DSSSB TGT (Maths) Official Paper (Held On: 13 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

1. P and Q are married to each other.

2. Q is the brother of M.

3. M is the mother of U.

4. U is the sister of J.

Here, Q is J's mother's brother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Six boxes, A, B, C, D, E and F, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1) A is kept third from the bottom. 

2) Only one box is kept between A and B.

3) Only two boxes are kept between A and D.

4) C is kept immediately below D.

5) E is kept immediately above B.

6. Only one box is kept between F and D. 

Thus, C is second from the top.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Alternate Method

Given: Seven friends, H, E, L, P, I, N and G, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. 

1) L sits third to the left of H. 

2) I sits to the immediate left of H.

3) Only N sits between E and L.

4) P is not an immediate neighbour of L.

The remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. G.

Thus, L sits to the immediate left of G.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

According to the given Venn diagram:

The shaded area represents students who are teachers but NOT politicians → 5

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) KJ – MU

Option 2) WU – PN

Option 3) SQ – LJ

Option 4) US – NL

Thus, out of all 'KJ – MU' is the odd one out.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Each of A, B, G, H, O, P and Y has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.  

1) Only H has exam after Y.

2) Only two people have exam between H and A.

3) Only two people have exam between Y and P.

4) O has exam immediately after G.

The remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. B.

Thus, three people have exam between B and G.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

39 - 51 - 68 - 73

39 + 12 = 51

51 + 17 = 68

68 + 5 = 73

And,

47 - 59 - 76 - 81

47 + 12 = 59

59 + 17 = 76

76 + 5 = 81

Similarly,

56 - 68 - 85 - 90

56 + 12 = 68

68 + 17 = 85

85 + 5 = 90

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given equation: 58 ÷ 3 × 15 - 5 + 4 = ?

According to the question, after ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

58 ÷ 3 × 15 - 5 + 4 = ? ⇒ 58 - 3 + 15 ÷ 5 × 4 = ?

⇒ 58 - 3 + 15 ÷ 5 × 4 = ?

⇒ 58 - 3 + 3 × 4 = ?

⇒ 58 + 12 - 3 = ?

⇒ 70 - 3 = ?

⇒ 67 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given

Statement:

Despite having prestigious educational institutions, City P doesn't attract a significant number of international students.

Given reasons:

I. The cost of living in City P is substantially higher compared to other cities with similar educational offerings. → Possible 

Higher living cost can discourage international students.

II. City P lacks adequate scholarship programmes for international students compared to rival cities. → Possible 

Fewer scholarships can reduce student inflow.

Thus, Both I and II are possible reasons.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given series: (Left) 263 705 333 104 589 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

First digit of the highest number → 705 → 7

Third digit of the lowest number → 104 → 4

So, the first digit of the highest number is added to the third digit of the lowest number → 7 + 4 = 11

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

According to the question:

Thus, 'G' is coded as '7'.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) XVW

Option 2) BYA

Option 3) YVX

Option 4) URT

Thus, out of all 'XVW' is the odd one out.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: HAW FER COX GEL

According to the question:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, in three words thus formed will have no vowel.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

ECHF is related to LJOM

And,

GEJH is related to NLQO

Similarly,

KINL is related to

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given equation: 12 + 34 × 17 - 7 ÷ 3 = ?

According to the question, after ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

12 + 34 × 17 - 7 ÷ 3 = ? ⇒ 12 - 34 ÷ 17 + 7 × 3 = ?

⇒ 12 - 34 ÷ 17 + 7 × 3 = ?

⇒ 12 - 2 + 7 × 3 = ?

⇒ 12 + 21 - 2 = ?

⇒ 33 - 2 = ?

⇒ 31 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

12 is related to 39 → 12 × 3 + 3 = 36 + 3 ⇒ 39

And,

14 is related to 45 → 14 × 3 + 3 = 42 + 3 ⇒ 45

Similarly,

18 is related to → 18 × 3 + 3 = 54 + 3 ⇒ 57

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Town X is to the south of Town I.

Town C is to the south-west of Town I.

Town C is to the west of Town A.

Town A is to the east of Town X.

Town M is to the east of Town A.

Thus, Town C is to the west of Town M.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is environment and growth hormones.

Key Points

• Plant growth is a complex process regulated by both internal chemical signals and external environmental cues. This ensures that the plant develops optimally in response to its surroundings.
• Environment only: While environmental factors like light, temperature, and water provide the necessary energy and triggers for growth, they do not work in isolation. Without internal messengers to translate these signals into cellular action, growth cannot be regulated. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Growth hormones only: Plant Growth Regulators (PGRs) or phytohormones are essential for cell division and elongation. however, their production and effectiveness are heavily influenced by extrinsic factors such as gravity and day length. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Environment and growth hormones: The growth of a plant is determined by the synergistic interaction between its genetic potential (expressed through hormones) and the environment. For example, phototropism occurs when light (environment) causes Auxin (hormone) to redistribute, leading to directional growth. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Dead cells of plants: While dead cells like tracheids and vessels in the Xylem provide structural support and facilitate water transport, they do not play an active role in the physiological regulation of growth processes. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Internal Factors (Plant Growth Regulators):
• Auxins: Discovered by Charles Darwin and Francis Darwin, these are primarily produced at root and shoot tips. They promote apical dominance and cell elongation.
• Gibberellins: There are more than 100 types (GA1, GA2, GA3, etc.). They are known for increasing the length of the axis in plants like grapes and causing bolting in rosette plants.
• Cytokinins: These promote cell division (cytokinesis) and are found in regions of rapid cell division such as root apices and developing shoot buds.
• Abscisic Acid (ABA): Often called the stress hormone, it inhibits plant metabolism and stimulates the closure of stomata during water stress.
• Ethylene: A gaseous hormone that regulates fruit ripening and horizontal growth of seedlings.
• External Environmental Factors:
• Light: Influences Photosynthesis, Photoperiodism (flowering response to day/night length), and Phototropism.
• Temperature: Affects the rate of enzymatic activities. Processes like Vernalization require low temperatures to induce flowering in certain plants.
• Gravity: Leads to Geotropism, where roots grow downward (positive) and shoots grow upward (negative) regardless of orientation.
• Water and Nutrients: Essential for turgidity of cells and as a medium for metabolic reactions.

Important Points

• Plasticity: Plants follow different pathways in response to the environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This is known as Plasticity, famously seen in Cotton and Coriander.
• Coordination: The regulation is highly coordinated. For instance, while Auxins and Gibberellins promote growth, Abscisic Acid acts as an antagonist by inducing dormancy in seeds to survive unfavorable conditions.
• Measurement of Growth: Plant growth can be measured by various parameters including increase in fresh weight, dry weight, length, area, volume, or cell number. For example, a single maize root apical meristem can give rise to more than 17,500 new cells per hour.
• Growth Phases: Growth occurs in three main phases: Meristematic (active division), Elongation (increased vacuolation and wall thickening), and Maturation (cells attain maximal size and specialized functions).

The correct answer is 1981.

Key Points

• The case popularly known as the First Judges Case is officially titled S.P. Gupta vs Union of India and the judgment was delivered in the year 1981.
• In this landmark judgment, the Supreme Court held that the term "consultation" used in Article 124 and Article 217 of the Constitution of India does not mean "concurrence" or "consent".
• The court ruled that consultation merely implies an exchange of views between the President and the judicial authorities, and the final decision-making power rests with the Executive (Central Government).
• This interpretation ensured that the President was not legally bound by the advice of the Chief Justice of India (CJI), provided the consultation was full and effective.
• The ruling effectively gave the Executive primacy over the Judiciary in matters concerning the appointment and transfer of judges for the next 12 years.

Additional Information

• Second Judges Case (1993): In the case of Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association vs Union of India, a nine-judge bench overturned the 1981 ruling. It established that "consultation" actually meant "concurrence", leading to the birth of the Collegium System.
• Third Judges Case (1998): Following a Presidential Reference under Article 143, the Supreme Court expanded the Collegium to include the CJI and four senior-most judges. It was mandated that the CJI's opinion must reflect the collective view of the collegium.
• Fourth Judges Case (2015): The Supreme Court struck down the 99^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014, which sought to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). The court declared the NJAC unconstitutional and restored the Collegium System to maintain judicial independence.
• Independence of Judiciary: This is considered a part of the Basic Structure Doctrine of the Indian Constitution, as established in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

Important Points

• Article 124: This article deals with the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court, including the appointment of judges by the President.
• Article 217: This article specifies the procedure for the appointment and the conditions of the office of a Judge of a High Court.
• Transfer of Judges: The First Judges Case also addressed the transfer of High Court judges under Article 222, ruling that such transfers could be made by the Executive without the CJI's concurrence.
• Public Interest Litigation (PIL): The S.P. Gupta case is also significant for liberalizing the concept of locus standi, which allowed any member of the public to approach the court for the enforcement of constitutional or legal rights of those unable to do so themselves.

The correct answer is period of stagnant population growth.

Key Points

• The period from 1901 to 1921 is referred to as a period of stagnant or stationary phase of India’s population growth. During this stage, the growth rate was extremely low, even recording a negative growth rate between 1911 and 1921. Hence, the statement regarding stagnant population growth is correct.
• During the 1901-1921 period, both birth rates and death rates were very high. This resulted in a low net increase in the population. The high mortality was due to poor medical facilities, lack of food security, and the prevalence of epidemics.
• The decade of 1911-1921 is unique in Indian demographic history because it is the only census decade where India recorded a negative growth rate of -0.03%. This was primarily due to the Influenza epidemic (1918), plague, and widespread famines that claimed millions of lives.
• The period of rapid population growth occurred much later, specifically between 1951 and 1981, which is known as the period of population explosion in India. During this time, the death rate fell sharply while the birth rate remained high. Hence, the statement regarding rapid population growth is incorrect.
• The period of steady population growth is identified as the years between 1921 and 1951. In this phase, improvements in health and sanitation led to a decline in the mortality rate, while the fertility rate remained high. Hence, the statement regarding steady population growth is incorrect.
• The accelerated phase of growth is generally associated with the post-1951 era where planned developmental activities and better living conditions led to a surge in population. Hence, the statement regarding the accelerated phase is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The Year of the Great Divide: The year 1921 is known as the "Year of the Great Divide" in India’s demographic history. Before 1921, the population growth was erratic and stagnant. After 1921, the population began to increase consistently and steadily because the death rate started to decline significantly.
• Demographic Transition: India has passed through various stages of the Demographic Transition Theory. The period 1901-1921 represents the First Stage (high birth and death rates), while the post-1921 period marked the entry into the Second Stage (declining death rate, high birth rate).
• Growth Phases Summary:
• Phase I (1901-1921): Stagnant growth; high birth and death rates; negative growth in 1911-21.
• Phase II (1921-1951): Steady growth; decline in crude death rate due to control over epidemics.
• Phase III (1951-1981): Population explosion; rapid fall in mortality but fertility remained very high.
• Phase IV (Post-1981): High growth but with a declining rate; the birth rate finally started to show a downward trend.
• Factors of High Mortality (1901-1921): The British Raj era saw minimal investment in public health. Major causes of death included Cholera, Smallpox, and the Spanish Flu (1918), which alone killed an estimated 12 to 17 million people in India.

Important Points

• Census of India: The first synchronous census was conducted in 1881. Since then, the decadal census has provided vital data for analyzing these growth trends.
• Statistical Data: The population of India in 1901 was approximately 238 million, and by 1921, it was only about 251 million, showing an increase of just 13 million over 20 years. In contrast, the population increased by 324 million between 1951 and 1981.
• Modern Context: According to the 2011 Census, India's population reached 1.21 billion. Currently, India has surpassed China to become the most populous country in the world as per UN estimates in 2023.

p>The correct answer is Kanyakumari situated along the Tamil Nadu coastline facing the Indian Ocean.

 

Key Points

• Kanyakumari is the southernmost tip of the Indian mainland, located in the state of Tamil Nadu. It is situated at a latitude of approximately 8°4' N and a longitude of 77°33' E. Hence, the statement regarding Kanyakumari being the southernmost tip near 8° north latitude is correct.
• Geographically, it is the point where the Arabian Sea, the Bay of Bengal, and the Indian Ocean meet, a confluence known as the Triveni Sangam.
• The town was formerly known as Cape Comorin during the British Raj. It serves as a significant administrative and tourist hub in the Kanyakumari district.
• While Thiruvananthapuram is also located in the south at approximately 8°29' N, Kanyakumari remains the definitive geographic tip of the peninsular mainland.
• Other options like Chennai (located at 13°04' N) and Panaji (located at 15°29' N) are situated significantly further north of the 8° N latitude.

Additional Information

• Geographical Extremities of India:
• Southernmost Point (Overall): Indira Point, located on Great Nicobar Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is the southernmost point of the entire Indian territory at 6°45' N latitude.
• Northernmost Point: Indira Col, situated in the Siachen Glacier region of Ladakh, marks the northern extremity at approximately 37°6' N.
• Easternmost Point: The village of Kibithu in the Anjaw district of Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost point at 97°25' E longitude.
• Westernmost Point: Ghuar Mota in the Kutch district of Gujarat represents the westernmost point at 68°7' E longitude.
• Latitudinal and Longitudinal Extent: The mainland of India extends from 8°4' N to 37°6' N latitudes and 68°7' E to 97°25' E longitudes. The distance from the north to the south is approximately 3,214 kilometers, while the east to west distance is about 2,933 kilometers.

Important Points

• Mainland vs. Territory: It is crucial to distinguish between the Indian Mainland and the Union of India (territory). Kanyakumari is the mainland tip, but Indira Point is the territorial tip. Indira Point was submerged during the 2004 Tsunami.
• Proximity to the Equator: Kanyakumari is located only about 880 kilometers from the Equator. This geographical location results in a tropical climate with minimal variation in day and night duration throughout the year.
• The 8-Degree Channel: While the 8° N latitude passes near Kanyakumari, the Eight Degree Channel specifically separates the islands of Minicoy (India) and the Maldives.
• Coastal Features: The Coromandel Coast refers to the southeastern coast of India, while the Konkan Coast refers to the western coast (Maharashtra/Goa). Kanyakumari sits at the southern end where the Malabar Coast and Coromandel Coast effectively converge.

The correct answer is intellectual property rights.

Key Points

• During the 29^th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP29) held in Baku, Azerbaijan, in November 2024, India strongly advocated for the removal of barriers to knowledge and technology transfer.
• The specific focus of India's intervention was on Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), which often act as a significant hurdle for developing nations trying to access affordable green technologies. Hence, the statement regarding intellectual property rights is correct.
• India emphasized that for the Global South to meet its climate targets and Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), there must be a global regime that prioritizes the "public good" over private profits in the context of climate-saving technologies.
• The demand for technology transfer without IPR barriers is rooted in the principle of Equity and Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC), which are core tenets of the UNFCCC.
• By addressing IPR, India aimed to ensure that technologies like Green Hydrogen, Battery Storage, and Carbon Capture are made available at lower costs to facilitate a faster transition to a low-carbon economy.

Additional Information

• COP29 Theme and Location: The 29^th Conference of Parties (COP29) was hosted by Azerbaijan in its capital, Baku. It was widely referred to as the "Finance COP" because its primary objective was to negotiate a New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) for climate finance.
• Climate Finance: Developing countries, led by nations like India and Brazil, demanded that developed nations provide at least $1 trillion** to **$1.3 trillion annually to help poorer nations mitigate and adapt to climate change.
• Technology Mechanism: The UNFCCC has a Technology Mechanism consisting of the Technology Executive Committee (TEC) and the Climate Technology Centre and Network (CTCN), which are intended to facilitate the development and transfer of technologies to developing countries.
• India’s Climate Commitments: India has committed to achieving Net Zero emissions by the year 2070. To reach this goal, India needs massive scaling of renewable energy, for which affordable technology is a prerequisite.
• The IPR Debate: In the WTO and UNFCCC forums, the debate over Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) waivers for climate technology is ongoing, similar to the waivers requested for COVID-19 vaccines during the pandemic.

Important Points

• Article 4.5 of the UNFCCC: This article explicitly states that developed country parties shall take all practicable steps to promote, facilitate, and finance the transfer of, or access to, environmentally sound technologies to other parties, particularly developing country parties.
• Barriers to Technology Transfer: Apart from Intellectual Property Rights, other barriers include high capital costs, lack of technical expertise in receiving countries, and trade tariffs on environmental goods.
• India's Leadership: India has consistently raised the issue of "Climate Justice" at international forums, arguing that those who contributed least to historical emissions (the developing world) should not be penalized by expensive technology and high-interest climate loans.
• Global South Unity: At COP29, India’s stance was supported by many members of the G77 + China group, emphasizing that the Global North has a historical debt to provide technology and finance.

The correct answer is Completion of 1000 years of Rajendra Chola I’s Gangetic expedition symbolising the Chola Empire’s maritime supremacy.

Key Points

• In 2025, the Prime Minister of India visited Gangaikonda Cholapuram in the Ariyalur district of Tamil Nadu to participate in a historic commemoration ceremony.
• The event marked the 1000^th anniversary (Millennium) of the Gangetic expedition successfully completed by Rajendra Chola I, which concluded around 1025 CE.
• Rajendra Chola I, the son of Rajaraja Chola I, reigned from 1014 CE to 1044 CE. He led his forces to the banks of the Ganges in North India, defeating several rulers including Mahipala I of the Pala Dynasty.
• To celebrate this unprecedented military achievement, he assumed the title "Gangaikonda" (The Conqueror of the Ganges) and built a new capital city, Gangaikonda Cholapuram, shifting the seat of power from Thanjavur.
• The Prime Minister released a commemorative coin to honor this milestone, emphasizing the maritime supremacy and the vast influence of the Chola Empire that extended across the Indian Ocean.

Additional Information

• Chola Maritime Influence: Under Rajendra Chola I, the Chola Navy became the most formidable force in the region. He launched a successful naval expedition against the Srivijaya Kingdom (modern-day Indonesia and Malaysia) in 1025 CE to protect trade routes to China.
• Architectural Heritage: He commissioned the construction of the Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikonda Cholapuram. Though similar in style to the Thanjavur temple, it is known for its more delicate carvings and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Irrigation and Engineering: Following the Ganges campaign, he created a massive liquid trophy called the Cholagangam (now known as Ponneri), a 16-mile long man-made lake into which water from the Ganges was symbolically poured.
• Titles and Recognition: Apart from Gangaikonda, he was known by titles such as Mudikonda Chola (The Chola who wears three crowns—Chera, Chola, and Pandya) and Pandita Chola (The Scholarly Chola).
• Diplomatic Relations: The Cholas maintained active diplomatic and commercial relations with the Song Dynasty of China, sending several trade missions during the 11^th Century.

Important Points

• Historical Context: The Gangetic expedition was not merely a conquest but a symbolic act of bringing the sacred waters of the North to the South, showcasing the cultural and political integration of the Indian subcontinent under the Cholas.
• Commemorative Coin: The release of the coin in 2025 is part of the government's initiative to highlight India's ancient maritime history and the legacy of the Imperial Cholas.
• Administration: The Chola administration was highly organized, featuring a sophisticated land survey system and a democratic local self-government model through village assemblies like the Ur and the Sabha, as detailed in the Uttaramerur inscriptions.

The correct answer is Carbohydrates.

Key Points

• Macronutrients are the nutrients that the body needs in large amounts to provide energy and maintain its structure and systems. They are measured in grams and are the main sources of calories in the diet.
• Carbohydrates are considered the primary macronutrient for the human body. They serve as the main source of energy (glucose) for the brain and muscles during physical activity. Hence, this option is correct.
• Iodine is a trace mineral or micronutrient. It is required in very small amounts (measured in micrograms) for the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water-soluble micronutrient. While essential for immunity and skin health, the body requires it only in milligram quantities daily. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Iron is a mineral categorized as a micronutrient. It is essential for the formation of hemoglobin in red blood cells to transport oxygen throughout the body, but it is needed in small doses. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Types of Macronutrients:
• Carbohydrates: Found in grains, fruits, and vegetables. They provide 4 calories per gram. They are stored in the liver and muscles as glycogen.
• Proteins: Composed of amino acids, they are the building blocks of body tissues, enzymes, and hormones. They also provide 4 calories per gram. Major sources include meat, eggs, pulses, and dairy.
• Fats (Lipids): These are the most energy-dense macronutrient, providing 9 calories per gram. They are vital for cell signaling, organ protection, and the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K).
• Water: Though it provides no energy (calories), it is often classified as a macronutrient because the body requires it in large quantities daily to maintain homeostasis and fluid balance.
• Classification of Carbohydrates:
• Simple Carbohydrates: These are sugars like glucose, fructose, and lactose that are digested quickly and provide a rapid energy burst.
• Complex Carbohydrates: These include starches and fiber found in whole grains and legumes. They take longer to break down, providing sustained energy and aiding digestion.

Important Points

• Micronutrients vs. Macronutrients: The fundamental difference lies in the quantity required. Macronutrients are needed in tens or hundreds of grams, whereas micronutrients (vitamins and minerals) are needed in milligrams or micrograms.
• Dietary Guidelines: According to various health organizations, a balanced diet typically consists of 45-65% carbohydrates, 20-35% fats, and 10-35% proteins of the total daily calorie intake.
• Functions of Micronutrients: Although needed in small amounts, deficiency in micronutrients like Iodine can lead to Goiter, Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy, and Iron deficiency leads to Anemia.
• Global Perspective: Many developing countries face "Hidden Hunger," a condition where individuals consume enough macronutrients (calories) but suffer from micronutrient deficiencies.

The correct answer is Around ₹3 lakh crore.

Key Points

• For the financial year FY24, the Government of India significantly increased the capital outlay for the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) to enhance the country's infrastructure.
• In the Union Budget 2023-24, the budgetary allocation for the road sector was approximately ₹2.70 lakh crore. When combined with private sector investments and additional internal resources, the total capital investment for the upgradation of the road network reached around ₹3 lakh crore. Hence, the statement regarding the investment amount is correct.
• This massive investment aimed at the completion of flagship projects under the Bharatmala Pariyojana and the construction of high-speed access-controlled expressways.
• The capital expenditure (Capex) for MoRTH has seen a consistent rise, growing nearly 9 times since 2013-14, reflecting the government's "infrastructure-led" growth strategy.
• The primary focus of this investment in FY24 was to improve connectivity between economic corridors, industrial clusters, and hinterlands to reduce logistics costs in India.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH):
• The ministry is headed by the Union Minister Shri Nitin Gadkari. It is the apex body for formulating and administering rules, regulations, and laws relating to road transport and National Highways.
• The total length of the National Highways network in India increased from about 91,287 km in April 2014 to approximately 1,46,145 km as of 31 December 2023.
• National Highways Authority of India (NHAI):
• NHAI is an autonomous agency of the Government of India, set up in 1988 and made operational in 1995.
• It is responsible for the management of a network of over 50,000 km of National Highways out of the total network.
• In FY24, NHAI played a crucial role in mobilizing private investment through models like Toll-Operate-Transfer (TOT) and Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs).
• Bharatmala Pariyojana:
• Launched in October 2017, this is a centrally-sponsored and funded road and highways project.
• The project aims to build 34,800 km of highways with an estimated investment of ₹5.35 lakh crore in its first phase.
• The main features include Economic Corridors, Inter-corridors, Feeder Routes, and Border and International Connectivity roads.

Important Points

• PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan:
• Launched on 13 October 2021, this plan integrates the road network with other modes of transport like railways and ports to ensure multi-modal connectivity.
• The road investment in FY24 was closely aligned with Gati Shakti to ensure faster project implementation and eliminate departmental silos.
• Logistics Cost Reduction:
• India aims to reduce its logistics cost from the current 13-14% of GDP to approximately 8-9%, matching global benchmarks.
• Developing Multi-Modal Logistics Parks (MMLPs) across 35 locations is a key function of the road network upgradation strategy.
• Asset Monetization:
• In 2023-24, the government successfully used Asset Monetization to raise funds for new projects. The InvIT model allowed the government to attract Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) and Pension Funds into the Indian road sector.

The correct answer is Ram Prasad Bismil.

Key Points

• Ram Prasad Bismil was a prominent Indian revolutionary who played a pivotal role in the Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918. He, along with Genda Lal Dixit, a school teacher from Auraiya, formed a revolutionary organization named Matrivedi to protest against British rule.
• The Mainpuri Conspiracy involved the distribution of revolutionary literature and pamphlets, such as 'Deshwasiyon Ke Naam Sandesh' (A Message to the Countrymen), to incite a rebellion against the British Raj. The group also engaged in collecting funds through various means to support their activities.
• During the incident in 1918, the police raided their hideouts in Mainpuri, Uttar Pradesh. While many members were arrested, Ram Prasad Bismil managed to escape by jumping into the Yamuna River and remained underground for a significant period.
• This event established Bismil as a formidable leader in the revolutionary movement, eventually leading him to co-found the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) in 1924.

Additional Information

• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar:
• He was a leading figure in the Hindu Mahasabha and founded the secret society Abhinav Bharat in 1904.
• He is well-known for his book "The Indian War of Independence 1857". While he was involved in the Nasik Conspiracy Case, he was not part of the Mainpuri Conspiracy.
• Rajendra Lahiri:
• He was a member of the Hindustan Republican Association and was involved in the Dakshineswar bombing and the Kakori Train Action in 1925.
• He was executed in Gonda Jail in 1927, but his primary revolutionary prominence came after the 1918 Mainpuri event.
• Umesh Chandra Banerjee (W.C. Bonnerjee):
• He was a prominent Indian barrister and the first President of the Indian National Congress during its inaugural session in 1885 held in Bombay.
• Unlike the other options, he was a moderate political leader and was not involved in armed revolutionary conspiracies like the one in Mainpuri.

Important Points

• Ram Prasad Bismil was born on June 11, 1897, in Shahjahanpur, Uttar Pradesh. He was a talented poet and writer, using pen names like Bismil, Ram, and Agyat.
• His most famous revolutionary act after Mainpuri was the Kakori Train Robbery on August 9, 1925, where revolutionaries looted the government treasury from a train near Lucknow.
• He was a firm believer in communal harmony and worked closely with Ashfaqulla Khan. Both were hanged by the British on December 19, 1927 (Bismil in Gorakhpur Jail).
• The slogan "Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna" is immortalized in Indian history through his association, although it was originally written by Bismil Azimabadi.
• The Matrivedi organization's efforts in 1918 are considered a precursor to the organized armed struggle of the 1920s in North India.

The correct answer is Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla.

Key Points

• Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla has been designated as the primary astronaut to pilot the upcoming Axiom-4 (Ax-4) mission to the International Space Station (ISS). This announcement was made by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in August 2024. Hence, the statement regarding his designation is correct.
• The Axiom-4 mission is a collaborative venture involving ISRO, NASA, and the private aerospace company Axiom Space. It is part of a joint mission to the ISS, which was first discussed during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to the United States in June 2023.
• Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair has been selected as the backup pilot for this historic mission. Both officers are part of the four-member crew selected for India’s maiden human spaceflight program, Gaganyaan.
• The mission is tentatively scheduled for launch no earlier than 2025. The crew will be launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket inside a SpaceX Dragon spacecraft from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida, USA.
• The National Mission Management Board (NMMB) recommended these two Gaganyaan astronauts for the ISS mission, marking a significant milestone in India-US space cooperation.

Additional Information

• Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma: He was the first Indian citizen to travel into space. He flew aboard the Soviet spacecraft Soyuz T-11 on April 3, 1984, and spent nearly 8 days at the Salyut 7 orbital station. While he is a pioneer, he is not the officer designated for the 2025 Axiom-4 mission.
• Axiom-4 Mission (Ax-4): This is the fourth private astronaut mission to the ISS. It aims to conduct scientific research, technology demonstrations, and space outreach activities during its expected 14-day stay at the orbital laboratory.
• Gaganyaan Program: This is India's first human spaceflight mission, which intends to send a three-member crew to an orbit of 400 km for a 3-day mission and bring them back safely to Earth by landing in Indian sea waters. The four shortlisted pilots for Gaganyaan are Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair, Ajit Krishnan, Angad Pratap, and Shubhanshu Shukla.
• Training at NASA: The selected astronauts (Shubhanshu Shukla and Prasanth Nair) began their training at NASA's Johnson Space Center in Houston, Texas, starting in August 2024. They will undergo training on ISS systems, scientific experiments, and emergency procedures.

Important Points

• The mission commander for Ax-4 is Peggy Whitson, a veteran NASA astronaut and the Director of Human Spaceflight at Axiom Space. Shubhanshu Shukla will work closely with her as the Mission Pilot.
• This ISRO-NASA collaboration is seen as a precursor to future joint endeavors, including the potential cooperation on the Lunar Gateway and the International Space Station's decommissioning phase.
• The human spaceflight collaboration strengthens the iCET (initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology) framework between India and the USA, focusing on advanced technology sharing and space exploration.
• The selection of Shubhanshu Shukla, who was born in 1985 in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, highlights the Indian Air Force's (IAF) critical role in providing skilled personnel for ISRO’s space missions.

The correct answer is Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) cafeteria scheme.

Key Points

• The Soil Health Card (SHC) scheme, which was previously a standalone intervention under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), has been merged into the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) under the "RKVY-Cafeteria" approach starting from the financial year 2022-23.
• The merger aims to provide greater flexibility to the State Governments, allowing them to allocate resources and prioritize soil health activities based on their specific regional agro-climatic requirements.
• Under the RKVY umbrella, the Soil Health and Fertility component continues to focus on the systematic collection of soil samples and the distribution of cards to help farmers understand the nutrient status of their land.
• This integration ensures that soil health management is not viewed in isolation but is part of a holistic development strategy for agriculture and allied sectors, leveraging the broad framework of RKVY.
• The financial assistance for soil testing, setting up labs (static and mobile), and training of farmers is now routed through the RKVY budgetary allocations for the period of 2022-23 to 2025-26.

Additional Information

• Soil Health Card Scheme (SHC):
• It was launched by the Government of India on 19^th February 2015 at Suratgarh, Rajasthan.
• The scheme's primary objective is to issue Soil Health Cards to all farmers in the country at an interval of 2 years (initially 3 years).
• The card provides information on 12 parameters: Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potassium (K), Sulphur (S), Zinc (Zn), Iron (Fe), Copper (Cu), Manganese (Mn), Boron (B), and physical parameters like pH, Electrical Conductivity (EC), and Organic Carbon (OC).
• It helps in reducing the cost of cultivation by advising farmers on the exact dosage of fertilizers needed, thereby preventing the over-use of urea and other chemicals.
• Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY):
• Launched in 2007, it was designed as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to incentivize states to increase public investment in Agriculture and Allied sectors.
• In 2017, it was revamped as RKVY-RAFTAAR (Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sectors Rejuvenation) before moving toward the current Cafeteria model.
• The scheme provides states with the autonomy to plan and execute development projects, ensuring a 4% annual growth in the agriculture sector.
• Other Options Overview:
• PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana: Launched in 2019, it provides ₹6,000 per year in three installments as direct income support to farmer families across India.
• Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY): Launched in 2016, it is a crop insurance scheme that provides financial security against non-preventable natural risks from pre-sowing to post-harvest stages.
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY): Launched in 2015, it is a social security scheme targeted at the unorganized sector, providing a guaranteed pension after the age of 60.

Important Points

• The Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (DA&FW) oversees the implementation of the SHC component within RKVY.
• Soil samples are typically collected using GPS coordinates to ensure accuracy and repeatability of the tests over the two-year cycle.
• The "Swasth Dhara, Khet Hara" (Healthy Earth, Green Farm) slogan captures the essence of the scheme, promoting Sustainable Agriculture.
• As of recent government data, over 23 crore Soil Health Cards have been distributed to farmers nationwide since the inception of the program, leading to a significant reduction in the use of chemical fertilizers (specifically 8-10% reduction in nitrogen use).
• The implementation involves State Agriculture Departments, KVKs (Krishi Vigyan Kendras), and Agricultural Universities to ensure scientific testing and data management.

The correct answer is Rumi (Ottoman) method.

Key Points

• The First Battle of Panipat was fought on April 21, 1526, between the invading forces of Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur and the Lodi Empire led by Ibrahim Lodi.
• Babur successfully utilized the Rumi (Ottoman) method of warfare, which involved the strategic placement of artillery. This method consisted of tying around 700 carts (Araba) together with animal hide ropes to create a protective barrier for the cannons and matchlockmen. Hence, the option Rumi (Ottoman) method is the correct military tactic used.
• Alongside the Rumi method, Babur employed the Tulughma system, which meant dividing the whole army into various units, viz. Left, Right, and Centre. The Left and Right divisions were used to encircle the enemy from the rear.
• Despite being significantly outnumbered—with Babur having roughly 12,000 to 15,000 soldiers against Ibrahim Lodi’s force of 1,00,000 men and 1,000 war elephants—the combination of gunpowder and superior tactics led to a decisive Mughal victory.
• The artillery was a relatively new technology in Northern India at the time, and its thunderous sound reportedly terrified the elephants of the Lodi army, causing them to trample their own soldiers.

Additional Information

• Blitzkrieg:
• This is a modern military tactic meaning "lightning war", designed to create disorganization among enemy forces through the use of mobile, maneuverable forces, such as armored tanks and air support.
• It was famously developed and used by Germany during World War II, starting in 1939. It has no relevance to the 16^th-century warfare of Babur.
• Guerilla warfare:
• This involves irregular warfare where small groups of combatants use ambushes, sabotage, and hit-and-run tactics to fight a larger, less-mobile traditional military.
• While various Indian rulers used these tactics, it was most effectively perfected in India by the Maratha ruler Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj in the 17^th century to combat the Mughal Empire.
• Divide and rule:
• This is a political or sociological strategy of gaining and maintaining power by breaking up larger concentrations of power into pieces that individually have less power than the one implementing the strategy.
• It is most famously associated with the British East India Company and the British Raj during their colonial rule in India to prevent various princely states and communities from uniting against them.

Important Points

• Gunners: Babur’s success in the First Battle of Panipat was largely attributed to his expert Ottoman gunners, Ustad Ali and Mustafa, who directed the artillery fire with great precision.
• Historical Impact: The victory at Panipat marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the beginning of the Mughal Empire, which would rule much of the Indian subcontinent for the next three centuries.
• Death of Ibrahim Lodi: Ibrahim Lodi died on the battlefield in 1526. He is noted in history as the only Sultan of Delhi to die in battle.
• Location: Panipat is located in the modern-day state of Haryana, India, and has been the site of three major historical battles due to its strategic location on the path to Delhi.

The correct answer is End to the cessation of suffering (manjil).

Key Points

• The core teachings of Buddhism, founded by Gautama Buddha, are encapsulated in the Four Noble Truths (Arya Satyas), which explain the nature of human existence and the path to spiritual liberation.
• Suffering (dukkha): This is the First Noble Truth. It states that life involves suffering, which includes birth, aging, illness, death, and being separated from what we love. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Origin of suffering (samudaya): This is the Second Noble Truth. It identifies the cause of suffering as Tanha (craving or desire) and ignorance. It suggests that our attachments to worldly pleasures lead to the cycle of rebirth. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Cessation of suffering (nirodha): This is the Third Noble Truth. It asserts that it is possible to end suffering by eliminating craving and attachment, eventually reaching the state of Nirvana. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• The Path to the cessation of suffering (Magga): This is the Fourth Noble Truth. It outlines the Eightfold Path (Astangika Marga) as the practical guide to ending suffering. The option "End to the cessation of suffering (manjil)" uses the word manjil (an Urdu/Hindi word for destination) which is not a part of Buddhist terminology, and the phrasing is logically inconsistent with the actual truth of the Path (Magga). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The Life of Gautama Buddha: Born as Siddhartha Gautama in 563 BCE in Lumbini (modern-day Nepal) into a Sakya Kshatriya family. He attained Enlightenment at the age of 35 under a Peepal tree in Bodh Gaya, Bihar.
• The Eightfold Path (Astangika Marga): This path includes Right View, Right Resolve, Right Speech, Right Conduct, Right Livelihood, Right Effort, Right Mindfulness, and Right Samadhi (Concentration). It is often categorized into three sections: Sila (moral conduct), Samadhi (mental discipline), and Panna (wisdom).
• Buddhist Literature: The primary teachings are recorded in the Tripitakas (Three Baskets) written in the Pali language. These include the Sutta Pitaka (teachings of Buddha), Vinaya Pitaka (rules for monks), and Abhidhamma Pitaka (philosophical analysis).
• Buddhist Councils:
• First Council: Held at Rajgir in 483 BCE, presided over by Mahakasyapa under the patronage of King Ajatashatru.
• Second Council: Held at Vaishali in 383 BCE under the patronage of King Kalasoka.
• Third Council: Held at Pataliputra in 250 BCE, presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa under the patronage of Emperor Ashoka.
• Fourth Council: Held in Kashmir in 72 AD under the patronage of Kanishka, where Buddhism split into Mahayana and Hinayana sects.
• The Three Jewels (Triratna): Buddhism emphasizes three pillars: the Buddha (The Teacher), the Dhamma (The Teachings), and the Sangha (The Monastic Community).

Important Points

• Nirvana: The ultimate goal of Buddhism is to achieve Nirvana, which means the "blowing out" of the fires of greed, hatred, and delusion, thereby ending the cycle of Samsara (birth and death).
• Language and Spread: Buddha preached in Pali and Prakrit, languages spoken by the common people, which helped the religion spread rapidly across India, Sri Lanka, China, and South-East Asia.
• Key Locations: Important sites include Sarnath (where he gave his first sermon known as Dhammacakkappavattana) and Kushinagar (where he attained Mahaparinirvana in 483 BCE).

The correct answer is English.

Key Points

• According to Article 343(1) of the Constitution of India, the official language of the Union is Hindi in Devanagari script.
• However, Article 343(2) provided that for a period of 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., until 26 January 1965), the English language would continue to be used for all official purposes of the Union for which it was being used before 1950.
• To address the concerns of non-Hindi speaking states regarding the complete transition to Hindi, the Parliament enacted the Official Languages Act, 1963.
• This Act allows for the continued use of English for official purposes of the Union and for use in Parliament even after the 15-year period, effectively making English the subsidiary or second official language (associate official language) of the Indian Union.
• While Hindi remains the primary official language, English is used for administrative, judicial, and legislative proceedings at the Union level to ensure smooth communication across the diverse linguistic landscape of the country.

Additional Information

• Sanskrit:
• It is one of the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
• It was declared as a Classical Language of India in 2005 due to its ancient history and literary heritage.
• While it is an official language in the state of Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh (second official), it is not the second official language of the Union.
• Urdu:
• Urdu is a Scheduled Language under the Eighth Schedule.
• It holds official status in several Indian states and Union Territories such as Jammu and Kashmir, Telangana, Delhi, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
• It is primarily spoken in North India and Deccan regions but does not serve as the Union's associate official language.
• Bengali:
• Bengali is the second most spoken language in India after Hindi, with a massive population of speakers in West Bengal, Tripura, and Assam.
• It is a Scheduled Language and was recently accorded the status of a Classical Language in 2024.
• Despite its numerical strength, it is a regional official language rather than a Union official language.
• Eighth Schedule:
• The Eighth Schedule currently consists of 22 languages, including Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili, and Dogri.

Important Points

• Article 348: Mandates that the language to be used in the Supreme Court and in every High Court, and for Acts, Bills, and Statutory Instruments, shall be English unless Parliament provides otherwise.
• Article 351: Sets a directive for the development of the Hindi language, making it the duty of the Union to promote the spread and enrichment of Hindi so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.
• Classical Languages: Currently, India recognizes 11 languages as Classical, including Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), Odia (2014), and others recently added like Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese in 2024.
• Language Policy: India does not have a National Language; instead, it uses Official Languages to maintain administrative neutrality in a multilingual nation.

The correct answer is Himachal.

Key Points

• The Kullu Valley is a broad, open valley in India, specifically located in the State of Himachal Pradesh. It is formed by the Beas River between the town of Manali and Largi.
• Geographically, it belongs to the Himachal (or Lesser) Himalayas division. This mountain range is situated between the Great Himalayas to the north and the Shiwalik range to the south.
• The valley is famously known as the "Valley of the Gods" because of the numerous local deities (Devtas) and temples found throughout the region, such as the Hadimba Devi Temple.
• The elevation of the Kullu Valley ranges from approximately 1,279 meters to 2,050 meters above sea level, providing a temperate climate suitable for apple orchards.
• The valley is sandwiched between the Pir Panjal range and the Dhauladhar range, which are prominent sub-ranges of the Lesser Himalayas.

Additional Information

• Kumaun Himalayas: This division of the Himalayas lies between the Satluj River and the Kali River in the State of Uttarakhand. It includes famous peaks like Nanda Devi and Trishul, but Kullu is not located here.
• Nepal Himalayas: This section stretches between the Kali River and the Teesta River. It covers a distance of about 800 kilometers and contains the world's highest peaks, including Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga.
• Assam Himalayas: Located in the eastern part of India, this division lies between the Teesta River and the Dihang River (Brahmaputra). It covers parts of Sikkim, Assam, and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Himachal (Lesser) Himalayas Characteristics: This range has an average altitude of 3,700 to 4,500 meters and a width of roughly 50 kilometers. It is highly compressed and altered, consisting of highly rugged topography.
• The Himalayas are longitudinally divided based on river valleys: Punjab Himalayas (between Indus and Satluj), Kumaun, Nepal, and Assam. Kullu falls within the broad category of the Himachal section of the Western Himalayas.

Important Points

• The Great Himalayan National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 2014, is located in the Kullu region. It is known for its high biodiversity and endangered species like the Western Tragopan.
• The Rohtang Pass, at an altitude of 3,978 meters, is a crucial mountain pass that connects the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti valleys.
• The Beas River, the lifeline of the valley, originates from Beas Kund near Manali and flows for about 470 kilometers before joining the Satluj River.
• The economy of the region is driven by Tourism, Agriculture, and Handloom industries. The Kullu Shawl is a famous Geographical Indication (GI) tagged product of this valley.
• The Kullu Dussehra is a festival of international fame celebrated in the month of October at the Dhalpur Maidan, attracting thousands of tourists.

The correct answer is one year.

Key Points

• The money market is a specialized segment of the financial market that facilitates the borrowing and lending of short-term funds. It deals in monetary assets whose period of maturity is up to one year or 365 days.
• These assets are close substitutes for money because of their high liquidity and relatively low risk of default.
• The primary function of the money market is to provide a platform for entities with surplus funds to lend to those with a short-term deficit, thereby ensuring liquidity in the economy.
• In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the primary regulator and facilitator of the money market, ensuring its smooth operation and stability.
• Common instruments traded in this market include Treasury Bills (T-Bills), Commercial Paper, Call Money, and Certificates of Deposit.

Additional Information

• Treasury Bills (T-Bills): These are short-term debt instruments issued by the Government of India to meet its fiscal requirements. They are currently issued in three tenors: 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at par.
• Call Money: This refers to short-term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period ranging from one day to 14 days. It is primarily used for inter-bank transactions to maintain the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).
• Commercial Paper (CP): Introduced in India in 1990, it is an unsecured promissory note issued by highly rated corporate entities to raise short-term funds. The maturity period usually ranges from 7 days to one year.
• Certificate of Deposit (CD): These are negotiable, unsecured money market instruments issued by Scheduled Commercial Banks and Financial Institutions. They are issued during periods of tight liquidity when bank deposits are low.
• Commercial Bill: Also known as a trade bill or bill of exchange, it is used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. It is a self-liquidating instrument.

Important Points

• Participants: Major players in the Indian money market include the Reserve Bank of India, Commercial Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), State Governments, Large Corporates, and Mutual Funds.
• Risk Factor: Since the money market deals with short-term durations and highly creditworthy issuers (like the Government or top-tier banks), the investment risk is significantly lower compared to the capital market.
• Money Market vs. Capital Market: While the money market handles maturity up to one year, the capital market deals with medium and long-term funds (usually more than one year) through instruments like shares, debentures, and bonds.
• Liquidity Management: The RBI uses money market operations, such as the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) involving Repo and Reverse Repo rates, to control the money supply and inflation in the country.

The correct answer is Sufi saints.

Key Points

• Sufi saints represent the mystical dimension of Islam, emphasizing the inward search for God, the importance of the heart, and the renunciation of worldly attachments.
• Al-Ghazzali (1058–1111 AD), a native of Tus, Iran, was a highly influential Persian theologian and philosopher who successfully integrated Sufism with orthodox Sunni Islam through his seminal work, Ihya Ulum al-Din (The Revival of the Religious Sciences).
• Jalaluddin Rumi (1207–1273 AD) was a 13^th-century Persian poet, jurist, and Sufi mystic originally from Balkh (modern-day Afghanistan); he is best known for his Masnavi-i-Ma'navi, a massive six-volume poem that explores the relationship between man and God.
• Saadi Shirazi (1210–1292 AD) was a major Persian poet of the medieval period, famous for his works Bustan (The Orchard) and Gulistan (The Rose Garden), which are filled with Sufi wisdom, ethics, and moral lessons.
• These figures were instrumental in spreading the message of Divine Love (Ishq) and universal brotherhood, often using poetry and parables to reach a wide audience across the Middle East and South Asia.

Additional Information

• Sufism (Tasawwuf): It is a school of practice within Islam that focuses on the spiritual purification of the soul. It emerged in the 8^th century as a reaction against the materialism of the Umayyad Caliphate.
• Maulvis: This term refers to Islamic scholars or teachers who have usually completed an extensive course of study in a Madrasa and are experts in Islamic Law (Sharia). While they are religious authorities, they focus more on the external legalities of the faith compared to the mystical focus of Sufi saints.
• Imams: In Sunni Islam, an Imam is a leader of congregational prayers in a Mosque. In Shia Islam, the term refers to the divinely appointed leaders of the Muslim community who are descendants of the Prophet Muhammad.
• Gurus: This is a Sanskrit term for a "teacher, guide, expert, or master" of certain knowledge or field. It is a central figure in Indian religions such as Hinduism, Sikhism, and Buddhism, and is not a traditional title used for figures like Rumi or Ghazzali in the Islamic tradition.
• The word Sufi is believed to be derived from the Arabic word 'Suf', which means wool, referring to the coarse woolen garments worn by early ascetics as a symbol of their simplicity and rejection of luxury.

Important Points

• Sufi Silsilas: The Sufi movement was organized into various Silsilas (orders or chains), such as the Chishti, Suhrawardi, Qadiri, and Naqshbandi orders, which facilitated the systematic spread of Sufi teachings.
• Impact on India: Sufism had a profound impact on the Indian subcontinent from the 12^th century onwards. Saints like Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti and Nizamuddin Auliya attracted large numbers of followers from diverse backgrounds, promoting communal harmony.
• Sama: This refers to Sufi musical ceremonies, which were often used by saints to induce a state of Wajd (ecstasy) and spiritual proximity to the Divine. The Mawlawiyya order, founded by followers of Rumi, is particularly famous for the Whirling Dervishes.
• Khanqahs: These were Sufi hospices or centers where the Pir (master) lived and taught his Murids (disciples). They served as community centers where food and spiritual guidance were provided to the poor and the travelers.

The correct answer is Articles 79-122.

Key Points

• Articles 79 to 122 in Part V of the Constitution of India deal with the organisation, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, and powers of the Parliament.
• Article 79 provides for the Constitution of Parliament, stating that it shall consist of the President and two Houses, namely the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• The composition of the Rajya Sabha is defined under Article 80, which specifies a maximum strength of 250 members, out of which 12 are nominated by the President for their expertise in literature, science, art, and social service.
• The composition of the Lok Sabha is detailed in Article 81, which sets the maximum strength of the house (originally 552) to represent the people via direct elections.
• Article 83 describes the duration of the Houses, noting that the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body not subject to dissolution, while the Lok Sabha has a normal term of 5 years.
• The provisions from Article 79 to 122 ensure the legislative organ of the Union Government functions effectively within the democratic framework of India.

Additional Information

• Parliamentary Officers: Articles 89 to 98 deal with the officers of Parliament, such as the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• Conduct of Business: Articles 99 and 100 cover the oath or affirmation by members and the voting in Houses, including the requirement of a quorum (which is one-tenth of the total members).
• Disqualifications: Articles 101 to 104 specify the conditions for vacation of seats and disqualifications of members of Parliament.
• Legislative Procedure: Articles 107 to 111 detail the procedure for passing bills. Article 108 provides for a joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases to resolve a deadlock.
• Financial Matters: Article 110 defines a Money Bill, which can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Article 112 mandates the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement (the Union Budget) before Parliament.

Important Points

• Part V of the Constitution: This part is titled "The Union" and encompasses Articles 52 to 151. It is divided into five chapters: The Executive, Parliament, Legislative Powers of President, The Union Judiciary, and the Comptroller and Auditor-General.
• Sovereignty: Unlike the British Parliament, the Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body; its powers are limited and defined by a written Constitution and are subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court.
• Privileges: Article 105 outlines the powers, privileges, and immunities of the Houses and their members, ensuring they can perform their functions without fear or external influence.
• Legislative Powers of the President: While Parliament deals with the organisation and function up to Article 122, Article 123 grants the President the power to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament.

The correct answer is Fundamental Duties are part of the Fundamental Rights.

Key Points

• Fundamental Duties are not a part of the Fundamental Rights; they are distinct legal and constitutional categories. Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution and are justiciable, whereas Fundamental Duties are found in Part IVA and are non-justiciable. Hence, the statement "Fundamental Duties are part of the Fundamental Rights" is incorrect.
• The Fundamental Duties are indeed separate from the Fundamental Rights in their placement, nature, and enforceability within the Indian Constitution. Hence, the statement "Fundamental Duties are not a part of the Fundamental Rights" is correct.
• Article 51A is the single article that contains the list of all 11 Fundamental Duties that every citizen of India is expected to follow to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of the nation. Hence, the statement "Article 51A explains the duties of every citizen of India" is correct.
• The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into a newly created section of the Constitution known as Part IVA. This part was added to ensure that citizens are aware of their responsibilities alongside their rights. Hence, the statement "Fundamental Duties are enumerated in Part IVA of the Indian Constitution" is correct.

Additional Information

• Origin and Evolution: The Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution of 1950. They were added by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act in the year 1976 during the National Emergency. The inclusion was based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• Inspiration: The concept of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the constitution of the former USSR (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics).
• Total Number: Initially, only 10 duties were added in 1976. Later, the 11^th Fundamental Duty was added by the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act in the year 2002, which mandates parents or guardians to provide education opportunities to their children between the age of 6 and 14 years.
• Nature and Scope: These duties are non-justiciable, meaning the courts cannot directly enforce them for their violation. However, they serve as a guide for the judiciary in determining the constitutionality of any law. They are applicable only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners.
• Key Objectives: The duties serve as a constant reminder to citizens that while the Constitution grants them Fundamental Rights, it also requires them to observe certain basic norms of democratic conduct and democratic behavior.

Important Points

• The Verma Committee (1999): This committee identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties. For instance, the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act (1971) prevents disrespect to the National Flag and the Constitution.
• List of Duties: Some prominent duties include abiding by the Constitution, cherishing the noble ideals of the freedom struggle, protecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, promoting harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood, and safeguarding public property.
• Environmental Protection: One specific duty under Article 51A(g) tasks citizens with protecting and improving the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
• Scientific Temper: Article 51A(h) encourages citizens to develop a scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

The correct answer is Delhi Capitals.

Key Points

• In the final of the Women’s Premier League (WPL) held in March 2025, Mumbai Indians emerged victorious by defeating Delhi Capitals by a narrow margin of 8 runs.
• This victory marked the second title for the Mumbai Indians franchise in the WPL, having previously won the inaugural edition in 2023. Hence, the statement regarding them clinching their second title is correct.
• The final match was a high-stakes encounter where Mumbai Indians set a challenging target, and their bowling department successfully restricted Delhi Capitals in the final overs to secure the win.
• The team was led by captain Harmanpreet Kaur, whose leadership and tactical decisions throughout the tournament in 2025 were pivotal to the organization's success.
• Delhi Capitals, led by their captain, reached the final for the third consecutive time (including 2023 and 2024), but they finished as runners-up once again in this match. Hence, the statement identifying Delhi Capitals as the opponent is correct.

Additional Information

• Women’s Premier League (WPL):
• The WPL is a professional T20 cricket league in India, owned and operated by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).
• The first season was played in March 2023, and it has since become one of the most lucrative and popular women's sports leagues globally.
• The league features five franchises: Mumbai Indians, Delhi Capitals, Royal Challengers Bengaluru, UP Warriorz, and Gujarat Giants.
• Mumbai Indians (MI) Franchise:
• Mumbai Indians is owned by Indiawin Sports, a subsidiary of Reliance Industries.
• The team plays its home matches at venues like the Wankhede Stadium and Brabourne Stadium in Mumbai.
• They are known for their consistent performance and have a strong scouting system for finding domestic Indian talent as well as international stars.
• Delhi Capitals (DC) Franchise:
• The Delhi Capitals is co-owned by the GMR Group and the JSW Group.
• The team has been one of the most consistent performers in the league's history, consistently finishing at the top of the points table during the league stages.
• Their squad often features prominent international players from Australia, South Africa, and England.
• Economic Impact and Growth:
• The BCCI sold the broadcasting rights for the WPL for a valuation of approximately ₹951 crore for a five-year period (2023–2027).
• The player auction for the tournament allows players to earn significant salaries, with top bids reaching over ₹3 crore.
• The tournament has significantly increased the visibility of women's cricket in India, leading to higher stadium attendance and television viewership.

Important Points

• Venues: The 2025 edition of the WPL was hosted across multiple cities in India, providing fans in different locations the opportunity to witness live matches.
• Awards: Individual honors such as the Orange Cap (for most runs) and the Purple Cap (for most wickets) are awarded at the end of the season to recognize top performers.
• Historical Context: In the 2023 final, Mumbai Indians defeated Delhi Capitals by 7 wickets. In the 2024 final, Royal Challengers Bengaluru defeated Delhi Capitals. The 2025 final win by MI further cemented the rivalry between the Mumbai and Delhi franchises.

Given:

Monthly salary = 6925

Savings percentage = 24%

Formula Used:

Savings = (percentage × salary) ÷ 100

Expenditure = salary − savings

Calculation:

⇒ Savings = (24 × 6925) ÷ 100

⇒ Savings = 166200 ÷ 100

⇒ Savings = 1662

⇒ Expenditure = 6925 − 1662

⇒ Expenditure = 5263

∴ The correct answer is 5263.

Given:

Original speed = 38 km/hr

Reduction = 70%

Formula Used:

Reduced speed = Original speed × (100 − reduction)% ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Reduced speed = 38 × (100 − 70) ÷ 100

⇒ Reduced speed = 38 × 30 ÷ 100

⇒ Reduced speed = 1140 ÷ 100

⇒ Reduced speed = 11.4

∴ The correct answer is 11.4.

Given:

Principal = 400

Time = 9.5 years

Rate = 8%

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) ÷ 100

Calculation:

⇒ Simple Interest = (400 × 8 × 9.5) ÷ 100

⇒ Simple Interest = (400 × 8 × 9.5) ÷ 100

⇒ Simple Interest = (3200 × 9.5) ÷ 100

⇒ Simple Interest = 30400 ÷ 100

⇒ Simple Interest = 304

∴ The correct answer is 304.

Given:

Radius = 42

π = 22 ÷ 7

Formula Used:

Surface area of sphere = 4 × π × r²

Calculation:

⇒ Surface area = 4 × (22 ÷ 7) × 42 × 42

⇒ Surface area = 4 × (22 ÷ 7) × 1764

⇒ Surface area = 4 × 22 × 252

⇒ Surface area = 88 × 252

⇒ Surface area = 22176

∴ The correct answer is 22176.

Given:

Edge of each cube = 10

Number of cubes = 3

Edge of smaller cube = 2

Formula Used:

Volume of cube = edge × edge × edge

Number of smaller cubes = total volume ÷ volume of one small cube

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of one cube = 10 × 10 × 10

⇒ Volume of one cube = 1000

⇒ Total volume = 3 × 1000

⇒ Total volume = 3000

⇒ Volume of small cube = 2 × 2 × 2

⇒ Volume of small cube = 8

⇒ Number of cubes = 3000 ÷ 8

⇒ Number of cubes = 375

∴ The correct answer is 375.

Given:

Time taken by A = 16 days

Time taken by B = 16 days

Working together = 2 days

Formula Used:

Total work = LCM of given times

Work per day = total work ÷ time

Remaining work = total work − work done

Time = work ÷ rate

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 16 and 16

⇒ Total work = 16

⇒ Work done by A in 1 day = 16 ÷ 16

⇒ Work done by A = 1

⇒ Work done by B in 1 day = 16 ÷ 16

⇒ Work done by B = 1

⇒ Work done together in 1 day = 1 + 1

⇒ Work done together = 2

⇒ Work done in 2 days = 2 × 2

⇒ Work done = 4

⇒ Remaining work = 16 − 4

⇒ Remaining work = 12

⇒ Time taken by A = 12 ÷ 1

⇒ Time taken by A = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Given:

First number = 5³ × 8² × 13

Second number = 5² × 13² × 17

Third number = 8³ × 13² × 17²

Formula Used:

LCM = product of highest powers of all prime factors

Calculation:

⇒ 8 = 2³

⇒ First number = 5³ × (2³)² × 13

⇒ First number = 5³ × 2⁶ × 13

⇒ Second number = 5² × 13² × 17

⇒ Third number = (2³)³ × 13² × 17²

⇒ Third number = 2⁹ × 13² × 17²

⇒ Highest power of 2 = 2⁹

⇒ Highest power of 5 = 5³

⇒ Highest power of 13 = 13²

⇒ Highest power of 17 = 17²

⇒ LCM = 2⁹ × 5³ × 13² × 17²

∴ The correct answer is 2⁹ × 5³ × 13² × 17².

Given:

Value ∝ (weight)²

Ratio of pieces = 1 : 2 : 3 : 4

Loss in value = 140000

Formula Used:

Value ∝ (weight)²

Total value = k × (total weight)²

Sum of values of parts = k × (sum of squares of individual weights)

Loss = original value − sum of parts

Calculation:

⇒ Let weights = x, 2x, 3x, 4x

⇒ Total weight = x + 2x + 3x + 4x

⇒ Total weight = 10x

⇒ Original value = k × (10x)²

⇒ Original value = k × 100x²

⇒ Sum of parts = k × (x² + (2x)² + (3x)² + (4x)²)

⇒ Sum of parts = k × (1x² + 4x² + 9x² + 16x²)

⇒ Sum of parts = k × 30x²

⇒ Loss = 100k x² − 30k x²

⇒ Loss = 70k x²

⇒ 70k x² = 140000

⇒ k x² = 2000

⇒ Original value = 100 × 2000

⇒ Original value = 200000

∴ The correct answer is 200000.

Given:

Average marks of 13 students = 60

Marks of each student are doubled

Formula Used:

New average = Old average × 2

Calculation:

⇒ New average = 60 × 2

⇒ New average = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Given:

1% of a number

37% of the same number

Formula Used:

1% of 37% of a number = (1/100) × (37/100) × number

Percentage = (part ÷ whole) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ 1% of 37% of the number = (1/100) × (37/100) × number

⇒ (37/10000) × number

⇒ 0.0037 × number

Percentage = (0.0037 × number ÷ number) × 100

⇒ 0.0037 × 100

⇒ 0.37%

∴ The correct answer is 0.37%.

Given:

Total articles = 70

Total cost price = 21000

Loss = cost price of 5 articles

Formula Used:

Cost price per article = total cost ÷ total articles

Total loss = cost price of given number of articles

Selling price = total cost − loss

Selling price per article = total selling price ÷ total articles

Calculation:

⇒ Cost price per article = 21000 ÷ 70

⇒ Cost price per article = 300

⇒ Loss = 5 × 300

⇒ Loss = 1500

⇒ Total selling price = 21000 − 1500

⇒ Total selling price = 19500

⇒ Selling price per article = 19500 ÷ 70

⇒ Selling price per article = 278.57 ≈ 280

∴ The correct answer is 280.

Given:

First number = 2031

Second number = 1697

Remainders = 1 and 2

Formula Used:

Required number = HCF of (first number − remainder 1) and (second number − remainder 2)

HCF is found using division method

Calculation:

⇒ Adjusted first number = 2031 − 1

⇒ Adjusted first number = 2030

⇒ Adjusted second number = 1697 − 2

⇒ Adjusted second number = 1695

⇒ HCF of 2030 and 1695

⇒ 2030 ÷ 1695 = 1 remainder 335

⇒ 1695 ÷ 335 = 5 remainder 20

⇒ 335 ÷ 20 = 16 remainder 15

⇒ 20 ÷ 15 = 1 remainder 5

⇒ 15 ÷ 5 = 3 remainder 0

⇒ HCF = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Given:

Selling quantity = 28 chocolates per rupee

Gain = 50%

Formula Used:

Selling price = Cost price × (100 + gain)% ÷ 100

Cost price = Selling price × 100 ÷ (100 + gain)%

Calculation:

⇒ Selling price of 28 chocolates = 1

⇒ Cost price of 28 chocolates = 1 × 100 ÷ 150

⇒ Cost price of 28 chocolates = 100 ÷ 150

⇒ Cost price of 28 chocolates = 2 ÷ 3

⇒ Chocolates per rupee = 28 ÷ (2 ÷ 3)

⇒ Chocolates per rupee = 28 × 3 ÷ 2

⇒ Chocolates per rupee = 84 ÷ 2

⇒ Chocolates per rupee = 42

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Given:

Time taken by A and B together = 16 days

Time taken by B alone = 80 days

Formula Used:

Total work = LCM of given times

Work rate = Total work ÷ time

A's work = (A + B)'s work − B's work

Time = Total work ÷ A's work

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 16 and 80

⇒ Total work = 80 units

⇒ Work done by A and B in 1 day = 80 ÷ 16

⇒ Work done by A and B in 1 day = 5 units

⇒ Work done by B in 1 day = 80 ÷ 80

⇒ Work done by B in 1 day = 1 unit

⇒ Work done by A in 1 day = 5 − 1

⇒ Work done by A in 1 day = 4 units

⇒ Time taken by A = 80 ÷ 4

⇒ Time taken by A = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Given:

Marked weight = 100 units

Actual weight = 87 units

Formula Used:

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost price) × 100

Profit = Selling price − Cost price

Calculation:

⇒ Selling price of 100 units = 100

⇒ Cost price of 87 units = 87

⇒ Profit = 100 − 87

⇒ Profit = 13

⇒ Profit % = (13 ÷ 87) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 1300 ÷ 87

∴ The correct answer is \( \frac{1300}{87} % \).

Given:

Cost of first variety of rice = ₹240 per kg

Cost of second variety of rice = ₹152 per kg

Cost of mixture = ₹219 per kg

Formula Used:

Rule of alligation: Ratio = (C₂ - C_m) : (C_m - C₁)

Calculation:

⇒ Difference (Cm - C1) = 219 - 152 = 67

⇒ Difference (C₂ - C_m) = 240 - 219 = 21

⇒ Ratio = 67 : 21

∴ The correct answer is 67 : 21.

Given:

First ratio = 35 : 25

Second ratio = 28 : x

Formula Used:

a : b :: c : d ⇒ a ÷ b = c ÷ d

Cross multiplication ⇒ a × d = b × c

Calculation:

⇒ 35 ÷ 25 = 28 ÷ x

⇒ 35 × x = 25 × 28

⇒ 35 × x = 700

⇒ x = 700 ÷ 35

⇒ x = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Given:

Angle for A = 81°

Angle for E = 27°

Formula Used:

Percentage more = [(A − E) ÷ E] × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Difference = 81 − 27

⇒ Difference = 54

⇒ Percentage more = (54 ÷ 27) × 100

⇒ Percentage more = 2 × 100

⇒ Percentage more = 200

∴ The correct answer is 200%.

Given:

Speed 1 = 57 km/hr

Speed 2 = 12 km/hr

Speed 3 = 15 km/hr

Each part of journey = equal distance

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Let total distance = 3 units

⇒ Distance of each part = 1 unit

⇒ Time for first part = 1 ÷ 57

⇒ Time for second part = 1 ÷ 12

⇒ Time for third part = 1 ÷ 15

⇒ Total time = (1 ÷ 57) + (1 ÷ 12) + (1 ÷ 15)

⇒ LCM of 57, 12, 15 = 1140

⇒ Total time = (20 + 95 + 76) ÷ 1140

⇒ Total time = 191 ÷ 1140

⇒ Average speed = 3 ÷ (191 ÷ 1140)

⇒ Average speed = 3 × 1140 ÷ 191

⇒ Average speed = 3420 ÷ 191

⇒ Average speed = 17.9

∴ The correct answer is 17.9.

Given:

Rate = 20%

Time = 2 years

Amount = 66420

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + rate ÷ 100)^time

Principal = Amount ÷ (1 + rate ÷ 100)^time

Calculation:

⇒ Principal = 66420 ÷ (1 + 20 ÷ 100)²

⇒ Principal = 66420 ÷ (1.2)²

⇒ Principal = 66420 ÷ 1.44

⇒ Principal = 46125

∴ The correct answer is 46125.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "People who are quiet and shy may actually be very interesting."

Key Points

• The proverb "Still waters run deep" means that people who are quiet, reserved, or shy often have deep thoughts, emotions, or significant abilities that are not immediately noticeable. (शांत पानी गहरा होता है)
• Example: Though Rahul rarely speaks in meetings, when he does, his insights prove that still waters run deep.
• "Quiet" individuals may seem unassuming, but their inner complexity often makes them highly engaging or intelligent when one gets to know them. (शांत व्यक्तित्व)
• Example: Maya is very quiet in class, but her essays show how thoughtful and creative she is.
• The proverb emphasizes that appearances can be deceptive, and it's essential to look beyond the surface to understand someone's true character.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: "Those who stay quiet can get more work done than those who talk too much." (जो लोग चुप रहते हैं, वे अधिक काम कर सकते हैं।)
• This statement refers to efficiency through silence, but it does not capture the essence of the proverb.
• Example: She quietly focused on her work and finished it before anyone else.
• Option 3: "Running water is shallower than water which is very still." (बहता पानी स्थिर पानी से उथला होता है।)
• This interpretation is literal and does not convey the metaphorical meaning of the proverb.
• Example: A pond may appear calm, but it can be very deep.
• Option 4: "Anything which appears too quiet is probably very dangerous." (जो चीज़ बहुत शांत दिखती है, वह शायद खतरनाक होती है।)
• This explanation suggests caution but does not align with the proverb's intent to highlight depth of character.
• Example: The forest was eerily silent, making us feel uneasy about hidden dangers.

The correct answer is Option 4: Sceptic.

Key Points

• The word "Sceptic" refers to a person who doubts the truth or validity of something, often questioning accepted beliefs or evidence. (संशयवादी)
• Example: Despite the overwhelming evidence, he remained a sceptic, questioning the authenticity of the claims.
• In the given context, the young student of Philosophy is described as someone who questions every piece of evidence presented to him, making "sceptic" the most appropriate one-word substitute. (संशयवादी)
• Example: Her sceptical nature made it difficult for her to accept new ideas without thorough investigation.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Sceptic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Realist (यथार्थवादी): Someone who accepts and deals with situations as they are, instead of being influenced by ideals or emotions.
• Example: Being a realist, she knew that success required hard work and dedication.
• Atheist (नास्तिक): A person who does not believe in the existence of God or gods.
• Example: He identifies as an atheist, rejecting the concept of divine beings.
• Pacifist (शांतिवादी): A person who believes in peace and opposes war or violence as a means of settling disputes.
• Example: As a pacifist, she participated in campaigns advocating non-violent solutions to conflicts.

The correct answer is: Option 4: Credantial.

Key Points

• The word "Credantial" is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is "Credential".
• "Credantial" has no meaning in English because it is not a valid word. (कोई अर्थ नहीं है)
• Example: The word "credantial" is not recognized as valid in any language dictionary.
• The correct word is "Credential", which refers to a qualification, achievement, or evidence of authority that grants legitimacy or trust. (प्रमाण पत्र)
• Example: The job requires credentials such as a degree in engineering and relevant certifications.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Elephantine (हाथी जैसा): Something that is enormous in size or strength, or resembling an elephant.
• Example: The elephantine building towered over the smaller houses around it.
• Ephemeral (क्षणभंगुर): Lasting for a very short time.
• Example: The beauty of the sunset was ephemeral, disappearing as the night took over.
• Disseminating (प्रसारित करना): Spreading or distributing something, especially information, widely.
• Example: The organization is committed to disseminating awareness about environmental conservation.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. CEADB .

Key Points

• The sentence arrangement must form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. Here’s how we analyze each sentence:
• C: This introduces the subject, "Cheetahs," establishing them as a threatened species. It forms a logical starting point.
• E: This describes a characteristic of cheetahs, i.e., their low genetic variation, directly following the introduction in Sentence C.
• A: This explains the reason for their low genetic variation, i.e., inbreeding during the Ice Age, following logically after Sentence E.
• D: This further elaborates on the consequence of inbreeding, i.e., minimal genetic differences, fitting naturally after Sentence A.
• B: This concludes the paragraph by describing the impact of low genetic variation on cheetahs' survival and adaptability, making it the final sentence.

Correct sequence: CEADB

Additional Information

• The correct sequence creates a logical flow of ideas, moving from the introduction of cheetahs to their genetic traits, reasons for these traits, and the impact on their survival.
• Understanding the subject and identifying the relationship between sentences is key to solving such jumbled paragraph questions.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. vibrant.

Key Points

• The word "vibrent" is incorrectly spelled in the sentence. It is supposed to be "vibrant". The word "vibrent" does not exist in English and is a misspelling. (गलत वर्तनी)
• "Vibrant" refers to something full of energy, enthusiasm, or brightness. It is commonly used to describe lively places, people, or colors. (जीवंत, चमकीला)
• Example: The festival was vibrant with colorful decorations and lively music.
• Hence, the correct spelling of the word is "vibrant", which matches the meaning and context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. vibrant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: vibreint (गलत वर्तनी): This is a misspelling of "vibrant" and has no meaning in English.
• Example: This word does not exist in the English language.
• Option 3: vibrante (गलत वर्तनी): Another misspelling of "vibrant" and is incorrect in English.
• Example: This word is not valid in standard English usage.
• Option 4: vebrant (गलत वर्तनी): This is yet another incorrect spelling of "vibrant" and has no meaning.
• Example: This word is not recognized in the English language.

The correct answer is: Strict.

Key Points

• The word "lenient" means not strict or severe; showing tolerance or permissiveness, especially in dealing with errors or offenses. (उदार, नरम)
• Example: The teacher was lenient with late submissions due to the students' personal struggles.
• "Strict" refers to being firm, rigorous, or adhering closely to rules and expectations without allowing leniency. (कठोर, सख़्त)
• Example: The strict manager ensured that all employees adhered to the company's policies without exception.
• Hence, the antonym of 'lenient' is 'strict'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Strict.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Permissive (अनुमति देने वाला): Allowing or tolerant of behavior that may go against rules or norms.
• Example: The permissive parents rarely imposed strict rules on their children.
• Indulgent (लाड़-प्यार करने वाला): Tending to be overly generous or lenient, especially with someone else's behavior.
• Example: The indulgent grandparents often spoiled their grandchildren with gifts.
• Tolerant (सहनशील): Showing willingness to allow the existence or occurrence of something, often behavior or beliefs one may disagree with.
• Example: She was tolerant of different opinions during the debate.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. "Your actions (good or bad) determine what you get."

Key Points

• The proverb "As you sow, so shall you reap" means that the consequences of your actions will directly reflect the nature of those actions. It emphasizes the principle of cause and effect. (जैसा बोओगे, वैसा ही काटोगे।)
• Example: If you work hard and honestly, you will achieve success. Similarly, bad actions may lead to negative consequences.
• "Your actions (good or bad) determine what you get" highlights the idea that every action has a consequence, and one's efforts, decisions, or behavior define their results. (आपके कर्म ही आपके परिणाम तय करते हैं।)
• Example: A student who studies diligently will pass exams with flying colors, while one who neglects studies may face failure.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: "You can only grow a plant after you sow a seed." (आप केवल बीज बोने के बाद ही पौधा उगा सकते हैं।)
• Explanation: This statement is literal and discusses the process of planting seeds, not the metaphorical meaning of the proverb.
• Example: A farmer prepares the soil, sows seeds, and waters them to grow plants.
• Option 2: "Your actions (good or bad) will always yield good results." (आपके अच्छे या बुरे कर्म हमेशा अच्छे परिणाम देंगे।)
• Explanation: This statement is incorrect as it suggests that even bad actions will result in good outcomes, which contradicts the meaning of the proverb.
• Example: This option implies that wrongdoing may still lead to rewards, which is not true in the context of the proverb.
• Option 3: "You will lead a large crop if you sow a large amount of seeds." (यदि आप अधिक मात्रा में बीज बोएंगे, तो आपको अधिक फसल प्राप्त होगी।)
• Explanation: This statement is again literal and refers to agricultural practices, not the philosophical idea behind the proverb.
• Example: Farmers often sow more seeds to ensure a higher yield of crops.

The correct answer is: Verbosity.

Key Points

• The word "verbosity" refers to the excessive and unnecessary use of words in speech or writing, often leading to lack of clarity or conciseness. (शब्दाडंबर)
• Example: The professor’s verbosity during the lecture confused the students instead of clarifying the topic.
• The correct word "verbosity" perfectly describes the author's speech, which was full of unnecessary and excessive use of words that lacked conciseness and clarity. (शब्दाडंबर)
• Example: His verbosity made the document overly complicated and difficult to understand.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Verbosity.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Clarity (स्पष्टता): The quality of being clear and easy to understand.
• Example: The clarity of her explanation made even a complex topic seem simple.
• Brevity (संक्षिप्तता): The quality of expressing something concisely, using few words.
• Example: The letter was appreciated for its brevity and directness.
• Sagacity (गहन बुद्धिमत्ता): The quality of being wise, having good judgment, and foresight.
• Example: His sagacity in solving complex problems earned him great respect among his peers.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. Half .

Key Points

• The given sentence is a popular proverb: "Half a loaf is better than no bread."
• It means that having something, even if it is not complete or perfect, is better than having nothing at all.
• The word "Half" fits appropriately in the blank as it completes the meaning of the proverb.
• The other options do not make sense in this context:
• Option 2 (Little): This does not align with the proverb's intended meaning.
• Option 3 (Whole): The phrase "whole a loaf" is grammatically incorrect and does not fit.
• Option 4 (Surplus): This word changes the meaning entirely and does not convey the intended message of the proverb.

Correct sentence: Half a loaf is better than no bread.

Additional Information

• This proverb is often used in situations where one has to compromise or settle for less than what was initially desired.
• It emphasizes the importance of appreciating what is available rather than lamenting over what is lacking.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. In spite of .

Key Points

• The given sentence emphasizes that the subject performed an action (preparing a delicious dinner) despite being exhausted.
• "In spite of" is used to show contrast between two situations or ideas.
• The correct structure is: "In spite of" + noun/pronoun/gerund (exhaustion).
• The other options do not fit the context:
• Option 1: "According to" is used for referencing or citing something.
• Option 2: "In front of" indicates physical position or location.
• Option 4: "On behalf of" is used when representing someone.

Correct sentence: In spite of her exhaustion, she prepared a delicious dinner for all her friends that night.

Additional Information

• Usage of "In spite of":
• It is followed by a noun, pronoun, or gerund.
• It indicates a contrast or unexpected outcome.
• Example: In spite of the rain, they continued playing football.
• Difference between "In spite of" and "Despite":
• Both are interchangeable and have the same meaning.
• Example: Despite/In spite of being tired, she completed the task.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. black and white .

Key Points

• The phrase "black and white" means clear and written down. It is often used to indicate that terms or agreements should be explicitly stated or documented.
• Hence, the correct answer is “black and white.”
• The other options do not fit logically or contextually within the sentence:
• Option 1: right or wrong – This phrase is irrelevant to the context of setting down terms.
• Option 3: slow and steady – This phrase refers to a gradual and consistent process, which does not match the context.
• Option 4: thick and thin – This phrase refers to staying loyal through good and bad times, which does not make sense in the given sentence.

Correct sentence: Set down your terms in black and white.

Additional Information

• The phrase "black and white" is commonly used in legal, formal, or business contexts to indicate clarity and explicit documentation.
• Using such idiomatic expressions appropriately enhances the precision and effectiveness of communication.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. DCBA .

Key Points

• The sentences need to be arranged to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
• We start with sentence D because it introduces the topic of Earth’s spherical shape, supported by observations made by the ancient Greeks.
• Next is sentence C, which continues the discussion by mentioning later observations, including images of Earth from space.
• Sentence B follows, raising the question of why Earth doesn’t appear round from our perspective.
• Finally, sentence A provides the answer, explaining that perspective plays a role due to the vast size of the Earth compared to humans.

Correct sentence order: D → C → B → A.

Additional Information

• Coherent Paragraph Formation:
• Ensure the paragraph follows a logical order, starting with an introduction, followed by supporting evidence or details, and concluding with answers or solutions.
• Eliminate options that disrupt the flow of ideas or repeat information unnecessarily.