DSSSB TGT (Social Science) Official Paper (Held On: 08 Nov, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

(I): Some beaches are plants → Follow (As some plants are beaches. so, some beaches are definitely plants).

(II): Some beaches are mountains → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between beaches and mountains. so, it is not follow).

Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

(1) QR - XY

(2) DE - KL

(3) NO - UV

(4) IJ - PR

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given Equation: 72 D 8 A 4 C 5 B 13 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the signs using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 72 ÷ 8 − 4 × 5 + 13

⇒ 9 − 20 + 13

⇒ 9 - 20 + 13

⇒ -11 + 13

⇒ 2

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

‘HERO’ is coded as ‘8513’

And

‘HOTE’ is coded as ‘1863’

Code for "T" is "6".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Seven people A, B, E, F, P, Q, and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. F sits to the immediate right of P.
2. Only three people sit between F and A when counted from the left of F.
3. Only three people sit between P and S.
4. E sits to the immediate right of B. 

Two people sit between Q and B when counted from the left of B.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

According to the given information,

Given equation: G + L – Z # P % Q + N → G is mother of L, L is brother of Z, Z is daughter of P, P is father of Q and Q is mother of N.

Q is daughter of G.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic: (First number)² - 3 = Second number

5 is related to 22,

5² - 3 = 25 - 3 = 22

9 is related to ​78,

9² - 3 = 81 - 3 = 78

Similarly,

11 is related to,

(11)² - 3 = 121 - 3 = 118

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given: (Left) 157 526 567 652 564 (Right)

According to the question:

So,

Lowest number → 157

Third digit of lowest number → 157 → 7

Highest number → 652

Second digit of highest number → 652 → 5

Resultant → 7 + 5 = 12

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is,

31 + 2 = 33

33 + 4 = 37

37 + 6 = 43

43 + 8 = 51

51 + 10 = 61

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

According to the given information,

To reach point A again, he walk 5 - 3 = 2 km in North direction.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given: Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other.

1. Only B is kept above E.
2. Only two boxes are kept between E and G.
3. Only D is kept below C.
4. F is not kept immediately above G.

Arranging all according to conditions, we get:

Total boxes above F = 2

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Equation: 1 D 2 A 28 B 56 C 28 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the signs using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 1 × 2 + 28 - 56 ÷ 28

⇒ 2 + 28 - 2

⇒ 30 - 2

⇒ 28

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Set (1) KTR : IYO

Set (2) JGS : HLP

Similarly,

Option (4) RUI : PZF

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic: First number ÷ 3 = Second number

102 is related to 34,

102 ÷ 3 = 34

204 is related to 68,

204 ÷ 3 = 68

Similarly,

405 is related to,

405 ÷ 3 = 135

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Given: PIB ACE PUR SEN

According to the question:

In each of the letter-clusters, each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding in the English alphabetical order.

Now, changing each letter in the clusters:

PIB: P → O, I → J, B → A

ACE: A → B, C → B, E → F

PUR: P → O, U → V, R → Q

SEN: S → R, E → F, N → M

Thus, the new clusters formed are:

PIB → OJA

ACE → BBF

PUR → OVQ

SEN → RFM

In these clusters, the ones without any vowel (A, E, I, O, U) are:

BBF, RFM

Hence, the number of letter clusters where no vowel appears is: 2

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only B is kept above C.
2. Only G is kept between C and E.
3. Only F is kept below D. 

Three boxes are kept above E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

(1) PLN

P - 4 = L

L + 2 = N

(2) XTV

X - 4 = T

T + 2 = V

(3) MIK

M - 4 = I

I + 2 = K

(4) GCD

G - 3 = C

C + 1 = D

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Explanation: The statement indicates that the infection rate of a pandemic viral disease X is increasing in Country Y, which is a serious public health concern requiring both preventive and management measures.

I. Civic bodies in Country Y should raise awareness about the spread of disease X and methods to avoid infection.

• This is a logical and preventive course of action. Increasing awareness helps people understand how the disease spreads and what precautions to take, which can reduce the infection rate.

II. Hospitals in Country Y should enhance their capacity to accommodate the growing number of incoming patients infected with disease X.

• This is also a logical course of action. As infection rates rise, more patients will require medical care, so hospitals must be prepared to handle the increased load.

Since both preventive (awareness) and responsive (increasing hospital capacity) measures are necessary.

So, Both I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Puducherry.

Key Points

• As per the Census of India 2011, Puducherry recorded the second highest sex ratio in India among all States and Union Territories.
• The sex ratio of Puducherry stood at 1037 females per 1000 males, reflecting a strong demographic balance compared to the national average of 940 females per 1000 males.
• The highest sex ratio in India was recorded in Kerala, which had a sex ratio of 1084 females per 1000 males.
• Sex ratio is a critical indicator of gender equality and social health, highlighting the status of women in society.
• Union Territories like Puducherry have distinct socio-economic and cultural characteristics, which often contribute to different demographic trends compared to other states.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio in India:
• The sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in a population.
• It reflects the gender composition of the population and is an important social indicator of gender equality and the well-being of women in society.
• The national average sex ratio as per Census 2011 was 940 females per 1000 males.
• Kerala:
• Kerala recorded the highest sex ratio in India in the 2011 Census, with 1084 females per 1000 males.
• This is attributed to the state’s progressive social policies, focus on education, and healthcare systems.
• Puducherry:
• Puducherry ranks second with a sex ratio of 1037 females per 1000 males.
• It is a Union Territory with a mix of Tamil, Telugu, and French cultural influences, and its demographic trends reflect its unique cultural heritage.
• Factors Influencing Sex Ratio:
• Key factors include female literacy, healthcare access, economic participation, and social attitudes towards gender.
• Regions with higher levels of gender equality and better social indicators tend to have a more balanced sex ratio.
• Improvement Initiatives:
• The Government of India has implemented several initiatives, such as Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, to improve the sex ratio and promote gender equality.
• Efforts include raising awareness, improving access to education, and combating gender-based discrimination.

Important Points

• Dadra and Nagar Haveli:
• Had a relatively low sex ratio compared to Puducherry and Kerala in the 2011 Census.
• The sex ratio of Dadra and Nagar Haveli was 775 females per 1000 males, influenced by migration and social factors.
• Karnataka:
• The sex ratio in Karnataka was 973 females per 1000 males in 2011.
• While higher than the national average, it was lower than Puducherry and Kerala.
• Key Takeaway:
• Puducherry’s high sex ratio demonstrates the positive impact of progressive policies and cultural factors on gender balance.
• It highlights the importance of continued efforts to address gender disparities across India.

The correct answer is Net Foreign Investment.

Key Points

• Gross National Product (GNP) is the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the residents of a country during a specific time period, including income from abroad.
• GNP can be calculated using three methods: Income Method, Expenditure Method, and Production Method.
• The Income Method focuses on summing up all incomes earned by the factors of production, such as wages and salaries, rents, interest, and profits.
• Net Foreign Investment is excluded from the Income Method of calculating GNP because it represents the balance of investments made by domestic entities abroad and foreign entities in the domestic economy. It is accounted for in other methods or frameworks rather than direct incomes.
• Items such as wages and salaries, interest, and rents are direct incomes received by individuals or firms and are included in the calculation of GNP through the Income Method.

Additional Information

• Components of GNP (Income Method):
• Wages and Salaries: Represents the compensation paid to employees for their labor and services.
• Interest: Refers to the income earned from lending money or investing in interest-yielding instruments.
• Rents: Income derived from leasing land or property for productive purposes.
• Profits: The residual income earned by businesses after covering costs and expenses.
• Net Foreign Investment:
• It reflects the net balance of investments abroad by domestic entities and investments in the domestic economy by foreign entities.
• While it influences the overall economic performance of a country, it is not a direct income from production activities and is thus excluded from the Income Method.
• Net Foreign Investment is often considered in the Expenditure Method or in Balance of Payments accounting.
• Other Methods to Calculate GNP:
• Expenditure Method: Focuses on summing up total spending on goods and services, including consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports.
• Production Method: Adds up the total value of goods and services produced by various sectors of the economy.
• Importance of GNP:
• GNP is a key indicator of economic performance and helps in understanding the overall income level of a country.
• It provides insights into the contributions of different sectors and income sources to the economy.
• It can be used to compare economic performance across countries and time periods.

Important Points

• Difference between GDP and GNP:
• GDP (Gross Domestic Product): Measures the total market value of goods and services produced within a country’s borders, irrespective of who produces them.
• GNP (Gross National Product): Includes the income earned by residents from abroad and excludes the income earned by foreign residents within the country.
• Role of Net Foreign Investment:
• Net Foreign Investment reflects economic relationships with other countries and impacts economic growth and capital formation.
• It is significant in understanding international trade and investment flows but does not directly contribute to income calculation in the Income Method.

The correct answer is Manjula Ramaswamy.

Key Points

• The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards are the highest national recognition conferred by the Government of India on practicing artists, performers, and teachers in the field of performing arts such as music, dance, and drama.
• In the 2022-23 session, the award for the Bharatanatyam dance category was given to Manjula Ramaswamy.
• Manjula Ramaswamy is a renowned exponent of Bharatanatyam, one of the oldest and most celebrated classical dance forms of India that originated in Tamil Nadu.
• This award recognizes her exceptional contribution to preserving and promoting the art of Bharatanatyam through her performances, teaching, and dedication to the craft.
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards are conferred by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam:
• Bharatanatyam is an ancient dance form that combines expression (Bhava), melody (Raga), rhythm (Tala), and dramatic art (Natya).
• It originated in Tamil Nadu and was traditionally performed in temples as a form of devotion to deities.
• The dance style is characterized by intricate footwork, graceful movements, and expressive gestures that convey stories and emotions.
• Bharatanatyam is often referred to as the "Dance of Tamil Nadu" and is recognized globally for its cultural and spiritual significance.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi:
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi, established in 1952, is India’s national academy for music, dance, and drama.
• It aims to promote and preserve Indian performing arts by recognizing and honoring artists, providing scholarships, and organizing events and festivals.
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards were instituted in 1952 and are presented annually to artists for their outstanding contributions.
• Other Awardees in 2022-23:
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards for 2022-23 recognized numerous artists across various forms of performing arts, including music, drama, folk arts, and puppetry.
• Artists from diverse regions and traditions were honored, showcasing the rich cultural heritage of India.
• Important Characteristics of Bharatanatyam:
• Bharatanatyam follows a structured format, including Alarippu, Jatiswaram, Varnam, Padam, and Tillana, which are different sections of a performance.
• The use of intricate mudras (hand gestures) and abhinaya (expressions) is pivotal in narrating stories, often drawn from Hindu mythology.
• This art form requires rigorous training, discipline, and a deep understanding of rhythm and storytelling.

Important Points

• Manjula Ramaswamy:
• She is a celebrated performer and teacher of Bharatanatyam, known for her dedication to preserving traditional elements of the art form.
• Her contributions include choreographing innovative pieces while staying true to the classical roots of Bharatanatyam.
• She has trained numerous students, ensuring the continuation of this classical dance form for future generations.
• Other Dance Forms Honored:
• In addition to Bharatanatyam, the Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards also recognized artists from other classical dance forms like Kathak, Odissi, Kuchipudi, Manipuri, and Mohiniyattam.
• This highlights the diversity and richness of India’s classical dance heritage.

The correct answer is Television.

Key Points

• Consumer durable goods are products that are not consumed immediately and provide utility over a long period, typically more than three years.
• Television is classified as a consumer durable good as it is a long-lasting product used for entertainment and information purposes. It is not consumed in one use and has a significant lifespan.
• On the other hand, items like bread and milk are non-durable goods, as they are perishable and consumed quickly.
• Electricity bill is a recurring utility expense and does not qualify as a consumer durable good because it represents a service rather than a tangible product.
• Stationery items, such as paper and pens, are considered non-durable goods because they are used up in a short period.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Consumer Durable Goods:
• They have a long lifespan, typically exceeding three years.
• They are not consumed in a single use and provide utility over time.
• Examples include televisions, refrigerators, washing machines, and vehicles.
• They often require a significant upfront investment and may involve financing options.
• Non-Durable Goods:
• Non-durable goods are products that are consumed quickly and have a short lifespan.
• Examples include food items (e.g., bread, milk), beverages, and disposable products like tissues.
• They are purchased frequently due to their nature of quick consumption.
• Differences Between Durable and Non-Durable Goods:
• Durable goods: Long-lasting, require higher investment, and are not frequently purchased.
• Non-durable goods: Perishable, low-cost, and purchased regularly.
• Economic Significance:
• Consumer durable goods are an indicator of economic growth as their purchase often reflects consumer confidence and disposable income.
• Non-durable goods reflect daily consumption patterns and are essential for basic living standards.

Important Points

• Consumer Durables Market in India:
• The consumer durables market in India is growing significantly, driven by rising disposable incomes, urbanization, and technological advancements.
• Major players include Samsung, LG, Sony, Whirlpool, and Godrej.
• Government Initiatives:
• The Indian government has introduced schemes like Production Linked Incentive (PLI) to boost manufacturing in the durable goods sector.
• Policies promoting Make in India and sustainability are impacting the industry positively.

The correct answer is Sanyasa.

Key Points

• The Ashrama System is an integral part of ancient Indian philosophy, dividing human life into four stages: Brahmacharya (student life), Grihastha (householder life), Vanaprastha (hermit life), and Sanyasa (renunciation).
• Sanyasa is the final stage of the Ashrama System, where an individual renounces all worldly possessions, desires, and responsibilities to attain spiritual liberation or Moksha.
• This stage is primarily focused on detachment from material life and complete dedication to spiritual practices, self-realization, and meditation.
• The transition to Sanyasa typically occurs after fulfilling all familial and societal duties in the earlier stages, especially Grihastha and Vanaprastha.
• During this stage, individuals often live a life of asceticism, practicing non-violence, celibacy, and devotion to God or higher consciousness.

Additional Information

• Brahmacharya:
• This is the first stage of life, focused on education and character building.
• It spans from childhood to the age of 25, emphasizing self-discipline, celibacy, and learning under the guidance of a Guru.
• The goal is to prepare the individual for the responsibilities of the householder life.
• Grihastha:
• The second stage, Grihastha, is dedicated to family life, marriage, and fulfilling social and economic duties.
• It typically spans from the age of 25 to 50 years.
• In this phase, individuals contribute to society through work, raising children, and supporting family and community.
• Vanaprastha:
• The third stage, Vanaprastha, marks a gradual withdrawal from worldly responsibilities and preparation for spiritual life.
• It begins around the age of 50, when the individual starts to delegate familial duties to the next generation.
• During this stage, individuals may retreat to a forest or a quiet place to engage in meditation, study of scriptures, and spiritual practices.
• Sanyasa:
• The final stage of life, Sanyasa, is a phase of complete renunciation of worldly attachments and responsibilities.
• Individuals focus solely on attaining liberation (Moksha) through meditation, self-realization, and service to humanity.
• It is marked by the abandonment of personal possessions, societal roles, and ego-driven desires.
• Sanyasis often live as wandering monks or ascetics, relying on minimal material support.

Important Points

• The Ashrama System is rooted in the Vedic tradition and is detailed in ancient texts like the Manusmriti and the Upanishads.
• The purpose of this system is to provide a structured framework for human life, ensuring both individual spiritual growth and societal harmony.
• Each stage has a specific role and set of duties (Dharma) aligned with the individual's age, capacity, and societal needs.
• The ultimate aim of all stages, especially Sanyasa, is to achieve Moksha, or liberation from the cycle of birth and death (Samsara).
• The Ashrama System reflects the holistic approach of Indian philosophy, balancing material life with spiritual aspirations.

The correct answer is unrestricted public exhibition.

Key Points

• A movie with a 'U' certificate from the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is suitable for unrestricted public exhibition.
• Such movies can be viewed by people of all age groups. They are deemed safe and appropriate for children as well as adults.
• The content of 'U' certified movies is free from any material that could harm or negatively influence younger audiences, such as excessive violence, explicit sexual content, or strong language.
• Examples of movies with 'U' certification often include family dramas, animated films, and light-hearted comedies that align with universal entertainment standards.
• The CBFC ensures that films with a 'U' certificate meet strict guidelines to ensure they are suitable for an unrestricted audience. This includes ensuring that the themes are non-controversial and universally acceptable.

Additional Information

• Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC):
• The CBFC, also known as the Censor Board, is a statutory body under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India.
• It is responsible for certifying the suitability of films for public exhibition in accordance with the Cinematograph Act, 1952.
• The CBFC provides different types of certifications, such as 'U' (Unrestricted), 'U/A' (Parental Guidance), 'A' (Adults Only), and 'S' (Restricted to specialized audiences).
• Other Certification Categories:
• 'U/A' Certificate: Films that require parental guidance for children under the age of 12 due to moderate themes or content.
• 'A' Certificate: Restricted to adult audiences (18 years and above), typically containing mature themes, strong language, or violence.
• 'S' Certificate: Restricted to specialized audiences such as doctors or scientists, often for educational or professional purposes.
• Importance of Certification:
• Film certification ensures that the content of movies is aligned with the sensibilities and cultural values of the diverse population of India.
• It helps protect younger audiences from exposure to inappropriate material and promotes responsible filmmaking.
• Examples of 'U' Certified Movies:
• Animated Films: Movies like "Kung Fu Panda" or "Finding Nemo" are often given a 'U' certificate.
• Family Dramas: Indian movies like "Taare Zameen Par" or "3 Idiots" are examples of 'U' certified films suitable for all age groups.

Important Points

• The CBFC's guidelines for 'U' certification include the avoidance of content that promotes violence, drug abuse, or disrespect to religion.
• Although 'U' certified movies are deemed suitable for all ages, parental discretion is still advised for very young children.
• As per the Cinematograph Act, 1952, filmmakers are required to submit their films to the CBFC for certification before public release.
• The CBFC has the authority to recommend cuts or modifications to ensure the film aligns with the certification criteria.

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

• The Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY) was restructured into the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) in the year 2016 to address rural housing gaps more comprehensively.
• The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the restructured scheme on 23 March 2016.
• Under PMAY-G, the aim was to provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all homeless and those households living in kutcha and dilapidated houses by the year 2022.
• The restructured scheme incorporated better technological and financial mechanisms, including a more robust beneficiary database from the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011.
• It also introduced Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to ensure transparency and eliminate leakages.

Additional Information

• Key Features of PMAY-G:
• The scheme provides financial assistance of ₹1.2 lakh in plains and ₹1.3 lakh in hilly areas, difficult terrains, and Integrated Action Plan (IAP) districts.
• Beneficiaries are selected based on the SECC 2011 data, ensuring that the benefits reach the most deserving households.
• A minimum size of 25 square meters was mandated for the houses to ensure adequate living space.
• The scheme promotes the use of eco-friendly construction materials and local resources to make houses sustainable and affordable.
• Convergence with other government schemes like Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) for toilets, Saubhagya Yojana for electricity, and Ujjwala Yojana for LPG connections was encouraged.
• Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY):
• Launched in 1985, IAY aimed at providing housing for people below the poverty line in rural areas.
• It offered financial assistance for the construction of houses, but implementation challenges like inefficiencies and delays led to its restructuring.
• Performance and Achievements:
• As of 2023, over 2.5 crore houses have been constructed under PMAY-G, benefiting millions of rural families.
• The scheme has significantly improved the living standards of rural households, contributing to enhanced social and economic inclusion.
• Comparison with Urban Counterpart (PMAY-U):
• While PMAY-G focuses on rural housing, Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) targets urban housing needs.
• PMAY-U addresses issues like slum redevelopment, affordable housing through credit-linked subsidies, and public-private partnerships in urban areas.

The correct answer is Part IX.

Key Points

• Part IX of the Constitution of India deals with Panchayats, which are institutions of self-government at the village level.
• It was added to the Constitution by the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which came into effect on 24^th April 1993. This day is celebrated as National Panchayati Raj Day.
• Part IX includes provisions from Article 243 to Article 243-O, which outline the structure, composition, powers, and functions of Panchayats.
• Article 243-B mandates the establishment of Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels in every state, except those with populations below 20 lakh.
• The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution, introduced by the same amendment, lists 29 subjects under the jurisdiction of Panchayats, such as agriculture, education, health, and rural development.

Additional Information

• 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
• This amendment was a landmark in decentralizing power to local self-governments in rural areas.
• It provided constitutional recognition to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), ensuring democratic decentralization.
• The Act introduced a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (intermediate level), and Zilla Parishad (district level).
• Articles in Part IX:
• Article 243-A: Grants powers to Gram Sabhas (village assemblies) to take decisions and implement development plans.
• Article 243-G: Empowers state legislatures to assign Panchayats powers to prepare and implement plans for economic development and social justice.
• Article 243-K: Provides for the establishment of a State Election Commission to conduct elections to Panchayats.
• Eleventh Schedule:
• Introduced with the 73^rd Amendment, it specifies 29 subjects under Panchayati jurisdiction.
• These subjects include agriculture, irrigation, education, health, sanitation, and poverty alleviation programs.
• Exemptions:
• The provisions of Part IX are not applicable to the states of Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and certain other areas under the Sixth Schedule due to their unique tribal governance systems.
• However, these states may voluntarily adopt the Panchayati Raj system through legislation.

Important Points

• Historical Background:
• The concept of Panchayati Raj dates back to ancient India, where village councils resolved disputes and managed local affairs.
• Post-Independence, Mahatma Gandhi advocated for Gram Swaraj (village self-rule) as a foundation for democracy.
• The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj, leading to the formal establishment of PRIs in 1959.
• Challenges in Panchayati Raj:
• Lack of adequate financial resources for implementing development programs.
• Low participation of marginalized communities, including women, in decision-making processes.
• Dependency on state governments for funding and administrative support.
• Recent Developments:
• Several states have introduced initiatives to strengthen PRIs, such as e-governance platforms for better transparency and accountability.
• Efforts are being made to increase women's participation through reservation of seats in Panchayats.

The correct answer is Rushikulya River.

Key Points

• The proposed construction of a dam at Pipalapanka in April 2025 raised environmental concerns regarding the Rushikulya River, which is one of the important rivers in Odisha.
• The Rushikulya River originates from the Daringbadi hills in the Kandhamal district of Odisha and flows through various districts before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
• Environmental concerns were raised due to the potential impact on the river's ecosystem, aquatic life, and the livelihoods of communities dependent on the river.
• The river is known for being a major nesting site for Olive Ridley turtles, which might be disrupted by the construction activities.
• The issue of dam construction at Pipalapanka highlights the need for a balance between developmental activities and ecological preservation in Odisha.

Additional Information

• Rushikulya River:
• The river covers a length of approximately 165 km and flows through the districts of Kandhamal, Ganjam, and Nayagarh.
• It plays a vital role in providing irrigation to the surrounding agricultural lands and supports the livelihood of farmers.
• The Rushikulya estuary is globally significant for being a major nesting site of Olive Ridley turtles, particularly near the mouth of the river in Ganjam district.
• The river faces threats like pollution, sand mining, and deforestation, which have raised environmental concerns over the years.
• Olive Ridley Turtles:
• The Olive Ridley turtles are listed as vulnerable under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
• The coast near the Rushikulya River mouth is one of the few places in India where mass nesting (arribada) of these turtles occurs.
• Conservation measures have been implemented, including restricting human activities during the nesting season and monitoring the eggs until they hatch.
• Other Major Rivers in Odisha:
• Mahanadi River: Known as the lifeline of Odisha, it is the largest river in the state, providing water for irrigation, hydroelectric power generation, and drinking purposes.
• Brahmani River: The second-largest river in Odisha, it supports industrial and agricultural activities in the region.
• Subarnarekha River: It originates in Jharkhand and flows through Odisha into the Bay of Bengal, playing a significant role in agriculture and fisheries.
• Environmental Impacts of Dam Construction:
• Dams can lead to alteration of natural water flow, affecting aquatic ecosystems and disrupting the habitats of species like the Olive Ridley turtles.
• They may cause displacement of local communities and adversely affect their livelihoods.
• The accumulation of sediments can lead to loss of fertility in downstream agricultural lands.

Important Points

• Government Initiatives for River Conservation:
• Namami Gange Programme: A flagship initiative of the Government of India aimed at rejuvenating the Ganga River and its tributaries.
• National Water Mission: Focuses on integrated water resource management, including conservation and efficient use of water.
• Odisha has implemented several state-level river restoration projects to address pollution and ensure ecological balance.
• Legal Framework for Environmental Protection:
• The Environmental Protection Act, 1986 provides measures for controlling and preventing pollution of air, water, and land.
• The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 safeguards endangered species like Olive Ridley turtles.
• The Forest Conservation Act, 1980 regulates deforestation and ensures sustainable forest management.

The correct answer is Mamallapuram – A Journey Through a Magical Land.

Key Points

• Mamallapuram – A Journey Through a Magical Land is a book authored by Ashwin Prabhu that delves into the rich historical and cultural legacy of Mamallapuram.
• The book highlights the architectural wonders of Mamallapuram, which is famous for its UNESCO World Heritage Site temples and monuments.
• Mamallapuram, also known as Mahabalipuram, has a history that dates back to the Pallava dynasty, and the book explores the stories behind its iconic sculptures and carvings.
• The author provides vivid descriptions of the cultural heritage and the artistic brilliance of the stone carvings that have made Mamallapuram a globally recognized historical site.
• The book serves as a guide for readers to experience and understand Mamallapuram's glorious past through its monuments, such as the Shore Temple, Pancha Rathas, and Arjuna’s Penance.

Additional Information

• Mamallapuram’s Historical Significance:
• Mamallapuram, located in the state of Tamil Nadu, India, was a prominent port city during the Pallava dynasty (4^th–9^th century CE).
• The site is known for its rock-cut temples, monolithic sculptures, and intricate carvings that reflect the artistic and architectural achievements of the era.
• Key Monuments in Mamallapuram:
• Shore Temple: A 7^th-century temple built overlooking the Bay of Bengal, famous for its Dravidian architectural style.
• Pancha Rathas: Monolithic rock temples carved in the shape of chariots, each dedicated to a figure from the Mahabharata.
• Arjuna’s Penance: A massive open-air rock relief that depicts scenes from Hindu mythology and is one of the largest bas-reliefs in the world.
• UNESCO World Heritage Status:
• The Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 for its cultural and historical importance.
• The site attracts tourists and historians worldwide for its unique blend of art, culture, and heritage.
• Ashwin Prabhu’s Contribution:
• Ashwin Prabhu's book provides an in-depth exploration of Mamallapuram’s archaeological and cultural significance, offering insights into its historical context and artistic legacy.
• The book is an invaluable resource for history enthusiasts, scholars, and travelers interested in South Indian heritage.

Important Points

• Other Books on Mamallapuram: While Ashwin Prabhu’s book is a notable work, there are other resources and books that also explore Mamallapuram’s history and art.
• Pallava Dynasty: The rulers of this dynasty were patrons of art and architecture, and Mamallapuram stands as a testament to their legacy.
• Role in Tourism: Today, Mamallapuram is a key tourist destination in Tamil Nadu, contributing significantly to the state’s cultural tourism.
• Artistic Techniques: The sculptures and carvings in Mamallapuram demonstrate advanced techniques like bas-relief, monolithic carving, and rock-cut architecture.

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

• Anji Khad Bridge is India's first cable-stayed rail bridge, constructed in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The bridge is part of the ambitious Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project, which aims to enhance rail connectivity to the Kashmir Valley.
• Completed in November 2023, the bridge spans the Anji River, a tributary of the Chenab River, and connects the Katra and Reasi sections of the railway line.
• The total length of the Anji Khad Bridge is approximately 725 meters, with its main span of 473 meters supported by a central cable-stayed structure.
• The bridge is designed to withstand high wind speeds of up to 213 km/h and seismic activities, making it an engineering marvel in the region.

Additional Information

• Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) Project:
• The USBRL project was declared a national project in 2002, aimed at connecting the Kashmir Valley to the Indian Railways network.
• This project includes various engineering marvels such as the Chenab Bridge (world's highest railway bridge) and the Banihal-Qazigund tunnel.
• It is a strategic initiative to improve connectivity, boost tourism, and strengthen the socio-economic conditions of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Cable-Stayed Bridges:
• A cable-stayed bridge is supported by cables connected directly from the towers to the deck, providing strength and stability.
• These bridges are known for their durability, aesthetic appeal, and ability to span long distances.
• Examples of cable-stayed bridges in India include the Bandra-Worli Sea Link in Mumbai and the Signature Bridge in Delhi.
• Jammu and Kashmir's Geography:
• Jammu and Kashmir is situated in the northernmost part of India and is known for its mountainous terrain and strategic importance.
• The region is prone to seismic activity and challenging weather conditions, making infrastructure projects like the Anji Khad Bridge highly complex.
• Engineering Challenges:
• The construction of the Anji Khad Bridge involved challenges such as steep topography, adverse weather conditions, and seismic risks.
• Advanced technologies, including drone surveys and 3D modeling, were used to ensure precision and safety during the construction process.
• The bridge's design incorporates features to withstand earthquakes and high wind speeds, ensuring its longevity and safety.

Important Points

• Chenab Bridge:
• Located near the Anji Khad Bridge, the Chenab Bridge is the world's highest railway bridge, standing at a height of 359 meters above the riverbed.
• It is part of the same USBRL project and demonstrates India's capability in modern engineering and infrastructure development.
• Economic and Strategic Importance:
• The Anji Khad Bridge will significantly enhance the connectivity of the Kashmir Valley, boosting tourism and trade.
• The improved rail connectivity has strategic importance for national security and rapid troop mobilization in the region.
• Future Prospects:
• Projects like the Anji Khad and Chenab bridges are expected to pave the way for more infrastructure development in remote and challenging regions of India.
• They also highlight India's commitment to adopting modern technologies and achieving milestones in civil engineering.

The correct answer is 2025-26.

Key Points

• In February 2024, the Indian Government approved a funding of ₹1,179.72 crore to extend the ‘Safety of Women’ umbrella scheme for women’s safety.
• This project aims to ensure the continuation of various sub-schemes and initiatives under the umbrella scheme until the financial year 2025-26.
• The ‘Safety of Women’ scheme encompasses several critical interventions such as One Stop Centres (OSCs), Women Helpline, and other programs focused on addressing violence against women.
• The scheme aligns with the government’s ongoing efforts to strengthen mechanisms for improving women's safety and empowerment in India.
• By extending the scheme until 2025-26, the government aims to bolster its commitment toward ensuring safe spaces and resources for women across the country.

Additional Information

• One Stop Centres (OSCs):
• Launched under the ‘Safety of Women’ scheme to provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence.
• These centres offer services such as medical aid, legal counseling, and psychological support under one roof.
• As of 2023, over 700 One Stop Centres are operational across various districts in India.
• Women Helpline:
• Part of the ‘Safety of Women’ scheme, the 181 helpline is a 24x7 emergency response service dedicated to helping women in distress.
• The helpline connects victims to the nearest One Stop Centre or appropriate authorities for immediate assistance.
• Key Focus Areas:
• Addressing domestic violence and ensuring timely intervention for victims.
• Raising awareness about women’s rights and creating an environment free of fear and discrimination.
• Providing skill development and capacity-building programs for women’s empowerment.
• Budget Allocation:
• The allocation of ₹1,179.72 crore reflects the government’s prioritization of women’s safety in the national agenda.
• Funds are distributed across various components of the umbrella scheme to ensure effective implementation.

Important Points

• National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Data:
• The NCRB data highlights the increasing need for initiatives like the ‘Safety of Women’ scheme, as cases of violence against women remain a pressing concern.
• The umbrella scheme directly addresses issues such as domestic violence, sexual harassment, and human trafficking.
• Global Commitment:
• India’s ‘Safety of Women’ scheme aligns with the UN Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 5, which focuses on achieving gender equality and empowering all women and girls.
• Collaborative Efforts:
• The scheme involves collaboration with state governments, non-governmental organizations (NGOs), and community-based organizations to ensure wide-scale impact.

The correct answer is Lysosomal storage disorders.

Key Points

• Enzyme Replacement Therapy (ERT) is a medical treatment designed to replace deficient or absent enzymes in the body, primarily targeting lysosomal storage disorders (LSDs).
• Lysosomal storage disorders are a group of rare, inherited metabolic conditions caused by the deficiency or malfunctioning of specific lysosomal enzymes, leading to the accumulation of toxic substances in the body.
• ERT works by introducing the missing or defective enzyme into the body through intravenous infusions, helping to reduce the buildup of harmful substances in cells.
• Some common examples of lysosomal storage disorders treated with ERT include Gaucher disease, Fabry disease, Pompe disease, and mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS).
• ERT is not a cure but helps in managing symptoms, improving quality of life, and slowing disease progression in affected individuals.
• This therapy is highly specific and tailored to each disorder, as the enzyme used must match the one that is deficient or malfunctioning in the patient.

Additional Information

• Lysosomal storage disorders (LSDs):
• LSDs are caused by genetic mutations that affect the function of lysosomal enzymes, leading to the accumulation of substrates like lipids, glycoproteins, or mucopolysaccharides.
• There are over 50 types of LSDs, each associated with a specific enzyme deficiency.
• Symptoms vary widely depending on the disorder but may include organ enlargement, skeletal abnormalities, developmental delays, and neurological issues.
• Examples of ERT applications:
• Gaucher Disease: Treated with enzymes like imiglucerase, which replaces the deficient glucocerebrosidase enzyme.
• Fabry Disease: Treated with enzymes such as agalsidase alpha or beta to address the deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A.
• Pompe Disease: Managed using alglucosidase alfa to supplement acid alpha-glucosidase enzyme.
• Mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS): ERT options like idursulfase or elosulfase alfa are used depending on the type of MPS.
• Advantages of ERT:
• ERT helps in reducing symptom severity and improving the quality of life for patients with LSDs.
• It has significantly increased the life expectancy of individuals with previously untreatable conditions.
• ERT is particularly effective in addressing non-neurological symptoms, such as organ enlargement and skeletal abnormalities.
• Limitations of ERT:
• ERT is not effective in addressing neurological symptoms, as the enzymes cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.
• The treatment is cost-intensive, making it less accessible for some patients.
• Regular infusions are required for life, leading to inconvenience and potential side effects such as allergic reactions.
• Other Options Explained:
• Autoimmune diseases: These are treated with immunosuppressive therapies, such as corticosteroids or biologics, rather than ERT.
• Viral infections: Managed using antiviral drugs or vaccines, not enzyme replacement.
• Hormonal imbalances: Treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or other endocrine treatments, not ERT.

Important Points

• First ERT: The first enzyme replacement therapy was approved in 1991 for Gaucher disease.
• Global Impact: ERT has transformed the management of rare genetic disorders, particularly in developed countries.
• Research and Development: Ongoing efforts aim to develop therapies that can cross the blood-brain barrier to address neurological symptoms in LSDs.
• Future Directions: Gene therapy and substrate reduction therapy are emerging as complementary or alternative approaches to ERT.

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

• Article 33 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the application of Fundamental Rights to members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous services.
• The purpose of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and maintain discipline within these forces, which is essential for national security.
• Such restrictions are imposed through laws enacted by Parliament. These laws override the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution for the concerned personnel.
• This provision is exclusive to Parliament, and no other body, including the President, Supreme Court, or Council of Ministers, has the power to restrict Fundamental Rights under Article 33.
• The Parliament can make laws detailing how Fundamental Rights are curtailed for members of these forces, ensuring the laws align with the Constitution and the needs of national security.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights and Article 33:
• Fundamental Rights are guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution and are applicable to all citizens. However, Article 33 allows Parliament to restrict their application for specific groups like armed forces and paramilitary forces.
• The objective is to prevent conflicts between individual rights and the collective discipline required for the effective functioning of these forces.
• Restrictions under Article 33:
• Restrictions include limitations on freedom of speech, association, and other rights that may disrupt discipline or compromise the security of the nation.
• Laws enacted under Article 33 often include provisions related to the conduct, disciplinary procedures, and internal functioning of these forces.
• Examples of Legislation:
• The Army Act, 1950, Navy Act, 1957, and Air Force Act, 1950 are examples of laws enacted under Article 33 that regulate the conduct and discipline of the armed forces.
• Similar laws exist for police forces and paramilitary organizations like the Border Security Force (BSF) and Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
• Judicial Interpretation:
• The Supreme Court of India has upheld the validity of laws restricting Fundamental Rights under Article 33, emphasizing their necessity for maintaining discipline in the forces and ensuring national security.
• For instance, in cases like Ram Swarup v. Union of India, the Court ruled that such restrictions are constitutional and serve a larger purpose.

Important Points

• Key Features of Article 33:
• It applies exclusively to personnel in armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, and intelligence agencies.
• Restrictions are imposed only via laws passed by Parliament, ensuring checks and balances in their implementation.
• Historical Context:
• Article 33 was included in the Constitution to address the unique requirements of disciplined forces and ensure their effective functioning.
• The provision reflects the balance between individual rights and collective security needs in India.

The correct answer is Simran Sharma.

Key Points

• Simran Sharma won the silver medal in the women’s 200m T12 at the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships.
• The 200m T12 category is specifically for athletes with a visual impairment. Athletes in this category compete with or without a guide, depending on their level of impairment.
• Simran Sharma has been a prominent figure in Indian para-athletics, consistently performing well in international competitions.
• The 2025 World Para Athletics Championships brought together athletes from various countries to compete in events showcasing their skills and resilience, with Simran Sharma achieving a remarkable feat by securing the silver medal.
• Her achievement highlights the growing prominence and success of Indian para-athletes on the global stage, inspiring many others to pursue sports despite challenges.

Additional Information

• World Para Athletics Championships:
• It is a biennial event organized by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC), featuring athletes with various disabilities.
• The competition includes events like sprints, long-distance running, jumping, and throwing disciplines, categorized based on athletes' disabilities.
• It serves as a platform to promote inclusivity and celebrate the athletic achievements of individuals with disabilities.
• T12 Classification:
• The T12 classification is for athletes with a moderate visual impairment, which impacts their ability to compete without assistance.
• Athletes in this category may use a guide runner, connected to them by a tether during the race, to ensure fair competition.
• India's Performance in Para Sports:
• India has seen a significant rise in the performance of its para-athletes, with increasing participation and medal wins in global events like the Paralympics and World Championships.
• Government initiatives such as the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and the Paralympic Committee of India have played a crucial role in supporting athletes.
• Athletes like Simran Sharma, Devendra Jhajharia, and Mariyappan Thangavelu have become role models for aspiring para-athletes.
• Training and Support:
• Simran Sharma, like many Indian para-athletes, has benefited from specialized training facilities and coaching provided by organizations such as the Sports Authority of India (SAI).
• International exposure through competitions and training camps has been instrumental in enhancing the performance of Indian para-athletes.

Important Points

• Other Competitors:
• Preethi Pal: While a talented athlete, she did not secure a medal in the women’s 200m T12 at the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships.
• Navdeep Singh: Navdeep is known for his achievements in other para-athletic events but was not part of the women’s 200m T12 category.
• Sharita Sharma: While a promising athlete, she did not achieve a podium finish in this event.
• India's Medal Tally:
• India's overall performance at the 2025 World Para Athletics Championships was commendable, with multiple medals won across various events.
• The success of athletes like Simran Sharma reflects the growing investment in para-sports infrastructure and training in India.

The correct answer is Jaipur.

Key Points

• The grand finale of the Khelo Creators League (KCL) 2025 was held in Jaipur, Rajasthan, a city known for its rich cultural heritage and robust sports infrastructure.
• Khelo Creators League (KCL) is a prestigious sports competition aimed at promoting young talent in India, focusing on sports like cricket, football, badminton, and athletics.
• Jaipur was chosen as the host city due to its world-class sports facilities, including the Sawai Mansingh Stadium, which has previously hosted international and domestic sports events.
• The event attracted participation from talented athletes across the country, showcasing their skills in front of a large audience and prominent sports personalities.
• The state government of Rajasthan and Sports Authority of India (SAI) collaborated to ensure the successful organization of the event, emphasizing the importance of sports in youth development.

Additional Information

• Jaipur as a Sports Hub:
• Jaipur, the capital of Rajasthan, has emerged as a significant sports hub in India due to its modern sports facilities and infrastructure.
• The Sawai Mansingh Stadium is a prominent venue for cricket matches, including Indian Premier League (IPL) games.
• The city also hosts several national and state-level tournaments in disciplines like basketball, wrestling, and kabaddi.
• Khelo Creators League (KCL):
• The Khelo Creators League is an initiative aimed at identifying and nurturing young sports talent in India.
• The league focuses on a variety of sports, providing a platform for athletes from underrepresented areas to compete at a national level.
• It aligns with the Government of India’s Khelo India initiative, which aims to develop a culture of sports and fitness across the nation.
• Sports Initiatives in Rajasthan:
• The Rajasthan government has been actively promoting sports through initiatives like Rajasthan Rural Olympic Games, which involve rural youth in various sports activities.
• These initiatives aim to identify grassroots talent and provide them with opportunities to compete at higher levels.
• Importance of Sports Events:
• Events like the Khelo Creators League play a crucial role in promoting sports culture and encouraging youth participation in physical activities.
• They also help in building infrastructure, generating employment, and boosting the local economy of host cities like Jaipur.

Important Points

• Previous Hosts:
• In past years, cities like New Delhi, Bengaluru, and Mumbai have hosted similar high-profile sports events, making Jaipur’s selection a significant milestone.
• Government Support:
• The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, along with state governments, provides financial and logistical support for such events to ensure their success.
• Impact on Youth:
• These events inspire young athletes to pursue sports as a career, contributing to India’s performance on international platforms like the Olympics and Asian Games.

The correct answer is 9 to 14 years.

Key Points

• The Budget 2024 proposal has introduced a significant initiative for cervical cancer prevention by targeting vaccination for girls in the age group of 9 to 14 years.
• This age group is selected as it aligns with the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for the administration of the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine, which is most effective when given before exposure to HPV, typically before the onset of sexual activity.
• The HPV vaccine is designed to protect against high-risk strains of HPV, which are the primary cause of cervical cancer, a leading cause of cancer-related deaths among women worldwide.
• By targeting this age group, the government aims to reduce the prevalence of cervical cancer significantly over time, as early vaccination leads to higher immunity and better protection.
• This initiative is part of India's broader public health strategy to combat cancer and improve the health outcomes for women, especially in low-resource settings where the burden of cervical cancer is high.

Additional Information

• Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Vaccine:
• The HPV vaccine protects against infections caused by certain strains of human papillomavirus, which are responsible for nearly 70% of cervical cancer cases globally.
• The vaccine is most effective when administered in two doses for girls aged 9-14 years, as their immune response is stronger at this age.
• India has also launched the indigenous HPV vaccine, Cervavac, in 2022 to make vaccination more accessible and affordable.
• Cervical Cancer in India:
• Cervical cancer is the second most common cancer among women in India, with an estimated 96,000 new cases annually and around 60,000 deaths.
• The disease is preventable through regular screening (such as Pap smears) and HPV vaccination.
• India accounts for nearly one-fourth of the global cervical cancer burden, making vaccination a crucial public health intervention.
• Global Recommendations:
• The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends HPV vaccination as part of the Global Strategy to Accelerate the Elimination of Cervical Cancer by achieving 90% HPV vaccination coverage among girls by age 15.
• Countries like Australia and Rwanda have achieved high vaccination rates and have seen a significant decline in cervical cancer incidence.
• Government Initiatives in India:
• The government is integrating HPV vaccination into the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) to ensure widespread access, especially in rural and underserved areas.
• The focus is on creating awareness campaigns in schools and communities to educate parents and guardians about the importance of HPV vaccination for their children.

Important Points

• Age Group Targeting:
• Girls aged 9 to 14 years are chosen as the target group for prophylactic HPV vaccination because the vaccine is most effective before exposure to the virus.
• The vaccination also provides long-term immunity against HPV strains that cause cervical cancer.
• Cost-Effective Intervention:
• Introducing the HPV vaccine under the public health system ensures that it remains cost-effective and accessible to all socio-economic groups.
• Countries implementing universal HPV vaccination programs have seen a rapid decline in HPV-related diseases and healthcare costs associated with treatment.
• Future Impact:
• Widespread HPV vaccination is expected to lead to a 70-90% reduction in cervical cancer cases over the next few decades.
• This initiative aligns with India's commitment to achieving UN Sustainable Development Goal 3 (Good Health and Well-being) by reducing premature mortality from non-communicable diseases.

The correct answer is Pratapgarh.

Key Points

• The Mesolithic site of Sarai Nahar Rai is located in the Pratapgarh district of Uttar Pradesh, near the plain of the Sai River, a tributary of the Gomati River.
• Sarai Nahar Rai is one of the most important archaeological sites from the Mesolithic period in India, providing significant evidence of early human settlement and activity.
• This site has revealed remains of microlithic tools, which are characteristic of the Mesolithic period, alongside remains of fauna, indicating the hunting and gathering lifestyle of the inhabitants.
• The site shows evidence of human habitation dating back to approximately 10,000 BCE to 6,000 BCE, marking a transitional phase between the Paleolithic and Neolithic ages.
• It provides insights into the social and cultural practices of early humans, including their diet, tool-making skills, and burial practices.

Additional Information

• Mesolithic Period:
• The Mesolithic period, also known as the Middle Stone Age, is characterized by the use of microlithic tools, smaller and more advanced stone tools compared to the Paleolithic period.
• This period marks a transition from a purely hunting and gathering lifestyle to the beginnings of domestication and agriculture.
• In India, Mesolithic sites are spread across regions such as Rajasthan (Bagor), Madhya Pradesh (Bhimbetka), Uttar Pradesh (Sarai Nahar Rai), and others.
• Sarai Nahar Rai Excavations:
• The site was excavated in the 1950s and 1960s by archaeologists to uncover the remains of early human settlements.
• Findings include microlithic tools made of materials like quartz, bones, and animal remains, which suggest a subsistence pattern based on hunting and gathering.
• Burial sites found here indicate early ritualistic practices, with bodies buried along with tools and ornaments.
• Other Mesolithic Sites in India:
• Bagor (Rajasthan): Known for its microlithic tools and evidence of domesticated animals.
• Bhimbetka (Madhya Pradesh): Famous for its rock shelters with prehistoric cave paintings.
• Langhnaj (Gujarat): Known for evidence of human burials and microlithic tools.
• Adamgarh (Madhya Pradesh): Known for rock paintings and microlithic tools.
• Importance of Mesolithic Sites:
• They provide crucial evidence about the evolution of human society, tools, and cultural practices during the transition from the Paleolithic to the Neolithic period.
• These sites are invaluable for understanding early human interaction with their environment and the gradual development of agriculture and settlement patterns.

Important Points

• Sai River:
• The Sai River is a tributary of the Gomati River, which flows through parts of Uttar Pradesh.
• The presence of rivers like Sai and Gomati provided a reliable source of water for early human settlements in the region.
• Pratapgarh District:
• Located in Uttar Pradesh, Pratapgarh is historically significant due to its association with several ancient and medieval sites.
• The discovery of Mesolithic sites like Sarai Nahar Rai highlights its importance in prehistoric archaeology.

The correct answer is Central Equipment Identity Register.

Key Points

• Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) is a technological initiative designed to help governments monitor stolen or illegal mobile devices and protect consumers from fraud.
• The CEIR acts as a central database that records the IMEI numbers (International Mobile Equipment Identity) of mobile devices to identify their authenticity and prevent misuse.
• It helps in blacklisting mobile phones that are reported as stolen or lost. Once blacklisted, these devices cannot connect to any network across the country, rendering them unusable.
• CEIR is implemented by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) in India to ensure consumer protection and reduce the illegal trade of mobile devices.
• This system is connected to the networks of telecom service providers, enabling them to block devices reported on the CEIR database and prevent unauthorized usage.

Additional Information

• International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI):
• The IMEI is a unique 15-digit identifier assigned to mobile devices, which helps in identifying the device uniquely across mobile networks.
• It is used for tracking stolen or lost devices and is essential for the functioning of the CEIR system.
• National Equipment Identity Register (NEIR):
• NEIR is a system similar to CEIR but operates at a national level in some countries, helping to track and block stolen devices within that country.
• It integrates various telecom operators’ databases to ensure comprehensive monitoring.
• Global Equipment Identity Registry:
• This registry is used internationally to track mobile devices across countries using IMEI numbers.
• It helps in preventing cross-border misuse and illegal trade of stolen devices.
• Implementation in India:
• In India, CEIR was launched in 2019 by the Department of Telecommunications to curb mobile theft and ensure consumer protection.
• The initiative allows users to report stolen or lost devices via a portal or helpline, enabling authorities to block the device.

Important Points

• Features of CEIR:
• Enables tracking and blocking of stolen or lost devices.
• Protects users from fraud and misuse of their mobile devices.
• Helps in curbing the illegal trade of mobile devices.
• Integrates with telecom service providers for seamless functionality.
• Applications:
• Used by law enforcement agencies to track stolen devices.
• Helps consumers protect their personal data by rendering stolen devices unusable.
• Supports telecom operators in maintaining secure network environments.
• Global Adoption:
• Similar systems are implemented worldwide to prevent mobile theft and fraud.
• Countries like the UK and USA have their own versions of equipment identity registries.

The correct answer is 0.2517.

Key Points

• The India State Forest Report (ISFR) 2023 is a biennial publication by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• As per the report, the total forest and tree cover in India is approximately 0.2517 (25.17%) of the country's total geographical area.
• The forest cover is classified into three categories: Very Dense Forest (VDF), Moderately Dense Forest (MDF), and Open Forest (OF), based on the density of canopy cover.
• The increase in forest and tree cover is attributed to various afforestation programs, community participation, and sustainable forest management practices by the government.
• States like Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh have the highest forest cover in terms of area, while states in the Northeast have the highest percentage of forest cover relative to their geographical area.

Additional Information

• Forest Survey of India (FSI):
• The FSI is a government organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change responsible for assessing and monitoring India's forest resources.
• It was established in 1981 and conducts biennial forest surveys to monitor the state of forest resources in India.
• FSI uses remote sensing technology along with ground-level surveys to collect and analyze data.
• Categories of Forest Cover:
• Very Dense Forest (VDF): Areas with a canopy density of 70% and above. These are the most ecologically significant forest areas.
• Moderately Dense Forest (MDF): Areas with a canopy density between 40% and 70%, usually found in plains and hilly regions.
• Open Forest (OF): Areas with a canopy density between 10% and 40%, representing degraded forest areas.
• Forest Cover in India:
• India’s total geographical area is 3,287,263 square kilometers.
• The forest cover in India accounts for 21.71% of the total geographical area, while tree cover contributes an additional 3.46%.
• Total forest and tree cover combined is 25.17% of India's geographical area.
• Government Initiatives:
• National Afforestation Programme (NAP): Aimed at restoring degraded forests and developing forest resources.
• Green India Mission: Part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change, focusing on afforestation and increasing forest cover.
• Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA): Ensures funds for compensatory afforestation are utilized efficiently.

Important Points

• Carbon Sequestration: Forests play a crucial role in capturing and storing carbon dioxide, thereby mitigating climate change.
• Biodiversity Conservation: Forests are home to a significant proportion of India's flora and fauna, many of which are endemic or endangered.
• Economic Importance: Forests contribute to the economy through timber, non-timber forest products (like honey and medicinal plants), and ecotourism.
• Role in Water Cycle: Forests help in maintaining the hydrological cycle by regulating water flow and preventing soil erosion.
• Deforestation Challenges: Urbanization, agriculture, and illegal logging are major causes of deforestation, impacting ecological balance.

Given:

Time taken by P + Q = 8 hours

Time taken by P = 72 hours

Formula Used:

Work = Rate × Time

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Individual Efficiency = Combined Efficiency − Other Efficiency

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 8 and 72 = 72 units (Total Work)

⇒ Efficiency of P + Q = 72 ÷ 8 = 9 units/hour

⇒ Efficiency of P = 72 ÷ 72 = 1 unit/hour

⇒ Efficiency of Q = 9 − 1 = 8 units/hour

⇒ Time taken by Q = 72 ÷ 8 = 9 hours

∴ The correct answer is 9 hours.

Given:

Number is divisible by 42

42 = 6 × 7

Number is divisible by 6 and 7

Last two digits remain unchanged

Formula Used:

Divisibility by 6 ⇒ divisible by 2 and 3

Divisibility by 3 ⇒ sum of digits divisible by 3

Divisibility by 2 ⇒ last digit even

Calculation:

⇒ Number divisible by 6 ⇒ divisible by 2 and 3

⇒ Last digit unchanged ⇒ still even ⇒ divisible by 2

⇒ Sum of digits unchanged after rearrangement ⇒ divisible by 3

⇒ Hence new number always divisible by 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Shortcut Trick

Use the formula for Simple Interest: I = P × R × T ÷ 100.

Here, P = ₹3,00,000, R = 5% per annum, T = 2 years.

Substitute values: I = 3,00,000 × 5 × 2 ÷ 100 = ₹30,000.

∴ Answer = ₹30,000

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3,00,000, Rate (R) = 5% per annum, Time (T) = 2 years.

Formula used:

Simple Interest (I) = P × R × T ÷ 100.

Principal (P): ₹3,00,000 Rate (R): 5% per annum Time (T): 2 years Simple Interest (I) = ₹30,000

Calculations:

⇒ I = P × R × T ÷ 100.

⇒ I = 3,00,000 × 5 × 2 ÷ 100 = ₹30,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹30,000. (Option 3)

Additional Information

Difference Between SI and CI

Simple Interest grows linearly, while Compound Interest grows exponentially over time.

Rule of 72

To estimate the doubling time of an investment under SI, use: Doubling Time ≈ 72 ÷ Rate.

Principal, Rate, and Time Relationship

If any two of P, R, or T are known, the third can be calculated using the SI formula: I = P × R × T ÷ 100.

Given:

Cost price (dearer) = 55 per kg

Cost price (cheaper) = 44 per kg

Selling price = 52.8 per kg

Profit = 10%

Formula Used:

Selling price = Cost price × (1 + Profit ÷ 100)

Alligation ratio = (Higher price − Mean price) : (Mean price − Lower price)

Calculation:

⇒ Cost price of mixture = 52.8 ÷ 1.1

⇒ Cost price of mixture = 48

⇒ Ratio (cheaper : dearer) = (48 − 44) : (55 − 48)

⇒ Ratio = 4 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 4 : 7.

Given:

Loss = 35%

Gain = 10%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 − Loss/100)

Profit % = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Let CP of 1 kg = 100

⇒ SP = 100 − (100 × 35 ÷ 100) = 65

⇒ Let actual weight = x kg

⇒ CP of x kg = 100x

⇒ Profit = 65 − 100x

⇒ Profit % = (65 − 100x) ÷ 100x × 100

⇒ 10 = (65 − 100x) ÷ x

⇒ 10x = 65 − 100x

⇒ 110x = 65

⇒ x = 65 ÷ 110 = 0.5909 = 590.9 gm

∴ The correct answer is 590.9 gm.

Given:

Monthly salary = 8325

Savings = 20%

Formula Used:

Savings = Salary × (Savings ÷ 100)

Expenditure = Salary − Savings

Calculation:

⇒ Savings = 8325 × 20 ÷ 100

⇒ Savings = 1665

⇒ Expenditure = 8325 − 1665

⇒ Expenditure = 6660

∴ The correct answer is 6660.

Shortcut Trick

To find 'A' in the ratio question:

Use the cross-multiplication method: 172 × 48 = 64 × A.

Simplify: A = (172 × 48) ÷ 64.

Calculate directly: A = 129.

∴ Answer = 129

Alternate Method

Given:

$\frac{172}{A} = \frac{64}{48}$

Formula used:

Cross-multiplication: 172 × 48 = 64 × A

172 64 48 A

Calculations:

⇒ Cross-multiply: 172 × 48 = 64 × A

⇒ Simplify: A = (172 × 48) ÷ 64

⇒ A = 129

∴ The correct answer is 129.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion Basics

A ratio compares two quantities. Use cross-multiplication to solve equations involving ratios.

Simplification in Ratios

Always simplify ratios to the lowest terms for easier calculations.

Applications of Ratios

Ratios are used in mixture problems, partnerships, speed-distance-time calculations, etc.

Given:

25 people, 10 hours/day, 5 days → 2 units

10 people, 8 hours/day → 16 units

Formula Used:

Work ∝ Men × Hours × Days

Calculation:

⇒ Total work relation: M1 × H1 × D1 ÷ W1 = M2 × H2 × D2 ÷ W2

⇒ 25 × 10 × 5 ÷ 2 = 10 × 8 × D ÷ 16

⇒ 1250 ÷ 2 = 80D ÷ 16

⇒ 625 = 80D ÷ 16

⇒ LCM of 16 = 16

⇒ 625 × 16 = 80D

⇒ 10000 = 80D

⇒ D = 10000 ÷ 80

⇒ D = 125

∴ The correct answer is 125.

Shortcut Trick

Area of an equilateral triangle = (√3 ÷ 4) × side².

Substitute side = 43 cm ⇒ Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × 43².

⇒ Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × 1849.

⇒ Area = 1849√3 ÷ 4.

∴ Answer = 1849√3 ÷ 4 (Option 2).

Alternate Method

Given:

Side of equilateral triangle = 43 cm.

Formula used:

Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × side².

43 cm 43 cm 43 cm Height Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × side²

Calculations:

Substitute side = 43 cm ⇒ Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × 43².

⇒ Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × 1849.

⇒ Area = 1849√3 ÷ 4.

∴ The correct answer is 1849√3 ÷ 4 (Option 2).

Additional Information

Equilateral Triangle Properties

An equilateral triangle has all sides equal. Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × side². Height = (√3 ÷ 2) × side.

Relation Between Height and Area

Height can be calculated as (√3 ÷ 2) × side. Substitute height into the area formula to verify.

Triangle Classification

Equilateral triangles have equal angles of 60°. Other types include isosceles and scalene triangles.

Given:

Height = 26 cm

Diameter = 9 cm

Radius = 4.5 cm

π = 22 ÷ 7

Formula Used:

Internal surface area (open cylinder) = 2 × π × r × h + π × r²

Calculation:

⇒ Curved surface area = 2 × (22 ÷ 7) × 4.5 × 26

⇒ = (44 ÷ 7) × 117

⇒ = 5148 ÷ 7

⇒ = 735.4286

⇒ Base area = (22 ÷ 7) × 4.5 × 4.5

⇒ = (22 ÷ 7) × 20.25

⇒ = 445.5 ÷ 7

⇒ = 63.6429

⇒ Total area = 735.4286 + 63.6429

⇒ = 799.0715

⇒ Rounded value = 799.1

∴ The correct answer is 799.1.

Given:

20% of number + 360 = Number

Formula Used:

Percentage = Value × (Percentage ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Let number = x

⇒ 20% of x = 20x ÷ 100 = 0.2x

⇒ 0.2x + 360 = x

⇒ x − 0.2x = 360

⇒ 0.8x = 360

⇒ x = 360 ÷ 0.8

⇒ x = 450

⇒ 80% of x = 80 × 450 ÷ 100

⇒ = 360

∴ The correct answer is 360.

Given:

Total distance = 24 km

Total time = 3 hours

Distance covered = 1 ÷ 4 of total

Time taken = 1 ÷ 3 of total

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculation:

⇒ Distance covered = 24 × 1 ÷ 4 = 6 km

⇒ Time taken = 3 × 1 ÷ 3 = 1 hour

⇒ Remaining distance = 24 − 6 = 18 km

⇒ Remaining time = 3 − 1 = 2 hours

⇒ Required speed = 18 ÷ 2

⇒ Required speed = 9 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 9 km/hr.

Shortcut Trick

The first 13 multiples of 11 are: 11, 22, 33, ..., 143.

The average of n consecutive multiples of any number is (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

Here, First term = 11, Last term = 143.

Average = (11 + 143) ÷ 2 = 154 ÷ 2 = 77.

∴ Answer = 77

Alternate Method 

Given:

The first 13 multiples of 11 are: 11, 22, 33, ..., 143.

Formula used:

Average of first n multiples of a number = (Sum of multiples) ÷ n

First Multiple: 11 Last Multiple: 143 Number of Multiples: 13 Average = (11 + 143) ÷ 2

Calculations:

First term = 11, Last term = 143, Number of terms = 13.

⇒ Average = (11 + 143) ÷ 2 = 154 ÷ 2 = 77.

∴ The correct answer is 77.

Additional Information

Sum of First n Terms of an AP

The sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic progression (AP) is given by S = n ÷ 2 × (First term + Last term).

Finding nth Term of an AP

The nth term of an AP is a_n = a + (n − 1)d, where a is the first term and d is the common difference.

Shortcut for Average

For evenly spaced numbers, the average is always (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

Given:

Speed 1 = 76 km/hr

Time 1 = 2.5 hours

Increase in speed = 21 km/hr

Time 2 = 1 hour

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time

Calculation:

⇒ Distance 1 = 76 × 2.5

⇒ Distance 1 = 190 km

⇒ Speed 2 = 76 + 21 = 97 km/hr

⇒ Distance 2 = 97 × 1

⇒ Distance 2 = 97 km

⇒ Total distance = 190 + 97 = 287 km

⇒ Total time = 2.5 + 1 = 3.5 hours

⇒ Average speed = 287 ÷ 3.5

⇒ Average speed = 82 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 82 km/hr.

Given:

List price = 1000

First discount = 62%

Final selling price = 205.20

Formula Used:

Discounted price = Marked price × (1 − Discount ÷ 100)

Final price = Discounted price × (1 − x ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Price after first discount = 1000 × (1 − 62 ÷ 100)

⇒ = 1000 × 0.38

⇒ = 380

⇒ Let additional discount = x%

⇒ 380 × (1 − x ÷ 100) = 205.20

⇒ 1 − x ÷ 100 = 205.20 ÷ 380

⇒ 1 − x ÷ 100 = 0.54

⇒ x ÷ 100 = 1 − 0.54 = 0.46

⇒ x = 46%

∴ The correct answer is 46%.

Given:

x = ∛216 − ∛125 + ∛8

Formula Used:

∛a = cube root of a

(a + b + c)³ expansion not required, direct substitution

Calculation:

⇒ ∛216 = 6

⇒ ∛125 = 5

⇒ ∛8 = 2

⇒ x = 6 − 5 + 2

⇒ x = 3

⇒ x³ = 3 × 3 × 3

⇒ x³ = 27

∴ The correct answer is 27.

Given:

Printing cost = 20%

Royalty = 15%

Printing cost amount = 30600

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Part ÷ Total) × 100

Required amount = (Required % ÷ Given %) × Given amount

Calculation:

⇒ Ratio of royalty to printing = 15 ÷ 20

⇒ Required amount = 30600 × (15 ÷ 20)

⇒ Required amount = 30600 × 3 ÷ 4

⇒ Required amount = 22950

∴ The correct answer is 22950.

Given:

Total = 756

(1 ÷ 2) of first = (1 ÷ 4) of second = (1 ÷ 8) of third

Formula Used:

If a ÷ x = b ÷ y = c ÷ z, then a : b : c = x : y : z

Calculation:

⇒ First : Second : Third = 2 : 4 : 8

⇒ Simplified ratio = 1 : 2 : 4

⇒ Total parts = 1 + 2 + 4 = 7

⇒ One part = 756 ÷ 7

⇒ One part = 108

⇒ Second part = 2 × 108

⇒ Second part = 216

∴ The correct answer is 216.

Given:

Principal = 34300

Rate = 20%

Time = 2 years

Formula Used:

Amount = Principal × (1 + Rate ÷ 100)^Time

Calculation:

⇒ Amount = 34300 × (1 + 20 ÷ 100)²

⇒ Amount = 34300 × (1.2)²

⇒ Amount = 34300 × 1.44

⇒ Amount = 49392

∴ The correct answer is 49392.

Given:

Selling price = 1691

Discount = 11%

Formula Used:

Selling price = Marked price × (1 − Discount ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ 1691 = Marked price × (1 − 11 ÷ 100)

⇒ 1691 = Marked price × 0.89

⇒ Marked price = 1691 ÷ 0.89

⇒ Marked price = 1900

∴ The correct answer is 1900.

The correct answer is Option 4: The opening of the Erie Canal

Key Points

• Thomas Cole, a prominent artist of the 19^th century, depicted the transformation of the American landscape in his paintings.
• One of the factors influencing the environmental changes he showcased was the opening of the Erie Canal.
• The Erie Canal, completed in 1825, significantly contributed to the development and industrialization of the region, altering the natural environment.
• This historical event is frequently associated with the environmental and cultural shifts of the period Cole sought to capture.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Explanation: The completion of the Erie Canal played a pivotal role in shaping the American landscape by facilitating trade and urbanization, which were key themes in Cole's work.

Additional Information

• Option 1: The Great Depression – This occurred in the 20^th century, much later than Cole's time, and is unrelated to the environmental changes he depicted.
• Option 2: The American Revolution – While significant, it primarily focused on political independence and did not directly impact the landscape as depicted in Cole's works.
• Option 3: The Green Revolution – This refers to agricultural advancements in the 20^th century, which occurred long after Cole's era.
• Option 4: The opening of the Erie Canal – This is the correct answer as it aligns with the historical and environmental context of Cole's art.

The correct answer is Option 2: Reflective and informative

Key Points

• The tone of the passage is reflective and informative, as it aims to provide insight or knowledge on the topic in a thoughtful manner.
• It avoids humor, sarcasm, or overly casual language, focusing instead on delivering factual and meaningful content.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "Humorous and light-hearted" – This is incorrect as the passage does not exhibit humor or a playful tone.
• Option 3: "Informal and conversational" – This is incorrect as the passage uses formal language and does not engage in a casual conversation style.
• Option 4: "Critical and sarcastic" – This is incorrect as the passage does not express criticism or sarcasm.

The correct answer is Option 3: Mediocre.

Key Points

• The word 'sublime' means something of great excellence or beauty, often uplifting and majestic.
• An antonym of 'sublime' would be a word that conveys the opposite, such as something ordinary or unremarkable.
• Mediocre means of only average quality, not very good, which is the opposite of 'sublime.'
• Other options do not provide the correct antonym:
• Option 1 (Contemporary): Refers to something modern or current, which is unrelated to the meaning of 'sublime.'
• Option 2 (Impressive): Is a synonym and not an antonym of 'sublime.'
• Option 4 (Majestic): Is also a synonym of 'sublime,' conveying grandeur and excellence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 (Mediocre).

Explanation: The sentence requires the antonym of 'sublime.' 'Mediocre' accurately conveys the opposite meaning, as it denotes something ordinary or of average quality.

The correct answer is Option 4: Storm Cloud: Picturing the Origins of Our Climate Crisis.

Key Points

• The title of the exhibition mentioned in the passage is "Storm Cloud: Picturing the Origins of Our Climate Crisis."
• This exhibition focuses on the intersection of industrialisation and climate change.
• It highlights the artistic representation of the origins of the climate crisis, providing insights into how industrialisation has impacted the environment.
• The correct answer is derived based on the mention of the exhibition title in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Statement: "The title of the exhibition mentioned in the passage is 'Storm Cloud: Picturing the Origins of Our Climate Crisis.'"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The Art of Climate Crisis" – This is incorrect as it is not the title mentioned in the passage.
• Option 2: "Landscapes of the Industrial Revolution" – This is incorrect as it does not match the passage.
• Option 3: "Industrialisation and Climate Change" – This is incorrect as it is not the specific title mentioned.
• Option 4: "Storm Cloud: Picturing the Origins of Our Climate Crisis" – This is correct as it matches the title mentioned in the passage.

The correct answer is Option 1: The role of art in documenting environmental changes

Key Points

• The central theme of the passage focuses on the role of art in documenting environmental changes.
• Art has historically served as a medium to portray changes in the natural environment and raise awareness about environmental issues.
• The passage discusses how art reflects environmental transformations caused by both natural and human-induced factors.
• While other options touch on related topics, they do not capture the overarching theme of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Explanation: The role of art in documenting environmental changes is a key concept that highlights how artists use their medium to reflect, critique, and address environmental concerns, making it the central theme of the passage.

Additional Information

• Option 2: While the Industrial Revolution had significant environmental impacts, this is not the central theme of the passage.
• Option 3: The history of the Erie Canal construction is specific and unrelated to the broader theme of art and environmental documentation.
• Option 4: The scientific study of climate change is a relevant topic but not the focus of this particular passage, which centers on art.

The correct answer is 'Option 3' i.e. and .

Key Points

• The most appropriate word to connect these two conditions is "and", as it joins two elements of equal importance.
• Other options like "also," "as well as," and "although" either do not fit the grammatical structure or change the intended meaning of the sentence.

Correct sentence: They were both tired and hungry, so they just had a juice.

Additional Information

• Use of "and": It is a coordinating conjunction that connects words, phrases, or clauses of equal importance.
• Example: She is kind and intelligent.
• Other options:
• "also": Adds additional information but is not used to directly connect two equal elements.
• "as well as": Suggests addition but changes the sentence structure.
• "although": Indicates contrast and is not appropriate for this sentence.

The correct answer is Option 4: Quintessential.

Key Points

• The word "Quintessential" refers to something that is the most perfect or typical example of a particular kind or quality. (सर्वोत्कृष्ट उदाहरण)
• Example: The Eiffel Tower is the quintessential symbol of Paris and French culture.
• The word "Embodiment" means a tangible or visible form of an idea, quality, or feeling. (साकार रूप)
• Example: She is the embodiment of kindness and compassion.
• Hence, the most suitable one-word substitute for "the perfectly classic, most absolutely representative, and utterly iconic" is "Quintessential".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Quintessential.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Anomalous (असामान्य): Deviating from what is standard, normal, or expected.
• Example: The scientist found anomalous results in the experiment, which required further investigation.
• Uncharacteristic (अलक्षणीय): Not typical of a particular person or thing.
• Example: It was uncharacteristic of him to arrive late to the meeting.
• Unconventional (अपरंपरागत): Not based on or conforming to what is generally done or believed.
• Example: She took an unconventional approach to teaching, which made her classes more engaging.

The correct answer is: Option 3: Erysipelous

Key Points

• The word "Erysipelous" is incorrectly spelt in the given options. The correct spelling is "Erysipelas", which refers to a bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis and lymphatic system. (हिंदी में: एरिसिपेलस - त्वचा का एक जीवाणु संक्रमण)
• Example: The doctor diagnosed the patient with erysipelas after observing redness and swelling on the leg.
• Correct word explanation: The correct spelling is "Erysipelas". It describes an acute infection of the skin caused by Streptococcus bacteria. (हिंदी में: एरिसिपेलस)
• Example: Erysipelas often causes a fever and red, swollen patches on the skin.
• The word "Erysipelous" is a misspelling, and the correct form, "Erysipelas," should be used instead.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Quotidian (दैनिक): Something occurring every day or commonplace.
• Example: The quotidian chores of life can sometimes feel monotonous.
• Antidisestablishmentarianism (धर्म और राज्य के अलगाव का विरोध): A political position that originated in 19^th-century Britain, opposing the disestablishment of the Church of England.
• Example: Antidisestablishmentarianism is one of the longest words in the English language.
• Phthisis (क्षय रोग): An archaic term for tuberculosis or a wasting disease.
• Example: In the 19^th century, phthisis claimed the lives of many due to a lack of effective treatments.

The correct answer is Option 2:  Humble.

Key Points

• The word "arrogant" refers to someone who is excessively proud and behaves as though they are superior to others. (अहंकारी)
• Example: Her arrogant attitude alienated her from her friends and family.
• "Humble" refers to someone who is modest, not prideful, and treats others with respect and kindness. (विनम्र)
• Example: Despite his achievements, he remained humble and always gave credit to his team.
• Hence, the antonym of 'arrogant' is 'humble'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Humble.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Haughty (घमंडी): Showing disdainful pride or behaving as though others are beneath them.
• Example: His haughty demeanor often made him unapproachable.
• Egoistic (स्वार्थी): Self-centered and overly concerned with one’s own needs or desires.
• Example: His egoistic behavior resulted in strained relationships with his colleagues.
• Conceited (अभिमानी): Excessively proud of oneself and self-centered.
• Example: She was so conceited that she refused to acknowledge anyone else's ideas.

The correct answer is: Option 2: To overshadow someone's achievements.

Key Points

• The idiom "To steal someone's thunder" means to overshadow someone's achievements by taking credit or attention away from them. (किसी की उपलब्धि या प्रशंसा को कम करना)
• Example: She stole his thunder by announcing her promotion right before he could talk about his new project.
• Overshadow refers to the act of exceeding or taking attention away from someone or something. (छाया डालना या किसी को पीछे छोड़ना)
• Example: His extraordinary performance overshadowed the efforts of the entire team.
• Hence, the idiom "To steal someone's thunder" closely aligns with overshadowing someone's achievements.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1 - To make someone angry (किसी को गुस्सा दिलाना): Refers to causing annoyance or irritation to someone.
• Example: His rude comments made her angry during the meeting.
• Option 3 - To disrupt someone's plans unexpectedly (किसी की योजनाओं को अचानक बाधित करना): Refers to causing an interruption or hindrance in someone's planned activities.
• Example: The sudden storm disrupted their plans for a picnic.
• Option 4 - To criticise someone harshly (किसी की कठोर आलोचना करना): Refers to expressing severe disapproval or judgment about someone.
• Example: The critics harshly criticised the director's latest movie.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. CADEB .

Key Points

• C is the most appropriate opening sentence as it introduces the Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan and provides a general statement about its reputation.
• A logically follows, explaining the objective of these institutions (developing national integration).
• D continues with the growth and expansion, moving from initial establishment to present scale.
• E further elaborates on the purpose of establishment, specifying the target group (children of transferable employees).
• B fits best at the end as it adds an additional piece of information about international presence.

Correct sequence: C → A → D → E → B

Additional Information

• Opening sentence rule: A paragraph generally begins with a sentence introducing the main subject or theme.
• Pronoun linkage: Words like "They" in sentence A refer back to a previously introduced noun (Kendriya Vidyalayas), hence cannot start the paragraph.
• Chronological flow: Sentence D shows progression from initial stage to present, so it must follow an introductory idea.
• Concluding information: Sentence B provides supplementary/global detail, making it suitable as the concluding sentence.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. the Higgs boson.

Key Points

• The discovery of the Higgs boson is a specific and significant event in particle physics, which requires the use of the definite article "the."
• The definite article "the" is used to refer to something that is already known, specific, or unique.
• The Higgs boson is a unique particle whose discovery was celebrated as a milestone, making the use of "the" appropriate.

Correct sentence: The discovery of the Higgs boson was a milestone in particle physics.

Additional Information

• Use of Articles:
• "The": Used for specific or unique entities (e.g., the moon, the sun).
• "A/An": Used for general or non-specific entities (e.g., a book, an apple).
• No Article: Used for plural or uncountable nouns in general contexts (e.g., water, books).

The correct answer is Option 2: Catch-22.

Key Points

• The word "Catch-22" refers to a paradoxical situation where an individual cannot avoid a problem due to contradictory constraints or rules. (विवादास्पद स्थिति)
• Example: You need experience to get a job, but you need a job to gain experience—a classic Catch-22.
• The phrase was popularized by Joseph Heller in his novel "Catch-22," where it describes absurd bureaucratic constraints faced by soldiers. (जोसफ हेलर के उपन्यास में वर्णित स्थिति)
• Example: The soldier wanted to escape combat duty but couldn’t because of the Catch-22 rule that required him to be declared insane.
• Hence, the correct answer is "Catch-22".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Catch-22.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Catch-21 (कैच-21): This is not an actual phrase or concept; it is incorrect and has no significant meaning.
• Catch-02 (कैच-02): Similar to "Catch-21," this is also incorrect and does not exist as a recognized term.
• Catch-20 (कैच-20): This is another incorrect option and does not convey any meaningful idea.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. at .

Key Points

• The phrase "at a disadvantage" is a fixed expression in English.
• It means being in a less favorable or weaker position compared to others.
• When referring to a specific disadvantage in a context like this, the correct preposition is "at."

Correct sentence: She has no experience, so she is at a disadvantage when it comes to this job interview.

Additional Information

• Common Prepositions with "Disadvantage":
• "At a disadvantage": Refers to being in an unfavorable position.
• "To someone's disadvantage": Indicates that something works against someone.
• Incorrect Prepositions:
• "In a disadvantage": This is grammatically incorrect as "in" is not used with "disadvantage."
• "By a disadvantage": This usage is not standard English and would sound awkward.
• "With a disadvantage": While possible, it is less commonly used and doesn't fit this context.

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4 .

Key Points

• The sentences need to be arranged in a logical sequence to form a coherent paragraph.
• Sentence 1 introduces the topic of global warming as a serious concern, making it the natural opening statement.
• Sentence 2 explains the cause (melting of ice caps due to rising temperatures) which directly relates to the problem mentioned in Sentence 1.
• Sentence 3 discusses the effects of global warming, which logically follows the cause described in Sentence 2.
• Sentence 4 suggests the solution or immediate intervention, concluding the paragraph effectively.

Correct sequence: Global warming is a serious concern. The melting of ice caps is caused by rising temperatures. Severe weather and increasing sea levels are the results of this. Immediate intervention is necessary for minimising these effects.

Additional Information

• This type of question tests your ability to logically sequence ideas and form a meaningful paragraph.
• Look for introductory statements, cause-and-effect relationships, and concluding remarks to guide the arrangement.
• Practice similar questions to improve comprehension and sequencing skills.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "Hillarious".

Key Points

• The word "Hillarious" is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is "Hilarious".
• Hilarious means extremely funny or causing great amusement. (अत्यंत मजेदार)
• Example: The comedian's hilarious jokes had the entire audience laughing uncontrollably.
• The incorrect spelling "Hillarious" is often a result of accidentally adding an extra "l".

Therefore, the correct spelling is "Hilarious". (अत्यंत मजेदार)

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Inquisitive (जिज्ञासु): Having or showing curiosity about something.
• Example: The inquisitive child kept asking questions about how the solar system works.
• Quizzical (जिज्ञासापूर्ण): Showing mild or amused puzzlement.
• Example: She gave him a quizzical look when he started singing in the middle of the conversation.
• Mischievous (शरारती): Behaving in a way that is slightly bad but not intended to cause serious harm.
• Example: The mischievous puppy chewed on the shoes left at the door.

The correct answer is Option 1: Constant.

Key Points

• The word "precarious" means something that is uncertain, insecure, or unstable; it refers to a situation that could change or worsen at any moment. (अनिश्चित/अस्थिर)
• Example: His financial situation became precarious after losing his job.
• "Constant" refers to something that is stable, steady, or unchanging over time. (स्थिर/निरंतर)
• Example: Despite the challenges, her support remained constant throughout the difficult period.
• Hence, the antonym of "precarious" is "constant".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Constant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Extraverted (बहिर्मुखी): Refers to a person who is outgoing and enjoys socializing.
• Example: She is an extraverted individual who enjoys meeting new people.
• Attenuate (कम करना): Refers to reducing the intensity, force, or value of something.
• Example: The medicine helped to attenuate the symptoms of the illness.
• Resolute (दृढ़): Refers to being determined or unwavering in purpose.
• Example: She remained resolute in her decision despite opposition.