael (Mikail): In Islamic theology, Mikail is one of the four archangels. He is the Angel of Sustenance and is responsible for natural phenomena such as rain, thunder, and the provision of food to all living creatures by the will of Allah.
• Azrael (Izrail): He is commonly known as Malak al-Mawt, which translates to the Angel of Death. His specific function is to separate the soul from the body at the moment of death. His name Azrael is found in tradition and extra-canonical texts rather than being explicitly named in the Quran.
• Raphael (Israfil): He is the angel designated to blow the Trumpet (the Soor) to signal the arrival of the Day of Judgment (Qiyamah). The first blast will signify the destruction of the world, and the second will signify the resurrection of all souls.
• Quranic Structure: The Quran consists of 114 Surahs (chapters) and approximately 6,236 verses (Ayahs). It is divided into Makki (revealed in Mecca) and Madani (revealed in Medina) chapters, reflecting the different phases of the Prophet's life and the development of the Muslim community.

Important Points

• Laylat al-Qadr: The initial revelation of the Quran took place during the month of Ramadan, on a night known as Laylat al-Qadr (the Night of Power or Decree). Muslims believe this night is better than a thousand months.
• Preservation: The Quran was preserved through both oral memorization by the Companions (Sahaba) and written records on materials like parchment, stones, and leather. It was later formally compiled into a single book during the caliphates of Abu Bakr and Uthman ibn Affan.
• Language: The Quran was revealed in the Arabic language. It is considered by Muslims to be the literal word of Allah and a linguistic miracle that cannot be replicated by human beings.
• Role of Wahy: The term used for revelation in Islam is Wahy. This refers to the divine communication directed to prophets. Jibril is the spirit (Ar-Ruh) mentioned in the Quran who brings down this Wahy to the hearts of the chosen messengers.

The correct answer is Ministry of Home Affairs.

Key Points

• The Census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with this office as per the Census Act, 1948. This act provides the legal framework for the census exercise, making it obligatory for the government to conduct the census and for citizens to answer the questions truthfully.
• The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India (RGCCI) is an officer usually of the rank of Joint Secretary or Additional Secretary to the Government of India. They are responsible for planning, executing, and analyzing the data collected during the nationwide exercise.
• The Census is the largest administrative and statistical exercise in the world, aimed at capturing the demographic, social, and economic status of the population at a specific point in time.
• While the Ministry of Home Affairs oversees the general population census, the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) of 2011 was a separate exercise conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation. However, for the standard decennial census, the Ministry of Home Affairs remains the sole authority.

Additional Information

• Historical Background of Indian Census:
• The first non-synchronous census in India was conducted in 1872 under the Governor-Generalship of Lord Mayo.
• The first synchronous census (conducted simultaneously across the country) took place in 1881 under Lord Ripon. Since then, the census has been conducted uninterruptedly every 10 years.
• The Census 2011 marked the 15^th National Census of the country since 1872 and the 7^th Census after Independence.
• Significance and Motto:
• The motto of the 2011 Census was “Our Census, Our Future”.
• Data collected includes age, gender, marital status, literacy, occupation, migration, and fertility. This data is vital for delimitation of constituencies, planning, and policy formulation by the Central and State Governments.
• The Census Act of 1948 guarantees the confidentiality of the information provided by the respondents. Under Section 15 of the Act, the records of the Census are not open to inspection nor admissible in evidence in a court of law.
• Ministry Roles:
• Ministry of Women and Child Development: Focuses on welfare schemes like Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao.
• Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment: Deals with the upliftment of Scheduled Castes, OBCs, and persons with disabilities.
• Ministry of Rural Development: Manages schemes like MGNREGA and Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin).

Important Points

• Digital Transition: The Census 2021 (which was delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic) was planned to be the first digital census in India, utilizing a mobile application for data collection instead of traditional paper schedules.
• National Population Register (NPR): The Office of the Registrar General is also responsible for maintaining the National Population Register (NPR) under the Citizenship Act, 1955. The NPR is a database containing a list of usual residents of the country.
• Vital Statistics: Apart from the census, the ORGI is responsible for the Registration of Births and Deaths across the country through the Civil Registration System (CRS) and the Sample Registration System (SRS), which provides annual estimates of Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR), and Birth/Death rates.

The correct answer is Parliamentary Sovereignty.

Key Points

• Separation of Powers: The Indian Constitution provides for a clear division of functions between the Legislature, the Executive, and the Judiciary. Article 50 specifically directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. Hence, this is a feature of the Constitution.
• The Longest Constitution: India holds the record for the Lengthiest Written Constitution in the world. At its commencement in 1950, it contained 395 Articles, 22 Parts, and 8 Schedules. This length is due to the geographical vastness of India and the inclusion of both Central and State provisions. Hence, this is a feature of the Constitution.
• Semi-federal Constitution: The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of government but with a strong centralizing tendency. It is often described as Quasi-federal or Semi-federal by constitutional experts like K.C. Wheare. Article 1 describes India as a "Union of States." Hence, this is a feature of the Constitution.
• Parliamentary Sovereignty: This is a core principle of the British Constitutional system, where the Parliament has absolute power to make or unmake any law. However, in India, there is Constitutional Supremacy. The Parliament of India is not sovereign as its powers are limited by the Written Constitution, the Federal structure, Fundamental Rights, and Judicial Review. Hence, this is not a feature of the Constitution of India.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Supremacy: Unlike the UK, where Parliament is supreme, in India, the Constitution is the supreme law of the land.

Every law passed by the Legislature must conform to the Constitution; otherwise, the Judiciary can declare it null and void under Article 13.

• Parliamentary Form of Government: India adopted the Westminster model of government. The Executive (Council of Ministers) is responsible to the Legislature (Lok Sabha) for its policies and acts, as per Article 75. This system is implemented at both the Union and State levels.
• Synthesis of Parliamentary Sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy: The Indian political system is a unique blend of the British principle of Parliamentary Sovereignty and the American principle of Judicial Supremacy. While the Supreme Court can declare laws unconstitutional through Judicial Review, the Parliament can amend the major portion of the Constitution through its constituent power.
• Independent and Integrated Judiciary: The Constitution establishes a single integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the apex, followed by High Courts and Subordinate Courts. This ensures the enforcement of both Central and State laws.

Important Points

• Basic Structure Doctrine: In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973, the Supreme Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter its "Basic Structure," which includes features like Secularism, Federalism, and Democracy.
• Universal Adult Franchise: Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age has the right to vote without any discrimination based on caste, race, religion, sex, or literacy. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61^st Constitutional Amendment Act in 1988.
• Sources of the Constitution: The Constitution of India borrowed various features from other countries. For example, Fundamental Rights were taken from the USA, Directive Principles from Ireland, and the Parliamentary system from the UK. The Government of India Act, 1935 served as the primary blueprint for the administrative structure.

The correct answer is Supreme Court of India.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority and the ultimate interpreter of the Constitution of India. It stands at the apex of the Indian judicial system.
• As per Article 124 of the Constitution, there shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India (CJI) and other judges. The current sanctioned strength of the court is 34 judges (including the CJI).
• It was inaugurated on January 28, 1950, succeeding the Federal Court of India established under the Government of India Act, 1935. It is located at Tilak Marg, New Delhi.
• The Supreme Court functions as the highest court of appeal for both civil and criminal cases and has the power of Judicial Review to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders.
• The decisions made by the Supreme Court are binding on all other courts within the territory of India, according to Article 141 of the Constitution.

Additional Information

• High Courts of India:
• These are the highest judicial bodies at the state level. Article 214 provides that there shall be a High Court for each state.
• Currently, there are 25 High Courts in India. For example, the Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court in India, established in 1862.
• While they handle the majority of judicial work in states, they are subordinate to the Supreme Court in terms of appellate hierarchy.
• The President of India:
• The President is the nominal head of the Executive and the first citizen of India.
• While the President has judicial powers such as the power to grant pardons under Article 72, the President is not a judicial authority or a court of law.
• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive) and the head of the Council of Ministers.
• The Prime Minister does not hold any judicial authority within the legal framework of the Indian Judiciary.

Important Points

• Jurisdiction of Supreme Court:
• Original Jurisdiction (Article 131): It deals with disputes between the Center and States or between two or more States.
• Appellate Jurisdiction (Articles 132-134): It hears appeals against the judgments of High Courts.
• Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143): The President may seek the Supreme Court’s opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance.
• Writ Jurisdiction (Article 32): It is the protector and guarantor of Fundamental Rights and can issue writs like Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, and Quo-Warranto.
• Judges Qualifications and Tenure:
• A judge of the Supreme Court must be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of a High Court for at least 5 years or an advocate for 10 years.
• The retirement age for a Supreme Court judge is 65 years, whereas it is 62 years for High Court judges.
• Judges are appointed by the President following the Collegium system.

The correct answer is 1885.

Key Points

• Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee presided over the first session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in the year 1885.
• The historic first session took place from December 28 to December 31, 1885.
• The venue for this inaugural meeting was the Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College located in Bombay (now Mumbai), India.
• The session was attended by 72 delegates who traveled from various parts of the country to discuss the political future of India.
• Initially, the first session was scheduled to be held in Pune, but the venue had to be shifted to Bombay due to a sudden outbreak of cholera in Pune.
• W.C. Bonnerjee, a renowned barrister from Calcutta, was unanimously elected as the first President of the organization.

Additional Information

• The Indian National Congress was founded by Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume), a retired British official of the Indian Civil Service, who acted as the General Secretary.
• At the time of the INC's formation in 1885, Lord Dufferin was serving as the Viceroy of India (tenure: 1884–1888).
• Following the first session, the second session was held in Calcutta in 1886, presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji, often referred to as the "Grand Old Man of India."
• The third session in 1887 was held in Madras (now Chennai) and was presided over by Badruddin Tyabji, who became the first Muslim President of the INC.
• In 1888, the fourth session was held in Allahabad, where George Yule became the first non-Indian (English) to serve as the President.

Important Points

• The primary objective of the Indian National Congress during its early years was to provide a national platform for political and civic education and to seek administrative reforms under the British Raj.
• During the first session, nine resolutions were passed, which included demands for an inquiry into the working of the Indian administration and the simultaneous holding of ICS examinations in England and India.
• The INC eventually transitioned from a moderate organization seeking reforms to a radical movement demanding Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) in 1929.
• The organization played a pivotal role in the Indian Independence Movement, mobilizing millions against colonial rule through various satyagrahas and movements.

The correct answer is Indian Women's Badminton Team.

Key Points

• The Indian Women's Badminton Team created history by clinching the gold medal at the Badminton Asia Team Championships (BATC) 2024.
• The prestigious tournament was held in Shah Alam, Malaysia, at the Setia City Convention Centre from February 13 to 18, 2024.
• In a thrilling final match held on February 18, 2024, India defeated Thailand with a score of 3-2 to secure the top spot on the podium.
• This victory marks the first-ever gold medal for India in the history of the Badminton Asia Team Championships, across any category (Men's or Women's).
• The victory was sealed by the young sensation Anmol Kharb, who won the deciding fifth match against Pornpicha Choeikeewong in straight sets.

Additional Information

• Match Breakdown:
• The first singles match was won by the double Olympic medalist PV Sindhu, who defeated Supanida Katethong.
• The doubles pair of Treesa Jolly and Gayatri Gopichand extended India's lead to 2-0 by defeating the Thai pair Jongkolphan Kititharakul and Rawinda Prajongjai.
• Thailand made a comeback in the next two matches, winning the second singles and second doubles to level the tie at 2-2.
• In the final decider, 17-year-old Anmol Kharb showed exceptional composure to defeat her opponent and secure the Gold for India.
• Significance of the Win:
• This win is a significant milestone for Indian Badminton as it highlights the depth and talent in the women's squad beyond individual rankings.
• The victory automatically qualified the team for the 2024 Uber Cup, the premier international women's team competition.
• The Badminton Association of India (BAI), led by President Himanta Biswa Sarma, announced a cash reward of Rs. 40 lakh for the team following this historic achievement.

Important Points

• Previous Records: Prior to this 2024 victory, the Indian Men's Team had won two bronze medals in the 2016 and 2020 editions of the championship.
• Tournament Format: The Badminton Asia Team Championships is a biennial event organized by Badminton Asia to crown the best national teams in the continent.
• The Road to Final: On their way to the gold, the Indian Women defeated powerhouses like China (in the group stage), Hong Kong (in the quarterfinals), and Japan (in the semifinals).
• Youth Performance: The 2024 campaign was notable for the performance of junior players like Anmol Kharb and Ashmita Chaliha, indicating a bright future for the country in international sports.

The correct answer is The fungal species Entoloma hochstetteri.

Key Points

• Entoloma hochstetteri, commonly known as the Blue Pinkgill or Sky Blue Mushroom, is a species of fungus found in New Zealand, Brazil, and parts of India. Hence, statement A is correct.
• In January 2025, this rare and visually striking mushroom was documented in the Amrabad Tiger Reserve located in the Nallamala Hills of Telangana. This finding is significant as it marks a rare occurrence of this species in the Eastern Ghats region of India.
• The mushroom is characterized by its distinctive all-blue color, which is attributed to azulene pigments present within the fruiting body. The name "Pinkgill" refers to the pinkish tint the gills acquire as the spores mature.
• Agaricus bisporus is the scientific name for the common button mushroom, which is widely cultivated for food and is typically white or brown, not blue. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
• Ganoderma lucidum, also known as Reishi or Lingzhi, is a medicinal fungus with a reddish-brown, woody cap, used extensively in traditional medicine. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
• Pleurotus ostreatus is the scientific name for the Oyster mushroom, a common edible fungus known for its shelf-like growth and fan-shaped cap. Hence, statement D is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Taxonomy and Classification: Entoloma hochstetteri belongs to the family Entolomataceae and the order Agaricales. It was first described in 1866 by the Austrian mycologist Erwin Reichardt.
• Geographical Distribution: While it is most famous as a native species of New Zealand, it has also been recorded in India, particularly in the Western Ghats and the Himalayas. The 2025 discovery in Telangana expands the known ecological range of the species within the Indian subcontinent.
• Cultural Significance: In New Zealand, the mushroom holds high cultural value and was featured on the $50 banknote issued by the Reserve Bank of New Zealand in 1990. It was also featured on a set of postage stamps in 2002.
• Chemical Composition: The vibrant blue color of the mushroom is not a result of bioluminescence but is due to three azulene-type compounds. Researchers are studying these pigments for potential applications in the food and cosmetic industries as natural coloring agents.
• Edibility and Toxicity: Most species in the Entoloma genus are poisonous. While the specific toxicity of Entoloma hochstetteri is not fully documented, it is generally considered inedible and should not be consumed.

Important Points

• Ecological Importance in Telangana: The documentation of the Blue Pinkgill in the Amrabad Tiger Reserve highlights the rich fungal biodiversity of the Telangana forest ecosystems. It underscores the need for continued biodiversity surveys and conservation efforts in the Eastern Ghats.
• Identification Features: The mushroom has a conical cap that can reach up to 4 cm in diameter. The stipe (stem) is also blue and typically 5 to 10 cm long. The spore print of this fungus is pink, a defining characteristic of the Entolomataceae family.
• Discovery Context: The 2025 sighting was made by biodiversity researchers and nature enthusiasts, emphasizing the role of citizen science in documenting rare flora and fauna in India$.

The correct answer is The socio-economic and ecological development of the hills and their inhabitants.

Key Points

• The Hill Area Development Programme (HADP) was initiated during the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79) to address the specific administrative and developmental needs of hilly regions in India.
• The primary objective of the program is the socio-economic development of the hill communities while ensuring ecological preservation and restoration. Hence, statement A is correct.
• The program was designed based on the recommendations of the National Committee on the Development of Backward Areas, which identified that hill areas required a different planning strategy due to their fragile ecosystems and difficult terrain.
• It focuses on integrated development, which includes the improvement of agriculture, horticulture, animal husbandry, and forestry, tailored to the local topographical conditions.
• The Fifth Five-Year Plan marked a shift from general schematic funding to a sub-plan approach, ensuring that Special Central Assistance (SCA) was directed specifically to designated hill areas.

Additional Information

• Geographical Coverage: The HADP covers specifically designated areas such as the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu, the Western Ghats (spanning across Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu), and certain hill districts in Assam (Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills) and West Bengal (Darjeeling).
• Ecology-Development Balance: Unlike plains, hill development prioritizes environmental stability. Over-exploitation of resources for industrialization is discouraged to prevent landslides and soil erosion. Hence, statement D is incorrect.
• Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP): The objective of mitigating the severity of drought and increasing wage employment belongs to the DPAP, which was also launched in the 1970s but focused on arid and semi-arid regions. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
• Employment Schemes: Providing financial assistance to educated unemployed youth is typically handled through schemes like the Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) or PMEGP, not the HADP. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
• Western Ghats Development Programme (WGDP): This is a major component of hill area planning, emphasizing watershed management, eco-restoration, and biodiversity conservation in one of the world's eight "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity.

Important Points

• Funding Pattern: The HADP was funded through Special Central Assistance provided by the Union Government to the states, managed initially by the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
• Key Sectors:
• Social Forestry: To meet the fuel and fodder needs of the local population without destroying natural forests.
• Soil Conservation: Implementation of terracing and contour bonding to prevent topsoil loss.
• Horticulture: Promoting high-value crops like apples, citrus fruits, and spices to improve the income of farmers.
• Administrative Structure: The program encourages decentralized planning, where local Panchayati Raj Institutions play a role in identifying the specific needs of the inhabitants of the hills.

The correct answer is Ahimsa.

Key Points

• Ahimsa, or non-violence, is the most fundamental and supreme principle of Jainism, often summarized by the phrase "Ahimsa Paramo Dharma" (Non-violence is the highest religion).
• In the context of Jaina philosophy, Ahimsa extends far beyond physical violence; it includes mental (Manasa), verbal (Vachana), and physical (Karmana) non-injury toward all living beings.
• Jainism posits that every entity in the universe—including animals, insects, plants, and even microscopic organisms in the air, water, and soil—possesses a Jiva (soul) that experiences pain and pleasure.
• The practice of Ahimsa is essential for a practitioner to stop the influx of Karma. In Jain belief, causing harm to any Jiva attracts dark karmic matter to the soul, preventing Moksha (liberation from the cycle of birth and death).
• The 24^th Tirthankara, Lord Mahavira (born in 599 BCE in Kundagrama, Bihar), intensified the strictness of this vow, requiring monks to take extreme precautions, such as using a Rajoharan (broom) to sweep the path and a Muhapatti (mouth mask) to avoid inhaling tiny organisms.

Additional Information

• The Five Great Vows (Mahavratas):
• Satya (Truthfulness): This vow requires practitioners to always speak the truth. However, if the truth causes harm to an innocent being, silence is preferred. Hence, Satya is often considered subordinate to Ahimsa.
• Asteya (Non-stealing): This involves not taking anything that is not explicitly given by the owner. It applies to material goods as well as ideas and intellectual property.
• Aparigraha (Non-attachment): This refers to the renunciation of worldly possessions. For monks, it means total detachment; for laypeople (Sravakas), it means limiting one’s desires and wealth.
• Brahmacharya (Chastity): This vow was specifically added by Lord Mahavira to the four existing vows of the 23^rd Tirthankara, Parshvanatha. It mandates complete celibacy for monks and fidelity for householders.
• Anuvratas vs. Mahavratas:
• The Mahavratas (Great Vows) are intended for monks and nuns (ascetics), requiring absolute and rigorous adherence.
• The Anuvratas (Lesser Vows) are designed for lay followers (householders), allowing for practical exceptions, such as unavoidable violence in agriculture or self-defense.
• The Three Jewels (Ratnatraya):
• The path to Moksha in Jainism is paved by the Ratnatraya: Samyak Darshana (Right Faith), Samyak Gyana (Right Knowledge), and Samyak Charitra (Right Conduct). Ahimsa is the core component of Right Conduct.

Important Points

• Anekantavada: This is the Jaina doctrine of non-absolutism or "many-sidedness." It suggests that truth and reality are complex and have multiple aspects. This intellectual form of Ahimsa encourages respecting the views of others.
• Dietary Practices: Due to the extreme focus on Ahimsa, Jains follow a strict vegetarian diet. Devout followers often avoid root vegetables (like potatoes and onions) because harvesting them involves killing the entire plant and harming organisms living in the soil.
• Historical Impact: The Jaina concept of Ahimsa deeply influenced Mahatma Gandhi during the Indian Independence Movement. He adopted the principles of Non-violence and Satyagraha as powerful political tools, inspired by the teachings of Jaina philosophers like Shrimad Rajchandra.
• Santhara/Sallekhana: This is a highly specialized religious practice where a person voluntarily fasts to death. In Jainism, it is viewed as the ultimate form of Ahimsa toward the soul, allowing it to depart from the body without creating new Karma through the consumption of food.

The correct answer is Vijayalaya Chola.

Key Points

• Vijayalaya Chola is the historical founder of the Imperial Chola dynasty, which rose to prominence in the 9^th century.
• He established his rule around 848 AD by capturing the city of Thanjavur from the Muttarayar chieftains, who were subordinates of the Pandyas. Hence, the option Vijayalaya Chola is the correct answer.
• Before establishing an independent kingdom, Vijayalaya was a feudatory of the Pallava dynasty. He exploited the ongoing conflict between the Pallavas and the Pandyas to carve out his own territory in the Kaveri delta.
• He made Thanjavur his capital and built a temple dedicated to the goddess Nishumbhasudini (a form of Durga) to commemorate his victory.
• His reign ended the long period of political obscurity for the Cholas, who had been a significant power during the Sangam Age but had faded away for several centuries.

Additional Information

• Rajaraja Chola I:
• He reigned from 985 AD to 1014 AD and is considered one of the greatest monarchs of the Chola Empire.
• He was responsible for the construction of the magnificent Brihadisvara Temple (also known as the Rajarajeswaram) in Thanjavur, which was completed in 1010 AD.
• He initiated a massive expansion, conquering the Chera and Pandya kingdoms and northern Sri Lanka. Hence, the statement regarding Rajaraja Chola I as the founder is incorrect.
• Parantaka Chola I:
• He ruled from 907 AD to 955 AD and was the grandson of Vijayalaya.
• He is famous for his victory over the Pandyan king and the Sri Lankan army, earning him the title Maduraikondan (Captor of Madurai).
• The Uttiramerur Inscriptions, which provide a detailed account of the village administration and local self-governance under the Cholas, date back to his reign. Hence, the statement regarding Parantaka Chola I as the founder is incorrect.
• Gandaraditya Chola:
• He was the son of Parantaka I and ruled for a short period between 950 AD and 957 AD.
• He was more of a religious devotee than a warrior and is known for composing Tamil hymns included in the Tiruvisaippa (part of the Shaivite canon). Hence, the statement regarding Gandaraditya Chola as the founder is incorrect.

Important Points

• The Chola Dynasty was divided into three distinct periods: the Early Cholas (Sangam era), the Medieval Cholas (Imperial Cholas), and the Later Cholas (Chalukya-Cholas).
• The Imperial Chola administration was unique for its decentralized system, where Nadu (districts) and Ur (villages) enjoyed significant autonomy.
• The Cholas maintained a powerful Navy, which enabled them to influence Southeast Asian kingdoms like Srivijaya (modern-day Indonesia and Malaysia).
• They were great patrons of art and architecture, particularly the Dravidian style, and are world-renowned for their Chola Bronzes, such as the iconic Nataraja (Dancing Shiva) statue.
• Under Rajendra Chola I, the son of Rajaraja I, the empire reached its zenith, extending up to the Ganges river in the north, leading him to take the title Gangaikonda Chola.

Shortcut Trick

Profit = 100% → Selling Price (SP) is twice the Cost Price (CP).

For a constant expenditure (₹1), Quantity is inversely proportional to the Price.

Price Ratio (CP : SP) = 100 : 200 = 1 : 2.

Quantity Ratio (Bought : Sold) = 2 :

1. Given Sold = 1 unit = 27 chocolates, then Bought = 2 units = 2 × 27 = 54.

∴ The correct answer is 54 chocolates.

Alternate Method

Given: SP of 27 chocolates = ₹1, Profit = 100%.

Formula: CP = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 + Profit %]

Cost Price (CP) 100% Profit (P) 100% Total SP = 200% Quantity Bought: 54 Quantity Sold: 27

⇒ Selling Price (SP) of 1 chocolate = ₹1/27

⇒ Profit = 100%

⇒ Cost Price (CP) of 1 chocolate = (1/27) ÷ (1 + 100/100)

⇒ CP of 1 chocolate = (1/27) ÷ 2

⇒ CP of 1 chocolate = ₹1/54

⇒ Since CP of 1 chocolate is ₹1/54, number of chocolates bought for ₹1 = 54.

∴ The correct answer is 54 chocolates.

Additional Information

Quantity-Price Relation

When the total expenditure remains constant, the quantity is inversely proportional to the price per unit. If price increases by 25% (ratio 4:5), quantity must decrease by 20% (ratio 5:4).

Cost Price Formula

CP = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 + Profit %] or CP = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 − Loss %].

Profit and Loss on Quantity

Profit % = [(Quantity Bought − Quantity Sold) ÷ Quantity Sold] × 100, provided the CP of the bought quantity equals the SP of the sold quantity.

Shortcut Trick

When time is constant, Distance ∝ Speed.

Ratio of speeds (Actual : New) = 20 : 25 = 4 : 5.

Since time is constant, Ratio of distances = 4 : 5.

Difference in distance ratio = 5 − 4 = 1 part.

Given 1 part = 15 km, then 4 parts = 4 × 15 = 60 km.

∴ The correct answer is 60 km.

Alternate Method

Given:

Actual Speed (S₁) = 20 km/h

Hypothetical Speed (S₂) = 25 km/h

Extra distance covered = 15 km

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Start Actual (D) +15 km At 20 km/h → covers D At 25 km/h → covers D + 15

Calculations:

⇒ Let the time taken for the travel be t hours.

⇒ Actual distance (D) = 20 × t

⇒ Hypothetical distance = 25 × t

⇒ According to the question: 25t − 20t = 15

⇒ 5t = 15

⇒ t = 15 ÷ 5 = 3 hours

⇒ Actual distance = 20 × 3 = 60 km

∴ The correct answer is 60 km.

Additional Information

Direct Proportionality

When time is constant, the ratio of distances is equal to the ratio of speeds: D₁/D₂ = S₁/S₂.

Inverse Proportionality

When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time: S₁/S₂ = T₂/T₁.

Average Speed

For two equal distances covered at speeds x and y, Average Speed = (2 × x × y) ÷ (x + y).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of prices = 3 : 5 : 7

Sum of ratio parts = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15

Average of ratio parts = 15 ÷ 3 = 5 units

Given average = ₹17,145 ⇒ 5 units = ₹17,145

1 unit = 17,145 ÷ 5 = ₹3,429

Most expensive item (7 units) = 7 × 3,429 = ₹24,003

∴ The correct answer is ₹24,003.

Alternate Method

Given: Average price of 3 items = ₹17,145; Price ratio = 3 : 5 : 7.

Formula Used: Total sum = Average × Number of items; Value of part = (Part ÷ Total parts) × Total sum.

3x 5x 7x (Expensive) Total Sum = 17,145 × 3 = ₹51,435 Total parts = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15 units

⇒ Total sum of prices = 17,145 × 3 = ₹51,435

⇒ Let the prices be 3x, 5x, and 7x.

⇒ 3x + 5x + 7x = 51,435

⇒ 15x = 51,435

⇒ x = 51,435 ÷ 15

⇒ x = ₹3,429

⇒ Price of most expensive item = 7x = 7 × 3,429

⇒ Price = ₹24,003

∴ The correct answer is ₹24,003.

Additional Information

Average and Ratio Relationship

The average of numbers in a ratio can be found by dividing the sum of ratio parts by the number of items. (Sum of Ratios ÷ n) × Constant = Average.

Weighted Average

When groups have different sizes, Weighted Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is the count and A is the average.

Ratio Distribution

To find any component from a total, use the formula: Value = (Specific Ratio Part ÷ Total Ratio Sum) × Total Value.

Shortcut Trick

Break all bases into prime factors: 2, 3, and 7.

Term 1 (2⁷ × 3³ × 7¹) | Term 2 (2³ × 3⁴ × 7²) | Term 3 (2¹³ × 3⁴ × 7²).

LCM = Highest powers of each prime → 2^max(7,3,13) × 3^max(3,4,4) × 7^max(1,2,2).

LCM = 2¹³ × 3⁴ × 7².

∴ The correct answer is 2¹³ × 3⁴ × 7².

Alternate Method

Given:

E1 = 3³ × 8² × 14

E2 = 3² × 14² × 18

E3 = 8³ × 14² × 18²

Formula: LCM is the product of the highest power of every prime factor present across all expressions.

E1: 3³ × (2³)² × (2 × 7) = 2⁷ × 3³ × 7¹ E2: 3² × (2 × 7)² × (2 × 3²) = 2³ × 3⁴ × 7² E3: (2³)³ × (2 × 7)² × (2 × 3²)² = 2¹³ × 3⁴ × 7² LCM (Highest Powers): 2¹³ × 3⁴ × 7²

⇒ E1 = 3³ × (2³)² × (2¹ × 7¹) = 3³ × 2⁶ × 2¹ × 7¹ = 2⁷ × 3³ × 7¹

⇒ E2 = 3² × (2¹ × 7¹)² × (2¹ × 3²) = 3² × 2² × 7² × 2¹ × 3² = 2³ × 3⁴ × 7²

⇒ E3 = (2³)³ × (2¹ × 7¹)² × (2¹ × 3²)² = 2⁹ × 2² × 7² × 2² × 3⁴ = 2¹³ × 3⁴ × 7²

⇒ LCM = 2^max(7,3,13) × 3^max(3,4,4) × 7^max(1,2,2)

⇒ LCM = 2¹³ × 3⁴ × 7²

∴ The correct answer is 2¹³ × 3⁴ × 7².

Additional Information

HCF of Algebraic Expressions

HCF is the product of the lowest power of common prime factors. In this case, HCF = 2³ × 3² × 7¹.

LCM of Fractions

LCM of Fractions = LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators.

LCM × HCF Relationship

For two numbers A and B: A × B = LCM(A, B) × HCF(A, B). This rule does not apply directly to three or more numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Total Surface Area (TSA) / 2 = lw + h(l + w)

432 ÷ 2 = (6 × 8) + h(6 + 8) ⇒ 216 = 48 + 14h

14h = 168 ⇒ h = 12 cm

Diagonal = √(l² + w² + h²) = √(6² + 8² + 12²)

Diagonal = √(36 + 64 + 144) = √244 = 2√61 cm

∴ The correct answer is 2√61 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Length (l) = 6 cm, Width (w) = 8 cm, Total Surface Area = 432 cm²

Formula Used: Total Surface Area = 2(lw + wh + hl) | Diagonal = √(l² + w² + h²)

 Length (l) = 6 Width (w) = 8 Height (h) = 12 Diagonal (d)

⇒ Total Surface Area = 2(lw + wh + hl)

⇒ 432 = 2((6 × 8) + (8 × h) + (6 × h))

⇒ 216 = 48 + 8h + 6h

⇒ 216 − 48 = 14h

⇒ 168 = 14h

⇒ h = 168 ÷ 14 = 12 cm

⇒ Diagonal (d) = √(l² + w² + h²)

⇒ d = √(6² + 8² + 12²)

⇒ d = √(36 + 64 + 144)

⇒ d = √244 = √(4 × 61) = 2√61 cm

∴ The correct answer is 2√61 cm.

Additional Information

Volume of Cuboid

The volume of a cuboid is the space occupied by it, calculated as V = length × width × height (l × w × h).

Lateral Surface Area (LSA)

LSA includes only the four side faces, excluding top and bottom: LSA = 2h(l + w).

Diagonal of a Cube

For a cube where l = w = h = a, the diagonal formula simplifies to d = a√3.

Shortcut Trick

Total Sum = Average × 3 = 17,160 × 3 = ₹51,480.

Total Ratio parts = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15 units.

Value per unit = 51,480 ÷ 15 = ₹3,432.

Most expensive item (7 units) = 7 × 3,432 = ₹24,024.

∴ The correct answer is ₹24,024.

Alternate Method

Given: Average Price = ₹17,160, Ratio of Prices = 3 : 5 : 7

Formula Used: Sum of Observations = Average × Total Number of Observations

3x 5x 7x (Max) Total Price = ₹51,480 Ratio division of 3 items

⇒ Let the prices of the three items be 3x, 5x, and 7x.

⇒ Total price = 17,160 × 3 = ₹51,480

⇒ 3x + 5x + 7x = 51,480

⇒ 15x = 51,480

⇒ x = 51,480 ÷ 15

⇒ x = 3,432

⇒ Price of most expensive item = 7x = 7 × 3,432

⇒ Price = ₹24,024

∴ The correct answer is ₹24,024.

Additional Information

Average Formula

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations). To find the sum, multiply average by the count.

Ratio Distribution

If a total value V is divided in ratio a : b : c, then the value of the largest part is [max(a,b,c) ÷ (a+b+c)] × V.

Weighted Average

When items have different frequencies or weights, the weighted average is (∑w_ix_i) ÷ ∑w_i.

Shortcut Trick

In every set of 10 consecutive numbers (like 1-10, 11-20), there are exactly 2 numbers ending in 1 or 8.

From 1 to 130, there are exactly 130 ÷ 10 = 13 such sets of ten.

Total numbers ending in 1 or 8 = 13 × 2 = 26.

Required percentage = (26 ÷ 130) × 100 = (1 ÷ 5) × 100 = 20%.

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given: Range of numbers from 1 to 130. Required unit digits are 1 or 8.

Formula Used: Percentage = (Count of favorable numbers ÷ Total numbers) × 100

1 130 Total Range (130 numbers) ...1 ...8 x 13 blocks Favorable: 13 × 2 = 26

⇒ Total numbers in the range (1 to 130) = 130

⇒ Numbers ending in 1: 1, 11, 21, 31, 41, 51, 61, 71, 81, 91, 101, 111, 121

⇒ Count of numbers ending in 1 = 13

⇒ Numbers ending in 8: 8, 18, 28, 38, 48, 58, 68, 78, 88, 98, 108, 118, 128

⇒ Count of numbers ending in 8 = 13

⇒ Total favorable numbers = 13 + 13 = 26

⇒ Percentage = (26 ÷ 130) × 100

⇒ Percentage = (1 ÷ 5) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Percentage Calculation

To find what percent x is of y, use the formula: (x ÷ y) × 100.

Arithmetic Progression (AP) Counting

The number of terms in an AP is n = [(Last Term − First Term) ÷ Common Difference] + 1.

Unit Digit Distribution

In any range of 10n consecutive integers, every digit (0-9) appears exactly n times in the unit's place.

Shortcut Trick

Total discount = MP − SP = 835 − 668 = ₹167.

Since the two discounts are equal in amount, each discount = 167 ÷ 2 = ₹83.5.

First discount % (d) = (Discount amount ÷ MP) × 100

d = (83.5 ÷ 835) × 100 = 10.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹835

Final Selling Price (SP) = ₹668

First discount = d% of MP

Second discount = Same amount as first discount (in ₹)

Formula:

Total Discount = MP − SP

Discount Amount = (Rate ÷ 100) × MP

MP = ₹835 Selling Price (₹668) Disc 1 (d%) Disc 2 (₹)  Total Discount = ₹167

Calculations:

⇒ Total Discount = 835 − 668 = ₹167

⇒ Since both discounts are equal in value, let each discount be x.

⇒ 2x = 167

⇒ x = 167 ÷ 2 = 83.5

⇒ This ₹83.5 is the d% of the Marked Price.

⇒ (d ÷ 100) × 835 = 83.5

⇒ d = (83.5 × 100) ÷ 835

⇒ d = 8350 ÷ 835

⇒ d = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP)

The price labeled on an item before any discount is applied. It is also known as List Price or Tag Price.

Successive Discounts

When two or more discounts are applied one after another. Net discount % = [a + b − (ab/100)]% for two successive discounts a% and b%.

Discount vs. Profit

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP), while Profit or Loss is calculated on the Cost Price (CP).

Shortcut Trick

Total ratio parts = 21 + 10 = 31 units

Given total students = 8,184

31 units = 8,184 → 1 unit = 264

Number of boys = 21 units = 21 × 264 = 5,544

∴ The correct answer is 5,544 boys.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of students = 8,184

Ratio of boys to girls = 21 : 10

Formula Used:

Value of a part = (Individual Ratio ÷ Sum of Ratios) × Total Value

Boys (21 units) Girls (10) Total Students = 31 units = 8,184 1 unit = 8,184 ÷ 31 = 264 Boys = 21 × 264 = 5,544

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 21 + 10 = 31

⇒ Value of 1 unit = 8,184 ÷ 31

⇒ Value of 1 unit = 264

⇒ Number of boys = 21 × 264

⇒ Number of boys = 5,544

∴ The correct answer is 5,544 boys.

Additional Information

Ratio Distribution

To divide a quantity Q into a ratio a : b, the first part is [a ÷ (a + b)] × Q and the second part is [b ÷ (a + b)] × Q.

Compounded Ratio

The compounded ratio of two or more ratios is the product of their antecedents divided by the product of their consequents: (a × c) : (b × d).

Duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of any ratio a : b is found by squaring both terms, resulting in a² : b².

Shortcut Trick

When Simple Interest and Time are the same for two parts, the ratio of the Principal amounts is inversely proportional to the ratio of their Interest Rates.

Ratio of Rates (R₁ : R₂) = 11 : 4

Ratio of Investment (P₁ : P₂) = 4 : 11

Sum of ratio parts = 4 + 11 = 15 units

15 units = ₹22,500 → 1 unit = ₹1,500

Investment at 11% (P₁) = 4 units = 4 × 1,500 = ₹6,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹6,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Principal (P) = ₹22,500

Rate 1 (R₁) = 11%, Rate 2 (R₂) = 4%

Time (T) = 7 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Total Investment: ₹22,500 Part 1 (P1) Rate: 11% Part 2 (P2) Rate: 4% Condition: SI1 = SI2 for 7 years

Calculations:

⇒ Let the amount invested at 11% be P₁ and at 4% be P₂.

⇒ Total sum P₁ + P₂ = 22,500

⇒ Interest earned on P₁ = (P₁ × 11 × 7) ÷ 100

⇒ Interest earned on P₂ = (P₂ × 4 × 7) ÷ 100

⇒ Since SI₁ = SI₂:

⇒ (P₁ × 11 × 7) ÷ 100 = (P₂ × 4 × 7) ÷ 100

⇒ 11 × P₁ = 4 × P₂

⇒ P₁ ÷ P₂ = 4 ÷ 11

⇒ P₁ = (4 ÷ 15) × 22,500

⇒ P₁ = 4 × 1,500 = 6,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹6,000.

Additional Information

Total Amount in Simple Interest

The total amount (A) after T years is the sum of Principal (P) and Simple Interest (SI): A = P + (P × R × T) ÷ 100 = P(1 + RT ÷ 100).

Principal Division for Equal Amounts

If two parts are invested such that the total amounts (A1 and A2) are equal after T years, the ratio of investment is P1 : P2 = [1 ÷ (100 + R1T1)] : [1 ÷ (100 + R2T2)].

Effective Rate of Interest

For Simple Interest, the effective rate for the entire duration T is simply R × T. This helps in direct percentage calculations on the Principal.

Shortcut Trick

Effective Profit % = Mark-up % − Discount % − (Mark-up × Discount) ÷ 100

Profit % = 40 − 20 − (40 × 20) ÷ 100 = 20 − 8 = 12%

Given: 12% of CP = ₹129 ⇒ 1% of CP = 129 ÷ 12 = 10.75

Marked Price (MP) = 140% of CP = 140 × 10.75 = ₹1505

∴ The correct answer is ₹1505.

Alternate Method

Given:

Mark-up percentage = 40%

Discount percentage = 20%

Profit amount = ₹129

Formula Used:

SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100 | Profit = SP − CP

CP (100%) MP (140%) SP (112%) +40% Mark-up −20% Disc. Profit = SP − CP = 12% = ₹129

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of the fan be 100x.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = CP + 40% of CP = 100x + 40x = 140x.

⇒ Discount = 20% of MP = (20 ÷ 100) × 140x = 28x.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount = 140x − 28x = 112x.

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 112x − 100x = 12x.

⇒ According to the question, 12x = 129.

⇒ x = 129 ÷ 12 = 10.75.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 140x = 140 × 10.75 = ₹1505.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1505.

Additional Information

Mark-up and Discount Relation

The ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price can be expressed as: CP ÷ MP = (100 − Discount%) ÷ (100 + Profit%).

Effective Profit Percentage

When a product is marked up by M% and then a discount of D% is offered, the net profit/loss % = [M − D − (M × D) ÷ 100]%.

Marked Price Formula

MP = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 − Discount %]. It is always the base for calculating discount.

Shortcut Trick

Count the total number of decimal places in the expression.

Given: 3587 (0) × 865.9 (1) × 0.5228 (4) → Total = 5 decimal places.

Option B: 35.87 (2) × 8659 (0) × 5.228 (3) → Total = 5 decimal places.

Since the digits and the number of decimal places match, Option B is equal to the given expression.

∴ The correct answer is 35.87 × 8659 × 5.228.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 3587 × 865.9 × 0.5228

Formula: If numbers consist of the same digits, their products are equal if the total number of decimal places (powers of 10) are the same.

⇒ Total decimal places in Question = 0 + 1 + 4 = 5

⇒ Total decimal places in Option A = 1 (358.7) + 1 (865.9) + 1 (522.8) = 3

⇒ Total decimal places in Option B = 2 (35.87) + 0 (8659) + 3 (5.228) = 5

⇒ Total decimal places in Option C = 3 (3.587) + 3 (8.659) + 1 (522.8) = 7

⇒ Total decimal places in Option D = 3 (3.587) + 2 (86.59) + 2 (52.28) = 7

⇒ Comparing the counts, Option B matches the given expression.

∴ The correct answer is 35.87 × 8659 × 5.228.

Additional Information

Decimal Multiplication Rule

To multiply decimals, multiply the numbers as whole numbers and then place the decimal point so that the result has as many decimal places as the sum of decimal places in the factors.

Powers of 10 Notation

Any decimal can be written as x × 10⁻ⁿ, where n is the number of digits after the decimal point. Shifting the decimal left increases n, and shifting right decreases n.

Commutative and Associative Properties

In multiplication, the order of numbers and how they are grouped does not change the product (a × b × c = b × a × c).

Given:

Total students = 2000

Physics students = 15%

Formula Used:

Number of students = Total students × Percentage ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Physics percentage = 15%

⇒ Number of Physics students = 2000 × 15 ÷ 100

⇒ = 300

∴ The correct answer is 300 students.

Shortcut Trick

Total work = LCM of (24, 12, 9) = 72 units.

Efficiency (Jaya) = 72 ÷ 24 = 3 units/day.

Efficiency (Jaya + Sushma) = 72 ÷ 12 = 6 units/day.

Efficiency (Jaya + Sushma + Hina) = 72 ÷ 9 = 8 units/day.

Efficiency (Hina) = 8 − 6 = 2 units/day.

Time (Jaya + Hina) = 72 ÷ (3 + 2) = 72/5 days.

∴ The correct answer is 72/5 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by Jaya = 24 days, Jaya + Sushma = 12 days, Jaya + Sushma + Hina = 9 days.

Formula used: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time taken.

⇒ Efficiency of Jaya = 3 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Sushma = Efficiency (Jaya + Sushma) − Efficiency (Jaya) = 6 − 3 = 3 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Hina = Efficiency (Jaya + Sushma + Hina) − Efficiency (Jaya + Sushma) = 8 − 6 = 2 units/day

⇒ Combined efficiency of Jaya and Hina = Efficiency (Jaya) + Efficiency (Hina) = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day

⇒ Time taken by Jaya and Hina = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency = 72 ÷ 5 = 72/5 days

∴ The correct answer is 72/5 days.

Additional Information

Work and Wages

Wages are generally distributed in the ratio of the work done by each person, which is equivalent to the ratio of their efficiencies if they work for the same amount of time.

Combined Efficiency Rule

If A can do a work in X days and B in Y days, their 1 day work is (1/X + 1/Y). The time taken together is (X × Y) ÷ (X + Y).

Pipes and Cisterns

The same LCM logic applies where inlet pipes have positive efficiency and outlet (leakage) pipes have negative efficiency.

Shortcut Trick

Area of a triangle = (1 ÷ 2) × Base × Height

Area = (1 ÷ 2) × 26 × 16

Area = 13 × 16 = 208 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 208 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Base (b) = 26 cm

Height (h) = 16 cm

Formula Used:

Area of Triangle = (1 ÷ 2) × b × h

h = 16 cm Base = 26 cm Area = (1/2) × 26 × 16 = 208 cm<sup>2</sup>

⇒ Area = (1 ÷ 2) × 26 × 16

⇒ Area = 13 × 16

⇒ Area = 208 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 208 cm².

Additional Information

Heron's Formula

For a triangle with sides a, b, and c, Area = √(s(s−a)(s−b)(s−c)), where semi-perimeter s = (a + b + c) ÷ 2.

Equilateral Triangle Area

The area of an equilateral triangle with side 'a' is given by (√3 ÷ 4) × a².

Right-angled Triangle Area

Area = (1 ÷ 2) × Product of legs (Base × Perpendicular).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Kalpana's marks to Sudha's marks = 566 : 849 = 2 : 3.

Since Kalpana's score (2 units) represents 40%,

Value of 1 unit = 40% ÷ 2 = 20%.

Sudha's percentage (3 units) = 3 × 20% = 60%.

∴ The correct answer is 60%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Kalpana's Marks = 566

Kalpana's Percentage = 40%

Sudha's Marks = 849

Formula Used:

Total Marks = (Obtained Marks × 100) ÷ Percentage Obtained

Percentage = (Value ÷ Total Marks) × 100

Kalpana: 566 Marks (40%) Sudha: 849 Marks (x%)  Total: 1415 (100%) Comparison of Scores

Calculations:

⇒ Let total marks be T.

⇒ 40% of T = 566

⇒ T = (566 × 100) ÷ 40

⇒ T = 14.15 × 100 = 1415

⇒ Sudha's Percentage = (849 ÷ 1415) × 100

⇒ Sudha's Percentage = 0.6 × 100

⇒ Sudha's Percentage = 60%

∴ The correct answer is 60%.

Additional Information

Direct Proportion Method

When total marks are constant, obtained marks are directly proportional to percentage: M₁/P₁ = M₂/P₂.

Percentage Change Formula

To find the % increase from Kalpana to Sudha: [(849 − 566) ÷ 566] × 100 = 50% increase over Kalpana's score.

Base Value Concept

The percentage always depends on the base (Total Marks). Changing the base value changes the resultant percentage for the same absolute value.

Shortcut Trick

Net Efficiency = Efficiency of (Inlet A + Inlet B − Outlet C)

Assume Total Work = LCM(10, 12, 16) = 240 units

Efficiencies: A = 24, B = 20, C = 15 (negative)

Combined Efficiency = 24 + 20 − 15 = 29

Time Taken = Total Work ÷ Net Efficiency = 240 ÷ 29 = 8 8/29 hours

∴ The correct answer is 8 8/29 hours.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Tap A to fill = 10 hours

Time taken by Tap B to fill = 12 hours

Time taken by Tap C to empty = 16 hours

Formula Used:

Total Work = Time × Efficiency

⇒ LCM of 10, 12, 16 = 240 (Total capacity of the tank)

⇒ Efficiency of Tap A = 240 ÷ 10 = 24 units/hr

⇒ Efficiency of Tap B = 240 ÷ 12 = 20 units/hr

⇒ Efficiency of Tap C = 240 ÷ 16 = 15 units/hr (Emptying)

⇒ Combined efficiency of (A + B − C) = 24 + 20 − 15 = 29 units/hr

⇒ Time required to fill the tank = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency

⇒ Time = 240 ÷ 29 = 8 8/29 hours

∴ The correct answer is 8 8/29 hours.

Additional Information

Inlet and Outlet Pipes

An inlet pipe fills a tank (positive work), while an outlet pipe empties it (negative work). Net work = ∑ (Inlet rates) − ∑ (Outlet rates).

Alternate Day Work

When pipes operate alternately, calculate the combined work for one full cycle (e.g., 2 or 3 hours) and then multiply to reach the total capacity.

Pipes and Cisterns Unitary Method

If a pipe fills a tank in x hours, the part filled in 1 hour is 1/x. For multiple pipes, add the 1-hour fractions: 1/T = 1/x + 1/y − 1/z.

Shortcut Trick

Year 1 balance: (17,100 × 1.4) − 8,900 = 23,940 − 8,900 = 15,040

Year 2 balance: (15,040 × 1.4) − 8,900 = 21,056 − 8,900 = 12,156

Remaining debt after two installments = ₹12,156.

∴ The correct answer is ₹12,156.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal (P) = ₹17,100; Rate (R) = 40% p.a.; Installment (I) = ₹8,900

Formula: Amount (A) = Principal × (1 + R/100)

Year 0 ₹17,100 +40% CI Year 1 Pay 8,900 Year 2 Pay 8,900 Final Debt: ₹12,156

⇒ Amount at the end of 1^st year = 17,100 × (1 + 40/100)

⇒ 17,100 × 1.4 = ₹23,940

⇒ Balance after 1^st installment = 23,940 − 8,900 = ₹15,040

⇒ Amount at the end of 2^nd year = 15,040 × 1.4

⇒ 15,040 × 1.4 = ₹21,056

⇒ Balance after 2^nd installment = 21,056 − 8,900 = ₹12,156

∴ The correct answer is ₹12,156.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Compound Interest

For two years at R% per annum, the net effective rate is (R + R + (R × R)/100)%.

Reducing Balance Method

In partial payments, the interest is calculated on the remaining principal after each installment is deducted.

Compound Interest Formula

Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ, where P is principal, R is rate, and n is time in years.

Shortcut Trick

Given: 7P = 8Q = 4R

Direct Ratio P : Q : R = (8 × 4) : (7 × 4) : (7 × 8) = 32 : 28 : 56

Simplified Ratio P : Q : R = 8 : 7 : 14

Total units = 8 + 7 + 14 = 29 units → ₹5,800

1 unit = ₹200 ∴ R's share (14 units) = 14 × 200 = ₹2,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,800.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount to be divided = ₹5,800

Relation: 7P = 8Q = 4R

Formula Used:

Share of a person = (Individual Ratio ÷ Total Ratio) × Total Amount

P Q R 8 units 7 units 14 units  Total Ratio = 8 + 7 + 14 = 29 units Total = ₹5,800

Calculations:

⇒ 7P = 8Q = 4R = k (constant)

⇒ P = k/7, Q = k/8, R = k/4

⇒ Ratio P : Q : R = 1/7 : 1/8 : 1/4

⇒ Multiply by LCM of (7, 8, 4) which is 56

⇒ P : Q : R = (1/7 × 56) : (1/8 × 56) : (1/4 × 56)

⇒ P : Q : R = 8 : 7 : 14

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 8 + 7 + 14 = 29 units

⇒ Value of 29 units = ₹5,800

⇒ Value of 1 unit = 5,800 ÷ 29 = ₹200

⇒ R's share = 14 units = 14 × 200

⇒ R's share = ₹2,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,800.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion Basics

If aA = bB = cC, then A : B : C = 1/a : 1/b : 1/c. To simplify, multiply by the LCM of a, b, and c.

Inverse Ratio

The inverse ratio of a : b is 1/a : 1/b, which can be simplified to b : a for two variables.

Dividing a Quantity

To divide amount X in ratio a : b : c, the shares are [a/(a+b+c)]×X, [b/(a+b+c)]×X, and [c/(a+b+c)]×X respectively.

Shortcut Trick

Total Distance = 516 + 690 + 873 = 2079 km

Total Time = (516 ÷ 86) + (690 ÷ 69) + (873 ÷ 97) = 6 + 10 + 9 = 25 hours

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = 2079 ÷ 25

Average Speed = (2079 × 4) ÷ 100 = 83.16 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 83.16 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance₁ = 516 km, Speed₁ = 86 km/hr

Distance₂ = 690 km, Speed₂ = 69 km/hr

Distance₃ = 873 km, Speed₃ = 97 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

     516 km 86 km/h 690 km 69 km/h 873 km 97 km/h Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Time for first part (t₁) = 516 ÷ 86 = 6 hours

⇒ Time for second part (t₂) = 690 ÷ 69 = 10 hours

⇒ Time for third part (t₃) = 873 ÷ 97 = 9 hours

⇒ Total Distance = 516 + 690 + 873 = 2079 km

⇒ Total Time = 6 + 10 + 9 = 25 hours

⇒ Average Speed = 2079 ÷ 25

⇒ Average Speed = 83.16 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 83.16 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Two Equal Distances

When a person travels two equal distances at speeds x and y, the average speed is given by (2 × x × y) ÷ (x + y).

Average Speed for Equal Time Intervals

When a person travels for equal time intervals at speeds v₁, v₂, and v₃, the average speed is the arithmetic mean: (v₁ + v₂ + v₃) ÷ 3.

Relative Speed

If two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference (s₁ − s₂). If they move in opposite directions, it is the sum (s₁ + s₂).

The correct answer is: Eulogy.

Key Points

• The word "Eulogy" refers to a speech or written work that highly praises someone or something, especially a tribute to a deceased person. (शोक-प्रशंसा)
• Example: The daughter delivered a heartfelt eulogy at her father’s funeral, highlighting his kindness and generosity.

Explanation:

• A Eulogy is a formal expression of praise, often written or spoken, particularly for someone who has passed away. It is a way to honor their life and achievements. (शोक-प्रशंसा)
• Example: The priest delivered a moving eulogy in honor of the late community leader.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Eulogy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Parody (हास्य व्यंग्य): A humorous imitation of a serious piece of literature, art, or music, often done to mock or entertain.
• Example: The comedian performed a parody of the latest political speech, leaving the audience in splits.
• Satire (व्यंग्य): The use of humor, irony, or exaggeration to criticize or expose foolishness, often in politics or social issues.
• Example: The book is a brilliant satire that highlights the absurdities of modern society.
• Soliloquy (स्वगत कथन): A speech in a play where a character speaks their thoughts aloud, typically when alone.
• Example: Hamlet’s soliloquy "To be or not to be" is one of the most famous speeches in English literature.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the invention of the printing press by Johannes Gutenberg and its impact on society.
• Sentence B is the first sentence because it introduces the invention of the printing press and its mechanism:
• "In the 15^th century, Johannes Gutenberg invented the printing press, a machine that used movable type to mass-produce books."
• Sentence A follows because it explains how the printing press revolutionised communication and made books more accessible:
• "The printing press revolutionised communication and knowledge sharing, making books more accessible to a wider audience."
• Sentence C is the third sentence as it highlights the profound impact of the invention on various fields:
• "This invention had a profound impact on education, religion and science, as it facilitated the spread of ideas and information across Europe and beyond."
• Sentence D is the fourth because it elaborates on the role of the printing press in major historical movements:
• "The printing press played a crucial role in the Renaissance, the Reformation and the Enlightenment, contributing to the rise of literacy and critical thinking."
• Sentence E is the concluding sentence as it summarises the significance of Gutenberg's invention:
• "Hence, Gutenberg's invention is considered one of the most important technological advancements in human history."
• The correct sequence is BACDE.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"In the 15^th century, Johannes Gutenberg invented the printing press, a machine that used movable type to mass-produce books. The printing press revolutionised communication and knowledge sharing, making books more accessible to a wider audience. This invention had a profound impact on education, religion and science, as it facilitated the spread of ideas and information across Europe and beyond. The printing press played a crucial role in the Renaissance, the Reformation and the Enlightenment, contributing to the rise of literacy and critical thinking. Hence, Gutenberg's invention is considered one of the most important technological advancements in human history."

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. To be in a subordinate position.

Key Points

• The idiom "Play second fiddle" means to take a subordinate role to someone else or to be in a supporting position rather than leading. (दूसरे स्थान पर रहना)
• Example: Despite his talent, he was always content to play second fiddle to his older brother in the family business.
• The phrase is often used to describe situations where someone assists or supports another person rather than being the center of attention or responsibility. (सहायक भूमिका निभाना)
• Example: In the band, I was happy to play second fiddle while my friend took the lead vocals.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. To be in a subordinate position.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: To take unnecessary risks (अनावश्यक जोखिम उठाना)
• Example: He often takes unnecessary risks while driving, which worries his family.
• Option 3: To disrupt an ongoing event (चल रही घटना को बाधित करना)
• Example: The protestors tried to disrupt the ongoing conference by shouting slogans.
• Option 4: To perform exceptionally well (असाधारण रूप से अच्छा प्रदर्शन करना)
• Example: She performed exceptionally well in her exams and topped the class.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. To struggle with a moral dilemma or temptation.

Key Points

• The idiom "Wrestle with the devil" means to engage in a tough moral or ethical struggle, where one is tempted to do something wrong but battles against it. (शैतान से संघर्ष करना)
• Example: John was wrestling with the devil when he considered lying to save himself from trouble, but he ultimately chose honesty.
• Here, the idiom metaphorically refers to a person confronting their inner conflicts and making a choice between right and wrong.

Therefore, the correct answer is: To struggle with a moral dilemma or temptation (Option 3).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To confront a deep-seated fear (गहरे बैठे डर का सामना करना)
• Explanation: This means to face and deal with a fear that has been deeply rooted in one's mind.
• Example: She finally confronted her deep-seated fear of heights by going skydiving.
• Option 2: To waste time on unimportant matters (महत्वहीन चीज़ों पर समय बर्बाद करना)
• Explanation: This refers to spending time on trivial or insignificant issues instead of focusing on important tasks.
• Example: Stop wasting time on unimportant matters and focus on your project deadline.
• Option 4: To deceive someone for personal gain (निजी लाभ के लिए किसी को धोखा देना)
• Explanation: This means to manipulate or trick someone to achieve selfish benefits.
• Example: He deceived his business partner for personal gain, which ruined their friendship.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. meticulous.

 

Key Points

• The word "meticulous" means showing great attention to detail and being very careful and precise.
• The sentence mentions that the analysis provided new insights, which suggests that it was thorough and detailed.
• Options like "superficial," "hasty," and "cursory" imply a lack of depth or care, which contradicts the intended meaning of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "His meticulous analysis of the data provided new insights that had been previously overlooked."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: Superficial - This means lacking depth or detail, which is the opposite of what the sentence describes.
• Option 3: Hasty - This implies something done quickly without proper care, making it unsuitable for the context.
• Option 4: Cursory - This refers to something done hastily with minimal attention to detail, which is inconsistent with the sentence's meaning.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. blunt.

Key Points

• The word "trenchant" means sharp, incisive, or forcefully effective, especially in expression or style. (तीव्र, प्रखर)
• Example: His trenchant criticism of the policy forced the government to reconsider its approach.
• The word "blunt" refers to something that is not sharp or lacking sharpness, both literally (like a knife) and metaphorically (like a statement or review that is not incisive). (मंद, कुंद)
• Example: The feedback she provided was too blunt to offer any meaningful insight.
• Hence, the antonym of "trenchant" is "blunt", as they convey opposite meanings in terms of sharpness or incisiveness.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. blunt.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Incisive (तीक्ष्ण): Something that is clear, analytical, and sharp in understanding or expression.
• Example: Her incisive analysis helped us identify the root cause of the problem.
• Penetrating (प्रवेश करने वाला, पैनी): Something that is able to make a deep impact or pierce through.
• Example: His penetrating gaze made everyone in the room feel uncomfortable.
• Sharp (तेज़): Having an edge or point that is able to cut or pierce, or being quick and insightful.
• Example: The sharp wit of the comedian kept the audience entertained throughout the show.

The correct answer is 'deliberative'.

 

Key Points

• The word "deliberative" refers to a careful and thoughtful decision-making process where all aspects are considered.
• This aligns with the context of the sentence, as the committee's process involved ensuring all perspectives were reviewed before reaching a conclusion.
• Option 2: "arbitrary" is incorrect because it suggests decisions made without reasoning or thought.
• Option 3: "superficial" is incorrect as it refers to a lack of depth or thoroughness.
• Option 4: "impulsive" is incorrect as it describes hasty or rash decision-making, which contrasts with the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The committee's deliberative decision-making process ensured that all perspectives were considered before reaching a conclusion."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "arbitrary" is often used to describe random or capricious decision-making, which is not appropriate in the given context.
• Option 3: "superficial" implies a lack of depth or serious consideration, which does not match the sentence's description of the process.
• Option 4: "impulsive" describes decisions made without thought or planning, which contradicts the careful process mentioned in the sentence.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Despot.

Key Points

• The word "Despot" refers to a ruler or person who holds absolute power and exercises it in an oppressive or arbitrary way, often disregarding justice and fairness. (सामंत/स्वेच्छाचारी शासक)
• Example: The despot ruled the kingdom with an iron fist, suppressing any form of dissent.
• In the context of the question, the correct one-word substitute for "A person who holds absolute power and exercises it in an oppressive or arbitrary way" is "Despot." (सामंत)
• Example: History has seen many despots who ignored the welfare of their citizens.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Despot.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Pacifist (शांतिवादी): A person who believes in peace and opposes war or violence as a means of settling disputes.
• Example: The pacifist refused to participate in the war, advocating for peaceful negotiations instead.
• Philanthropist (परोपकारी): A person who seeks to promote the welfare of others, especially by donating money to charitable causes.
• Example: The philanthropist donated millions to build schools in underprivileged areas.
• Pragmatist (व्यावहारिक व्यक्ति): A person who is practical and focuses on achieving results rather than sticking to fixed ideologies or theories.
• Example: As a pragmatist, she made decisions based on what would work best in the given situation.