DSSSB TGT (Maths) Official Paper (Held On: 13 Nov, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given Equation: 136 C 140 A 20 D 18 B 6 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the signs using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 136 + 140 ÷ 20 - 18 × 6

⇒ 136 + 7 - 108

⇒ 143 - 108

⇒ 35

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Given Equation: 90 A 9 B 6 C 3 D 15 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the signs using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 90 ÷ 9 × 6 + 3 - 15

⇒ 10 × 6 + 3 - 15

⇒ 60 + 3 - 15

⇒ 63 - 15

⇒ 48

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

(I):  All pots are crows → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between pots and crows. so, it is possible not definite).

(II): Some almonds are razors → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between almonds and razors. so, it is possible not definite).

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

26 + (7 × 1) = 26 + 7 = 33

33 + (7 × 2) = 33 + 14 = 47

47 + (7 × 3) = 47 + 21 = 68

68 + (7 × 4) = 68 + 28 = 96

96 + (7 × 5) = 96 + 35 = 131

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

(1) JC : ZS

(2) PI : FD

(3) BU : RK

(4) EX : UN

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given:

Chintu is 16^th from the top.

Chintu is 15^th from the bottom.

Total students = (Rank from Top) + (Rank from Bottom) - 1

Number of students = 16 + 15 - 1

= 31 - 1

= 30 students.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

LIMK is related to QNRP,

FCGE is related to KHLJ,

Similarly,

OLPN related to,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic: number³ + 3

(1) 8 - 69

82+5=64+5=698^2 + 5 = 64 + 5 = 69

(2) 5 - 128

53+3=125+3=1285^3 + 3 = 125 + 3 = 128

(3) 3 - 30

33+3=27+3=30

4. 1 - 4

13+3=1+3=41^2 + 3 = 1 + 3 = 4

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given: (Left) 939 765 711 863 703 (Right)

According to the question:

Add 3 to the second digit of each number and check whether the new second digit is exactly divisible by the third digit.

Numbers satisfying the condition: 711, 863, 703

Total such numbers = 3

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: (Left) HAS CUT RAN DYE (Right)

According to the question:

First word from the left = HAS → Second letter = A

First word from the right = DYE → Second letter = Y

Now, find the number of letters between A and Y in the English alphabetical order.

Position of A = 1

Position of Y = 25

Number of letters between them = 23

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. P has the exam on Friday.
2. Only three people have exams before R.
3. S has the exam before U but after V.
4. Q has the exam before T, but after P. 

Three people have exams between V and P.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

According to the given information,

Given equation: C – D # E @ F % M → C is brother of D, D is wife of E, E is father of F and F is sister of M.

C is M's mother's brother.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

As per given information,

'dew ring field' is coded as 'uc ie il' 

'queen field dirt' is coded as 'zz kt ie'

'field' coded in the given language as "ie".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

CJEL is related to GNIP,

FMHO is related to JQLS,

Similarly,

IPKR related to,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

According to the given information,

He should drive 11 - 3 = 8 km in south direction to reach Point A again.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The correct answer is option2. The detailed solution will be updated soon.

Explanation: The statement indicates that the price of tomatoes has increased due to shortage caused by excessive export to other states.

I) The Government of State X should impose a limit to the export of tomatoes to other states during peak seasons.

• This is a logical course of action because statement explicitly identifies "export to other states" as the reason for the local shortage, limiting those exports is a direct and logical way to increase local supply. Increasing the supply in State X will help stabilize or lower the prices.

II) The Government of State X should impose a maximum price above which tomatoes can’t be sold in state.

• This is not a logical course of action, While this seems like a helpful consumer protection measure, it is a "symptomatic" fix rather than a "causal" one. In economics, imposing a price ceiling during a shortage often leads to a black market or causes sellers to stop selling tomatoes altogether because they can't make a profit, which would actually worsen the shortage. It does not address the export issue mentioned in the statement.

Only I follows

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern is:

(Second − First) − 5 = Third

Set 1: (37, 48, 6)

48 − 37 = 11 → 11 − 5 = 6

Se 2: (59, 70, 6)

70 − 59 = 11 → 11 − 5 = 6

Pattern is:

(Second − First) − 5 = Third

Now check options:

1. (46, 59, 6)

59 − 46 = 13 → 13 − 5 = 8 

2. (43, 54, 6)

54 − 43 = 11 → 11 − 5 = 6 

3. (22, 31, 6)

31 − 22 = 9 → 9 − 5 = 4 

4. (28, 40, 6)

40 − 28 = 12 → 12 − 5 = 7 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is 2022.

Key Points

• The Government of India officially launched the Mission Amrit Sarovar on April 24, 2022. The launch coincided with the National Panchayati Raj Day, highlighting the role of local governance in water management.
• The mission was launched as a significant part of the Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations, which marked the 75^th year of India's independence.
• The primary objective of this mission is to develop and rejuvenate 75 water bodies (Amrit Sarovars) in every district of the country. This effort is aimed at overcoming the water crisis and ensuring sustainable water conservation in rural areas.
• The mission is a whole-of-government approach involving various ministries, including the Ministry of Rural Development, Ministry of Jal Shakti, Ministry of Panchayati Raj, and Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• This initiative focuses on creating a sustainable source of water that can be used for various purposes like irrigation, fisheries, and water supply for animals, while also improving the groundwater level.

Additional Information

• Target and Scale: The mission set an ambitious target to construct or rejuvenate 50,000 Amrit Sarovars across the country by August 15, 2023. Each of these water bodies is expected to have a pondage area of at least 1 acre with a water-holding capacity of about 10,000 cubic meters.
• Nodal Ministry: The Ministry of Rural Development acts as the lead coordinator for the implementation of the project. It works in coordination with State Governments and District Administrations to identify suitable sites and execute the work.
• Funding Convergence: The mission does not have a separate budget but works through the convergence of various existing schemes such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY), and grants from the 15^th Finance Commission.
• Technology Integration: The Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) provides technical support and geospatial technology for the identification of sites and monitoring the progress of the Sarovars.
• Community Participation: A unique feature of the mission is the involvement of local citizens, freedom fighters, or the eldest members of the village in laying the foundation stones and hoisting the National Flag at the sites on Independence Day and Republic Day.

Important Points

• First Amrit Sarovar: The first ever Amrit Sarovar under this mission was completed in Patwai, located in the Rampur district of Uttar Pradesh. This success served as a model for the rest of the country.
• Environmental Impact: Beyond water storage, the mission encourages plantation of trees like Neem, Peepal, and Banyan around the banks of the Sarovars to enhance local biodiversity and prevent soil erosion.
• States Participation: States like Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, and Rajasthan have been among the top performers in terms of the number of Sarovars completed.
• Social Significance: By creating these water bodies, the government aims to transform them into social hubs where villagers can gather, thus strengthening the socio-economic fabric of rural India.

The correct answer is Tripitaka.

Key Points

• The Tripitaka, which literally translates to "Three Baskets," is the traditional term for the collection of Buddhist scriptures that contain the original teachings of Gautama Buddha.
• These scriptures were primarily preserved in the Pali language and form the foundational canon for the Theravada school of Buddhism.
• The Sutta Pitaka is the first basket and consists of more than 10,000 suttas (teachings) attributed to the Buddha or his close disciples; it focuses on the Dhamma (doctrine) and meditation practices.
• The Vinaya Pitaka serves as the second basket, providing the code of conduct and monastic rules for the Sangha (order of monks and nuns) to ensure discipline and communal harmony.
• The Abhidhamma Pitaka is the third basket and constitutes a detailed scholastic analysis and summary of the Buddha’s teachings, exploring the metaphysical and psychological aspects of reality.

Additional Information

• Vedas: These are the oldest sacred texts of Hinduism, composed in Archaic Sanskrit between 1500 BCE and 500 BCE. There are four primary Vedas: Rigveda, Samaveda, Yajurveda, and Atharvaveda.
• Upanishads: Collectively known as the Vedanta, these texts contain the philosophical foundations of Hinduism, focusing on the concepts of Brahman (universal soul) and Atman (individual soul). There are traditionally 108 Upanishads.
• Chathurika: This is not recognized as a major Buddhist scripture; however, the term is sometimes used as a name or in reference to specific numerical groupings in different contexts, but it does not represent the main body of Buddha's teachings.
• Jataka Tales: These are a voluminous body of literature native to India concerning the previous births of Gautama Buddha in both human and animal forms, teaching moral values.
• Dhammapada: A collection of 423 verses spoken by the Buddha, it is one of the most widely read Buddhist scriptures and is found within the Khuddaka Nikaya of the Sutta Pitaka.

Important Points

• The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajgir in the Sattapanni Cave around 483 BC, shortly after the Mahaparinirvana of Buddha, where Upali recited the Vinaya and Ananda recited the Sutta.
• The Third Buddhist Council, convened in 250 BC at Pataliputra under the patronage of Emperor Ashoka, led to the final codification of the Abhidhamma Pitaka.
• The Tripitaka is central to the Pali Canon, which is the standard collection of scriptures in Theravadan Buddhist countries such as Sri Lanka, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, and Laos.
• While the Theravada tradition uses the Pali version, Mahayana Buddhism often refers to Sanskrit Sutras, though they still respect the core teachings found in the Agamas (the equivalent of the Sutta Pitaka).
• The Tripitaka was originally transmitted orally for several centuries before being written down for the first time in Sri Lanka during the 1^st Century BC at the Alu Vihara.

The correct answer is Citizenship.

Key Points

• Article 11 of the Constitution of India explicitly grants the Parliament the authority to regulate the right of Citizenship by law. This means that while Articles 5 to 10 define who became a citizen at the time of the commencement of the Constitution, Article 11 ensures that Parliament has the supreme power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship.
• The Constitution does not provide a permanent or elaborate law regarding Citizenship; it only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement on January 26, 1950. Article 11 was included to give Parliament the flexibility to deal with changing situations regarding Citizenship.
• Under the power conferred by Article 11, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which provides for the acquisition and loss of Citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution. Hence, the statement regarding Article 11 giving power to Parliament for Citizenship laws is correct.
• This power allows the Union Government to decide the criteria for who can be an Indian citizen, ensuring that the Parliament can respond to national security, migration, and international relations needs through legislative amendments.

Additional Information

• Part II of the Constitution: Articles 5 to 11 comprise Part II of the Constitution of India. While Articles 5–8 deal with different categories of people becoming citizens in 1950 (based on domicile, migration from Pakistan, etc.), Article 9 states that any person who voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign state shall no longer be a citizen of India.
• Citizenship Act, 1955: This act has been amended several times (e.g., 1986, 1992, 2003, 2005, 2015, and 2019). It prescribes five ways of acquiring Citizenship: Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalisation, and Incorporation of Territory.
• Single Citizenship: Unlike federal structures like the USA, the Indian Constitution provides for Single Citizenship. This means there is no separate state citizenship, fostering a sense of fraternity and unity among the people of India regardless of their location or state of birth.
• Ministry of Home Affairs: The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry in India responsible for matters related to Citizenship, including the processing of applications for Naturalisation and Registration.
• Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI): Introduced in response to demands for dual citizenship by the Indian Diaspora, the OCI scheme was launched in 2005. However, it is not actual dual citizenship as India does not allow holding two passports simultaneously under Article 9.

Important Points

• Union List: Citizenship is a subject listed under the Union List (Entry 17) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. This grants exclusive jurisdiction to the Parliament to legislate on this matter; state legislatures have no power to make laws concerning Citizenship.
• Article 10: It ensures that every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India under any of the foregoing provisions shall continue to be such a citizen, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
• Losing Citizenship: The Citizenship Act, 1955 outlines three ways to lose citizenship: Renunciation (voluntary giving up), Termination (automatically losing Indian citizenship upon acquiring another country's citizenship), and Deprivation (compulsory termination by the Central Government based on fraud or disloyalty to the Constitution).
• Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) 2019: A recent and significant use of Article 11 powers, this Act sought to grant Indian citizenship to persecuted minorities (Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians) from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan who entered India on or before December 31, 2014.

The correct answer is Puducherry with its units at Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam.

Key Points

• Puducherry is a unique Union Territory of India that consists of four non-contiguous districts, which are remnants of French India. These districts are geographically separated and located on both the Western Coast and the Eastern Coast of the Indian peninsula. Hence, the statement regarding Puducherry is correct.
• The district of Mahe is situated on the Malabar Coast (the Western Coast) and is surrounded by the state of Kerala. It is the smallest district in India by area.
• The districts of Puducherry (the capital) and Karaikal are located on the Coromandel Coast (the Eastern Coast) and are geographically surrounded by the state of Tamil Nadu.
• The district of Yanam is located on the Eastern Coast along the Godavari River delta, surrounded by the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands are an archipelago located entirely in the Bay of Bengal, positioned to the South-East of the Indian mainland. They do not have administrative units on the western coast. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Lakshadweep is a Union Territory consisting of a group of 36 coral islands located exclusively in the Arabian Sea, off the Western Coast (Malabar Coast) of India. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu are located near the Gujarat and Maharashtra borders on the Western Coast of India. They do not have any territory on the eastern coast. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Puducherry (formerly Pondicherry): It was a French colonial possession until 1954, when it was transferred to the Indian Union. It officially became a Union Territory in 1962. Under Article 239A of the Constitution of India, Puducherry has its own Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers.
• Administrative Structure: Despite being geographically separated by hundreds of kilometers, all four regions (Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam) are administered under a single Lieutenant Governor and a centralized government based in Puducherry city.
• Lakshadweep: It is the smallest Union Territory of India. The name means "a hundred thousand islands" in Sanskrit and Malayalam. Its capital is Kavaratti, and the islands are famous for their coral reefs and coconut cultivation.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands: These islands are separated by the Ten Degree Channel. The Andaman group is in the north, and the Nicobar group is in the south. The capital is Port Blair, which houses the historic Cellular Jail.
• Merger of UTs: In January 2020, the two Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu were merged into a single entity to improve administrative efficiency. The capital of this combined territory is Daman.

Important Points

• Geographical Spread: The distance between Mahe (West Coast) and Yanam (East Coast) is approximately 800 to 1,000 kilometers, highlighting the unique fragmented geography of Puducherry.
• Cultural Legacy: The regions of Puducherry still retain a strong French influence, seen in the architecture, city planning, and culture, particularly in the "White Town" area of the main Puducherry district.
• Economic Activities: Agriculture and fishing are the primary occupations in these coastal regions. Puducherry and Karaikal are also becoming significant hubs for tourism and higher education.
• Linguistic Diversity: Due to their locations, Tamil is widely spoken in Puducherry and Karaikal, Malayalam is dominant in Mahe, and Telugu is the primary language in Yanam. French is also an official language of the territory.

The correct answer is 25.

Key Points

• According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, which was tabled in July 2024, there are currently 25 ropeway projects in progress across India.
• These projects are a core component of the National Ropeways Development Programme, popularly known as Parvatmala Pariyojana.
• The primary objective of these 25 projects is to enhance last-mile connectivity to various religious and tourist destinations, particularly in challenging hilly terrains where conventional road construction is difficult.
• The Economic Survey 2024-25 emphasizes that these ropeway systems are being developed to reduce travel time, improve safety for pilgrims, and boost the local economy through increased tourism.
• The implementation of these projects is managed by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), ensuring integrated planning with existing transport networks.

Additional Information

• Parvatmala Pariyojana: This national program was first announced in the Union Budget 2022-23 to address the transport needs of hilly areas like Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Jammu & Kashmir, and the North-East.
• Nodal Agency: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is responsible for the development of ropeways and alternative mobility solutions, diversifying its traditional role of building National Highways.
• Project Scope: While 25 projects are currently in progress as per the Economic Survey, the government has identified more than 200 potential locations for ropeway development over the coming years to create a comprehensive network.
• Environmental Benefits: Ropeways are considered eco-friendly modes of transport because they require minimal land acquisition, cause less deforestation compared to roads, and can be powered by clean energy sources.
• Urban Connectivity: Beyond hilly regions, the government is also exploring urban ropeways to solve traffic congestion in crowded cities. An example is the Varanasi Ropeway project, which aims to connect the railway station to the Kashi Vishwanath temple area.

Important Points

• Investment Model: Most of these ropeway projects are being executed under the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode, specifically utilizing the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) to encourage private sector participation and foreign direct investment.
• Integration with PM Gati Shakti: The development of these 25 ropeways is aligned with the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, ensuring that they connect seamlessly with railway stations and bus terminals.
• Economic Impact: By boosting religious tourism, these projects help create jobs in the hospitality, handicraft, and service sectors within the Himalayan and other mountainous regions.
• Safety Standards: The Government of India has adopted European safety standards (CEN standards) for the construction and operation of these ropeways to ensure the highest level of passenger safety.
• Data and Target: The Economic Survey 2024-25 highlights that the goal is to complete a significant number of these projects by the year 2026-27 to provide relief to millions of devotees and tourists annually.

The correct answer is Tay-Sachs disease.

Key Points

• Tay-Sachs disease is a rare, inherited genetic disorder characterized by the destruction of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord.
• The disorder is caused by a mutation in the HEXA gene, which provides instructions for making the enzyme beta-hexosaminidase A (Hex-A).
• The primary function of Hex-A is to break down fatty substances called GM2 gangliosides. In the absence of this enzyme, these lipids accumulate to toxic levels, specifically in the central nervous system. Hence, the statement regarding the absence of a fatty-substance-breaking enzyme is correct for Tay-Sachs disease.
• It is an autosomal recessive condition, meaning a child must inherit two copies of the defective gene (one from each parent) to develop the disease.

Additional Information

• Von Willebrand disease:
• This is a hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or defect in the Von Willebrand factor (VWF), a protein required for blood clotting.
• It does not involve the breakdown of fatty substances but rather the inability of platelets to adhere to blood vessel walls during an injury. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Huntington's disease:
• This is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder caused by an inherited defect in a single gene on chromosome 4.
• The defect involves a CAG repeat expansion in the HTT gene, leading to the production of an abnormal protein that damages nerve cells in the brain. It is not related to fatty substance metabolism enzymes. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (CMT):
• CMT is a group of inherited disorders that cause damage to the peripheral nerves, which transmit signals between the brain/spinal cord and the rest of the body.
• It typically results from mutations in genes that produce proteins involved in the structure and function of either the peripheral nerve axon or the myelin sheath. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Important Points

• Demographics and Location: While the disease can occur in any population, it is most prevalent among people of Ashkenazi Jewish heritage. Other high-risk groups include French-Canadian communities in Quebec, the Old Order Amish in Pennsylvania, and the Cajun population of Louisiana.
• Age of Onset: The most common form, Infantile Tay-Sachs, begins showing symptoms around 3 to 6 months of age. There are also rarer Juvenile and Late-onset (Adult) forms which appear later in life with less severe progression.
• Diagnostic Features: A classic clinical sign of Tay-Sachs is a "cherry-red" spot identified during an eye examination, which is caused by the accumulation of lipids in the retinal ganglion cells.
• Prevention and Screening: Since there is currently no cure, genetic testing and carrier screening are crucial for at-risk couples to determine the probability of passing the gene to their offspring.

The correct answer is Hindi.

Key Points

• Hindi is the official language of the state of Jharkhand. It serves as the primary medium of communication for administration, judiciary (subordinate courts), and education within the state.
• Since the formation of the state on 15 November 2000 (carved out of Bihar), Hindi has been the primary language used by the government to maintain consistency in legislative and executive functions.
• It acts as a lingua franca (common language) for the diverse population of Jharkhand, which consists of various tribal and non-tribal groups who speak different mother tongues.
• According to the 2011 Census, Hindi (including its various dialects like Sadan/Sadri, Khortha, and Nagpuri) is spoken by a majority of the population in both urban and rural areas.
• While the state has many regional and tribal languages, Hindi remains the dominant language for state-wide media, news, and commerce.

Additional Information

• Santali: This is a major tribal language of the Santhal people, primarily residing in the Santhal Pargana division. It is written in the Ol Chiki script, invented by Pandit Raghunath Murmu. It was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India by the 92^nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 2003.
• Bengali: Due to the geographical proximity of Jharkhand to West Bengal, Bengali is spoken by a large population in the eastern districts such as Pakur, Singhbhum, and Jamtara. It is recognized as one of the additional official languages of the state.
• Urdu: It is also granted the status of an additional official language. It is widely used by the minority community and has a strong presence in the literature and culture of regions like Ranchi and Jamshedpur.
• Tribal and Regional Language Diversity: Jharkhand is unique for its linguistic diversity, hosting three major language families: Indo-Aryan (e.g., Bhojpuri, Magahi, Angika), Austroasiatic (e.g., Mundari, Ho), and Dravidian (e.g., Kurukh/Oraon, Malto).

Important Points

• Constitutional Provision: Under Article 345 of the Constitution of India, the Legislature of a State has the power to adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State or Hindi as the official language.
• Second Official Languages: In 2018, the Jharkhand Government expanded its list of second official languages to include 16 languages, including Magahi, Bhojpuri, Maithili, and Angika, to promote the state's cultural heritage and linguistic identity.
• Language Families: The tribal languages like Mundari and Ho belong to the Munda branch of the Austroasiatic family, while Kurukh, spoken by the Oraon tribe, is a Dravidian language, showing the ancient anthropological roots of the state.
• Literacy and Education: The State Government promotes Hindi as the primary medium of instruction in government schools, although primary education is increasingly being encouraged in tribal mother tongues to reduce dropout rates among tribal children.

The correct answer is Only 1, 3 and 4.

Key Points

• According to Article 75 of the Constitution of India, the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President. Usually, the President appoints the leader of the party or coalition that has the majority in the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Under Article 53, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. The Prime Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive), while the President is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Article 74(1) states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister. However, within six months, he/she must become a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha; otherwise, he/she ceases to be the Prime Minister. This was clarified by the Supreme Court in 1997. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Role: The Prime Minister serves as the main channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers under Article 78. It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union.
• Selection Process: While the Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister, the President uses his discretionary power only when no single party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In such a case, the President usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition and asks him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
• Membership of Parliament: In India, the Prime Minister can be a member of either the Lower House (Lok Sabha) or the Upper House (Rajya Sabha). For example, Indira Gandhi (1966), Deve Gowda (1996), and Manmohan Singh (2004) were members of the Rajya Sabha.
• Term of Office: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed, and he holds office during the pleasure of the President. However, this does not mean the President can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. As long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed.

Important Points

• Powers and Functions: The Prime Minister recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the President. He presides over the meeting of the Council of Ministers and influences its decisions. He can bring about the collapse of the Council of Ministers by resigning from office.
• Relationship with President: Under Article 75, the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, but they are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister advises the President with regard to the appointment of important officials like the Attorney General of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, and the Chairman of the UPSC.
• Ex-officio Roles: The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the NITI Aayog (which replaced the Planning Commission in 2015), the National Development Council, the National Integration Council, the Inter-State Council, and the National Water Resources Council.
• Oath and Salary: Before the Prime Minister enters upon his office, the President administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy. The salary and allowances of the Prime Minister are determined by the Parliament from time to time.

The correct answer is Sultan Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq.

Key Points

• Sultan Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq was the reigning monarch of the Delhi Sultanate when the Turco-Mongol conqueror Timur Lung (Tamerlane) invaded India in the year 1398. Hence, the second option is correct.
• During his reign, the Tughlaq dynasty was in a state of severe decline, suffering from internal civil wars and administrative fragmentation. The Sultan's authority was largely confined to Delhi and its immediate surroundings.
• Timur Lung, the ruler of Samarkand (modern-day Uzbekistan), crossed the Indus River in September 1398. His primary objectives were the acquisition of wealth and the spread of Islamic dominance by targeting "infidels."
• The decisive Battle of Delhi took place on December 17, 1398. Sultan Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah and his prime minister, Mallu Iqbal, faced Timur’s forces with a large army including war elephants, but were decisively defeated.
• Following the defeat, the Sultan fled to Gujarat, leaving the city of Delhi defenseless. This led to a massive massacre and the total plundering of the city by Timur's troops for several days.

Additional Information

• Nusrat Shah: He was a grandson of Feroz Shah Tughlaq and acted as a rival claimant to the throne during the civil war preceding Timur's invasion. He controlled Firozabad, while Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud held Delhi. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Khizr Khan: He was the Governor of Multan who supported Timur Lung during his invasion. Before leaving India, Timur appointed Khizr Khan as his deputy in Multan and Lahore. He later founded the Sayyid Dynasty in 1414. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Nasir-ud-din Muhammad Shah III: He was the father of Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah and ruled for a brief period from 1390 to 1394. He was not on the throne during the invasion of 1398. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• The Tughlaq Dynasty: Established by Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq in 1320, the dynasty saw its peak under Muhammad bin Tughlaq and Feroz Shah Tughlaq. However, the invasion of Timur acted as the final blow to its power, eventually leading to its collapse in 1414.

Important Points

• Impact of the Invasion: The invasion caused such economic and demographic devastation that it reportedly took Delhi nearly a century to recover its former glory. Timur carried away thousands of artisans, masons, and slaves to Samarkand to build his capital.
• Geopolitical Change: The collapse of central authority in Delhi allowed various provincial governors to declare independence, leading to the rise of regional kingdoms like the Sultanate of Malwa and the Sultanate of Gujarat.
• Historical Record: Much of the information regarding this invasion comes from the Zafarnama (Book of Victory) written by Sharaf ad-Din Ali Yazdi and Timur’s own autobiography, the Tuzk-e-Taimuri.

The correct answer is Great Green Wall of Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Government of Andhra Pradesh has conceptualized the Great Green Wall of Andhra Pradesh initiative as a long-term ecological defense mechanism. The project aims to establish a 5-km-wide protective green belt along the entire 974 km coastline of the state to be completed by the year 2030.
• The primary objective of this initiative is to mitigate the devastating impact of cyclones, storm surges, and high-velocity winds that frequently hit the eastern coast of India. By creating a dense bio-shield, the state hopes to reduce the energy of incoming waves and wind before they reach human settlements.
• This green barrier is designed to combat coastal erosion and environmental degradation. The expansion of the green cover will help in stabilizing the shoreline and preventing the ingress of salt water into agricultural lands and groundwater sources.
• The project focuses on planting mangroves in the swampy areas and shelterbelts consisting of trees like Casuarina, Palmyra, and other salt-tolerant species in the sandy regions. These plantations act as a natural carbon sink, contributing to the state’s carbon sequestration targets.
• The initiative is part of a broader strategy for Climate Change Adaptation and Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR), ensuring that the coastal districts, which are home to millions of people, become resilient to the rising frequency of extreme weather events.

Additional Information

• Geographical Vulnerability: Andhra Pradesh possesses the second-longest coastline in India, stretching approximately 974 km. This region is highly susceptible to depressions in the Bay of Bengal, leading to frequent cyclonic storms such as Michaung, Asani, and Gulab in recent years.
• Economic Impact: The coastal zone is vital for the state's Blue Economy, supporting thousands of fishermen and massive aquaculture operations. The Great Green Wall protects these livelihoods by safeguarding the coastal infrastructure and breeding grounds for marine life.
• Global Inspiration: The concept is inspired by international projects like the Great Green Wall of Africa (aimed at stopping the Sahara's expansion) and Gujarat’s successful mangrove restoration projects. It aligns with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), specifically SDG 13 (Climate Action) and SDG 14 (Life Below Water).
• Ecological Benefits: Besides disaster mitigation, the green wall enhances biodiversity. Mangroves provide essential habitats for various species of birds, crustaceans, and the Olive Ridley turtles that nest along the Andhra coast.

Important Points

• Implementation Agency: The project involves collaboration between the Andhra Pradesh Forest Department, the Environment and Ecology Department, and the State Disaster Management Authority (APSDMA).
• Community Involvement: A key feature of the project is Community-Based Coastal Resource Management (CBCRM). Local Vana Samrakshana Samithis (VSS) and women's self-help groups are engaged in the nursery raising and plantation process to ensure the sustainability of the green barrier.
• Technological Integration: The state uses Geographic Information System (GIS) and Remote Sensing technology to identify vulnerable patches along the coast where the green barrier needs to be densified urgently.
• Funding and Policy: The initiative is supported by various state funds and seeks alignment with central schemes like MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes) launched by the Union Government in the 2023-24 Budget.

The correct answer is Central and Western Asia.

Key Points

• During the winter months (typically December to February), the weather in northwestern India is significantly influenced by the pressure distribution and atmospheric conditions prevailing over Central and Western Asia.
• The primary phenomenon responsible for this influence is the Western Disturbance, which is an extratropical cyclone originating in the Mediterranean Sea and the Caspian Sea regions of Western Asia.
• These disturbances travel eastward across Iraq, Iran, Afghanistan, and Pakistan before entering the Indian subcontinent through the northwest.
• The movement of these weather systems is steered by the Sub-tropical Westerly Jet Stream, which flows at high altitudes (approximately 9 to 13 kilometers) across Central Asia and the northern part of India.
• The arrival of these disturbances is usually preceded by a rise in night temperatures, followed by light to moderate rainfall in the plains of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, and heavy snowfall in the Himalayan region.

Additional Information

• Sub-tropical Westerly Jet Stream:
• This jet stream is located south of the Himalayas during the winter season and acts as a carrier for the moisture-laden Western Disturbances.
• It maintains a position around 27° to 30° North latitude, effectively bringing the Central Asian pressure influences into the Indo-Gangetic plains.
• Impact on Agriculture (Rabi Crops):
• The precipitation brought by these systems, although small in quantity, is highly beneficial for Rabi crops such as Wheat, Gram, and Mustard.
• In local terms, this winter rainfall is often referred to as Mahawat or Mawath in parts of Rajasthan and Haryana.
• High-Pressure Systems:
• During winter, a high-pressure center develops over Central Asia and the Tibetan Plateau due to extreme cooling.
• This high pressure causes cold winds to blow outwards towards the Indian subcontinent, but the Himalayas act as a barrier, preventing the direct entry of extremely frigid Siberian air, thereby keeping India relatively warmer than other regions at the same latitude.
• Other Options Analysis:
• Arabian Peninsula: While it lies to the west, it primarily acts as a transit point for Western Disturbances rather than the primary source of pressure distribution that dictates India's winter cycle.
• Indian Ocean and Bay of Bengal: These regions mainly influence the North-East Monsoon (affecting Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh) and tropical cyclones, but they do not govern the northwestern winter weather dominated by Westerly systems.

Important Points

• Air Pressure and Wind Direction: In winter, the pressure gradient is from North to South. Winds blow from the high-pressure landmass of Central Asia towards the low-pressure areas over the Indian Ocean.
• Temperature Variations: The passage of a Western Disturbance often leads to a sudden drop in mercury levels once the system passes, causing cold wave conditions across North India.
• Geographical Barrier: The Himalayas divide the Jet Stream into two branches; the Southern branch is what specifically influences the weather conditions of the Indian plains during the winter.
• Data and Observations: Meteorological data indicates that January and February are the months when the influence of Western Asian pressure systems is at its peak in India.

The correct answer is India’s participation in World War I and influence of the Irish Home Rule League.

Key Points

• The Home Rule League Movement was launched in 1916 under the leadership of Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak. The immediate factor was the global political climate created by World War I (1914–1918), where Britain claimed to be fighting for democracy and self-determination, prompting Indian leaders to demand similar rights. Hence, the third option is the correct statement.
• The movement was deeply influenced by the Irish Home Rule League, which sought self-government for Ireland within the British Empire. Annie Besant, being of Irish origin, brought this model to India to mobilize the masses.
• While Indian revolutionaries were active in foreign territories (such as the Ghadar Party in San Francisco), their activities were focused on armed rebellion rather than the constitutional Home Rule agitation. Hence, the statement regarding revolutionaries is incorrect as an immediate factor for this specific movement.
• The Government of India Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) introduced separate electorates, which caused communal disharmony but was not the trigger for the 1916 movement; it was a grievance that had existed for years. Hence, the statement regarding the 1909 Act is incorrect.
• The Swadeshi and Boycott movements had declined by 1908 following the Surat Split of 1907. While their failure left a vacuum, the Home Rule League was a fresh response to the wartime situation rather than a direct continuation of Swadeshi. Hence, the statement regarding the failure of Swadeshi is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Dual Structure of the League:
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched his Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at the Belgaum conference. His league operated in Maharashtra (excluding Bombay), Karnataka, Central Provinces, and Berar.
• Annie Besant launched her Home Rule League in September 1916 in Madras. Her league covered the rest of India, including Bombay city.
• Objectives and Methods:
• The primary goal was to attain Home Rule or Self-Government for India within the British Empire through constitutional means.
• Methods included political education, public meetings, reading rooms, and the distribution of pamphlets. Annie Besant used her newspapers, New India and Commonweal, to spread the message.
• Significant Participants:
• Many prominent leaders joined the movement, including Motilal Nehru, Jawaharlal Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai, Chittaranjan Das, and Mohammad Ali Jinnah.
• The movement played a crucial role in the Lucknow Pact of 1916, which saw a temporary union between the Indian National Congress and the All India Muslim League, as well as the reunion of the Moderates and Extremists.

Important Points

• The August Declaration (1917): Following the intense agitation and the arrest of Annie Besant in June 1917, the British Government was forced to change its stance. Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State for India, issued the August 1917 Declaration (also known as the August Offer), promising "progressive realization of responsible government in India."
• Decline of the Movement: The movement began to fade by 1919 due to Tilak leaving for England to pursue a libel case against Valentine Chirol and Annie Besant being satisfied with the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. Additionally, the rise of Mahatma Gandhi and his Satyagraha methods shifted the focus of the national movement.
• Impact: It was the first movement to create a mass organizational link between the town and the countryside, preparing the ground for the later Non-Cooperation Movement (1920).

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The Mumbai cricket team emerged victorious in the most recent edition of the Ranji Trophy (2023-24), which concludes the cycle leading into the 2024-25 season. They defeated Vidarbha by 169 runs in the final match.
• The final match was held at the iconic Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai. This victory was significant as it marked Mumbai's 42^nd title in the history of the tournament, further cementing their status as the most successful team in Indian domestic cricket.
• Ajinkya Rahane led the Mumbai side as the captain, while the Vidarbha team was captained by Akshay Wadkar. Mumbai's dominance was evident throughout the season, finishing at the top of their group before the knockout stages.
• The young batting sensation Musheer Khan was awarded the Player of the Match in the final for his crucial century (136 runs) in the second innings, which helped set a massive target for Vidarbha.
• Tanush Kotian, the Mumbai all-rounder, was named the Player of the Tournament for his exceptional performance with both bat and ball throughout the season, contributing significantly to Mumbai's path to the trophy.

Additional Information

• History and Origin: The Ranji Trophy is a premier first-class cricket championship played in India. it was first played in 1934-35 and is named after Sir Ranjitsinhji, the first Indian cricketer to play international cricket. The first match was played between Madras and Mysore on 4 November 1934.
• Tournament Structure: The competition is organized annually by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). It currently features 38 teams, including representing all 28 states in India and some Union Territories. The teams are divided into Elite and Plate groups based on their performance levels.
• Mumbai's Legacy: Out of the 89 editions of the tournament held so far, Mumbai (formerly Bombay) has won 42 times. They also hold the record for the most consecutive title wins, winning 15 back-to-back titles between 1958-59 and 1972-73.
• Key Performers and Records: The record for the most career runs in Ranji Trophy is held by Wasim Jaffer (12,038 runs), while the record for the most career wickets is held by Rajinder Goel (637 wickets). These records highlight the tournament as a breeding ground for legendary Indian cricketers.
• Format Changes for 2024-25: The BCCI has announced a split in the 2024-25 domestic calendar to avoid the peak winter season in North India, ensuring better playing conditions and reduced delays due to fog and bad light. The tournament will be played in two phases for the first time.

Important Points

• Prize Money: The BCCI increased the prize money for the Ranji Trophy winners to Rs 5 crore, while the runners-up (Vidarbha in the latest case) received Rs 3 crore. This highlights the financial strengthening of domestic cricket in India.
• Selection Significance: Performers in the Ranji Trophy are closely monitored by national selectors for the India A and the Senior National Team. Success in this tournament is often the primary criteria for entry into the Test cricket format for Indian players.
• Role of the Wankhede Stadium: Hosting the 2023-24 final, the Wankhede Stadium remains one of the most prestigious cricket venues globally, having also hosted the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup final.
• Saurashtra and Madhya Pradesh: In recent years, teams like Saurashtra (winners in 2019-20 and 2022-23) and Madhya Pradesh (winners in 2021-22) have challenged the traditional dominance of Mumbai, indicating a rise in the standard of cricket across different Indian states.

The correct answer is Perdoor Anantapadmanabha Temple in Udupi district of Karnataka.

Key Points

• A rare and historic 15^th-century dual-faced bronze lamp was discovered in January 2025 at the Perdoor Anantapadmanabha Temple, located in the Udupi district of Karnataka.
• The lamp is unique because it features a dual-faced design, representing the fusion of Shaiva and Vaishnava traditions, which is a hallmark of the Harihara concept in Hindu philosophy.
• One side of the lamp symbolizes Lord Shiva (Shaivism) through the depiction of a Linga or specific motifs, while the opposite side represents Lord Vishnu (Vaishnavism), often associated with the Anantapadmanabha form.
• Archaeologists and historians suggest that the artifact belongs to the late medieval period, specifically the 15^th century, a time when the Vijayanagara Empire was at its zenith and promoted religious synthesis across South India.
• The discovery was made during a renovation or temple cleaning process (Punaruddhara), highlighting the rich archaeological heritage preserved within the ancient temples of Coastal Karnataka (Tulu Nadu).

Additional Information

• Perdoor Anantapadmanabha Temple:
• It is an ancient temple dedicated to Lord Anantapadmanabha (a form of Vishnu reclining on the serpent Ananta).
• The temple is situated in Perdoor, which is approximately 20 kilometers from Udupi city.
• It is one of the prominent pilgrimage sites in the Tulu Nadu region, known for its unique architectural style that blends local traditions with Dravidian elements.
• Religious Synthesis (Harihara):
• The concept of Harihara (Hari representing Vishnu and Hara representing Shiva) was popularized to bridge the gap between the two major sects of Hinduism.
• Artifacts like this dual-faced lamp serve as material evidence of the socio-religious harmony that existed during the 1400s-1500s.
• Geographical Context:
• Udupi is globally famous for the Sri Krishna Matha founded by Madhvacharya in the 13^th century.
• The discovery of such items in Udupi district reinforces the region's status as a hub of metallurgical excellence and religious scholarship.

Important Points

• Historical Context: The 15^th century in Karnataka was dominated by the Vijayanagara Empire, which was known for its extensive patronage of temples and the creation of elaborate bronze icons and ritualistic objects.
• Artistic Features: The lamp is crafted using traditional lost-wax casting techniques. Its features include intricate ornamentation and symbolic motifs like the lotus and naga (serpent), which are common in Tulu Nadu art.
• Functions of Temple Lamps: In Hindu rituals, lamps (Deepas) signify knowledge and the removal of darkness. A dual-faced lamp specifically signifies the omnipresence of the divine across different denominations.
• Comparison with other options:
• Thirunageswaram Temple is located in Tamil Nadu and is a Rahu Stalam, primarily Shaivite.
• Jagannath Temple, Puri is a Vaishnavite stronghold in Odisha, known for its 12^th-century architecture.
• Chennakesava Temple, Belur is a masterpiece of Hoysala architecture located in Hassan district, not Udupi.

The correct answer is increasing.

Key Points

• Returns to scale is a long-run concept in production theory that describes the rate at which output increases as all inputs (factors of production) are increased in the same proportion.
• When the proportionate change in output is greater than the proportionate change in inputs (meaning the input level increase is less than the output change), the production process exhibits increasing returns to scale (IRS). Hence, the correct answer is increasing.
• Increasing returns to scale often occur due to economies of scale, where larger production volumes allow for better specialization, division of labor, and more efficient use of capital equipment.
• In mathematical terms, if all inputs are multiplied by a factor k and the resulting output increases by more than k, the production function is said to be homogeneous of a degree greater than one.
• This phenomenon is typically observed in the initial stages of expansion of a firm or industry, where technological advantages and managerial efficiencies are maximized.

Additional Information

• Constant Returns to Scale (CRS):
• This occurs when a proportionate increase in all inputs leads to an equal proportionate increase in output.
• For example, if inputs are doubled, the output is also exactly doubled. It is represented by a linear homogeneous production function (degree = 1).
• Decreasing Returns to Scale (DRS):
• This happens when the proportionate increase in output is less than the proportionate increase in inputs.
• If inputs are doubled but output increases by only 50%, the firm is experiencing diseconomies of scale, often due to coordination difficulties and communication gaps in very large organizations.
• Zero Returns:
• This is a theoretical extreme where an increase in inputs leads to no change in output. This is not a standard stage in the returns to scale model but may occur if a limiting factor or saturation point is reached.
• Cobb-Douglas Production Function:
• Commonly expressed as Q = AL^αK^β.
• If α + β > 1, there are increasing returns; if α + β = 1, there are constant returns; and if α + β < 1, there are decreasing returns.

Important Points

• Long-run vs Short-run:
• Returns to scale only apply in the long-run because all factors of production (like land, labor, and capital) are variable.
• In contrast, the Law of Variable Proportions (or Diminishing Returns) applies in the short-run where at least one input is fixed.
• Internal Economies: These are features within a single firm that lead to increasing returns, such as marketing economies, technical economies, and financial economies.
• External Economies: These occur when the expansion of an entire industry benefits all firms within it, such as better infrastructure, specialized labor pools, or technological advancements shared across a location.
• Historical Context: The concept was refined by economists like Alfred Marshall and Joan Robinson to explain why some industries tend toward monopoly (due to persistent increasing returns) while others remain competitive.

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• In Jainism, Time (Kala) is considered a real, eternal, and infinite substance (Dravya) that has no beginning and no end. It is described as Amurta (formless) because it cannot be perceived by the senses, yet it facilitates the change and progression of all other substances.
• The Jain cosmic cycle of time is envisioned as a Kalachakra (Wheel of Time), which is divided into 12 spokes or eras, known as Aras. These spokes represent the different stages of moral and physical progression or regression within the universe.
• The wheel of time consists of two major halves: Utsarpini (the ascending half-cycle) and Avasarpini (the descending half-cycle). Each of these halves is composed of 6 distinct Aras, making a total of 12 spokes in one complete rotation of the wheel.
• The concept of the 12 spokes is fundamental to Jain cosmology, as it dictates the timeline for the appearance of Salakapurushas (Great Men), including the 24 Tirthankaras, 12 Chakravartins, and other divine beings who guide humanity through the shifting conditions of the world.

Additional Information

• The Two Half-Cycles:
• Avasarpini: This is the regressive or descending phase where the world moves from extreme happiness and purity to extreme misery and impurity. During this phase, the human age, height, and virtue gradually decrease.
• Utsarpini: This is the progressive or ascending phase where conditions improve from total misery to absolute bliss. In this phase, the lifespan, physical stature, and happiness of living beings increase over time.
• The Six Aras (Eras) of Avasarpini:
• Sushama-Sushama (1^st Ara): An era of absolute happiness and long lifespans. There is no sorrow, and human needs are fulfilled by Kalpavrikshas (wish-fulfilling trees).
• Sushama (2^nd Ara): An era of happiness, though slightly less than the first.
• Sushama-Duhshama (3^rd Ara): An era of mixed happiness and sorrow. The first Tirthankara, Lord Rishabhanatha, appeared at the end of this era.
• Duhshama-Sushama (4^th Ara): An era of sorrow mixed with happiness. Most of the 24 Tirthankaras, including Lord Mahavira, lived during this period. It ended 3 years and 8 months after Mahavira’s Nirvana in 527 BCE.
• Duhshama (5^th Ara): The current era of misery and lack of spiritual purity. It is said to last for 21,000 years.
• Ati-Duhshama (6^th Ara): The era of extreme misery and chaos, also lasting for 21,000 years, after which the Utsarpini cycle begins.
• Measurement of Time:
• Jainism uses incredibly large numerical values to measure cosmic time, such as the Sagaropama (Ocean-drop years) and Palyopama. A complete cycle of 12 spokes is known as a Kalpa.
• Geographical Context: These cycles of time and the appearance of Tirthankaras are primarily applicable to the regions of Bharat Kshetra (India and surrounding areas) and Airavat Kshetra within the Jain map of the universe.

Important Points

• The Eternal nature of Time in Jainism emphasizes that the universe was never created by a creator God but has existed and will continue to exist through these repeating cycles.
• The current date falls within the 5^th Ara (Duhshama) of the Avasarpini cycle. According to Jain tradition, no liberation (Moksha) is possible during the 5^th and 6^th eras from our region, though spiritual practice remains essential.
• The Kalachakra highlights the law of impermanence and change, encouraging practitioners to seek spiritual enlightenment to escape the cycle of birth and death.

The correct answer is Attorney General of India.

Key Points

• Attorney General of India: The Attorney General of India is a Constitutional Body established under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution. He is the highest law officer in the country and is appointed by the President of India. Hence, this statement is correct.
• National Green Tribunal (NGT): The NGT is a statutory body established on October 18, 2010, under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. It was created for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): The NHRC is a statutory body constituted on October 12, 1993, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• National Commission for Women (NCW): The NCW is a statutory body formed in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. Its objective is to review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women and recommend remedial legislative measures. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Constitutional vs Statutory: Constitutional bodies are mentioned in the text of the Constitution of India (like the Election Commission or UPSC), whereas statutory bodies are created by an Act of Parliament.

Additional Information

• Attorney General of India:
• The person must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• The term of office is not fixed by the Constitution; he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
• He has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India and the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, but without a right to vote.
• National Green Tribunal (NGT):
• The NGT is guided by principles of natural justice rather than the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
• The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Judge of the Supreme Court, headquartered in New Delhi.
• National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
• It consists of a Chairperson and five members. The Chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• It has the powers of a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Important Points

• Other Constitutional Bodies: Examples include the Comptroller and Auditor General (Article 148), Finance Commission (Article 280), Election Commission (Article 324), and National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338).
• National Commission for Women: The first Chairperson was Jayanti Patnaik. It performs advisory functions to the government on all policy matters affecting women.
• Significance: Constitutional bodies derive their authority directly from the Constitution, making them more autonomous compared to statutory bodies which can be altered or abolished by a simple legislative amendment.

The correct answer is National Unity Day.

Key Points

• The ‘Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)’ platform was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 31^st October 2023. This date is significant as it is celebrated as National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Diwas) every year.
• The launch took place during the culmination of the Meri Maati Mera Desh campaign at Kartavya Path in New Delhi. The platform is designed to be an autonomous body that serves as an overarching enabling mechanism for youth development.
• The National Unity Day commemorates the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of India, who is known as the "Iron Man of India" for his role in the political integration of the country.
• The primary objective of the MY Bharat platform is to provide equitable opportunities to the youth to fulfill their aspirations and contribute to the building of a 'Viksit Bharat' (Developed India) by the year 2047.
• The platform acts as a one-stop-shop for youth, connecting them with various government schemes, volunteering opportunities, and skill development programs through a digital interface.

Additional Information

• National Science Day:
• Celebrated on 28^th February every year in India.
• It marks the discovery of the Raman Effect by the Indian physicist Sir C.V. Raman on this day in 1928.
• For this discovery, Sir C.V. Raman was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930.
• Good Governance Day:
• Observed on 25^th December annually.
• It was established in 2014 to honor the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• The aim is to foster awareness among the citizens of the government’s accountability and provide a transparent administration.
• National Technology Day:
• Celebrated on 11^th May across India.
• It commemorates the successful nuclear tests conducted in Pokhran in 1998 (Operation Shakti).
• It highlights the achievements of scientists and engineers in the field of science and technology.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:
• Born on October 31, 1875, in Nadiad, Gujarat.
• The Statue of Unity, the world's tallest statue with a height of 182 meters, is dedicated to him and is located in Kevadia, Gujarat.

Important Points

• Target Age Group: The MY Bharat platform specifically targets youth in the age group of 15 to 29 years, aligning with the definition of youth in the National Youth Policy.
• Adolescent Component: For program components specifically meant for adolescents, the beneficiaries are in the age group of 10 to 19 years.
• Institutional Framework: It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. It is intended to improve leadership skills through experiential learning by shifting from isolated physical interactions to a digitally enabled ecosystem.
• Phygital Platform: The scheme is described as a 'Phygital' (physical + digital) platform, ensuring that the benefits of government initiatives reach youth even in remote areas.
• Registration: Within a few months of its launch, the platform saw over one crore youth registrations, indicating its wide application and reach across the country.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• According to the Vital Statistics of India based on the Civil Registration System (CRS) report, Arunachal Pradesh has recorded the highest Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) in the country.
• In the latest available comprehensive data (Report 2022/2023), Arunachal Pradesh reported a staggering 1,057 females born per 1,000 males, significantly higher than the national average.
• Following Arunachal Pradesh, the Andaman & Nicobar Islands recorded an SRB of 1,013, while Nagaland stood at 983 and Kerala at 965.
• The Sex Ratio at Birth is a critical indicator of gender mapping in the country, and a ratio above 1,000 signifies a higher number of female births compared to male births in that specific state or Union Territory.
• The data is compiled by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, which functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB): It is defined as the number of female births per 1,000 male births. It is an important demographic gauge to check for gender discrimination and the effectiveness of schemes like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao.
• Civil Registration System (CRS): This is a continuous, permanent, and compulsory recording of the occurrence and characteristics of vital events such as births and deaths. It is governed by the Registration of Births and Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969.
• Registrar General of India (RGI): The RGI was established in 1961. Apart from the CRS, this office is responsible for conducting the Decennial Census and the Sample Registration System (SRS).
• Performance of Other States: While states like Arunachal Pradesh perform exceptionally well, states such as Uttar Pradesh (920), Bihar (921), and Maharashtra often record lower SRB figures compared to the Himalayan and North-Eastern states.
• Uses of CRS Data: The data generated through the Civil Registration System is utilized for socio-economic planning, monitoring health programmes, and updating the National Population Register (NPR).

Important Points

• Legal Framework: The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023 was recently passed to further digitize the registration process. It allows the birth certificate to be used as a single document for admission to educational institutions, issuance of passports, and Aadhaar registration.
• Reporting Mechanism: Under the Act, it is mandatory to register every birth within 21 days of its occurrence. The Chief Registrar of each state is responsible for executing the provisions of the RBD Act at the state level.
• Data Trends: Historically, North-Eastern states have maintained a healthier Sex Ratio compared to the northern plains of India, attributed to cultural factors and a lack of gender-biased sex selection practices.
• Significance of 2023 Reports: The data highlights that the level of registration of births in India has increased to approximately 94%, showing improved awareness and administrative efficiency across various geographical locations.

The correct answer is roots to the leaves.

Key Points

• Xylem is a specialized type of vascular tissue in vascular plants (tracheophytes) that is responsible for the conduction of water and dissolved minerals.
• The primary function of the xylem is to transport water absorbed by the roots from the soil and deliver it to the leaves and other aerial parts of the plant for photosynthesis and transpiration.
• This movement is unidirectional, meaning the flow always occurs from the bottom (roots) to the top (leaves). Hence, the statement that it conducts from roots to leaves is correct.
• It also provides mechanical strength to the plant body due to the presence of lignified cells.
• The process of transport in the xylem does not require metabolic energy (ATP) as it is driven by physical forces like transpiration pull and root pressure.

Additional Information

• Components of Xylem: The xylem consists of four types of cells: Tracheids, Xylem Vessels, Xylem Parenchyma, and Xylem Fibres.
• Tracheids: These are elongated, dead cells with lignified walls and tapering ends. They are found in all vascular plants.
• Vessels: These are long cylindrical structures with perforated end walls. They are the chief water-conducting elements in Angiosperms but are generally absent in Gymnosperms.
• Xylem Parenchyma: These are the only living cells in the xylem. They are involved in the storage of food (starch/fats) and lateral conduction of water.
• Xylem Fibres: These are dead cells with highly thickened walls that provide structural support to the plant.
• Difference from Phloem: While xylem transports water, Phloem is responsible for the transport of organic nutrients (food/sucrose). Phloem transport is bidirectional, moving from source (leaves) to sink (roots/fruits/storage organs).
• Location: Xylem is located in the vascular bundles of the roots, stems, and veins of the leaves.

Important Points

• Transpiration Pull: This is the suction force created by the evaporation of water from the stomata in the leaves. It acts like a "straw" effect to pull water up through the xylem column.
• Cohesion-Tension Theory: This scientific model explains how water moves through the xylem. Cohesion is the attraction between water molecules, while adhesion is the attraction between water and the xylem wall.
• Root Pressure: This is a positive pressure developed in the roots due to the active absorption of mineral ions from the soil, which pushes water slightly upward.
• Wood formation: In woody plants, the secondary xylem accumulates over years to form wood, which is used for construction, furniture, and fuel.
• Annual Rings: In temperate regions, the xylem produced during Spring (Spring wood) and Autumn (Autumn wood) creates distinct rings in the stem, which can be used to determine the age of a tree (Dendrochronology).

Given:

Original speed = 13 km/hr

Reduction = 17%

Formula Used:

New value = Original value × (1 − Percentage ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Reduction factor = 17 ÷ 100 = 0.17

⇒ Remaining factor = 1 − 0.17 = 0.83

⇒ New speed = 13 × 0.83

⇒ New speed = 10.79 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 10.79 km/hr.

Given:

First number = 300

Second number = 1220

Third number = 1570

Formula Used:

HCF is the greatest number that exactly divides all given numbers

Calculation:

⇒ 300 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5

⇒ 1220 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 61

⇒ 1570 = 2 × 5 × 157

⇒ Common factors = 2 × 5

⇒ HCF = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Given:

Map distance = 7 cm

Scale = 1 : 510668

Formula Used:

Actual distance = Map distance × Scale

1 km = 100000 cm

Calculation:

⇒ Actual distance = 7 × 510668 = 3574676 cm

⇒ Actual distance in km = 3574676 ÷ 100000 = 35.74676 km

⇒ Rounded value = 35.75 km

∴ The correct answer is 35.75 km.

Given:

Height = 24 cm

Radius = 7 cm

Formula Used:

Total surface area = Curved surface area of cylinder + Area of one base + Curved surface area of cone

Curved surface area of cylinder = 2 × π × r × h

Area of base = π × r²

Curved surface area of cone = π × r × l

l = √(r² + h²)

Calculation:

⇒ l = √(7² + 24²) = √(49 + 576) = √625 = 25

⇒ Curved surface area of cylinder = 2 × (22 ÷ 7) × 7 × 24 = 2 × 22 × 24 = 1056

⇒ Area of base = (22 ÷ 7) × 7 × 7 = 154

⇒ Curved surface area of cone = (22 ÷ 7) × 7 × 25 = 22 × 25 = 550

⇒ Total surface area = 1056 + 154 + 550 = 1760

∴ The correct answer is 1760.

Given:

Total salary = 8048

Savings = 50%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Total salary − Savings

Savings = Total salary × (Percentage ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Savings = 8048 × 50 ÷ 100 = 4024

⇒ Expenditure = 8048 − 4024 = 4024

∴ The correct answer is 4024.

Given:

(187 × (24 ÷ 2) + 5) × 52 ÷ 29237 × 5 ÷ 10

Concept Used:

BODMAS rule

Calculation:

⇒ (187 × 12 + 5) × 52 ÷ 29237 × 5 ÷ 10

⇒ (2244 + 5) × 52 ÷ 29237 × 5 ÷ 10

⇒ 2249 × 52 ÷ 29237 × 5 ÷ 10

⇒ 116948 ÷ 29237 × 5 ÷ 10

⇒ 4 × 5 ÷ 10

⇒ 20 ÷ 10

⇒ 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Given:

Average = 20

Number of terms = 3

Two numbers = 12 and 28

Formula Used:

Average = Total sum ÷ Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum = 20 × 3 = 60

⇒ Sum of two numbers = 12 + 28 = 40

⇒ Third number = 60 − 40 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Given:

Profit = 10%

Loss = 10%

Final selling price = 3960

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 + Profit/100)

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 − Loss/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Let initial CP = x

⇒ SP after 10% profit = x × 110 ÷ 100 = 1.1x

⇒ SP after 10% loss = 1.1x × 90 ÷ 100 = 0.99x

⇒ 0.99x = 3960

⇒ x = 3960 ÷ 0.99 = 4000

∴ The correct answer is 4000.

Given:

Principal = 54800

Rate = 10%

Time = 2 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Compound Interest (2 years) − Simple Interest = P × (R ÷ 100)²

Calculation:

⇒ Difference = 54800 × (10 ÷ 100)²

⇒ = 54800 × (1 ÷ 10)²

⇒ = 54800 × 1 ÷ 100

⇒ = 548

∴ The correct answer is 548.

Given:

Principal = 400

Rate = 20%

Time = 8.5 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (400 × 20 × 8.5) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (400 × 170) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 68000 ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 680

∴ The correct answer is 680.

Given:

Time = 40 minutes

Pages = 8

Required time = 75 minutes

Formula Used:

Pages ∝ Time

Pages = (Given pages × Required time) ÷ Given time

Calculation:

⇒ Pages = (8 × 75) ÷ 40

⇒ Pages = 600 ÷ 40

⇒ Pages = 15

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Given:

Loss = 20%

Extra cost = 140

Profit = 55%

Final selling price = 1891

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 − Loss/100)

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 + Profit/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Let initial CP = x

⇒ SP after 20% loss = x × 80 ÷ 100 = 0.8x

⇒ New CP for Biru = 0.8x + 140

⇒ SP after 55% profit = (0.8x + 140) × 155 ÷ 100

⇒ (0.8x + 140) × 1.55 = 1891

⇒ 0.8x + 140 = 1891 ÷ 1.55 = 1220

⇒ 0.8x = 1220 − 140 = 1080

⇒ x = 1080 ÷ 0.8 = 1350

∴ The correct answer is 1350.

Given:

Length = 55

Breadth = 70

π = 22 ÷ 7

Formula Used:

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

Area of circle = π × r²

Perimeter of circle = 2 × π × r

Calculation:

⇒ Area of rectangle = 55 × 70 = 3850

⇒ π × r² = 3850

⇒ (22 ÷ 7) × r² = 3850

⇒ r² = 3850 × 7 ÷ 22 = 1225

⇒ r = 35

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × (22 ÷ 7) × 35 = 220

∴ The correct answer is 220.

Given:

Average of Ketan, Tushar, Salil = 45

Average of Ketan, Tushar = 37

Average of Tushar, Salil = 45

Formula Used:

Average = Total sum ÷ Number of terms

Calculation:

⇒ Total of Ketan, Tushar, Salil = 45 × 3 = 135

⇒ Total of Ketan, Tushar = 37 × 2 = 74

⇒ Total of Tushar, Salil = 45 × 2 = 90

⇒ Sum of all pairs = 74 + 90 = 164

⇒ 2 × (Total of three) = 2 × 135 = 270

⇒ Tushar = 164 − 135 = 29

∴ The correct answer is 29.

Given:

Speed 1 = 48

Speed 2 = 54

Speed 3 = 44

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Let total distance = 3 units

⇒ Distance of each part = 1 unit

⇒ Time 1 = 1 ÷ 48

⇒ Time 2 = 1 ÷ 54

⇒ Time 3 = 1 ÷ 44

⇒ Total time = 1 ÷ 48 + 1 ÷ 54 + 1 ÷ 44

⇒ LCM of 48, 54, 44 = 4752

⇒ Total time = (99 + 88 + 108) ÷ 4752 = 295 ÷ 4752

⇒ Average speed = 3 ÷ (295 ÷ 4752)

⇒ = 3 × 4752 ÷ 295

⇒ = 14256 ÷ 295 = 48.325

⇒ Rounded value = 48.3

∴ The correct answer is 48.3 km/hr.

Given:

Difference of marks = 14

Higher marks = 64% of total

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Part ÷ Total) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let total marks = x

⇒ Higher marks = 64 × x ÷ 100 = 0.64x

⇒ Lower marks = x − 0.64x = 0.36x

⇒ Difference = 0.64x − 0.36x = 0.28x

⇒ 0.28x = 14

⇒ x = 14 ÷ 0.28 = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50.

Given:

Cost of one saree = 1720

Number of sarees = 3

Cost of one honey bottle = 90

Number of bottles = 6

Rebate = 12%

Formula Used:

Total cost = Sum of all items

Final amount = Total cost × (1 − Rebate/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Cost of sarees = 1720 × 3 = 5160

⇒ Cost of honey = 90 × 6 = 540

⇒ Total cost = 5160 + 540 = 5700

⇒ Final amount = 5700 × 88 ÷ 100 = 5016

∴ The correct answer is 5016.

Given:

2015: 170 and 240

2016: 60 and 210

2017: 140 and 160

2018: 200 and 240

2019: 70 and 150

Formula Used:

Total production = Production of Sunshine + Production of Aryan

Calculation:

⇒ 2015 = 170 + 240 = 410

⇒ 2016 = 60 + 210 = 270

⇒ 2017 = 140 + 160 = 300

⇒ 2018 = 200 + 240 = 440

⇒ 2019 = 70 + 150 = 220

⇒ Maximum = 440

∴ The correct answer is 2018.

Given:

Time taken by A = 20 minutes

Time taken by B = 11 minutes

Both work for = 3 minutes

Formula Used:

Work = Rate × Time

Efficiency = Total work ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 20 and 11 = 220 units (Total work)

⇒ Efficiency of A = 220 ÷ 20 = 11 units/min

⇒ Efficiency of B = 220 ÷ 11 = 20 units/min

⇒ Combined efficiency = 11 + 20 = 31 units/min

⇒ Work done in 3 minutes = 31 × 3 = 93 units

⇒ Remaining work = 220 − 93 = 127 units

⇒ Time by B = 127 ÷ 20

∴ The correct answer is 127 ÷ 20 minutes.

Given:

Total bananas = 354

Ratio = \(\frac{1}{2} : \frac{1}{3} : \frac{1}{6}\)

Formula used:

Individual share = \(\frac{\text{Ratio part}}{\text{Sum of ratios}} \times \text{Total Quantity}\)

Calculation:

LCM of denominators (2, 3, 6) = 6

⇒ Simplified Ratio = \((\frac{1}{2} \times 6) : (\frac{1}{3} \times 6) : (\frac{1}{6} \times 6)\)

⇒ Ratio = 3 : 2 : 1

⇒ Sum of parts = 3 + 2 + 1 = 6

⇒ First monkey share = \(\frac{3}{6} \times 354\)

⇒ First monkey share = 177

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

The correct answer is Option 1:  Valid.

Key Points

• The word "nugatory" means something that is of no value, importance, or significance; it is ineffective or worthless. (निरर्थक)
• Example: The outdated laws were deemed nugatory after the new regulations were enacted.
• "Valid" refers to something that is legally or logically sound, effective, or acceptable; it holds value or force. (वैध)
• Example: The contract was valid and enforceable under the current legal framework.
• Since "nugatory" means ineffective or worthless, its opposite is "valid," which conveys the idea of something being effective and valuable.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Valid.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Worthless (निरर्थक): Something that has no value or importance.
• Example: The broken antique vase was now completely worthless.
• Ineffectual (अप्रभावी): Something that is unable to produce the desired effect; ineffective.
• Example: His attempts to fix the machine were ineffectual, and it remained broken.
• Futile (व्यर्थ): Something that is incapable of producing any useful result; pointless.
• Example: All their efforts to rescue the stranded ship proved futile due to the severe storm.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Enduring.

Key Points

• The word "ephemeral" means something that lasts for a very short time; temporary or fleeting. (अल्पकालिक)
• Example: The beauty of a sunset is often ephemeral, vanishing within minutes.
• "Enduring" refers to something that is long-lasting, permanent, or able to withstand time. (स्थायी)
• Example: The enduring legacy of his work continues to inspire generations.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'ephemeral' is 'enduring'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Enduring.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Momentary (क्षणिक): Something that lasts for a very short time, similar in meaning to "ephemeral".
• Example: The happiness she felt after winning the game was momentary, as she soon realized the responsibilities that came with it.
• Fleeting (क्षणभंगुर): Refers to something that passes quickly or is short-lived, also similar to "ephemeral".
• Example: His fleeting smile disappeared as soon as he heard the bad news.
• Superficial (ऊपरी/सतही): Refers to something that is only on the surface or lacking depth.
• Example: Their relationship was superficial, as they hardly knew anything meaningful about each other.

The correct answer is Option 2: Perjury.

Key Points

• The word "Perjury" refers to the criminal offense of willfully telling an untruth or making a misrepresentation under oath during judicial proceedings. (झूठी गवाही देना)
• Example: The court charged him with perjury after he lied about the events during his testimony.
• In the given sentence, the witness knowingly made false statements under oath, which fits the definition of perjury.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Perjury.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Slander (मानहानि): The action or crime of making a false spoken statement that damages a person's reputation.
• Example: The politician filed a lawsuit for slander against his opponent for spreading false rumors.
• Collusion (साठगांठ): Secret or illegal cooperation or conspiracy, especially to cheat or deceive others.
• Example: The companies were accused of collusion to fix prices and exploit consumers.
• Libel (मानहानि लेख): A published false statement that is damaging to a person's reputation; a written defamation.
• Example: The author was sued for libel after the article falsely accused the businessman of fraud.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. BCEDA .

Key Points

• The sentences need to be arranged in a logical and meaningful sequence to form a coherent paragraph.
• Let us analyze the sentences to find the correct sequence:
• B: "Nutrition requirements of adolescents are higher than those of a normal child or adult."
• This sentence introduces the topic of nutrition for adolescents and can serve as the opening statement.
• C: "Poor nutrition can lead to deficiency and stunted growth."
• This statement logically follows B, as it explains the consequences of poor nutrition.
• E: "But in India, the diet available to adolescents is inadequate in all nutrients."
• This statement adds a specific context (India) and connects with the topic of inadequate nutrition.
• D: "A large number of adolescent girls suffer from anaemia."
• This sentence highlights a specific health issue caused by poor nutrition, linking well with the previous point.
• A: "Their problems have so far not received adequate attention in the process of development."
• This serves as a concluding statement, summarizing the lack of attention to the issue.

Correct sequence: BCEDA

Additional Information

• When arranging jumbled sentences into a meaningful paragraph:
• Identify the introductory statement that introduces the topic.
• Look for logical connections between sentences, such as cause-effect or general-specific relationships.
• End with a sentence that summarizes or concludes the discussion.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. "People with little knowledge often speak the loudest."

Key Points

• The proverb "Empty vessels make the most noise" is used to describe individuals who talk excessively or loudly despite having little knowledge or substance to contribute. (खाली बर्तन ज़्यादा शोर करते हैं)
• Example: During the meeting, the person with the least experience kept interrupting, proving the saying "empty vessels make the most noise."
• "Little knowledge" refers to having incomplete or insufficient understanding about something, often leading to overconfidence or unnecessary chatter. (थोड़ा ज्ञान)
• Example: He started arguing about a topic he barely understood, showcasing the effects of little knowledge.
• Hence, the proverb highlights that individuals lacking deep understanding often try to appear knowledgeable by speaking loudly or frequently.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Silence is a sign of agreement (चुप्पी सहमति का संकेत है): This means when someone remains silent, it may imply that they agree with what is being said.
• Example: He didn't argue with the decision, and his silence was taken as a sign of agreement.
• Option 2: Arrogant people rise to positions of power (अहंकारी लोग ताकत के पदों पर पहुँचते हैं): This suggests that individuals with arrogance and loud behavior may attain leadership roles, often by dominating others.
• Example: His arrogance and aggressive tactics helped him climb the corporate ladder.
• Option 4: People with deep wisdom usually speak softly (गहरे ज्ञान वाले लोग आमतौर पर धीरे बोलते हैं): This emphasizes that wise individuals often communicate calmly and thoughtfully, without unnecessary noise.
• Example: The professor's quiet, thoughtful words reflected his deep wisdom.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. A → C → B → D .

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Statement A, which introduces the issue of environmental degradation and sets the context for the paragraph.
• Statement C follows as it explains the primary causes of this problem, such as industrialisation and urban expansion.
• Statement B logically comes next as it highlights the response of governments to address the issue by prioritising sustainable development.
• Finally, Statement D concludes the paragraph by discussing the challenge of balancing economic growth with environmental protection.

Correct sequence: A → C → B → D.

Additional Information

• Coherent Paragraph Formation:
• A good paragraph should begin with an introductory sentence that provides context or highlights the main idea.
• Subsequent sentences should build logically on the introductory idea by providing explanations, examples, or responses.
• The paragraph should conclude with a sentence that ties the ideas together or provides a final thought on the topic.

The correct answer is Option 3: Fatalist.

Key Points

• A Fatalist is a person who believes that all events are predetermined and inevitable. (भाग्यवादिता)
• Example: The fatalist accepted the difficult situation without resistance, believing it was destined to happen.
• They tend to rely on the idea of fate and often think that human actions cannot alter the outcome of events.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Fatalist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Idealist (आदर्शवादी): A person who cherishes or pursues high or noble principles, purposes, or goals.
• Example: The idealist believed that peace could be achieved through dialogue and understanding.
• Optimist (आशावादी): A person who tends to be hopeful and confident about the future or the success of something.
• Example: The optimist always sees the silver lining, even in difficult situations.
• Realist (यथार्थवादी): A person who accepts a situation as it is and is prepared to deal with it accordingly.
• Example: The realist acknowledged the challenges ahead and planned accordingly.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. It is easier to explain something through pictures than words.

Key Points

• The given proverb "A picture is worth a thousand words" means that a single picture can convey complex ideas, emotions, and information more effectively than lengthy verbal or written explanations. (तस्वीर हजार शब्दों के बराबर होती है।)
• Example: Instead of describing the architectural design in words, the engineer showed the blueprint, proving that a picture is worth a thousand words.
• Option 1 explains the correct meaning that pictures are often better at explaining or expressing something than words. (चित्रों के माध्यम से कुछ समझाना शब्दों की तुलना में आसान है।)
• Example: A detailed infographic can make complex data easily understandable, unlike lengthy reports.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Audio visual learning is the best for teaching (ऑडियो विजुअल सीखना सिखाने के लिए सबसे अच्छा है।): While related to the idea of using pictures for learning, this option is not the exact meaning of the proverb.
• Example: Teachers often use video presentations because audio-visual learning enhances understanding.
• Option 3: Thousand words make a picture (हजार शब्द एक तस्वीर बनाते हैं।): This option misinterprets the proverb and is incorrect.
• Example: This statement does not apply here as the proverb emphasizes the value of a picture, not the words creating it.
• Option 4: It is easier to paint than to write (पेंट करना लिखने से आसान है।): This option is unrelated to the actual meaning of the proverb.
• Example: While painting may be easier for some, this does not represent the proverb's intent.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Exagerate.

Key Points

• The word "Exagerate" is spelled incorrectly. The correct spelling is "Exaggerate".
• Meaning of "Exaggerate": To represent something as being larger, better, or worse than it really is. (बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर बताना)
• Example: She tends to exaggerate her achievements to impress others.
• Correct word: Exaggerate (बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर बताना)
• Example: The fisherman exaggerated the size of the fish he caught.
• Hence, the spelling "Exagerate" is incorrect, and the correct spelling is "Exaggerate".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Innocent (निर्दोष): Not guilty of a crime or offense; free from sin or moral wrong.
• Example: The child had an innocent smile on his face.
• Environment (पर्यावरण): The surroundings or conditions in which a person, animal, or plant lives or operates.
• Example: We should all work together to protect the environment.
• Independent (स्वतंत्र): Free from outside control; not subject to another's authority.
• Example: She is an independent woman who runs her own business.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. effective .

Key Points

• The given sentence is describing a comparison among different solutions to identify the most suitable one.
• The word that fits the blank should be an adjective, as it describes the noun "solution".
• Option 2, "effective," is an adjective that means producing the desired result, making it the most appropriate choice.
• Other options:
• Option 1: "affective" relates to emotions, which is irrelevant in this context.
• Option 3: "effectively" is an adverb, which cannot modify a noun.
• Option 4: "effecting" is a verb form and does not fit the grammatical structure of the sentence.

Correct sentence: This solution is the most effective of all we have tried.

Additional Information

• Usage of "effective": It is commonly used to describe something that achieves the intended or desired result, especially in contexts such as solutions, strategies, and measures.
• Example: The new policy has proven to be highly effective in reducing traffic congestion.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. the .

Key Points

• The sentence refers to specific information that was shared by the researchers, which makes it a definite noun. Therefore, the definite article "the" is the most appropriate choice.
• The other options are incorrect because:
• Option 1 (an): This is used before singular nouns starting with a vowel sound, but it does not fit here because the word "information" is uncountable and refers to something specific.
• Option 2 (a): This is used before singular nouns starting with a consonant sound, but again, it is unsuitable because "information" is uncountable.
• Option 4 (No article required): This is incorrect because the sentence needs an article to specify the information being discussed.

Correct sentence: Recent studies indicate that the information shared by the researchers was highly valuable.

Additional Information

• Definite Article ("the"):
• Used to refer to specific or known nouns.
• Example: The sun rises in the east.
• Indefinite Articles ("a" and "an"):
• Used to refer to non-specific or general nouns.
• Examples: A book is on the table. An apple is red.
• No article:
• Used for general references or uncountable nouns when not specific.
• Example: Knowledge is power.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. a .

Key Points

• The sentence requires an indefinite article before the noun "report."
• The indefinite article 'a' is used when referring to a singular, countable noun that is not specific or mentioned for the first time.
• The sentence "She submitted a report on renewable energy policies yesterday" suggests that it is not referring to any specific report but rather one among many possible reports.

Correct sentence: She submitted a report on renewable energy policies yesterday.

Additional Information

• When to use 'a' or 'an':
• Use 'a' before words that start with a consonant sound (e.g., a book, a car).
• Use 'an' before words that start with a vowel sound (e.g., an apple, an hour).
• When to use 'the':
• Use 'the' when referring to something specific or known to the listener/reader (e.g., the sun, the report we discussed).
• When no article is used:
• No article is needed for plural or uncountable nouns when referring to them in general (e.g., She likes coffee. Birds can fly).

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. reviewed; implemented .

Key Points

• The sentence requires verbs in the past tense as the committee completed the actions before the deadline.
• The verb "reviewed" is in the past tense, correctly indicating that the report was analyzed.
• The verb "implemented" is also in the past tense, showing that the necessary changes were carried out.
• The combination of these verbs accurately reflects the completion of actions.

Correct sentence: The committee reviewed the report and implemented the necessary changes before the deadline.

Additional Information

• The sentence is in the past tense, as indicated by the context of completing tasks before a specific time.
• Option 1 and 2 use incorrect verb forms that do not match the tense of the sentence.
• Option 4 uses the present tense "review" and "implementing", which does not align with the past-tense requirement.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. intricately.

Key Points

• The word "intricatily" is incorrectly spelled and does not exist in standard English vocabulary.
• "Intricate" means very detailed or complicated, often in a skillful or elaborate way. (जटिल)
• Example: The artist designed an intricate pattern for the mural, which impressed everyone.
• "Intricately" is the correct adverb form of "intricate," and it means something done in a detailed, complex, or elaborate manner. (जटिल तरीके से)
• Example: The dress was intricately embroidered with gold threads, making it a masterpiece.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: intericately (गलत वर्तनी): This is a misspelling of the word "intricately." It is not a valid English word.
• Example: This spelling is incorrect and should not be used.
• Option 3: intricatly (गलत वर्तनी): Another incorrect spelling of "intricately." It omits the "e" in the word, making it invalid.
• Example: This spelling is also incorrect.
• Option 4: intrecately (गलत वर्तनी): This spelling is incorrect as it swaps the position of "i" and "r" in "intricately."
• Example: This incorrect spelling does not exist in English vocabulary.