DSSSB TGT (Social Science) Official Paper (Held On: 10 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given: A, B, C, D, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table.

1) Only two people sit between A and B when counted from the right of A. 

2) Only two people sit between B and C.

3. Only three people sit between A and K.

4. M sits to the immediate left of D.

The remaining position will be occupied by the left person i.e. L.

Thus, D sits third to the left of L.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: 90 × 6 - 20 ÷ 5 + 30 = ?

According to the question, after ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

90 × 6 - 20 ÷ 5 + 30 = ? ⇒ 90 ÷ 6 + 20 × 5 - 30 = ?

⇒ 90 ÷ 6 + 20 × 5 - 30 = ?

⇒ 15 + 20 × 5 - 30 = ?

⇒ 15 + 100 - 30 = ?

⇒ 115 - 30 = ?

⇒ 85 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, R, S and T, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order.

1) Only B is kept above S.

2) Only two boxes are kept above R.

3) R is kept immediately above T.

4) D is kept immediately above A.

5) D is not kept at the third position from the bottom.

After positioning all only one position is left which will be occupied by the only box left i.e. C. 

Thus, three boxes are kept between C and B.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given series: (Left) 256 259 416 463 456 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

Third digit of the highest number → 463 → 3

Second digit of the lowest number → 256 → 5

So,  the resultant if third digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of lowest number → 3 + 5 = 8

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Decoding signs:

Given: 80 A 5 B 24 C 2 D 15 = ?

80 A 5 B 24 C 2 D 15 = ? ⇒ 80 ÷ 5 + 24 × 2 - 15 = ?

⇒ 80 ÷ 5 + 24 × 2 - 15 = ?

⇒ 16 + 24 × 2 - 15 = ?

⇒ 16 + 48 - 15 = ?

⇒ 64 - 15 = ?

⇒ 49 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. 

1) Only C is kept above F.

2) No box is kept below A.

3) Only two boxes are kept between B and A.

4) D is kept at some place below E, but at some place above G.

Thus, four boxes are kept above D.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given series: (Left) 586 865 245 563 156 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

Third digit of the highest number → 865 → 5

Second digit of the lowest number → 156 → 5

So,  the resultant if third digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of lowest number → 5 + 5 = 10

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given:

Vipul starts from Point B and walks 10 m towards west.

He then turns left and walks 4 m.

He takes a final left turn, walks 14 m, and stops at Point Y.

Thus, Point Y is to southeast of Point B.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

According to the question:​​

Thus, 'F' coded as '4'.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

23 is related to 506 → 23 × (23 - 1) = 23 × 22 ⇒ 506

And,

28 is related to 756 → 28 × (28 - 1) = 28 × 27 ⇒ 756

Similarly,

16 is related to → 16 × (16 - 1) = 16 × 15 ⇒ 240

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

1. All tea are juice → Does not follow (As some tea are coffee and all coffee are juice. So it is possible but not definite)
2. Some tea are juice → Follow (As some tea are coffee and all coffee are juice. As some part of tea is common with coffee which whole comes in juice, therefore it is true)
3. No coffee is shake → Does not follow (As all coffee are juice and some juice are shake. As no direct relation is given between coffee and shake, therefore it is false.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion 2 follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given Statement: In the absence of any natural disaster, damage and cracks appear in a newly constructed building in Region X.

Given conclusions:

I) All buildings in Region X have similar cracks and damage. → Does not follow

The statement talks about only one constructed building in region X. From this we cannot conclude that all buildings in region X have similar cracks and damage.

II) The building sustained such damage and cracks due to strict building regulations in Region X. → Does not follow

The statement only says that damage and cracks appeard despite no natural disaster. It given no information about the cause, and nothing about strict building regulations being responsible.

Thus, neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) EHG

Option 2) LON

Option 3) RUT

Option 4) IKJ​

Thus, out of all 'IKJ' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

(42, 60, 18) → 42 + 18  60

And,

(34, 57, 23) → 34 + 23 = 57

Similarly,

(46, 71, 25) → 46 + 25 = 71

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) OSX

Option 2) EIN

Option 3) BFK

Option 4) HLR​

Thus, out of all 'HLR' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Decoding symbols:

Given: L # P x K % Q + T – V

L # P → L is the daughter of P.

P x K → P is the wife of K.

K % Q → K is the father of Q.

Q + T → Q is the mother of T.

T – V → T is the brother of V.

Here, T is L's sister's son.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

IAT : KCR

And,

AKH : CMF

Similarly,

BTD : DVB

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The correct answer is Article 243F.

Key Points

• Article 243F of the Constitution of India deals with the disqualifications for membership of Panchayats.
• It empowers the State Legislature to make laws specifying the qualifications and disqualifications for being chosen as, and for being, a member of a Panchayat.
• According to this provision, a person shall be disqualified if they are disqualified under any law made by the State Legislature or under any law relating to elections to the State Legislature.
• The question of the disqualification of a Panchayat member is decided by an authority and in a manner provided by the State Legislature.
• This article was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which gave constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• Hence, the correct option is 2.

Additional Information

• Article 243A
• Deals with the Gram Sabha.
• Empowers the Gram Sabha to exercise powers and perform functions at the village level as provided by state laws.
• Article 243G
• Relates to the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
• Enables states to devolve powers for economic development and social justice.
• Article 243K
• Provides for the State Election Commission.
• The State Election Commissioner is responsible for conducting elections to Panchayats and Municipalities.

The correct answer is Nanda.

Key Points

• The Nanda Dynasty was overthrown by Chandragupta Maurya, marking the beginning of the Mauryan Empire in ancient India.
• The Nandas were a powerful dynasty that ruled over the Magadha region before the Mauryas.
• According to historical accounts, Chandragupta Maurya, with the guidance and support of his mentor Chanakya (Kautilya), defeated the Nandas and established the Mauryan dynasty around 321 BCE. Hence, the correct answer is Nanda.
• The last ruler of the Nanda dynasty was Dhana Nanda, whose oppressive taxation policies and unpopular rule contributed to widespread dissent.
• The Mauryan Empire, under Chandragupta Maurya, became one of the largest and most influential empires in Indian history, with its capital at Pataliputra.

Additional Information

• Nanda Dynasty:
• The Nanda dynasty was founded by Mahapadma Nanda, who is often referred to as the "Destroyer of Kshatriyas" due to his military conquests.
• The Nandas ruled over a large territory, including Magadha and surrounding regions.
• Their rule was characterized by significant economic prosperity but was unpopular due to heavy taxation and centralized administration.
• Chandragupta Maurya:
• Chandragupta Maurya, with the strategic assistance of Chanakya, laid the foundation of the Mauryan Empire.
• He expanded his empire to include large parts of northern and central India.
• Chandragupta's rule was marked by administrative efficiency and the establishment of a strong central government.
• Chanakya (Kautilya):
• Chanakya, also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta, was a renowned scholar, economist, and statesman.
• He authored the Arthashastra, an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economics, and military strategy.
• Chanakya played a pivotal role in Chandragupta's rise to power and the establishment of the Mauryan dynasty.
• Legacy of the Mauryan Empire:
• The Mauryan Empire was known for its centralized administration, efficient governance, and economic prosperity.
• Under Chandragupta's grandson, Ashoka the Great, the empire reached its zenith and embraced Buddhism as a state religion.
• The Mauryan period is considered a significant era in Indian history, known for cultural, political, and economic advancements.

Important Points

• Sources of Information: The overthrow of the Nanda dynasty by Chandragupta Maurya is detailed in various historical accounts, including the Greek writings of Megasthenes, the Arthashastra, and ancient Indian texts such as the Puranas.
• Role of Alexander's Invasion: The political instability caused by Alexander's invasion of northwestern India created an opportunity for Chandragupta Maurya to rise to power.
• Capital of Nanda Dynasty: The capital of the Nandas was Pataliputra, which was retained and further developed by the Mauryan rulers.
• End of Nanda Rule: The defeat of Dhana Nanda marked the end of the Nanda dynasty and the beginning of the Mauryan Empire.

The correct answer is Vitamin D.

Key Points

• Vitamin D is synthesized in the human body when ultraviolet B (UVB) rays from sunlight interact with the skin. This process triggers the conversion of 7-dehydrocholesterol to pre-vitamin D3, which is then converted to its active form.
• The active form of Vitamin D, known as calcitriol, plays a crucial role in maintaining calcium and phosphorus balance in the body, aiding in the development and maintenance of strong bones.
• Exposure to sunlight is a natural and primary source of Vitamin D for humans, particularly in regions with adequate sunlight. 15-20 minutes of sun exposure daily can help meet the body's Vitamin D requirements.
• Deficiency of Vitamin D can lead to conditions like rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults, both of which are characterized by weakened or softened bones.
• Dietary sources of Vitamin D, such as fortified milk, fatty fish (e.g., salmon and mackerel), and egg yolks, can supplement sunlight exposure, especially in individuals who have limited access to sunlight.

Additional Information

• Ultraviolet (UV) Radiation and Vitamin D Synthesis:
• UVB radiation, a component of sunlight, is responsible for initiating Vitamin D synthesis in the skin.
• The synthesis process occurs in the epidermal layer of the skin and is influenced by factors such as time of day, geographical location, skin pigmentation, and age.
• Vitamin D Functions:
• Promotes the absorption of calcium and phosphorus in the intestines, which is essential for bone mineralization.
• Supports the immune system and helps reduce inflammation.
• May play a role in preventing chronic diseases such as cardiovascular disease and certain types of cancer.
• Vitamin D Deficiency:
• Common symptoms of deficiency include bone pain, muscle weakness, and fatigue.
• Severe deficiency in children causes rickets, leading to deformities such as bowed legs, while in adults, it causes osteomalacia, characterized by bone softening.
• Types of Vitamin D:
• Vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol): Found in plant-based sources and fortified foods.
• Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol): Synthesized in the skin upon sun exposure and also found in animal-based dietary sources.

Important Points

• While sunlight is the primary source of Vitamin D, overexposure to UV radiation can increase the risk of skin cancer. Therefore, balanced sun exposure is crucial.
• The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for Vitamin D varies by age, sex, and life stage. For adults, it is typically 600-800 IU/day.
• People with darker skin require more sunlight exposure for adequate Vitamin D synthesis due to higher levels of melanin, which reduces UVB penetration.
• Vitamin D supplements are commonly recommended for individuals at risk of deficiency, such as older adults, those with limited sun exposure, or individuals with certain medical conditions.

The correct answer is 7 years.

Key Points

• Indian Citizenship by Registration is governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955, which outlines the criteria and processes for acquiring Indian citizenship.
• Under Section 5(1)(a) of the Citizenship Act, a person of Indian origin (PIO) can apply for Indian citizenship by registration if they have resided in India for at least 7 years immediately before making the application.
• The 7-year period is calculated as an aggregate of not less than 6 months of residence in India in each year over the 7 years.
• The application must be submitted to the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, which handles citizenship-related matters.
• This provision applies specifically to persons of Indian origin, i.e., individuals who have Indian ancestry but hold foreign citizenship.

Additional Information

• Eligibility for Citizenship by Registration:
• Besides persons of Indian origin, the Citizenship Act allows registration for individuals married to Indian citizens for at least 7 years and residing in India during that time.
• Minor children of Indian citizens are also eligible under specific provisions of the Act.
• Foreign nationals who have resided in India for a continuous period of 12 months immediately before applying and for 11 out of the previous 14 years can apply for naturalization, but this is distinct from registration.
• Key Amendments:
• The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 reduced the requirement of 11 years of residence for certain minority groups from neighboring countries (Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Bangladesh) to 5 years, but this applies to naturalization, not registration.
• This amendment created a special provision for persecuted minorities from these countries.
• Definition of Person of Indian Origin (PIO):
• A PIO is defined as an individual who has at least one grandparent or parent born in undivided India or in territories that became part of India after independence.
• This status is distinct from the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) cardholder, which is a different classification.
• Application Process:
• Applications for citizenship by registration must be submitted online through the official portal of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Supporting documents, such as proof of residence, Indian origin, and other relevant certificates, must accompany the application.
• The process involves scrutiny by the government to verify the authenticity of claims.

Important Points

• Key Legal Framework: The Citizenship Act, 1955 is the primary legislation governing citizenship in India. It defines how individuals can acquire, lose, or renounce Indian citizenship.
• Residency Requirements: The 7-year residency condition for registration ensures a genuine connection and commitment to India.
• Exclusions: Individuals who have engaged in activities detrimental to the sovereignty, integrity, and security of India are not eligible for citizenship by registration.
• International Context: Many countries, like the USA and UK, have similar provisions for granting citizenship to individuals with ancestral or marital ties to their nations.
• Historical Examples: Significant cases of Indian-origin individuals acquiring citizenship include the return of members of the Indian diaspora after independence, particularly from countries like Burma and Sri Lanka.

The correct answer is 106(2).

Key Points

• Section 106(2) of the newly passed Indian Penal Code (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) addresses laws related to the regulation and operation of the transport sector.
• It includes provisions for stricter penalties and compliance requirements for transporters, which has drawn criticism from various stakeholders in the transport industry.
• This section imposes increased fines and potential imprisonment for violations related to road safety, overloading, and improper vehicle maintenance.
• The nationwide protest by transporters in January 2024 was primarily due to the perceived harshness of penalties and the additional financial burden imposed on transport operators.
• Transport unions have demanded a review and relaxation of certain clauses within Section 106(2), citing their impact on small-scale and rural transport operators.

Additional Information

• Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS):
• The BNS was introduced to replace the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860, which was a colonial-era legislation.
• The act focuses on modernizing criminal laws in India and incorporates provisions for new offenses and stricter penalties to ensure better compliance.
• Sections like 106(2) aim to address sector-specific issues, such as transport safety and accountability.
• Key Features of Section 106(2):
• Enhanced penalties for overloading vehicles, which is a major cause of road accidents.
• Stricter regulations for vehicle fitness certificates and transport permits.
• Accountability for transport operators to ensure compliance with road safety norms.
• Reasons for Protest:
• Transport unions argue that the penalties under Section 106(2) are disproportionately high, affecting the livelihood of drivers and small transport operators.
• They demand a more nuanced approach to penalize violations without imposing excessive financial burdens.
• Concerns have also been raised about the implementation mechanism and potential misuse of the provisions.
• Impact of Protests:
• The nationwide strike disrupted logistics and supply chains, affecting businesses and industries dependent on road transport.
• The government has announced that it will review the provisions and consult stakeholders to address their concerns.

Important Points

• Transport Sector in India:
• The transport sector contributes significantly to the Indian economy, with road transport being the dominant mode for freight and passenger movement.
• India has over 60 million registered commercial vehicles, with a majority operated by small-scale owners and independent drivers.
• Road Safety Concerns:
• India accounts for a significant share of global road accident fatalities, leading to the need for stricter regulations.
• Overloading and poor vehicle maintenance are major factors contributing to road accidents.
• Future Developments:
• The government may introduce amendments or provide exemptions to ensure that smaller operators are not disproportionately affected.
• Efforts to strengthen the transport infrastructure and improve enforcement mechanisms are likely to continue.

The correct answer is Ib's Endless Search for Satisfaction.

Key Points

• Ib's Endless Search for Satisfaction, authored by Roshan Ali, won the prestigious JCB Prize for Literature in 2021.
• The book is a debut novel that explores themes of family, mental illness, and self-discovery through the journey of the protagonist, Ib.
• It is celebrated for its distinctive narrative style and powerful portrayal of complex human emotions, making it a standout work in contemporary Indian literature.
• The JCB Prize for Literature, established in 2018, is one of India’s most renowned and high-value literary awards, recognizing outstanding works of fiction by Indian authors.
• Roshan Ali’s win highlights the emergence of new voices in Indian English literature, with a focus on unique storytelling and deep introspection.

Additional Information

• JCB Prize for Literature:
• It is awarded annually to a distinguished work of fiction by an Indian author writing in English or translated into English.
• The winner receives a cash prize of ₹25 lakh, while the translator, in case of a translated work, is awarded ₹10 lakh.
• The prize aims to enhance the visibility of Indian literature globally.
• Roshan Ali:
• Roshan Ali is an emerging Indian author whose debut novel, Ib's Endless Search for Satisfaction, earned critical acclaim for its exploration of existential themes.
• His writing style is noted for its lyrical prose and an ability to delve into the intricacies of the human mind.
• Other Notable Works Nominated for the 2021 JCB Prize:
• A Burning by Megha Majumdar – A political thriller exploring themes of justice and identity.
• Klara and the Sun by Kazuo Ishiguro – A speculative fiction novel by the Nobel laureate (not eligible as it's not by an Indian author).
• Norwegian Wood by Haruki Murakami – A classic Japanese novel (not eligible as it is neither Indian nor written in English).
• Significance of Awards like the JCB Prize:
• They bring international recognition to Indian literature and authors.
• They encourage diversity in storytelling, showcasing a wide array of Indian experiences and perspectives.

The correct answer is Part IX.

Key Points

• Part IX of the Indian Constitution is titled "The Panchayats" and deals with the structure, organization, and functioning of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
• It was added to the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which came into effect on 24 April 1993.
• The provisions under Part IX cover Articles 243 to 243-O, which lay down the framework for the establishment and operation of Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
• Part IX also includes the 11th Schedule, which specifies 29 functional areas to be devolved to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• The 73rd Amendment Act aims to promote grassroots democracy by ensuring decentralized governance and empowering local self-government institutions.

Additional Information

• Salient Features of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
• Three-tier system: Establishes a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj governance at the village, intermediate (block), and district levels.
• Gram Sabha: Provides for the constitution of a Gram Sabha as a body of all registered voters in a village or group of villages.
• Reservation of Seats: Mandates reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women (33%) in every Panchayat.
• State Election Commission: Establishes a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• State Finance Commission: Provides for a State Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the state and Panchayats.
• 11th Schedule:
• Contains a list of 29 subjects related to rural development, agriculture, education, health, sanitation, and social welfare to be implemented by Panchayats.
• Includes areas like minor irrigation, rural housing, poverty alleviation programs, and women and child development.
• Historical Background:
• Panchayati Raj was first introduced in independent India in 1959 in Nagaur district, Rajasthan.
• The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• The 73rd Amendment Act institutionalized Panchayati Raj as a constitutional framework.
• Role of Panchayati Raj Institutions:
• PRIs act as local self-government bodies responsible for planning and implementing development programs in rural areas.
• They enhance public participation in decision-making and ensure accountability at the grassroots level.

Important Points

• The 73rd Amendment Act does not apply to certain areas such as Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas, hill areas in Manipur, and certain regions in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Special provisions for Scheduled Areas are provided under the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA).
• The Gram Sabha is considered the cornerstone of rural governance and promotes direct democracy.
• The Kerala model of decentralized governance is often highlighted as an example of the effective implementation of Panchayati Raj.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• Naukhai is a significant harvest festival celebrated predominantly in the state of Odisha, especially in the western region.
• The term "Naukhai" translates to "eating new rice," signifying the consumption of the first harvest of the season.
• It is usually observed the day after the Ganesh Chaturthi festival in the Bhadraba month of the Hindu calendar, which falls in August or September.
• The festival is deeply rooted in the agrarian culture and marks the beginning of the new agricultural cycle.
• Naukhai is not just a religious festival but also a celebration of community bonding, prosperity, and gratitude towards nature and the harvest.

Additional Information

• Celebrations:
• During Naukhai, people prepare special dishes using the newly harvested rice and offer it to their family deity as a mark of gratitude.
• After the rituals, families come together to enjoy a feast and celebrate the bountiful harvest.
• Cultural programs, folk dances, and songs are an integral part of the celebrations, showcasing the region's rich traditions.
• Regional Importance:
• Naukhai is celebrated with great enthusiasm in districts like Sambalpur, Bargarh, Bolangir, Sundargarh, and Jharsuguda.
• It is a festival of unity, where even people living away from their hometowns return to their villages to take part in the celebrations.
• Historical Significance:
• Naukhai has been celebrated for centuries and is believed to have originated as a tribal festival, later adopted by other communities in Odisha.
• It signifies the deep connection between agriculture, nature, and human life.
• Similar Festivals in India:
• Other harvest festivals in India include Pongal in Tamil Nadu, Lohri in Punjab, and Makar Sankranti across various states.
• Each of these festivals celebrates the agrarian culture and acknowledges the hard work of farmers.

Important Points

• Naukhai Juhar:
• This is the traditional greeting exchanged during the festival, symbolizing goodwill and blessings for a prosperous future.
• State Recognition:
• The Odisha government officially recognizes Naukhai as a state festival, emphasizing its cultural importance.
• Unity and Harmony:
• By bringing people together, Naukhai fosters community spirit and harmony, transcending social and economic barriers.

The correct answer is Sohan Tarkar.

Key Points

• Sohan Tarkar, a young and talented skater from Navi Mumbai, achieved a remarkable feat by winning three silver medals at the National Ice Skating Championships 2025.
• The championship is one of the most prestigious events in the field of ice skating in India, showcasing the best talent from across the country.
• Sohan's performance highlights his dedication and skill in the sport of ice skating, which is still developing in prominence in India.
• He competed in multiple categories, demonstrating his versatility and technical expertise on the ice.
• This achievement not only brought recognition to Sohan but also highlighted Navi Mumbai as a hub for nurturing young sports talent.

Additional Information

• National Ice Skating Championships:
• The National Ice Skating Championships is an annual event organized by the Ice Skating Association of India.
• The competition includes categories like figure skating, speed skating, and pair skating, encouraging participation across age groups.
• It serves as a platform to identify and nurture talent for international competitions such as the Winter Olympics and the Asian Winter Games.
• Ice Skating in India:
• Ice skating is gaining popularity in India, with facilities now available in cities like Gurgaon, Mumbai, Shimla, and Leh.
• The sport is challenging due to the limited availability of infrastructure and climatic conditions.
• Despite these challenges, young athletes like Sohan Tarkar are making significant strides in the field.
• Achievements of Navi Mumbai Athletes:
• Navi Mumbai is increasingly becoming a hub for young athletes excelling in various sports, including ice skating, athletics, and swimming.
• Local sports academies and coaching facilities are playing a crucial role in nurturing young talent.
• Importance of Ice Skating Championships:
• Events like the National Ice Skating Championships provide a platform for young athletes to showcase their skills and gain recognition.
• They also encourage the development of winter sports in India, which traditionally focuses more on cricket and field sports.

The correct answer is 1913 AD.

Key Points

• 'Raja Harischandra' is considered the first full-length Indian feature film. It was directed by Dadasaheb Phalke, who is often referred to as the "Father of Indian Cinema."
• The movie was released in 1913 AD and marked the beginning of the Indian film industry.
• Raja Harischandra is a silent film and was inspired by the story of King Harishchandra, a legendary character in Indian mythology known for his truthfulness and integrity.
• It was first publicly screened on May 3, 1913, at the Coronation Cinema in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• This film laid the foundation for the growth of Indian cinema, which has now become one of the largest film industries in the world.

Additional Information

• Dadasaheb Phalke:
• Dhundiraj Govind Phalke, popularly known as Dadasaheb Phalke, was born on April 30, 1870, in Trimbak, Maharashtra.
• He is recognized as the pioneer of Indian cinema due to his efforts in directing, producing, and releasing India's first feature film.
• In his honor, the Dadasaheb Phalke Award was instituted in 1969, which is the highest award in Indian cinema.
• Raja Harischandra's Theme:
• The film is based on the story of King Harishchandra, a character from Indian mythology, who is renowned for his unwavering commitment to truth and dharma.
• It portrays the trials and tribulations faced by the king as he sacrifices his kingdom, family, and comforts to uphold his principles.
• Significance of 1913:
• 1913 marks the beginning of the Indian film industry, with 'Raja Harischandra' being the first film that set the tone for future cinematic ventures in India.
• The film's release was a monumental event that showcased the potential of cinema as a form of storytelling and entertainment in India.
• Development of Indian Cinema:
• After the success of Raja Harischandra, many other filmmakers were inspired to explore the medium of cinema, leading to the rapid growth of the film industry in India.
• Today, Indian cinema produces films in multiple languages and is one of the largest producers of films in the world.

Important Points

• The film 'Raja Harischandra' had a runtime of approximately 40 minutes and was divided into four reels.
• During its production, there were no female actors available, so male actors played the roles of female characters.
• The film was shot entirely using a hand-cranked camera, and Dadasaheb Phalke handled almost all aspects of its production, including direction, cinematography, and editing.
• The success of 'Raja Harischandra' encouraged Phalke to produce more films, which further contributed to the development of Indian cinema.

The correct answer is Immigration and Foreigners Bill.

Key Points

• The Immigration and Foreigners Bill was enacted in April 2025 to modernize India's immigration policies and address the challenges of contemporary migration trends.
• It repealed four colonial-era legislations, including the Foreigners Act (1946), the Registration of Foreigners Act (1939), the Passport (Entry into India) Act (1920), and the Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act (2000).
• The Bill aims to establish a comprehensive legal framework to regulate immigration processes, addressing issues such as visa applications, entry, residency, and deportation of foreigners.
• It introduces provisions for a centralized Immigration Management Authority to streamline the operations of monitoring and managing immigration-related activities.
• The legislation also incorporates measures to ensure national security, prevent illegal immigration, and facilitate better coordination between central and state agencies in managing immigration matters.

Additional Information

• Colonial-Era Legislations Repealed:
• Foreigners Act (1946): Defined the legal status and rights of foreigners in India, including their deportation and restrictions.
• Registration of Foreigners Act (1939): Required foreigners to register upon arrival in India and report their activities.
• Passport (Entry into India) Act (1920): Governed the entry of individuals into India with valid travel documents.
• Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act (2000): Imposed penalties on carriers for bringing undocumented immigrants into India.
• Immigration Management Authority:
• This centralized authority will oversee all immigration-related processes, such as visa issuance, monitoring of foreigners, and enforcement of immigration laws.
• The Authority will also maintain a digital database to track the entry, exit, and movements of foreigners in India.
• Key Features of the New Bill:
• Stricter penalties for illegal immigration, human trafficking, and overstaying visas.
• Special provisions for asylum seekers and refugees, ensuring adherence to international human rights laws.
• Streamlined visa categories to facilitate tourism, business, education, and employment opportunities.
• Enhanced cooperation with international agencies to combat transnational crimes linked to immigration.
• Global Relevance:
• India's immigration reforms align with global trends to modernize immigration systems for better governance and security.
• Examples of similar reforms include the United States' Immigration Reform and Control Act (1986) and the European Union's Schengen Visa System.

Important Points

• Implementation: The Bill is implemented through joint collaboration between the Ministry of Home Affairs, state governments, and intelligence agencies to monitor and control immigration activities effectively.
• Human Rights Perspective: The legislation is designed to balance national security with the need to protect the rights of immigrants and refugees in compliance with international conventions such as the 1951 Refugee Convention.
• Technological Integration: The Bill proposes the use of advanced technologies, such as biometric identification and Artificial Intelligence (AI), to ensure efficient immigration processing and border security.
• Regional Impact: The Bill is particularly relevant in regions such as the Northeast, which shares porous borders with neighboring countries, addressing the issue of illegal cross-border migration.

The correct answer is R Ravi Kannan.

Key Points

• R Ravi Kannan, an Indian oncologist, was awarded the prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award in September 2023 for his significant contributions to healthcare.
• He is known for his work in providing affordable and accessible cancer care to the marginalized and underserved populations in the northeastern state of Assam.
• Ravi Kannan serves as the director of the Cachar Cancer Hospital and Research Centre (CCHRC) in Silchar, Assam, where he has transformed the hospital into a center of excellence for cancer care.
• He has implemented several innovative approaches, such as community outreach programs and home care services, making cancer treatment accessible even to remote areas.
• The Ramon Magsaysay Award, often referred to as the "Nobel Prize of Asia," recognized his dedication to improving healthcare infrastructure and addressing inequities in cancer treatment.

Additional Information

• Ramon Magsaysay Award:
• Established in 1957, the award is named after the third president of the Philippines, Ramon Magsaysay.
• It is awarded annually to individuals or organizations in Asia who have made exceptional contributions in fields such as government service, public service, community leadership, journalism, literature, and creative communication arts.
• The award is regarded as one of the most prestigious honors in Asia, symbolizing integrity, courage, and service to humanity.
• R Ravi Kannan’s Contributions:
• Dr. Kannan left his career in Chennai to join the Cachar Cancer Hospital in Assam in 2007.
• Under his leadership, the hospital expanded its services from treating just 500 patients annually to over 4,000 patients.
• He has focused on initiatives such as palliative care, financial assistance for underprivileged patients, and cancer awareness campaigns.
• Other Indians Who Have Won the Ramon Magsaysay Award:
• Vinoba Bhave (1958): Recognized for his leadership in the Bhoodan Movement.
• Mother Teresa (1962): Awarded for her humanitarian work in Kolkata.
• Arvind Kejriwal (2006): Honored for his work in promoting transparency and accountability through the Right to Information Act.
• Importance of the Award:
• The Ramon Magsaysay Award highlights the importance of grassroots efforts to address social and public health challenges.
• It serves as an inspiration for individuals and organizations to work towards societal betterment.

The correct answer is North easterly winds.

Key Points

• India lies predominantly in the region of the North-Easterly winds. These winds blow from the northeast direction towards the southwest in the tropical regions.
• The North-Easterly winds are a prominent feature of the winter season in India, particularly during the months of December to February.
• These winds originate from the subtropical high-pressure belt over the landmass of Central Asia and blow towards the low-pressure areas over the Indian Ocean.
• During this period, the Indian landmass cools down rapidly due to its continental nature, leading to the formation of a high-pressure system over northern India.
• These winds are generally dry in nature as they originate over land, except for when they pick up moisture while crossing over water bodies like the Bay of Bengal and cause winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu and parts of southern India.

Additional Information

• Seasonal Wind Patterns in India:
• India experiences two main wind systems: the South-West Monsoon winds during summer and the North-East Monsoon winds during winter.
• During summer, the South-West Monsoon winds bring heavy rainfall as they originate from the Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea, carrying abundant moisture.
• In winter, the North-East Monsoon winds dominate, bringing dry and cool weather across much of India.
• Role of North-Easterly Winds:
• These winds are responsible for the dry and cool winter climate experienced in northern and central India.
• They also contribute to the winter rainfall in the Coromandel Coast of Tamil Nadu, which is crucial for the region's agriculture.
• Significance of Pressure Belts:
• The subtropical high-pressure zone over Central Asia plays a key role in the formation of the North-Easterly winds.
• The interaction of these winds with the low-pressure systems over the Indian Ocean creates the seasonal wind shifts that characterize India's climate.
• Seasonal Variations:
• India's climatic patterns are heavily influenced by the interplay of pressure systems and wind directions, leading to distinct summer and winter seasons.
• These variations are further influenced by geographical features such as the Himalayas, which prevent the cold Siberian winds from entering India.

Important Points

• Winter Monsoon: Also known as the North-East Monsoon, it is a defining feature of India's winter season, bringing dry and cool air to most regions and rainfall to parts of southern India.
• Pressure Influence: The North-Easterly winds are influenced by the high-pressure system over the Indian subcontinent, which is a result of the cooling of the land during winter.
• Rainfall in Tamil Nadu: The North-Easterly winds pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal, leading to winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu and the southeastern coast of India.
• Climatic Zones: The interaction of these winds with India's diverse topography creates distinct climatic zones, each with unique weather patterns and agricultural practices.

The correct answer is Indian Institute of Management – Kozhikode.

Key Points

• The Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Kozhikode launched the ‘Gyanodaya Centre for Pedagogical Innovation and Publishing’ in July 2025.
• The initiative is a first-of-its-kind in India, aimed at fostering a vibrant, inclusive, and globally relevant knowledge ecosystem within the domain of management education and research.
• The primary objective of this center is to promote pedagogical innovation, enabling the development of cutting-edge teaching methodologies that align with global standards.
• The center is also designed to strengthen the academic publishing ecosystem by providing a platform for creating high-quality educational content, case studies, and research publications.
• This initiative reflects IIM Kozhikode’s vision of becoming a global leader in management education and contributing significantly to the global knowledge economy.

Additional Information

• IIM Kozhikode:
• Located in Kozhikode, Kerala, IIM Kozhikode is one of the leading management institutes in India, established in 1996.
• It is renowned for its focus on innovation, inclusion, and global relevance in management education and research.
• The institute has pioneered several initiatives, including the introduction of a women-exclusive MBA program to promote gender diversity in management.
• Pedagogical Innovation:
• It refers to innovative teaching methodologies that improve the learning experience for students, such as the use of technology, interactive tools, and experiential learning techniques.
• This approach aims to make education more inclusive, engaging, and effective for students and educators alike.
• Examples include the integration of online platforms, AI-based teaching tools, and gamification in classrooms.
• Academic Publishing:
• Academic publishing involves creating and disseminating high-quality research and educational content, such as case studies, research papers, and textbooks.
• It plays a critical role in building a knowledge-driven economy by promoting evidence-based policymaking and innovation.
• Globally, top institutes like Harvard and MIT have similar centers dedicated to academic publishing.
• India’s Knowledge Economy:
• India is rapidly evolving as a global hub for knowledge-based industries, including education, IT, and research.
• Initiatives like the National Education Policy 2020 aim to strengthen the country's education infrastructure to support this growth.
• The establishment of centers like the Gyanodaya Centre aligns with this vision, fostering innovation and excellence in education and research.

Important Points

• Global Relevance: The Gyanodaya Centre aims to position Indian management education on the global stage by adopting international best practices in pedagogy and academic publishing.
• Collaborative Approach: The center is expected to collaborate with leading global institutions to enhance its impact and reach.
• Focus Areas: Key areas of focus include experiential learning, digital transformation in education, and the development of content tailored to the needs of emerging economies.

The correct answer is Chandigarh.

Key Points

• The 32nd National Men and Women Circle Kabaddi Championship was hosted in Chandigarh, India.
• This championship is a prestigious event in the field of Circle Kabaddi, attracting top players from across the country.
• The event brought together teams representing different states and regions, showcasing their skills in this traditional Indian sport.
• The championship serves as a platform for promoting traditional sports like Kabaddi and fostering sportsmanship among participants.
• Chandigarh, known for its rich sporting culture, has hosted numerous national-level events, making it a fitting venue for this championship.

Additional Information

• Circle Kabaddi:
• Circle Kabaddi is a traditional variant of Kabaddi, popular in regions like Punjab, Haryana, and Maharashtra.
• Unlike standard Kabaddi, it is played on a circular field rather than a rectangular one.
• The game emphasizes strength, agility, and quick reflexes, making it a thrilling spectator sport.
• It is widely played in rural and semi-urban areas, contributing to the preservation of India's rich sports heritage.
• Chandigarh as a Sporting Hub:
• Chandigarh has a strong infrastructure for sports, including stadiums, training facilities, and academies.
• The city has hosted numerous national and international tournaments in various sports, such as cricket, hockey, and Kabaddi.
• It also promotes grassroots sports development, encouraging youth participation in traditional and modern games.
• National Kabaddi Championships:
• The National Kabaddi Championships are held annually to determine the best Kabaddi teams in India.
• The event is organized under the aegis of the Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI).
• The championships include both standard Kabaddi and Circle Kabaddi formats for men and women.
• Importance of Traditional Sports:
• Traditional sports like Kabaddi play a vital role in preserving India's cultural heritage.
• They also promote physical fitness, teamwork, and community bonding among participants.
• Events like the National Kabaddi Championship help in popularizing these sports on a larger scale.

Important Points

• Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI):
• The AKFI is the apex body for Kabaddi in India, responsible for organizing national and international tournaments.
• It works to promote both standard and Circle Kabaddi, ensuring the sport's growth and development.
• Global Reach of Kabaddi:
• Kabaddi has gained international recognition, with tournaments like the Pro Kabaddi League and Kabaddi World Cup.
• Countries like Iran, South Korea, and Bangladesh have emerged as strong competitors in Kabaddi.

The correct answer is Ministry of Home Affairs.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry responsible for conducting the Census of India. It oversees all operations related to the enumeration process.
• The Census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The Census of India is conducted every ten years, and it is considered one of the largest administrative exercises in the world.
• The first Census of independent India was conducted in 1951, and the most recent Census was conducted in 2011. The next Census, originally scheduled for 2021, has been postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• The Census collects critical data on the population, demographics, literacy, employment, housing, and other socio-economic parameters, which are crucial for policymaking and resource allocation.

Additional Information

• Structure of the Census Operations:
• The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India is the apex authority overseeing the Census process.
• Census operations are carried out at the state level by Directors of Census Operations under the guidance of the central authority.
• Fieldwork for the Census involves enumerators and supervisors, who are often drawn from government employees.
• Historical Context:
• The first Census in India was conducted in 1872, though it was not synchronous across regions.
• The first synchronous Census was conducted in 1881.
• Since then, the Census of India has been conducted every decade without interruption.
• Importance of the Census:
• The Census provides a comprehensive dataset that aids in planning and policy formulation at the national, state, and local levels.
• It plays a critical role in electoral delimitation, allocation of parliamentary seats, and distribution of financial resources.
• The data is also used for research, academic purposes, and to monitor the implementation of various government schemes.
• Technological Advancements in the Census:
• The upcoming Census aims to incorporate digital technology, allowing enumerators to use mobile applications for data collection.
• For the first time, citizens may have the option to self-enumerate online.
• The digital approach is expected to enhance accuracy, transparency, and efficiency in the data collection process.

Important Points

• Legal Framework:
• The Census of India is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948.
• The Act ensures the confidentiality of personal information collected during the Census.
• Data Collected During the Census:
• Demographic data such as age, sex, marital status, religion, language, and literacy.
• Socio-economic data including employment, education, housing conditions, and migration patterns.
• Other details like access to drinking water, electricity, and sanitation.
• Global Context:
• India's Census is one of the largest in the world, covering over 1.3 billion people.
• Other countries also conduct censuses, but the scale and diversity of India's Census make it unique.

The correct answer is long lifespan.

Key Points

• Consumer durable goods are products that are not consumed immediately and are expected to last for an extended period, typically several years or more.
• These goods are characterized by their long lifespan, meaning they do not wear out quickly under normal usage conditions. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
• Examples of consumer durables include refrigerators, washing machines, air conditioners, cars, and furniture.
• They typically involve a higher initial cost compared to non-durable goods, which makes them a significant investment for consumers.
• The purchase frequency of consumer durable goods is low due to their durability and extended usability. This distinguishes them from perishable or frequently consumed items.

Additional Information

• Durable Goods vs. Non-Durable Goods:
• Durable goods have a long lifespan and are typically used over time, such as vehicles, electronics, and furniture.
• Non-durable goods, on the other hand, are consumed quickly or have a short lifespan, such as food, beverages, and toiletries.
• Economic Significance:
• Consumer durable goods are considered an important indicator of economic health. Increased demand for durable goods often reflects a growing economy and consumer confidence.
• They contribute significantly to the manufacturing sector and the overall GDP of a country.
• Depreciation:
• While durable goods have a long lifespan, they are subject to gradual depreciation over time due to wear and tear or technological obsolescence.
• However, their rate of depreciation is slower compared to non-durable goods.
• Categories of Durable Goods:
• Examples include major appliances (e.g., refrigerators, microwaves), vehicles (e.g., cars, motorcycles), and furniture.
• Electronic gadgets like televisions, laptops, and smartphones are also considered durable goods.

Important Points

• Consumer Behavior:
• The decision to purchase durable goods often involves extensive research and comparison due to their high cost and long-term usage.
• Consumers may also consider factors like warranty, after-sales service, and energy efficiency before making a purchase.
• Market Trends:
• The demand for durable goods is sensitive to changes in economic conditions, such as income levels, interest rates, and inflation.
• Technological advancements often drive innovation in durable goods, leading to periodic upgrades by consumers.

The correct answer is Simon Kuznets.

Key Points

• Simon Kuznets, an economist and statistician, is credited with developing the concept and practice of national income accounting. He played a crucial role in measuring and analyzing a country's economic performance.
• He introduced the concept of Gross National Product (GNP) as a measure of economic growth and welfare. His work became the foundation for modern systems of national income measurement.
• In the 1930s and 1940s, Kuznets developed a comprehensive framework for estimating national income, which included detailed methods for classifying and measuring economic activities.
• Simon Kuznets was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences in 1971 for his empirically founded interpretation of economic growth, which laid the groundwork for national income accounting systems globally.
• His work provided governments and policymakers with tools to understand economic activities, enabling them to plan and implement economic policies effectively.

Additional Information

• What is National Income Accounting?
• It refers to a systematic framework used to measure a nation's economic performance. It includes methods for calculating GDP, GNP, Net National Product (NNP), and other economic indicators.
• National income accounting provides insights into the total production, income, and expenditure of an economy over a specific period.
• Simon Kuznets's Contributions:
• In addition to pioneering national income accounting, Kuznets identified the relationship between economic growth and income inequality, known as the Kuznets Curve.
• He analyzed historical economic data to understand how structural shifts in economies impacted industrialization and urbanization.
• Applications of National Income Accounting:
• Governments use these accounts to assess economic performance, formulate fiscal and monetary policies, and allocate resources efficiently.
• It serves as a basis for comparing the economic performance of different countries and assessing global economic trends.
• Other Economists and Their Work:
• Alfred Marshall: Known for his work on microeconomics and the concept of price elasticity of demand.
• Paul Samuelson: Contributed to modern economic theory and authored the influential book "Economics: An Introductory Analysis."
• A.C. Pigou: Known for his work on welfare economics and the concept of externalities.

Important Points

• The methodology for calculating national income was further refined and adopted by international organizations like the United Nations and the World Bank.
• The System of National Accounts (SNA), developed by the United Nations in collaboration with other organizations, is based on the work initiated by Simon Kuznets.
• Kuznets's emphasis on empirical data collection and analysis set a standard for economic research and policy formulation worldwide.

The correct answer is The gap between those with access to modern information technology and those without.

Key Points

• Digital Divide refers to the inequality in access to information and communication technology (ICT), such as the internet, smartphones, and computers, across different segments of society. This gap can arise due to differences in income, education, geography, or infrastructure.
• The digital divide affects both developed and developing countries, with rural and underprivileged areas often experiencing limited access to technological resources compared to urban regions.
• This divide impacts access to critical services such as online education, e-governance, telemedicine, and remote work opportunities, creating disparities in socio-economic growth and opportunities. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Addressing the digital divide is essential for inclusive development and ensuring equitable participation in the digital economy and knowledge society.
• Global efforts, such as the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), specifically SDG 9 (Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure), emphasize reducing the digital divide to foster inclusive and sustainable growth.

Additional Information

• Key Causes of Digital Divide:
• Income Disparities: High costs of devices and internet connections prevent low-income groups from accessing technology.
• Education: Lack of digital literacy and skills widens the gap, as individuals cannot effectively utilize available technologies.
• Geographical Factors: Rural and remote areas often lack the necessary infrastructure, such as broadband and cellular networks, compared to urban areas.
• Gender Gap: Women and girls in many societies have less access to technology and digital tools due to socio-cultural norms.
• Impacts of Digital Divide:
• Economic Inequality: Limited access to online job markets and digital skills training impacts earning potential.
• Educational Barriers: Students without access to online learning platforms face challenges in keeping up with their peers.
• Healthcare Disparities: Telemedicine and digital health initiatives are often inaccessible to marginalized groups.
• Social Exclusion: Lack of digital connectivity can lead to isolation from vital information and services.
• Solutions to Bridge the Digital Divide:
• Government Initiatives: Policies to subsidize internet access, provide affordable devices, and expand digital infrastructure.
• Public-Private Partnerships: Collaboration between governments and tech companies to improve digital accessibility.
• Digital Literacy Programs: Training individuals in using technology effectively and safely.
• Community Networks: Establishing local internet hubs in underserved areas to provide shared access.
• Examples:
• India: Initiatives like Digital India aim to enhance digital infrastructure and literacy across the country.
• United States: The FCC's Lifeline Program provides subsidies for low-income families to access broadband services.
• Africa: Projects like the Smart Africa Initiative focus on improving digital connectivity across the continent.

Important Points

• Incorrect Options Analysis:
• Option 1: "No inequality in access to information and communication tools" is incorrect as the digital divide explicitly highlights existing inequalities.
• Option 2: "Fragmentation of digital ecosystems across countries" refers to differences in digital policies and practices but does not define the digital divide.
• Option 4: "The process by which digital devices become obsolete very quickly" describes technological obsolescence, not the digital divide.

The correct answer is option3. The detailed solution will be updated soon.

Shortcut Trick

Compare fractions of (Increase ÷ Base Year):

2019: 3/14 ≈ 21.4% | 2020: 2/17 ≈ 11.8%

2021: (Decrease) | 2022: 6/18 = 1/3 = 33.33%

2023: 2/24 = 1/12 ≈ 8.33%

Visually, 6/18 is the largest ratio among all growth years.

∴ Answer = 2022

Alternate Method 

Given:

Exports (in lakh tonnes): 2018=14, 2019=17, 2020=19, 2021=18, 2022=24, 2023=26.

Formula used:

Percentage Increase = [(Value_current − Value_previous) ÷ Value_previous] × 100

2018 14 2019 17 2020 19 2021 18 2022 24 2023 26 Max Growth: +33.3%

Calculations:

% Increase (2019) = [(17 − 14) ÷ 14] × 100 = (3 ÷ 14) × 100 ≈ 21.43%

⇒ % Increase (2020) = [(19 − 17) ÷ 17] × 100 = (2 ÷ 17) × 100 ≈ 11.76%

⇒ % Increase (2022) = [(24 − 18) ÷ 18] × 100 = (6 ÷ 18) × 100 = 33.33%

⇒ % Increase (2023) = [(26 − 24) ÷ 24] × 100 = (2 ÷ 24) × 100 ≈ 8.33%

∴ The correct answer is 2022.

Additional Information

Average Growth Rate

It is the arithmetic mean of the annual growth rates over a specific period. Calculated by summing individual annual % increases and dividing by the number of years.

Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR)

It represents the constant rate of return required for an investment to grow from its beginning balance to its ending balance: CAGR = [(Ending Value ÷ Beginning Value)^1/n − 1] × 100.

Base Effect

Percentage growth is highly sensitive to the base year value. A small absolute increase from a lower base results in a significantly higher percentage increase than the same increase from a higher base.

Shortcut Trick

Assume all 373 children are girls: Total amount = 373 × 1 = ₹373.

Shortfall from the actual amount = 1001 − 373 = ₹628.

Difference between a boy's and a girl's share = 3 − 1 = ₹2.

Number of boys = Shortfall ÷ Difference = 628 ÷ 2 = 314.

∴ Answer = 314

Alternate Method 

Given:

Total children = 373, Total amount = ₹1,001, Girl's share = ₹1, Boy's share = ₹3.

Formula used:

Total Amount = (Number of Boys × Boy's Share) + (Number of Girls × Girl's Share)

Boys (x) Girls ₹3 each ₹1 each Total Children = 373 Total Amount = ₹1,001

Calculations:

Let the number of boys be x. Therefore, the number of girls is (373 − x).

⇒ (x × 3) + ((373 − x) × 1) = 1001 ⇒ 3x + 373 − x = 1001 ⇒ 2x + 373 = 1001 ⇒ 2x = 1001 − 373 ⇒ 2x = 628 ⇒ x = 314

∴ The correct answer is 314.

Additional Information

Alligation Rule

It states that the ratio of the weights of two components is the inverse ratio of the differences of their individual values from the mean value: (Qty 1 / Qty 2) = (Rate 2 − Mean) / (Mean − Rate 1).

Weighted Average

The average value of a group is found by (n₁x₁ + n₂x₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is the count and x is the value per unit.

Linear Equations

Problems involving two unknowns (like number of boys and girls) can always be solved by forming two equations: x + y = Total and ax + by = Value.

Shortcut Trick

Combined Efficiency of (P + Q) = 18 ÷ 9 = 2 units/hr

Efficiency of P = 18 ÷ 18 = 1 unit/hr

Efficiency of Q = (P + Q) − P = 2 − 1 = 1 unit/hr

Time for Q alone = Total Capacity ÷ Efficiency of Q

Time = 18 ÷ 1 = 18 hours

∴ Answer = 18

Alternate Method 

Given:

Time taken by P and Q together = 9 hours

Time taken by P alone = 18 hours

Formula used:

Total Work = LCM of all given days

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Number of Days

Efficiency of Q = Combined Efficiency − Efficiency of P

Efficiency of Q = 2 − 1 = 1 unit/hr

Calculations:

Total capacity of the cistern = LCM of 9 and 18 = 18 units

⇒ Efficiency of P and Q together = 18 ÷ 9 = 2 units/hour

⇒ Efficiency of P alone = 18 ÷ 18 = 1 unit/hour

⇒ Efficiency of Q alone = 2 − 1 = 1 unit/hour

⇒ Time taken by Q alone = Total Capacity ÷ Efficiency of Q

⇒ Time = 18 ÷ 1 = 18 hours

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Additional Information

Work and Efficiency Relationship

Total Work = Efficiency × Time. For a constant amount of work, efficiency is inversely proportional to time.

Negative Work in Pipes

In pipes and cisterns, an inlet pipe performs positive work, while an outlet (leakage) pipe performs negative work.

Combined Work Formula

If P fills in x hours and Q fills in y hours, together they fill in (x × y) ÷ (x + y) hours.

Remaining Work Calculation

If a person completes a work in T hours, the part of work done in 1 hour is 1/T.

Shortcut Trick

Rate 4% = 1/25 → Growth factor = 26/25 per year.

For 3 years, Principal : Amount = (25)³ : (26)³ = 15625 : 17576.

Given Principal = 15625 units = ₹31,250 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹2.

Total Amount = 17576 units × 2 = ₹35,152.

∴ Answer = 35152

Alternate Method 

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹31,250

Rate of Interest (R) = 4% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula used:

Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)^T

  Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3    +4% +4% +4%  Principal (P) ₹31,250  Amount (A) ₹35,152

Calculations:

A = 31250 × (1 + 4/100)³

⇒ A = 31250 × (1 + 1/25)³

⇒ A = 31250 × (26/25) × (26/25) × (26/25)

⇒ A = 31250 × (17576 / 15625)

⇒ A = 2 × 17576

⇒ A = 35152

∴ The correct answer is 35152 (Option 2).

Additional Information

Compound Interest Formula

Amount A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ and CI = A − P.

Compounding Half-Yearly

For semi-annual compounding, the rate becomes r/2 and the time period becomes 2n.

SI and CI Difference (2 Years)

The difference for 2 years is given by D = P × (r/100)².

Successive Percentage Method

Effective rate for two years r₁ and r₂ is (r₁ + r₂ + r₁r₂/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Convert speed: 15 m/s → 15 × 18/5 = 54 km/h

Convert time: 3 hr 50 min = 3 + 5/6 = 23/6 hr

Distance = Speed × Time = 54 × 23/6

Distance = 9 × 23 = 207 km

∴ Answer = 207

Alternate Method 

Given:

Speed of the car = 15 m/s

Time taken = 3 hours 50 minutes

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Conversion: m/s to km/h = Speed × 18/5

Point A Point B Speed = 54 km/h Time = 3 hr 50 min = 23/6 hr  Distance = 207 km

Calculations:

Convert speed from m/s to km/h:

⇒ Speed = 15 × (18/5) = 3 × 18 = 54 km/h

Convert time from hours and minutes to total hours:

⇒ Time = 3 + 50/60 = 3 + 5/6 = 23/6 hours

Calculate the distance:

⇒ Distance = 54 × (23/6)

⇒ Distance = 9 × 23 = 207 km

∴ The correct answer is 207.

Additional Information

Speed Conversion Factors

To convert speed from m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5. To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18.

Time Conversion

To convert minutes to hours, divide by 60. Example: 45 minutes = 45/60 = 3/4 hours.

Average Speed Formula

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. For two equal distances with speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy/(x+y).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂. In the same direction, Relative Speed = |S₁ − S₂|.

Shortcut Trick

Surface Area of Sphere = 4 × π × r²

Given r = 98, SA = 4 × (22/7) × 98 × 98 = 88 × 14 × 98

Unit Digit Calculation: 8 × 4 × 8 = 256 → Last digit must be 6.

Divisibility Check: The result must also be divisible by 11 (from factor 22).

Among the options, only 120736 ends in 6 and is divisible by 11.

∴ Answer = 120736

Alternate Method 

Given:

Radius of the sphere (r) = 98 cm

Value of π = 22/7

Formula used:

Surface Area of a Sphere = 4 × π × r²

 r = 98 cm Sphere

Calculations:

Surface Area = 4 × (22/7) × 98 × 98

⇒ Surface Area = 4 × 22 × (98 ÷ 7) × 98

⇒ Surface Area = 88 × 14 × 98

⇒ Surface Area = 1232 × 98

⇒ Surface Area = 1232 × (100 − 2)

⇒ Surface Area = 123200 − 2464

⇒ Surface Area = 120736 cm²

∴ The correct answer is (3) 120736.

Additional Information

Volume of a Sphere

The total space occupied by a sphere is given by the formula V = (4/3) × π × r³.

Hemisphere Properties

For a hemisphere, the Curved Surface Area (CSA) is 2πr² and the Total Surface Area (TSA) is 3πr².

Volume of a Hemisphere

The volume of a hemisphere is exactly half of a sphere: V = (2/3) × π × r³.

Ratio of Area

If the radius of a sphere is multiplied by k, its surface area becomes k² times the original area.

Shortcut Trick

Internal Surface Area of open cylinder = Curved Surface Area + Area of Base

Radius (r) = 51 ÷ 2 = 25.5 cm, Height (h) = 70 cm

Area = π × r × (2h + r)

Area = (22/7) × 25.5 × (140 + 25.5) = (22/7) × 25.5 × 165.5

Area = 92845.5 ÷ 7 ≈ 13263.6 cm²

∴ Answer = 13263.6

Alternate Method 

Given:

Height of cylinder (h) = 70 cm

Internal diameter (d) = 51 cm → Internal radius (r) = 25.5 cm

Formula used:

Internal Surface Area = 2πrh + πr²

  r = 25.5    h = 70 cm Open Top Surface Area = CSA + Base Area

Calculations:

Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2 × (22/7) × 25.5 × 70

⇒ CSA = 2 × 22 × 25.5 × 10 = 44 × 255 = 11220 cm²

⇒ Base Area = πr² = (22/7) × 25.5 × 25.5

⇒ Base Area = (22 × 650.25) ÷ 7 = 14305.5 ÷ 7 ≈ 2043.64 cm²

⇒ Total Internal Area = 11220 + 2043.64 = 13263.64 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 13263.6. (Option 3)

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of a Closed Cylinder

For a cylinder closed at both ends, the area includes the curved surface and two circular bases: TSA = 2πrh + 2πr² = 2πr(h + r).

Volume of a Cylinder

The amount of space occupied inside the cylinder is given by the formula: Volume = πr²h.

Hollow Cylinder Surface Area

For a hollow pipe with thickness, the total surface area = 2πRh + 2πrh + 2π(R² − r²), where R is outer and r is inner radius.

Shortcut Trick

Net Interest Rate % = Rate × Time

Net Interest Rate % = 6% × 2 = 12%

Simple Interest = 12% of 3,00,000

Simple Interest = 12 ÷ 100 × 3,00,000 = 36,000

∴ Answer = 36,000

Alternate Method 

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3,00,000

Rate of Interest (R) = 6% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

 Start (P) ₹3,00,000 Year 1 Year 2  6% Interest  6% Interest  Total SI = 12% of P

Calculations:

Simple Interest (SI) = (3,00,000 × 6 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 3,00,000 × 12 ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 3,000 × 12

⇒ SI = 36,000

∴ The correct answer is 36,000.

Additional Information

Total Amount (A)

The total amount to be paid back is the sum of Principal and Simple Interest: A = P + SI.

Finding Rate (R)

If SI, P, and T are known, the rate is calculated as: R = (SI × 100) ÷ (P × T).

Finding Time (T)

If SI, P, and R are known, the time is calculated as: T = (SI × 100) ÷ (P × R).

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

In Simple Interest, the principal remains constant throughout, whereas in Compound Interest, the interest of the previous year is added to the principal for the next year.

Shortcut Trick

Actual distance = Map distance × Scale factor

Direct conversion: 1 km = 100,000 cm

Calculation: (7 × 868557) ÷ 100,000

7 × 8.68557 ≈ 60.79899

Rounding to one decimal place → 60.8

∴ Answer = 60.8 km

Alternate Method 

Given:

Distance on map = 7 cm

Map scale = 1 : 868557

Formula used:

Actual Distance = Map Distance × Scale denominator

Distance in km = Distance in cm ÷ 100,000

MAP 7 cm Scale 1:868557 Actual Distance 60.8 km

Calculations:

Actual distance in cm = 7 × 868557

⇒ Actual distance in cm = 6,079,899 cm

⇒ Actual distance in km = 6,079,899 ÷ 100,000

⇒ Actual distance in km = 60.79899 km

⇒ Rounding to one decimal place ≈ 60.8 km

∴ The correct answer is 60.8 (Option 3).

Additional Information

Representative Fraction (RF)

It is the ratio of map distance to ground distance, expressed as 1/n, where units are always the same in the numerator and denominator.

Metric Conversions

1 Kilometer (km) = 1,000 Meters (m) = 100,000 Centimeters (cm) = 1,000,000 Millimeters (mm).

Linear Scale

A graphical method of representing scale where a line is divided into segments representing actual ground distances.

Shortcut Trick

Property: If each number in a set is multiplied by a constant k, the average is also multiplied by k.

Given Old Average = 14

Each number is multiplied by = 3

New Average = 14 × 3 = 42

∴ Answer = 42

Alternate Method 

Given:

Total numbers = 13

Average of 13 numbers = 14

Multiplication factor = 3

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observations ÷ Number of observations

Sum of observations = Average × Number of observations

Initial Avg 14 Each × 3 New Avg 42 Effect: Avg' = Avg × 3

Calculations:

Sum of 13 numbers = 13 × 14

⇒ Initial Sum = 182

⇒ If each number is multiplied by 3, the new sum becomes = 182 × 3 = 546

⇒ New average = 546 ÷ 13

⇒ New average = 42

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Additional Information

Addition/Subtraction Rule

If a constant value k is added to or subtracted from each term, the new average becomes (Old Average + k) or (Old Average − k) respectively.

Multiplication/Division Rule

If each term is multiplied or divided by a non-zero constant k, the new average becomes (Old Average × k) or (Old Average ÷ k) respectively.

Combined Average Formula

For two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂, Weighted Avg = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

Since the number is the same, we can compare the percentages directly.

Required Percentage = (Target Value ÷ Base Value) × 100

Required Percentage = (4 ÷ 15) × 100

Required Percentage = 400 ÷ 15 = 80 ÷ 3 = 26.666...

∴ Answer = 26.67%

Alternate Method 

Given:

First value = 4% of a number

Second value = 15% of the same number

Formula used:

Percentage = (Part ÷ Whole) × 100

Total Number (100%) 4% segment 15% mark Target: 4% as a part of 15%

Calculations:

Let the common number be N.

⇒ First value = 0.04 × N

⇒ Second value = 0.15 × N

⇒ Required % = [(0.04 × N) ÷ (0.15 × N)] × 100

⇒ Required % = (4 ÷ 15) × 100

⇒ Required % = 26.666...

∴ The correct answer is 26.67%.

Additional Information

Percentage Change

To find percentage increase or decrease: [(New Value − Original Value) ÷ Original Value] × 100.

Fraction to Percentage

Common fractions: 1/3 ≈ 33.33%, 2/3 ≈ 66.67%, 1/4 = 25%, 1/5 = 20%, 1/6 ≈ 16.67%, 1/15 ≈ 6.67%.

Base Shifting

If A is x% of B, then B is (100 ÷ x) × 100% of A. Always identify the base correctly (the value after of).

Shortcut Trick

Number of Paid towels = 3

Number of Free towels = 2

Total towels received = 3 + 2 = 5

Discount % = (Free Items ÷ Total Items) × 100

Discount % = (2 ÷ 5) × 100 = 40%

∴ Answer = 40%

Alternate Method 

Given:

Buy 3 towels and Get 2 Free towels.

Formula used:

Discount % = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100

  3 Paid Towels 2 Free Towels   Total Items = 5

Calculations:

Let the Marked Price (MP) of each towel be 1 unit.

⇒ Marked Price of 5 towels = 5 units

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price of 3 towels = 3 units

⇒ Discount = MP − SP = 5 − 3 = 2 units

⇒ Discount % = (2 ÷ 5) × 100

⇒ Discount % = 40%

∴ The correct answer is 40%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, the net discount is calculated as [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100]%.

Single Discount of "Buy X Get Y"

For any offer of Buy X get Y free, the effective discount percentage is always [Y ÷ (X + Y)] × 100.

Relationship between MP and SP

Selling Price = Marked Price × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

1. 180 is a multiple of 90, so we can ignore 90.
2. Factorize: 180 = 9 × 20 and 261 = 9 × 29.
3. 29 is a prime number and does not divide 20.
4. LCM = 9 × 20 × 29 = 180 × 29.
5. 180 × 29 = 5220.

∴ Answer = 5220

Alternate Method 

Given:

Numbers: 29, 90, 180, 261

Formula used:

LCM = Product of the highest powers of all prime factors involved in the numbers.

180 2² × 3² × 5 261 3² × 29 29 29¹ LCM = 2² × 3² × 5 × 29 = 5220

Calculations:

Prime factorization of the numbers:

⇒ 29 = 29¹

⇒ 90 = 2¹ × 3² × 5¹

⇒ 180 = 2² × 3² × 5¹

⇒ 261 = 3² × 29¹

⇒ LCM = 2² × 3² × 5¹ × 29¹

⇒ LCM = 4 × 9 × 5 × 29

⇒ LCM = 180 × 29 = 5220

∴ The correct answer is 5220.

Additional Information

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers A and B, HCF(A, B) × LCM(A, B) = A × B.

LCM of Fractions

LCM of (a/b, c/d) = LCM(a, c) ÷ HCF(b, d).

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers have no common factor other than 1, their LCM is simply their product.

HCF of Fractions

HCF of (a/b, c/d) = HCF(a, c) ÷ LCM(b, d).

Shortcut Trick

Successive percentage change formula: x + y + (xy ÷ 100)

Here, Piyush has a 5% loss (x = −5) and then a 60% gain (y = +60).

Net Percentage Change = −5 + 60 + [(−5 × 60) ÷ 100]

Net Percentage Change = 55 − 3 = 52%.

The initial amount of ₹331 is not needed for finding the gain percentage.

∴ Answer = 52%

Alternate Method 

Given:

Initial Cost Price = ₹331

First transaction loss = 5%

Second transaction gain = 60%

Formula used:

Final Selling Price = Initial CP × [(100 − Loss%)/100] × [(100 + Gain%)/100]

CP = 100 −5% SP1 = 95 +60% SP2 = 152 Overall Gain = 152 − 100 = 52%

Calculations:

Let the initial cost price (CP) be 100 units.

⇒ Piyush sells first article at 5% loss → SP1 = 100 × (95/100) = 95 units.

⇒ Piyush buys second article for 95 units and sells at 60% gain.

⇒ SP2 = 95 × (160/100) = 95 × 1.6 = 152 units.

⇒ Overall gain = SP2 − Initial CP = 152 − 100 = 52 units.

⇒ Overall gain percentage = (52 ÷ 100) × 100 = 52%.

∴ The correct answer is 52% (Option 2).

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is changed by x% and then the resulting value is changed by y%, the net change is given by [x + y + (xy ÷ 100)]%.

Multiplying Factor Method

For a gain of g%, the multiplying factor is (1 + g/100). For a loss of l%, it is (1 − l/100). Final Value = Initial Value × MF₁ × MF₂.

Successive Discount

If two successive discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, the equivalent single discount is [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂ ÷ 100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(11, 88, 11) = 88 units.

Efficiencies: A = 8, B = 1, C = 8.

Work done by (A+B+C) in 2 days = (8 + 1 + 8) × 2 = 34 units.

Remaining work = 88 − 34 = 54 units.

Time for B and C = 54 ÷ (1 + 8) = 6 days.

∴ Answer = 6

Alternate Method 

Given:

Time taken by A = 11 days, B = 88 days, and C = 11 days.

A leaves after working for 2 days with B and C.

Formula used:

Total Work = LCM of all given days

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Number of Days

Combined efficiency of (A + B + C) = 8 + 1 + 8 = 17 units/day

Efficiency of (B + C) = 1 + 8 = 9 units/day

Calculations:

Work done by A, B and C in first 2 days = Efficiency × Time

⇒ 17 × 2 = 34 units.

⇒ Remaining work = Total Work − Completed Work = 88 − 34 = 54 units.

⇒ Time taken by B and C to complete the remaining work = 54 ÷ 9 = 6 days.

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Additional Information

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the work done by each individual, which is proportional to (Efficiency × Time).

Negative Work

In problems involving pipes and cisterns, an outlet pipe performs negative work. Net Efficiency = Efficiency of Inlets − Efficiency of Outlets.

Alternate Day Work

If workers work on alternate days, find the work done in one complete cycle (e.g., 2 days or 3 days) and then divide the total work by the cycle total.

Shortcut Trick

In an Arithmetic Progression with an odd number of terms, the average is always the middle term.

The middle term of the first 13 multiples is the 7^th term.

Average = 7^th multiple of 5 = 7 × 5 = 35

∴ Answer = 35

Alternate Method 

Given:

Series: First 13 multiples of 5 (5, 10, 15, ..., 65)

Number of terms (n) = 13, First term (a) = 5, Common difference (d) = 5

Formula used:

Average of an Arithmetic Progression = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2

1^st (5) Average (35) 7^th term 13^th (65) Equal gap AP series

Calculations:

First term (a) = 5 × 1 = 5

⇒ Last term (l) = 5 × 13 = 65

⇒ Average = (5 + 65) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 70 ÷ 2 = 35

∴ The correct answer is 35 (Option 3).

Additional Information

Average of First n Multiples of x

The formula is Average = x × (n + 1) ÷ 2. This is derived from the sum of an AP series.

Average of First n Natural Numbers

The average of numbers from 1 to n is given by (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Sum of First n Multiples of x

The sum is calculated as S_n = [n × (First term + Last term)] ÷ 2.

Average of AP Middle Terms

If n is even, the average of the AP is the average of the two middlemost terms: (Term_n/2 + Term_(n/2)+1) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Net percentage increase for two decades = 30 + 30 + (30 × 30)/100 = 69%

Total population = 169% of 2,32,200

Multiplying factor method = 2,32,200 × 1.69

Units digit check: 2 × 9 = 18 (Last digit must be 8)

Only Option 3 ends with 8.

∴ Answer = 3,92,418

Alternate Method 

Given:

Initial Population (1923) = 2,32,200

Time Period = 1943 − 1923 = 20 years = 2 decades

Growth rate per decade (R) = 30%

Formula used:

Population after n decades = P(1 + R/100)ⁿ

 1923 1933 1943 2,32,200  +30%  +30% Population?

Calculations:

Number of decades (n) = 2

⇒ Population in 1943 = 2,32,200 × (1 + 30/100)²

⇒ Population = 2,32,200 × (1.3)²

⇒ Population = 2,32,200 × 1.69

⇒ Population = 2,322 × 169

⇒ Population = 3,92,418

∴ The correct answer is (3).

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

If a value changes by x% and then by y% successively, the net change is given by (x + y + xy/100)%.

Population Decrease (Depreciation)

If the population decreases at a rate of R% per annum, the population after n years is P(1 − R/100)ⁿ.

Previous Population Calculation

To find the population n years ago (P_ago) given current population (P), use P_ago = P ÷ (1 + R/100)ⁿ.

Shortcut Trick

Relative Speed = Length ÷ Time = 298 ÷ 9 m/s

In km/hr: (298 ÷ 9) × (18 ÷ 5) = 298 × 0.4 = 119.2 km/hr

Since direction is opposite, Relative Speed = Speed of Train + Speed of Man

Speed of Train = 119.2 − 3.8 = 115.4 km/hr

∴ Answer = 115.4

Alternate Method 

Given:

Length of train (L) = 298 m, Time (t) = 9 sec, Speed of man (V_m) = 3.8 km/hr.

Formula used:

Relative Speed = Distance ÷ Time; Speed in km/hr = Speed in m/s × (18 ÷ 5)

Calculations:

Relative Speed (S_rel) = 298 ÷ 9 m/s

⇒ S_rel in km/hr = (298 ÷ 9) × (18 ÷ 5)

⇒ S_rel = 298 × (2 ÷ 5) = 298 × 0.4

⇒ S_rel = 119.2 km/hr

⇒ Speed of Train + Speed of Man = 119.2

⇒ V_t + 3.8 = 119.2

⇒ V_t = 119.2 − 3.8 = 115.4 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 115.4.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Rules

When two objects move in opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂. When they move in the same direction, relative speed = |S₁ − S₂|.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5 ÷ 18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18 ÷ 5.

Train Crossing a Person/Pole

When a train crosses a stationary or moving point object (like a man or pole), the distance traveled is equal to the length of the train itself.

Train Crossing a Bridge/Platform

Distance traveled = Length of Train + Length of Bridge/Platform.

Shortcut Trick

Price after first 50% discount = 36,000 ÷ 2 = ₹18,000.

Final target selling price = ₹1,440.

Additional discount required = 18,000 − 1,440 = ₹16,560.

Additional discount % = (16,560 ÷ 18,000) × 100 = 92%.

∴ Answer = 92%

Alternate Method 

Given:

List Price (MP) = ₹36,000, First Discount = 50%, Net Selling Price = ₹1,440.

Formula used:

Net SP = MP × (100 − d₁)/100 × (100 − d₂)/100

 MP: ₹36,000 After 1st Disc: ₹18,000 Net SP: ₹1,440  −50%  −x% (Required) Successive Discount Timeline

Calculations:

Price after first discount = 36,000 × (100 − 50)/100 = ₹18,000

⇒ Let the additional discount be x%.

⇒ 1,440 = 18,000 × (100 − x)/100

⇒ 1,440 / 18,000 = (100 − x) / 100

⇒ 144 / 1800 = (100 − x) / 100

⇒ 8 / 100 = (100 − x) / 100

⇒ 8 = 100 − x

⇒ x = 100 − 8 = 92

∴ The correct answer is (3).

Additional Information

Successive Discount Formula

For two successive discounts d₁% and d₂%, the single equivalent discount is given by: [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂ / 100)]%.

Marked Price and Selling Price

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount. Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (or List Price).

Net Discount for Multiple Steps

Net SP = MP × (1 − d₁/100) × (1 − d₂/100) × ... × (1 − d_n/100).

Shortcut Trick

Number 3584y8 is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by both 2 and 3.

Divisibility by 2: Last digit 8 is even (Satisfied).

Divisibility by 3: Sum of digits (3+5+8+4+y+8 = 28+y) must be divisible by 3.

Next multiple of 3 after 28 is 30.

Smallest y → 28 + y = 30 ⇒ y = 2.

∴ Answer = 2

Alternate Method 

Given:

Number = 3584y8

Divisor = 6

Formula used:

Divisibility by 6 → Number must be divisible by 2 and 3.

Divisibility by 3 → Sum of digits must be divisible by 3.

3 5 8 4 y 8 Sum = 3 + 5 + 8 + 4 + y + 8 = 28 + y For 30 − 28, y = 2

Calculations:

Checking divisibility of 3584y8 by 2:

⇒ Last digit is 8, which is even. Number is divisible by 2.

Checking divisibility of 3584y8 by 3:

⇒ Sum of digits = 3 + 5 + 8 + 4 + y + 8

⇒ Sum = 28 + y

⇒ For the number to be divisible by 3, (28 + y) must be a multiple of 3.

⇒ Multiples of 3 near 28 are 30, 33, 36, ...

⇒ Smallest value of y occurs when 28 + y = 30

⇒ y = 30 − 28 = 2

∴ The correct answer is 2 (Option 2).

Additional Information

Divisibility by 4

A number is divisible by 4 if the last two digits of the number are divisible by 4.

Divisibility by 8

A number is divisible by 8 if the last three digits of the number are divisible by 8.

Divisibility by 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of all its digits is divisible by 9.

Divisibility by 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and even places is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

The correct answer is Climate Change: A Survival Threat and the Imperative for Global Action.

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes the urgency and critical nature of addressing climate change, framing it as a survival threat to humanity.
• It highlights the need for global action, collaboration, and sustainable solutions to mitigate the effects of climate change.
• Option 2 accurately captures the core theme of the passage, focusing on the existential risks posed by climate change and the imperative for collective efforts.
• The other options, while related to environmental topics, do not fully encompass the urgency and global focus conveyed in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Renewable Energy: While an important solution, this option does not fully encapsulate the survival threat and global action imperative discussed in the passage.
• Interconnected Nature of Global Climate Effects: This option touches on the global impacts but lacks the emphasis on the survival threat and need for action.
• Natural Disasters and Their Historical Impact: This is too narrow in scope and does not align with the central theme of climate change as a global crisis.

The correct answer is Option 1: They lack the infrastructure to cope.

Key Points

• Developing countries are more vulnerable to climate change because they often lack the infrastructure to cope with its impacts.
• Infrastructure such as resilient transportation networks, advanced healthcare systems, and disaster management facilities are essential to mitigate the effects of climate-related events.
• Limited financial resources also hinder their ability to invest in adaptive technologies and strategies.
• These nations are often heavily reliant on climate-sensitive sectors like agriculture, making them more susceptible to disruptions caused by extreme weather patterns.
• Geographical factors, while relevant in some cases, are secondary to the overarching issue of inadequate infrastructure and resources.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2 (stricter environmental laws) is incorrect because developing countries generally have less stringent regulations compared to developed nations.
• Option 3 (geographically isolated) does not apply universally to all developing countries, as many are not isolated but still face climate vulnerabilities.
• Option 4 (promote industrial emissions) is misleading; while some developing countries have growing industries, their overall emissions are generally lower than those of developed nations.

The correct answer is Division.

Key Points

• The word "Cooperation" refers to working together towards a common goal or mutual benefit.
• The antonym of "Cooperation," as used in the context, would be a term that implies a lack of unity or working against each other.
• Among the given options, "Division" best represents the opposite of "Cooperation," as it signifies separation, disunity, or disagreement.
• Other options like "Solidarity," "Commitment," and "Engagement" are either synonyms or unrelated to the idea of opposition to cooperation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Solidarity: Refers to unity or agreement among individuals with a shared goal or interest, making it similar to "Cooperation."
• Commitment: Indicates dedication or obligation, which is unrelated to opposing cooperation.
• Engagement: Refers to involvement or participation, which does not align with the opposite of cooperation.

The correct answer is They must be urgent and collaborative.

Key Points

• International responses to climate change demand immediacy and cooperation due to the global nature of the problem.
• Climate change affects multiple nations, and its mitigation requires collective efforts from governments, organizations, and individuals worldwide.
• Urgent action is necessary to prevent irreversible damage to ecosystems, economies, and human lives.
• Collaboration across borders ensures that resources, knowledge, and technology are pooled efficiently for effective solutions.
• Scientific evidence underscores the need for coordinated policies to address emissions, renewable energy adoption, and conservation initiatives.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 2 is incorrect because financial input is crucial to implement large-scale climate mitigation strategies.
• Option 3 is incorrect as scientific evidence forms the backbone of climate action plans globally.
• Option 4 is incorrect as international efforts have yielded partial successes, though more progress is needed.

The correct answer is Climate-induced migration.

Key Points

• Climate-induced migration refers to the forced displacement of individuals or communities due to climate change-related factors such as rising sea levels, extreme weather events, droughts, and desertification.
• This phenomenon is a significant socio-political consequence of climate change as it can lead to resource conflicts, strain on urban infrastructure, and challenges in host communities.
• Countries with vulnerable ecosystems, especially low-lying coastal areas and arid regions, are at a higher risk of experiencing climate-induced migration.
• Migratory patterns due to climate change can exacerbate existing inequalities and create geopolitical tensions, making it a critical issue in international policy discussions.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Industrialisation and urban expansion: While these contribute to climate change, they are not direct socio-political consequences.
• Increase in fossil fuel usage: This is a driver of climate change rather than a consequence.
• Universal internet access: This is unrelated to climate change and its socio-political effects.

The correct answer is 'Option(1)' i.e. He strolled lackadaisically through the park, seemingly without a care, enjoying the gentle breeze and the warmth of the sun..

Key Points

• The word "lackadaisically" means in a lazy or relaxed manner, without much enthusiasm or effort. (ढीलेपन से / सुस्ती से)
• Example: He walked lackadaisically into the classroom, clearly uninterested in the lecture.
• The word "strolled" means walked in a slow, relaxed manner. (टहलना)
• Example: They strolled along the beach during sunset, enjoying the calm atmosphere.
• Option (1) correctly spells both "lackadaisically" and "strolled", making it the grammatically accurate sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is- He strolled lackadaisically through the park, seemingly without a care, enjoying the gentle breeze and the warmth of the sun.

Additional Information

• Option 2: "stroled" (गलत वर्तनी) should be "strolled"; "lackadaissically" (गलत वर्तनी) is incorrect spelling of "lackadaisically".
• Option 3: "lackadiassically" (गलत वर्तनी) is incorrect; the correct spelling is "lackadaisically".
• Option 4: "strrolled" (गलत वर्तनी) has an extra 'r'; "lackadaisicaly" (गलत वर्तनी) should be "lackadaisically".

The correct answer is 'Option(4)' i.e. compliment.

Key Points

• The word "complimant" is an incorrect spelling and does not exist in standard English usage. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: The word "complimant" is often mistakenly used instead of the correct spelling.
• The correct word "compliment" means a polite expression of praise or admiration. (प्रशंसा)
• Example: She received a compliment on her excellent presentation skills.
• The sentence intends to convey appreciation, hence "compliment" is the appropriate and correctly spelt word.

Therefore, the correct answer is- compliment

Additional Information

• Complement (पूरक): Something that completes or goes well with something else.
• Example: The red scarf is a perfect complement to her dress.
• Compliment (प्रशंसा): A polite expression of praise or admiration.
• Example: He gave her a compliment on her beautiful handwriting.
• Complementary (पूरक): Combining in such a way as to enhance or emphasize qualities of each other.
• Example: The two colors are complementary to each other.
• Complimentary (निःशुल्क / प्रशंसात्मक): Given free of charge or expressing praise.
• Example: The hotel offered complimentary breakfast to all guests.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. a .

Key Points

• The phrase "one-eyed person" begins with a consonant sound ‘v’, and hence requires the article ‘a’.
• Articles are used to define whether a noun is specific or general. The article ‘a’ is used before singular nouns starting with a consonant sound.
• The other options, ‘the,’ ‘a,’ or ‘no article required,’ are inappropriate in this context.

Correct sentence: Rajath was surprised to see a one-eyed person at the circus.

Additional Information

• Usage of Articles:
• ‘A’: Used before singular nouns starting with consonant sounds (e.g., a dog, a book).
• ‘An’: Used before singular nouns starting with vowel sounds (e.g., an apple, an umbrella).
• ‘The’: Used to refer to something specific or already mentioned (e.g., the car, the stars).
• No Article: Used for general references, plural nouns, or uncountable nouns (e.g., I like coffee, children are playing).

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. Replace 'most invaluable' with 'invaluable' .

Key Points

• The word "invaluable" already means "extremely valuable" or "priceless." Adding the word "most" as a modifier is redundant and grammatically incorrect.
• Using the term "most invaluable" creates a logical contradiction because "invaluable" implies the highest degree of value, and "most" is unnecessary.
• The correct sentence should simply use "invaluable" without any modifiers.

Correct sentence: Her experience is invaluable among all the applicants.

Additional Information

• Common Errors:
• Do not use modifiers like "most" or "very" with absolute adjectives such as "invaluable," "unique," "perfect," etc.
• These adjectives already express the highest degree of quality or value.
• Correct Usage:
• When describing something as "invaluable," it is understood to mean it is priceless and cannot be ranked further.
• Example: Her guidance was invaluable to the success of the project.

The correct answer is 'Option(1)' i.e. calm.

Key Points

• The word "chaotic" means in a state of complete confusion, disorder, or lack of organization. (अव्यवस्थित / अराजक)
• Example: The situation became chaotic when no clear instructions were given.
• The word "calm" means peaceful, free from disturbance, and without disorder. (शांत)
• Example: Despite the noise outside, she remained calm and focused on her work.
• Since "calm" expresses order and peace, it is the exact opposite of "chaotic", which denotes disorder.

Therefore, the correct answer is- calm

Additional Information

• Tumultuous (उथल-पुथल भरा): Full of confusion, disorder, or disturbance; similar to chaotic.
• Example: The meeting turned tumultuous due to heated arguments.
• Rampageous (उग्र / अनियंत्रित): Violent and uncontrolled behavior; not opposite of chaotic.
• Example: The rampageous crowd caused panic in the streets.
• Riotous (अराजक / उपद्रवी): Characterized by disorder and wild behavior; similar to chaotic.
• Example: The celebration became riotous late at night.

The correct answer is 'Option(1)' i.e. Altruistic.

Key Points

• The word "rancorous" means full of bitterness, hatred, or resentment. (कटु / द्वेषपूर्ण)
• Example: The rancorous argument between the siblings lasted for hours.
• The word "Altruistic" means showing selfless concern for the well-being of others. (परोपकारी)
• Example: Her altruistic efforts helped many underprivileged children receive education.
• Since "altruistic" conveys kindness and selflessness, it stands opposite to "rancorous", which reflects bitterness and hostility.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Altruistic

Additional Information

• Acrimonious (कटु / तीखा): Full of anger and bitterness; similar to rancorous.
• Example: The acrimonious dispute damaged their long-standing friendship.
• Cantankerous (झगड़ालू / चिड़चिड़ा): Bad-tempered and argumentative.
• Example: The cantankerous old man often complained about everything.
• Malevolent (दुष्ट / दुर्भावनापूर्ण): Having or showing a wish to do evil to others.
• Example: The villain had malevolent intentions toward the kingdom.

The correct answer is 'Option(2)' i.e. recklessly.

Key Points

• The word "recklessly" means without thinking about the consequences or dangers. (लापरवाही से)
• Example: He drove recklessly, ignoring all traffic signals.
• The context describes winding roads, rough edges, and deep crevasses, indicating a dangerous situation requiring caution.
• Thus, "recklessly" appropriately conveys careless driving in such hazardous conditions.

Therefore, the correct answer is- recklessly

the correct sentence is: He drove  recklessly  on the winding roads of the hill, embracing the rough edges on one side and deep crevasses on the other.

Additional Information

• Affectionately (स्नेहपूर्वक): In a loving or gentle manner.
• **Example:**She smiled affectionately at her child.
• Studiedly (जानबूझकर / सोच-समझकर): Done deliberately or with careful intention.
• **Example:**He studiedly avoided answering the question.
• Inwardly (भीतर ही भीतर): In one’s mind or thoughts.
• **Example:**She inwardly questioned his decision.

The correct answer is 'Option(2)' i.e. Come up to expectations.

Key Points

• The idiom "cut the mustard" means to meet the required standard or perform satisfactorily. (अपेक्षाओं पर खरा उतरना)
• Example: The new employee couldn't cut the mustard in such a competitive environment.
• The phrase is used when someone successfully meets expectations or proves capable.
• Thus, "come up to expectations" correctly conveys the meaning of the idiom.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Come up to expectations

Additional Information

• Prepare spices out of mustard seeds (सरसों से मसाले बनाना): Literal meaning, not related to the idiom.
• **Example:**She prepared spices out of mustard seeds for cooking.
• Be very enthusiastic (बहुत उत्साही होना): Indicates excitement, not the idiomatic meaning.
• **Example:**He was very enthusiastic about the new project.
• Deal with the problem only in an emergency situation (केवल आपात स्थिति में समस्या से निपटना): Does not match the idiom.
• **Example:**They deal with issues only in emergency situations.

The correct answer is 'Option(2)' i.e. To lose one's temper suddenly.

Key Points

• The idiom "to fly off the handle" means to suddenly become very angry or lose control of one’s temper. (अचानक गुस्सा हो जाना)
• Example: He tends to fly off the handle whenever someone criticizes his work.
• The phrase suggests an impulsive emotional reaction without thinking.
• Thus, "to lose one's temper suddenly" is the most accurate meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is- To lose one's temper suddenly

Additional Information

• To perform a risky stunt (खतरनाक करतब करना): Refers to daring physical action, not related to anger.
• **Example:**The biker performed a risky stunt during the show.
• To go on a vacation (छुट्टी पर जाना): Indicates travel, not emotional reaction.
• **Example:**They decided to go on a vacation during summer.
• To make a quick decision (जल्दी निर्णय लेना): Suggests speed, not anger.
• **Example:**She had to make a quick decision in the meeting.

The correct answer is 'Option(1)' i.e. clearly.

Key Points

• The word "clearly" means in a way that is easy to understand and free from confusion. (स्पष्ट रूप से)
• Example: The teacher explained the concept clearly, making it easy for students to grasp.
• The sentence emphasizes that everyone could understand the theory, which directly aligns with the meaning of "clearly".
• Thus, "clearly" is the most appropriate word in the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is- clearly

The correct sentence is: The professor explained the theory very clearly so that everyone could understand it.

Additional Information

• Quickly (जल्दी): Done in a short time; does not guarantee understanding.
• **Example:**He finished the assignment quickly.
• Slowly (धीरे): Done at a low speed; may help but does not necessarily ensure clarity.
• **Example:**She walked slowly across the road.
• Randomly (बेतरतीब ढंग से): Without a definite pattern or purpose; inappropriate in this context.
• **Example:**The names were selected randomly from the list.

The correct answer is 'Option(2)' i.e. Ethnology.

Key Points

• The phrase describes a systematic and comparative study of human races, cultures, and social behaviours.
• The word "Ethnology" means the study of different peoples, their cultures, customs, and relationships. (जनजाति-विज्ञान / मानव-संस्कृति का तुलनात्मक अध्ययन)
• Example: Ethnology helps researchers understand cultural diversity across different regions of the world.
• Thus, "Ethnology" precisely captures the idea of analyzing and comparing human societies and cultures.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Ethnology

Additional Information

• Petrology (शैल-विज्ञान): Study of rocks and their formation.
• **Example:**Petrology is essential for understanding the Earth’s crust.
• Ecology (पारिस्थितिकी): Study of organisms and their environment.
• **Example:**Ecology examines how living beings interact with nature.
• Demography (जनसांख्यिकी): Study of population statistics such as birth, death, and migration.
• **Example:**Demography provides insights into population growth trends.