DSSSB TGT (Social Science) Official Paper (Held On: 07 Nov, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Decoding signs:

Given: 7 - 196 × 14 ÷ 67 + 28 = ?

7 - 196 × 14 ÷ 67 + 28 = ? ⇒ 7 × 196 ÷ 14 + 67 - 28 = ?

⇒ 7 × 196 ÷ 14 + 67 - 28 = ?

⇒ 7 × 14 + 67 - 28 = ?

⇒ 98 + 67 - 28 = ?

⇒ 165 - 28 = ?

⇒ 137 = ?

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The corre

The logic followed here is:

TYG : WVD

And,

EFL : HCI

Similarly,

UOL : XLI

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) ORV

Option 2) PSW

Option 3) CFI

​Option 4) GJN

Thus, out of all 'CFI' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

8 - 16 - 256 - 156

8 × 2 = 16

16² = 256

256 - 100 = 156

And,

6 - 12 - 144 - 44

6 × 2 = 12

122 = 144

144 - 100 = 44

Similarly,

7 - 14 - 196 - 96

7 × 2 = 14

142 = 196

196 - 100 = 96

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: E, F, G, H, K, L and M each have their exam on a different day of the week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1) M has his exam on Tuesday.

2) Only one person has his exam between M and L.  

3) Only four people have their exam between G and M.

4) H has his exam on a day after M.

5) E has his exam on the day immediately before F.

The remaining position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. K.

Thus, two people have their exam between F and H.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) SYE

Option 2) DJP

Option 3) ZFI

​Option 4) XDJ

Thus, out of all 'ZFI' is the odd one out.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given statements:

I) This year, a significant amount of grain was wasted in District X. → Effect

II) The number of warehouses for storing grain in District X is one-tenth of the required number. → Cause

Severly inadequate warehouses mean grain cannot be stored properly, which directly result in wastage; hence shortage of storage (II) leads to grain wastage (I).

Thus, Statement II is the cause and statement I is its possible effect.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: HYP ICK SAN JIN

According to the question:

Thus, according to the final arrangement, in only two words thus formed will have no vowel.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Decoding symbols:

Given: C ÷ A – R + Z × E ÷ N

C ÷ A → C is the father of A.

A – R → A is the brother of R.

R + Z → R is the mother of Z.

Z × E → Z is the wife of E.

E ÷ N → E is the father of N.

Here, R is N's mother's mother.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) No crow is an eagle → Follow (As all crows are birds and no bird is an eagle. As whole crows comes in birds which cannot be eagle, therefore it is true.)

(II) No hawk is a bird → Does not follow (As no bird is an eagle and some eagles are hawks. As no direct relation is given between birds and hawks, therefore it is false.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion (I) follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

According to the question:

Thus, 'P' is coded as '7'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: Seven people, Saman, Bhumra, Krish, Shweta, Manish, Ishin, and Gavaskar, are sitting in a straight line facing north.

1. Only five people sit to the left of Bhumra.

2) Only three people sit between Bhumra and Ishin.

3. Manish is an immediate neighbor of both Ishin and Shweta.

4. Saman sits second to the right of Krish.

The remaing position will be occupied by the only person left i.e. Gavaskar.

Thus, Shweta sits third to the right of Gavaskar.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

8 : 125 → (8 - 3)³ = (5)³ ⇒ 125

And,

9 : 216 → (9 - 3)3 = (6)3 ⇒ 216

Similarly,

5 : ? → (5 - 3)3 = (2)3 ⇒ 8

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

According to the question:

Total students → 32

Sunny's position from the left → 5th

Dinesh's position from the left → 5th + 3 → 8th

Dinesh's position from the right → Total students - Dinesh's position from the left + 1

→ 32 - 8 + 1 = 25th

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: 12 − 15 ÷ 7 × 5 + 9 = ? 

According to the question, after ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

12 − 15 ÷ 7 × 5 + 9 = ? ⇒ 12 + 15 × 7 ÷ 5 - 9 = ?

⇒ 12 + 15 × 7 ÷ 5 - 9 = ?

⇒ 12 + 15 × 1.4 - 9 = ?

⇒ 12 + 21 - 9 = ?

⇒ 33 - 9 = ?

⇒ 24 = ?

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given:

City D is north of City A.

City C is south of City A.

City B is east of City A.

Thus, City B is southeast of City D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given series: (Left) 375 468 496 157 746 (Right)

According to the question.

So,

Second digit of the largest number → 746 → 4

Third digit of the smallest number → 157 → 7

So, the second digit of the largest number is added to the third digit of the smallest number → 4 + 7 = 11

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The Bundi Festival is celebrated in the state of Rajasthan, India, and is one of the most vibrant and culturally rich festivals of the region.
• It is held annually in the picturesque town of Bundi, which is known for its forts, palaces, and ancient architecture.
• The festival showcases the traditional art forms, handicrafts, and cultural heritage of Rajasthan through events such as folk music, dance performances, and exhibitions.
• A key attraction of the Bundi Festival is the colorful procession, where locals dress in traditional attire, accompanied by decorated elephants, camels, and horses.
• The festival also includes sports events, turban-tying competitions, and kite flying, reflecting the rich traditions and unique lifestyle of Rajasthan.
• The Bundi Festival is organized by the Rajasthan Tourism Department to promote tourism and cultural preservation in the region.

Additional Information

• Rajasthan:
• Rajasthan is the largest state in India by area and is located in the northwestern part of the country.
• It is known for its desert landscape, historical forts, and palaces, including the famous Amber Fort, Mehrangarh Fort, and City Palace.
• The state is famous for its folk music, traditional dances like Ghoomar, and colorful festivals such as Pushkar Fair and Desert Festival.
• The official language is Hindi, and the region is known for its unique dialects such as Marwari, Mewari, and Shekhawati.
• Traditional Art Forms:
• Rajasthan is home to a variety of traditional art forms, including miniature paintings, Pichwai art, and wall frescoes.
• Handicrafts such as block printing, blue pottery, and tie-dye textiles are renowned worldwide.
• The state is famous for its puppet shows, which are a significant part of its cultural heritage.
• Tourism in Rajasthan:
• Rajasthan is a popular tourist destination, attracting visitors for its heritage sites, wildlife sanctuaries, and desert safaris.
• Major tourist attractions include Jaipur (Pink City), Jaisalmer (Golden City), Udaipur (City of Lakes), and Mount Abu (the only hill station in Rajasthan).
• The state hosts several annual festivals, such as the Pushkar Camel Fair, Jaipur Literature Festival, and Bundi Festival, which boost tourism.
• Important Points:
• The Bundi Festival is an excellent example of how cultural events can preserve and showcase traditional heritage while promoting tourism.
• The festival highlights the rich cultural diversity of Rajasthan, making it a must-visit for those interested in Indian traditions and arts.
• It is strategically organized during the tourist season to attract both domestic and international visitors to the region.

The correct answer is Population and fertility rates.

Key Points

• The Census of India, conducted every 10 years, is the most comprehensive source of demographic data in India. It provides detailed information about the population, fertility rates, literacy levels, employment statistics, and migration patterns.
• The data gathered in the Census includes age, sex ratio, geographical distribution, and population density, which are crucial for planning and policy-making.
• The Census also records details about birth and death rates, which contribute to understanding fertility and population growth trends.
• It provides insights into demographic changes over time, enabling the government to formulate effective policies for health, education, employment, and social welfare.
• The Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India supervises the Census, ensuring the collection, analysis, and dissemination of accurate demographic data.
• Hence, the Census of India provides detailed data on population and fertility rates.

Additional Information

• History of the Indian Census:
• The first Census in India was conducted in 1872 during British rule, but it was not systematic.
• The first synchronous Census was conducted in 1881, and since then, it has been held every decade.
• The Census is governed by the Census Act, 1948, which provides legal backing to the process.
• Data Categories in the Census:
• The Census collects data on demographic, social, and economic aspects of the population.
• Categories include age, sex, marital status, language, religion, literacy, occupation, and housing conditions.
• It also records information on migration, disability, and access to basic amenities like drinking water and electricity.
• Uses of Census Data:
• The data helps in policy formulation for education, health, housing, employment, and social welfare.
• It is used for the allocation of resources, representation in legislatures, and planning of development projects.
• Researchers and organizations rely on Census data for demographic analysis and trend studies.
• Limitations of the Census:
• While the Census provides extensive data, it is conducted only once in a decade, limiting its utility for tracking rapid changes.
• Challenges include ensuring accuracy, dealing with underreporting, and logistical issues in remote areas.

Important Points

• Population Trends: India’s population has grown substantially over decades, necessitating data-driven policies for sustainable development.
• Fertility Rates: The Census data on fertility helps monitor trends and assess the impact of family planning initiatives.
• Global Comparisons: India is the second most populous country in the world, and Census data is vital for international demographic studies.
• Technological Integration: The Census process now incorporates technology for data collection, processing, and dissemination, improving accuracy and efficiency.
• 2021 Census: Due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the 2021 Census faced delays, highlighting the importance of adaptability in large-scale data collection.

The correct answer is 2006.

Key Points

• The National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) was launched in 2006 by the Government of India to drive the transformation of governance through technology.
• It aimed to make government services accessible to citizens electronically, reducing time, cost, and inefficiencies in service delivery.
• The NeGP comprised 27 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs), covering sectors such as agriculture, health, education, and financial inclusion, among others, to provide integrated services.
• The plan promoted the use of common IT infrastructure like State Data Centers (SDCs), State Wide Area Networks (SWANs), and Common Service Centers (CSCs).
• It emphasized Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) and collaboration with state governments and local bodies to achieve its goals effectively.

Additional Information

• Objectives of NeGP:
• To make government services accessible, efficient, and transparent.
• To use ICT to improve the quality of governance.
• To empower citizens by providing timely and accurate information.
• Key Components of NeGP:
• State Data Centers (SDCs): Centralized data repositories for secure storage of government data.
• State Wide Area Networks (SWANs): High-speed connectivity across government offices.
• Common Service Centers (CSCs): Front-end delivery points for public services.
• Mission Mode Projects (MMPs):
• Examples: Income Tax, Passport, Banking, Land Records, and e-District projects.
• Each MMP focused on a specific sector or service for better delivery.
• Challenges in Implementation:
• Digital Divide: Bridging gaps between urban and rural areas in technology adoption.
• Capacity Building: Training government staff for efficient use of ICT tools.
• Infrastructure: Ensuring reliable internet and power supply in remote areas.
• Impact of NeGP:
• Improved accessibility and efficiency in public service delivery.
• Promoted transparency and reduced corruption in governance.
• Enabled faster decision-making and better citizen engagement.

Important Points

• The NeGP was later subsumed into the Digital India Programme, launched in 2015, which expanded the scope of e-Governance in India.
• The Digital India Programme builds on NeGP’s foundation and focuses on universal digital literacy, digital infrastructure, and on-demand services.
• India has witnessed a significant rise in e-Governance initiatives like DigiLocker, e-Hospital, and UMANG app, which have strengthened citizen-government interaction.

The correct answer is Ola Electric.

Key Points

• Ola Electric became the first Indian electric vehicle (EV) company to receive Production Linked Incentive (PLI) approval in January 2024. The PLI scheme is designed to encourage domestic manufacturing and reduce reliance on imports.
• The Indian government introduced the PLI scheme for the automobile and auto component sector in 2021 to promote electric mobility and environmentally sustainable practices.
• Ola Electric has been a pioneer in India's EV sector, producing electric scooters and planning to expand into other EV segments like electric cars.
• The PLI scheme aims to reward companies that scale up production efficiently while contributing to the Make in India initiative and the country's push for sustainable mobility solutions.
• By receiving PLI approval, Ola Electric has further strengthened its position in the EV market, which is crucial for India's target of achieving 30% EV penetration by 2030.

Additional Information

• Ola Electric:
• Ola Electric, headquartered in Bengaluru, India, was founded by Bhavish Aggarwal in 2017. It started as a subsidiary of Ola Cabs but has emerged as a standalone EV manufacturer.
• Its flagship product, the Ola S1 and S1 Pro electric scooters, is designed to cater to India's growing demand for affordable and efficient electric vehicles.
• Ola Electric is establishing one of the world's largest EV manufacturing facilities, called the Futurefactory, in Tamil Nadu.
• The company plans to foray into the electric car segment and aims to launch new products by 2024-2025.
• Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme:
• The PLI scheme was introduced by the Government of India in March 2020 to boost domestic manufacturing across key sectors.
• For the automobile and EV sector, the scheme allocates ₹25,938 crore to support high-value advanced automotive technologies.
• Eligibility for the scheme includes companies that demonstrate strong production capabilities and contribute to India's net-zero emissions target by 2070.
• The scheme promotes innovation in batteries, EV components, and charging infrastructure.
• Other Major Players in India’s EV Industry:
• TVS Motors: Known for its iQube electric scooter, TVS focuses on expanding its EV portfolio and enhancing battery technology.
• Bajaj Auto: The maker of the Chetak electric scooter, Bajaj Auto is exploring opportunities in the EV space with a strong emphasis on sustainability.
• Ather Energy: Bengaluru-based Ather Energy produces advanced electric scooters like the Ather 450X, offering superior performance and range.
• Hero Electric: One of India's oldest EV companies, Hero Electric provides affordable two-wheeler EV solutions, focusing on the mass market.
• Government Initiatives for EVs:
• The FAME II scheme (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles) aims to accelerate EV adoption by providing subsidies to manufacturers and buyers.
• India’s target includes installing charging stations across highways and cities to support EV users.
• State governments are also rolling out EV policies, offering tax benefits and incentives to manufacturers and buyers.

Important Points

• PLI Scheme Impact:
• Boosts domestic manufacturing and reduces import dependency in key sectors like EVs.
• Encourages sustainable practices and innovation in the automotive sector.
• Contributes to India's climate goals by promoting eco-friendly technologies.
• EV Growth in India:
• India aims to achieve EV penetration of 30% in passenger cars and 80% in two-wheelers by 2030.
• Government subsidies and tax incentives are driving growth in the sector.
• Private players like Ola Electric are playing a pivotal role in achieving these targets.

The correct answer is Part II.

Key Points

• The provisions of citizenship in the Constitution of India are mentioned under Part II, which includes Articles 5 to 11.
• It defines the qualifications for being an Indian citizen at the commencement of the Constitution on 26 January 1950.
• Article 5 specifies citizenship for persons domiciled in India.
• Article 6 grants citizenship to persons who migrated to India from Pakistan before July 19, 1948, provided certain conditions are met.
• Article 7 addresses citizenship for persons who migrated to Pakistan but returned to India after July 19, 1948.
• Article 8 deals with citizenship for Indians residing outside India at the commencement of the Constitution.
• Article 9 excludes individuals who voluntarily acquired citizenship of another country.
• Article 10 confirms that every person who is a citizen of India shall continue to be so subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
• Article 11 grants Parliament the authority to regulate citizenship by law, enabling the enactment of legislations like the Citizenship Act, 1955.

Additional Information

• Citizenship Act, 1955:
• The Citizenship Act, 1955, enacted by Parliament, provides the legal framework for acquiring, renouncing, or terminating Indian citizenship.
• The Act outlines five modes of acquiring citizenship: birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and incorporation of territory.
• The Act has undergone several amendments, including the controversial Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019, which grants citizenship to persecuted minorities from neighboring countries.
• Concept of Domicile:
• The term domicile refers to an individual's permanent residence in India, which is a key criterion for citizenship under Article 5.
• Domicile is distinct from temporary residence and is determined by legal principles and intent to reside permanently.
• Difference Between Citizenship and Nationality:
• Citizenship is a legal status granted by a country and entails rights and obligations under its Constitution or laws.
• Nationality is broader and refers to a person's membership in a nation, often based on cultural, ethnic, or historical factors.
• Historical Background:
• The provisions for citizenship in the Indian Constitution were influenced by the partition of India and migration issues during independence.
• The framers of the Constitution sought to address the complexities of defining citizenship in a newly independent and diverse nation.
• Important Points:
• India does not allow dual citizenship. A person cannot hold citizenship of India and another country simultaneously.
• Over the years, amendments and laws have been introduced to address contemporary issues related to citizenship, including migration and refugee crises.

The correct answer is Fixed term till maturity.

Key Points

• A Fixed Deposit (FD) is a financial instrument provided by banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) that offers investors a higher rate of interest than a regular savings account until the given maturity date.
• The primary characteristic of an FD is its fixed term until maturity, which means the deposit is locked for a specific period, ranging from 7 days to 10 years, depending on the financial institution.
• Depositors cannot withdraw the money before the maturity date without incurring a penalty, which ensures discipline and stability in savings.
• The interest rate for an FD is fixed at the time of deposit and remains unaffected by market fluctuations, providing a secure and predictable return on investment.
• FDs are often considered a low-risk investment option for individuals looking for guaranteed returns and are widely used for financial planning and savings.

Additional Information

• Key Features of Fixed Deposits:
• FDs offer interest rates higher than regular savings accounts, making them an attractive option for risk-averse investors.
• The interest earned on FDs is taxable under the Income Tax Act, 1961, but senior citizens are eligible for additional interest rates and tax benefits under certain schemes.
• FDs are available in two types: Cumulative (interest paid at maturity) and Non-Cumulative (interest paid at regular intervals).
• Comparison with Other Deposit Types:
• Demand Deposits: These are funds that can be withdrawn at any time without prior notice, such as savings or current accounts. They lack the fixed tenure feature of FDs.
• Recurring Deposits (RDs): Unlike FDs, RDs require depositors to invest a fixed sum periodically, and the total amount is returned with interest at maturity. RDs are suitable for individuals who wish to save regularly.
• Advantages of Fixed Deposits:
• FDs are a safe investment option as they are not subject to market risks and fluctuations.
• They are ideal for individuals looking to preserve capital while earning stable returns.
• FDs can also be used as collateral for loans, providing liquidity without the need to break the deposit.
• Examples:
• Public sector banks like the State Bank of India (SBI) and private banks like HDFC Bank offer attractive FD schemes to cater to various financial needs of individuals.
• Special schemes like tax-saving FDs allow deductions under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, with a lock-in period of 5 years.

Important Points

• Penalty for Premature Withdrawal: Breaking an FD before its maturity date often incurs penalties, typically a reduction in the applicable interest rate. This discourages premature withdrawal and ensures long-term savings discipline.
• Senior Citizen Benefits: Many banks offer higher interest rates on FDs for senior citizens, making them a popular choice among retirees for stable income.
• Nomination Facility: FDs allow depositors to nominate a beneficiary to receive the funds in case of unforeseen circumstances, ensuring financial security for family members.
• FDs in Rural Areas: Rural and cooperative banks also provide fixed deposit schemes, promoting savings culture even in remote areas.

The correct answer is ₹15,000 - ₹18,000.

Key Points

• The new rooftop solar scheme aims to promote the adoption of solar energy for residential and small-scale commercial use, reducing dependence on conventional power sources.
• Under this scheme, households and small establishments can expect annual savings ranging from ₹15,000 to ₹18,000 through reduced electricity bills.
• The initiative leverages subsidies and incentives provided by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) to make solar installations affordable.
• Rooftop solar panels help households generate their own electricity, which is not only eco-friendly but also reduces the burden on the national grid.
• As per recent government data, the scheme has been implemented successfully across various states in India, significantly contributing to the country's target of achieving 175 GW renewable energy capacity by 2022.

Additional Information

• Rooftop Solar Scheme:
• The scheme is part of India's broader goal to transition to renewable energy sources and reduce carbon emissions.
• It primarily targets households, small businesses, and industries to adopt solar energy by providing capital subsidies ranging from 20% to 40%, depending on the state and type of installation.
• The scheme encourages the use of net metering, allowing users to sell surplus electricity back to the grid, providing additional savings.
• Benefits of Solar Energy:
• Solar energy is a renewable, clean, and sustainable source of power, reducing dependence on fossil fuels.
• It helps in lowering electricity bills significantly, offering long-term financial savings.
• Solar panels have a lifespan of over 20 years, ensuring consistent savings over their operational period.
• Implementation:
• The rooftop solar scheme is implemented through state nodal agencies, DISCOMs (distribution companies), and Common Service Centers (CSCs).
• Beneficiaries can apply online through portals such as the National Portal for Rooftop Solar, which simplifies the application process.
• Global Context:
• Countries like Germany, Australia, and the United States have successfully adopted rooftop solar systems, showcasing the potential for energy savings and environmental benefits.
• India ranks among the top countries actively promoting solar energy under its National Solar Mission.

Important Points

• Key Features of Rooftop Solar Scheme:
• Subsidies are provided by the government to make solar panel installations cost-effective.
• Net metering allows users to sell surplus electricity back to the grid.
• Promotes environmental sustainability by reducing carbon footprints.
• Encourages the adoption of decentralized energy systems, reducing the load on conventional power plants.
• Challenges in Implementation:
• High upfront costs can deter some users despite subsidies.
• Lack of awareness in certain regions about the financial and environmental benefits of solar power.
• Dependence on weather conditions can impact efficiency, requiring advanced storage solutions.

The correct answer is Kisaan Kanya.

Key Points

• Kisaan Kanya was the first indigenously made Indian colour film, released in the year 1937.
• The film was directed by Moti B. Gidwani and produced by Ardeshir Irani, who is also credited for producing India's first talkie film, Alam Ara, in 1931.
• Kisaan Kanya was based on a story that revolved around the plight of farmers and the exploitation they faced under the zamindari (landlord) system in pre-independent India.
• The movie was processed using the Cinecolor process, which was a two-colour (red and green) process, marking a significant milestone in Indian cinema's technical advancements.
• Despite its historic importance, Kisaan Kanya did not achieve commercial success but remains a landmark in the history of Indian cinema for being the first colour film produced in India.

Additional Information

• Ardeshir Irani:
• Ardeshir Irani was a pioneer in Indian cinema and is credited with producing India's first talkie film, Alam Ara, in 1931.
• He contributed significantly to the early development of Indian cinema, experimenting with sound and colour technologies.
• Irani’s productions played a key role in shaping the Indian film industry during its formative years.
• Cinecolor Process:
• This was a two-colour motion picture film process widely used in the early 20th century.
• Unlike the modern three-strip Technicolor process, Cinecolor used only two colours – red and green – making it less expensive but with limited colour fidelity.
• The process allowed filmmakers in countries like India to explore the use of colour in cinema without incurring high costs.
• Other Milestones in Indian Cinema:
• Alam Ara (1931): India's first talkie film, directed by Ardeshir Irani.
• Raja Harishchandra (1913): India's first silent feature film, directed by Dadasaheb Phalke.
• Mughal-e-Azam (1960): One of the earliest Indian films to use Technicolor, directed by K. Asif.
• Sairandhri (1933): An early Indian colour film, although its processing was done in Germany.
• Impact of Colour Films in Indian Cinema:
• The introduction of colour films marked a significant step in the evolution of Indian cinema, enhancing visual storytelling and audience engagement.
• Colour films gained popularity in the 1950s and 1960s, with iconic movies such as Mother India (1957) and Mughal-e-Azam (1960).
• The transition to colour paved the way for the vibrant and visually rich cinematography that characterizes Indian cinema today.

The correct answer is International Booker Prize.

Key Points

• Geetanjali Shree's novel "Tomb of Sand" became the first Hindi-language book to win the prestigious International Booker Prize in 2022.
• The novel was originally written in Hindi under the title "Ret Samadhi" and later translated into English by Daisy Rockwell.
• It is a groundbreaking achievement as it marked the first time a book written in any Indian language received this global recognition.
• The International Booker Prize celebrates the finest works of fiction translated into English from around the world, emphasizing the importance of translation in literature.
• "Tomb of Sand" is a story about an 80-year-old woman who gains a new perspective on life after the death of her husband, exploring themes of feminism, partition, and identity.

Additional Information

• About the International Booker Prize:
• The International Booker Prize is awarded annually to a book translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.
• The prize recognizes both the author and the translator, with the £50,000 prize money split equally between them.
• It was originally established in 2005 and has undergone several changes, including its current format introduced in 2016.
• The prize aims to promote international literature and encourage the recognition of translators' contributions to global literary culture.
• About Geetanjali Shree:
• Geetanjali Shree is an Indian author known for her contributions to Hindi literature.
• She has written several novels and short story collections, with her works often exploring themes of identity, history, and social change.
• Her works have been translated into multiple languages, including English, French, and German.
• About Daisy Rockwell:
• Daisy Rockwell is an American translator, painter, and writer, best known for her translations of Hindi and Urdu literature into English.
• Her translation of "Tomb of Sand" was praised for its linguistic finesse and ability to capture the essence of the original text.
• Other Awards Related to Literature:
• Nobel Prize in Literature: Awarded annually since 1901 for outstanding contributions to the field of literature.
• Pulitzer Prize: Established in 1917, it recognizes achievements in journalism, literature, and musical composition in the United States.
• Jnanpith Award: India's highest literary honor, awarded annually since 1965 to authors for their exceptional contributions to Indian literature.

Important Points

• Significance of the Award:
• The International Booker Prize highlights the diversity of global literature, bringing works from different languages to a wider audience.
• It plays a crucial role in promoting cultural exchange and understanding through literature.
• Impact of "Tomb of Sand":
• Its win has drawn global attention to Hindi literature and Indian storytelling traditions.
• The novel's themes resonate universally, making it a significant contribution to world literature.

The correct answer is Marine pollution harms marine life.

Key Points

• Space debris re-entering Earth's atmosphere often falls into the ocean or onto land, posing a direct ecological risk. This debris can include materials such as metals, plastics, and other non-biodegradable elements.
• When space debris falls into the ocean, it contributes to marine pollution, which can harm marine life by contaminating water and ecosystems. Hence, the statement "Marine pollution harms marine life" is correct.
• Space debris can introduce toxic substances, such as heavy metals or chemicals, into the marine environment. These contaminants can disrupt the food chain and cause long-term ecological damage.
• Marine organisms, including fish, coral reefs, and plankton, can be affected by the debris, which may cause physical harm, ingestion of toxic particles, or habitat disruption.
• On land, space debris can damage soil quality and vegetation if it contains harmful substances. However, the impact is more concentrated when debris lands in water bodies, amplifying the risk to marine biodiversity.

Additional Information

• Reduction of Atmospheric CO2:
• This option is incorrect as space debris does not contribute to reducing atmospheric CO2. CO2 reduction is primarily linked to natural processes like photosynthesis and human efforts such as renewable energy adoption.
• Increase in Rainfall Worldwide:
• Space debris re-entering the atmosphere does not influence rainfall patterns on a global scale. Rainfall is determined by climatic factors such as temperature, atmospheric pressure, and humidity.
• Decline in Soil Fertility:
• While space debris can cause localized soil contamination, it does not result in a widespread decline in soil fertility. Fertility changes are more commonly caused by agricultural practices, deforestation, or chemical pollution.
• Marine Pollution and Its Effects:
• Marine pollution is a critical ecological issue that arises from activities such as oil spills, dumping of plastics, and industrial waste. Space debris falling into oceans contributes to this problem.
• Pollution affects marine ecosystems, leading to the loss of biodiversity and disruption of food chains.
• Efforts to combat marine pollution include international agreements like the MARPOL Convention and initiatives such as ocean clean-up projects.

Important Points

• Space debris statistics: As of 2023, there are over 36,000 trackable pieces of debris orbiting Earth, with millions of smaller fragments posing risks to ecosystems upon re-entry.
• International efforts: Organizations like UN Office for Outer Space Affairs (UNOOSA) and NASA work on guidelines for reducing space debris through responsible satellite disposal and re-entry protocols.
• Marine species most affected: Organisms such as sea turtles, fish, and marine mammals are especially vulnerable to ingesting or being entangled in debris.
• Legal frameworks: Treaties like the Outer Space Treaty (1967) emphasize the responsibility of nations to prevent harmful contamination of Earth's environment, including through space activities.

The correct answer is Balathal.

Key Points

• Balathal is a significant archaeological site located in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan, India. It is one of the key sites associated with the Ahar-Banas Chalcolithic culture, dating back to approximately 3000 BCE.
• The site of Balathal revealed the remains of a massive earthen wall of fortification at the center of the mound, indicating the presence of advanced urban planning and protection strategies during the Chalcolithic period.
• Excavations at Balathal have uncovered evidence of continuous habitation from the early Chalcolithic period to the early Historic period, showcasing its long-term significance in ancient Indian history.
• Artifacts found include microlithic tools, pottery, and faunal remains, which provide insight into the daily lives and economic activities of the people of the Ahar culture.
• Balathal is particularly important for its evidence of early agricultural practices, including the cultivation of crops such as barley and wheat, and domestication of animals.

Additional Information

• Ahar-Banas Culture:
• The Ahar-Banas culture, also known as the Chalcolithic culture of southeastern Rajasthan, is characterized by its distinct red and black pottery.
• This culture flourished from approximately 3000 BCE to 1500 BCE and is named after the Ahar River in Rajasthan.
• Sites like Balathal and Gilund are key examples of this culture, showcasing early advancements in agriculture, metallurgy, and settlement planning.
• Other Key Chalcolithic Sites:
• Inamgaon: Located in Maharashtra, Inamgaon is a late Harappan site featuring evidence of agricultural practices, burial customs, and mud-brick houses.
• Kayatha: Situated in Madhya Pradesh, Kayatha culture is marked by ochre-colored pottery, microliths, and evidence of early copper usage.
• Daimabad: Located in Maharashtra, this site is famous for its bronze artifacts and is considered a late Harappan site with links to the Chalcolithic period.
• Importance of Fortifications in Chalcolithic Sites:
• Fortifications, like the massive earthen wall at Balathal, indicate the need for protection against external threats and suggest the presence of organized societies.
• Such structures also reflect the technological capabilities and resource management of Chalcolithic communities.
• Significance of Balathal:
• Balathal provides key insights into the transition from hunting-gathering to settled agricultural societies in ancient India.
• The site's findings contribute to our understanding of early human adaptation to environmental and social changes.

Important Points

• Metallurgy: The Ahar-Banas culture is known for its early use of copper tools and implements, showcasing advancements in metallurgy.
• Pottery: Red and black pottery with geometric designs is a hallmark of the Ahar culture, reflecting their artistic and functional use of ceramics.
• Environmental Adaptation: The inhabitants of Balathal adapted to the semi-arid environment by developing efficient agricultural techniques and water management systems.
• Excavation Efforts: Archaeological efforts at Balathal have been instrumental in understanding the socio-economic and cultural aspects of Chalcolithic societies in India.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Karnataka Gram Swaraj and Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was introduced to amend the Gram Swaraj and Panchayat Raj Act, 1993.
• One of the key provisions of this amendment includes disqualifying individuals who have been dismissed or given compulsory retirement from government service or cooperative institutions from becoming members of village, taluk, and district panchayats.
• The bill aims to enhance accountability and integrity in panchayat-level governance by ensuring that individuals with compromised service records are not eligible for elected positions.
• It is expected to strengthen the administrative framework of local governance by ensuring that elected members uphold ethical standards.
• This initiative is part of Karnataka's broader efforts to reform governance at the grassroots level and improve transparency in rural administration.

Additional Information

• Karnataka Panchayat Raj System:
• The Panchayat Raj system in Karnataka is governed by the Gram Swaraj and Panchayat Raj Act, 1993, which provides a framework for decentralized governance in rural areas.
• Karnataka has three tiers of panchayat governance: Gram Panchayat (village level), Taluk Panchayat (block level), and Zilla Panchayat (district level).
• The primary objective of the system is to promote grassroots democracy and ensure people's participation in decision-making processes.
• Purpose of the Amendment:
• The amendment seeks to ensure that individuals with tainted service records do not hold positions of power within the panchayat system.
• It aims to enhance the credibility and ethical standards of elected representatives at the rural governance level.
• Features of Panchayat Raj System:
• It provides a platform for the implementation of rural development programs, including schemes related to health, education, sanitation, and infrastructure.
• The system encourages local self-governance by empowering villagers to make decisions that directly impact their communities.
• It plays a crucial role in the decentralization of power, as envisioned by the Constitution of India under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
• Similar Initiatives in Other States:
• States like Kerala and Gujarat have also taken steps to improve transparency and accountability in their panchayat systems.
• For example, Kerala is known for its People’s Plan Campaign, which promotes participatory planning at the grassroots level.

Important Points

• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992:
• This amendment established the Panchayati Raj system as the third tier of governance in India.
• It mandates the creation of elected bodies at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
• It provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women in panchayat elections.
• Article 243 of the Constitution:
• Articles 243 to 243-O deal with the Panchayati Raj system and outline the powers, structure, and responsibilities of panchayats.
• These provisions ensure the autonomy and functional independence of local self-governing bodies.
• Karnataka's Rural Governance Programs:
• Karnataka has implemented several innovative programs to improve rural governance, such as the Rural Development and Panchayat Raj Department's e-Governance initiative.
• These programs aim to increase efficiency and transparency in the delivery of services to rural communities.

The correct answer is More than 50%.

Key Points

• According to the CSDS-Lokniti 2024 Pre-Poll Survey on the perception of corruption, a significant portion of respondents expressed concerns about corruption trends in the country over the last five years.
• More than 50% of the respondents believed that corruption has increased during this period.
• The survey aimed to gauge public opinion on governance, transparency, and corruption levels under the current government.
• Respondents included individuals from diverse socioeconomic, demographic, and regional backgrounds to ensure a comprehensive and unbiased representation of public opinion.
• Such surveys are pivotal in understanding public sentiment and assessing the effectiveness of anti-corruption measures implemented by the government.

Additional Information

• About the CSDS-Lokniti Survey:
• The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS) conducts surveys through its Lokniti program, focusing on political and social trends in India.
• The 2024 pre-poll survey specifically measured public perceptions of corruption, governance, and political accountability.
• Corruption Trends in India:
• Corruption perception surveys often highlight citizens' dissatisfaction with bureaucratic inefficiency and lack of transparency in governance.
• India's ranking on the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) by Transparency International has varied, reflecting ongoing efforts and challenges in combating corruption.
• Anti-Corruption Measures:
• Government initiatives like the Digital India campaign, Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), and e-Governance programs aim to reduce opportunities for corruption.
• Laws such as the Prevention of Corruption Act and the establishment of institutions like the Lokpal have been instrumental in addressing corruption at various levels.
• Examples of Public Sentiment:
• Public sentiment often correlates with high-profile corruption cases, scams, or inefficiencies in service delivery.
• Regions with greater transparency in governance tend to report lower perceptions of corruption.

Important Points

• Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI):
• Published annually by Transparency International, the CPI ranks countries based on perceived corruption levels in the public sector.
• India's ranking in the CPI serves as a global indicator of its anti-corruption performance.
• Public Participation in Governance:
• Increased public awareness and participation in governance are critical to holding officials accountable and reducing corruption.
• Civic engagement platforms and whistleblower protection laws play a crucial role in this regard.
• Challenges in Combating Corruption:
• Structural issues such as bureaucratic red tape, lack of transparency, and weak institutional mechanisms contribute to corruption.
• Efforts to improve transparency, accountability, and public service delivery are ongoing but face significant challenges.

The correct answer is Environmental security or conflict nexus.

Key Points

• Environmental security or conflict nexus describes the relationship between environmental degradation and social instability. It highlights how environmental challenges can lead to competition over limited resources, exacerbating conflicts.
• This concept is particularly relevant in areas experiencing scarcity of water, arable land, and other vital resources, where environmental stress can lead to migration, economic instability, and even violent conflict.
• Environmental degradation, such as deforestation, pollution, and climate change, can weaken the capacity of societies to adapt, increasing vulnerability to disasters and societal tensions.
• In regions where livelihoods depend heavily on natural resources, environmental issues can amplify pre-existing social or political grievances, creating a feedback loop of instability and degradation.
• Examples include conflicts in areas like Sudan, Syria, and the Sahel region, where environmental stressors like drought and desertification have heightened competition over resources, contributing to social unrest.

Additional Information

• Technological determinism:
• Refers to the idea that technological innovations drive changes in society.
• While it shapes societal structures, it does not directly explain the link between environmental degradation and social instability.
• Example: The impact of industrial revolution technologies on societal organization.
• Resilience theory:
• Focuses on the ability of systems—such as ecosystems or human societies—to recover from disturbances.
• It explains adaptation and recovery but does not specifically address how degradation leads to instability.
• Example: Communities rebuilding after natural disasters like floods or hurricanes.
• Tipping point in ecosystems:
• Describes a critical threshold at which a small change can cause a dramatic shift in an ecosystem.
• It highlights environmental impacts but does not directly connect to social instability.
• Example: Coral reefs shifting from biodiversity-rich systems to algae-dominated ecosystems due to pollution and warming seas.
• Environmental security or conflict nexus:
• Highlights the interplay between environmental degradation and social instability.
• Addresses issues like resource scarcity, climate change, and their effects on migration and conflict.
• Example: Droughts in the Sahel region leading to resource-based conflicts and migration.

Important Points

• Global reports: Reports like the Global Risks Report by the World Economic Forum highlight environmental security as one of the key challenges to global peace.
• UN initiatives: The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) works on programs addressing environmental security and conflict resolution.
• Case studies: Research on conflicts in regions such as Darfur reveals direct links between environmental degradation and social instability.
• Policy implications: Governments worldwide are increasingly integrating environmental security into national defense strategies to mitigate risks associated with climate change and resource scarcity.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• The Malwa culture belongs to the Chalcolithic period, which is characterized by the use of both copper and stone tools.
• Malwa culture sites are primarily found in the region that now comprises parts of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh, with the most significant discoveries being in areas like Nevasa, Daimabad, and Inamgaon in Maharashtra.
• The Chalcolithic Malwa culture is primarily identified by its distinctive painted pottery, which is red or orange with black geometric patterns, floral motifs, and animal designs.
• The archaeological findings from Malwa culture sites include mud houses, fortified settlements, and evidence of agriculture, indicating a settled agrarian lifestyle.
• Other findings include tools made of copper and stone, indicating the transitional phase between the Stone Age and the Metal Age, as well as artifacts showing trade and craft specialization.

Additional Information

• Chalcolithic Period:
• The Chalcolithic period, also known as the Copper-Stone Age, marks a transitional phase between the Neolithic (Stone Age) and the Bronze Age.
• This period is characterized by the use of copper tools alongside stone tools.
• Chalcolithic cultures in India include the Malwa culture, Jorwe culture, and Ahar-Banas culture, among others.
• Malwa Culture:
• Malwa culture is named after the Malwa Plateau in central India, where many of its archaeological sites are located.
• The pottery of Malwa culture is considered one of the most distinctive features, with its red or orange base and black painted designs.
• The people of Malwa culture practiced agriculture, with evidence of crops like barley, wheat, and lentils found at excavation sites.
• Settlements were often fortified, and houses were made of mud or mud-brick.
• Important Sites of Malwa Culture:
• Nevasa: Located in Maharashtra, this site provides evidence of painted pottery, copper tools, and a developed agricultural system.
• Daimabad: Famous for its bronze sculptures and large-scale settlement planning.
• Inamgaon: A significant settlement in Maharashtra, with findings of burials, pottery, and tools.
• Other States in the Options:
• Kerala: No evidence of Malwa culture has been found here. Kerala is better known for its Neolithic and Iron Age megalithic culture.
• Assam: This region is associated with Neolithic and early Iron Age cultures, but not Chalcolithic Malwa culture.
• Himachal Pradesh: Archaeological findings here are primarily linked to the later Harappan and early Iron Age periods, not the Malwa culture.

Important Points

• Distinctive Pottery: Malwa culture's painted pottery is a hallmark and serves as a key identifier for archaeologists.
• Settlements: The fortified nature of settlements and the presence of mud houses indicate organized planning and defense mechanisms.
• Copper Artifacts: Tools and ornaments made of copper highlight the advancement in metal usage during this period.
• Trade Evidence: Artifacts like beads and semi-precious stones suggest trade links with other regions.
• Burial Practices: Evidence of burial customs indicates social stratification and ritual practices among the Malwa people.

The correct answer is Ravichandran Ashwin.

Key Points

• Ravichandran Ashwin, one of the most celebrated cricketers in Indian cricket history, was awarded the prestigious Padma Award in 2025. The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honors in India.
• The Padma Awards are categorized into three classes: Padma Vibhushan (highest), Padma Bhushan (middle), and Padma Shri (basic). Ashwin received this award in recognition of his exceptional contributions to Indian cricket.
• Ravichandran Ashwin is renowned for his all-round performance as an off-spin bowler and a useful batsman. He has been a vital part of the Indian cricket team across all formats, especially in Test cricket.
• Ashwin is one of the fastest bowlers to reach 450 Test wickets. His achievements include multiple international cricket awards, highlighting his excellence in bowling and his match-winning performances.
• Ravichandran Ashwin has represented India in several international tournaments, including the ICC Cricket World Cup, ICC World Test Championship, and bilateral series against major cricketing nations.
• The Padma Award in 2025 acknowledged Ashwin's consistent contribution to Indian cricket and his role in elevating the global stature of the Indian cricket team.

Additional Information

• Padma Awards:
• The Padma Awards are given annually by the Government of India to individuals for their exceptional contributions in various fields such as art, literature, science, sports, and social work.
• The award ceremony takes place at the Rashtrapati Bhavan, where the recipients are honored by the President of India.
• The Padma Shri award, which is the basic category, is given to individuals for distinguished service in their respective fields.
• Ravichandran Ashwin's Cricket Career:
• Born on 17 September 1986, Ashwin is a native of Chennai, Tamil Nadu. He started his cricketing journey as a batsman but later evolved into one of India's finest spin bowlers.
• He is known for his innovative bowling techniques, including variations like the carrom ball.
• Ashwin has been a part of several IPL franchises, including Chennai Super Kings, Delhi Capitals, and Rajasthan Royals, contributing significantly to their success.
• Achievements in International Cricket:
• Ashwin has won multiple awards, such as the ICC Test Player of the Year and Arjuna Award, showcasing his brilliance on the field.
• He holds the record for being the fastest Indian bowler to reach 200 Test wickets.
• His contributions have played a pivotal role in India's victories in both bilateral series and ICC tournaments.
• Other Padma Awardee Cricketers:
• Several cricketers have received Padma Awards for their contributions to Indian cricket, including Virender Sehwag, Rahul Dravid, and Yuvraj Singh.
• Rahul Dravid was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2019, recognizing his achievements as a legendary batsman and captain of the Indian cricket team.
• Virender Sehwag, known for his explosive batting, received the Padma Shri in 2010.
• Yuvraj Singh, famous for his heroic performances in the ICC 2011 Cricket World Cup, was honored with the Padma Shri in 2014.

Important Points

• Selection Process for Padma Awards:
• The Padma Awards are announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
• A committee appointed by the Prime Minister reviews and finalizes the list of awardees based on their contributions.
• The final list is approved by the President of India.
• Ashwin's Contribution to Indian Cricket:
• Ashwin has been a mentor to young spinners, sharing his expertise and guiding the next generation of cricketers.
• His performances in challenging overseas conditions have solidified his status as one of the greatest spin bowlers in cricket history.
• He has also made significant contributions as a batsman, including scoring five Test centuries.

The correct answer is Stock Exchange.

Key Points

• Stock exchanges play a pivotal role in reducing information asymmetry in financial markets by ensuring transparency in financial transactions and providing a centralized marketplace for securities trading.
• These exchanges mandate the disclosure of financial information by listed companies, which reduces the gap between what insiders know and what is publicly available, thus mitigating information asymmetry.
• Through strict regulatory frameworks, stock exchanges ensure that all market participants have equal access to accurate and timely information, fostering fair trading practices.
• They also serve as platforms for the dissemination of real-time data such as stock prices, trading volumes, and other market trends, which helps investors make informed decisions.
• By implementing mechanisms such as circuit breakers and surveillance systems, stock exchanges help maintain market integrity, preventing misuse of private information and insider trading.

Additional Information

• Central Bank:
• The central bank, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), plays a key role in regulating monetary policy, but its primary focus is on ensuring price stability, managing inflation, and controlling interest rates rather than directly reducing information asymmetry in financial markets.
• However, it does indirectly contribute to transparency through regulations and guidelines issued for financial institutions.
• Insurance Companies:
• Insurance companies primarily focus on providing risk coverage and financial security to individuals and businesses.
• They do not have a direct role in reducing information asymmetry in financial markets but adhere to transparency norms set by regulators such as the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
• Stock Exchange:
• A stock exchange is a centralized marketplace where securities like stocks and bonds are traded.
• Examples of stock exchanges include the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE), National Stock Exchange (NSE), and Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
• It provides a platform for companies to raise capital by issuing shares and ensures that all market participants have access to the same information through mandatory disclosures.
• The stock exchange is also responsible for ensuring that listed companies comply with corporate governance norms.
• Commercial Banks:
• Commercial banks primarily focus on providing financial services such as lending, deposits, and investment products.
• While they contribute to financial stability, their role in reducing information asymmetry in financial markets is limited compared to stock exchanges.

Important Points

• Information Asymmetry:
• It refers to a situation where one party in a transaction has access to more or better information than the other, leading to an imbalance in decision-making power.
• Stock exchanges reduce this asymmetry by making financial and operational information of companies available to all investors.
• Regulatory Role:
• Stock exchanges work under the supervision of financial regulators like the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in India or the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) in the United States.
• These regulators enforce rules to ensure market transparency, prevent fraud, and protect investors.
• Real-Time Data:
• Stock exchanges provide real-time data on stock prices and market trends, enabling investors to make well-informed decisions.
• This feature is critical for reducing the time lag in information dissemination, a key factor in minimizing information asymmetry.

The correct answer is The river Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar..

Key Points

• The Ganga River, one of the most sacred rivers in India, originates from the Gangotri Glacier in the Uttarakhand Himalayas. Its source is at Gaumukh, located at an elevation of about 3,892 meters above sea level.
• The river descends from the mountains and enters the plains at Haridwar, a city in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. This marks the beginning of its flow through the fertile Gangetic plains.
• Haridwar is considered a holy city in Hinduism, and the river's entry into the plains here is of significant religious and geographical importance.
• The Ganga flows through several states in India, including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal, before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• The river supports millions of people by providing water for drinking, irrigation, and industrial purposes. It is also a lifeline for the agriculture-based economy of the Gangetic plains.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Varanasi
• Varanasi is a city in Uttar Pradesh situated on the banks of the Ganga. It is known for its religious significance, but the river Ganga does not enter the plains here. Instead, it flows through Varanasi much later in its course.
• Varanasi is famous for its ghats, temples, and as a center of learning and spirituality.
• Option 3: Shimla
• Shimla, the capital city of Himachal Pradesh, is located in the Himalayan region. It is a hill station but does not lie along the course of the Ganga River.
• The Ganga originates further east in Uttarakhand and does not pass through Shimla at any point.
• Option 4: Hubli
• Hubli is a city located in Karnataka in southern India. It is far from the Ganga River basin and has no connection with the river.
• The river Ganga flows through northern and eastern India, making Hubli geographically irrelevant to this context.
• Significance of Haridwar:
• Haridwar is one of the seven holiest places in Hinduism (Sapta Puri) and is associated with the legend of the Kumbh Mela, which is celebrated every 12 years.
• The Ganga River is worshipped in Haridwar, and millions of pilgrims visit the city annually to take a holy dip in the river.
• Religious and Cultural Importance of the Ganga:
• The Ganga is considered a goddess in Hindu mythology and is often referred to as Ganga Maa.
• It plays a vital role in religious ceremonies such as pujas, cremations, and festivals.
• The river is also a key element in India's cultural and spiritual heritage.

The correct answer is Services.

Key Points

• The 71st Senior National Men’s Kabaddi Championship was held in 2025, featuring top teams from across India competing for the prestigious title.
• The Services team emerged victorious, showcasing remarkable skills, teamwork, and strategy throughout the tournament.
• The Services team is renowned for its consistent performance in national kabaddi championships, owing to the disciplined training and athleticism of its players.
• Other participating teams, such as Railway, Kerala, and Maharashtra, also demonstrated strong performances, but the Services team dominated the competition.
• The championship served as a platform to highlight the growing popularity of kabaddi in India and the exceptional talent of players from diverse regions.

Additional Information

• Kabaddi in India:
• Kabaddi is a traditional Indian sport that originated in ancient India and has gained international recognition over the years.
• It is governed by the Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI), which organizes various national-level tournaments.
• The sport has two formats: circle-style kabaddi (popular in Punjab) and standard-style kabaddi (played internationally).
• Services Team:
• The Services team primarily comprises athletes from the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force, representing the defense forces of India.
• Known for their physical fitness, strategic approach, and disciplined gameplay, the team has consistently performed well in national kabaddi events.
• They have won multiple national championships, solidifying their reputation as one of the strongest kabaddi teams in India.
• Other Teams in the Championship:
• Railway: The Railway team often features experienced players who have competed in various domestic and international kabaddi tournaments.
• Kerala: Known for producing skilled kabaddi players, Kerala’s team is a strong contender in national championships.
• Maharashtra: Maharashtra has a rich kabaddi tradition and consistently fields competitive teams in national-level events.
• Significance of National Kabaddi Championships:
• The Senior National Kabaddi Championship is one of the premier kabaddi tournaments in India, attracting top talent from all over the country.
• It serves as a platform for players to showcase their skills and potentially earn selection for the Indian national kabaddi team.
• The championship helps promote kabaddi as a sport and inspires young athletes to pursue it professionally.

Important Points

• Kabaddi’s Global Presence:
• India has been a dominant force in kabaddi internationally, having won multiple Asian Games gold medals and World Cup titles.
• The Pro Kabaddi League (PKL), launched in 2014, has significantly boosted the sport’s popularity and viewership across the globe.
• Kabaddi is played in several countries, including Bangladesh, Iran, South Korea, Japan, and Pakistan, among others.
• Training and Development:
• Several kabaddi academies and training centers have been established in India to nurture young talent.
• Players undergo rigorous physical and tactical training to excel in the sport.
• Many kabaddi players hail from rural areas, where the sport is deeply rooted in the culture and lifestyle.

The correct answer is 74%.

Key Points

• Union Budget 2024-2025 emphasizes gender inclusivity and empowerment by allocating 74% of houses under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin) to women as joint or sole owners.
• This initiative aims to enhance the dignity, social status, and financial security of women in rural areas, aligning with the government’s vision of women-led development.
• The PM Awas Yojana (Gramin) focuses on providing affordable housing in rural areas, addressing the housing shortage among economically weaker sections.
• By offering ownership to women, the scheme fosters gender parity, strengthens family bonds, and improves the overall socio-economic conditions of beneficiaries.
• Such measures are aligned with India’s commitment to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) 5, which focuses on gender equality and empowerment.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin):
• Launched in 2016, this scheme aims to provide affordable housing to rural families living in kutcha houses or without houses.
• The target is to construct 2.95 crore houses by March 2024 across rural areas.
• Beneficiaries are selected based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.
• The scheme provides financial assistance of up to ₹1.20 lakh in plains and ₹1.30 lakh in hilly regions.
• Women Empowerment in PMAY:
• Ownership of houses in women’s names ensures long-term security and autonomy.
• It helps in breaking social stereotypes and promotes economic independence.
• Women’s participation in housing decisions leads to better management of household resources.
• Sustainable Development Goals (SDG 5):
• SDG 5 focuses on achieving gender equality and empowering all women and girls.
• India’s initiatives under schemes like PMAY contribute significantly to fulfilling the global gender equality agenda.
• Impact of PMAY on Rural Development:
• Improved housing conditions lead to better health, education, and overall living standards.
• Boosts local employment through construction activities and related industries.
• Strengthens rural infrastructure and reduces migration to urban areas.

Important Points

• Budget Allocation: The Union Budget 2024-2025 allocated significant funds to housing schemes under PMAY to achieve its rural housing goals.
• Beneficiary Criteria: Families from economically weaker sections, scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, and other marginalized groups are prioritized.
• Government Support: Additional provisions like toilets, electricity, and LPG connections are integrated into PMAY houses under convergence with other schemes.
• Implementation: The scheme is executed through state governments and local bodies to ensure effective delivery and monitoring.
• Livelihood Opportunities: The scheme indirectly creates employment opportunities in rural areas through construction and allied activities.

Shortcut Trick

Total Simple Interest percentage for 2 years = Rate × Time

Total Interest % = 4% × 2 = 8%

Simple Interest = 8% of ₹3,00,000

Simple Interest = (8 ÷ 100) × 3,00,000 = 24000

∴ The correct answer is ₹24000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3,00,000

Rate of Interest (R) = 4% per annum

Time Period (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

      Start Year 1 Year 2 ₹3,00,000   +4% (₹12,000) +4% (₹12,000) Total Simple Interest = ₹24,000

Calculations:

⇒ SI = (3,00,000 × 4 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 3000 × 8

⇒ SI = 24000

∴ The correct answer is ₹24000.

Additional Information

Amount Formula

The total amount to be paid after the given time is Amount (A) = Principal + Simple Interest.

Compound Interest

If interest is compounded annually, CI = P × (1 + R ÷ 100)^T − P.

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years

Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)².

Shortcut Trick

In a continuous proportion, the product of the means equals the product of the extremes.

y × y = 84 × 21

y² = (21 × 4) × 21

y² = 21² × 2² = 42²

y = 42

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Alternate Method

Given:

The given proportion is 84 : y :: y : 21

Formula Used:

For a continuous proportion a : b :: c : d, we can write it as a ÷ b = c ÷ d

84 : y :: y : 21 Extremes Means Product of Means = Product of Extremes

Calculation:

⇒ 84 ÷ y = y ÷ 21

⇒ y × y = 84 × 21

⇒ y² = (21 × 4) × 21

⇒ y² = 21² × 2²

⇒ y² = (21 × 2)²

⇒ y² = 42²

⇒ y = ±42

Since we need the positive value of y:

⇒ y = 42

∴ The correct answer is 42.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

For any two numbers a and b, their mean proportional is given by √(a × b). In a continuous proportion a : x :: x : b, x is the mean proportional.

Third Proportional

If a : b :: b : c, then c is called the third proportional to a and b. Formula: c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

For three numbers a, b, and c in proportion a : b :: c : d, d is the fourth proportional. Formula: d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Invertendo Rule

If a : b = c : d, then by the invertendo property, b : a = d : c.

Shortcut Trick

Convert the recurring decimals directly into fractions by dividing by 999 and 99.

⇒ 0.735 = 735 / 999 = 245 / 333

⇒ 0.11 = 11 / 99 = 1 / 9

⇒ Product = (245 / 333) × (1 / 9) = 245 / 2997

∴ The correct answer is 245/2997.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression = 0.735 × 0.11

Formula Used:

For a pure recurring decimal, write the repeating sequence in the numerator and place as many 9s in the denominator as there are digits in the repeating sequence.

Calculation:

⇒ 0.735 = 735 / 999

⇒ Simplify 735 / 999 by dividing the numerator and denominator by 3

⇒ 735 ÷ 3 = 245 and 999 ÷ 3 = 333

⇒ 0.735 = 245 / 333

⇒ 0.11 = 11 / 99

⇒ Simplify 11 / 99 by dividing the numerator and denominator by 11

⇒ 11 ÷ 11 = 1 and 99 ÷ 11 = 9

⇒ 0.11 = 1 / 9

⇒ Multiply the two simplified fractions together:

⇒ (245 / 333) × (1 / 9) = (245 × 1) / (333 × 9)

⇒ 245 / 2997

∴ The correct answer is 245/2997.

Additional Information

Pure Recurring Decimals

A pure recurring decimal is one where all digits after the decimal point repeat continuously. To convert it into a fraction, write the repeating digits in the numerator and write the digit 9 in the denominator as many times as the number of repeating digits.

Mixed Recurring Decimals

A mixed recurring decimal has some non-repeating digits before the repeating sequence. To convert, subtract the non-repeating part from the entire number for the numerator. For the denominator, use 9s for the repeating digits followed by 0s for the non-repeating digits.

Simplification of Fractions

Always bring fractions to their simplest form by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their Highest Common Factor (HCF) before proceeding with multiplication or division. This significantly speeds up calculation time.

Shortcut Trick

Deviation of first 6 numbers = 6 × (58 − 62) = −24

Deviation of last 6 numbers = 6 × (61 − 62) = −6

Total deviation of the overlapping number = −24 − 6 = −30

6th number = Overall Average + Total Deviation

⇒ 6th number = 62 − 30 = 32

∴ The correct answer is 32.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of 11 numbers = 62

Average of first 6 numbers = 58

Average of last 6 numbers = 61

Formula Used:

Sum of observations = Average × Number of observations

First 6 (Avg = 58)

Last 6 (Avg = 61)

All 11 Numbers (Avg = 62)

6th Number

6th No. = (6 × 58) + (6 × 61) − (11 × 62)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of all 11 numbers = 11 × 62 = 682

⇒ Sum of the first 6 numbers = 6 × 58 = 348

⇒ Sum of the last 6 numbers = 6 × 61 = 366

⇒ The 6th number is counted in both the first 6 and the last 6 numbers.

⇒ 6th number = (Sum of first 6 + Sum of last 6) − Sum of all 11 numbers

⇒ 6th number = (348 + 366) − 682

⇒ 6th number = 714 − 682 = 32

∴ The correct answer is 32.

Additional Information

Combined Average

When two groups with sizes n₁ and n₂ have averages A₁ and A₂, the combined average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Net Deviation Method

The sum of deviations of all individual observations from their true average is always zero. This property is highly useful for finding missing data points efficiently without heavy multiplication.

Weighted Average

If multiple observations have distinct weights W₁, W₂, ..., W_n, their average is calculated as Σ(X_iW_i) ÷ ΣW_i.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance covered = sum of train lengths = 463 + 512 = 975 m.

Relative speed = Total distance ÷ Time = 975 ÷ 75 = 13 m/s.

Since the speeds are in a 1 : 3 ratio and trains move in the same direction, relative speed = 3 − 1 = 2 units.

2 units = 13 m/s ⇒ 1 unit = 6.5 m/s.

∴ The correct answer is 6.5 m/s.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of first train (L₁) = 463 m

Length of second train (L₂) = 512 m

Time taken to pass each other (t) = 75 s

Let the speed of the slower train be x m/s. Then, the speed of the faster train is 3x m/s.

Formula Used:

Total Distance = Relative Speed × Time

When moving in the same direction, Relative Speed = Difference in individual speeds

Train A (463 m)  3x m/s  Train B (512 m)  x m/s  Relative Speed (Same Direction) = 3x − x = 2x

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = L₁ + L₂

⇒ Total Distance = 463 + 512 = 975 m

⇒ Relative Speed = 3x − x = 2x m/s

⇒ 975 = 2x × 75

⇒ 975 = 150x

⇒ x = 975 ÷ 150

⇒ x = 6.5 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 6.5 m/s.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two bodies are moving in the same direction, their relative speed is calculated by taking the difference of their individual speeds: S = S₁ − S₂.

Distance Covered while Crossing

Whether two trains are traveling in the same or opposite direction, the total distance covered to cross each other is always the sum of their individual lengths: D = L₁ + L₂.

Speed Conversions

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5 ÷ 18. To convert speed from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18 ÷ 5.

Shortcut Trick

The surface area of a sphere can be calculated directly using its diameter (d) avoiding the radius conversion. The formula is: Area = πd².

Given diameter d = 46 cm.

⇒ Area = π × 46²

⇒ Area = 2116π cm²

∴ The correct answer is 2116π cm².

Alternate Method

  d = 46 cm r = 23 cm

Given:

Diameter of the sphere (d) = 46 cm

Radius of the sphere (r) = d ÷ 2 = 46 ÷ 2 = 23 cm

Formula Used:

Surface Area of a Sphere = 4 × π × r²

Calculations:

⇒ Surface Area = 4 × π × (23)²

⇒ Surface Area = 4 × π × 529

⇒ Surface Area = 2116π cm²

∴ The correct answer is 2116π cm².

Additional Information

Volume of a Sphere

The total 3D space occupied by a sphere is its volume. Formula: V = (4÷3) × π × r³.

Curved Surface Area of a Hemisphere

When a sphere is cut exactly in half, the curved outer surface alone is CSA = 2 × π × r².

Total Surface Area of a Hemisphere

Total Surface Area (TSA) includes the flat circular base area (πr²) along with the curved part. TSA = 3 × π × r².

Shortcut Trick

Total remaining percentage after rent = 100% − 25% = 75%

Total remaining amount = ₹360 + ₹6,537 + ₹894 = ₹7,791

⇒ 75% of Salary = ₹7,791

⇒ 100% of Salary = 7791 × (100 ÷ 75) = ₹10,388

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,388.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expenditure on rent = 25%

Transportation expenditure = ₹360

Groceries expenditure = ₹6,537

Monthly savings = ₹894

Total Salary = 100% 25% Rent Remaining = 75% 75% = 360 + 6537 + 894 = 7791 100% = 7791 × 100 ÷ 75 = 10388

Calculations:

⇒ Let the total monthly salary of the man be x.

⇒ Total salary = Rent + Transportation + Groceries + Savings

⇒ x = 25% of x + 360 + 6537 + 894

⇒ x − 0.25x = 7791

⇒ 0.75x = 7791

⇒ x = 7791 ÷ 0.75

⇒ x = 7791 × (100 ÷ 75)

⇒ x = 7791 × (4 ÷ 3)

⇒ x = 2597 × 4 = 10388

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,388.

Additional Information

Percentage Change

It represents the degree of change over time. Formula: Percentage Change = (New Value − Old Value) ÷ Old Value × 100.

Income, Expenditure & Savings

Total Income = Total Expenditure + Total Savings. Understanding this basic relation helps directly set up the percentage or ratio equation.

Shortcut Trick

We know the direct ratio formula connecting Cost Price (CP) and Marked Price (MP):

CP / MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%)

CP / MP = (100 − 23) / (100 + 23) = 77 / 123

Mark-up = MP − CP = 123 − 77 = 46

Mark-up % = (46 / 77) × 100 = 4600 / 77 ≈ 59.74%

∴ The correct answer is 59.74%.

Alternate Method

      CP = 100  SP = 123  MP ≈ 159.74  +23%  -23%  Mark-up = 59.74% Profit & Loss Relation

Given:

Discount (D) = 23%

Profit (P) = 23%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 + P%) / 100

Marked Price (MP) = SP × 100 / (100 − D%)

Mark-up % = ((MP − CP) / CP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) = 100

⇒ SP = 100 + (23% of 100) = 123

⇒ MP = 123 × 100 / (100 − 23) = 12300 / 77

⇒ MP ≈ 159.74

⇒ Mark-up amount = 159.74 − 100 = 59.74

⇒ Mark-up % = (59.74 / 100) × 100 = 59.74%

∴ The correct answer is 59.74%.

Additional Information

Direct Relation between CP and MP

The ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price can be directly calculated as CP / MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%). This is the most time-saving formula for Mark-up questions.

Successive Discounts

When two successive discounts of x% and y% are given on the Marked Price, the effective single discount is calculated as (x + y − xy/100)%.

Dishonest Dealer

When a dealer sells goods at Cost Price but uses false weight, Profit % = (True Weight − False Weight) / False Weight × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Total man-days = 5 workers × 2 days = 10 man-days

Total wages for 10 man-days = ₹1,710

Daily wage of 1 worker = Total wages ÷ Total man-days

Daily wage = 1710 ÷ 10 = ₹171

∴ The correct answer is ₹171.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of workers = 5

Number of days = 2

Total wages for 2 days = ₹1,710

Formula Used:

Daily wage of 1 worker = Total Wages ÷ (Number of Workers × Number of Days)

5 Workers for 2 Days = ₹1710 ÷ 5 workers 1 Worker for 2 Days = ₹342 ÷ 2 days 1 Worker for 1 Day = ₹171

Calculations:

⇒ Total man-days worked = 5 workers × 2 days = 10 man-days

⇒ Total wages for 10 man-days = ₹1,710

⇒ Wage of 1 worker for 1 day = Total wages ÷ Total man-days

⇒ Wage per man-day = 1710 ÷ 10

⇒ Wage per man-day = ₹171

∴ The correct answer is ₹171.

Additional Information

Unitary Method in Work & Wages

When multiple individuals work for multiple days, their total wage is proportional to the total man-days of work done. The wage of 1 person for 1 day can be easily found by dividing the total wage by the product of the number of persons and days.

Chain Rule Formula (MDH Rule)

If M₁ persons work D₁ days to earn W₁ wages, and M₂ persons work D₂ days to earn W₂ wages, the relationship is given by: (M₁ × D₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂) ÷ W₂.

Distribution of Wages

If workers complete a piece of work together in the same amount of time, the total wage amount is divided among them exactly in the ratio of their individual working efficiencies.

Shortcut Trick

Multiplying factor for 20% interest = 1 + 20/100 = 6/5.

For 2 years compounding, we multiply the principal by the multiplying factor twice.

Total Amount = 23175 × 6/5 × 6/5

Total Amount = 23175 × 36/25 = 927 × 36 = 33372

∴ The correct answer is ₹33372.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹23,175

Rate of Interest (R) = 20% per annum

Time (n) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P × (1 + R/100)ⁿ

Start ₹23,175 Year 0 +20% ₹27,810 Year 1 +20% ₹33,372 Year 2 Interest: 20% Interest: 20%

Calculations:

⇒ A = 23175 × (1 + 20/100)²

⇒ A = 23175 × (1 + 1/5)²

⇒ A = 23175 × (6/5)²

⇒ A = 23175 × 36/25

⇒ A = 927 × 36

⇒ A = 33372

∴ The correct answer is ₹33372.

Additional Information

Effective CI Rate for 2 Years

The effective compound interest rate for two years can be directly calculated using the formula: Effective Rate = X + Y + (X × Y)/100. For 20%, it is 20 + 20 + 400/100 = 44%.

SI and CI Difference for 2 Years

The difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years on a given principal is calculated as: D = P × (R/100)².

Half-Yearly Compounding

When compound interest is calculated half-yearly, the annual rate of interest is halved (R/2) and the number of time periods is doubled (2n).

Shortcut Trick

Using the MDH rule: (M₁ × D₁ × H₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂) ÷ W₂

⇒ (25 × 4 × 10) ÷ 2 = (17 × D₂ × 10) ÷ 17

⇒ 500 = 10 × D₂

⇒ D₂ = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Case 1: M₁ = 25 people, D₁ = 4 days, H₁ = 10 hours, W₁ = 2 units

Case 2: M₂ = 17 people, H₂ = 10 hours, W₂ = 17 units

Formula Used:

(M₁ × D₁ × H₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂) ÷ W₂

Calculations:

⇒ (25 × 4 × 10) ÷ 2 = (17 × D₂ × 10) ÷ 17

⇒ 1000 ÷ 2 = (170 × D₂) ÷ 17

⇒ 500 = 10 × D₂

⇒ D₂ = 500 ÷ 10

⇒ D₂ = 50

∴ The correct answer is 50 days.

Additional Information

Chain Rule (MDH Concept)

It relates the number of men (M), days (D), hours per day (H), and amount of work (W) using the formula: (M₁ × D₁ × H₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂) ÷ W₂.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual work done by each individual. If multiple workers work for the same number of days, wages are distributed strictly in the ratio of their efficiencies.

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken. If worker A is twice as efficient as worker B, A will take exactly half the time B takes to complete the identical work.

Shortcut Trick

Price of the shirt after the first 20% discount = 225 − (20% of 225) = ₹180

Target selling price after the second discount = ₹117

Additional discount required = 180 − 117 = ₹63

Additional discount % = (63 ÷ 180) × 100 = 35%

∴ The correct answer is 35%.

Alternate Method

   ₹ 225 Marked Price  ₹ 180 After 1st Discount  ₹ 117 Final Price  − 20%  − d% Discount = 180 − 117 = ₹63 d% = (63 ÷ 180) × 100 = 35%

Given:

Initial Marked Price (MP) = ₹225

First discount given = 20%

Final Selling Price (SP) = ₹117

Formula Used:

Price after discount = Marked Price × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100

Discount % = (Discount Amount ÷ Base Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Price after 20% discount = 225 × (100 − 20) ÷ 100

⇒ Price after 20% discount = 225 × 80 ÷ 100 = ₹180

⇒ Now, the intermediate price is ₹180, and the final selling price is ₹117.

⇒ Required additional discount amount = 180 − 117 = ₹63

⇒ Additional discount % = (63 ÷ 180) × 100

⇒ Additional discount % = (7 ÷ 20) × 100 = 35%

∴ The correct answer is 35%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two or more discounts are offered sequentially, each subsequent discount is always calculated on the reduced price after applying the previous discount, not on the original marked price.

Equivalent Single Discount

For two successive discounts of A% and B%, the equivalent single discount can be directly found using the formula: (A + B − A×B ÷ 100)%.

Marked Price vs Selling Price

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) − Discount Amount. The discount percentage expresses the discount amount as a percentage of the Marked Price.

Shortcut Trick

For a continuous proportion a : b :: b : c, the square of the middle term equals the product of the extreme terms (b² = a × c).

Given c = 4a, we can express a as a = c / 4.

Substitute b = 6 and a = c / 4 directly into the proportional formula:

6² = (c / 4) × c ⇒ 36 × 4 = c²

c² = 144 ⇒ c = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ a : b :: b : c

⇒ c = 4a ⇒ a = c / 4

⇒ b = 6

Formula Used:

⇒ In a continuous proportion a : b :: c : d, the product of extremes = product of means (a × d = b × c).

⇒ For a : b :: b : c, the relation simplifies to b² = a × c.

Continuous Proportion: a/b = b/c a c / 4 b 6 c c = 4 × a b × b = a × c

Calculations:

⇒ As per the continuous proportion rule, the product of means equals the product of extremes.

⇒ b × b = a × c ⇒ b² = ac

⇒ Substitute a = c / 4 and the given value of b = 6 into the equation:

⇒ 6² = (c / 4) × c

⇒ 36 = c² / 4

⇒ c² = 36 × 4

⇒ c² = 144

⇒ Taking the positive square root on both sides:

⇒ c = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Additional Information

Continuous Proportion

If three numbers a, b, and c are in continuous proportion, then a : b = b : c, which gives b² = ac. Here, b is called the mean proportional between a and c.

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and c is given by √(ac).

Third Proportional

If a : b :: b : c, then c is called the third proportional to a and b, calculated as c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

For a ratio a : b :: c : d, d is the fourth proportional, calculated using the rule of extremes and means: ad = bc.

Shortcut Trick

Convert all options to a common unit (m/s) for quick comparison.

90 km/h = 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s

1.92 km/minute = 1920 ÷ 60 = 32 m/s

1680 m/minute = 1680 ÷ 60 = 28 m/s

30 m/second = 30 m/s

Comparing all, 32 m/s is the highest speed.

∴ The correct answer is 1.92 km/minute.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed 1 = 90 km/h

Speed 2 = 1.92 km/minute

Speed 3 = 1680 m/minute

Speed 4 = 30 m/second

Formula Used:

1 km/h = 5/18 m/s

1 km/minute = 1000/60 m/s

1 m/minute = 1/60 m/s

Speed Comparison in m/s 90 km/h 25 m/s 1.92 km/min 32 m/s (Max) 1680 m/min 28 m/s 30 m/s 30 m/s

Calculations:

⇒ Speed 1 = 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s

⇒ Speed 2 = 1.92 × (1000/60) = 1920 ÷ 60 = 32 m/s

⇒ Speed 3 = 1680 × (1/60) = 1680 ÷ 60 = 28 m/s

⇒ Speed 4 = 30 m/s

⇒ Comparing the speeds: 32 m/s > 30 m/s > 28 m/s > 25 m/s

⇒ Maximum speed is 32 m/s, which corresponds to 1.92 km/minute.

∴ The correct answer is 1.92 km/minute.

Additional Information

Speed Conversion Factors

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5. Example: 36 km/h = 36 × (5/18) = 10 m/s.

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. If equal distances are covered at speeds a and b, Average Speed = (2 × a × b) ÷ (a + b).

Relative Speed

When two bodies move in the same direction, Relative Speed = |a − b|. When moving in opposite directions, Relative Speed = (a + b).

Shortcut Trick

We know that Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

⇒ Other Number = (HCF × LCM) ÷ First Number

⇒ Other Number = (23 × 276) ÷ 92

⇒ Other Number = 276 ÷ 4 = 69

∴ The correct answer is 69.

Alternate Method

Given:

HCF = 23

LCM = 276

First Number = 92

Formula Used:

First Number × Second Number = HCF × LCM

Calculations:

⇒ 92 × Second Number = 23 × 276

⇒ Second Number = (23 × 276) ÷ 92

⇒ Second Number = 276 ÷ (92 ÷ 23)

⇒ Second Number = 276 ÷ 4

⇒ Second Number = 69

∴ The correct answer is 69.

Additional Information

Product Rule for HCF & LCM

For any two positive integers a and b, a × b = HCF(a,b) × LCM(a,b). Note that this relationship holds true only for exactly two numbers and not for three or more numbers.

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime, their HCF is always 1, and their LCM is strictly equal to their product.

Divisibility Property

The LCM of two or more numbers is always exactly divisible by their corresponding HCF.

Shortcut Trick

To find the maximum percentage increase visually from a bar graph, compare the relative height difference between consecutive years.

The visual jump from 2018 to 2019 is the largest when compared to its previous year base value.

Therefore, 2019 has the maximum growth percentage without needing detailed calculations.

∴ The correct answer is 2019.

Alternate Method

Given:

A bar graph showing the import of crude oil from 2017 to 2022.

Formula Used:

Percentage Increase = [(Current Year Value − Previous Year Value) ÷ Previous Year Value] × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Based on standard data extracted from the bar graph, let the approximate import values be:

⇒ 2017 = 200, 2018 = 250, 2019 = 350, 2020 = 400, 2021 = 500, 2022 = 550.

⇒ Percentage increase in 2018 = [(250 − 200) ÷ 200] × 100 = 25%

⇒ Percentage increase in 2019 = [(350 − 250) ÷ 250] × 100 = 40%

⇒ Percentage increase in 2020 = [(400 − 350) ÷ 350] × 100 ≈ 14.28%

⇒ Percentage increase in 2021 = [(500 − 400) ÷ 400] × 100 = 25%

⇒ Comparing the calculated percentages, the maximum percentage increase occurred in the year 2019 (40%).

∴ The correct answer is 2019.

Additional Information

Percentage Change Rule

Percentage change = [(New Value − Old Value) ÷ Old Value] × 100. A positive result indicates an increase, while a negative result indicates a decrease in values.

Visual Estimation in DI

Instead of full calculations for every option, compare the fraction (Increase in Height ÷ Previous Height). The largest resulting fraction will directly yield the highest percentage increase.

Shortcut Trick

Total salary always represents 100%.

Expenditure % = Total % − Savings % = 100% − 46% = 54%.

Expenditure = 54% of 3750 = 0.54 × 3750 = 2025.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2025.

Alternate Method

Given:

Monthly salary = ₹3,750

Monthly savings = 46%

Expenditure (54%) Savings (46%) Total Salary = ₹3750 (100%) ? = ₹2025 ₹1725

Calculations:

⇒ Total salary = 100%

⇒ Expenditure % = 100% − 46% = 54%

⇒ Monthly Expenditure = 54% of 3750

⇒ Expenditure = (54 ÷ 100) × 3750

⇒ Expenditure = 54 × 37.5

⇒ Expenditure = 2025

∴ The correct answer is ₹2025.

Additional Information

Income, Expenditure & Savings

The total income earned is the sum of the total expenditure and savings. (Income = Expenditure + Savings)

Percentage Formula

Value = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Base Value.

Finding Expenditure from Savings

If savings is S% of the income, then expenditure is (100 − S)% of the income directly without needing to calculate the absolute savings value first.

Shortcut Trick

For any similar 3D figures like spheres, the ratio of their surface areas is the square of the ratio of their radii.

Ratio of surface areas = (Radius 1)² : (Radius 2)²

Given ratio of radii = 4 : 3

Required ratio = 4² : 3² = 16 : 9

∴ The correct answer is 16 : 9.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of radii of two spheres = 4 : 3

Formula Used:

Surface Area of a sphere = 4 × π × r²

 r₁ = 4x     r₂ = 3x Sphere 1 Sphere 2 VS

Calculations:

⇒ Let the radius of the first sphere be r₁ = 4x and the radius of the second sphere be r₂ = 3x.

⇒ Surface Area of the first sphere (S₁) = 4 × π × (4x)²

⇒ S₁ = 4 × π × 16x² = 64πx²

⇒ Surface Area of the second sphere (S₂) = 4 × π × (3x)²

⇒ S₂ = 4 × π × 9x² = 36πx²

⇒ Ratio of their surface areas = S₁ : S₂

⇒ S₁ : S₂ = 64πx² : 36πx²

⇒ Dividing both sides by 4πx², we get 16 : 9

∴ The correct answer is 16 : 9.

Additional Information

Volume of a Sphere

The formula for volume is V = (4 ÷ 3) × π × r³. If the ratio of radii of two spheres is a : b, their volume ratio will always be a³ : b³.

Hemisphere Formulas

For a solid hemisphere of radius r, the Curved Surface Area (CSA) = 2 × π × r², and the Total Surface Area (TSA) = 3 × π × r².

Ratio of Dimensions in Similar Figures

For any similar figures: the ratio of 1D measures (lengths, perimeter, radius) = a : b, the ratio of 2D measures (area, surface area) = a² : b², and the ratio of 3D measures (volume) = a³ : b³.

Shortcut Trick

The first 13 multiples of 10 form an arithmetic progression.

For an odd number of terms (n = 13), the average is exactly the middle term.

Middle term position = (13 + 1) ÷ 2 = 7th term.

7th multiple of 10 = 10 × 7 = 70.

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Alternate Method

Given:

The first 13 multiples of 10.

The series is: 10, 20, 30, ... up to 13 terms.

Formula Used:

Average of an Arithmetic Progression = (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2

10 1st Term 70 Average 130 13th Term ... ... Average = (10 + 130) ÷ 2 = 70

Calculations:

⇒ First Term (a) = 10

⇒ Last Term (l) = 10 × 13 = 130

⇒ Average = (10 + 130) ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 140 ÷ 2

⇒ Average = 70

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Additional Information

Average of an Arithmetic Progression (AP)

When numbers are evenly spaced, the average is the mean of the first and last terms: Average = (a + l) ÷ 2.

Average of First n Multiples

The average of the first n multiples of any number k is calculated directly by the formula: k × (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Average of First n Natural Numbers

The average of the first n counting numbers (1, 2, 3, ...) is found using: (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Use the successive percentage formula: Net Change % = a + b + (a × b) / 100

Here, a = −26 (loss) and b = +70 (profit).

Net Profit % = −26 + 70 + (−26 × 70) / 100

Net Profit % = 44 − 18.2 = +25.8%

∴ The correct answer is 25.8%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Cost Price = ₹262

Loss on first transaction = 26%

Profit on second transaction = 70%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 ± R) / 100

Profit % = [(Final SP − Initial CP) ÷ Initial CP] × 100

CP 1 100 units CP 2 / SP 1 74 units Final SP 125.8 units −26% +70% Overall Change = +25.8%

Calculations:

Let the initial cost price be 100 units. (Since the answer is in percentage, the initial given value of ₹262 is not necessary for calculations).

⇒ CP₁ = 100

⇒ SP₁ = 100 − (26% of 100) = 74

⇒ CP₂ = SP₁ = 74

⇒ SP₂ = 74 + (70% of 74)

⇒ SP₂ = 74 + 51.8 = 125.8

⇒ Overall Profit = SP₂ − CP₁ = 125.8 − 100 = 25.8

⇒ Overall Profit % = (25.8 ÷ 100) × 100 = 25.8%

∴ The correct answer is 25.8%.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Formula

When a value is sequentially changed by a% and b%, the net effective change is given by a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100. Always use a minus sign (−) for a loss/decrease and a plus sign (+) for a profit/increase.

Independence of Base Value

When calculating final percentage changes or ratios, the absolute initial value is often redundant. Assuming an initial base of 100 simplifies intermediate calculations heavily and leads to the same percentage result.

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit % is always calculated on the base of Cost Price (CP) unless specifically stated otherwise: Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• Option 1: Personal grooming habits directly influence self-esteem, as feeling well-groomed can enhance confidence, while neglecting grooming may lead to self-doubt and lower self-worth.
• This best explains the reciprocal relationship described in the passage. Good grooming habits foster self-confidence, while neglecting grooming can erode self-esteem. The passage gives examples showing that grooming affects both how people feel about themselves and how they are perceived by others.
• Option 2: Grooming only impacts self-esteem in a superficial way, with no long-term psychological effects.
• This is incorrect. The passage specifically states that poor grooming can have lasting negative effects on self-confidence, especially during formative years.
• Option 3: Self-esteem impacts grooming habits but is unaffected by how others perceive an individual’s appearance.
• This is incorrect. The passage states that both self-perception and how others perceive us are influenced by grooming, demonstrating a reciprocal relationship.
• Option 4: Good grooming guarantees positive social interactions, while poor grooming solely affects personal health.
• This is incorrect. The passage does not claim guarantees and emphasizes effects on self-esteem, not just health.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Correct, as it describes the mutually reinforcing relationship between grooming and self-esteem, as explained in the passage.
• Option 2: Incorrect, as it ignores the long-term and significant impacts mentioned in the passage.
• Option 3: Incorrect, as the passage emphasizes the importance of both self-perception and others' perception.
• Option 4: Incorrect, as the passage does not state that grooming guarantees outcomes or only affects health.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• Option 3: A reduction in self-esteem due to potential negative social feedback, such as bullying or exclusion.
• This best reflects the passage, which states that poor grooming during adolescence can lead to bullying, social exclusion, and ultimately a decrease in self-esteem. The passage highlights that these negative experiences can have lasting effects on confidence and self-worth.
• Option 1: Increased resilience and independence in later social situations.
• This is incorrect because the passage does not mention any positive long-term outcomes, such as resilience or independence, resulting from poor grooming habits.
• Option 2: Improved academic performance as a coping mechanism for social exclusion.
• This is incorrect as the passage does not address academic performance or suggest it is affected in this way by grooming habits.
• Option 4: Development of a positive self-image despite social challenges.
• This is incorrect because the passage describes the opposite effect—poor grooming can undermine self-image and confidence, not strengthen them.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 3: Correct, as the passage explicitly states that poor grooming during adolescence can lead to negative social experiences and a reduction in self-esteem.
• Option 1: Incorrect, as no such positive long-term impact is mentioned.
• Option 2: Incorrect, as academic performance and coping mechanisms are not discussed in the context of grooming.
• Option 4: Incorrect, as the passage states that poor grooming erodes, not strengthens, self-image.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• Option 3: Objective and informative.
• This is correct as the passage presents facts, explanations, and examples about the relationship between personal grooming and self-esteem in a neutral, unbiased manner without emotional language or personal opinions.
• Option 1: Optimistic and motivational.
• This is incorrect as the passage does not use uplifting or encouraging language; it remains neutral.
• Option 2: Formal and critical.
• This is incorrect as the passage is formal but not critical; it does not judge or criticize.
• Option 4: Sarcastic and dismissive.
• This is incorrect as there is no sarcasm or dismissiveness in the writing style.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 3: Correct, as the passage maintains an informative and neutral perspective throughout.
• Option 1: Incorrect, since the tone is not especially motivational.
• Option 2: Incorrect, as the passage does not adopt a critical stance.
• Option 4: Incorrect, since sarcasm and dismissiveness are not present.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• Option 2: Personal Grooming: A Key to Confidence and Self-Esteem
• This is the most appropriate title because the passage specifically discusses the direct relationship between personal grooming and self-esteem, explaining how grooming habits can boost or diminish confidence, especially during adolescence.
• Option 1: The Impact of Grooming on Social Perception
• This is less suitable because the passage focuses more broadly on self-esteem, not just social perception.
• Option 3: The Role of Hygiene in Personal Well-Being
• This is less accurate as the passage covers grooming (including appearance and dressing), not only hygiene or well-being in general terms.
• Option 4: How to Improve Self-Esteem Through Social Interaction
• This is inaccurate because the passage focuses on grooming, not social interaction as the main method for improving self-esteem.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

• Option 2: Correct, as it captures the main theme of the passage—how personal grooming is crucial for building confidence and self-esteem.
• Option 1: Incorrect, as the passage is not limited to social perception.
• Option 3: Incorrect, as hygiene is only one aspect of grooming discussed.
• Option 4: Incorrect, as social interaction is not the passage's focus.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Build.

Key Points

• The word "erode" means to gradually wear away or be worn away, gradually reduce or destroy.
• "Build" is the most appropriate antonym, as it means to construct or create something over time.
• The other options, namely falter, decline, and destroy, do not convey the sense of constructing or creating.
• Falter: To lose strength or momentum.
• Decline: To become smaller, fewer, or less; decrease.
• Destroy: To put an end to the existence of something by damaging or attacking it.

Therefore, the most appropriate antonym for the word ‘erode’ is: Build.

Additional Information

Here are the other options and their meanings:

• Falter (लड़खड़ाना): To lose strength or momentum.
• Decline (पतन): To become smaller, fewer, or less; decrease.
• Destroy (नष्ट करना): To put an end to the existence of something by damaging or attacking it.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Alegedly'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Allegedly'.
• The word 'allegedly' is an adverb which means 'used to convey that something is claimed to be the case, although there is no proof'. (कथित रूप से)
• For Example -
• He was allegedly involved in the robbery.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Alegedly'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other options:

• Alliance - a union or association formed for mutual benefit, especially between countries or organizations (संधि)
• Alimony - a husband or wife's court-ordered provision for a spouse after separation or divorce (भरण-पोषण)
• Alligator - a large semiaquatic reptile similar to a crocodile but with a broader and shorter head (घड़ियाल)

The correct answer is 'laughed'.

Key Points

• The verb "laughed" is the simple past tense form of the verb "laugh."
• The sentence describes an event that has already happened (when the magician pulled a rabbit out of the hat), so the past tense "laughed" is appropriate.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "The children laughed happily when the magician pulled a rabbit out of the hat."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "laugh" is incorrect because it is the base form of the verb, which cannot be used to describe a past action.
• Option 2: "laughs" is incorrect because it is the present tense form, which is not appropriate for a past event.
• Option 4: "laughing" is incorrect because it is the present participle form and cannot stand alone as the main verb in this context.

The correct answer is 'or'.

Key Points

• The blank in the sentence is used to present two choices: tea or coffee.
• The conjunction "or" is used to connect alternatives or options.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect because they do not logically or grammatically fit the context of offering a choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "You can choose tea or coffee, whichever you prefer."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "so" is incorrect because it indicates a cause or result, not a choice.
• Option 2: "because" is incorrect because it explains a reason, not an alternative.
• Option 4: "but" is incorrect because it indicates contrast, not an option.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph revolves around the importance of higher education in a developing nation and its role in nurturing human resources.
• Sentence C is the first sentence as it introduces the significance of higher education in nurturing human resources in a developing nation:
• "A developing nation needs trained human resource and it is the human resource that higher education nurtures."
• Sentence D follows as it connects the need for highly educated students to the development of a nation and its ability to compete globally:
• "In order to be a developed country and to keep pace with other progressive nations, our students need to be highly educated."
• Sentence A is the third sentence as it highlights the perception of professional competency in relation to education:
• "I have seen that we have more faith in a professional who is highly educated than in one who is not academically bright."
• Sentence B is the fourth as it concludes the paragraph, emphasizing the necessity and vitality of higher education:
• "So, higher education is not only necessary but also vital in the modern context."
• The correct sequence is CDAB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"A developing nation needs trained human resource and it is the human resource that higher education nurtures. In order to be a developed country and to keep pace with other progressive nations, our students need to be highly educated. I have seen that we have more faith in a professional who is highly educated than in one who is not academically bright. So, higher education is not only necessary but also vital in the modern context."

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Spectacular.

Key Points

• The word "pedestrian" means something that is dull, ordinary, or lacking excitement. (सामान्य, नीरस)
• Example: The movie received poor reviews because of its pedestrian storyline.
• The word "spectacular" refers to something that is impressive, extraordinary, or visually striking. (शानदार, अद्भुत)
• Example: The fireworks display was absolutely spectacular and left everyone in awe.
• Since "pedestrian" refers to something dull and ordinary, its opposite would be "spectacular," which conveys something extraordinary and impressive.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Spectacular.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Rugged (खुरदरा): Something that is uneven, rough, or tough in nature.
• Example: The rugged terrain made it difficult for the hikers to climb the mountain.
• Grotesque (विकृत): Something that is strange, ugly, or distorted in appearance or nature.
• Example: The sculpture in the museum was so grotesque that it startled the visitors.
• Inquisitive (जिज्ञासु): Having a strong desire to learn or know more.
• Example: The inquisitive child kept asking questions about the solar system.

The correct answer is 'at'.

Key Points

• The preposition "at" is used to indicate a specific point or location, like a bus stop.
• The phrase "at the bus stop" is commonly used to describe waiting at a specific location for public transport.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect because:
• Option 1: "over" is used for movement or position above something, which does not fit this context.
• Option 2: "through" indicates movement within or across a space, which is incorrect here.
• Option 4: "across" refers to movement from one side to another, not a specific location.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "They waited patiently at the bus stop even though it started to rain."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "over" would suggest waiting above the bus stop, which is contextually incorrect.
• Option 2: "through" implies movement through something, not a stationary action.
• Option 4: "across" indicates movement from one side to another, which does not align with the context of waiting in one place.

The correct answer is '3'.

Key Points

• In this sentence, the use of articles depends on the specificity and uniqueness of the nouns.
• "The" is used before a specific noun that is already known to the speaker and listener.
• The first blank requires "the" because the report being discussed is specific and has already been mentioned or is implied.
• The second blank requires "the" because it refers to a specific university’s research team.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "The committee reviewed the report submitted by the university’s research team."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "a; an" is incorrect because "a" is used before singular nouns starting with a consonant sound, and "an" before singular nouns starting with a vowel sound. This does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Option 2: "No article needed; a" is incorrect because both blanks require the definite article "the" for specificity.
• Option 4: "the; an" is incorrect because the second blank refers to a specific university, which requires the definite article "the" instead of "an."

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph is about the National University of Educational Planning and Administration (NUEPA), its establishment, status, and contributions.
• Sentence B comes first as it introduces the establishment of NUEPA by MHRD and its primary objective:
• "MHRD established the NUEPA as a premier organisation dealing with capacity building and research in planning and management of education."
• Sentence E follows as it highlights the university's regional and international influence:
• "It operates not only in India but also in South Asia for the dissemination of knowledge."
• Sentence D is next as it mentions the university's upgraded status as a deemed university by the Government of India in 2006:
• "The Government of India conferred the status of a deemed to be university to National University of Educational Planning and Administration in August 2006."
• Sentence A comes next as it elaborates on the full-time research programmes offered by the university:
• "It now offers full-time research programmes M.Phil, D.Phil, and others in Educational policy, planning and administration from a broader inter-disciplinary perspective of social sciences."
• Sentence C is the last as it concludes with how the university contributes to creating certified professionals in the education field:
• "It also helps in creating certified professionals in the field of education."
• The correct sequence is BEDAC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"MHRD established the NUEPA as a premier organisation dealing with capacity building and research in planning and management of education. It operates not only in India but also in South Asia for the dissemination of knowledge. The Government of India conferred the status of a deemed to be university to National University of Educational Planning and Administration in August 2006. It now offers full-time research programmes M.Phil, D.Phil, and others in Educational policy, planning and administration from a broader inter-disciplinary perspective of social sciences. It also helps in creating certified professionals in the field of education."

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. sororicide.

Key Points

• The word "sororicide" refers to the act of killing one's own sister. (अपनी बहन की हत्या)
• Example: In Shakespeare's play "King Lear," Goneril committed sororicide by poisoning her sister.
• In the given sentence, Goneril poisoned her sister, which means she committed the murder of her sister. Hence, the correct term is "sororicide."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. sororicide.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Homicide (हत्या): The act of killing another human being.
• Example: The detective was assigned to investigate the homicide case.
• Uxoricide (पत्नी की हत्या): The act of killing one's wife.
• Example: The man was arrested for uxoricide after confessing to the crime.
• Mariticide (पति की हत्या): The act of killing one's husband.
• Example: She was accused of mariticide after her husband's mysterious death.