Previous Year Paper

DSSSB TGT Computer Science Official Paper Held On: 12 Sept, 2025 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

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200 questions120 minutes
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Reasoning Ability (20 questions)

Question 1

Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete?

DWP 6, HAT 15, LEX 24, PIB 33, TMF 42, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    XQI 51

  2. BOption (b)

    XQJ 51 

  3. COption (c)

    XAJ 51 

  4. DOption (d)

    YQJ 51

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

XQJ 51 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is XQJ 51.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 2

Reena ranked 7th from the top and 28th from the bottom in her class. How many students are there in the class?

  1. AOption (a)

    34

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    33

  4. DOption (d)

    35

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

34

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Reena's rank from the top = 7th.

Reena's rank from the bottom = 28th.

Total students = (Rank from Top) + (Rank from Bottom) - 1

 = 7 + 28 - 1

= 35 - 1

= 34.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 3

Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the triads given below.

EACH - HEAC - CHEA

HACK - KHAC - CKHA

  1. AOption (a)

    SACK - ASKC - SKAC

  2. BOption (b)

    PACK - PKAC - PCKA

  3. COption (c)

    LACE - ELAC - CELA

  4. DOption (d)

    OAKS - AKSO - KSOA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

LACE - ELAC - CELA

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

EACH - HEAC - CHEA

HACK - KHAC - CKHA

Option 3)  Follow the same logic

LACE - ELAC - CELA

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 4

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

231 224 214 207 197 190 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    170

  2. BOption (b)

    183 

  3. COption (c)

    173

  4. DOption (d)

    180

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

180

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing number in the series is 180.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 5

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All stones are rocks.

All rocks are pebbles.

Some stones are hills.

Conclusions:

(1) All rocks are hills.

(II) All pebbles are hills.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion (1) follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion (1) nor (II) follows.

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion (II) follows.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions (1) and (II) follow.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither conclusion (1) nor (II) follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

(1) All rocks are hills → False (As, All stones are rocks, Some stones are hills. so, All rocks are hills can be a possibility but definite)

(II) All pebbles are hills →  False (As, All stones are rocks, All rocks are pebbles, Some stones are hills. so,  All pebbles are hills can be a possibility but definite)

Thus, Neither conclusion (1) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 6

206 is related to 135 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 178 is related to 107. To which of the given options is 194 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

  1. AOption (a)

    123

  2. BOption (b)

    133

  3. COption (c)

    127

  4. DOption (d)

    117

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

123

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number – 71

For 206 is related to 135

⇒ 206 – 71

= 135.

For 178 is related to 107

⇒ 178 – 71

= 107.

Applying the same logic to 194:

⇒ 194 – 71

= 123.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Question 7

Mr. E starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the North. He then takes a right turn, drives 6 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a left turn, drives 12 km, turns right and drives 6 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 21 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)

  1. AOption (a)

    4 km to the north

  2. BOption (b)

    6 km to the south 

  3. COption (c)

    5 km to the west 

  4. DOption (d)

    3 km to the east

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3 km to the east

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Mr. E starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the North.

He then takes a right turn, drives 6 km, turns right and drives 9 km.

He then takes a left turn, drives 12 km, turns right and drives 6 km.

He then takes a right turn and drives 21 km.

He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P

Thus, E has to drive 3 km to the east to reach point A.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4".

Question 8

Below are given two sets of numbers. In each set of numbers, a certain mathematical operation on the first number results in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation on the second number results in the third number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in question? (NOTE – A two/three-digit number cannot be broken into individual digits for operations e.g. if 37 is followed by 10, the operation cannot be 3+7 as a two-digit number cannot be broken into individual digits)

3 – 27 – 37 – 32 ; 8 – 72 – 82 – 77

  1. AOption (a)

    12 – 108 – 118 – 113 

  2. BOption (b)

    11 – 121 – 132 – 162

  3. COption (c)

    6 – 54 – 84 – 42

  4. DOption (d)

    4 – 36 – 52 – 62 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

12 – 108 – 118 – 113 

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The sequence of operations is: × 9, + 10, - 5.

First Number  × 9 → Second Number

Second Number + 10 → Third Number

Third Number  - 5 → Fourth Number 

3 → 27 → 37 → 32

3 × 9 = 27. 

 

27 + 10 = 37. 

 

37 - 5 = 32. 

 

8 → 72 → 82 → 77

8 × 9 = 72. 

 

72 + 10 = 82. 

 

82 - 5 = 77. 

 

1) 12 – 108 – 118 – 113

12 × 9 = 108. 

108 + 10 = 118. 

118 - 5 = 113. 

 

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Question 9

In this question, a statement is given, followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement:

Roads of City B are congested due to high vehicle movement.

Assumptions:

I. Metro rail of City B also gets delayed due to congestion.

II. Influx of people to City B is higher than that to other cities of the country.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both assumptions I and II are implicit.

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither assumption I nor Il is implicit,

  3. COption (c)

    Only assumption I is implicit.

  4. DOption (d)

    Only assumption II is implicit.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither assumption I nor Il is implicit,

Why this answer is correct

Statement:

Roads of City B are congested due to high vehicle movement.

Assumption I: Metro rail of City B also gets delayed due to congestion. (Not implicit)

The statement talks only about roads being congested. It does not mention the metro system at all. So we cannot assume metro delays from this.

Assumption II: Influx of people to City B is higher than that to other cities of the country. (Not implicit)

The statement does not mention population increase or compare City B with other cities. Road congestion alone does not prove higher influx than other cities.

Thus, neither of the assumptions follows from the statement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 10

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    RVY

  2. BOption (b)

    MQT

  3. COption (c)

    CGJ

  4. DOption (d)

    INR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

INR

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 'R V Y':

Option 2) 'M Q T':

Option 3) 'C G J':

Option 4) 'I N R':

Does not follow the pattern.

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is INR.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 11

In a certain code language, ‘TYRE’ is coded as ‘5127’ and ‘TREK’ is coded as ‘7253’. What is the code for ‘K’ in the given code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3

Why this answer is correct

The given coded language is:

The letters common to both words are T, R, and E.

The digits common to both codes are 5, 2, and 7. 

Therefore, the code for 'K' is 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 12

Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

  1. AOption (a)

    AWDG

  2. BOption (b)

    KGNQ

  3. COption (c)

    SOWY

  4. DOption (d)

    VRYB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SOWY

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) 'A W D G':

Option 2) 'K G N Q':

Option 3) 'S O W Y':

Does not follow the same pattern.

Option 4) 'V R Y B':

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is SOWY.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 13

Six students are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Himani is an immediate neighbour of both Evan and Charu. Gauri is sitting to the immediate right of Evan. Firoz is sitting second to the left of Himani. Danish is an immediate neighbour of both Firoz and Gauri. How many people sit between Danish and Himani when counted form the right of Himani?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Three

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Two

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Six students are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre.

Himani is an immediate neighbour of both Evan and Charu.

Gauri is sitting to the immediate right of Evan.

Firoz is sitting second to the left of Himani.

Danish is an immediate neighbour of both Firoz and Gauri.

Thus, two people sit between Danish and Himani when counted form the right of Himani.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 14

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

34 − 20 ÷ 8 × 2 + 16 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    96

  2. BOption (b)

    98

  3. COption (c)

    95

  4. DOption (d)

    93

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

98

Why this answer is correct

The given interchange rules are: ‘+’ ↔ ‘−’ and ‘×’ ↔ ‘÷’.

The original equation: 34 − 20 ÷ 8 × 2 + 16 = ?

After applying the interchange rules, the new equation is:

34 + 20 × 8 ÷ 2 − 16 = ?

Now, we solve the equation following the BODMAS rule:

= 34 + 20 × 8 ÷ 2 − 16

= 34 + 80 − 16

= 114 − 16

= 98

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 15

This question is based on the following words.

(Left) REAL, FAIR, LIKE, PITY (Right)

In each of the words, each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order. In how many letter-clusters thus formed, will no vowel appear?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Two

Why this answer is correct

Given the words: REAL, FAIR, LIKE, PITY

The coding rule is:

Each vowel is replaced by the letter immediately following it (+1).

Each consonant is replaced by the letter immediately preceding it (-1).

Original WordR E A LF A I RL I K EP I T Y
New Letter-ClusterQ F B KE B J QK J J FO J S X

 

The letter clusters in which no vowel appears are QFBK and KJJF.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 16

If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

9 D 35 C 48 B 30 A 12 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    95

  2. BOption (b)

    94

  3. COption (c)

    96

  4. DOption (d)

    92

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

94

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the letters are interchanged as follows:

Original LetterABCD
New Symbol÷×+−

Now, given the equation: 9 D 35 C 48 B 30 A 12 = ?

After interchanging the specified letters, the new equation is:

9 − 35 + 48 × 30 ÷ 12 = ?

Perform operations according to BODMAS:

→ 9 − 35 + 48 × 30 ÷ 12

→ 9 − 35 + 120

→ −26 + 120

→ 94

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 17

Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

QIM 1 PLK 3 ? NRG 27 MUE 81

  1. AOption (a)

    MOI 6 

  2. BOption (b)

    OIN 7

  3. COption (c)

    OOI 9

  4. DOption (d)

    NOM 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

OOI 9

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing term in the series is OOI 9.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 18

Seven boxes, P, Q, R, S, T, Y and Z, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. T is kept second from the top. Only three boxes are kept between P and T. Y is kept at one of the positions below P. Only Q is kept between T and R. S is kept at one of the positions above T. How many boxes are kept between R and Y?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Two

Why this answer is correct

Given :

Seven boxes (P, Q, R, S, T, Y, Z) arranged from Position 1 (Top) to Position 7 (Bottom).

  1. T is kept second from the top.

  2. Only three boxes are kept between P and T.

  3. Y is kept at one of the positions below P.

PositionBox
1 (Top)
2T
3
4
5
6P
7 (Bottom)Y

 

  1. Only Q is kept between T and R.

  2. S is kept at one of the positions above T.

  3. the remaining box Z is at the only remaining position, 5.

 Final Arrangement

PositionBox
1 (Top)S
2T
3Q
4R
5Z
6P
7 (Bottom)Y

 

Thus, the boxes between R and Y are two.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 19

This question is based on the following four words.

(Left) RAT ANT FAN TON (Right)

In each of the given words, each vowel is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order. In how many letter-clusters thus formed will no vowel appear?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Given the words: RAT, ANT, FAN, TON

The coding rule is:

Each vowel is replaced by the letter immediately following it (+1).

Each consonant is replaced by the letter immediately preceding it (-1).

Original WordR A TA N TF A NT O N
New Letter-ClusterQ B SB M SE B MS P M

 

The letter clusters in which no vowel appears are QBS, BMS, and SPM.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 20

D is the sister of E. F is the mother of G. H is the daughter of G. E is the mother of H. How is D related to F?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son's wife's mother 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sister

  3. COption (c)

    Mother

  4. DOption (d)

    Son's wife's sister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Son's wife's sister

Why this answer is correct

Decoding symbols for Family Tree:

Step-by-step Relationship Analysis:

D is the sister of E.  D and E are siblings.

E is the mother of H. H is the daughter of G.

E and G are the parents of H. E is the mother, so G must be the father.

F is the mother of G.

Family Structure:

D is the sister of E. E is the wife of G.

D is the sister of F's son's wife (E).

Thus, D is the Son's wife's sister of F.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

General Awareness (20 questions)

Question 21

Which animal is renowned for its ability to regenerate lost body parts? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Eagle

  2. BOption (b)

    Zebrafish

  3. COption (c)

    Dog

  4. DOption (d)

    Snail

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Zebrafish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Zebrafish.

Key Points

  • Zebrafish can regenerate lost or damaged body parts.
  • It can regenerate fins, heart tissue, spinal cord, and retina.
  • Regeneration occurs due to rapid cell division and stem cell activity.
  • Zebrafish is widely used in scientific research for regeneration studies.
  • Other regeneration examples include Starfish, Planaria, Hydra, and lizards.

Additional Information       

  • Eagle and Dog do not show regeneration of lost body parts.
  • Snail shows only limited body repair, not true regeneration.
  • Reproduction: Reproduction is the biological process by which organisms produce new individuals of the same species.
  • Types of Reproduction:
  • Sexual Reproduction: Occurs through fusion of male and female gametes; found in Humans, Frog, Fish, Birds.
  • Asexual Reproduction: Occurs without gamete formation; found in Amoeba, Hydra, Yeast, Plants.
  • Types of Asexual Reproduction:
  • Binary Fission:
  • Division of one organism into two identical organisms.
  • Examples: Amoeba, Paramecium, Bacteria
  • Budding:
  • New organism develops as a bud on the parent body.
  • Examples: Hydra, Yeast, Sponge
  • Vegetative Propagation:
  • New plants grow from vegetative parts of the parent plant.
  • Examples: Potato, Onion, Sugarcane
  • Regeneration:
  • Ability to regrow lost body parts or form a complete organism.
  • Examples: Planaria, Starfish, Hydra

Question 22

According to Article 165, which of the following qualifications is required for a person to be appointed as the Advocate General of a State?

  1. AOption (a)

    Qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court

  2. BOption (b)

    Qualified to be appointed a Magistrate  

  3. COption (c)

    Qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court 

  4. DOption (d)

     Qualified to be appointed a Judge of a District Court 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court . 

Key Points

  • Advocate General is the highest law officer of a State.
  • The post of Advocate General is mentioned in Article 165 of the Constitution.
  • A person must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court.
  • The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor of the State.
  • He/She provides legal advice to the State Government.

Additional Information

  • Attorney General of India
  • Mentioned in Article 76 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Attorney General is the highest law officer of India.
  • Appointed by the President of India.
  • Must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  • Gives legal advice to the Central Government.
  • Has the right to speak in Parliament, but no voting right.
  • Holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  • Judge of the Supreme Court
  • The relevant constitutional provision regarding the Judges of the Supreme Court is Article 124.
  • Must be a citizen of India.
  • Must have been a High Court Judge for at least 5 years, OR
  • Must have been an Advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years, OR
  • Must be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.
  • Appointed by the President of India.
  • Judge of a High Court
  • The relevant constitutional provision regarding the Judges of the High Court is Article 217.
  • Must be a citizen of India.
  • Must have held a judicial office for at least 10 years, OR
  • Must have been an Advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years.
  • Appointed by the President of India.
  • This qualification is required for Advocate General.
  • Judge of a District Court
  • The relevant constitutional provision regarding the appointment of District Judges is Article 233.
  • Must have a law degree.
  • Must have been an Advocate for at least 7 years.
  • Appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.
  • Magistrate
  • Selected through State Judicial Services Examination.

Question 23

The prestigious National School Games 2024, known for showcasing young athletic talent (Under 17) from across the country, were hosted in which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Punjab

  2. BOption (b)

    Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Gujarat

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttar Pradesh 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Uttar Pradesh 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The National School Games 2024 were hosted by Uttar Pradesh.
  • The Games were organized  by the School Games Federation of India (SGFI).
  • The National School Games are conducted annually, and participation is based on state school teams.
  • The current President of SGFI is Deepak Kumar (IAS), who is presently heading the federation.
  • Headquarters: The headquarters of SGFI is located in Agra, Uttar Pradesh.

Additional Information

  • Khelo India Youth Games 2025
  • The Khelo India Youth Games 2025 were hosted by Bihar.
  • The main events of the Games were held in Patna, along with other venues across the state.
  • Maharashtra emerged as the overall winner by topping the medal tally at KIYG 2025.
  • Haryana finished as the runner-up in the medal tally of the Khelo India Youth Games 2025.
  • The Games were organised by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports under the Khelo India programme.
  • Khelo India University Games 2025
  • The Khelo India University Games 2025 were hosted by Rajasthan.
  • The Games were conducted in multiple cities of Rajasthan, including Jaipur and other venues.
  • Chandigarh University emerged as the overall winner by topping the medal tally at KIUG 2025.
  • The runner-up position was secured by Lovely Professional University (LPU).
  • The Games were organised under the Khelo India programme by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • The Khelo India University Games aim to promote competitive sports among university-level athletes.
  • khelo India Winte Games 2025 
  • The Khelo India Winter Games 2025 were hosted in Ladakh and Jammu & Kashmir.
  • The Games were conducted at venues such as Leh (Ladakh) and Gulmarg (Jammu & Kashmir).
  • Indian Army emerged as the overall winner of the Khelo India Winter Games 2025.
  • Himachal Pradesh finished as the runner-up in the medal tally.
  • The Games were organized under the Khelo India programme by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • The event aimed to promote winter sports and sporting culture in Himalayan regions of India.

Question 24

As per the Provision of _______ of the Indian Constitution, the Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 56  

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 79 

  3. COption (c)

    Article 64 

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 87

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 79 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 79. 

Key Points

  • Article 79 of the Indian Constitution deals with the constitution of the Parliament of India.
  • According to Article 79, the Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha.
  • The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament.
  • Members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people of India.
  • The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552 members, as provided under Article 81.
  • The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is the Speaker, and the first Speaker was G. V. Mavalankar
  • Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.

Additional Information

  • Article 79 establishes the overall framework of Parliament, within which the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha function as two distinct Houses.
  • The status of Lok Sabha as the Lower House is understood from this constitutional framework.
  • Article 81 does not describe the position or status of the Lok Sabha within Parliament.
  • Instead, Article 81 is limited to explaining the composition of the Lok Sabha.
  • It specifies matters such as the maximum number of members and the allocation of seats among States and Union Territories.
  • Therefore, Article 81 cannot be the correct answer when the question relates to identifying the Lok Sabha as the Lower House of Parliament.
  • | Basis | Lok Sabha | Rajya Sabha | | --- | --- | --- | | Type of House | Lower House of Parliament | Upper House of Parliament | | Mention in Constitution | Part of Parliament under Article 79 | Part of Parliament under Article 79 | | Composition Article | Article 81 | Article 80 | | Election | Directly elected by the people | Indirectly elected by States/UTs | | Maximum Strength | 552 members | 250 members | | Tenure | 5 years | Permanent House | | Dissolution | Can be dissolved | Cannot be dissolved | | Presiding Officer | Speaker | Vice-President of India (Chairman) | | First Presiding Officer | G. V. Mavalankar | Dr. S. Radhakrishnan | | Money Bill | Can be introduced and finally passed | Cannot be introduced; can only recommend | | No-Confidence Motion | Can be moved and passed | Cannot be moved |

Question 25

Kabini and Bhavani are tributaries of the _____________ river. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Indus

  2. BOption (b)

    Kaveri

  3. COption (c)

    Narmada

  4. DOption (d)

    Godavari

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kaveri

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is:- Kaveri.

Key Points:-Kabini and Bhavani are important tributaries of the Cauvery (Kaveri) River, one of the major river systems of South India.

  • The Cauvery River originates at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri Hills of the Western Ghats, Karnataka.
  • It flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and finally drains into the Bay of Bengal, forming a fertile delta.
  • The Cauvery is a perennial river, mainly fed by the South-West monsoon and supplemented by the North-East monsoon in Tamil Nadu.

Kabini River

  • Source: Wayanad district of Kerala, in the Western Ghats.
  • Course:
  • Flows eastward through Kerala and Karnataka.
  • Joins the Cauvery near Tirumakudalu Narasipura (Karnataka).
  • Nature: Perennial river.
  • Importance:
  • Major contributor to the upper Cauvery basin.
  • Supports irrigation and wildlife (Kabini Reservoir, Nagarhole region).
  • Major tributaries of Kabini: Panamaram, Mananthavady, Nugu.

Bhavani River

  • Source: Silent Valley region of the Western Ghats, Kerala.
  • Course:
  • Flows through Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • Joins the Cauvery at Bhavani town in Erode district, Tamil Nadu.
  • Nature: Perennial river.
  • Importance:
  • One of the largest tributar
    • aries of the Cauvery.
  • Bhavanisagar Dam (Lower Bhavani Project) is crucial for irrigation and power generation.
  • Tributaries: Moyar, Siruvani, Kallar

 

Additional Information:-

  1. Physiographic & Geographical Significance
  • Both Kabini and Bhavani originate in the Western Ghats, reinforcing the role of the Ghats as:
  • A major water divide
  • A zone of orographic rainfall
  • They are east-flowing rivers, characteristic of the Peninsular river system, flowing from higher elevation to the Bay of Bengal.
  1. Drainage Pattern
  • The Cauvery basin exhibits a dendritic drainage pattern, typical of:
  • Homogeneous rock structure
  • Gentle slope of the Peninsular plateau
  • Kabini and Bhavani contribute to this pattern through multiple sub-tributaries.
  1. Dams & Projects (Prelims-Relevant)

    Kabini

  • Kabini Dam (Karnataka)
  • Nugu Dam (on a tributary)

     Bhavani

  • Bhavanisagar Dam (Lower Bhavani Project) – one of the largest earthen dams in India

Question 26

Which of the following is a rabi crop? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Cotton

  2. BOption (b)

    Maize

  3. COption (c)

    Tur

  4. DOption (d)

    Rapeseed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rapeseed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is:- Rapeseed.

Key PointsRabi crops are those which are sown in winter (October–December) and harvested in summer (March–April).

Rapeseed is a Rabi crop

  • Sown: October–November
  • Harvested: March–April
  • Requires cool climate and low to moderate rainfall

Why the others are incorrect:

  • Cotton → Kharif crop (needs high temperature and rainfall)
  • Tur (Arhar/Pigeon pea) → Kharif crop
  • Maize → Mainly Kharif crop in India (though grown in other seasons in limited areas)

Rabi crops are those which are sown in winter (October–December) and harvested in summer (March–April).

Common Rabi Crops:- wheat, barley, gram(chickpea), pea, mustard, linseed

Additional Information==> Rabi Crops

  • Sowing: October–November
  • Harvesting: March–April
  • Climate: Cool and dry
  • Rainfall: Low; irrigation important
  • Examples: Wheat, Barley, Rapeseed, Mustard, Gram, Pea

 ==>Kharif crops

  • Sowing: June–July (with SW monsoon)
  • Harvesting: September–October
  • Climate: Hot and wet
  • Examples: Rice, Cotton, Tur (Arhar), Maize, Jowar, Bajra

==>State-wise Cultivation (Prelims Value)

Rapeseed / Mustard:-

  • Rajasthan (largest producer)
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Haryana
  • Madhya Pradesh
  • West Bengal

Cotton:-

  • Maharashtra, Gujarat, Telangana

Tur:-

  • Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh

Maize:-

  • Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar

Question 27

Which country banned the entry of the UN Secretary-General António Guterres in October 2024 for 'failing' to condemn Iran's attack?

  1. AOption (a)

    Israel

  2. BOption (b)

    Thailand

  3. COption (c)

    Turkmenistan

  4. DOption (d)

    Oman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Israel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is:- Israel.

∈\in news:-

➡️ In October 2024, Israel barred UN Secretary-General António Guterres from entering the country, declaring him persona non grata. This decision came because Israel’s foreign minister said Guterres had failed to unequivocally condemn Iran’s missile attack on Israel, prompting the ban on his entry. 

Key Points 

  • A diplomatic term under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961).
  • Allows a state to:
  • Reject or expel a foreign diplomat or international official.
  • Highly unusual when applied to:
  • The UN Secretary-General, the highest UN official.

Additional Information Israel–UN Relations (Background)

  • Israel has often accused the UN of:
  • Institutional bias
  • Disproportionate criticism of Israeli actions
  • This incident highlights strained Israel–UN relations, especially during:
  • West Asia conflicts
  • Israel–Iran tensions

 Iran–Israel Conflict Context

  • Iran launched attacks (directly or via proxies), escalating regional tensions.
  • Israel expected clear condemnation from the UN leadership.
  • Guterres’ balanced or cautious stance was viewed as unacceptable by Israel.

Question 28

Who designed the impressive Albert Hall building in Jaipur, India, in the Indo-Saracenic style?

  1. AOption (a)

    Charles Correa  

  2. BOption (b)

    Samuel Swinton Jacob 

  3. COption (c)

    Edwin Lutyens 

  4. DOption (d)

    Le Corbusier 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Samuel Swinton Jacob 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Samuel Swinton Jacob.

Key Points The impressive Albert Hall (Central Museum), Jaipur was designed by Sir Samuel Swinton Jacob.

  • Architect: Sir Samuel Swinton Jacob
  • Style: Indo-Saracenic architecture
  • Period: Late 19th century (foundation laid in 1876; completed in 1887)
  • Patron: Maharaja Sawai Ram Singh II of Jaipur
  • Influence: A blend of Indian (Rajput, Mughal) and Islamic elements with European Gothic features

 Architectural Significance:-

  • Use of chhatris, domes, arches, jali work
  • Constructed with pink sandstone, reflecting Jaipur’s identity
  • One of the earliest and finest examples of Indo-Saracenic architecture in India

Additional Information 1) Charles Correa

  • A post-independence Indian architect.
  • Known for modern, climate-responsive architecture.
  • Famous works:
  • Jawahar Kala Kendra, Jaipur
  • Gandhi Smarak Sangrahalaya, Ahmedabad
  • ❌ Not associated with colonial or Indo-Saracenic buildings.

 2) Edwin Lutyens

  • Renowned British architect of imperial New Delhi.
  • Known for:
  • Rashtrapati Bhavan
  • India Gate
  • Style: Classical European with Indian elements, not Indo-Saracenic.
  • ❌ Not the designer of Albert Hall, Jaipur.

 3) Le Corbusier

  • Swiss-French modernist architect.
  • Designed Chandigarh (Capitol Complex).
  • Style: Modernism / Brutalism, functional and minimalist.
  • ❌ No connection with Indo-Saracenic architecture or Albert Hall.

Question 29

Which of the following Fundamental Duties of the Indian Constitution was inserted through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002?

  1. AOption (a)

    To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform 

  2. BOption (b)

    To provide opportunities for education to his child or as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years

  3. COption (c)

    To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

  4. DOption (d)

    To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To provide opportunities for education to his child or as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: To provide opportunities for education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between the ages of six and fourteen years.

Key Points

  • The main objective of the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act is to make elementary education a Fundamental Right. ​
  • It inserted Article 21A in the Fundamental Rights, providing free and compulsory education to all children aged 6-14 years.
  • It also amended Article 45 of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • It amended Article 51A (Fundamental Duties), adding clause (k) - the duty of every parent/guardian to provide educational opportunities for their child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years. Hence, Option 2 is correct.

 

Additional Information

  • Fundamental Duties were introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (based on the Soviet Constitution).
  • It originally contained 10 duties, and the 11th duty was added after the 86th Constitutional Amendment
  • The 11 Fundamental Duties are as follows:
  1. ​Abide by the Indian Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
  2. Cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
  3. Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
  4. Defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  5. Promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India.
  6. Value and preserve the rich heritage of the country's composite culture.
  7. Protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion forliving creatures.
  8. Develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  9. Safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
  10. Strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
  11. Provide an opportunity for education to his child or ward between the ages of six and fourteen years. (added by the 86th CAA, 2002)

Question 30

Narasimham Committee-1998 is related to _______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    agricultural reform 

  2. BOption (b)

    police reform 

  3. COption (c)

    banking sector reform 

  4. DOption (d)

     educational reform 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

banking sector reform 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is banking sector reform.

Key Points

  • It was the Narasimham Committee 2, formed after the 1991 reforms, to strengthen stability, efficiency, and prudential norms in the banking sector. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • The major recommendations of the committee are
  • Raise the Capital Adequacy Ratio to 9% by 2000.
  • Create Asset Reconstruction Committees to manage Non-Performing Assets.
  • Reduce government shareholding in PSBs to 33% (with safeguards).
  • RBI to focus on monetary policy, shifting the ownership functions of banks to a separate authority.

Additional Information

  • Related committees and Commissions:
  • Narasimham Committee 1 (1991): First phase of banking reforms.
  • Basel Committee (1974) on Banking Supervision.
  • PJ Nayak Committee (2014): PSB governance reforms.
  • Raghuram Rajan Committee (2008): Post-crisis reforms for financial inclusion and market development.
  • Kelkar Committee (2002): Fiscal responsibility reforms impacting the banking sector.

Question 31

Which of the following statements regarding quantum science and technology are correct?

  1. The United Nations has designated 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology, marking the centenary of quantum mechanics.
  2. The National Quantum Mission, launched in 2023, focusses on scaling up scientific and industrial research and development in quantum technology.
  3. Quantum Computing Applications Lab (QCAL) aims to accelerate research in quantum computing and facilitate new scientific discoveries.
  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct Answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

  • The UN General Assembly officially proclaimed 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology to celebrate 100 years since the initial development of modern quantum mechanics in 1925. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Indian government launched the National Quantum Mission in April 2023, with a substantial budget og Rs. 6000 crores, to accelerate R&D in the field of quantum technology and position India as a global leader. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • QCAL is an initiative launched by AWS in collaboration with the Government of India (MeitY) to foster R&D, develop applications, and facilitate scientific discoveries in quantum computing. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

  • National Quantum Mission (2023-2031): It was approved by the government in 2023 with a budget of Rs. 6000 crores.
  • The NQM aims to develop indigenous quantum computers ​(50-1000 qubits), establish secure quantum communication networks, build a skilled quantum workforce, and strengthen academia-industry collaboration.

Important Points

  • Quantum Technology: The technologies that work on the principle of quantum mechanics, such as superposition, entanglement, and quantum tunnelling.
  • Quantum Bits (Qubits): Unlike classical bits (0 or 1), qubits can exist in a superposition of states (both 0 and 1 at a time).
  • Quantum Interference: Manipulates probabilities to amplify correct answers and cancel out incorrect ones, guiding the computation.
  • Quantum Tunnelling: The phenomenon where a particle passes through a potential energy barrier, even if it lacks the classical energy to surmount it, by exploiting its wave-like nature, allowing its wavefunction to exist on the other side.

Question 32

Who among the following was one of the founders of the ‘Hindustan Republican Association’ in 1924? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Surya Sen

  2. BOption (b)

    Bir Tikendrajit Singh 

  3. COption (c)

    Ram Prasad Bismil 

  4. DOption (d)

    Lala Lajpat Rai 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ram Prasad Bismil 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ram Prasad Bismil.

Key Points

  • The Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was a revolutionary group formed in 1924 by Indian nationalists like Ram Prasad Bismil, Sachindra Nath Sanyal, and Ashfaqulla Khan. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • Later, influenced by Bhagat Singh, Chandra Sekhar Azad, and Sukhdev, it became the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), adding a focus and becoming known for actions like the Kakori Conspiracy (1925) and the assassination of J.P. Saunders (1928).
  • In the Kakori Conspiracy, HRA members robbed a train carrying government treasury, leading to the arrest and execution of Bismil, Asfaqulla Khan, and others.
  • In the Saunders ' Assassination, HSRA members, including Bhagat Singh, assassinated J.P. Saunders in Lahore to avenge Lala Rajpat Rai's death.

Important Points

  • Surya Sen, known as "Master Da," founded the Indian Republican Army (IRA) in Chittagong, a revolutionary group dedicated to armed resistance against British rule, and is most famous for leading the iconic Chittagong Armoury Raid in 1930.
  • Bir Tikendrajit Singh, known as Koireng or "Lion of Manipur," was a Manipuri prince who led resistance against British rule during the Anglo-Manipur War of 1891.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai, popularly known as "Punjan Kesari or Lion of Punjab," was a prominent national leader, freedom fighter, and social reformer who played a crucial role in India's independence movement, particularly through his leadership in the extremist wing of the Indian National Congress.
  • He pushed for Swaraj, Swadeshi, and the boycott of British goods during the Swadeshi movement.
  • He was elected as the president of INC in the 1920 Calcutta session.

Additional Information

NameFounderPlaceYear
Vyayam MandalChapekar BrothersPoona1896-97
Abhinav BharatSavarkar BrothersNasik1901
Anushilan SamitiSatish Chandra BasuCalcutta1902
HRASachindranath Sanyal, Ram Prasad BismilKanpur1924
Bharat Naujawan SabhaBhagat SinghLahore1926
HSRAChandrasekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, SukhdevNew Delhi1928
Indian Home Rule SocietyShyamji Krishna VarmaLondon1905
Indian Independence LeagueTaraknath DasUSA1907
Gadhar PartyLala HardayalUSA1913

Question 33

The unit of force is different from the unit of _______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    weight

  2. BOption (b)

    pressure × area  

  3. COption (c)

    mass × acceleration  

  4. DOption (d)

     rate of change of angular momentum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

 rate of change of angular momentum

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is rate of change of angular momentum.

Key Points

  • Force is defined as the ability to change the state of motion or the physical dimensions of a body.
  • The standard unit is the Newton (N).
  • Force possesses both magnitude (strength) and direction.
  • It is derived from the Newton's second law of motion. The primary equation is Force = Mass x acceleration i.e F=ma.
  • It is a Vector quantity.
  • The vector sum of all forces acting on an object. If the net force is zero, the object is in equilibrium (either at rest or moving at a constant velocity).

Additional InformationIn modern physics, all known interactions are governed by four fundamental forces: 

  • Gravitational Force: Attraction between objects with mass.and it governs planetary orbits.
  • Electromagnetic Force: Acts between charged particles; responsible for electricity and magnetism.
  • Strong Nuclear Force: Binds protons and neutrons together in an atom's nucleus.
  • Weak Nuclear Force: Responsible for certain types of radioactive decay, such as beta decay.

Question 34

In which year did Babasaheb Ambedkar organise a non-violent struggle for entry into the Kala Ram Temple in Nasik? 

  1. AOption (a)

    1930

  2. BOption (b)

    1934

  3. COption (c)

    1925

  4. DOption (d)

    1921

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1930

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1930.  

Key Points

  • Babasaheb Ambedkar organised the non-violent struggle for entry into the Kalaram Temple in Nasik.
  • Year Started: The movement was launched on March 2, 1930.
  • Method: It was a non-violent struggle (Satyagraha) aimed at challenging caste-based discrimination.
  • The primary goal was to assert the right of Dalits (then known as "untouchables") to enter the temple and worship alongside other Hindus, demanding social and religious equality.

Additional Information

  • Significance: The movement was a pivotal event in the fight against untouchability, highlighting the deep-rooted caste discrimination in Indian society and raising national consciousness about the issue.
  • Prior Movements: This movement followed the successful Mahad Satyagraha in 1927, where Ambedkar led Dalits to access a public water tank, establishing a pattern of assertive public movements for equal rights.
  • Later Legal Reforms: The struggle for temple entry eventually contributed to legal reforms, such as the Temple Entry Proclamation of 1936 in Travancore state, and ultimately the inclusion of Article 17 in the Indian Constitution, which formally abolished untouchability.
  • The movement lasted for 3 years.

Question 35

Which of the following equations correctly represents the calculation of speed?

  1. AOption (a)

    Speed = Distance / Time 

  2. BOption (b)

    Speed = Energy / Time 

  3. COption (c)

    Speed = Force × Time  

  4. DOption (d)

    Speed = Mass × Acceleration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Speed = Distance / Time 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Speed = Distance / Time.

Key Points

  • Definition: Speed is a scalar quantity, meaning it only has magnitude (size) and no specific direction.
  • SI Unit: The standard unit for speed is meters per second (m/s).
  • Other Units: Common units include kilometers per hour (km/h) and miles per hour (mph).
  • Instrument: The speed of a vehicle is measured by an instrument called a Speedometer, while the distance traveled is recorded by an Odometer.

Additional Information: Speed vs. Velocity

  1. While often used interchangeably in daily life, they are different in physics:
  • Speed: How fast an object is moving (Scalar)
  • Velocity: How fast an object is moving in a specific direction (Vector).

Conversion Factors

  • To convert km/h to m/s: Multiply by 5/18.
  • To convert m/s to km/h: Multiply by 18/5.

Question 36

 In which type of forests are Sal, Shisham and Hurra trees found in India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Littoral and swamp forests 

  2. BOption (b)

    Tropical deciduous forests

  3. COption (c)

    Tropical thorn forests

  4. DOption (d)

    Tropical evergreen forests 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tropical deciduous forests

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tropical deciduous forests.

Key Points

  • In India, Sal, Shisham, and Hurra trees are primarily found in Tropical Deciduous Forests, specifically the Moist Deciduous subtype.
  • These forests are often called Monsoon Forests because the trees have a unique property: they shed their leaves for about 6 to 8 weeks during the dry summer to conserve water.
  • Most Widespread: Tropical Deciduous forests are the most extensive forest type in India, covering a vast portion of the country's landscape.
  • Climate Requirements: These forests thrive in regions receiving an annual rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm
  • Geographic Distribution: They are commonly found on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, the foothills of the Himalayas, Odisha, and parts of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.

Additional Information

Sub-classification of Deciduous Forests

  • Deciduous forests are divided into two categories based on water availability:
  • Moist Deciduous: Found in areas with 100–200 cm rainfall. This is where you find Teak, Sal, Shisham, Hurra, Mahua, and Sandalwood.
  • Dry Deciduous: Found in areas with 70–100 cm rainfall. Common trees include Tendu, Palas, Amaltas, and Bel.

Economic Importance

  • The trees found here are known as Hardwood trees. Because their wood is strong and durable, species like Shisham and Sal are highly valued for:
  • Making high-quality furniture.
  • Construction and railway sleepers.
  • Manufacturing transport equipment (like carts and boat parts).

Question 37

Which of the following stages are involved in beer-production? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Fermentation and brewing only 

  2. BOption (b)

    Brewing and pasteurisation only

  3. COption (c)

    Malting, brewing and fermentation 

  4. DOption (d)

    Fermentation and finishing only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Malting, brewing and fermentation 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Malting, brewing and fermentation 

Key Points

  • Beer production involves key stages:
  1. Malting (germinating grains)
  2. Brewing : There are several steps involved in this process which include:
  • Milling: Grinding malt
  • Mashing: Mixing with hot water to create sugary liquid, or wort
  • Lautering : Separating liquid wort from grain solids
  • Boiling (adding hops)

    3.​ Fermentation: Yeast converts sugar to alcohol

And Finally Filtration & Packaging (bottling/canning). Therefore, the goal is to extract sugars from grains, then ferment them with yeast and flavor with hops into the final alcoholic beverage. 

Additional Information

  • Beer is considered to be one of the oldest alcoholic drinks.
  • The production process of beer making is so simple that it led to its invention and popularization.
  • Since any sugar (starch) containing substance can undergo alcoholic fermentation, many cultures quickly adopted and invented beer as a sweet liquid.
  • Most modern beers have hops as an additive that acts as a stabilizing agent and preservative, giving the beer a distinctly bitter flavor.
  • The brewing and fermentation process comprises a minimum of ten processing steps from malted barley or any other grain to the finished product.

Question 38

Which of the following books was NOT written by Jhumpa Lahiri? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Whereabouts

  2. BOption (b)

    The Lowland

  3. COption (c)

    The Ministry of Utmost Happiness

  4. DOption (d)

    Unaccustomed Earth 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Ministry of Utmost Happiness

Why this answer is correct

The correct Answer is The Ministry of Utmost Happiness

Key Points

  • Jhumpa Lahiri (Nilanjana Sudeshna ) is a British-American author known for her short stories, novels, and essays in English and, more recently, in Italian.
  • Her novel The Lowland was placed on the shortlist for the Man Booker Prize, which ultimately went to The Luminaries by Eleanor Catton.
  • Lahiri's second collection of short stories is Unaccustomed Earth.It achieved the rare distinction of debuting at number 1 on The New York Times best seller list.   The New York Times Book Review editor Dwight Garner stated, "It's hard to remember the last genuinely serious, well-written work of fiction—particularly a book of stories—that leapt straight to No. 1; it's a powerful demonstration of Lahiri's newfound commercial clout.
  • Whereabouts (Italian: Dove mi trovo) - It is her third novel, her first since The Lowland (2013). It was originally written in Italian, and later translated into English by Lahiri herself.

 

Additional Information

  • The Ministry of Utmost Happiness is the second novel by Indian writer Arundhati Roy, published in 2017, twenty years after her debut, The God of Small Things which won the Booker Prize for Fiction in 1997 and became the biggest-selling book by a non-expatriate Indian author.
  • She is also a political activist involved in human rights and environmental causes.
  • She was the winner of the 2024 PEN Pinter Prize, given by English PEN, and she named imprisoned British-Egyptian writer and activist Alaa Abd El-Fattah as the "Writer of Courage".

Question 39

In February 2025, Rekha Gupta took oath as the Chief Minister of ________________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajasthan

  2. BOption (b)

    Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh 

  4. DOption (d)

    Andhra Pradesh 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct Answer is Delhi.

Key Points

  • Bharatiya Janata Party’s MLA Rekha Gupta took oath as the ninth Chief Minister of Delhi at the Ramlila Maidan on Thursday (February 20, 2025).
  • Delhi Lieutenant Governor VK Saxena administered the oath of office and secrecy to Ms Gupta.
  • A six-member Council of Ministers were also sworn into office in the presence of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and other senior BJP leaders.
  • After taking the oath, Rekha Gupta became the fourth woman Chief Minister after Sushma Swaraj, Sheila Dikshit and Atishi and the second woman BJP Chief Minister of Delhi.

 

Additional Information

  • Ms Rekha Gupta won from the Shalimar Bagh seat in the recently held Delhi assembly polls.
  • She began her political journey with ABVP at Daulat Ram College, Delhi University, in 1992.
  • She became the President of the Delhi University Students’ Union in 1996.
  • She has also served as the General Secretary of BJP Mahila Morcha in Delhi.

Question 40

During which of the following years was gender budgeting introduced in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    2005-2006 

  2. BOption (b)

    1965-1966 

  3. COption (c)

    1986-1987

  4. DOption (d)

    1972-1973

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2005-2006 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is 2005-2006.

Key Points

  • Gender Budgeting was introduced in India in the fiscal year 2005-06, with the first Gender Budget Statement (GBS) appearing in the Union Budget to track allocations for women's welfare.
  • The statement is typically divided into two parts:
  • ​​​ Part A for schemes with 100% allocation for women, and Part B for schemes with at least 30% allocation for women.

Additional Information

  • Gender Budgeting is concerned with the gender-sensitive formulation of legislation, programs, and schemes.
  • The government's gender budget share has declined by about 0.01% this fiscal year, dropping from 4.72% last year to 4.71% in the financial year 2020-21.
  • While foundational work and analysis began earlier (specifically by the National Institute of Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP) in 2001), the official Gender Budget Statement (GBS) first appeared in the Union Budget 2005-06.

Arithmetical Ability (20 questions)

Question 41

The area of a square plot is 38809 m2 . The length of each side of the plot (in m) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    173

  2. BOption (b)

    203

  3. COption (c)

    197

  4. DOption (d)

    217

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

197

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The area of the square plot = 38809 m2

Formula used:

Area of a square = (side)2

Side = √(Area)

Calculation:

Side = √38809

⇒ Side = 197 m

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 42

A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 50% above its cost price and offers a 30% discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹159, then what is the list price (in ₹) of the fan?

  1. AOption (a)

    4,657 

  2. BOption (b)

    4,951 

  3. COption (c)

    4,741 

  4. DOption (d)

    4,770 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4,770 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Profit = ₹159

List Price = Selling Price (SP)

Cost Price (CP) = ₹x

List Price = 50% above CP

Discount = 30%

Formula used:

SP = CP × (1 + 50/100) × (1 - 30/100)

Profit = SP - CP

Calculation:

SP = ₹x × (1 + 50/100) × (1 - 30/100)

SP = ₹x × 1.5 × 0.7

SP = ₹x × 1.05

Profit = SP - CP

₹159 = ₹x × 1.05 - ₹x

⇒ ₹159 = ₹x(1.05 - 1)

⇒ ₹159 = ₹x × 0.05

⇒ ₹x = ₹159 ÷ 0.05

⇒ ₹x = ₹3180

List Price = CP × (1 + 50/100)

⇒ List Price = ₹3180 × 1.5

⇒ List Price = ₹4770

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 43

A garrison of 1210 men has provisions for 15 days. How long (in days) will the provisions last if the garrison is increased to 1815 men?

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    11

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of men initially = 1210

Provisions last for = 15 days

Number of men increased to = 1815

Calculation:

For provisions, the total number of man-days remains constant. Hence,

Initial total man-days = Final total man-days

1210 × 15 = 1815 × x

Where x is the number of days the provisions will last for 1815 men.

1210 × 15 = 1815 × x

⇒ x = (1210 × 15) / 1815

⇒ x = 18150 / 1815

⇒ x = 10

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 44

There are 7597 students in a school and the ratio of boys to girls is 50 : 21. Find the number of boys in the school.

  1. AOption (a)

    5350

  2. BOption (b)

    5367

  3. COption (c)

    5333

  4. DOption (d)

    5359

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5350

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of students in school = 7597

Ratio of boys to girls = 50 : 21

Calculation:

Total ratio = Sum of parts in the ratio = 50 + 21 = 71

Number of boys = (Ratio of boys ÷ Total ratio) × Total number of students

Number of boys = (50 ÷ 71) × 7597

⇒ Number of boys = (50 × 7597) ÷ 71

⇒ Number of boys = 379850 ÷ 71

⇒ Number of boys = 5350

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 45

A person borrows ₹87,900 at 10% compound interest per year, compounded annually. At the end of every year, he pays ₹9,900 as part payment. How much does he still owe after two such instalments?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹85,569 

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹85,439

  3. COption (c)

    ₹85,556 

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹85,382 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹85,569 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹87,900

Rate (r) = 10% per annum

Time (t) = 2 years

Annual payment = ₹9,900

Formula used:

Compound Interest formula: A = P × (1 + r/100)t

Remaining balance after payment = Amount at the end of the year - Payment

Calculation:

Year 1:

Amount after 1 year: A = ₹87,900 × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ A = ₹87,900 × 1.1 = ₹96,690

Remaining balance after first payment: ₹96,690 - ₹9,900

⇒ Balance = ₹86,790

Year 2:

Amount after 2 years: A = ₹86,790 × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ A = ₹86,790 × 1.1 = ₹95,469

Remaining balance after second payment: ₹95,469 - ₹9,900

⇒ Balance = ₹85,569

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 46

The value of 2.5555... + 1.2727... − 1.8888... is:

  1. AOption (a)

    6433\frac{64}{33}

  2. BOption (b)

    6139\frac{61}{39}

  3. COption (c)

    6239\frac{62}{39}

  4. DOption (d)

    6035\frac{60}{35}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6433\frac{64}{33}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Value of 2.5555... + 1.2727... - 1.8888...

Formula used:

Recurring decimal conversion: A decimal number like 2.5555... can be written as a fraction using the formula for recurring decimals.

Calculation:

Convert 2.5555...:

Let x = 2.5555...

⇒ 10x = 25.5555...

⇒ 10x - x = 25.5555... - 2.5555...

⇒ 9x = 23

⇒ x = 23/9

Convert 1.2727...:

Let y = 1.2727...

⇒ 100y = 127.2727...

⇒ 100y - y = 127.2727... - 1.2727...

⇒ 99y = 126

⇒ y = 126/99

⇒ y = 14/11

Convert 1.8888...:

Let z = 1.8888...

⇒ 10z = 18.8888...

⇒ 10z - z = 18.8888... - 1.8888...

⇒ 9z = 17

⇒ z = 17/9

Add and subtract the fractions:

⇒ (23/9) + (14/11) - (17/9)

⇒ (23 - 17)/9 + 14/11

⇒ 6/9 + 14/11

⇒ 2/3 + 14/11

Find the LCM of 3 and 11:

⇒ LCM = 33

Convert fractions to have the same denominator:

⇒ (2 × 11)/(3 × 11) + (14 × 3)/(11 × 3)

⇒ 22/33 + 42/33

⇒ (22 + 42)/33

⇒ 64/33

∴ The correct answer is option (1): 64/33.

Question 47

Pinki is twice as competent a worker as Sabina. Sabina can complete a task in 48 days. If Pinki and Sabina work together, the time it will take to finish the work is:

  1. AOption (a)

    18 days 

  2. BOption (b)

    18.6 days

  3. COption (c)

    17.9 days

  4. DOption (d)

    16 days 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16 days 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Sabina 1 day work = 1/48

Pinki is 2 times ⇒ Pinki 1 day work = 1/24

Formula used:

Total time = LCM ÷ (sum of efficiencies)

Calculation:

LCM of 48 and 24 = 48

Sabina work = 48 ÷ 48 = 1

Pinki work = 48 ÷ 24 = 2

Total work = 3

⇒ Time = 48 ÷ 3

∴ Time = 16 days

Question 48

Amit purchased 10 kg of rice at the rate of ₹38 per kg and 32 kg of rice at ₹46 per kg. He sold the whole mixture at the rate of ₹43 per kg. Find his loss (in ₹). 

  1. AOption (a)

    54

  2. BOption (b)

    41

  3. COption (c)

    51

  4. DOption (d)

    46

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

46

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Purchased 1: 10 kg rice at ₹38 per kg

Purchased 2: 32 kg rice at ₹46 per kg

Selling Price of mixture = ₹43 per kg

Formula used:

Total Cost Price (CP) = Sum of (Weight × Rate)

Total Weight = Sum of Weights

Total Selling Price (SP) = Total Weight × SP per kg

Loss = Total CP − Total SP

Calculations:

Total CP = (10 × 38) + (32 × 46)

⇒ Total CP = 380 + 1472

⇒ Total CP = 1852

Total Weight = 10 + 32

⇒ Total Weight = 42 kg

Total SP = 42 × 43

⇒ Total SP = 1806

Total Loss = Total CP − Total SP

⇒ Total Loss = 1852 − 1806

⇒ Total Loss = 46

∴ The calculated loss is ₹46.

Question 49

The average price of three items of furniture is ₹17,295. If their prices are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7, the price of the costliest item (in ₹) is: 

  1. AOption (a)

    8,071 

  2. BOption (b)

    10,377

  3. COption (c)

    5,765

  4. DOption (d)

    24,213 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

24,213 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average price of three items = ₹17,295

The ratio of their prices = 3 : 5 : 7

Formula used:

Average price = (Sum of all items) ÷ Total number of items

Sum of all items = Total average price × Total number of items

Calculation:

Sum of all items = 17,295 × 3

⇒ Sum = ₹51,885

Let the prices of the three items be 3x, 5x, and 7x.

Sum of all items = 3x + 5x + 7x = 15x

⇒ 15x = ₹51,885

⇒ x = ₹51,885 ÷ 15

⇒ x = ₹3,459

The price of the costliest item = 7x

⇒ 7 × ₹3,459 = ₹24,213

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 50

Three men complete a work in 27 hours. In how many hours will 9 men complete the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    81

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Work completed by 3 men in 27 hours = 1 unit

Number of men = 9

Formula used:

Work = Men × Time

Time required = Total Work / Number of men

Calculations:

Total work completed by 3 men in 27 hours = 3 × 27 = 81 units

Time required for 9 men to complete the same work:

⇒ Time = Total Work / Number of Men

⇒ Time = 81 / 9

⇒ Time = 9 hours

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 51

The curved surface area of a cylinder is 880 cm. If the circumference of its base is 88 cm, find its volume. (Use π =22/7 )

  1. AOption (a)

    6120 cm3 

  2. BOption (b)

    6180 cm3

  3. COption (c)

    6140 cm3 

  4. DOption (d)

    6160 cm3 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6160 cm3 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Curved surface area of the cylinder = 880 cm2

Circumference of the base = 88 cm

π = 22/7

Formula used:

Curved Surface Area = Circumference × Height

Volume = π × r2 × h

Calculations:

Curved Surface Area = Circumference × Height

⇒ 880 = 88 × h

⇒ h = 880 ÷ 88

⇒ h = 10 cm

Circumference = 2 × π × r

⇒ 88 = 2 × (22/7) × r

⇒ r = (88 × 7) ÷ (2 × 22)

⇒ r = 14 cm

Volume = π × r2 × h

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 142 × 10

⇒ Volume = (22/7) × 196 × 10

⇒ Volume = (22 × 1960) ÷ 7

⇒ Volume = 6160 cm3

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Question 52

The average marks of 16 students in a class is 53. If the marks of each student are doubled, find the new average.

  1. AOption (a)

    106

  2. BOption (b)

    32

  3. COption (c)

    53

  4. DOption (d)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

106

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Average marks of 16 students = 53

The marks of each student are doubled.

Formula used:

New Average = Old Average × 2

Calculation:

New Average = 53 × 2

⇒ New Average = 106

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 53

The speed of a stream is 3 km/hr. A person can row 26 km downstream in the same time as he can row 14 km upstream. Find the speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr).

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Speed of the stream = 3 km/hr

Downstream distance = 26 km

Upstream distance = 14 km

Time taken downstream = Time taken upstream

Let the speed of the boat in still water = x km/hr

Formula used:

Downstream speed = (x + speed of the stream)

Upstream speed = (x - speed of the stream)

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

Time taken downstream = Time taken upstream

⇒ 26 ÷ (x + 3) = 14 ÷ (x - 3)

⇒ 26(x - 3) = 14(x + 3)

⇒ 26x - 78 = 14x + 42

⇒ 26x - 14x = 42 + 78

⇒ 12x = 120

⇒ x = 10

∴ The speed of the boat in still water is 10 km/hr (Option D).

Question 54

Sapna invested ₹21,300 on simple interest, partly at 7% per annum and partly at 13% per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 5 years, then find the sum (in ₹) invested at 7% per annum.

  1. AOption (a)

    13,843

  2. BOption (b)

    13,845 

  3. COption (c)

    13,846

  4. DOption (d)

    13,847

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13,845 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total Principal (P) = ₹21,300

Rate of Interest (R1) = 7% per annum

Rate of Interest (R2) = 13% per annum

Time (t) = 5 years

Interest earned from both parts is equal.

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = P×R×T100\dfrac{P × R × T}{100}

Calculation:

Let the amount invested at 7% be ₹x and at 13% be ₹(21300 - x).

Interest from both parts is equal:

⇒ x×7×5100=(21300−x)×13×5100\dfrac{x × 7 × 5}{100} = \dfrac{(21300 - x) × 13 × 5}{100}

Simplifying:

⇒ 35x100=(21300×13×5−65x)100\dfrac{35x}{100} = \dfrac{(21300 × 13 × 5 - 65x)}{100}

⇒ 35x = 21300 × 13 × 5  - 65x

⇒ 35x + 65x = 21300 × 65

⇒ 100x =  21300 × 65

⇒ x = (21300 × 65) / 100

⇒ x = ₹13845

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 55

Simplify : \left(96 \div 4\right) \times \left{\frac{18}{6} + \frac{34}{3} \times (9 - 6)\right}

  1. AOption (a)

    888

  2. BOption (b)

    896

  3. COption (c)

    895

  4. DOption (d)

    901

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

888

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Simplify: (96 ÷ 4) × {(18 ÷ 6) + (34 ÷ 3) × (9 - 6)}

Formula used:

BODMAS Rule

Calculation:

(96 ÷ 4) × {(18 ÷ 6) + (34 ÷ 3) × (9 - 6)}

⇒ (24) × {(3) + (34 ÷ 3) × (3)}

⇒ (24) × {3 + (34 × 3 ÷ 3)}

⇒ (24) × {3 + 34}

⇒ (24) × 37

⇒ 888

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Question 56

Convert 4.6833333… into a fraction.

  1. AOption (a)

    18577\frac{185}{77}

  2. BOption (b)

    24755\frac{247}{55}

  3. COption (c)

    20965\frac{209}{65}

  4. DOption (d)

    28160\frac{281}{60}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

28160\frac{281}{60}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Decimal: 4.6833333… (repeating 3)

Formula used:

A repeating decimal is converted to a fraction by forming equations and subtracting them to eliminate the repeating part.

Calculations:

Let x = 4.6833333…

Multiply by 100 to move decimal after 68:

⇒ 100x = 468.33333…

Multiply by 1000 to move one repeating digit further:

⇒ 1000x = 4683.33333…

Subtract:

⇒ 1000x − 100x = 4683.33333… − 468.33333…

⇒ 900x = 4683 − 468

⇒ 900x = 4215

Solve for x:

⇒ x = 4215 ÷ 900

Simplify:

⇒ x = 843 ÷ 180

Simplify again:

⇒ x = 281 ÷ 60

∴ The fraction is 281/60.

Question 57

Water flows out through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 2 metres per second into a cylindrical tank with base radius of 50 cm. By how much will the level of water rise in the tank in 20 minutes?

  1. AOption (a)

    94 cm 

  2. BOption (b)

    91 cm 

  3. COption (c)

    96 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    93 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

96 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Pipe diameter = 2 cm ⇒ radius = 1 cm

Flow speed = 2 m/s = 200 cm/s

Tank radius = 50 cm

Time = 20 minutes = 1200 seconds

Formula used:

Volume of water per second = Area of pipe × Speed

Area of circle = π × r2

Rise in tank level = Total volume ÷ Area of tank base

Calculation:

Area of pipe = π × 12

⇒ Area = π

Volume per second = π × 200

⇒ Volume per second = 200π

Total volume in 1200 s = 200π × 1200

⇒ Total volume = 240000π cm³

Area of tank base = π × 502

⇒ Area of tank base = 2500π

Rise in water level = 240000π ÷ 2500π

⇒ Rise = 96 cm

∴ Water level will rise by 96 cm.

Question 58

 The price of fuel decreases by 30%, 20% and 10% in three successive months, but increases by 65% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price?

  1. AOption (a)

    Decreases by 19.82%

  2. BOption (b)

    Increases by 21.97%

  3. COption (c)

    Increases by 20.21%

  4. DOption (d)

    Decreases by 16.84% 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Decreases by 16.84% 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The price of fuel decreases by 30%, 20%, and 10% in three successive months and increases by 65% in the fourth month.

Formula used:

To calculate the successive percentage change in price, the formula is:

New Price = Initial Price × (1 + Percentage Change 1) × (1 + Percentage Change 2) × (1 + Percentage Change 3) × (1 + Percentage Change 4)

Percentage Change = ((Final Price - Initial Price) / Initial Price) × 100

Calculations:

Assume the original price of fuel is ₹100 for simplicity.

1st Month Price: ₹100 × (1 - 30/100) = ₹100 × 0.7 = ₹70

2nd Month Price: ₹70 × (1 - 20/100) = ₹70 × 0.8 = ₹56

3rd Month Price: ₹56 × (1 - 10/100) = ₹56 × 0.9 = ₹50.4

4th Month Price: ₹50.4 × (1 + 65/100) = ₹50.4 × 1.65 = ₹83.16

Percentage Change in Price as compared to its original price:

⇒ Percentage Change = ((₹83.16 - ₹100) / ₹100) × 100

⇒ Percentage Change = (₹83.16 - ₹100) / ₹100 × 100

⇒ Percentage Change = -16.84%

∴ The correct answer is option 4 (Decreases by 16.84%).

Question 59

Amit's income in 2019 was ₹24,100. He gets an increment of 30% every year. What was his income (in ₹) in 2021?

  1. AOption (a)

    38,560 

  2. BOption (b)

     40,729

  3. COption (c)

    31,330 

  4. DOption (d)

    24,100 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

 40,729

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Income in 2019 = ₹24,100

Increment = 30% every year

Formula used:

Income after increment for n years = Initial Income × (1 + Increment Rate)n

Calculation:

Income in 2021 = ₹24,100 × (1 + 30/100)2

⇒ ₹24,100 × (1.3)2

⇒ ₹24,100 × 1.69

⇒ ₹40,729

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 60

Simplify : 7296+65614+68593+8649\sqrt[6]{729} + \sqrt[4]{6561} + \sqrt[3]{6859} + \sqrt{8649}

  1. AOption (a)

    107

  2. BOption (b)

    152

  3. COption (c)

    58

  4. DOption (d)

    124

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

124

Why this answer is correct

Given:

7296+65614+68593+8649\sqrt[6]{729} + \sqrt[4]{6561} + \sqrt[3]{6859} + \sqrt{8649}

Formula used:

nk ⇒ nkk=n\sqrt[k]{n^k} = n

Calculation:

729 = 36 ⇒ 7296=3\sqrt[6]{729} = 3

6561 = 94 ⇒ 65614=9\sqrt[4]{6561} = 9

6859 = 193 ⇒ 68593=19\sqrt[3]{6859} = 19

8649 = 932 ⇒ 8649=93\sqrt{8649} = 93

⇒ 3 + 9 + 19 + 93

∴ Final Answer = 124

English Language (20 questions)

Question 61

Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A thing no longer in use

  1. AOption (a)

    Obsolete

  2. BOption (b)

    New

  3. COption (c)

    Waste

  4. DOption (d)

    Held

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Obsolete

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Obsolete.

Key Points

  • The word "Obsolete" refers to something that is no longer in use or has become outdated over time. (अप्रचलित)
  • Example: Typewriters are now considered obsolete due to the rise of computers.
  • The correct word in the context of the question is "Obsolete", which perfectly matches the meaning of "A thing no longer in use." (अप्रचलित)
  • Example: The cassette player has become obsolete in the modern era of digital music.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Obsolete.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • New (नया): Refers to something that has been recently created or introduced.
  • Example: She bought a new car yesterday.
  • Waste (अपशिष्ट): Refers to materials that are no longer useful or required.
  • Example: Recycling waste can help save the environment.
  • Held (रखा हुआ): Refers to something that is in possession or has been kept in a particular place.
  • Example: The meeting was held in the conference room.

Question 62

Sentences of a paragraph are given below. While the first and the last sentences (S1 and S6) are in the correct order, the sentences in between are jumbled up. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

S1. Yes, a mirage can be photographed.

P. That is hallucination.

Q. Anything reflected by the lens of the human eye will naturally be picked up be photographic lens.

R. Sometimes, however, a person imagines he is seeing something but actually he is not.

S. The image, of course, will be hazy and simmering because of refraction of light.

S6. That kind of mirage obviously cannot be photographed.

  1. AOption (a)

    QRPS

  2. BOption (b)

    QSRP

  3. COption (c)

    SPRQ

  4. DOption (d)

    PSQR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

QSRP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • The paragraph begins by discussing the concept of mirages and whether they can be photographed.
  • Sentence Q is the first sentence because it explains the basic principle of how a mirage can be photographed:
  • "Anything reflected by the lens of the human eye will naturally be picked up be photographic lens."
  • Sentence S follows as it elaborates on the nature of the image captured:
  • "The image, of course, will be hazy and simmering because of refraction of light."
  • Sentence R is the third sentence because it introduces the idea of hallucination, contrasting it with a real mirage:
  • "Sometimes, however, a person imagines he is seeing something but actually he is not."
  • Sentence P is the fourth as it clearly defines hallucination:
  • "That is hallucination."
  • The correct sequence is QSRP.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Yes, a mirage can be photographed. Anything reflected by the lens of the human eye will naturally be picked up be photographic lens. The image, of course, will be hazy and simmering because of refraction of light. Sometimes, however, a person imagines he is seeing something but actually he is not. That is hallucination. That kind of mirage obviously cannot be photographed."

Question 63

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

Don’t count your chickens before they hatch

  1. AOption (a)

    Planning for the future guarantees results

  2. BOption (b)

    Avoid making assumptions about future

  3. COption (c)

    Focus on small goals before aiming higher

  4. DOption (d)

    Prepare in advance for better results

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Avoid making assumptions about future

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Avoid making assumptions about the future.

Key Points

  • The proverb "Don’t count your chickens before they hatch" means that one should not make plans or assumptions based on events that have not yet occurred. (भविष्य की घटनाओं पर निर्भर होकर योजनाएँ न बनाएं।)
  • Example: He was so sure about getting the job that he bought a car on EMI, but he didn’t get the job. This is why you shouldn’t count your chickens before they hatch.
  • In English, this proverb emphasizes the importance of avoiding assumptions and focusing on the present reality.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 1: Planning for the future guarantees results (भविष्य की योजना बनाने से परिणाम की गारंटी मिलती है): This statement is incorrect as the proverb warns against planning based on uncertain outcomes.
  • Example: Planning is important, but it does not guarantee success without execution.
  • Option 3: Focus on small goals before aiming higher (छोटे लक्ष्यों पर ध्यान केंद्रित करें इससे पहले कि आप ऊँचा लक्ष्य रखें।): While this is good advice, it is unrelated to the meaning of the proverb.
  • Example: One should focus on building a strong foundation before dreaming of achieving great heights.
  • Option 4: Prepare in advance for better results (बेहतर परिणामों के लिए पहले से तैयारी करें।): Again, this is unrelated to the context of the proverb, which focuses on the unpredictability of future outcomes.
  • Example: Preparing for exams in advance often leads to better results, but it is not connected to the proverb’s meaning.

Question 64

Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence.

He gave a detailed recomendation for the new policy.

  1. AOption (a)

    recomendation

  2. BOption (b)

    recomendition

  3. COption (c)

    reccommendation

  4. DOption (d)

    recommendation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

recommendation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'recomendation'.

  • The correct spelling would be 'recommendation'.
  • The word 'recommendation' is a noun which means 'a suggestion or proposal as to the best course of action, especially one put forward by an authoritative body'. (सिफारिश)
  • For Example -
  • He followed the recommendation provided by the expert.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'recommendation'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other options - 

  • Recomendition - This is an incorrect spelling and has no valid meaning.
  • Reccommendation - This is also an incorrect spelling and has no valid meaning.
  • Recommendation - The correct spelling, meaning 'a suggestion or advice'. (सिफारिश)

Question 65

Select the most appropriate article to fill in the blank. If no article is needed, select ‘No article required’.

The number and proportion of people aged 60 years and older in ______ population is increasing

  1. AOption (a)

    an

  2. BOption (b)

    a

  3. COption (c)

    the 

  4. DOption (d)

    No article required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

the 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'the'.

 

Key Points

  • The definite article "the" is used to refer to something specific or previously mentioned. Here, "the population" refers to a particular group of people being discussed.
  • The sentence specifies the population whose proportion of people aged 60 years and older is increasing, making "the" the appropriate choice.
  • Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically inappropriate, as they do not fit the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "The number and proportion of people aged 60 years and older in the population is increasing."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "an" is incorrect because "an" is used before singular nouns that begin with a vowel sound, which is not applicable here.
  • Option 2: "a" is incorrect because "a" is used before singular nouns that begin with a consonant sound, and the context does not call for an indefinite article.
  • Option 4: "No article required" is incorrect because the context demands a definite article to specify "the population."

Question 66

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

My friend Sita has impeccable manners.

  1. AOption (a)

    Immaculate

  2. BOption (b)

    Imperfect

  3. COption (c)

    Unblemished

  4. DOption (d)

    Seamless

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Imperfect

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Imperfect.

Key Points

  • The word "impeccable" means something that is flawless, perfect, or free from any fault or error. (निर्दोष)
  • Example: The chef's impeccable presentation of the dish left everyone amazed.
  • "Imperfect" refers to something that is not perfect, having flaws, or lacking completeness. (अपूर्ण)
  • Example: The handmade pottery was beautiful despite being imperfect.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'impeccable' is 'imperfect'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Imperfect.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Immaculate (निर्मल): Perfectly clean, flawless, or free from any blemish.
  • Example: The bride's dress was immaculate, with not a speck of dirt on it.
  • Unblemished (निर्दोष): Free from any mark, stain, or flaw; perfect condition.
  • Example: The reputation of the company remains unblemished despite the controversies.
  • Seamless (सुचारू): Smooth and continuous, without any breaks or irregularities.
  • Example: The transition from one scene to the next in the movie was seamless.

Question 67

Select the most appropriate one-word substitute for the group of words given in the brackets to fill in the blank.

Sita has a high knowledge of music, which she has acquired from her grandmother who was a renowned musician. So, her father calls her a/an _______ (a person with a good knowledge of music).

  1. AOption (a)

    amateur

  2. BOption (b)

    maestro

  3. COption (c)

    incompetent

  4. DOption (d)

    beginner

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

maestro

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Maestro.

Key Points

  • The word "Amateur" refers to someone who engages in a pursuit, especially a sport or art, on an unpaid basis rather than as a profession. (शौक़ीन)
  • Example: He is an amateur photographer who enjoys capturing nature's beauty.
  • "Maestro" is used to describe a distinguished musician, especially a conductor of classical music or a person who has exceptional skills in music. (संगीत-विशेषज्ञ)
  • Example: The maestro conducted the orchestra with incredible precision and grace.
  • Sita's father calls her a "maestro" because of her high knowledge and exceptional skills in music, inherited from her grandmother, a renowned musician.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Maestro.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Amateur (शौक़ीन): Someone who does something for pleasure rather than as a profession.
  • Example: She is an amateur painter who enjoys creating art in her free time.
  • Incompetent (अक्षम): Lacking the necessary skills or ability to do something successfully.
  • Example: His incompetence in managing the project led to its failure.
  • Beginner (शुरुआती): A person who is just starting to learn or do something.
  • Example: As a beginner, she is still learning the basics of playing the piano.

Question 68

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Despite his extensive knowledge, he has no real insight _______ how human emotions work under extreme stress.

  1. AOption (a)

    on

  2. BOption (b)

    into

  3. COption (c)

    with

  4. DOption (d)

    over

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

into

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'into'.

 

Key Points

  • The preposition "into" is used to indicate deep understanding or insight about something.
  • The sentence describes the lack of deep insight regarding how human emotions work under stress, making "into" the most appropriate choice.
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 do not fit the context of the sentence correctly.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Despite his extensive knowledge, he has no real insight into how human emotions work under extreme stress."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "on" is incorrect because "insight on" does not convey the same depth of understanding as "insight into."
  • Option 3: "with" is incorrect because it does not collocate with "insight" in this context.
  • Option 4: "over" is incorrect because it does not fit the structure of the sentence.

Question 69

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

______ sudden change in weather caused ______ unexpected delay in the flight.

  1. AOption (a)

    A; an

  2. BOption (b)

    An; a

  3. COption (c)

    A; a

  4. DOption (d)

    An; an 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A; an

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • The article "A" is used before words that begin with a consonant sound, whereas "An" is used before words that begin with a vowel sound.
  • In the sentence, "sudden" begins with a consonant sound, so "A" is appropriate.
  • The word "unexpected" begins with a vowel sound, so "an" is appropriate.
  • Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not follow the correct usage of articles based on sound.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "A sudden change in weather caused an unexpected delay in the flight."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: "An; a" is incorrect because "An" cannot precede "sudden," as it starts with a consonant sound.
  • Option 3: "A; a" is incorrect because "A" cannot precede "unexpected," as it starts with a vowel sound.
  • Option 4: "An; an" is incorrect because "An" cannot precede "sudden," as it starts with a consonant sound.

Question 70

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Draconian

(A) Lenient

(B) Clement

(C) Benignant

(D) Vicious

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    B

  4. DOption (d)

    C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Vicious.

Key Points

  • The word "Draconian" refers to something excessively harsh or severe, especially in relation to laws or rules. (अत्यधिक कठोर)
  • Example: The government introduced draconian measures to curb the rising crime rate.
  • "Vicious" means deliberately cruel or violent, which aligns with the meaning of draconian. (दुष्ट)
  • Example: The vicious policies of the regime caused widespread suffering among the people.
  • Hence, "Vicious" is the most appropriate synonym for "Draconian".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Vicious.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Lenient (उदार): Showing tolerance or mercy, not harsh or strict.
  • Example: The teacher was lenient with students who had valid reasons for submitting their assignments late.
  • Clement (दयालु): Mild or merciful in disposition or character.
  • Example: The judge was clement in sentencing the young offender.
  • Benignant (कृपालु): Benevolent or kindly in nature.
  • Example: The benignant king was loved by all his subjects.

Question 71

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He worked _______ for his success.

  1. AOption (a)

    hardly

  2. BOption (b)

    harder

  3. COption (c)

    hardest

  4. DOption (d)

    hard

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

hard

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'hard'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "hard" is an adverb that means "with a lot of effort or energy."
  • The sentence describes the effort the person put in to achieve success, so the adverb "hard" is the most appropriate choice.
  • Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "He worked hard for his success."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "hardly" is incorrect because "hardly" means "barely" or "almost not," which does not fit the context.
  • Option 2: "harder" is incorrect because it is a comparative form, which is not required here.
  • Option 3: "hardest" is incorrect because it is a superlative form, which is also not required here.

Question 72

Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence and select the option that rectifies it.

Many metals that react to the vaccuum which electron-beam requires for the generation of intense heat cannot be welded properly.

  1. AOption (a)

    intence

  2. BOption (b)

    vacuum

  3. COption (c)

    electron-beem

  4. DOption (d)

    wellded

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

vacuum

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'vaccuum'.

  • The correct spelling would be 'vacuum'.
  • The word 'vacuum' is a noun which means 'a space entirely devoid of matter or air'. (रिक्त स्थान)
  • For Example -
  • The experiment was conducted in a vacuum to ensure accurate results.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'vaccuum'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

  • Intense - of extreme force, degree, or strength (तीव्र)
  • Electron-beam - a stream of electrons used in various technologies (इलेक्ट्रॉन किरण)
  • Welded - joined together by heating (जुड़ा हुआ)

Question 73

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.

Don’t put all your eggs in one basket

  1. AOption (a)

    Diversify your risks to avoid complete loss

  2. BOption (b)

    Save your resources for future use

  3. COption (c)

    Simplicity leads to better decisions 

  4. DOption (d)

    Avoid multitasking to achieve better results

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Diversify your risks to avoid complete loss

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. Diversify your risks to avoid complete loss.

Key Points

  • The proverb "Don't put all your eggs in one basket" advises against concentrating all efforts or resources into a single area or option. (अपने सभी संसाधनों को एक ही स्थान पर केंद्रित न करें।)
  • Example: If you're investing, make sure to spread your money across different stocks or assets instead of investing everything in one company.
  • Diversify your risks means spreading investments, opportunities, or resources across multiple avenues to minimize the impact of any potential loss. (अपने जोखिमों को विविध बनाना।)
  • Example: A businessman owns shares in multiple industries to ensure that a downturn in one sector does not affect his overall financial health.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option 2 - Save your resources for future use (अपने संसाधनों को भविष्य के लिए बचाएं): This means conserving resources for a later time instead of using them all at once.
  • Example: He saved half of his bonus for future emergencies instead of spending it all on luxury items.
  • Option 3 - Simplicity leads to better decisions (सरलता बेहतर निर्णय लेने में मदद करती है): This suggests that simplifying choices and actions can lead to more effective decision-making.
  • Example: When faced with a tough decision, she chose the simplest solution, and it worked perfectly.
  • Option 4 - Avoid multitasking to achieve better results (बेहतर परिणाम प्राप्त करने के लिए मल्टीटास्किंग से बचें): This emphasizes focusing on one task at a time to ensure better quality and efficiency.
  • Example: He stopped multitasking and started completing one project at a time, leading to better outcomes.

Question 74

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Each of the players _______ awarded a trophy.

  1. AOption (a)

    have

  2. BOption (b)

    was

  3. COption (c)

    are

  4. DOption (d)

    were

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

was

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'was'.

 

Key Points

  • The subject of the sentence, "Each of the players," is singular.
  • A singular subject requires a singular verb. The verb "was" is singular and correctly fits the sentence.
  • Options 1, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context as they do not agree with the singular subject.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Each of the players was awarded a trophy."

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "have" is incorrect because "have" is plural and does not match the singular subject.
  • Option 3: "are" is incorrect because "are" is plural and does not agree with the singular subject.
  • Option 4: "were" is incorrect because "were" is plural and does not match the singular subject.

Question 75

Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. It is known for its elaborate, traditional dancing.

B. Bali is the capital of Indonesia.

C. The dancing is inspired by its Hindi beliefs.

D. To watch this dancing is a breathtaking experience.

  1. AOption (a)

    DCBA

  2. BOption (b)

    BADC

  3. COption (c)

    ABCD

  4. DOption (d)

    BACD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

BACD

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The paragraph is about Bali, its cultural significance, and its traditional dancing.
  • Sentence B is the first sentence as it introduces Bali and provides its geographical identity:
  • "Bali is the capital of Indonesia."
  • Sentence A follows as it elaborates on Bali’s cultural identity:
  • "It is known for its elaborate, traditional dancing."
  • Sentence C is the third sentence because it explains the inspiration behind the dancing:
  • "The dancing is inspired by its Hindi beliefs."
  • Sentence D is the fourth as it concludes with the experience of watching the dancing:
  • "To watch this dancing is a breathtaking experience."
  • The correct sequence is BACD.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Bali is the capital of Indonesia. It is known for its elaborate, traditional dancing. The dancing is inspired by its Hindi beliefs. To watch this dancing is a breathtaking experience."

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

In the age of algorithmic decision-making, predictive governance has emerged as a dominant paradigm for public administration. Governments are increasingly deploying data-driven models to pre-empt criminal activity, optimise urban planning, and forecast economic volatility. While ostensibly rational, this model introduces a paradox: the more predictive power a system accumulates, the more it flattens human agency into statistical probabilities. The future becomes not an open horizon but a quantifiable extension of past behaviours. This techno-bureaucratic reliance risks marginalising outliers those whose experiences fall outside normative data sets and institutionalising bias under the guise of objectivity. Moreover, the ethical oversight of such systems lags far behind their deployment, creating a governance vacuum wherein accountability is outsourced to opaque algorithms. In prioritising efficiency and foresight, predictive governance often bypasses deliberative democracy, weakening participatory channels in favour of streamlined outcomes.

Citizens are recast as data points, their individual complexities reduced to patterns in a machine-readable format. This mechanistic interpretation of society may inadvertently erode trust in institutions that no longer appear responsive but merely anticipatory. Therefore, the question is not only whether predictive systems function but also for whom they function and who is excluded by their logic. A governance structure that projects authority through prediction must be tempered by transparent frameworks, ethical scrutiny, and above all, a reaffirmation of the human condition as more than a predictable variable.

Question 76

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What best summarises the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Algorithms have no place in governance due to their inherent inaccuracies.  

  2. BOption (b)

    While predictive governance improves foresight, it risks diminishing human agency and democratic processes. 

  3. COption (c)

     Predictive governance enhances citizen engagement through efficient data system

  4. DOption (d)

    Predictive models have revolutionised public administration with minimal drawbacks.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

While predictive governance improves foresight, it risks diminishing human agency and democratic processes. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Key Points

  • Summary of the passage:
  • The passage acknowledges that predictive governance brings improved foresight and efficiency to public administration.
  • However, it cautions that this comes at the risk of flattening human agency, institutionalising bias, marginalising outliers, and undermining democratic participation.
  • The need for ethical scrutiny and transparency is emphasised to ensure governance remains human-centric.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1: Incorrect, as the passage does not argue for total rejection of algorithms.
  • Option 3: Incorrect, since the passage argues that predictive governance may weaken, not enhance, participatory democracy.
  • Option 4: Incorrect, as the drawbacks are a major focus of the passage.

Question 77

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the central theme of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The ethical and democratic implications of data-driven governance

  2. BOption (b)

    The ethical and technological implications of data-driven governance

  3. COption (c)

    The superiority of algorithmic decision-making in policy 

  4. DOption (d)

    The technical limitations of predictive models

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The ethical and democratic implications of data-driven governance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • Central theme of the passage:
  • The passage discusses how predictive, data-driven governance affects ethics and democracy, raising concerns about loss of human agency, institutional bias, lack of accountability, and erosion of trust in institutions.
  • It calls for ethical scrutiny, transparency, and the need to reaffirm the human condition within such governance systems.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: This is identical to Option 1 and thus also correct, but Option 1 is the first correct choice.
  • Option 3: Incorrect, as the passage critiques rather than champions algorithmic decision-making.
  • Option 4: Incorrect, since technical limitations are not the main focus—the passage centers on ethics and democracy.

Question 78

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What best describes the structure of the passage?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Concept Introduction → Benefits → Risks → Philosophical Reflection

  2. BOption (b)

    Anecdote → Research Findings → Political Critique 

  3. COption (c)

    Case Study → Rebuttal → Policy Proposal 

  4. DOption (d)

    Problem → Historical Context → Solution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Concept Introduction → Benefits → Risks → Philosophical Reflection

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • Structure of the passage:
  • Concept Introduction: The passage begins by introducing predictive governance and its rise in public administration.
  • Benefits: It briefly touches on the rational appeal and efficiency of these data-driven systems.
  • Risks: The author then discusses the risks, such as loss of agency, bias, lack of transparency, and weakening of democracy.
  • Philosophical Reflection: The passage ends with a reflection on the need for ethical scrutiny, transparency, and the reaffirmation of human values.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Incorrect, as there is no anecdote or direct research findings presented.
  • Option 3: Incorrect, as the passage does not use a case study or formal policy proposal structure.
  • Option 4: Incorrect, as it does not focus on a single problem, historical context, or a concrete solution.

Question 79

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which real-world issue best parallels the concerns raised in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    The automation of social welfare decisions via predictive analytics 

  2. BOption (b)

    The privatisation of education in developing countries

  3. COption (c)

    International trade agreements excluding local voices

  4. DOption (d)

     Judicial delays in underfunded rural courts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The automation of social welfare decisions via predictive analytics 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Key Points

  • Parallels with passage concerns:
  • The passage focuses on how algorithmic and predictive systems in governance risk marginalising individuals, flattening human agency, institutionalising bias, and eroding trust through opaque processes.
  • Option 1 directly reflects these concerns, as automating social welfare decisions via predictive analytics can reduce people to data points, potentially institutionalise bias, and weaken accountability and transparency.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Incorrect, as it relates to education policy, not predictive governance or algorithmic decision-making.
  • Option 3: Incorrect, as it is about trade agreements and local representation, not algorithmic governance.
  • Option 4: Incorrect, as it concerns judicial delays, not data-driven or algorithmic decision-making.

Question 80

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word 'marginalising' as used in the given segment.

This techno-bureaucratic reliance risks marginalising outliers — those whose experiences fall outside normative data sets

  1. AOption (a)

    Ignoring

  2. BOption (b)

    Integrating

  3. COption (c)

    Suppressing

  4. DOption (d)

    Isolating

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Integrating

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option (2) i.e. Integrating.

Key Points

  • The word “marginalising” means to treat someone or something as insignificant or peripheral, pushing them to the margins or edges of society or a group. (हाशिये पर डालना, महत्वहीन बना देना)
  • Example: The new policy risked marginalising minority voices in the decision-making process.
  • “Integrating” is the antonym of marginalising. It means including, combining, or bringing individuals or groups into equal participation within a system or group. (समाहित करना, एकीकृत करना)
  • Example: The school focused on integrating students from diverse backgrounds into all activities.
  • So, “integrating” directly opposes the act of pushing someone to the margins; it involves including them fully.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Integrating

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Ignoring (नज़रअंदाज़ करना): Paying no attention to someone or something.
  • Example: Ignoring valuable feedback can lead to problems.
  • Suppressing (दबाना): Forcibly putting an end to something.
  • Example: The regime was accused of suppressing dissent.
  • Isolating (अलग करना): Causing someone or something to be alone or apart from others.
  • Example: The patient was isolated to prevent the spread of infection.

Hindi Language (20 questions)

Question 81

निम्नलिखित वाक्य के रेखांकित पद में वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धि है। दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही वर्तनी वाला

शब्द चुनिए-

उसने हस्ताक्छर किए

  1. AOption (a)

    हस्ताक्षर

  2. BOption (b)

    हाश्ताक्षर

  3. COption (c)

    हस्तक्षर

  4. DOption (d)

    हस्ताछर

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

हस्ताक्षर

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- हस्ताक्षर

Key Pointsसही वाक्य होगा-

  • उसने हस्ताक्षर किए।

Important Points

  • वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Informationवर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

अशुद्ध वाक्यशुद्ध वाक्य
मेले में विद्यार्थियों की कई टोलीयाँ थीं।मेले में विद्यार्थियों की कई टोलियाँ थीं।
गुलाम की एक माला खरीद लेना।गुलाब की माला खरीद लेना।
सहित्य और संस्कृती का गहरा संबंध हैं।साहित्य और संस्कृति का गहरा संबंध हैं।
यह आपकी अनाधिकार चेष्टा हैं।यह आपकी अनधिकार चेष्टा हैं।
उसे पैत्रिक संपत्ति में हिस्सा नहीं मिला।उसे पैतृक संपत्ति में हिस्सा नहीं मिला।

Question 82

निम्नलिखित वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द का चयन कीजिए-

जो अपने निश्चित स्थान से डिग गया हो

  1. AOption (a)

    व्युत

  2. BOption (b)

    देप

  3. COption (c)

    चिरकुट

  4. DOption (d)

    दुर्बोध

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

व्युत

Why this answer is correct

'जो अपने निश्चित स्थान से डिग गया हो' वाक्यांश के लिए एक सार्थक शब्द है- व्युत

  • अन्य विकल्प असंगत है।

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्प-

वाक्यांशशब्द
महत्वहीन या निम्न स्तर के व्यक्ति या वस्तुचिरकुट
जिसे सरलता से न जाना जा सकेदुर्बोध

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द:-

वाक्यांशशब्द
जिसे कठिनाई से जाना जा सकेदुर्ज्ञेय
जो मांस न खाता होनिरामिष
जिसे मर जाने की कामना होमुमूर्षु
जिसके सिर पर चन्द्रकला होचन्द्रचूड़
जो दुख या भय से पीड़ित होकातर
जो किनारे से सटे हुए होतटवर्ती

Question 83

'अनिष्ट' शब्द के उपयुक्त पर्यायवाची का चयन करें 

  1. AOption (a)

    अपरिहार्य

  2. BOption (b)

    अनिर्णीत

  3. COption (c)

    अधीर

  4. DOption (d)

    अमंगल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

अमंगल

Why this answer is correct

'अनिष्ट' के पर्यायवाची शब्द है- अमंगल

Key Points

  • अनिष्ट शब्द के पर्यायवाची शब्द है - अमंगल, अशुभ, बुरा, अहितकर, अवांछित, विपरीत, हानि, खराबी, बुराई और अपशकुन।

Additional Information

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
पर्यायवाचीजो विभिन्न शब्द एक ही अर्थ का बोध कराएं, उन्हें पर्यायवाची शब्द कहते हैं। सामान्य भाषा में इनको समानार्थक शब्द भी कहते हैं।अक्षर- वर्ण, हर्फ़ आज्ञा- आदेश, हुक्म, निर्देश

Question 84

निम्नलिखित वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान में उचित क्रिया की पूर्ति कीजिए-

वह नरेन्द्र से कपड़े _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    घुलवाता है।

  2. BOption (b)

    पहचानता है।

  3. COption (c)

    पाया है।

  4. DOption (d)

    गाता है।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

घुलवाता है।

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- घुलवाता है। 

Key Pointsपूर्ण वाक्य है-

  • वह नरेंद्र से कपड़े घुलवाता है।

Important Pointsसकर्मक क्रिया-

  • जिन क्रियाओं के कार्य का फल कर्ता को छोड़कर कर्म पर पड़ता है उन्हे सकर्मक क्रिया कहते है।
  • सकर्मक क्रिया कर्म के बिना अपना भाव पूर्ण रूप से प्रकट नहीं कर पाती। 
  • ​उदाहरण- मोहन ने पुस्तक पढ़ी।

अकर्मक क्रिया-

  • जिस क्रिया में कार्य का फल कर्ता पर ही पड़े, उसे अकर्मक क्रिया कहते हैं। अकर्मक क्रिया में कर्म नहीं पाया जाता है।
  • जैसे - कुत्ता भौंकता है।

Question 85

निम्नलिखित लोकोक्ति के उपयुक्त अर्थ का चयन करें-

बाप न मारे मेंढकी बेटा तीरंदाज़

  1. AOption (a)

    अच्छे दिनों में सब दोस्त बनते हैं

  2. BOption (b)

    बड़े से छोटा बढ़ गया

  3. COption (c)

    चुप्पा बहुत चालक होता है

  4. DOption (d)

    छोटो की आपस में मित्रता

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

बड़े से छोटा बढ़ गया

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है - धन ही सबसे बड़ा और महत्वपूर्ण है।

Key Points

  • "बाप न मारे मेंढकी बेटा तीरंदाज़" का अर्थ - बड़े से छोटा बढ़ गया
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - 
  • "श्याम के पिता ने तो जीवन भर एक छोटी दुकान चलाई, अब बेटा बड़ी गाड़ी की एजेंसी खोलने की बात कर रहा है, बाप न मारे मेंढकी, बेटा तीरंदाज़।"

Important Points

  • लोकोक्ति - जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है, लोकोक्ति कहलाता है। इसी को कहावत कहते है।
  • जैसे - ​सीधी ऊँगली से घी नहीं निकलता - सीधेपन से काम नहीं चलता।
  • वाक्य प्रयोग - हमने राजी-वाजी से काम निकालना चाहा, पर ठीक ही कहते हैं- "सीधी ऊँगली से घी नहीं निकलता"।​

Additional Information 

 

लोकोक्तिअर्थवाक्य प्रयोग
तीन लोक से मथुरा न्यारीअन्य से भिन्न होनाहजारीमल का तो कहना ही क्या ‌‌‌उसके जैसा इस गाँव में नहीं मिलेगा ‌‌‌वह तो "तीनो लोक से मथुरा न्यारा है"।
मन चंगा तो कठौती में गंगादि मन शुद्ध हो तो तीर्थाटन का फल घर में ही मिल सकता है।रामू काका कभी गंगा नहाने नहीं जाते, वह हमेशा सबकी मदद करते रहते हैं। ठीक ही कहते है- "मन चंगा तो कठौती में गंगा"।
अब पछताए होत क्या जब चिड़ियाँ चुग गई खेतसमय निकल जाने के पश्चात् पछताना व्यर्थ होता है।सारे साल राम मस्ती करता रहा, अध्यापकों और अभिभावक की एक न सुनी। अब बैठकर रो रहा है। ठीक ही कहा गया है- "अब पछताए होत क्या जब चिड़ियाँ चुग गई खेत"।
दूर के ढोल सुहावने लगते हैंदूर के व्यक्ति अथवा वस्तुएँ अच्छी मालूम पड़ती हैं।मोहन के पास ज्यादा पैसा नहीं है। गाँव का सबसे बड़ा आदमी है तो क्या हुआ- "दूर के ढोल सुहावने लगते हैं"।

Question 86

दिए गए वाक्यों में से तीन का संबंध एक ही संदर्भ से जुड़ा हुआ है, जबकि एक वाक्य अतिरिक्त है। इनमें से अतिरिक्त वाक्य का चयन करें 

  1. AOption (a)

    आधुनिक हिंदी साहित्य में कई लेखक सामाजिक मुद्दों को अपने लेखन में स्थान दे रहे हैं।

  2. BOption (b)

    क्रिकेट विश्व कप में भारत ने कई बार शानदार प्रदर्शन किया है।

  3. COption (c)

    मुंशी प्रेमचंद को हिंदी उपन्यास लेखन का पितामह माना जाता है।

  4. DOption (d)

    हिंदी साहित्य में अनेक विधाएँ पाई जाती हैं, जैसे कविता, कहानी और नाटक।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

क्रिकेट विश्व कप में भारत ने कई बार शानदार प्रदर्शन किया है।

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- क्रिकेट विश्व कप में भारत ने कई बार शानदार प्रदर्शन किया है।

Key Points

  • वाक्य की परिभाषा - 
  • ​दो या दो से अधिक पदों के सार्थक समूह को, जिसका पूरा पूरा अर्थ निकलता है, वाक्य कहते हैं।
  • पदक्रम - 
  • किसी वाक्य में सार्थक शब्दों को यथास्थान रखने की क्रिया को 'क्रम' या 'पदक्रम' कहा जाता है।

Additional Informationवाक्य व्यवस्था की सावधानियाँ-

  • वाक्य रचना व्याकरण के नियमों के आधार पर होनी चाहिए।
  • उचित पदक्रम होना चाहिए।
  • वाक्यों का सार्थक अनुच्छेद बनना चाहिए।
  • वाक्य व्यवस्था के लिए भाषा बोध अनिवार्य है।
  • उचित वाक्य संरचना होनी चाहिए।

Question 87

उपयुक्त 'विशेषण' का प्रयोग कर वाक्य को पूर्ण कीजिए।

'नितांशी के फ्राक का रंग ____ है।

  1. AOption (a)

    गीला

  2. BOption (b)

    दुबला

  3. COption (c)

    ऊपरी

  4. DOption (d)

    नीला

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

नीला

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- नीला

Key Pointsसही वाक्य है-

  • 'नितांशी के फ्राक का रंग नीला है।'

Important Pointsगुणवाचक विशेषण-

  • गुणवाचक विशेषण वे शब्द होते हैं जो किसी संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के गुण, दो��, रंग, आकार, अवस्था, स्थिति आदि का बोध कराते हैं।
  • उदाहरण-
  • "मैं बारिश में बाहर गया था और अब मेरे सारे कपड़े गीले हो गये हैं।" 
  • यहाँ "गीले" कपड़े संज्ञा का गुण बता रहा है।

Additional Informationविशेषण-

  • संज्ञा अथवा सर्वनाम शब्दों की विशेषता (गुण, दोष, संख्या, परिमाण आदि) बताने वाले शब्द 'विशेषण' कहलाते हैं।
  • जैसे- बड़ा, काला, लम्बा, दयालु, भारी, सुंदर, कायर, एक, दो, वीर पुरुष, गोरा, अच्छा, बुरा, मीठा, खट्टा, आदि।
  • लोमड़ी बहुत लालची जानवर है।
  • विशेषण के भेद -
  1. गुणवाचक विशेषण
  2. परिणामवाचक विशेषण
  3. संख्यावाचक विशेषण
  4. सार्वनामिक विशेषण

Question 88

'उदयाचल' का विलोम शब्द निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा होगा ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    सीमांचल

  2. BOption (b)

    अस्ताचल

  3. COption (c)

    अरुणाचल

  4. DOption (d)

    पूर्वांचल

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

अस्ताचल

Why this answer is correct

अस्ताचल सही उत्तर है।

Key Points

  • 'उदयाचल' का अर्थ है - 'एक कल्पित पर्वत जिसके पीछे से सूर्य का उदय होना माना जाता है'।
  • 'अस्ताचल' का अर्थ है - 'पश्चिम दिशा में स्थित वह कल्पित पर्वत जिसके पीछे सूर्यास्त का होना माना गया है'।

Important Points

विशेष:

शब्दपरिभाषाउदाहरण
विलोम/विपरीतार्थकविपरीत (उल्टा) अर्थ बताने वाले शब्दों को विलोम शब्द कहते हैं।1. रात-दिन 2. धरती-आकाश

Question 89

निम्नलिखित वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान में उचित कारक का प्रयोग कीजिए-

'मोहन _________ तीन  भाई हैं।'

  1. AOption (a)

    को

  2. BOption (b)

     ने

  3. COption (c)

     के द्वारा

  4. DOption (d)

    के

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

के

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- के

Key Pointsपूर्ण वाक्य होगा-

  • मोहन के तीन भाई है।

Important Points

कारककारक का अर्थ होता है किसी कार्य को करने वाला। यानी जो भी क्रिया को करने में भूमिका निभाता है, वह कारक कहलाता है। इसके निम्न भेद हैं -वह रोज़ सुबह गंगा किनारे जाता है।
भेदपरिभाषाविभक्ति
कर्ता कारकजो वाक्य में कार्य को करता है, वह कर्ता कहलाता है। कर्ता वाक्य का वह रूप होता है, जिसमे कार्य को करने वाले का पता चलता है।ने
कर्म कारकवह वस्तु या व्यक्ति जिस पर वाक्य में की गयी क्रिया का प्रभाव पड़ता है वह कर्म कहलाता है।को
करण कारकवह साधन जिससे क्रिया होती है, वह करण कहलाता है। यानि, जिसकी सहायता से किसी काम को अंजाम दिया जाता वह करण कारक कहलाता है।से, के द्वारा
सम्प्रदान कारकजब वाक्य में किसी को कुछ दिया जाए या किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए तो वहां पर सम्प्रदान कारक होता है।के लिए
अपादान कारकजब संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के किसी रूप से किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के अलग होने का बोध होता है, तब वहां अपादान कारक होता है।से (अलग होना)
संबंध कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।का, के, की
अधिकरण कारकसंज्ञा का वह रूप जिससे क्रिया के आधार का बोध हो उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं।में, पर
संबोधन कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जिससे किसी को बुलाने, पुकारने या बोलने का बोध होता है, तो वह सम्बोधन कारक कहलाता है।हे!, अरे!

Question 90

'परीक्षा ____ दिन नजदीक आ गए हैं।' वाक्य के रिक्त स्थान के लिए उपयुक्त कारक चिह्न है- 

  1. AOption (a)

    के

  2. BOption (b)

    के लिए

  3. COption (c)

    का

  4. DOption (d)

    में

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

के

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- के

Key Pointsपूर्ण वाक्य होगा-

  • परीक्षा के दिन नजदीक आ गए हैं।

Important Points

कारककारक का अर्थ होता है किसी कार्य को करने वाला। यानी जो भी क्रिया को करने में भूमिका निभाता है, वह कारक कहलाता है। इसके निम्न भेद हैं -वह रोज़ सुबह गंगा किनारे जाता है।
भेदपरिभाषाविभक्ति
कर्ता कारकजो वाक्य में कार्य को करता है, वह कर्ता कहलाता है। कर्ता वाक्य का वह रूप होता है, जिसमे कार्य को करने वाले का पता चलता है।ने
कर्म कारकवह वस्तु या व्यक्ति जिस पर वाक्य में की गयी क्रिया का प्रभाव पड़ता है वह कर्म कहलाता है।को
करण कारकवह साधन जिससे क्रिया होती है, वह करण कहलाता है। यानि, जिसकी सहायता से किसी काम को अंजाम दिया जाता वह करण कारक कहलाता है।से, के द्वारा
सम्प्रदान कारकजब वाक्य में किसी को कुछ दिया जाए या किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए तो वहां पर सम्प्रदान कारक होता है।के लिए
अपादान कारकजब संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के किसी रूप से किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के अलग होने का बोध होता है, तब वहां अपादान कारक होता है।से (अलग होना)
संबंध कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।का, के, की
अधिकरण कारकसंज्ञा का वह रूप जिससे क्रिया के आधार का बोध हो उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं।में, पर
संबोधन कारकसंज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जिससे किसी को बुलाने, पुकारने या बोलने का बोध होता है, तो वह सम्बोधन कारक कहलाता है।हे!, अरे!

Question 91

दिए गए वाक्य के कसी भाग में त्रुटि है ?

'इन्दरियों को वश में रखना चाहिए।'

  1. AOption (a)

    इन्दरियों

  2. BOption (b)

    वश

  3. COption (c)

    को

  4. DOption (d)

    रखना

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

इन्दरियों

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- इन्दरियों

Key Pointsपूर्ण वाक्य होगा-

  • इंद्रियों को वश में रखना चाहिए।

Important Points

  • वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Information

 वर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

अशुद्ध वाक्यशुद्ध वाक्य
मेले में विद्यार्थियों की कई टोलीयाँ थीं।मेले में विद्यार्थियों की कई टोलियाँ थीं।
गुलाम की एक माला खरीद लेना।गुलाब की माला खरीद लेना।
सहित्य और संस्कृती का गहरा संबंध हैं।साहित्य और संस्कृति का गहरा संबंध हैं।
यह आपकी अनाधिकार चेष्टा हैं।यह आपकी अनधिकार चेष्टा हैं।
उसे पैत्रिक संपत्ति में हिस्सा नहीं मिला।उसे पैतृक संपत्ति में हिस्सा नहीं मिला।

Question 92

निम्नलिखित में से अतिरिक्त उचित वाक्य का चयन करें

'विश्व के विशाल भू-भाग में- ------------ '

  1. AOption (a)

    सैकड़ों-हजारों मील का सफर तय कर मिलती हैं। 

  2. BOption (b)

    किनारा मिलना बहुत ही मुश्किल बात है।

  3. COption (c)

    बोली जाने वाली हिन्दी एक वेगवती नदी की भाँति है।

  4. DOption (d)

    जिसमें अनेक नदियाँ अपने उद्गम से। 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

किनारा मिलना बहुत ही मुश्किल बात है।

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- किनारा मिलना बहुत ही मुश्किल बात है।

Key Points

  • विश्व के विशाल भू-भाग में किनारा मिलना बहुत ही मुश्किल बात है।

Important Points

  • वाक्य की परिभाषा - 
  • ​दो या दो से अधिक पदों के सार्थक समूह को, जिसका पूरा पूरा अर्थ निकलता है, वाक्य कहते हैं।
  • पदक्रम - 
  • किसी वाक्य में सार्थक शब्दों को यथास्थान रखने की क्रिया को 'क्रम' या 'पदक्रम' कहा जाता है।

Additional Informationवाक्य व्यवस्था की सावधानियाँ-

  • वाक्य रचना व्याकरण के नियमों के आधार पर होनी चाहिए।
  • उचित पदक्रम होना चाहिए।
  • वाक्यों का सार्थक अनुच्छेद बनना चाहिए।
  • वाक्य व्यवस्था के लिए भाषा बोध अनिवार्य है।
  • उचित वाक्य संरचना होनी चाहिए।

Question 93

उपयुक्त 'क्रियाविशेषण' का प्रयोग कर वाक्य को पूर्ण कीजिए।

वह.............. सड़क पार करता है।'

  1. AOption (a)

    देश-विदेश

  2. BOption (b)

     यथाक्रम

  3. COption (c)

    घर-बाहर

  4. DOption (d)

    धीरे-धीरे

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

धीरे-धीरे

Why this answer is correct

"वह.............. सड़क पार करता है।” - इस वाक्य में क्रियाविशेषण का प्रयोग हुआ है- धीरे-धीरे

Key Points

  • वह धीरे-धीरे सड़क पार करता है।

Important Points 

 अर्थ के आधार पर क्रिया-विशेषण के भेद-

  • स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
  • कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
  • परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
  • रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण

Additional Information  

क्रियाविशेषणपरिभाषाउदाहरण
स्थानवाचकवे शब्द जो क्रिया के घटित होने के स्थान का बोध कराते हैं, उन्हें स्थानवाचक क्रियाविशेषण कहते हैं। जैसे - यहाँ, वहाँ, कहाँ, जहाँ, सामने, नीचे, ऊपर, आगे, भीतर, बाहर, दूर, पास, अंदर, किधर, इस ओर, उस ओर, इधर, उधर, जिधर, दाएँ, बाएँ, दाहिने आदि।बच्चे ऊपर खेलते हैं। ​
परिमाणवाचकजिन अविकारी शब्दों से क्रिया के परिमाण और उसकी संख्या का पता चलता है, उसे परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण कहते हैं। जैसे - बहुत, अधिक, पूर्णतया, कुछ, थोडा, काफी, केवल, इतना, उतना, कितना, थोड़ा-थोड़ा, एक-एक करके, जरा, खूब, बिलकुल, ज्यादा, अल्प, बड़ा, भारी, लगभग, क्रमशः आदि।आज काफ़ी ठंड है।
रीतिबोधकजिन अविकारी शब्दों से क्रिया की रीति या विधि का पता चलता है, उसे रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण अव्यय कहते हैं। जैसे - सचमुच, ठीक, अवश्य, कदाचित, ऐसे, वैसे, सहसा, तेज, सच, झूठ, धीरे, ध्यानपूर्वक, हंसते हुए, तेजी से, फटाफट आदि।​वह धीरे-धीरे चल रहा है।

Question 94

'जिसकी गिनती प्रमुख व्यक्तियों में हो' वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द होगा -

  1. AOption (a)

    अग्रणी

  2. BOption (b)

    प्रमुखता

  3. COption (c)

    मुख्यतः

  4. DOption (d)

    अगड़ी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

अग्रणी

Why this answer is correct

'जिसकी गिनती प्रमुख व्यक्तियों में हो' वाक्यांश के लिए एक ��ार्थक शब्द है- अग्रणी 

Key Pointsअन्य विकल्प-

वाक्यांशशब्द
श्रेष्ठ होने की अवस्थाप्रमुखता
मुख्य रूप सेमुख्यतः
सामने का भागआगड़ी

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द:-

वाक्यांशशब्द
जिसे कठिनाई से जाना जा सकेदुर्ज्ञेय
जो मांस न खाता होनिरामिष
जिसे मर जाने की कामना होमुमूर्षु
जिसके सिर पर चन्द्रकला होचन्द्रचूड़
जो दुख या भय से पीड़ित होकातर
जो किनारे से सटे हुए होतटवर्ती

Question 95

'गिरगिट की तरह रंग बदलना' मुहावरे का एक उचित अर्थ कौन सा है? 

  1. AOption (a)

    एक बात पर स्थिर न रहना ।

  2. BOption (b)

    व्यर्थ समय खोना।

  3. COption (c)

    एक रंग-ढंग न रखना।

  4. DOption (d)

    काम निकल जाने पर वायदा पूरा न करना।

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

एक बात पर स्थिर न रहना ।

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- एक बात पर स्थिर न रहना

Key Pointsगिरगिट की तरह रंग बदलना-

  • अर्थ – एक बात पर स्थिर न रहना
  • वाक्य -
  • ​अचानक किसी को देखकर श्याम तो गिरगिट की तरह रंग बदलने लगा।

Additional Information

मुहावरा परिभाषाउदाहरण
मुहावरा का शाब्दिक अर्थ ‘अभ्यास’ है। मुहावरा शब्द अरबी भाषा का शब्द है। हिंदी में ऐसे वाक्यांशों को मुहावरा कहा जाता है, जो अपने साधारण अर्थ को छोडकर विशेष अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं।गूलर का फूल होना (लापता होना)- वह तो ऐसा गूलर का फूल हो गया है कि उसके बारे में कुछ कहना मुश्किल है।

दिए गए गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे लिखे प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।

जनसंख्या घनत्व बढ़ने से महानगरों में तरह-तरह के प्रदूषण बढ़ रहे हैं। सबसे भीषण वायु प्रदूषण है। बड़े शहरों में लोग स्वस्थ हवा में साँस नहीं ले सकते। लोगों को सड़क पर चलते समय वाहनों का काला धुआँ पीना पड़ रहा है। भीड़ अधिक होने के कारण जगह-जगह कूड़े के ढेर लगे हैं। कल-कारखानों का धुआँ पर्यावरण को जहरीला बनाता है, इसलिए मनुष्य भी स्वच्छ हवा के लिए तरसता है। बड़े शहरों में जल प्रदूषण एक बड़ी समस्या बन गया है। कारखानों का पानी प्रदूषित होने से भू-जल भी लाल और काला हो गया है। ध्वनि प्रदूषण की वर्तमान स्थिति यह है कि महानगरों के निवासियों के लिए बहरापन और तनाव आम समस्या हो गई है और शांत स्थानों की जगह शोर ने ले ली है। इस संबंध में वैज्ञानिक साधनों की तरह आम लोग भी समान रूप से दोषी हैं। हमें प्रदूषण के कारणों और इससे बचने के तरीकों को समझना होगा। लोगों को सचेत करें और उपायों को व्यापक रूप से प्रचारित करें। सरकार और जनता का संयुक्त सहयोग ही प्रदूषण मुक्त वातावरण का निर्माण हो सकता है।

Question 96

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का शीर्षक है - 

  1. AOption (a)

    वैज्ञानिक साधनों का दुरुपयोग

  2. BOption (b)

    जनसंख्या घनत्व के दुष्प्रभाव

  3. COption (c)

    प्रदूषण के कारण, दुष्प्रभाव, बचाव

  4. DOption (d)

    पर्यावरण संरक्षण के उपाय

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

प्रदूषण के कारण, दुष्प्रभाव, बचाव

Why this answer is correct

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश का सबसे उपयुक्त शीर्षक है — प्रदूषण के कारण, दुष्प्रभाव, बचाव।

Key Pointsविश्लेषण:

  • गद्यांश की शुरुआत जनसंख्या घनत्व बढ़ने से महानगरों में प्रदूषण (वायु, जल, ध्वनि, कूड़ा आदि) बढ़ने से होती है → कारण (जनसंख्या घनत्व, वाहन, कारखाने, भीड़, वैज्ञानिक साधनों का दुरुपयोग)।
  • बीच में विभिन्न प्रकार के प्रदूषणों के दुष्प्रभाव वर्णित हैं: स्वस्थ हवा न मिलना, काला धुआँ पीना, भू-जल प्रदूषित होना, बहरापन, तनाव, शोर का बढ़ना।
  • अंत में बचाव के उपाय बताए गए हैं: कारणों और बचाव के तरीकों को समझना, लोगों को सचेत करना, उपायों का प्रचार, सरकार और जनता का संयुक्त सहयोग।

Additional Informationमुख्य शब्दों के अर्थ (गद्यांश से महत्वपूर्ण शब्द):

  • जनसंख्या घनत्व — प्रति इकाई क्षेत्र में लोगों की संख्या (भीड़भाड़ की मात्रा)।
  • भीषण — बहुत अधिक, भयंकर, तेज़।
  • वायु प्रदूषण — हवा में हानिकारक गैसें/कणों का मिश्रण।
  • धुआँ — जलने से निकलने वाला काला/धूसर धुआँ (यहाँ वाहनों/कारखानों का)।
  • भू-जल — भूमि के नीचे स्थित पानी (कुएँ, हैंडपंप आदि का स्रोत)।
  • ध्वनि प्रदूषण — अत्यधिक शोर से होने वाला प्रदूषण।
  • बहरापन — सुनने की शक्ति कम होना या खोना।
  • तनाव — मानसिक दबाव या चिंता।
  • सचेत करना — जागरूक/सावधान करना।
  • संयुक्त सहयोग — मिलकर/साथ मिलकर मदद करना।

Question 97

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

उपर्युक्त गद्यांश में किस प्रकार के पर्यावरण प्रदूषण का उल्लेख नहीं किया गया है - 

  1. AOption (a)

    वायु प्रदूषण

  2. BOption (b)

    भूमि प्रदूषण

  3. COption (c)

     ध्वनि प्रदूषण

  4. DOption (d)

    जल प्रदूषण

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

भूमि प्रदूषण

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- भूमि प्रदूषण

Key Points

समाधान:

  • दिए गए गद्यांश में भूमि प्रदूषण का प्रत्यक्ष रूप से उल्लेख नहीं किया गया है। इसलिए सही विकल्प option 2 है।

Additional Information

अन्य विकल्पों का स्पष्टीकरण:

  • option 1) वायु प्रदूषण — उल्लेखित है
  • गद्यांश में वायु प्रदूषण को “सबसे भीषण वायु प्रदूषण है”, “काला धुआँ”, “कल-कारखानों का धुआँ” जैसे वाक्यों से स्पष्ट किया गया है।
  • option 3) ध्वनि प्रदूषण — उल्लेखित है
  • गद्यांश में कहा गया है कि “ध्वनि प्रदूषण की वर्तमान स्थिति यह है कि… बहरापन और तनाव आम समस्या हो गई है”, जिससे ध्वनि प्रदूषण का स्पष्ट उल्लेख होता है।
  • option 4) जल प्रदूषण — उल्लेखित है
  • गद्यांश में “जल प्रदूषण एक बड़ी समस्या” तथा “कारखानों का पानी प्रदूषित होने से भू-जल भी लाल और काला हो गया है” लिखा है, जो जल प्रदूषण को दर्शाता है।

Question 98

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक कारण प्रदूषण का नहीं है - 

  1. AOption (a)

    पर्यावरण संरक्षण अधिनियम

  2. BOption (b)

    जनसंख्या घनत्व

  3. COption (c)

    वैज्ञानिक साधन

  4. DOption (d)

    औद्योगीकरण

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

पर्यावरण संरक्षण अधिनियम

Why this answer is correct

प्रदूषण का कारण नहीं है वह है-  पर्यावरण संरक्षण अधिनियम

Key Pointsअब हम अन्य विकल्पों को समझते हैं और यह कैसे प्रदूषण का कारण बनते हैं:

  • पर्यावरण संरक्षण अधिनियम (Environment Protection Act):
  • यह अधिनियम प्रदूषण को कम करने और पर्यावरण की सुरक्षा के उद्देश्य से बनाया गया है। इसका उद्देश्य प्रदूषण के स्तर को नियंत्रित करना और सुरक्षित व स्वस्थ पर्यावरण सुनिश्चित करना है। इसलिए, यह प्रदूषण का कारण नहीं है बल्कि इसका नियंत्रण करने का प्रयास है।
  • जनसंख्या घनत्व (Population Density):
  • जनसंख्या घनत्व में बढ़ोतरी से प्रदूषण बढ़ता है। अधिक संख्या में लोगों के कारण वाहनों की संख्या बढ़ जाती है, जिससे वायु प्रदूषण और ध्वनि प्रदूषण बढ़ता है। इसके अलावा, अधिक जनसंख्या अपशिष्ट उत्पादन में भी वृद्धि लाती है, जिससे भूमि और जल प्रदूषण भी बढ़ता है।
  • वैज्ञानिक साधन (Scientific Means):
  • आधुनिक युग में उपयोग होने वाले कई वैज्ञानिक साधन और प्रौद्योगिकियों की वजह से प्रदूषण बढ़ता है। उदाहरण के लिए, कल-कारखानों की मशीनें, वाहनों से निकलने वाला धुआं और प्लास्टिक जैसे कचरे से वायु, जल और भूमि का प्रदूषण होता है।
  • औद्योगीकरण (Industrialization):
  • औद्योगीकरण के दौर में कारखानों की संख्या बढ़ जाती है। ये कारखाने बड़े पैमाने पर प्रदूषण फैलाते हैं। कारखानों से निकलने वाला धुआं वायु प्रदूषण, अपशिष्ट जल जल प्रदूषण और कारखानों के शोर से ध्वनि प्रदूषण बढ़ता है।

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

'घनत्व' शब्द का अर्थ है - 

  1. AOption (a)

    घनात

  2. BOption (b)

    घनापन

  3. COption (c)

    घनागम

  4. DOption (d)

    घनाक्षरी

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

घनापन

Why this answer is correct

इस प्रकार, सही उत्तर है- घनापन

Key Points

 

  • 'घनत्व' शब्द का अर्थ 'घनापन' होता है।
  • घनत्व किसी पदार्थ के घनेपन की माप है, जो यह इंगित करता है कि कोई पदार्थ कितना 'घना' बना हुआ है।

Additional Information

अब हम अन्य विकल्पों को समझते हैं:

  1. घनात : 'घनात' शब्द का प्रयोग आमतौर पर 'घनत्व' के लिए नहीं होता है। यह विकल्प सही नहीं है।
  2. घनापन : 'घनापन' का अर्थ किसी वस्तु या पदार्थ के घने होने से है, अर्थात इसका संबंध उसी गुण से है जिसे 'घनत्व' कहते हैं। इसलिए, यह सही उत्तर है।
  3. घनागम : 'घनागम' का कोई सामान्य संदर्भ 'घनत्व' से संबंधित नहीं है। यह शब्द सही विकल्प नहीं है।
  4. घनाक्षरी : 'घनाक्षरी' हिंदी पिंगल शास्त्र का एक छंद है जिसमें एक निश्चित मात्राबंध के साथ कविताएं लिखी जाती हैं। इसका संबंध 'घनत्व' से नहीं है।

Question 100

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द 'कल' का अनेकार्थी शब्द नहीं है - 

  1. AOption (a)

    चैन

  2. BOption (b)

    मशीन

  3. COption (c)

    कक्ष

  4. DOption (d)

    सुंदर

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

कक्ष

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर है- कक्ष

Key Points

 

  • 'कल' शब्द का अर्थ कई प्रसंगों में अलग-अलग हो सकता है, जैसे बीता हुआ दिन, आने वाला दिन, या मशीन।

Additional Information

अन्य विकल्पों को संक्षेप में समझते हैं:

  1. चैन : इसका मतलब शांति या आराम है।
  2. मशीन : 'कल' का अर्थ 'मशीन' होता है [1]।
  3. कक्ष : कक्ष का अर्थ एक कमरा या कक्ष होता है।
  4. सुंदर : इसका मतलब सुन्दरता या आकर्षण होता है।

Discipline 1 (20 questions)

Question 101

How does the receiver handle out-of-order frames in Selective Repeat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Buffers them until all missing frames arrive

  2. BOption (b)

    Discards them immediately

  3. COption (c)

    Sends a cumulative acknowledgment

  4. DOption (d)

    Requests retransmission of all frames

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Buffers them until all missing frames arrive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Buffers them until all missing frames arrive.

Key Points

  • In the Selective Repeat protocol, the receiver does not discard out-of-order frames but buffers them until the missing frames are received.
  • This protocol ensures efficient use of bandwidth by avoiding retransmission of correctly received frames.
  • The receiver sends individual acknowledgments for each correctly received frame, allowing the sender to retransmit only the missing ones.
  • This mechanism is particularly useful in networks with high latency or where packet loss is common.
  • By buffering out-of-order frames, the protocol minimizes delays in delivering data to the application layer once all frames have arrived.

Additional Information

  • Features of Selective Repeat Protocol:
  • Window Size: The sender and receiver maintain a window of acceptable frame numbers for communication.
  • Individual Acknowledgments: Each frame is acknowledged individually, unlike cumulative acknowledgment in Go-Back-N protocol.
  • Efficient Retransmission: Only the frames that are lost or corrupted are retransmitted, reducing redundancy.
  • Advantages of Selective Repeat Protocol:
  • Minimizes unnecessary retransmissions, leading to better utilization of network resources.
  • Improves performance in environments with high error rates or long transmission delays.
  • Ensures reliable delivery of data without duplication or loss.
  • Comparison with Go-Back-N Protocol:
  • Selective Repeat: Buffers out-of-order frames and retransmits only the missing ones.
  • Go-Back-N: Discards out-of-order frames and retransmits all frames starting from the missing one.
  • Selective Repeat offers higher efficiency but requires more complex implementation compared to Go-Back-N.

Question 102

Which SQL statement is used to update data in a table?

  1. AOption (a)

    SET

  2. BOption (b)

    MODIFY 

  3. COption (c)

    CHANGE

  4. DOption (d)

    UPDATE 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

UPDATE 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is UPDATE.

Key Points

  • The SQL UPDATE statement is used to modify the existing records in a table.
  • It allows you to update one or more columns in one or multiple rows based on a specified condition.
  • The basic syntax of the UPDATE statement is:
  • UPDATE table_name
  • SET column1 = value1, column2 = value2, ...
  • WHERE condition;
  • Without a WHERE clause, the UPDATE statement will modify all rows in the table.
  • It is crucial to use the WHERE clause wisely to avoid unintended updates.

Additional Information

  • Examples of SQL UPDATE:
  • To update a single column: UPDATE employees SET salary = 5000 WHERE employee_id = 101;
  • To update multiple columns: UPDATE employees SET salary = 5500, department = 'HR' WHERE employee_id = 102;
  • To update all rows in a table: UPDATE employees SET status = 'Active';
  • Key Differences Between UPDATE and Other Keywords:
  • SET: Used within the UPDATE statement to specify the column values to be changed.
  • MODIFY: Not a valid SQL keyword for updating data; it is used to alter table structures in certain database systems.
  • CHANGE: Not a standard SQL keyword; some databases use it for altering tables.
  • Best Practices for Using UPDATE:
  • Always back up your database before executing an update query, especially when modifying large amounts of data.
  • Use the WHERE clause to target specific rows and avoid accidental updates.
  • Test your update queries in a development environment before applying them to production databases.
  • Important Points:
  • Updating a table can impact database performance, especially for large datasets; consider indexing relevant columns.
  • Use transactions to ensure data integrity when executing multiple related update statements.
  • Always verify the results of an update operation using a SELECT query.

Question 103

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of distributed systems?

  1. AOption (a)

    Scalability

  2. BOption (b)

    Fault tolerance  

  3. COption (c)

    High communication latency 

  4. DOption (d)

    Resource sharing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

High communication latency 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is High communication latency.

Key Points

  • Distributed systems offer several advantages that make them highly desirable in modern computing environments.
  • One of the key benefits is scalability, which allows the system to handle increasing workloads by adding more resources.
  • Fault tolerance is another critical advantage, as distributed systems can continue functioning even if some of their components fail.
  • Resource sharing is also facilitated in distributed systems, enabling multiple users or applications to access and share resources efficiently.
  • However, high communication latency is not a benefit; rather, it is a challenge or drawback in distributed systems, as it can affect system performance and responsiveness.

Additional Information

  • Challenges in Distributed Systems:
  • Latency: Communication between nodes in a distributed system can introduce delays, affecting performance.
  • Complexity: Managing and coordinating multiple nodes can be challenging and requires sophisticated algorithms.
  • Security: Ensuring data security and privacy in a distributed environment can be complex.
  • Advantages of Distributed Systems:
  • Scalability: Easily expandable by adding more nodes to handle increased workloads.
  • Fault Tolerance: Can continue functioning even if some nodes fail, enhancing reliability.
  • Resource Sharing: Facilitates efficient sharing of resources among users and applications.
  • Examples of Distributed Systems:
  • Cloud Computing: Platforms like AWS, Azure, and Google Cloud rely on distributed systems.
  • Content Delivery Networks (CDNs): Used to deliver content efficiently across the globe.
  • Blockchain: A decentralized ledger system used in cryptocurrencies and other applications.
  • Key Design Considerations:
  • Minimizing communication latency to enhance system performance.
  • Ensuring data consistency across distributed nodes.
  • Implementing robust fault-tolerance mechanisms.

Question 104

Which of the following statements is false about universal logic gates?

  1. AOption (a)

    All basic logic gates cannot be implemented using universal logic gates.

  2. BOption (b)

     All basic logic gates can be implemented through universal logic gates.

  3. COption (c)

    NAND gate is known as universal logic gate.

  4. DOption (d)

    NOR gate is known as universal logic gate. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All basic logic gates cannot be implemented using universal logic gates.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Universal logic gates are gates that can be used to construct all other basic logic gates, including AND, OR, NOT, XOR, etc.
  • NAND gate and NOR gate are classified as universal logic gates because they can implement any Boolean function or other basic gates.
  • The statement "All basic logic gates cannot be implemented using universal logic gates" is false, as universal gates can indeed implement all basic gates.
  • Universal logic gates play a crucial role in digital circuit design, making them highly versatile and essential in practical applications.
  • Examples of universal gates include NAND and NOR, which are commonly used in circuit design to create complex logic functions.

Additional Information

  • Definition of Universal Gates:
  • NAND Gate: A universal gate capable of implementing all basic logic gates. The output is false only when all inputs are true.
  • NOR Gate: Another universal gate; the output is true only when all inputs are false.
  • Applications of Universal Gates:
  • Used in digital circuit design to simplify the implementation of complex circuits.
  • Reduce the number of components required, thereby minimizing cost and space.
  • Enable flexibility in designing custom logic functions.
  • Advantages of Universal Gates:
  • Provide a simplified approach to building complex circuits using fewer components.
  • Enhance reliability and reduce the risk of errors in circuit design.
  • Facilitate the development of cost-effective and compact digital systems.
  • Important Points:
  • Universal gates are the backbone of digital electronics, making them indispensable in modern technology.
  • Mastering the use of NAND and NOR gates is essential for understanding advanced circuit design.
  • Practical applications include computer processors, memory devices, and communication systems.

Question 105

Select the correct SQL statement which will correctly insert a new row into the Customer table with only the CustomerID, Name, and Product columns specified, assuming the table allows NULLs for other columns. 

  1. AOption (a)

    INSERT INTO Customer VALUES (101, 'Alice', 'Pen'); 

  2. BOption (b)

    INSERT Customer SET CustomerID=101, Name='Alice', Product='Pen'; 

  3. COption (c)

    INSERT INTO Customer (CustomerID, Name, Product) VALUES (101, 'Alice', 'Pen');

  4. DOption (d)

    ) VALUES (101, 'Alice', 'Pen'); 4. I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

INSERT INTO Customer (CustomerID, Name, Product) VALUES (101, 'Alice', 'Pen');

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Option 3 uses the correct syntax for inserting specific columns into a table: INSERT INTO Customer (CustomerID, Name, Product) VALUES (101, 'Alice', 'Pen');
  • In SQL, when inserting data into specific columns, it is necessary to specify the column names in the INSERT INTO statement.
  • The VALUES clause then provides the values corresponding to the specified columns.
  • Other options are incorrect because they either miss specifying the column names or use invalid syntax.
  • The table allows NULLs for unspecified columns, so the remaining columns will automatically have NULL values.

Additional Information

  • SQL INSERT Statement:
  • The INSERT INTO statement is used to add new rows of data to a table.
  • It can insert data into all columns or specific columns of a table.
  • When inserting into specific columns, the column names must be listed explicitly.
  • Common Errors in SQL INSERT Statements:
  • Missing column names when inserting into specific columns.
  • Using incorrect syntax such as INSERT SET, which is invalid in standard SQL.
  • Mismatching the number of values with the number of specified columns.
  • Best Practices for Using INSERT Statements:
  • Always specify column names when inserting data into specific columns.
  • Ensure the values match the data types and constraints of the columns.
  • Use placeholders or parameterized queries in applications to prevent SQL injection.

Question 106

In public key cryptography, which key is used for decrypting a message encrypted with the public key? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Another public key

  2. BOption (b)

    A symmetric key

  3. COption (c)

    The recipient's private key

  4. DOption (d)

    The sender's private key 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The recipient's private key

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The recipient's private key.

Key Points

  • Public key cryptography involves a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. These keys are used for encryption and decryption processes.
  • When a message is encrypted using the recipient's public key, it can only be decrypted using the corresponding private key of the recipient.
  • This ensures that only the intended recipient, who possesses the private key, can access the encrypted message.
  • The security of public key cryptography is based on mathematical problems that are computationally difficult to solve, ensuring robust protection against unauthorized access.
  • This method is widely used in secure communication, digital signatures, and authentication processes.

Additional Information

  • Uses of Public Key Cryptography:
  • Secure Email Communication: Ensures that only the intended recipient can read the email by encrypting it with their public key.
  • Digital Signatures: Provides authenticity and integrity of documents by signing them with the sender's private key.
  • SSL/TLS Protocols: Used in secure web browsing to encrypt data transfer between users and websites.
  • Authentication: Verifies user identity in systems like two-factor authentication and secure login mechanisms.
  • Advantages of Public Key Cryptography:
  • Does not require sharing of private keys, reducing the risk of key compromise.
  • Enables secure communication over untrusted networks like the internet.
  • Facilitates digital signatures for verifying the authenticity of messages and documents.
  • Important Points:
  • The public key can be shared openly, but the private key must be kept secure and confidential.
  • Key management and protection are crucial to ensure the overall security of the cryptographic system.
  • Public key cryptography is computationally intensive and may require additional processing power compared to symmetric key cryptography.

Question 107

What does the XNOR gate output when A=1 and B=0?

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    A

  4. DOption (d)

    1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • The XNOR gate, also known as the equivalence gate, outputs 1 when both inputs are the same and 0 when they are different.
  • Given the inputs A = 1 and B = 0, the inputs are different, so the output is 0.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • XNOR Gate Truth Table:
  • A = 0, B = 0: Output = 1 (Inputs are the same).
  • A = 0, B = 1: Output = 0 (Inputs are different).
  • A = 1, B = 0: Output = 0 (Inputs are different).
  • A = 1, B = 1: Output = 1 (Inputs are the same).
  • Applications of XNOR Gates:
  • Used in equality detection circuits to compare two binary numbers.
  • Commonly applied in digital systems for error detection and correction.
  • Integral in building circuits for binary arithmetic and logical operations.
  • Important Points:
  • XNOR gates are often referred to as "Exclusive NOR" gates.
  • They are the inverse of XOR gates, as they output 1 for inputs that match.
  • Available as integrated circuits (ICs) for easy implementation in electronic designs.

Question 108

What is the overall design of a database called?

  1. AOption (a)

    Database Table

  2. BOption (b)

    Database Schema 

  3. COption (c)

    Database Instance 

  4. DOption (d)

    Database Model

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Database Schema 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Database Schema.

Key Points

  • Database Schema refers to the overall design or structure of a database, outlining how data is organized and how relationships among data are defined.
  • It is a blueprint that defines the tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, and other database objects.
  • The schema provides a logical framework for storing and retrieving data efficiently.
  • It serves as a guide for database administrators and developers to manage and interact with the database effectively.
  • A well-designed schema ensures data consistency, integrity, and security within the database system.

Additional Information

  • Components of a Database Schema:
  • Tables: Store data in rows and columns, representing entities and their attributes.
  • Fields: Define the type of data stored in each column within a table.
  • Keys: Include primary keys and foreign keys to maintain data integrity and establish relationships.
  • Indexes: Enhance data retrieval speed by creating an optimized structure for frequent queries.
  • Types of Database Schemas:
  • Physical Schema: Defines how data is stored physically on disk, including storage formats and access methods.
  • Logical Schema: Represents the logical structure of the database, including tables, relationships, and constraints.
  • Importance of a Database Schema:
  • Provides a clear structure for managing and querying data effectively.
  • Ensures data consistency and minimizes redundancy through normalization.
  • Facilitates collaboration among developers and database administrators by offering a common design reference.
  • Best Practices for Designing a Database Schema:
  • Identify and define all entities and their relationships before creating tables.
  • Normalize the database to eliminate redundancy and improve data integrity.
  • Choose appropriate data types and constraints for each field to maintain data accuracy.
  • Use indexes strategically to optimize query performance without compromising write operations.

Question 109

Which technology is commonly used in Wi-Fi to enhance signal range and reliability? 

  1. AOption (a)

    CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access)

  2. BOption (b)

    WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) 

  3. COption (c)

    TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access) 

  4. DOption (d)

    MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output).

Key Points

  • MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) is a technology used in Wi-Fi systems to enhance the signal range and reliability by employing multiple antennas at both the transmitter and receiver ends.
  • MIMO significantly improves network performance by enabling the transmission of multiple data streams simultaneously, resulting in higher data rates and increased capacity.
  • This technology is widely used in modern Wi-Fi standards like Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac) and Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) to support high-speed and stable wireless communication.
  • The use of MIMO ensures better signal quality even in environments with high interference and obstacles, such as walls and furniture.
  • It is a critical component in enhancing user experience in applications like video streaming, online gaming, and IoT connectivity.

Additional Information

  • Benefits of MIMO Technology:
  • Increases the data transmission rate by allowing multiple signals to be sent and received simultaneously.
  • Improves the range and coverage of Wi-Fi networks by leveraging multiple antennas.
  • Enhances signal reliability and reduces the impact of interference and signal fading.
  • Supports a greater number of devices in dense network environments without compromising performance.
  • Applications of MIMO:
  • Used in wireless communication standards like LTE, 5G, and modern Wi-Fi technologies.
  • Plays a significant role in smart home and IoT devices for seamless connectivity.
  • Commonly employed in enterprise and public Wi-Fi networks for high-speed internet access.
  • Important Points:
  • MIMO operates based on spatial multiplexing, where separate data streams are transmitted over multiple spatial paths.
  • It is different from technologies like CDMA and TDMA, which rely on code and time division for data separation.
  • Proper configuration and placement of antennas are essential to maximize the benefits of MIMO technology.

Question 110

What is typically returned by the getpid system call in Unix-based operating systems? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Process ID of the parent process

  2. BOption (b)

    The process ID of the kernel

  3. COption (c)

    Process ID of the current process

  4. DOption (d)

    Process ID of the first process 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Process ID of the current process

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Process ID of the current process.

Key Points

  • The getpid system call in Unix-based operating systems is used to retrieve the process ID of the current process.
  • Every running process in Unix-based systems is assigned a unique process ID (PID) to identify it within the operating system.
  • The returned PID is a positive integer that serves as a unique identifier for the process during its lifecycle.
  • This information is essential for various tasks, such as process management, debugging, and inter-process communication.
  • The getpid system call does not require any arguments and is invoked directly by the process that wants to determine its PID.

Additional Information

  • Uses of Process IDs:
  • Process Management: Process IDs are used by system administrators and developers to manage processes, such as terminating or monitoring them.
  • Debugging: Developers use PIDs to debug specific processes by attaching debugging tools to them.
  • Inter-Process Communication (IPC): PIDs are used to identify and communicate between processes using IPC mechanisms like signals or pipes.
  • System Monitoring: Tools like top or ps display PIDs to help monitor system performance and resource usage.
  • Related System Calls:
  • getppid: Retrieves the process ID of the parent process.
  • fork: Creates a new process; the child process gets its own unique PID.
  • kill: Sends signals to processes identified by their PIDs.
  • Important Points:
  • Each process has a unique PID, but after a process terminates, its PID can be reassigned to a new process.
  • The PID of the first process (init/systemd) is always 1 in Unix-like systems.
  • Process IDs are used extensively in system-level programming and process lifecycle management.

Question 111

 ____________ is NOT allowed in a SQL:1999 view definition.

  1. AOption (a)

    Use of nested queries  

  2. BOption (b)

    Use of aggregate formulas 

  3. COption (c)

    Use of ORDER BY clause

  4. DOption (d)

    Use of subqueries 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Use of ORDER BY clause

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Use of ORDER BY clause.

Key Points

  • The ORDER BY clause is not allowed in a SQL:1999 view definition because views are designed to store only the query structure and not the sorting order of the data.
  • In SQL:1999, views are meant to represent a virtual table, and sorting is considered a presentation aspect, which should be handled during the query execution.
  • Using the ORDER BY clause in a view definition could conflict with the way queries are executed on the view, potentially leading to inconsistent results.
  • Other components, such as nested queries, aggregate formulas, and subqueries, are permitted as they contribute to the logical structure and operations of the view.
  • To sort data retrieved from a view, the ORDER BY clause should be used in the query that selects data from the view, rather than in the view definition itself.

Additional Information

  • View Definitions in SQL:1999:
  • Views are virtual tables created by defining a SQL query, and they do not store data physically.
  • They are mainly used to simplify complex queries, enhance security by restricting access to underlying tables, and provide a consistent representation of data.
  • Views can contain JOINs, aggregate functions, and subqueries, but they cannot include clauses like ORDER BY or LIMIT, which are related to data presentation.
  • ORDER BY Clause:
  • The ORDER BY clause is used to sort the result set of a query in either ascending or descending order.
  • It is typically used in SELECT statements to control the order in which rows appear in the result set.
  • When querying a view, the ORDER BY clause can be applied to the result set of the view to achieve the desired sorting.
  • Best Practices for SQL Views:
  • Design views for simplicity and efficiency, avoiding unnecessary complexity in the query structure.
  • Use views to encapsulate reusable query logic and ensure consistent access to data.
  • Avoid including clauses or operations in the view definition that might impact query performance or limit flexibility.
  • Important Points:
  • Views in SQL:1999 follow specific rules and restrictions to ensure consistency and compatibility across different database systems.
  • Understanding the limitations of views, such as the prohibition of ORDER BY, is essential for effective database design.
  • Proper use of views can enhance data security, simplify application development, and improve overall database management.

Question 112

What does the TCP service model guarantee about the order of data delivery? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Data may arrive out of order and is handled by the application layer. 

  2. BOption (b)

     Data is not guaranteed to arrive in any specific order.

  3. COption (c)

    Data is delivered as fast as possible.

  4. DOption (d)

    Data is delivered in the order it is transmitted. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Data is delivered in the order it is transmitted. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Data is delivered in the order it is transmitted..

Key Points

  • The TCP service model ensures that data is delivered in the order it is transmitted, providing a reliable and sequential data delivery mechanism.
  • This feature of TCP is achieved through the use of sequence numbers, which help in reordering data packets at the destination if they arrive out of order.
  • TCP also guarantees that no data is lost during transmission by implementing error-checking mechanisms and retransmitting lost packets.
  • This reliability makes TCP suitable for applications like web browsing, file transfers, and email, where data integrity and order are crucial.
  • In contrast, protocols like UDP do not guarantee data order or reliability, making them more suitable for real-time applications like video streaming.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of TCP:
  • Connection-Oriented Protocol: TCP establishes a connection between sender and receiver before data transfer begins.
  • Reliable Data Transfer: Ensures that all data packets are delivered without errors and in the correct order.
  • Flow Control: Manages data flow to prevent overwhelming the receiver's buffer capacity.
  • Congestion Control: Adjusts the rate of data transmission to avoid network congestion.
  • Applications of TCP:
  • Web Browsing: TCP is used to ensure that all elements of a webpage are delivered in the correct order.
  • Email Communication: Protocols like SMTP, IMAP, and POP rely on TCP for reliable data transfer.
  • File Transfers: Applications like FTP use TCP to ensure complete and accurate file delivery.
  • Limitations of TCP:
  • It introduces additional overhead due to error checking, sequencing, and acknowledgment mechanisms.
  • Not suitable for real-time applications like online gaming or live video streaming, where speed is prioritized over reliability.
  • Comparison with UDP:
  • While TCP provides reliability and ordered delivery, UDP offers faster transmission with no guarantee of delivery or order.
  • UDP is preferred for applications like VoIP, live broadcasts, and online gaming.

Question 113

In an acyclic graph directory structure, what is a common method used to implement shared directories or files?

  1. AOption (a)

    File duplication

  2. BOption (b)

    Directory pointers

  3. COption (c)

    Symbolic (soft) links

  4. DOption (d)

    Hard links

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Symbolic (soft) links

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Symbolic (soft) links.

Key Points

  • Symbolic links are a type of shortcut or reference that points to another file or directory in the file system.
  • They allow multiple directories or files to share content without duplicating the actual data, saving disk space.
  • Unlike hard links, symbolic links can link to directories and can span across different file systems.
  • They are widely used in acyclic graph directory structures to avoid redundancy and simplify access to shared data.
  • If the original file or directory is deleted, the symbolic link becomes broken and no longer functions.

Additional Information

  • Comparison with Other Methods:
  • File Duplication: Involves creating a copy of the same file in multiple locations, which increases storage requirements and is less efficient.
  • Directory Pointers: These are less commonly used compared to symbolic links and may not be supported across all file systems.
  • Hard Links: Can only link to files (not directories) and must reside in the same file system as the original file.
  • Advantages of Symbolic Links:
  • They provide flexibility by linking across different file systems.
  • Help reduce redundancy and save disk space.
  • Easy to identify and manage, as they are stored as separate files.
  • Important Points:
  • Symbolic links are created using commands like ln -s in Unix/Linux systems.
  • They are visually distinguishable in directory listings, often marked with an arrow pointing to the target.
  • Broken symbolic links should be removed or updated to avoid confusion or errors in the file system.

Question 114

 If a process arrives at time 5, what is the latest possible time for it to start execution if there are no other processes in the system?

  1. AOption (a)

    Time 5 

  2. BOption (b)

    Time 4 

  3. COption (c)

    Time 0

  4. DOption (d)

    Time 6 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Time 5 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Time 5.

Key Points

  • Time 5 is the latest possible time for the process to start execution if there are no other processes in the system.
  • When a process arrives at time 5 and there are no other processes, it can begin execution immediately at the time of its arrival.
  • Other options, such as Time 4 or Time 0, are incorrect because they occur before the process arrival time.
  • Time 6 is also incorrect since the process can start executing as soon as it arrives at time 5.

Additional Information

  • Arrival Time: The time at which a process enters the system or is ready for execution.
  • Execution: In the absence of other processes, the CPU is available for immediate execution of the arriving process.
  • Process Scheduling:
  • When processes arrive in the system, scheduling algorithms determine their execution order based on criteria like priority, arrival time, or burst time.
  • In scenarios with only one process, no scheduling conflicts arise, and the process begins execution immediately.
  • System Context:
  • In a single-process system, execution starts as soon as the process arrives and resources are available.
  • This ensures that no unnecessary delays occur in process execution.

Question 115

Which of the following describes the use of digital certificates in authentication?

  1. AOption (a)

    They store user passwords.

  2. BOption (b)

    They verify the identity of entities using public key infrastructure (PKI)

  3. COption (c)

    They encrypt data transmissions.

  4. DOption (d)

    They compress large files for secure transfer.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

They verify the identity of entities using public key infrastructure (PKI)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is They verify the identity of entities using public key infrastructure (PKI).

Key Points

  • Digital certificates are electronic credentials used to authenticate the identity of entities such as users, devices, or organizations in a network.
  • They function within the framework of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which uses cryptographic keys to establish secure communications.
  • Certificates ensure the integrity and authenticity of the data being exchanged by verifying that it comes from a trusted source.
  • They include critical information such as the entity's public key, the certificate authority (CA) signature, and the validity period.
  • Digital certificates are essential for enabling secure online transactions, encrypted communications, and identity verification.

Additional Information

  • Components of Digital Certificates:
  • Public Key: Used for encrypting data or verifying digital signatures.
  • Certificate Authority (CA): The trusted entity that issues and signs the certificate.
  • Validity Period: Specifies the time frame during which the certificate is valid.
  • Subject Information: Details about the entity the certificate is issued to.
  • Types of Digital Certificates:
  • Domain Validation (DV) Certificates: Verify the ownership of the domain.
  • Organization Validation (OV) Certificates: Confirm the legitimacy of the organization owning the domain.
  • Extended Validation (EV) Certificates: Provide the highest level of trust by verifying the organization and its operational status.
  • Uses of Digital Certificates:
  • Securing websites with HTTPS encryption.
  • Authenticating users and devices in a network.
  • Encrypting emails and sensitive data transmissions.
  • Important Points:
  • Digital certificates must be issued by a trusted Certificate Authority (CA).
  • They are an integral part of secure online transactions and communication protocols.
  • Regular renewal of certificates is necessary to maintain security and compliance.

Question 116

How does the Best Fit algorithm impact system performance?

  1. AOption (a)

    It always improves system performance. 

  2. BOption (b)

    It improves system performance by reducing memory wastage

  3. COption (c)

    It may reduce system performance due to increased search time for free blocks.

  4. DOption (d)

    It improves system performance by reducing external fragmentation. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It may reduce system performance due to increased search time for free blocks.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It may reduce system performance due to increased search time for free blocks..

Key Points

  • The Best Fit algorithm is a memory allocation strategy that allocates the smallest free block of memory that is large enough to accommodate the requested size.
  • This approach aims to minimize memory wastage by using the most appropriately sized block.
  • However, it may lead to increased search time because the system needs to scan through the available memory blocks to find the best fit.
  • While it helps in reducing external fragmentation, the added search overhead can result in a decrease in overall system performance.
  • The algorithm is more suitable for systems where memory efficiency is a priority over processing time.

Additional Information

  • Advantages of Best Fit Algorithm:
  • Reduces external fragmentation by efficiently utilizing memory blocks.
  • Ensures that the smallest possible block is allocated, leaving larger blocks available for future allocations.
  • Disadvantages of Best Fit Algorithm:
  • Increased search time due to the need to find the most suitable block.
  • May lead to internal fragmentation if the allocated block is slightly larger than required.
  • Comparison with Other Algorithms:
  • First Fit: Allocates the first block that is large enough, leading to faster allocation but potentially higher fragmentation.
  • Worst Fit: Allocates the largest available block, which may leave smaller blocks unutilized.
  • Next Fit: Similar to First Fit, but continues the search from the last allocated block.
  • Important Points:
  • The choice of memory allocation algorithm depends on the specific requirements of the system, such as speed, memory efficiency, or a balance of both.
  • Best Fit is suitable for applications where memory usage needs to be optimized and processing time is less critical.

Question 117

Which of the following SQL expressions evaluates to TRUE, according to SQL-99?

  1. AOption (a)

    NULL IS NULL returns FALSE

  2. BOption (b)

    NULL >= NULL returns UNKNOWN

  3. COption (c)

    NULL <= NULL returns UNKNOWN

  4. DOption (d)

    NULL IS NULL returns TRUE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

NULL IS NULL returns TRUE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is NULL IS NULL returns TRUE.

Key Points

  • NULL IS NULL evaluates to TRUE because the SQL-99 standard defines that the IS NULL operation checks whether a value is NULL and returns TRUE if the value is indeed NULL.
  • NULL comparisons: In SQL, direct comparisons involving NULL, such as NULL >= NULL or NULL <= NULL, do not evaluate to TRUE or FALSE but return UNKNOWN due to the nature of NULL being an unknown value.
  • The expression NULL IS NULL is not a comparison but a direct check for the presence of a NULL value, which is why it evaluates to TRUE.
  • Understanding NULL behavior is critical for writing efficient SQL queries and avoiding logical errors in database operations.

Additional Information

  • Behavior of NULL in SQL:
  • NULL represents a missing or unknown value; it is not equivalent to 0 or an empty string.
  • Operations involving NULL, such as arithmetic or comparisons, return UNKNOWN rather than TRUE or FALSE.
  • Functions like COALESCE and ISNULL are used to handle NULL values effectively in SQL queries.
  • Key SQL-99 standards regarding NULL:
  • The IS NULL operation is specifically designed to check for NULL values and returns TRUE when the value is NULL.
  • Direct comparisons involving NULL are avoided in practice due to their UNKNOWN result.
  • Using NULL-aware functions and operations ensures better data handling and accurate query results.
  • Best Practices for Handling NULL:
  • Always account for NULL values when writing WHERE clauses or JOIN conditions in SQL queries.
  • Use NULL-safe functions and operators, such as IS NULL, COALESCE, and IFNULL.
  • Understand the behavior of NULL in aggregate functions like COUNT, SUM, and AVG to avoid unexpected results.
  • Important Notes:
  • NULL does not represent a value but signifies the absence of a value.
  • NULL-aware programming in SQL is essential for handling real-world database scenarios.
  • Proper understanding of NULL behavior improves query efficiency and accuracy.

Question 118

In which scheduling algorithm does the disk head move in one direction, satisfying all requests until it reaches the end, and then reverses direction?

  1. AOption (a)

    FCFS

  2. BOption (b)

    SSTF

  3. COption (c)

    SCAN

  4. DOption (d)

    LOOK

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SCAN

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is SCAN.

Key Points

  • The SCAN scheduling algorithm, also known as the "elevator algorithm," is used for disk scheduling.
  • In this algorithm, the disk head moves in one direction, satisfying all pending requests until it reaches the end of the disk.
  • Once the end is reached, the direction of the disk head is reversed, and it continues servicing requests in the opposite direction.
  • This approach reduces seek time compared to FCFS (First Come, First Serve) and ensures a more uniform wait time for requests.
  • It is particularly useful in scenarios where requests are spread across the entire disk, balancing efficiency and fairness.

Additional Information

  • Other Disk Scheduling Algorithms:
  • FCFS (First Come, First Serve): Processes requests in the order they arrive, without optimization. It can lead to long seek times.
  • SSTF (Shortest Seek Time First): Selects the request closest to the current disk head position, minimizing seek time but possibly causing starvation of distant requests.
  • LOOK: A variant of SCAN where the disk head only goes as far as the last request in each direction, rather than to the physical end of the disk.
  • C-SCAN (Circular SCAN): Similar to SCAN, but the disk head only moves in one direction and jumps back to the start after reaching the end, ensuring uniform wait times.
  • Advantages of SCAN:
  • Reduces the average seek time compared to FCFS.
  • Balances fairness by servicing requests in both directions.
  • Minimizes starvation of requests compared to SSTF.
  • Disadvantages of SCAN:
  • Increased seek time for requests at the ends of the disk.
  • More complex to implement than FCFS or SSTF.

Question 119

What happens if a RST (reset) packet is received during the connection management process?

  1. AOption (a)

    The sender continues retransmissions. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The receiver sends another SYN packet. 

  3. COption (c)

    The connection remains active. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The connection is immediately terminated. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The connection is immediately terminated. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The connection is immediately terminated..

Key Points

  • An RST (reset) packet is used in TCP to abruptly terminate a connection. When received during the connection management process, it indicates that the sender or receiver wants to immediately end the communication.
  • This is usually done when there is an error, unexpected behavior, or unauthorized connection attempt.
  • Upon receiving an RST packet, the connection is instantly terminated without waiting for further communication or acknowledgment.
  • The sender or receiver does not retry or continue the process after receiving an RST, ensuring the connection is halted immediately.

Additional Information

  • Key Characteristics of RST Packets:
  • Purpose: Used to terminate connections in TCP/IP networks when an error or abnormal condition occurs.
  • Instant Termination: Unlike the graceful termination process (FIN packets), RST results in abrupt disconnection.
  • Triggers: Can be triggered by unauthorized access, protocol errors, or unexpected connection attempts.
  • Impact of RST Packets:
  • Ends communication immediately without completing the usual TCP handshake or termination process.
  • May disrupt applications relying on ongoing communication, requiring them to handle such interruptions gracefully.
  • Handling RST Packets:
  • Applications should be designed to detect and appropriately respond to RST packets to avoid disruptions.
  • Network administrators may monitor and analyze RST packets to identify potential security threats or misconfigurations.

Question 120

What is the ARP reply's scope in terms of message type?

  1. AOption (a)

    Unicast

  2. BOption (b)

    Multicast

  3. COption (c)

    Broadcast

  4. DOption (d)

    Anycast

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Unicast

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Unicast.

Key Points

  • Unicast is a communication method where a message is sent from one device to a specific individual device.
  • In the case of an ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) reply, the message is sent as a unicast to the requesting device.
  • The reply contains the MAC address of the target device, which is sent specifically to the requester and not broadcasted to all devices.
  • This ensures efficient communication and reduces unnecessary network traffic.
  • ARP replies are vital for enabling devices in a network to resolve IP addresses into MAC addresses for direct communication.

Additional Information

  • Types of ARP Messages:
  • ARP Request: Sent as a broadcast message to all devices in the network to find the MAC address associated with a specific IP address.
  • ARP Reply: Sent as a unicast message to the device that originated the ARP request, providing the requested MAC address.
  • Benefits of ARP Reply Unicast:
  • Minimizes network congestion by targeting only the requesting device.
  • Ensures efficient communication between devices in the network.
  • Important Points:
  • ARP is used in IPv4 networks to map IP addresses to MAC addresses.
  • It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model.
  • In IPv6 networks, ARP is replaced by the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP).

Discipline 2 (20 questions)

Question 121

What will be the output of the following code? #include int main() { a = 10 b = 20 int max = (a > b) ? a : b; printf("%d", max); return 0; 

}

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    30

  3. COption (c)

    compile time error

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

compile time error

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is compile time error.

Key Points

The given code snippet results in a compile-time error because the variables a and b are used without being declared and the statement is missing semicolons. To correct the code, variables a and b need to be explicitly declared as integers, like int a = 10; and int b = 20;. If the code is corrected and compiled, the ternary operator (a > b) ? a : b evaluates the condition a > b. Since 20 > 10, the expression returns b, which is 20. The printf function then outputs the value 20 to the console.

Additional Information

Ternary Operator:

The ternary operator in C is a shorthand conditional operator, represented as condition ? expression1 : expression2. If the condition is true, the operator returns expression1; otherwise, it returns expression2.

Syntax Correction:

To fix the error in the provided code, add int declarations for the variables a and b. Example: int a = 10, b = 20;

Proper Coding Practices:

Always declare variables before using them in expressions. Include semicolons (;) at the end of each statement to avoid syntax errors. Test code thoroughly to ensure correctness and avoid runtime or compile-time errors.

Question 122

What is the objective of encapsulation in object-oriented programming? 

  1. AOption (a)

    To enable one class to inherit from another class

  2. BOption (b)

    To allow objects to take multiple forms

  3. COption (c)

    To create multiple instances of a class 

  4. DOption (d)

    To combine data and methods that operate on that data within a single unit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To combine data and methods that operate on that data within a single unit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To combine data and methods that operate on that data within a single unit.

Key Points

  • Encapsulation is a fundamental concept in object-oriented programming that involves bundling data and the methods that operate on that data into a single unit, typically a class.
  • It helps to restrict direct access to some of an object's components, which is useful for preventing unintended interference and maintaining the integrity of the object's data.
  • The principle of encapsulation ensures that the internal details of a class are hidden from the outside, exposing only the necessary parts via public methods.
  • This improves modularity, maintainability, and security of the code, as changes to internal implementation do not affect external code.
  • Encapsulation allows implementing getter and setter methods for controlled access and manipulation of class properties.

Additional Information

  • Advantages of Encapsulation:
  • Enhances code security by preventing unauthorized access to class members.
  • Promotes data hiding, which helps in isolating the code from external interference.
  • Makes the code modular, enabling easier debugging and maintenance.
  • Allows changes in the internal implementation without affecting the external usage.
  • Examples of Encapsulation in Programming:
  • Using private access modifiers in classes to restrict access to variables.
  • Providing public getter and setter methods to access and update private variables.
  • Implementing classes where the internal workings (data structures and algorithms) are hidden from the user.
  • Encapsulation vs Abstraction:
  • Encapsulation: Focuses on hiding the internal details and restricting access to them.
  • Abstraction: Focuses on hiding unnecessary details and exposing essential features to the user.
  • Both concepts work together to improve the design and functionality of object-oriented programs.

Question 123

class Parent {

protected void protectedMethod() {

System.out.println("Protected method }

}

class Child extends Parent { public void childMethod() protectedMethod(); } {

}

in Parent"); te

public class Test {

public static void main(String[] args) { Child child = new Child();

child.childMethod();

}

}

What will happen when the code is executed?

  1. AOption (a)

    The code will compile and print 'Protected method in Parent'.

  2. BOption (b)

    Runtime Error: Cannot access protectedMethod from the Child class. 

  3. COption (c)

    Compilation Error: The protectedMethod is not visible in the Child class.. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Compilation Error: childMethod is not visible due to access restrictions.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The code will compile and print 'Protected method in Parent'.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The code will compile and print 'Protected method in Parent'..

Key Points

  • The code demonstrates the usage of the protected access modifier in Java, which allows access to a member in the same package and also in subclasses, even if they are in different packages.
  • In the code, the protectedMethod defined in the Parent class is accessed by the Child class through inheritance.
  • The childMethod in the Child class calls the protectedMethod, which prints the message 'Protected method in Parent'.
  • The code compiles successfully and executes without runtime errors, producing the expected output on the console.

Additional Information

  • Access Modifiers in Java:
  • Public: Accessible from any class in any package.
  • Protected: Accessible within the same package and by subclasses in other packages.
  • Default (Package-private): Accessible only within the same package.
  • Private: Accessible only within the same class.
  • Key Characteristics of the Protected Modifier:
  • Ensures encapsulation while allowing controlled access to subclasses.
  • Widely used in inheritance to expose certain members to child classes while restricting access to external classes.
  • Important Points:
  • Accessing protected members outside the package requires inheritance.
  • If the protectedMethod were private, it would not be accessible in the Child class, resulting in a compilation error.
  • Proper usage of access modifiers is crucial for maintaining code security and modularity.

Question 124

Which of the following is true about nested switch statements in C?

  1. AOption (a)

    A switch statement cannot contain another switch.

  2. BOption (b)

    Inner switch cases should not contain break statement

  3. COption (c)

    A switch statement can contain another switch statement inside any of its cases. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both inner and outer switch statements must have a default case.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A switch statement can contain another switch statement inside any of its cases. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A switch statement can contain another switch statement inside any of its cases..

Key Points

  • Nested switch statements: A switch statement can contain another switch statement inside one of its cases, allowing complex decision structures.
  • There is no restriction on the number of nested switch statements, but it is crucial to use proper indentation and structuring for readability.
  • Each switch statement operates independently, and the cases in the inner switch statement are evaluated only when the corresponding case in the outer switch is executed.
  • Break statements are necessary in both inner and outer switch statements to prevent fall-through between cases.
  • Default cases are optional in switch statements but are recommended for handling unexpected values.

Additional Information

  • Usage and Best Practices:
  • Readability: Nested switch statements can become complex, so proper indentation and comments are necessary to maintain code readability.
  • Break Statements: Ensure that break statements are used appropriately in both inner and outer switches to prevent unintended fall-through.
  • Default Case: Include default cases to handle unexpected values, improving robustness.
  • Limitations:
  • Excessive nesting can make the code harder to debug and maintain.
  • Switch statements are limited to comparing integral or enumerated types, which may restrict their use in certain scenarios.
  • Alternatives to Nested Switch:
  • Consider using if-else statements or state machines for complex decision-making structures.
  • Using functions or modular design can simplify nested decision-making logic.
  • Important Notes:
  • Nested switch statements should be used judiciously to avoid overly complex and unreadable code.
  • Ensure that the logic within the cases is concise and well-organized.

Question 125

What does the super keyword in Java do?

  1. AOption (a)

    Used to define static variables 

  2. BOption (b)

    Refers to high performing objects

  3. COption (c)

    Refers to the parent class 

  4. DOption (d)

    Refers to the current object 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Refers to the parent class 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Refers to the parent class.

Key Points

  • The super keyword in Java is used to refer to the immediate parent class of the current object.
  • It is primarily used in inheritance to access methods, variables, or constructors of the parent class.
  • The super keyword can invoke the parent class constructor, which is useful for initializing parent class fields.
  • It helps in avoiding naming conflicts when both parent and child classes have methods or variables with the same name.
  • Using super, we can call the parent class version of an overridden method in the child class.

Additional Information

  • Uses of the super keyword:
  • Access parent class fields when they are hidden by child class fields.
  • Call parent class methods that are overridden in the child class.
  • Invoke parent class constructors to initialize its fields.
  • Rules for using super:
  • The super keyword must be the first statement in the child class constructor when invoking the parent class constructor.
  • It cannot be used in static contexts as it is tied to object instances.
  • Improper use of super can lead to compilation errors.
  • Example:
  • Consider a parent class Animal with a method sound(). The child class Dog can use super.sound() to call the parent class method in addition to its own implementation.
  • Important Points:
  • The super keyword is not mandatory in Java unless explicitly needed for referencing the parent class.
  • It enhances code readability and maintainability, especially in complex inheritance hierarchies.
  • Helps in leveraging the functionality of the parent class efficiently in child classes.

Question 126

Which of the following techniques can be used to modify the actual variable passed to a function?

  1. AOption (a)

    Standard C has no options for modifying actual variables passed to a function. 

  2. BOption (b)

    Pass a copy of the actual parameter to function. 

  3. COption (c)

    Pass the address of the actual parameters to function.

  4. DOption (d)

    Use a local variable instead of passing any parameters. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pass the address of the actual parameters to function.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pass the address of the actual parameters to function.

Key Points

  • In C programming, passing the address of the actual parameters to a function allows the function to modify the actual variable.
  • This is achieved using pointers, where the function can directly access and alter the memory location of the actual variable.
  • This technique is commonly referred to as call by reference, as opposed to call by value, where only a copy of the variable is passed.
  • Using call by reference is particularly useful when you need to update the value of a variable or work with large data structures like arrays or structures, as it avoids unnecessary copying.
  • Care must be taken while using pointers to avoid issues such as memory corruption or segmentation faults.

Additional Information

  • Other Techniques and Their Limitations:
  • Standard C has no options for modifying actual variables: This statement is incorrect because C provides pointers for modifying actual variables.
  • Pass a copy of the actual parameter: This is known as call by value, where the function works on a copy and does not modify the actual variable.
  • Use a local variable instead of passing parameters: This does not allow access to the actual variable, making it ineffective for modifying the original value.
  • Advantages of Call by Reference:
  • Enables direct modification of the actual variable, which is efficient in certain scenarios.
  • Avoids the overhead of copying large data structures, improving performance.
  • Facilitates returning multiple values from a function by modifying the passed variables.
  • Important Points:
  • Proper use of pointers is essential to avoid issues such as dangling pointers or memory leaks.
  • Always ensure that the pointer being accessed is valid and points to the correct memory location.
  • Pointer arithmetic should be used cautiously, as incorrect operations can lead to undefined behavior.

Question 127

What will be the output of the following code snippet?

#include<stdio.h>

int main() {

int a = 5 b = 3 c = 0

if (a > b > c) {

printf("True\n");

} else {

printf("False\n");

}

return 0;

}

  1. AOption (a)

    FALSE

  2. BOption (b)

    undefined behavior

  3. COption (c)

    TRUE

  4. DOption (d)

    compile time error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

TRUE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is TRUE.

Key Points

  • In C language, relational operators like > are evaluated from left to right.
  • The expression a > b > c is interpreted as (a > b) > c.
  • First, 5 > 3 evaluates to 1, since true is represented as 1 in C.
  • Next, 1 > 0 is evaluated, which is also true.
  • Since the condition is true, the if block executes and prints True.

Additional Information

  • Important Note on Syntax:
  • The declaration int a = 5 b = 3 c = 0 is syntactically incorrect in C.
  • The correct syntax should be int a = 5, b = 3, c = 0;.
  • In competitive exams, such syntax errors are often ignored to test logical understanding.
  • The focus is on evaluating the behavior of the condition, not compilation errors.
  • Exam-Oriented Conclusion:
  • The logical output of the condition is TRUE.
  • Therefore, Option 3 is the intended answer.

Question 128

What does the first dimension and the second dimension represents in a two dimensional character array?

  1. AOption (a)

    The first dimension stores the length of each name, and the second stores the number of names.

  2. BOption (b)

    The first dimension represents the maximum length of the names, and the second dimension represents the number of names. 

  3. COption (c)

    The first dimension represents the number of names in the array, and the second dimension represents the maximum length of each name. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The first dimension holds the total number of characters, and the second dimension stores the number of names.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The first dimension represents the number of names in the array, and the second dimension represents the maximum length of each name. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The first dimension represents the number of names in the array, and the second dimension represents the maximum length of each name..

Key Points

  • A two-dimensional character array is used to store multiple strings or names efficiently, where each name is stored as an array of characters.
  • The first dimension of the array represents the total number of names that can be stored in the array.
  • The second dimension of the array represents the maximum length of each name that can be stored.
  • This structure allows easy access to individual names and characters within those names using indices.
  • It is commonly used in programming to manage a collection of strings, such as names, sentences, or identifiers.

Additional Information

  • Usage of Two-Dimensional Character Arrays:
  • Storing a list of names, such as student names, employee names, or city names.
  • Manipulating strings for applications like sorting, searching, or pattern matching.
  • Handling tabular data where each row represents a string or a set of related characters.
  • Advantages:
  • Efficient storage and management of multiple strings within a single data structure.
  • Easy access to individual names or characters using array indices.
  • Flexibility in defining the maximum length of each name based on application requirements.
  • Important Points:
  • Memory allocation for a two-dimensional character array depends on the number of names and their maximum length.
  • Proper initialization is required to avoid undefined behavior when accessing array elements.
  • String manipulation functions like strcpy(), strcmp(), and strlen() can be used effectively with two-dimensional character arrays.

Question 129

What is the output of the following code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main() {

int i = 5

do {

printf("%d ", i);

i--;

} while (i > 5) ;

return 0;

}

  1. AOption (a)

    54321  

  2. BOption (b)

    Infinite loop

  3. COption (c)

    No output printed

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • The code contains a syntax error. The do-while loop is missing a semicolon ; after the initialization of i = 5.
  • If the syntax is corrected, the do-while loop will execute the printf statement once, printing the value of i (5), and then decrementing it to 4.
  • The condition i > 5 in the while statement will then fail, and the loop will exit.
  • As a result, the output will be 5.

Additional Information

  • Common Errors in C Programs:
  • Missing semicolons ; after statements often lead to compilation errors.
  • Incorrect loop conditions may result in unintended outputs or infinite loops.
  • Improper initialization of variables can cause undefined behavior.
  • Key Concepts in do-while Loops:
  • The body of a do-while loop is executed at least once, even if the condition is false initially.
  • It is essential to ensure that the loop condition is correctly specified to avoid infinite loops.
  • Always use appropriate formatting and comments to improve code readability and maintainability.
  • Debugging Tips for Syntax Errors:
  • Check for missing semicolons or braces in the code.
  • Review the loop conditions and initialization statements for correctness.
  • Use a compiler or an integrated development environment (IDE) to identify errors quickly.

Question 130

What will be the output of the following code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main() {

int x = - 1 y = 0 z = 1

int result = (x > 0) ? x: (y == 0) ? z: y;

printf("%d", result);

return 0;

}

  1. AOption (a)

    compile time error

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    -1

  4. DOption (d)

    0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1.

Key Points

  • The variables are initialized as x = -1, y = 0, and z = 1.
  • The conditional expression (x > 0) is evaluated first.
  • Since -1 > 0 is false, the control moves to the false part of the ternary operator.
  • The expression becomes (y == 0) ? z : y.
  • Since y == 0 is true, the value of z is selected.
  • The value of z is 1, which is assigned to result.
  • The program prints 1.

Additional Information

  • Ternary Operator Structure:
  • Syntax: condition ? expression1 : expression2
  • If the condition is true, expression1 is executed.
  • If the condition is false, expression2 is executed.
  • Operator Associativity:
  • The ternary operator evaluates from right to left.
  • Nested ternary expressions are evaluated carefully based on condition results.
  • Final Output:
  • The program outputs 1.
  • Therefore, Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 131

How many times will the innermost loop execute in the below code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main() {

for(int i = 0 i < 3 i++)

{

for(int j = 0 j < 2 j++)

{

printf("%d ",i);

}

}

return 0;

}

  1. AOption (a)

    2 times

  2. BOption (b)

    5 times

  3. COption (c)

    3 times

  4. DOption (d)

    6 times

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

6 times

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6 times.

Key Points

  • The code provided has two nested for loops.
  • The outer loop runs 3 times, corresponding to i = 0, i = 1, and i = 2.
  • The inner loop runs 2 times for each iteration of the outer loop, corresponding to j = 0 and j = 1.
  • Thus, the total number of executions of the innermost loop is calculated as 3 (outer loop iterations) × 2 (inner loop iterations) = 6 times.
  • The printf statement inside the inner loop will print the value of i six times in total, resulting in the innermost loop executing 6 times.

Additional Information

  • Nested Loops:
  • Nested loops are loops within loops, where an inner loop executes all its iterations for each iteration of the outer loop.
  • The number of executions of the innermost loop is determined by multiplying the iterations of each loop.
  • Code Behavior:
  • The outer loop runs for i = 0, 1, 2, and for each value of i, the inner loop runs for j = 0, 1.
  • This creates a total of 6 iterations for the inner loop.
  • Output of the Code:
  • The printf statement inside the inner loop prints the value of i during each iteration.
  • The actual printed output will be: 0 0 1 1 2 2.

Question 132

What happens when the following code executes?

#include <stdio.h>

int main() {

char buffer[50];

int n = sprintf(buffer, "Hello, World!");

printf("%d %s", n, buffer);

return 0;

}

  1. AOption (a)

    Prints '13 Hello, World!'

  2. BOption (b)

    Prints '12 Hello, World!'

  3. COption (c)

    Prints '13 Hello'

  4. DOption (d)

    Prints '12 Hello'

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Prints '13 Hello, World!'

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Prints '13 Hello, World!'.

Key Points

  • In the given code, the sprintf() function formats the string "Hello, World!" into the buffer array and returns the number of characters written, excluding the null terminator.
  • The string "Hello, World!" has 13 characters, so the value of n will be 13.
  • The printf() function then prints the value of n and the content of the buffer, resulting in the output: '13 Hello, World!'.
  • The correct answer is therefore Option 1.

Additional Information

  • sprintf() is a standard library function used to format strings and store them in a character array (buffer).
  • The function does not include the null character in the count of characters returned by it.
  • The format specifier %d is used to print integer values, while %s is used to print null-terminated strings.
  • The buffer must be large enough to store the formatted string, including the null terminator, to avoid undefined behavior.
  • Understanding the behavior of string formatting functions like sprintf() is essential for handling strings effectively in C programming.

Question 133

What will be the output of the following program?

class CustomException extends Exception {

public CustomException(String message) {

super(message);

}

}

public class TestCustomException {

public static void main(String[] args) {

try {

validateAge(15);

} catch (CustomException e) {

System.out.println("Caught Exception: " + e.getMessage());

} finally {

System.out.println("Execution finished.");

}

}

public static void validateAge(int age) throws CustomException {

if (age < 18) {

throw new CustomException("Age must be 18 or above.");

}

System.out.println("Age is valid.");

}

}

  1. AOption (a)

    Compilation error because custom exceptions cannot extend Exception.

  2. BOption (b)

    Age is valid.

    Execution finished.

  3. COption (c)

    ​Caught Exception: Age must be 18 or above.

    Execution finished.

  4. DOption (d)

    Caught Exception: null

    Execution finished.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

​Caught Exception: Age must be 18 or above.

Execution finished.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Caught Exception: Age must be 18 or above. Execution finished..

Key Points

  • The method validateAge(15) is called inside the try block.
  • Since 15 < 18, a CustomException is thrown.
  • The exception is caught in the catch block.
  • The message "Age must be 18 or above." is printed.
  • The finally block always executes.
  • The message "Execution finished." is printed.

Additional Information

  • Custom Exceptions:
  • Custom exceptions can extend the Exception class.
  • They are used to create application-specific error messages.
  • Finally Block:
  • The finally block executes whether an exception occurs or not.
  • It is commonly used for cleanup operations.
  • Program Output:
  • Caught Exception: Age must be 18 or above.
  • Execution finished.

Question 134

What does the below code snippet represent? myObject.doActivity(); 

  1. AOption (a)

     Sending a message to the doActivity class

  2. BOption (b)

    Calling a method named doActivity on the object myObject

  3. COption (c)

    Creating an object myObject 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sending a message to the child class of myObject 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Calling a method named doActivity on the object myObject

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Calling a method named doActivity on the object myObject.

Key Points

  • The code snippet myObject.doActivity(); represents calling a method named doActivity on the object myObject.
  • This is a common syntax in object-oriented programming where an object invokes its method.
  • The object myObject must be an instance of a class that contains the method doActivity.
  • The method doActivity is expected to perform a specific activity defined within its implementation.
  • This syntax ensures encapsulation, where the object's internal operations are accessed via well-defined methods.

Additional Information

  • Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) Concepts:
  • Classes and Objects: A class is a blueprint for creating objects. An object is an instance of a class.
  • Methods: Functions defined within a class that operate on the object's data.
  • Encapsulation: Restricting direct access to certain object components and providing controlled access via methods.
  • Key Syntax:
  • myObject.methodName(); This is the general syntax to call a method on an object in languages like Java and C#.
  • The object must be initialized before calling its methods; otherwise, it may throw a NullPointerException (Java) or similar error.
  • Examples:
  • If myObject is an instance of a class Activity, and doActivity is a defined method, calling myObject.doActivity(); executes the method.
  • For example: class Activity { void doActivity() { System.out.println("Activity performed."); } } Activity myObject = new Activity(); myObject.doActivity();

This will output: Activity performed.

Question 135

 Which of the following statements is false about simplification of Boolean functions using Karnaugh Map technique? 

  1. AOption (a)

    In Karnaugh Map, you group adjacent squares in the form of power of two and try to cover as many minterms or maxterms as you can in one grou

  2. BOption (b)

    In Karnaugh Map, the rows and columns are represented in binary code sequence

  3. COption (c)

    Karnaugh Map technique is used to simplify Sum of Product (SOP) form of Boolean functions.

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnaugh Map technique is used to simplify Product of Sum (POS) form of Boolean functions. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

In Karnaugh Map, the rows and columns are represented in binary code sequence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • Karnaugh Map (K-Map) is a graphical method used for simplifying Boolean expressions in both SOP (Sum of Product) and POS (Product of Sum) forms.
  • Adjacent cells in the K-Map differ by only one bit, and grouping these cells in powers of two helps eliminate variables and simplify expressions.
  • For simplification, the rows and columns of a K-Map are labeled using a Gray Code sequence, not a binary code sequence. This ensures that only one variable changes between adjacent cells.
  • K-Maps are especially useful for reducing complex Boolean expressions with up to six variables, making circuits simpler and more efficient.
  • The key to proper K-Map simplification lies in identifying and grouping 1's (in SOP) or 0's (in POS) to cover as many terms as possible with the fewest groups.

Additional Information

  • Advantages of Karnaugh Map:
  • Simplifies Boolean expressions to their minimal forms, reducing circuit complexity.
  • Visually intuitive and easier to use compared to algebraic simplifications.
  • Helps in optimizing both SOP and POS expressions efficiently.
  • Limitations of Karnaugh Map:
  • Becomes cumbersome to use for expressions with more than six variables.
  • Prone to errors if the Gray Code sequence or grouping is not followed correctly.
  • Does not provide insights into the dynamic behavior of circuits or timing issues.
  • Important Points:
  • Always label K-Map rows and columns with Gray Code to ensure correctness.
  • Group adjacent cells in powers of two (1, 2, 4, 8, etc.) to achieve maximum simplification.
  • For SOP, group 1's, and for POS, group 0's, to form simplified expressions.

Question 136

public class ExceptionTest {

public static void main(String[] args) {

try {

System.out.println("Result: " + calculate(10, 0));

} catch (ArithmeticException e) {

System.out.println("ArithmeticException caught: " + e.getMessage());

} catch (Exception e) {

System.out.println("General exception caught: "+e.getMessage());

} finally {

System.out.println("In finally block.");

}

}

public static int calculate(int a, int b) throws Exception {

try {

return a / b;

} catch (ArithmeticException e) {

throw new Exception("Division by zero not allowed");

} finally {

System.out.println("Inner finally block executed.");

}

}

}

  1. AOption (a)

    Inner finally block executed.

    General exception caught: Division by ze zero not allowed

    In finally block.

  2. BOption (b)

    Inner finally block executed. General exception caught: / by zero In finally block.

  3. COption (c)

    Inner finally block executed.

    Result: 0

    In finally block.

  4. DOption (d)

    Inner finally block executed.

    ArithmeticException caught / by zero

    In finally block.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Inner finally block executed.

General exception caught: Division by ze zero not allowed

In finally block.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Inner finally block executed. General exception caught: Division by zero not allowed In finally block..

Key Points

  • The method calculate(10, 0) attempts to divide by zero, which causes an ArithmeticException.
  • This exception is caught inside the calculate() method.
  • A new Exception with the message "Division by zero not allowed" is thrown.
  • The inner finally block executes and prints "Inner finally block executed.".
  • The exception is then caught by the catch (Exception e) block in main().
  • The message "General exception caught: Division by zero not allowed" is printed.
  • The outer finally block executes and prints "In finally block.".

Additional Information

  • Exception Flow:
  • Division by zero occurs in the try block.
  • It is converted into a general Exception.
  • The calling method handles it using a broader catch block.
  • Finally Blocks:
  • Both inner and outer finally blocks always execute.
  • They are used for cleanup and guaranteed execution.
  • Final Output:
  • Inner finally block executed.
  • General exception caught: Division by zero not allowed
  • In finally block.

Question 137

Given the following code snippet, what is the value of the variable c?

int a, b, c;

a = b = c = 15

c = c + 10

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    Undefined

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 25.

Key Points

  • The given code snippet initializes the variables a, b, and c with the value 15.
  • The statement c = c + 10 modifies the value of c by adding 10 to its current value.
  • As a result, the value of c becomes 25.

Additional Information

  • Explanation of the Code:
  • The line a = b = c = 15 assigns the value 15 to all three variables a, b, and c simultaneously.
  • In the next line, c = c + 10 takes the current value of c, which is 15, adds 10 to it, and assigns the result back to c.
  • Hence, the final value of c is 25.
  • Key Concepts:
  • Assignment operators (=) are right-associative, meaning the expression is evaluated from right to left.
  • Arithmetic operators (+) are used to perform mathematical operations such as addition.
  • Common Errors to Avoid:
  • Confusing the equality operator (==) with the assignment operator (=).
  • Forgetting to initialize variables before using them, which can lead to undefined behavior in some programming languages.

Question 138

Which arithmetic operator has the highest precedence in C? 

  1. AOption (a)
  2. BOption (b)
  3. COption (c)

    %

  4. DOption (d)

    =

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is %.

Key Points

  • The modulus operator (%) in C is used to obtain the remainder when one number is divided by another.
  • In terms of operator precedence, % belongs to the same group as the multiplication (*) and division (/) operators.
  • These arithmetic operators have higher precedence than addition (+) and subtraction (-).
  • Operator precedence determines the order in which expressions are evaluated. Operators with higher precedence are evaluated before operators with lower precedence.
  • Grouping operators like parentheses () can be used to explicitly define the evaluation order in complex expressions.

Additional Information

  • Operator Precedence in C:
  • Operators with higher precedence are executed first in an expression.
  • The precedence order for arithmetic operators is: *** / %**, followed by + -.
  • Grouping operators like parentheses can override precedence rules.
  • Associativity:
  • Most arithmetic operators in C are left-to-right associative, meaning they are evaluated from left to right in the absence of parentheses.
  • Examples:
  • Expression: 10 + 2 * 5 → Result: 20 (Multiplication has higher precedence).
  • Expression: (10 + 2) * 5 → Result: 60 (Parentheses change the evaluation order).
  • Expression: 15 % 4 → Result: 3 (Modulus operator calculates the remainder).
  • Important Points:
  • The % operator is only used with integer operands; using it with floating-point numbers can cause a compilation error.
  • Operator precedence and associativity are defined by the C language standard and must be understood for correct programming logic.
  • Using parentheses to clearly define evaluation order is a good programming practice, especially in complex expressions.

Question 139

Which of the following causes an infinite loop?

  1. AOption (a)

     for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { } 

  2. BOption (b)

    for (int i = 10; i >5; i--) { } 

  3. COption (c)

    do { } while (0);

  4. DOption (d)

    while (1) { }

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

while (1) { }

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is while (1) { }.

Key Points

  • while (1) { } creates an infinite loop because the condition inside the while statement (1) always evaluates to true.
  • Infinite loops are generally used when the program needs to continuously execute certain operations until interrupted externally or a specific exit condition is met.
  • They can lead to issues such as high CPU usage or unresponsiveness if not properly managed with exit conditions or break statements.
  • Other looping constructs, such as for and do-while, can also create infinite loops if their conditions are improperly written, but while (1) is explicitly designed for infinite execution.

Additional Information

  • Uses of Infinite Loops:
  • Event Listening: Infinite loops are used in applications that constantly listen for events, such as servers or user input systems.
  • Real-Time Systems: Embedded systems and real-time applications often use infinite loops to monitor and respond to inputs continuously.
  • Simulations: Simulations of continuous processes may use infinite loops until a specific end condition is reached.
  • Handling Infinite Loops:
  • Use break statements or external signals to exit the loop when needed.
  • Implement proper exit conditions to avoid unintentional infinite execution.
  • Monitor system performance to ensure the loop does not cause excessive resource consumption.
  • Important Points:
  • Infinite loops should be used judiciously and always include mechanisms to terminate or control execution.
  • Improper use of infinite loops can lead to application crashes or system instability.
  • Debugging tools can help identify and resolve infinite loop issues in code.

Question 140

What is the 2’s complement of the binary number 1100? 

  1. AOption (a)

    1001

  2. BOption (b)

    1111

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    0100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0100

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0100.

Key Points

  • The 2’s complement of a binary number is found by inverting all the bits (changing 0s to 1s and 1s to 0s) and then adding 1 to the least significant bit (LSB).
  • Given the binary number 1100:
  • Step 1: Invert the bits: 1100 → 0011
  • Step 2: Add 1 to the LSB: 0011 + 1 = 0100
  • Therefore, the 2’s complement of 1100 is 0100.

Additional Information

  • Uses of 2’s Complement:
  • It is widely used in computer systems to represent negative numbers in binary form.
  • It simplifies the process of binary subtraction by allowing subtraction to be performed as an addition.
  • 2’s complement eliminates the need for separate subtraction circuitry in digital systems.
  • Advantages of 2’s Complement:
  • Unique representation of zero, unlike other methods such as signed magnitude.
  • Simple arithmetic operations compared to other binary representations.
  • Efficient and widely used in modern computing systems.
  • Important Points:
  • The most significant bit (MSB) in a 2’s complement representation indicates the sign of the number: 0 for positive and 1 for negative.
  • In 2’s complement, the range of representable numbers for an n-bit system is -2n-1 to (2n-1 - 1).
  • The process of finding the 2’s complement is reversible, allowing conversion back to the original number.

Discipline 3 (20 questions)

Question 141

Which tool is used to adjust the brightness and contrast of an image in Adobe Photoshop?

  1. AOption (a)

    Paint bucket tool 

  2. BOption (b)

    Healing brush tool 

  3. COption (c)

    Adjustments panel 

  4. DOption (d)

    Selection tool 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Adjustments panel 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Adjustments panel.

Key Points

  • The Adjustments panel in Adobe Photoshop is specifically designed for making changes to the brightness, contrast, and other image properties.
  • This tool allows users to apply non-destructive edits, meaning the original image remains unaffected while adjustments are made.
  • It provides a range of adjustment options, such as Brightness/Contrast, Levels, Curves, and more, to fine-tune the image appearance.
  • Using the Adjustments panel ensures precision and control, allowing for detailed enhancement of images.
  • It is an essential tool for professional photo editing and graphic design tasks in Adobe Photoshop.

Additional Information

  • Other Tools in Adobe Photoshop:
  • Paint Bucket Tool: Used to fill areas of an image with a single color or gradient.
  • Healing Brush Tool: Useful for removing blemishes or imperfections from images by blending surrounding pixels.
  • Selection Tool: Helps in selecting specific parts of an image for editing or applying effects.
  • Advantages of Using the Adjustments Panel:
  • Enables non-destructive editing, preserving the original image.
  • Offers a wide variety of adjustment options for comprehensive image enhancement.
  • Allows for easy fine-tuning and experimentation with different settings.
  • Important Tips:
  • Use adjustment layers instead of directly modifying the image to maintain flexibility in edits.
  • Combine multiple adjustments, such as Levels and Curves, for advanced image corrections.
  • Save your work periodically to avoid losing any changes during the editing process.

Question 142

Which of the following DHTML methods is used to change the style of an HTML element using CSS dynamically ?

  1. AOption (a)

    document.getElementById("element").setCSS()

  2. BOption (b)

    element.style.backgroundColor = "red" 

  3. COption (c)

    document.createElement("style") 

  4. DOption (d)

    window.addEventListener("resize")

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

element.style.backgroundColor = "red" 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is element.style.backgroundColor = "red".

Key Points

  • DHTML methods allow dynamic changes to HTML elements using JavaScript and CSS.
  • The element.style property is used to modify the inline style of an HTML element dynamically.
  • To change an element's background color to red, the syntax is: element.style.backgroundColor = "red";.
  • Using JavaScript, developers can manipulate various CSS properties like width, height, color, font-size, and more.
  • This method ensures real-time updates to the style of elements based on user interaction or other dynamic triggers.

Additional Information

  • Common DHTML Methods:
  • document.getElementById("element"): Retrieves an HTML element by its ID for manipulation.
  • element.style: Used to modify the inline styles of the selected element dynamically.
  • document.createElement("tagName"): Creates a new HTML element programmatically.
  • window.addEventListener(eventName): Attaches event listeners to elements for interaction handling.
  • Advantages of Using DHTML:
  • Improves user experience by enabling real-time updates to the webpage.
  • Allows complex interactions and animations without requiring server refresh.
  • Enhances website functionality by combining HTML, CSS, and JavaScript.
  • Important Points:
  • Dynamic style changes using element.style are limited to inline styles.
  • For global style changes, modifying CSS classes or stylesheets might be more efficient.
  • Proper coding practices, including error handling, are essential when working with DHTML methods.

Question 143

In singly linked list, each node of the list consists of ___________. 

  1. AOption (a)

    data value and address of next node 

  2. BOption (b)

    data value and address of previous node 

  3. COption (c)

    NULL and address of the previous node 

  4. DOption (d)

    NULL and address of the next node 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

data value and address of next node 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is data value and address of next node.

Key Points

  • In a singly linked list, each node contains two fields: the data value and the address of the next node.
  • The data value stores the actual information, while the address (or pointer) links to the next node in the sequence.
  • The last node in the list contains a special value, usually NULL, indicating the end of the list.
  • This structure allows for dynamic memory allocation and efficient insertion and deletion of nodes.
  • Singly linked lists are widely used in scenarios where memory usage and flexibility are critical.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of Singly Linked List:
  • The nodes are connected in one direction, from the first node (head) to the last node (tail).
  • Traversal is only possible in the forward direction.
  • Efficient for operations like insertion and deletion at the beginning of the list.
  • Applications of Singly Linked List:
  • Dynamic memory allocation and management.
  • Implementation of stacks, queues, and other abstract data types.
  • Efficient representation of polynomial expressions.
  • Advantages of Singly Linked List:
  • Dynamic resizing: Nodes can be added or removed as needed.
  • Efficient insertion and deletion: Especially at the beginning or end of the list.
  • Memory-efficient for sparse data structures compared to arrays.
  • Limitations of Singly Linked List:
  • Traversal is only possible in one direction, making reverse traversal impossible.
  • Requires additional memory for the pointer field in each node.
  • Access to elements is linear, as opposed to constant time in arrays.

Question 144

Which of the following PHP functions is used to sort an array in ascending order without affecting the keys? 

  1. AOption (a)

    asort() 

  2. BOption (b)

    array_sort()

  3. COption (c)

    sort() 

  4. DOption (d)

    ksort()

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

asort() 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is asort().

Key Points

  • asort() is a PHP function used to sort an array in ascending order while maintaining the association between keys and values.
  • Unlike sort(), which re-indexes the keys, asort() ensures that the original keys remain intact.
  • This function is particularly useful when working with associative arrays where key-value relationships are important.
  • It sorts the values in ascending order and keeps the keys unchanged, making it ideal for preserving the integrity of the array structure.

Additional Information

  • Common PHP Array Sorting Functions:
  • sort(): Sorts an array in ascending order but re-indexes the keys.
  • ksort(): Sorts an array by key in ascending order, preserving key-value associations.
  • arsort(): Sorts an array in descending order while maintaining key-value relationships.
  • array_sort(): This function does not exist in PHP; it might be a custom or fictional function.
  • Key Differences Between asort() and sort():
  • asort(): Maintains key-value relationships while sorting values in ascending order.
  • sort(): Sorts values in ascending order but assigns new numeric keys to the elements.
  • Practical Applications of asort():
  • Useful in scenarios where maintaining the original keys is essential, such as working with associative arrays.
  • Ideal for sorting data like product prices while keeping their associated product IDs intact.
  • Important Points:
  • asort() only works on arrays and does not sort multidimensional arrays directly.
  • Ensure that the array being sorted contains comparable values to avoid unexpected results.
  • For case-sensitive string sorting, additional parameters or custom sorting functions may be needed.

Question 145

Which of the following is NOT a correct way of declaring and initializing array in C?

  1. AOption (a)

    char arr[6];

    arr = “consultancy”;

  2. BOption (b)

    char arr[6] ={ }; 

  3. COption (c)

    char arr[6] ={2}; 

  4. DOption (d)

     char arr[ ] = “consultancy”; 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

char arr[6];

arr = “consultancy”;

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Option 1 (char arr[6]; arr = “consultancy”) is incorrect because array assignments are not allowed in C. You cannot directly assign a string to an array after declaring it.
  • Option 2 (char arr[6] = { };) is valid but initializes the array elements to default values (null characters).
  • Option 3 (char arr[6] = {2};) initializes the first element of the array to 2 and the rest to default values (null characters). It is a valid syntax.
  • Option 4 (char arr[] = “consultancy”;) is correct, as it declares and initializes the array to hold the string "consultancy" with an appropriate size automatically determined.

Additional Information

  • Key Syntax Rules:
  • Arrays in C must be initialized at the time of declaration or element-by-element assignment is required.
  • String literals can be used directly to initialize character arrays, but not for assignment after declaration.
  • The size of the array must match the number of elements initialized or be omitted when using string literals.
  • Common Errors:
  • Attempting to assign a string to an array after declaration (as in Option 1).
  • Providing a size smaller than required for the string literal (e.g., char arr[5] = "hello";).
  • Leaving an array uninitialized and attempting to access its elements without proper initialization.
  • Important Points:
  • Character arrays can be declared with or without a specific size when using string literals.
  • When using {} for initialization, the array elements default to null characters unless values are explicitly provided.
  • The syntax for arrays in C is strict and must conform to the language rules to avoid compilation errors.

Question 146

Which of the following statements is correct about the divide and conquer approach of binary search technique?

  1. AOption (a)

    The best-case time complexity of binary search is O(log n)

  2. BOption (b)

    The worst-case time complexity of binary search is O(log n)

  3. COption (c)

    The recurrence relation of binary search is written as T(n) = 2T(n / 2) + O(1) where 11 is the number of elements in the array.

  4. DOption (d)

    The average-case time complexity of binary search is O(n).

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The worst-case time complexity of binary search is O(log n)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The worst-case time complexity of binary search is O(log n).

Key Points

  • Binary search is a divide-and-conquer algorithm that efficiently searches for an element in a sorted array by repeatedly dividing the search interval in half.
  • In the worst-case scenario, the algorithm has to perform log n comparisons, where n is the size of the array.
  • The best-case time complexity occurs when the target element is found in the first comparison, which is O(1).
  • The recurrence relation for binary search is written as T(n) = T(n / 2) + O(1), as it divides the problem size by 2 at each step and performs constant-time operations.
  • Binary search offers significant performance benefits compared to linear search, especially for large datasets, due to its logarithmic time complexity.

Additional Information

  • Steps in Binary Search:
  • Compare the target value with the middle element of the array.
  • If the target value matches the middle element, the search is complete.
  • If the target value is smaller, narrow the search to the left half of the array; otherwise, narrow it to the right half.
  • Repeat the process until the target value is found or the search interval becomes empty.
  • Applications of Binary Search:
  • Searching in sorted datasets, such as databases, dictionaries, or numerical arrays.
  • Finding elements in competitive programming and algorithmic challenges.
  • Used in various algorithms, such as searching in trees or optimizing solutions with binary search on the answer.
  • Advantages of Binary Search:
  • Efficient for searching in sorted arrays, with logarithmic time complexity.
  • Reduces the number of comparisons drastically compared to linear search.
  • Simple and easy to implement with minimal space complexity.
  • Important Points:
  • Binary search requires the input array to be sorted before performing the search.
  • If the array is unsorted, sorting it first will add a time complexity of O(n log n).
  • Binary search is not suitable for linked lists or unsorted datasets.

Question 147

What will be the output of the given C program?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

{

int x = 10 y = 20

{

{

y = 40

x++;

y++;

} }

printf("x=%d, y = %d\n", x, y);

}

return 0;

}

  1. AOption (a)

    x = 10 y = 20

  2. BOption (b)

    x = 11 y = 41

  3. COption (c)

    x = 10 y = 41

  4. DOption (d)

    x = 11 y = 20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

x = 11 y = 20

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is x = 11 y = 20.

Key Points

  • The variables are initialized as x = 10 and y = 20.
  • Inside the inner block, y = 40 is assigned.
  • The statement x++ increments the value of x to 11.
  • The statement y++ increments y to 41, but this change is limited to the inner block.
  • After exiting the inner block, y retains its original value 20.
  • The final values printed are x = 11 and y = 20.

Additional Information

  • Block Scope:
  • Variables declared in an outer block remain accessible inside inner blocks.
  • Changes to variables inside nested blocks may not always affect outer values.
  • Increment Operators:
  • x++ increases the value of x by 1.
  • y++ increases the value of y by 1.
  • Final Output:
  • x = 11
  • y = 20

Question 148

Which of the following formats is commonly used for exporting images for the web?

  1. AOption (a)

    BMP

  2. BOption (b)

    TIFF

  3. COption (c)

    PNG

  4. DOption (d)

    PSD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PNG

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PNG.

Key Points

  • PNG is a widely used image format for web applications due to its ability to support transparency and lossless compression.
  • Unlike formats such as BMP and TIFF, PNG is optimized for digital use and ensures smaller file sizes while retaining image quality.
  • Web developers and designers prefer PNG for icons, logos, and images requiring transparent backgrounds.
  • While PSD is the native format of Adobe Photoshop and is used for editing, it is not typically used for web purposes due to its large file size and incompatibility with web browsers.
  • Other formats like BMP and TIFF are generally used for high-quality printing and are not optimized for web use.

Additional Information

  • Advantages of PNG:
  • Supports transparency, making it ideal for web design elements like icons and overlays.
  • Lossless compression retains the original image quality without sacrificing file size.
  • Widely supported across all web browsers and platforms.
  • Comparison with Other Formats:
  • BMP: Large file sizes and lack of compression make it unsuitable for the web.
  • TIFF: Primarily used for printing and archiving; not optimized for online use.
  • PSD: Ideal for editing but not suitable for direct web use due to compatibility issues.
  • Best Practices:
  • Use PNG for images requiring transparency or high quality.
  • For photographs, consider JPEG due to its better compression for gradient-heavy images.
  • Optimize PNG files using tools like TinyPNG or ImageOptim to reduce file size without affecting quality.
  • Important Points:
  • PNG is not ideal for extremely large images due to higher file sizes compared to formats like JPEG.
  • Always verify browser compatibility when using advanced PNG features such as alpha transparency.
  • Use appropriate compression tools to balance quality and file size for faster web loading times.

Question 149

Which sorting technique is best for sorting a linked list with n elements?

  1. AOption (a)

    Selection sort 

  2. BOption (b)

    Insertion sort

  3. COption (c)

    Merge sort

  4. DOption (d)

    Bubble sort 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Merge sort

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Merge sort.

Key Points

  • Merge sort is the most efficient sorting technique for linked lists, as it works well with the sequential access of linked lists and avoids the need for random access, which is costly for linked lists.
  • Unlike other sorting algorithms like selection sort and bubble sort, which have higher time complexity, merge sort performs better with a time complexity of O(n log n).
  • Merge sort is a divide-and-conquer algorithm, which divides the list into smaller sublists, sorts them, and then merges them to form the sorted list.
  • It is particularly useful for linked lists because it does not require additional space for random access like array-based sorting techniques.
  • This makes merge sort the optimal choice for sorting a linked list with n elements.

Additional Information

  • Comparison with Other Sorting Techniques:
  • Selection Sort: Requires multiple passes through the list to find the smallest element, resulting in a time complexity of O(n²), which is inefficient for linked lists.
  • Insertion Sort: Although it works better than selection sort for partially sorted lists, its time complexity is O(n²) in the worst case, making it less suitable for large linked lists.
  • Bubble Sort: This algorithm repeatedly swaps adjacent elements if they are in the wrong order, with a time complexity of O(n²), making it inefficient for linked lists.
  • Advantages of Merge Sort:
  • Efficient for large datasets due to its O(n log n) time complexity.
  • Does not require random access, making it ideal for linked lists.
  • Stable sort that maintains the relative order of equal elements.
  • Disadvantages of Merge Sort:
  • Requires additional memory for storing sublists during sorting.
  • Implementation is more complex compared to simpler sorting algorithms like bubble sort.
  • Important Notes:
  • Merge sort is preferred for linked lists and external sorting tasks where random access is not feasible.
  • For arrays, quick sort is often preferred due to its in-place sorting capability and lower memory usage.

Question 150

Which sorting technique is best for sorting a linked list with n elements?

  1. AOption (a)

    Omega (Ω\Omega)

  2. BOption (b)

    Theta (θ\theta)

  3. COption (c)

    Big Oh (O)

  4. DOption (d)

    Small Omega (ω\omega)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Theta (θ\theta)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Theta (θ\theta).

Key Points

  • Theta (θ\theta) notation represents the tight bound of an algorithm's running time. It is the most precise way to describe the efficiency of an algorithm.
  • When sorting a linked list, the most efficient sorting technique is based on merge sort, which can be implemented with a time complexity of O(nlog⁡n)O(n \log n).
  • Merge sort is well-suited for linked lists as it does not require random access to elements, unlike quicksort or other array-based sorting techniques.
  • Linked lists benefit from merge sort since splitting and merging operations can be efficiently performed using pointers.
  • Other sorting techniques, like bubble sort or insertion sort, are less efficient for linked lists due to their higher time complexity and reliance on sequential traversal.

Additional Information

  • Why Merge Sort is Efficient for Linked Lists:
  • Merge sort works well with linked lists as it does not require random access to elements.
  • Splitting a linked list into two halves can be achieved using the fast and slow pointer technique.
  • Merging two sorted halves of a linked list is straightforward with pointers, making it an ideal choice for linked list sorting.
  • Comparison with Other Sorting Techniques:
  • Bubble Sort: Inefficient for linked lists due to its O(n2)O(n^2) time complexity.
  • Insertion Sort: Can be implemented for linked lists but has O(n2)O(n^2) time complexity in the average case.
  • Quick Sort: Not suitable for linked lists as it requires random access for partitioning.
  • Advantages of Merge Sort for Linked Lists:
  • Efficient time complexity of O(nlog⁡n)O(n \log n).
  • Does not require extra space for arrays, as it works directly with pointers.
  • Stable sorting algorithm, preserving the order of equal elements.
  • Important Points:
  • Merge sort is the most commonly used sorting technique for linked lists.
  • It is preferred over other techniques due to its efficiency and simplicity when applied to linked list structures.
  • Proper implementation of merge sort ensures optimal performance for linked list sorting.

Question 151

What is the main function of the 'cutting' tool in image editing?

  1. AOption (a)

    To change the image resolution

  2. BOption (b)

    To apply color effects 

  3. COption (c)

    To resize the image

  4. DOption (d)

    To remove parts of the image 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To remove parts of the image 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To remove parts of the image.

Key Points

  • The cutting tool in image editing is used to remove unwanted parts of an image, allowing users to focus on specific areas or improve the composition.
  • It is commonly referred to as the crop tool in most image editing software.
  • This tool helps in eliminating distracting or unnecessary elements from the image, enhancing its visual impact.
  • By using the cutting tool, users can also adjust the aspect ratio or dimensions of the image according to their requirements.
  • It is an essential feature in photo editing software for creating visually appealing and professional-quality images.

Additional Information

  • Uses of the Cutting Tool:
  • Focus: Helps in highlighting the main subject by removing irrelevant background elements.
  • Resizing: Enables resizing of the image while maintaining the quality and proportions.
  • Aspect Ratio: Assists in changing the aspect ratio to make images suitable for various platforms like social media or print.
  • Creative Edits: Allows for creative cropping, such as changing the perspective or creating unique compositions.
  • Features of the Cutting Tool:
  • Available in almost all image editing software, including Photoshop, GIMP, and Canva.
  • Allows for precise adjustments with grid overlays and aspect ratio guidelines.
  • Non-destructive editing options are available in advanced software, enabling users to revert changes if needed.
  • Benefits of Using the Cutting Tool:
  • Enhances the overall quality and focus of the image.
  • Helps create visually balanced and professional-looking images.
  • Improves the composition by removing distracting elements.
  • Important Points:
  • It is different from resizing, as it removes portions of the image rather than scaling the entire image.
  • Careful use of the tool is necessary to avoid accidentally removing important parts of the image.
  • Always save a copy of the original image before applying permanent edits.

Question 152

What is the output of the following JavaScript code?

let x = 10

(x > 5) console.log("Greater");

} else {

console.log("Smaller");

}

  1. AOption (a)

    "undefined"

  2. BOption (b)

    Error

  3. COption (c)

    "Smaller"

  4. DOption (d)

    "Greater"

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

"Greater"

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Greater".

Key Points

  • The value of x is 10.
  • The condition x > 5 evaluates to true.
  • When the condition is true, console.log("Greater") is executed.
  • Therefore, the output displayed is "Greater".

Additional Information

  • Conditional Statements in JavaScript:
  • The if statement executes code when the condition is true.
  • The else block runs only if the condition is false.
  • Given Scenario:
  • Since 10 > 5, the first block runs.
  • The output is "Greater".
  • Final Conclusion:
  • The correct option is Option 4.
  • The program outputs "Greater".

Question 153

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the storage classes in C?

  1. AOption (a)

    In Register storage class, the storage of a variable is CPU register. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The scope of variable in automatic storage class is local to the block in which the variable is defined. 

  3. COption (c)

    In static storage class, the default initial value of the variable is zero. 

  4. DOption (d)

    In Register storage class, the default initial value of the variable is zero.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

In Register storage class, the default initial value of the variable is zero.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • Storage classes in C define the scope, lifetime, and default initial values of variables.
  • Register storage class: The variable is stored in a CPU register for faster access. However, the default initial value is not zero; it is garbage (undefined).
  • Automatic storage class: The variable scope is local to the block in which it is defined, and it is automatically deallocated when the block exits.
  • Static storage class: Variables have a default initial value of zero and retain their value between function calls, with a lifetime equal to the program's execution.
  • Option 4 is incorrect because variables in the Register storage class do not have a default initial value of zero; their value is undefined unless explicitly initialized.

Additional Information

  • Types of Storage Classes in C:
  • Automatic (auto): Default storage class for local variables. Scope is limited to the block, and variables are not initialized automatically.
  • Register: Stores variables in CPU registers for faster access, often used for frequently accessed variables.
  • Static: Retains the value of a variable throughout the program's execution. Used for variables that need to persist between function calls.
  • External (extern): Used to declare global variables that can be accessed across multiple files.
  • Important Points:
  • The Register storage class is a request to the compiler to store the variable in a register, but it is not guaranteed.
  • Static variables are initialized only once and retain their values even after the function exits.
  • The scope of a variable refers to the part of the program where it can be accessed.
  • The lifetime of a variable refers to how long the variable exists in memory during program execution.

Question 154

What will be the output of the C program given below?

#include <stdio.h>

int* func()

{

static int arr[5] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};

return arr;

}

int main()

{

int* ptr = func();

printf("Array Elements: ");

for (int i = 0 i < 5 i++) {

printf("%d ", *ptr);

}

return 0;

}

  1. AOption (a)

    11111

  2. BOption (b)

    11341

  3. COption (c)

    12345

  4. DOption (d)

    23450

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11111

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 11111.

Key Points

  • The function func() returns the base address of a static integer array {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}.
  • The pointer ptr in main() receives the address of the first element of the array.
  • Inside the loop, the statement *printf("%d ", ptr); always prints the value pointed to by ptr.
  • The pointer ptr is never incremented inside the loop.
  • So, the first element 1 is printed five times.

Additional Information

  • Static Array:
  • A static array retains its memory even after the function ends.
  • Pointer Behavior:
  • Since ptr is not updated, it always points to the first element.
  • Final Output:
  • The printed output is 11111.
  • Therefore, Option 1 is correct.

Question 155

Which of the following DHTML methods is used to control the browser window size, such as resizing it dynamically via JavaScript?

  1. AOption (a)

    document.resizeWindow()

  2. BOption (b)

    window.changeSize()

  3. COption (c)

    window.resizeTo() 

  4. DOption (d)

    window.setSize() 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

window.resizeTo() 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is window.resizeTo().

Key Points

  • window.resizeTo() is a method in JavaScript used to dynamically resize the browser window to specified dimensions (width and height).
  • It takes two parameters: the width and height of the window in pixels.
  • This method is commonly used in web applications to create a more controlled and user-friendly interface by adjusting the window size programmatically.
  • Example usage: window.resizeTo(800, 600); will resize the window to 800 pixels wide and 600 pixels tall.
  • It can be particularly useful in scenarios where fixed dimensions are required for specific functionalities or presentations.

Additional Information

  • Practical Usage:
  • Popups: Adjusting popup window size to fit specific content or design requirements.
  • Interactive Applications: Resizing windows dynamically for immersive user experiences.
  • Testing: Developers use it to simulate different screen sizes during development and testing processes.
  • Limitations:
  • Some modern browsers may restrict or block the use of window.resizeTo() due to security and usability concerns.
  • Users can override resizing restrictions in their browser settings, but this is not recommended.
  • Other Related Methods:
  • window.moveTo(x, y): Moves the browser window to specified coordinates on the screen.
  • window.resizeBy(dx, dy): Resizes the window by a specified amount (change in width and height).
  • Important Points:
  • Ensure that resizing actions do not negatively impact user experience or accessibility.
  • Always test the behavior across different browsers and devices to ensure compatibility.

Question 156

Which of the following options is correct about the functions in C language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Actual parameters are always variables.

  2. BOption (b)

    Actual parameters are declared in the function definition. 

  3. COption (c)

    Actual parameters are used to define the function signature and to specify the type and number of arguments that a function can accept.

  4. DOption (d)

    Actual parameters are the values that are passed to a function when it is called.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Actual parameters are the values that are passed to a function when it is called.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Actual parameters are the values that are passed to a function when it is called..

Key Points

  • Actual parameters are the values provided to a function when it is called, which are then used by the function during its execution.
  • In contrast, formal parameters are specified in the function definition and act as placeholders for the actual parameters.
  • Actual parameters can be constants, variables, or expressions that are evaluated and passed to the function.
  • These parameters allow the function to operate on different data without altering its structure or definition.
  • Proper use of actual parameters ensures the reusability and flexibility of functions in C programming.

Additional Information

  • Examples of Actual Parameters:
  • Example 1: In the function call add(5, 10), the values 5 and 10 are the actual parameters.
  • Example 2: In the function call multiply(x, y), where x and y are variables, their values at runtime are considered the actual parameters.
  • Relation to Formal Parameters:
  • Formal parameters are declared in the function definition and specify the type and number of arguments a function can accept.
  • Actual parameters are matched to these formal parameters during the function call.
  • Key Characteristics of Actual Parameters:
  • They determine the specific data on which the function operates.
  • They are evaluated before being passed to the function.
  • They allow functions to be used dynamically with varying input values.
  • Important Points:
  • Actual parameters must match the type and number of the formal parameters defined in the function.
  • Passing incorrect or mismatched parameters can result in compilation errors or undefined behavior.
  • Understanding the distinction between actual and formal parameters is crucial for effective function implementation in C.

Question 157

What is the primary function of a web browser? 

  1. AOption (a)

    To send and receive emails

  2. BOption (b)

    To display and navigate web pages

  3. COption (c)

    To create websites 

  4. DOption (d)

    To store large amounts of data 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To display and navigate web pages

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To display and navigate web pages.

Key Points

  • Web browsers are applications designed to access, retrieve, and display content from the World Wide Web.
  • They translate web pages written in HTML, CSS, and JavaScript into visual and interactive content for users.
  • Browsers allow users to navigate between websites using hyperlinks, search engines, and direct URLs.
  • Popular web browsers include Google Chrome, Mozilla Firefox, Microsoft Edge, Safari, and others.
  • They support features like bookmarks, history, extensions, and tabs to enhance user experience.

Additional Information

  • Functions of Web Browsers:
  • Rendering web pages to make them visually accessible to users.
  • Providing tools for navigation, such as address bars and search engines.
  • Supporting secure connections via HTTPS for privacy and data protection.
  • Enabling multimedia playback for videos, audio, and interactive content.
  • Key Features of Web Browsers:
  • Bookmark Management: Save favorite websites for quick access.
  • Private Browsing Mode: Prevent saving browsing history and cookies.
  • Extensions/Add-ons: Enhance functionality with plugins and tools.
  • Cross-Platform Accessibility: Available for desktops, smartphones, and tablets.
  • Advantages of Using Web Browsers:
  • Facilitates easy access to global information and resources.
  • Supports e-commerce, online learning, and remote communication.
  • Provides tools for developers to test and debug websites.
  • Important Points:
  • Web browsers frequently update to improve performance and security.
  • They rely on search engines like Google, Bing, and Yahoo for information retrieval.
  • Compatible with various operating systems, ensuring universal access.

Question 158

Which advantage of AJAX helps in reducing bandwidth consumption? 

  1. AOption (a)

    AJAX sends and retrieves only small amounts of data from the server.

  2. BOption (b)

    AJAX uses less JavaScript. 

  3. COption (c)

    AJAX increases data transfer.  

  4. DOption (d)

    AJAX only loads images on the page. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

AJAX sends and retrieves only small amounts of data from the server.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is AJAX sends and retrieves only small amounts of data from the server.

Key Points

  • AJAX stands for Asynchronous JavaScript and XML and is used to improve the performance of web applications by enabling asynchronous data exchange between the client and server.
  • By sending and retrieving only small amounts of data, AJAX minimizes the need to reload entire web pages, thereby reducing bandwidth consumption significantly.
  • AJAX allows the application to update parts of a webpage dynamically without affecting the entire user interface, ensuring faster interactions and improved user experience.
  • This approach is particularly beneficial for applications with frequent data updates, such as chat systems, dashboards, and live notifications.
  • In addition to bandwidth reduction, AJAX also decreases server load by optimizing data transfer and minimizing redundant requests.

Additional Information

  • Advantages of AJAX:
  • Improved User Experience: AJAX enables seamless interactions without page reloads, making applications more responsive and user-friendly.
  • Reduced Bandwidth Usage: By transferring only necessary data, AJAX optimizes network usage and reduces costs.
  • Faster Performance: AJAX improves application speed by fetching data asynchronously and updating specific parts of the page.
  • Common Applications of AJAX:
  • Live Search: AJAX is used in search engines to fetch results dynamically as users type their queries.
  • Form Validation: AJAX validates form inputs without requiring a page refresh, enhancing efficiency.
  • Dynamic Content Loading: Websites use AJAX to load additional content, such as images and articles, as users scroll.
  • Important Points:
  • AJAX is compatible with various web technologies, including HTML, CSS, and JavaScript.
  • It is widely supported across modern browsers, making it an essential tool for developers.
  • While AJAX improves performance, it may require careful implementation to avoid security vulnerabilities like cross-site scripting (XSS).

Question 159

What will be the output of the given C program?

#include <stdio.h>

int main() {

int a = 4

int b = 3

int result;

result = a^ b;

printf("%d", result);

return 0;

}

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    0

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

  • The operator ^ in C is the bitwise XOR operator, not exponentiation.
  • The value of a = 4 in binary is 100.
  • The value of b = 3 in binary is 011.
  • Applying XOR: 100 ^ 011 = 111.
  • The binary value 111 is equal to 7 in decimal.

Additional Information

  • Bitwise XOR Rules:
  • 1 ^ 1 = 0
  • 0 ^ 0 = 0
  • 1 ^ 0 = 1
  • 0 ^ 1 = 1
  • Common Mistake:
  • Many learners confuse ^ with power, but C uses it for XOR.
  • Final Output:
  • The program prints 7.
  • Therefore, Option 4 is correct.

Question 160

Which of the following cases DOES NOT exist when one computes the time complexity of an algorithm? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Average case 

  2. BOption (b)

    Worst case 

  3. COption (c)

    Test Case

  4. DOption (d)

    Best Case

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Test Case

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Test Case.

Key Points

  • When computing the time complexity of an algorithm, there are three main cases to consider:
  • Best Case: Represents the scenario where the algorithm performs the minimum number of steps.
  • Average Case: Represents the scenario where the algorithm's steps are analyzed on average input data.
  • Worst Case: Represents the scenario where the algorithm performs the maximum number of steps.
  • Test Case is not a valid category for analyzing time complexity. Test cases refer to specific inputs used to test the correctness of an algorithm, not its complexity.
  • Understanding the time complexity in all valid cases helps assess the efficiency and scalability of an algorithm.

Additional Information

  • Why Analyze Time Complexity:
  • Helps understand how an algorithm performs as the input size grows.
  • Allows comparison of different algorithms to choose the most efficient one.
  • Provides insights into potential performance bottlenecks in algorithms.
  • Other Complexity Measures:
  • Space Complexity: Refers to the amount of memory an algorithm uses during execution.
  • Amortized Complexity: Analyzes the average time per operation over a sequence of operations, even if some operations are expensive.
  • Important Points to Remember:
  • Time complexity is usually expressed in Big-O notation, such as O(1), O(n), O(log n), etc.
  • Efficient algorithms minimize both time and space complexity.
  • Real-world performance may also depend on factors like hardware and compiler optimizations.

Discipline 4 (20 questions)

Question 161

The total Purchases of ABC Ltd., during the FY 2024-25 was ₹1,90,000. If the gross profit of ABC Ltd. was 20% on sales and closing stock was more than the opening stock by ₹30,000 the gross profit earned by ABC Ltd., during the year 2024-25 was: 

  1. AOption (a)

     ₹35,000.00

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹25,000.00

  3. COption (c)

    ₹40,000.00 

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹52,000.00 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹40,000.00 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹40,000.00.

Key Points

  • Total purchases = ₹1,90,000.
  • Closing stock is ₹30,000 more than opening stock.
  • So, Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) = Purchases − Increase in stock = ₹1,90,000 − ₹30,000 = ₹1,60,000.
  • Gross profit is 20% of Sales.
  • So, COGS = 80% of Sales.
  • Sales = ₹1,60,000 ÷ 0.80 = ₹2,00,000.
  • Gross Profit = 20% of ₹2,00,000 = ₹40,000.

Additional Information

  • Formula Used:
  • Gross Profit = Sales − Cost of Goods Sold
  • Sales = COGS ÷ (1 − Gross Profit %)
  • Stock Effect:
  • Increase in closing stock reduces COGS.
  • Lower COGS increases gross profit.
  • Final Answer:
  • The gross profit earned is ₹40,000.00.
  • Therefore, Option 3 is correct.

Question 162

Calculate the time complexity of deleting an element from the beginning of a dynamic array

  1. AOption (a)

    O(log n) 

  2. BOption (b)

    O(log)

  3. COption (c)

    O(1) 

  4. DOption (d)

    O(n) 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

O(n) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is O(n).

Key Points

  • Deleting an element from the beginning of a dynamic array requires shifting all subsequent elements to the left to maintain contiguous memory.
  • This shifting operation involves n steps in the worst case, where n is the number of elements in the array.
  • The time complexity of this operation is therefore O(n).
  • Dynamic arrays are efficient for appending elements at the end but less efficient for operations at the beginning due to this shifting requirement.
  • Alternative data structures like linked lists can offer O(1) time complexity for such operations.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of Dynamic Arrays:
  • Dynamic arrays allow resizing during runtime, unlike static arrays.
  • Efficient for random access and appending elements.
  • Memory reallocation may occur during resizing, which can impact performance.
  • Comparison with Linked Lists:
  • Linked Lists: Provide O(1) complexity for deletion at the beginning but have higher overhead for random access.
  • Dynamic Arrays: Provide O(1) complexity for random access but have O(n) complexity for deletion at the beginning.
  • Applications:
  • Dynamic arrays are widely used in scenarios requiring frequent access and updates to elements.
  • Linked lists are preferred in applications requiring frequent insertions and deletions.
  • Key Considerations:
  • Dynamic arrays are suitable for applications with predictable access patterns.
  • Careful analysis of use case requirements is necessary to choose the appropriate data structure.

Question 163

Which logical operation does the ALU perform that results in a 1 output only when both inputs are different?

  1. AOption (a)

    NOR

  2. BOption (b)

    XOR

  3. COption (c)

    OR

  4. DOption (d)

    AND 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

XOR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is XOR.

Key Points

  • The XOR (Exclusive OR) operation outputs 1 only when the two inputs are different.
  • If both inputs are the same (both 0 or both 1), the output is 0.
  • This behavior matches the condition described in the question.
  • Hence, XOR is the correct logical operation.

Additional Information

  • XOR Truth Table:
  • 0 ⊕ 0 = 0
  • 0 ⊕ 1 = 1
  • 1 ⊕ 0 = 1
  • 1 ⊕ 1 = 0
  • Other Gates:
  • AND outputs 1 only when both inputs are 1.
  • OR outputs 1 when at least one input is 1.
  • NOR outputs 1 only when both inputs are 0.
  • Final Answer:
  • The correct option is Option 2.
  • The required logical operation is XOR.

Question 164

What will be the output of the following C program?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int a[5]; for (int i = 0 i < 5 i++)

{

a[i]=ii-2* i + 1;

}

for (int i = 0 i < 5 i++)

{

printf("%d ", a[i]);

} return 0;

}

  1. AOption (a)

    12349

  2. BOption (b)

    10249

  3. COption (c)

    11249

  4. DOption (d)

    10149

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10149

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10149.

Key Points

  • The given C program initializes an integer array a[5] and assigns values to it using a specific mathematical formula: a[i] = i * i - 2 * i + 1.
  • The values are computed for indices ranging from 0 to 4 and then printed in sequence.
  • Breaking down the calculations for each index:
  • For i = 0: a[0] = 0 * 0 - 2 * 0 + 1 = 1
  • For i = 1: a[1] = 1 * 1 - 2 * 1 + 1 = 0
  • For i = 2: a[2] = 2 * 2 - 2 * 2 + 1 = 1
  • For i = 3: a[3] = 3 * 3 - 2 * 3 + 1 = 4
  • For i = 4: a[4] = 4 * 4 - 2 * 4 + 1 = 9
  • Thus, the output of the program is the sequence 1 0 1 4 9.
  • The correct option is 10149.

Additional Information

  • Key Syntax and Concepts:
  • The for loop initializes, increments, and evaluates the loop variable i.
  • The array a[5] is used to store computed values for each index.
  • printf function is used to display the array elements sequentially.
  • Common Errors to Avoid:
  • Ensure proper syntax for the for loop, including semicolons between initialization, condition, and increment expressions.
  • Use correct format specifiers in printf, such as %d for integers.
  • Verify array bounds to prevent accessing invalid indices.

Question 165

What is the main purpose of virtual memory? 

  1. AOption (a)

    To provide cache storage

  2. BOption (b)

    To extend the physical memory using secondary storage

  3. COption (c)

    To increase CPU speed 

  4. DOption (d)

    To store BIOS settings 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To extend the physical memory using secondary storage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To extend the physical memory using secondary storage.

Key Points

  • Virtual memory is a memory management technique used by operating systems to provide an illusion of having more physical memory than is actually available.
  • It works by using a portion of the secondary storage (such as the hard drive or SSD) to simulate additional RAM.
  • This allows systems to run applications that require more memory than the physical RAM installed.
  • Virtual memory uses paging or segmentation techniques to manage memory allocation efficiently.
  • It is particularly helpful in multitasking environments, enabling multiple applications to run simultaneously.

Additional Information

  • Benefits of Virtual Memory:
  • Allows programs that require more memory to execute, even if the physical RAM is limited.
  • Improves system stability by isolating applications and managing memory conflicts.
  • Helps in running multiple applications simultaneously without performance degradation.
  • How Virtual Memory Works:
  • When the physical RAM is full, the operating system moves some data to the virtual memory space on the secondary storage.
  • This process is known as swapping or paging.
  • Data is transferred back to RAM when needed, ensuring efficient resource utilization.
  • Limitations of Virtual Memory:
  • Accessing virtual memory is slower than accessing physical RAM, as it involves disk I/O operations.
  • Excessive use of virtual memory can lead to thrashing, where the system spends more time swapping data than executing tasks.
  • Requires careful configuration to avoid performance bottlenecks.
  • Examples of Virtual Memory Usage:
  • Running memory-intensive applications like video editing software or large databases.
  • Facilitating multitasking in environments with limited physical RAM.
  • Ensuring system stability during peak memory usage periods.

Question 166

Which of the following is true about the for loop in C? 

  1. AOption (a)

    A for loop must always have all three components: initialization, condition, and increment/decrement. 

  2. BOption (b)

    The increment/decrement part of the for loop is mandatory.  

  3. COption (c)

    The condition in a for loop is optional, and it can result in an infinite loop if omitted.

  4. DOption (d)

    A for loop cannot be nested inside another for loop. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The condition in a for loop is optional, and it can result in an infinite loop if omitted.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The condition in a for loop is optional, and it can result in an infinite loop if omitted..

Key Points

  • In the C programming language, the for loop is a control flow statement that allows code to be executed repeatedly based on a given condition.
  • The condition in a for loop is optional. If the condition is omitted, it is assumed to be always true, leading to an infinite loop unless explicitly broken using a statement like break.
  • Although a for loop typically consists of three components (initialization, condition, increment/decrement), any of these components can be omitted, making the loop flexible.
  • The increment/decrement part of the loop is also optional; you can handle the incrementation or decrementation inside the loop body if needed.
  • For loops can be nested within other for loops, allowing complex iterations in multi-dimensional arrays or matrices.

Additional Information

  • Examples of For Loop Usage:
  • Basic Loop: for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { printf("%d ", i); } prints numbers from 0 to 9.
  • Infinite Loop: for(;;) { /* code */ } runs indefinitely unless a break statement is used.
  • Omitting Increment: The increment part can be moved to the loop body: for (int i = 0; i < 10;) { printf("%d ", i); i++; }.
  • Tips for Using For Loops Effectively:
  • Always ensure loop termination by providing a valid condition, or use break to exit infinite loops when necessary.
  • Use nested loops cautiously, as they can lead to higher time complexity in programs.
  • Optimize the loop condition to avoid unnecessary iterations and improve performance.
  • Common Mistakes to Avoid:
  • Forgetting to update the loop control variable, leading to infinite loops.
  • Using incorrect loop conditions, which can cause the loop to terminate prematurely or not execute at all.
  • Modifying the loop control variable inside the loop in an unintended way, causing unexpected behavior.

Question 167

Which of the following is a disadvantage of singly linked list?

  1. AOption (a)

    Linked lists have a variable size.  

  2. BOption (b)

    Insertion operation at the beginning of the linked list is performed in O (1) time

  3. COption (c)

    Deletion operation at the beginning of the linked list is performed in O(1) time.

  4. DOption (d)

    Accessing an element in a singly linked list requires traversal from the head, making it slower than arrays.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Accessing an element in a singly linked list requires traversal from the head, making it slower than arrays.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Accessing an element in a singly linked list requires traversal from the head, making it slower than arrays..

Key Points

  • Singly linked lists require traversal from the head to access any specific element, as there is no direct indexing like in arrays.
  • This traversal process makes accessing elements slower compared to arrays, especially as the list size increases.
  • Unlike arrays, singly linked lists do not have a fixed size, making them suitable for dynamic storage but less efficient for random access.
  • Insertion and deletion operations at the beginning of a singly linked list are faster, with an O(1) time complexity.
  • However, the lack of direct access to elements contributes to the disadvantage mentioned in the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Advantages of Singly Linked Lists:
  • Efficient insertion and deletion operations at the beginning of the list.
  • Dynamic memory allocation allows the list to grow or shrink as needed.
  • Does not require a continuous block of memory, unlike arrays.
  • Disadvantages of Singly Linked Lists:
  • Slower access to elements due to the need for traversal from the head.
  • Higher memory usage compared to arrays due to the storage of pointers.
  • Complexity in implementing certain operations, such as reversing the list.
  • Applications of Singly Linked Lists:
  • Used in dynamic memory management for efficient allocation and deallocation.
  • Helpful in implementing stacks, queues, and other data structures.
  • Used in scenarios where frequent insertion and deletion operations are required.
  • Important Points:
  • Singly linked lists consist of nodes, where each node contains data and a pointer to the next node.
  • The last node in the list points to NULL, indicating the end of the list.
  • Proper management of pointers is essential to avoid memory leaks or dangling references.

Question 168

Which of the following options is the differential equation corresponding to y=ae2+be−xy=ae^2+be^{-x}  where a and b are arbitrary?

  1. AOption (a)

    y′′−2y′+y=0y'' - 2y' + y = 0

  2. BOption (b)

    y′′−y′−2y=0y'' - y' - 2y = 0

  3. COption (c)

    y′′+y′−2y=0y'' + y' - 2y = 0

  4. DOption (d)

    y′′+2y′+y=0y'' + 2y' + y = 0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

y′′−y′−2y=0y'' - y' - 2y = 0

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is y′′−y′−2y=0y″−y′−2y=0

.

Key Points

  • The given function is y=aex+be−xy=aex+be−x

, where aa

and bb

are arbitrary constants.

  • Substitute y=aex+be−xy=aex+be−x

into the differential equation options.

  • Differentiate yy

to obtain y′y′

and y′′y″

:

  • y′=aex−be−xy′=aex−be−x
  • y′′=aex+be−xy″=aex+be−x
  • Substitute yy

, y′y′

, and y′′y″

into each option to check which equation is satisfied.

  • When substituted into y′′−y′−2y=0y″−y′−2y=0

, the equation holds true, verifying it as the correct differential equation.

Additional Information

  • Steps to Verify:
  • Substitute y=aex+be−xy=aex+be−x

into y′′−y′−2y=0y″−y′−2y=0

.

  • Calculate y′′=aex+be−xy″=aex+be−x

, y′=aex−be−xy′=aex−be−x

, and y=aex+be−xy=aex+be−x

.

  • Plug these values into the equation:
  • y′′−y′−2y=(aex+be−x)−(aex−be−x)−2(aex+be−x)y″−y′−2y=(aex+be−x)−(aex−be−x)−2(aex+be−x)
  • Simplify: aex+be−x−aex+be−x−2aex−2be−xaex+be−x−aex+be−x−2aex−2be−x
  • Combine terms: (aex−aex−2aex)+(be−x+be−x−2be−x)=0(aex−aex−2aex)+(be−x+be−x−2be−x)=0
  • The equation is satisfied, confirming y′′−y′−2y=0y″−y′−2y=0

as the correct differential equation.

Question 169

The characteristic equation of matrix A=[14 35]A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 4 \ 3 & 5 \end{bmatrix}  is ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    λ2−6λ+7=0\lambda^2 - 6\lambda + 7 = 0

  2. BOption (b)

    λ2+6λ−7=0\lambda^2 + 6\lambda - 7 = 0

  3. COption (c)

    λ2−6λ−7=0\lambda^2 - 6\lambda - 7 = 0

  4. DOption (d)

    λ2+6λ+7=0\lambda^2 + 6\lambda + 7 = 0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

λ2−6λ−7=0\lambda^2 - 6\lambda - 7 = 0

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is λ2−6λ−7=0λ2−6λ−7=0

.

Key Points

  • The characteristic equation of a matrix is derived from the determinant of (A−λI)(A−λI)

, where AA

is the matrix, λλ

is the eigenvalue, and II

is the identity matrix.

  • For the given matrix A=[1345]A=[1435]

, the characteristic equation is obtained by solving det(A−λI)=0det(A−λI)=0

.

  • Subtracting λλ

from the diagonal elements of AA

, we get A−λI=[1−λ345−λ]A−λI=[1−λ435−λ]

.

  • The determinant is calculated as (1−λ)(5−λ)−(4)(3)(1−λ)(5−λ)−(4)(3)

, which simplifies to λ2−6λ−7=0λ2−6λ−7=0

.

  • Therefore, the correct characteristic equation is λ2−6λ−7=0λ2−6λ−7=0

.

Additional Information

  • Steps to find the characteristic equation:
  • Start with the matrix AA

and subtract λλ

from the diagonal elements to form A−λIA−λI

.

  • Calculate the determinant of A−λIA−λI

.

  • Set the determinant equal to zero to obtain the characteristic equation.
  • Applications of the characteristic equation:
  • Used to find eigenvalues of a matrix, which are crucial in solving systems of linear equations.
  • Helps in stability analysis of systems in control theory.
  • Widely applied in vibration analysis, quantum mechanics, and other fields of science and engineering.
  • Important Points:
  • The roots of the characteristic equation represent the eigenvalues of the matrix AA

.

  • The sum of the eigenvalues equals the trace of the matrix (sum of diagonal elements).
  • The product of the eigenvalues equals the determinant of the matrix.

Question 170

Which of the following is NOT a tertiary business activity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Manufacturing

  2. BOption (b)

    Warehousing

  3. COption (c)

    Transportation

  4. DOption (d)

    Insurance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Manufacturing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manufacturing.

Key Points

  • Manufacturing is primarily a secondary business activity that involves the production of goods by transforming raw materials into finished products. It is not categorized as a tertiary activity.
  • Tertiary business activities are service-oriented and include services such as warehousing, transportation, and insurance.
  • Warehousing refers to the storage of goods, ensuring they are safely kept until they are needed for distribution or sale.
  • Transportation involves the movement of goods and services from one location to another, enabling trade and commerce.
  • Insurance provides financial protection against potential risks and uncertainties, ensuring stability for businesses and individuals.

Additional Information

  • Business Activity Classification:
  • Primary Activities: These involve natural resources, such as farming, fishing, and mining.
  • Secondary Activities: These involve manufacturing and industrial production processes.
  • Tertiary Activities: These provide services, such as banking, retail, transportation, and insurance.
  • Examples of Tertiary Activities:
  • Retail Services: Selling goods directly to consumers.
  • Banking Services: Facilitating financial transactions and providing credit.
  • Healthcare Services: Providing medical care and treatment.
  • Education Services: Offering learning and training facilities.
  • Importance of Tertiary Activities:
  • They play a crucial role in connecting producers with consumers.
  • They facilitate economic growth by providing necessary services for trade and commerce.
  • They generate employment opportunities in various service sectors.
  • Key Differences:
  • Unlike secondary activities, tertiary activities do not involve the production of tangible goods.
  • They focus on delivering services rather than creating physical products.

Question 171

Which of the following options is the particular solution of the differential equation

y′′−6y′+9y=2e3t?y'' - 6y' + 9y = 2e^{3t}?

  1. AOption (a)

    e3t2\frac{e^{3t}}{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    e3t9\frac{e^{3t}}{9}

  3. COption (c)

    t2e3tt^2e^{3t}

  4. DOption (d)

    e3te^{3t}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

t2e3tt^2e^{3t}

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is t²e³ᵗ.

Key Points

  • Given differential equation: y'' − 6y' + 9y = 2e³ᵗ.
  • Form auxiliary equation: m² − 6m + 9 = 0 ⇒ (m − 3)² = 0.
  • Characteristic root: m = 3 (repeated root).
  • Complementary solution: yc = (C₁ + C₂t)e³ᵗ.
  • RHS = 2e³ᵗ already appears in CF.
  • For repeated root of multiplicity 2, multiply trial solution by t².
  • Particular solution form: yp = At²e³ᵗ.
  • Thus the required particular solution is proportional to t²e³ᵗ.

Additional Information

  • Rule:
  • If RHS = eax and a is repeated root k times ⇒ multiply trial by xk.

Question 172

Which of the following will terminate the loop immediately in C?

  1. AOption (a)

    When the loop condition is not given 

  2. BOption (b)

    When the loop variable reaches a certain value

  3. COption (c)

    When a continue statement is encountered

  4. DOption (d)

    When a break statement is encountered

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

When a break statement is encountered

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is When a break statement is encountered.

Key Points

  • The break statement is used in C programming to terminate a loop immediately.
  • When a break is encountered, the control exits the loop and continues with the next statement outside the loop.
  • The break statement can be used in loops such as for, while, or do-while to terminate their execution prematurely.
  • It is also used in switch-case statements to exit a particular case block.

Additional Information

  • How the break statement works in loops:
  • When the break statement is executed inside a loop, the loop terminates immediately, and the control moves to the first statement outside the loop.
  • This is particularly useful when a specific condition is met, and further iterations of the loop are not required.
  • Difference between break and continue:
  • The break statement terminates the loop entirely, while the continue statement skips the current iteration and proceeds to the next iteration of the loop.
  • For example, in a for loop, the continue causes the increment expression to be executed, whereas break exits the loop completely.
  • Scenarios where break is used:
  • Exiting a loop prematurely when a specific condition is met.
  • Breaking out of a switch-case block to avoid fall-through behavior.
  • Improving code readability by eliminating unnecessary iterations.
  • Important Considerations:
  • Excessive use of break can make the code harder to read and understand.
  • It is generally recommended to use break judiciously to enhance code clarity and maintainability.

Question 173

Two identical cells of emf = 1.5 V and internal resistance = 0.5 Ω are connected in series. If 1 A is the allowed current through the cell, the effective terminal potential difference of the cells is __________. 

  1. AOption (a)

    0.75 V

  2. BOption (b)

    1 V

  3. COption (c)

    2 V

  4. DOption (d)

    0.5 V

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 V

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 V.

Key Points

  • Two identical cells, each with an emf of 1.5 V and internal resistance of 0.5 Ω, are connected in series.
  • When connected in series, the total emf of the cells becomes the sum of their individual emfs. Hence, the total emf is 1.5 V + 1.5 V = 3 V.
  • The total internal resistance of the cells in series is the sum of their individual internal resistances, which is 0.5 Ω + 0.5 Ω = 1 Ω.
  • When a current of 1 A flows through the circuit, the voltage drop across the internal resistance is calculated as I × r = 1 A × 1 Ω = 1 V.
  • The effective terminal potential difference is the total emf minus the voltage drop across the internal resistance, i.e., 3 V - 1 V = 2 V.

Additional Information

  • Emf (Electromotive Force):
  • Emf is the maximum potential difference provided by a cell when no current flows through it.
  • It is denoted by ε and is measured in volts (V).
  • Internal Resistance:
  • Internal resistance refers to the resistance offered by the cell to the flow of current within it.
  • It reduces the effective terminal voltage of the cell when current flows through it.
  • Key Formula:
  • Effective terminal voltage: V = ε - I × r, where ε is the emf, I is the current, and r is the internal resistance.

Question 174

If A=[100 0−10 101]A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & -1 & 0 \ 1 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}  then the matrix for A6A^6 is  ________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    [100 0−10 601]\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & -1 & 0 \ 6 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}

  2. BOption (b)

    [100 0−10 101]\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & -1 & 0 \ 1 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}

  3. COption (c)

    [100 010 601]\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 1 & 0 \ 6 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}

  4. DOption (d)

    [600 060 606]\begin{bmatrix} 6 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 6 & 0 \ 6 & 0 & 6 \end{bmatrix}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

[100 010 601]\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 1 & 0 \ 6 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is : [100 010 601]\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 1 & 0 \ 6 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}

Key Points

  • Given matrix A = [ 1 0 0 ; 0 −1 0 ; 1 0 1 ].
  • Write A as sum of commuting matrices: A = I + N, where I = identity matrix and N = [0 0 0 ; 0 −2 0 ; 1 0 0].
  • Observe N² = 0 (nilpotent matrix).
  • Use binomial expansion: A⁶ = (I + N)⁶.
  • Since N² = 0 ⇒ (I+N)⁶ = I + 6N.
  • Compute: 6N = [0 0 0 ; 0 −12 0 ; 6 0 0].
  • So A⁶ = I + 6N = [1 0 0 ; 0 1 0 ; 6 0 1].

Additional Information

  • Important concept:
  • If N² = 0 ⇒ (I+N)ⁿ = I + nN.
  • This simplifies matrix powers greatly.

Question 175

On 15 December 2024, a fire occurred in the godown of M Ltd., and the entire stock was destroyed. The value of the stock salvaged was ₹3,00,000. The following transactions took place between 1 October 2024 and 15 December 2024. Study the table and answer the question that follows.

Purchases

Sales

Wages

Opening Stock

Gross Profit

The value of stock lost by fire was _________.

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹6,75,000 

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹2,55,000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹5,92,000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹6,30,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹6,30,000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹6,30,000.

Key Points

  • The fire incident occurred on 15 December 2024, destroying the entire stock in the godown of M Ltd.
  • The value of the stock salvaged was recorded as ₹3,00,000.
  • The calculation for the value of stock lost by fire is based on the transactions between 1 October 2024 and 15 December 2024.
  • Option 4 (₹6,30,000) is the correct answer as it represents the total stock lost during the fire incident.

Additional Information

  • Steps to Calculate Stock Lost:
  • Take the opening stock, add purchases and wages, and subtract sales to determine the total stock available.
  • From the total stock available, subtract the gross profit and the value of salvaged stock to find the stock lost.
  • Important Points:
  • The gross profit is a key factor in determining the stock lost as it accounts for the profitability of transactions.
  • Proper record-keeping of transactions is essential for accurate calculations in such scenarios.

Question 176

 MC Publications has received rent amounting to ₹2,50,000 during the financial year ending 31st March 2024. Out of this ₹50,000 represents rent relating to next financial year. The rent account to be credited to the profit and loss account for the year ended 31st March 2024 is ________ and the rent received in advance will be shown as a/an ________. 

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹2,00,000; Asset 

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹3,00,000; Asset 

  3. COption (c)

    ₹1,50,000; Liability

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹2,00,000; Liability 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

₹2,00,000; Liability 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹2,00,000; Liability.

Key Points

  • MC Publications received ₹2,50,000 as rent during the financial year ending 31st March 2024.
  • Out of this, ₹50,000 pertains to the next financial year, making it rent received in advance.
  • Rent related to the current financial year is ₹2,50,000 - ₹50,000 = ₹2,00,000.
  • ₹2,00,000 is credited to the profit and loss account for the year ended 31st March 2024.
  • The ₹50,000 rent received in advance is shown as a liability in the balance sheet, as it represents an obligation to provide future services.

Additional Information

  • Accounting Treatment for Rent Received in Advance:
  • Rent received in advance is classified as a current liability because it represents an amount received for services to be provided in the next financial year.
  • It is shown under Current Liabilities in the balance sheet.
  • Profit and Loss Account:
  • The rent related to the current financial year is credited to the profit and loss account to reflect the income earned during the period.
  • Key Points to Remember:
  • Prepaid expenses are treated as assets, while income received in advance is treated as liabilities.
  • Only income pertaining to the current financial year is recognized in the profit and loss account.

Question 177

The particular solution of the differential equation (D4−18D2+81)y=(D ^ 4 - 18D ^ 2 + 81) y= :

  1. AOption (a)

    72x2e3x104\frac{72 x^2 e^{3x}}{104}

  2. BOption (b)

    x2e3xx^2 e^{3x}

  3. COption (c)

    2x2e3x2 x^2 e^{3x}

  4. DOption (d)

    12x2e3x12 x^2 e^{3x}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

x2e3xx^2 e^{3x}

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is x²e³ˣ.

Key Points

  • Given differential equation: (D⁴ − 18D² + 81) y = 0.
  • Form auxiliary equation by replacing D → m: m⁴ − 18m² + 81 = 0.
  • Let m² = t: t² − 18t + 81 = 0 ⇒ (t − 9)² = 0 ⇒ t = 9 (double root).
  • So m² = 9 ⇒ m = ±3.
  • Since t = 9 is repeated ⇒ roots ±3 are repeated twice.
  • Characteristic roots: m = 3, 3, −3, −3.

Additional Information

  • Complementary function rule:
  • If root r repeated k times ⇒ solutions: eʳˣ , x eʳˣ , x² eʳˣ , …
  • For root m = 3 (repeated twice): e³ˣ , x e³ˣ.
  • For root m = −3 (repeated twice): e⁻³ˣ , x e⁻³ˣ.
  • General solution: y = (C₁ + C₂x)e³ˣ + (C₃ + C₄x)e⁻³ˣ.
  • Among options, a valid particular solution from repeated root part is x² e³ˣ.

Question 178

Which cycle is primarily managed by the Control Unit? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Arithmetic cycle 

  2. BOption (b)

    Instruction cycle (Fetch-Decode-Execute cycle)

  3. COption (c)

    Memory refresh cycle

  4. DOption (d)

    I/O cycle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Instruction cycle (Fetch-Decode-Execute cycle)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Instruction cycle (Fetch-Decode-Execute cycle).

Key Points

  • The Control Unit manages the Instruction cycle, which is also known as the Fetch-Decode-Execute cycle.
  • This cycle is crucial for the operation of a computer as it handles the execution of instructions, step by step, in a systematic manner.
  • During the Fetch phase, the control unit retrieves the instruction from memory.
  • In the Decode phase, it interprets the instruction to determine the required operation.
  • In the Execute phase, the operation is carried out, involving the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU), memory, or I/O devices as needed.

Additional Information

  • Other Cycles:
  • Arithmetic Cycle: This is managed by the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) and is used for performing mathematical operations such as addition, subtraction, etc.
  • Memory Refresh Cycle: This ensures the integrity of data stored in volatile memory such as DRAM by periodically refreshing it.
  • I/O Cycle: This is concerned with input and output operations and is managed by the I/O controller.
  • Key Functions of the Control Unit:
  • Controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory, and I/O devices.
  • Interprets and decodes instructions fetched from memory.
  • Ensures synchronization of all components within the computer system.

Question 179

The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is _____ the magnetic moment of an equivalent solenoid if the solenoid's magnetic field is _______ that of the bar magnet. 

  1. AOption (a)

    more than ; same as

  2. BOption (b)

    equal to ; same as 

  3. COption (c)

    less than ; same as

  4. DOption (d)

    equal to ; different from 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

equal to ; same as 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is equal to ; same as.

Key Points

  • The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is equal to the magnetic moment of an equivalent solenoid when the solenoid's magnetic field is same as that of the bar magnet.
  • This equivalence arises due to the similarity in the magnetic field produced by both the bar magnet and the solenoid under the specified conditions.
  • The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is defined as the product of its pole strength and the distance between the poles.
  • For a solenoid, the magnetic moment is determined by the product of the number of turns, current through the solenoid, and the area of the coil.
  • When the solenoid is designed to produce a magnetic field identical to that of the bar magnet, their magnetic moments are equal.

Additional Information

  • Bar Magnet:
  • A bar magnet is a permanent magnet with a fixed magnetic moment.
  • The magnetic field lines of a bar magnet emerge from the north pole and merge at the south pole.
  • Solenoid:
  • A solenoid is a coil of wire that generates a magnetic field when an electric current flows through it.
  • The strength of the magnetic field depends on the current, number of turns, and the length of the solenoid.
  • Magnetic Moment:
  • The magnetic moment is a measure of the strength and orientation of a magnet's magnetic field.
  • For a solenoid, magnetic moment = (Number of turns) × (Current) × (Area of the coil).
  • Important Points:
  • The equivalence of the magnetic moment between a bar magnet and a solenoid occurs only when their magnetic fields are the same.
  • The design and configuration of the solenoid play a crucial role in achieving this equivalence.

Question 180

 Which of the following is a key design goal of an Instruction Set Architecture?

  1. AOption (a)

    Minimizing the transistor count

  2. BOption (b)

    Maximizing the instruction decode time 

  3. COption (c)

    Ensuring only complex instructions are supported

  4. DOption (d)

    Balancing simplicity and performance for ease of programming and efficiency

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Balancing simplicity and performance for ease of programming and efficiency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Balancing simplicity and performance for ease of programming and efficiency.

Key Points

  • Instruction Set Architecture (ISA) is a crucial interface between hardware and software, defining the set of instructions that a processor can execute.
  • One of the primary design goals of an ISA is to balance simplicity and performance to make programming easier while maintaining efficiency and performance.
  • This balance ensures that both software developers and hardware designers can work efficiently, leading to better system performance and usability.
  • Designing an ISA involves considerations such as instruction format, addressing modes, and support for both simple and complex operations.
  • By achieving this balance, an ISA can cater to a wide range of applications, from simple embedded systems to high-performance computing systems.

Additional Information

  • Characteristics of a Good ISA:
  • Simplicity: A simpler instruction set reduces the complexity of the processor and makes it easier to program.
  • Efficiency: The ISA should support efficient execution of instructions to maximize performance.
  • Scalability: The ISA should be scalable to accommodate future advancements in hardware and applications.
  • Support for Parallelism: Modern ISAs often include features to enable parallel processing for improved performance.
  • Types of Instruction Set Architectures:
  • RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer): Focuses on simplicity and a small set of instructions for faster execution.
  • CISC (Complex Instruction Set Computer): Includes a wide range of instructions, enabling more complex operations in a single instruction.
  • VLIW (Very Long Instruction Word): Allows multiple operations to be executed in parallel by encoding them in a single instruction word.
  • Design Trade-offs:
  • Balancing simplicity and performance often involves trade-offs between hardware complexity and software design.
  • While simpler designs are easier to implement, they may require more instructions to perform complex tasks.
  • More complex designs, on the other hand, can reduce the number of instructions needed but may increase hardware complexity.

Discipline 5 (10 questions)

Question 181

Which of the following statement is correct for a business organisation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Centralisation leads to autonomy

  2. BOption (b)

    Responsibility leads to decentralisation

  3. COption (c)

    Authority leads to decentralisation

  4. DOption (d)

    Delegation leads to decentralisation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Delegation leads to decentralisation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Delegation leads to decentralisation.

Key Points

  • Delegation means assigning authority and responsibility to lower-level employees.
  • When delegation increases, decision-making power is shared across different levels.
  • This process results in decentralisation of authority.
  • Decentralisation improves efficiency, flexibility, and employee involvement.

Additional Information

  • Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
  • Centralisation leads to autonomy: Centralisation reduces autonomy.
  • Responsibility leads to decentralisation: Responsibility alone does not decentralise authority.
  • Authority leads to decentralisation: Authority must be delegated to cause decentralisation.
  • Final Answer:
  • The correct option is Option 4.
  • Delegation leads to decentralisation.

Question 182

Eighty eight residents of a city, who were interviewed in a city are classified as male or female and also as drinkers or non-drinkers of tea. For testing association between sex and drinking of tea, the test statistic follows: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Chi Square distribution with 2 degrees of freedom

  2. BOption (b)

    Normal distribution

  3. COption (c)

    Chi square distribution with 1 degree of freedom

  4. DOption (d)

    t distribution with 1 degree of freedom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chi square distribution with 1 degree of freedom

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chi square distribution with 1 degree of freedom.

Key Points

  • The data is classified into two categories for sex (male, female) and two categories for tea drinking (drinker, non-drinker).
  • This forms a 2 × 2 contingency table.
  • The appropriate test for association between two categorical variables is the Chi-square test of independence.
  • The degrees of freedom for a contingency table is calculated as:
  • (Rows − 1) × (Columns − 1)
  • So, (2 − 1) × (2 − 1) = 1.
  • Hence, the test statistic follows a Chi-square distribution with 1 degree of freedom.

Additional Information

  • Chi-square Test Usage:
  • Used to test association between two categorical variables.
  • Commonly applied in survey and classification data.
  • Why Not Other Options:
  • Normal distribution: Used for continuous data.
  • t distribution: Used for mean comparison.
  • Chi-square with 2 df: Only applies when table size is larger.
  • Final Answer:
  • The correct option is Option 3.

Question 183

Suppose a six faced die is thrown. Then the probability that the number appearing on the top is even is equal to:

  1. AOption (a)

    12\frac{1}{2}

  2. BOption (b)

    14\frac{1}{4}

  3. COption (c)

    19\frac{1}{9}

  4. DOption (d)

    16\frac{1}{6}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

12\frac{1}{2}

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1/2.

Key Points

  • A six-faced die has the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
  • The even numbers among them are 2, 4, and 6.
  • Number of favorable outcomes = 3.
  • Total possible outcomes = 6.
  • Probability = 3/6 = 1/2.

Additional Information

  • Probability Formula:
  • Probability = (Number of favorable outcomes) ÷ (Total outcomes)
  • Even Numbers:
  • Even numbers are divisible by 2.
  • On a die: 2, 4, and 6 are even.
  • Final Answer:
  • The probability is 1/2.
  • This corresponds to the correct option.

Question 184

Select an appropriate ROM type from the options, where data can be erased or destroyed using ultraviolet light. 

  1. AOption (a)

    PROM

  2. BOption (b)

    EPROM

  3. COption (c)

    EEPROM

  4. DOption (d)

    Flash ROM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

EPROM

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is EPROM.

Key Points

  • EPROM stands for Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory, a type of ROM where data can be erased using ultraviolet light.
  • It consists of a transparent quartz window on top, allowing UV light to erase the stored data.
  • Once erased, new data can be programmed into the EPROM using a special device called a programmer.
  • EPROMs are commonly used in applications where data needs to be updated occasionally but must remain non-volatile.
  • This type of ROM is ideal for prototyping and testing embedded systems before finalizing the design.

Additional Information

  • Other Types of ROM:
  • PROM: Programmable Read-Only Memory; data is written once and cannot be erased.
  • EEPROM: Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory; data can be erased and reprogrammed using electrical signals.
  • Flash ROM: A type of EEPROM; widely used in modern devices for faster read/write operations.
  • Advantages of Using EPROM:
  • Provides flexibility in modifying the stored data during development stages.
  • Non-volatile memory, ensuring data retention even when power is removed.
  • Cost-effective solution for small production runs or testing purposes.
  • Important Points:
  • UV erasure requires specialized equipment and a controlled environment.
  • EPROMs have a limited number of erase/program cycles compared to EEPROMs.
  • The quartz window must be protected from accidental exposure to UV light to prevent unintended erasure.

Question 185

How can you add an emoji to an email?

  1. AOption (a)

    Use the delete key 

  2. BOption (b)

    Reply to the email 

  3. COption (c)

    Click the emoji icon in the toolbar 

  4. DOption (d)

    Change the font style

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Click the emoji icon in the toolbar 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Click the emoji icon in the toolbar.

Key Points

  • Adding emojis to an email enhances communication by expressing emotions or emphasizing points visually.
  • To insert emojis, most email platforms provide an emoji icon in the toolbar, which opens a library of emojis to choose from.
  • Emojis are categorized based on themes like faces, objects, activities, and symbols, making it easy to find the desired emoji.
  • Using emojis can make emails more engaging and relatable, especially in informal or creative contexts.
  • Ensure that emojis are used appropriately and sparingly to maintain professionalism in formal email communication.

Additional Information

  • Steps to Add Emojis:
  • Locate the emoji icon: Usually represented by a smiley face or similar symbol in the email toolbar.
  • Select the desired emoji: Browse through the categories or search for specific emojis using keywords.
  • Insert the emoji: Click on the emoji to add it directly to your email content.
  • Popular Emoji Categories:
  • Smileys and People: Includes expressions, gestures, and characters.
  • Animals and Nature: Features various animals, plants, and weather-related symbols.
  • Food and Drink: Covers culinary items like fruits, beverages, and meals.
  • Activities: Encompasses sports, arts, and leisure-related emojis.
  • Travel and Places: Includes landmarks, transportation, and geographic symbols.
  • Benefits of Using Emojis:
  • Improves the tone of communication by adding emotional context to messages.
  • Helps convey complex ideas or sentiments quickly and effectively.
  • Enhances the visual appeal of content, making it more engaging for the reader.
  • Important Points:
  • Emojis should align with the message's tone and purpose to avoid misinterpretation.
  • Overuse of emojis can make the message appear unprofessional or cluttered.
  • Ensure compatibility with the recipient's email platform to avoid display issues.

Question 186

What does the term 'bootstrapping' refer to in the context of starting a business?

  1. AOption (a)

    Obtaining bank loans for initial capital 

  2. BOption (b)

    Self-funding the business using personal resources

  3. COption (c)

    Raising funds through venture capitalists

  4. DOption (d)

    Crowdfunding through online platforms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Self-funding the business using personal resources

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Self-funding the business using personal resources.

Key Points

  • Bootstrapping refers to starting and growing a business using personal savings and resources without relying on external funding sources such as loans or investments.
  • This approach involves strict financial discipline and leveraging existing resources to minimize expenses and maximize efficiency.
  • Bootstrapped businesses often prioritize profitability and sustainability over rapid growth, allowing entrepreneurs to retain full control of their ventures.
  • It is a common method for individuals who prefer independence and do not want to take on debt or dilute ownership by involving investors.
  • Many successful companies, including global brands, started as bootstrapped ventures before scaling up with external funding.

Additional Information

  • Advantages of Bootstrapping:
  • Allows entrepreneurs to retain full ownership and control over the business decisions.
  • Minimizes financial risks associated with debt or equity funding.
  • Encourages innovation and resourcefulness by working within financial constraints.
  • Helps build a sustainable and profitable business model from the outset.
  • Challenges of Bootstrapping:
  • Limited access to capital may slow down business growth and expansion.
  • Requires significant personal financial commitment and sacrifice.
  • Entrepreneurs may face difficulties in scaling operations without external funding support.
  • Examples of Bootstrapped Companies:
  • Spanx: Founded by Sara Blakely, Spanx was initially started with personal savings and grew into a billion-dollar company.
  • GitHub: GitHub was bootstrapped for its first few years before receiving external funding.
  • Mailchimp: Mailchimp started as a bootstrapped venture and eventually became a leader in email marketing services.
  • Important Considerations:
  • Entrepreneurs should carefully plan budgets and prioritize spending to ensure efficient use of resources.
  • Building a strong network and leveraging free or low-cost tools can help overcome financial constraints.
  • Bootstrapping may not be suitable for businesses requiring substantial upfront capital for operations or product development.

Question 187

Which of the following is an example of open-source application software?

  1. AOption (a)

    Microsoft Excel

  2. BOption (b)

    CorelDRAW

  3. COption (c)

    GIMP

  4. DOption (d)

    Adobe Illustrator 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

GIMP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is GIMP.

Key Points

  • GIMP (GNU Image Manipulation Program) is an example of open-source application software used for tasks like photo retouching, image editing, and graphic designing.
  • It is freely available and can be modified and redistributed by users, adhering to the principles of open-source software.
  • Unlike proprietary software like Microsoft Excel, CorelDRAW, or Adobe Illustrator, GIMP provides users with access to its source code.
  • It supports various file formats, including JPEG, PNG, GIF, TIFF, and more, making it versatile for different graphic design needs.
  • GIMP is widely used by professionals and hobbyists alike due to its flexibility and robust features.

Additional Information

  • Features of GIMP:
  • Provides advanced tools for image editing, including layers, masks, and filters.
  • Supports plug-ins and extensions to enhance functionality.
  • Offers a customizable interface, allowing users to tailor the workspace to their preferences.
  • Advantages of Open-Source Software:
  • Free to download, use, and modify.
  • Promotes collaboration and innovation among developers worldwide.
  • Regular updates and improvements due to community involvement.
  • Examples of Other Open-Source Software:
  • LibreOffice: An open-source office suite for word processing, spreadsheets, and presentations.
  • Blender: A powerful open-source tool for 3D modeling, animation, and rendering.
  • VLC Media Player: A widely-used open-source multimedia player supporting various audio and video formats.
  • Important Points:
  • Open-source software encourages transparency and trust among users.
  • It is often community-driven, with contributions from developers worldwide.
  • Users can customize open-source software to suit their specific needs, making it highly flexible.

Question 188

Select the INCORRECT option among the phases of the CPU Instruction Cycle.

  1. AOption (a)

    Execute

  2. BOption (b)

    Fetch

  3. COption (c)

    Encode

  4. DOption (d)

    Store

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Encode

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Encode.

Key Points

  • The CPU instruction cycle consists of phases that allow the processor to execute instructions step by step.
  • These phases include Fetch, Decode, Execute, and optionally Store for memory operations.
  • Encode is not a phase of the CPU instruction cycle, making it the incorrect option.
  • During the Fetch phase, the processor retrieves the instruction from memory.
  • In the Decode phase, the CPU interprets the instruction to determine the required operation.
  • The Execute phase involves performing the operation specified by the instruction.
  • Finally, the Store phase writes the result back to memory, if needed.

Additional Information

  • Fetch Phase:
  • The instruction is fetched from memory based on the program counter.
  • The program counter ensures sequential access to instructions unless altered by a jump instruction.
  • Decode Phase:
  • During this phase, the instruction is translated into signals that the CPU can understand.
  • This involves identifying the operation code (opcode) and operands.
  • Execute Phase:
  • The CPU performs the specified operation, such as arithmetic calculations or data transfer.
  • Execution may involve the ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit) or other components.
  • Store Phase:
  • If required, the result of the operation is written back to memory or a register.
  • Not all instructions involve the store phase; it depends on the instruction type.

Question 189

Which of the following smileys express happiness in text communication? 

  1. AOption (a)

    :-( 

  2. BOption (b)

    : (

  3. COption (c)

    :-) 

  4. DOption (d)

    : | 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

:-) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is :-).

Key Points

  • :-) is a widely recognized text-based emoticon used to express happiness, joy, or a positive emotion in text communication.
  • It is formed by combining a colon, a hyphen, and a closing parenthesis, creating the appearance of a smiling face when rotated.
  • This emoticon is commonly used in informal communication, such as social media, text messages, and emails, to convey lightheartedness or approval.
  • Other similar emoticons that indicate happiness include :) and =), which are variations of the standard smiley face.
  • Text-based emoticons like :-) were widely used before the advent of graphical emojis and remain popular in certain contexts.

Additional Information

  • History of Emoticons:
  • Emoticons originated in the early days of digital communication as a way to add emotional context to text-based messages.
  • The first documented use of :-) was by computer scientist Scott Fahlman in 1982, suggesting it as a way to denote jokes.
  • Emoticons laid the foundation for modern graphical emojis, which further expanded the range of expressive symbols.
  • Common Variants:
  • :): A simplified version of the smiley face that omits the nose.
  • =): Uses an equal sign instead of a colon, offering a slightly different aesthetic.
  • :-D: Represents a laughing or very happy face, formed with an open mouth.
  • Advantages of Using Emoticons:
  • Enhances the emotional tone of text-based communication, reducing the risk of misunderstandings.
  • Provides a quick and simple way to express feelings without needing lengthy explanations.
  • Widely understood across different cultures and languages, making them effective in global communication.
  • Important Points:
  • Emoticons like :-) are most effective in informal communication and may not be suitable for formal contexts.
  • While emoticons are text-based, their graphical counterparts, emojis, offer more detailed and varied expressions.
  • The use of emoticons and emojis should be balanced to ensure clarity and appropriateness in communication.

Question 190

WhatsApp was founded by _____________. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Jan Koum and Brian Acton

  2. BOption (b)

    Mark Zuckerberg and Sheryl Sandberg

  3. COption (c)

    Larry Page and Sergey Brin

  4. DOption (d)

    Allan Musk and Bill Steve

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Jan Koum and Brian Acton

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jan Koum and Brian Acton.

Key Points

  • WhatsApp is a popular messaging application that allows users to send text messages, voice messages, images, and videos, as well as make voice and video calls.
  • It was founded by Jan Koum and Brian Acton in 2009, both of whom were former employees of Yahoo.
  • The primary aim of WhatsApp was to provide a simple, reliable, and secure communication platform for users globally.
  • In 2014, Facebook acquired WhatsApp for approximately $19 billion, making it one of the largest tech acquisitions in history.
  • WhatsApp has since grown to become one of the most widely used messaging platforms worldwide, with billions of active users.

Additional Information

  • Features of WhatsApp:
  • End-to-End Encryption: Ensures that messages can only be read by the intended recipient, providing a high level of security.
  • Group Chats: Allows users to communicate and share media with multiple participants in a single chat.
  • Status Updates: Users can share text, photos, and videos as temporary status updates visible to their contacts.
  • Voice and Video Calls: Enables seamless communication through voice and video over the internet.
  • Achievements of WhatsApp:
  • WhatsApp is one of the leading messaging platforms in over 180 countries worldwide.
  • It has significantly transformed communication by eliminating the need for traditional SMS services.
  • WhatsApp Business was introduced to facilitate communication between businesses and customers, enhancing customer service.
  • Interesting Facts:
  • Jan Koum and Brian Acton initially applied to work at Facebook but were rejected before founding WhatsApp.
  • The name "WhatsApp" is a play on the phrase "What's Up," emphasizing casual and friendly communication.
  • WhatsApp remains free to use and generates revenue through its business services rather than advertisements$.

Teaching Methodology (10 questions)

Question 191

Which law legally mandates the inclusion of children with disabilities into mainstream schools in India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    RTI Act, 2009  

  2. BOption (b)

    National Curriculum Framework, 2005

  3. COption (c)

    RPwD Act, 2016 

  4. DOption (d)

    NEP, 2020 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

RPwD Act, 2016 

Why this answer is correct

In India, the inclusion of children with disabilities in mainstream education is supported by legislation that ensures their right to education and equal opportunities. Such laws provide a legal framework to promote accessibility, remove barriers, and mandate inclusive schooling for children with special needs.

Key Points

  • The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016 legally mandates the inclusion of children with disabilities into mainstream schools. It requires that children with disabilities have access to education in regular schools alongside their peers.
  • The Act emphasizes accessibility, reasonable accommodations, and support services to ensure inclusive and equitable education. This legal mandate strengthens the implementation of inclusive education across India.

Hint

  • The RTI Act, 2009 focuses on the right to information, not education.
  • The National Curriculum Framework, 2005 provides guidance on curriculum and pedagogy but is not a legal mandate.
  • NEP 2020 outlines policies for education reform, including inclusion, but it is policy guidance, not law.

Hence, the correct answer is RPwD Act, 2016.

Question 192

Aesthetic education primarily develops ______. 

  1. AOption (a)

    logical reasoning

  2. BOption (b)

    sensory responsiveness

  3. COption (c)

    speed in recall 

  4. DOption (d)

    factual knowledge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

sensory responsiveness

Why this answer is correct

Aesthetic education focuses on appreciation and creation of beauty in art, music, literature, and nature. It emphasizes sensory experiences, emotional engagement, and creativity, helping learners perceive and respond to the world in nuanced ways.

Key Points

  • Aesthetic education primarily develops sensory responsiveness. Through activities like observing art, listening to music, or engaging with nature, learners refine their senses, enhance perception, and cultivate sensitivity to form, color, sound, and expression.
  • This sensory development is central to aesthetic learning, enabling deeper appreciation and creative expression.

Hint

  • Logical reasoning is enhanced more through mathematics and problem-solving activities.
  • Speed in recall relates to memory exercises, not aesthetic education.
  • Factual knowledge is developed through information-based learning, not primarily through aesthetic experiences.

Hence, the correct answer is sensory responsiveness.

Question 193

____________ is a methodical approach. It suggests a logical and well-organised sequence of actions. It follows more steps. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Teaching technique

  2. BOption (b)

    Teaching method

  3. COption (c)

    Teaching strategy

  4. DOption (d)

    Teaching approach

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Teaching method

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • A teaching method is a methodical approach. It involves a logical, well-organized sequence of actions and typically includes multiple steps, from introducing a concept to reinforcing and assessing understanding.
  • Methods provide structure to instruction, ensuring that learning proceeds in a coherent and effective manner. Examples include the lecture method, demonstration method, and project method.

Hint

  • Teaching technique refers to a single classroom activity or tool, not a full sequence.
  • Teaching strategy is a broader plan to achieve learning goals, not necessarily stepwise.
  • Teaching approach is a general philosophy or perspective on teaching, not a detailed sequence.

Hence, the correct answer is Teaching method.

Question 194

Piaget’s formal operational stage begins at approximately _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    7 years

  2. BOption (b)

    8 years

  3. COption (c)

    14 years

  4. DOption (d)

    11 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

11 years

Why this answer is correct

Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development describes how children’s thinking evolves in stages. The formal operational stage is the final stage, where adolescents develop the ability to think abstractly, logically, and hypothetically, going beyond concrete experiences. Understanding the age range of this stage helps in planning age-appropriate learning activities.

Key Points

  • The formal operational stage begins at approximately 11 years. At this stage, learners can reason about abstract concepts, formulate hypotheses, think about possibilities, and solve complex problems systematically.
  • They are capable of deductive reasoning, scientific thinking, and considering multiple perspectives, which distinguishes this stage from earlier stages like concrete operational.

Hint

  • 7 years corresponds to the pre-operational stage, where symbolic thinking develops but abstract reasoning is limited.
  • 8 years falls within the concrete operational stage, focused on logical thinking about concrete objects.
  • 14 years is within the formal operational stage but represents a later part of adolescence rather than its onset.

Hence, the correct answer is 11 years.

Question 195

Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps in Herbartian lesson planning?

  1. AOption (a)

    Application

  2. BOption (b)

    Association

  3. COption (c)

    Evaluation

  4. DOption (d)

    Presentation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Evaluation

Why this answer is correct

Herbartian lesson planning, developed by Johann Friedrich Herbart, emphasizes a structured, step-by-step approach to teaching. It focuses on connecting new knowledge with prior learning, engaging students, and reinforcing understanding through clear instructional stages. The commonly recognized five steps are Preparation, Presentation, Association, Generalization, and Application/Evaluation.

Key Points

  • Application is the final step where students practice or apply what they have learned.
  • Association is the step where new content is connected with prior knowledge.
  • Presentation involves introducing new material to learners.
  • Evaluation is not one of the original five steps in Herbartian lesson planning.​

Hence, the correct answer is Evaluation.

Question 196

Gender inequality refers to which of the following? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Uniform distribution of resources

  2. BOption (b)

    Differences in hairstyles 

  3. COption (c)

    Biological differences only

  4. DOption (d)

    Social and economic disparities between genders

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Social and economic disparities between genders

Why this answer is correct

Gender inequality refers to the unequal treatment or access to resources, opportunities, and rights based on a person’s gender. It goes beyond biological differences and includes disparities in education, employment, income, and social status, often limiting the potential of one gender compared to another.

Key Points

  • Gender inequality refers to social and economic disparities between genders. This includes differences in access to education, healthcare, employment opportunities, wages, political participation, and decision-making power.
  • Such inequalities are shaped by societal norms, traditions, and policies rather than biological differences alone, and addressing them is crucial for promoting equity and social justice.

Hint

  • Uniform distribution of resources implies equality, not inequality.
  • Differences in hairstyles are superficial and culturally influenced, not a measure of inequality.
  • Biological differences alone do not constitute gender inequality; the term focuses on social and economic factors.

Hence, the correct answer is Social and economic disparities between genders.

Question 197

Diagnostic assessment mainly helps in which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Identifying misconceptions

  2. BOption (b)

    Grading performance

  3. COption (c)

    Standardising content

  4. DOption (d)

    Promoting learners 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Identifying misconceptions

Why this answer is correct

Diagnostic assessment is a type of assessment conducted before or during learning to identify learners’ strengths, weaknesses, prior knowledge, and misconceptions. It helps teachers plan instruction effectively and address gaps in understanding. Unlike summative assessment, its purpose is not grading but guiding learning.

 Key Points

  • Diagnostic assessment mainly helps in identifying misconceptions. By assessing what students already know or misunderstand, teachers can tailor lessons, clarify concepts, and provide targeted support.
  • For example, in mathematics, if a student consistently adds fractions incorrectly, diagnostic assessment reveals the misconception so it can be corrected before further instruction.

Hint

  • Grading performance is the purpose of summative assessment, not diagnostic assessment.
  • Standardizing content relates to curriculum design, not diagnostic assessment.
  • Promoting learners is related to evaluation and progression, which is also not the focus of diagnostic assessment.

Hence, the correct answer is Identifying misconceptions.

Question 198

You are designing a curriculum for vocational education. To ensure learners can transfer skills to actual work settings, which principle should you emphasise most?

  1. AOption (a)

    Principle of economy 

  2. BOption (b)

    Principle of recency

  3. COption (c)

    Principle of activity and practicality

  4. DOption (d)

    Principle of articulation 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Principle of activity and practicality

Why this answer is correct

In vocational education, the goal is to equip learners with practical skills that can be directly applied in real work settings. Curriculum design should focus on principles that enhance learning retention, applicability, and hands-on practice, so that learners can transfer skills effectively from the classroom to the workplace.

Key Points

  • The principle of activity and practicality should be emphasised most. This principle states that learning is most effective when learners actively engage in practical, real-life tasks rather than passively receiving information.
  • By incorporating hands-on exercises, simulations, and workplace-relevant projects, learners develop skills that are directly transferable to their jobs, ensuring both competence and confidence in applying what they have learned.

Hint

  • Principle of economy focuses on efficiency and avoiding unnecessary content but does not directly ensure skill transfer.
  • Principle of recency emphasizes reviewing recently learned material to improve retention, but it is secondary to practical engagement.
  • Principle of articulation deals with the logical sequencing of content, which supports learning but does not guarantee real-world applicability.

Hence, the correct answer is Principle of activity and practicality.

Question 199

What is the core principle of the multilingual approach in early education? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Welcoming the child’s language and using it to build understanding

  2. BOption (b)

    Teaching only in the national language

  3. COption (c)

    Prioritising grammar over communication

  4. DOption (d)

    Replacing mother tongue with the target language quickly 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Welcoming the child’s language and using it to build understanding

Why this answer is correct

A multilingual approach in early education recognizes that children often enter school with a home or mother tongue that differs from the language of instruction. Effective multilingual teaching uses the child’s language as a bridge to learn new concepts and additional languages, supporting comprehension and cognitive development.

Key Points

  • The core principle is welcoming the child’s language and using it to build understanding.
  • By valuing the mother tongue, teachers help children feel confident, relate new knowledge to prior experiences, and gradually develop proficiency in additional languages. This approach promotes meaningful learning, reduces cognitive overload, and strengthens both language and conceptual skills.

Hint

  • Teaching only in the national language ignores the child’s linguistic background and can hinder learning.
  • Prioritising grammar over communication limits meaningful interaction and comprehension.
  • Replacing the mother tongue with the target language too quickly can confuse or alienate the child, impeding understanding.

Hence, the correct answer is Welcoming the child’s language and using it to build understanding.

Question 200

A 'subject' in school differs from a 'discipline' because it is ___________.

  1. AOption (a)

    a philosophical field 

  2. BOption (b)

    more deeply systematic

  3. COption (c)

    a classroom-taught branch of a discipline 

  4. DOption (d)

    an external research domain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a classroom-taught branch of a discipline 

Why this answer is correct

In education, the terms subject and discipline are related but distinct. A discipline is a broad, systematic, and research-oriented field of knowledge, while a subject refers to the portion of that discipline that is taught in schools.

Key Points

  • A subject in school differs from a discipline because it is a classroom-taught branch of a discipline.
  • For example, Biology is a discipline, and “Botany” or “Human Anatomy” may be taught as subjects in school. The subject is structured for teaching and learning, often simplified and aligned with learners’ cognitive levels, whereas the discipline is broader and more research-focused.

Hint

  • A philosophical field may describe a discipline like Philosophy, but not all subjects are philosophical.
  • “More deeply systematic” describes a discipline rather than a school subject.
  • An external research domain also refers to disciplines, which are outside the classroom context.

Hence, the correct answer is a classroom-taught branch of a discipline.

200 questions in the full paper