DSSSB TGT (Natural Science) Official Paper (Held On: 07 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given :  

‘TOUR’ -‘8745’ 

‘OURS’ - ‘4567’

Code for S is 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given Equation :  4 A 6 C 3 B 12 D 2 = ?

‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stands for ‘−’, ‘C’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘÷’

 ⇒ 4 + 6 × 3 - 12 ÷ 2 = 

⇒ 4 + 6 × 3 - 6 = 

⇒ 4 + 18 - 6 = 

⇒ 16.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Family Chart:

As per the given information, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The pattern followed here is

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given :   (Left) 549 671 518 426 471 (Right)

Required Conditions: Resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of the second lowest number

third digit of the highest number  = 671

second digit of the second lowest number = 471

7 + 1 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given:  Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre

Olive is sitting to the immediate right of Rian. 

Patty is an immediate neighbour of both Quinn and Olive

• Quinn is sitting second to the left of Marc.
• Patty is an immediate neighbour of both Quinn and Olive

The Final Arrangement is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given: 

Statement:

Despite a substantial rise in the public health campaign budget, smoking-related illnesses in Country U remain unchanged.

Explanation:

• Reason I explains why illnesses remain unchanged: even if adults reduced smoking due to campaigns, a rise in young smokers would offset the health gains.
• Reason II also explains it: cheap black-market cigarettes can sustain or increase smoking despite awareness campaigns
• Correct answer: Both I and II explain the statement.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Seven boxes, C, D, E, F, G, H and Y, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order

Only E is kept below H

Only three boxes are kept between Y and H.

G is kept at one of the places above Y

• Only three boxes are kept between Y and H.
• Only three boxes are kept above F.
• Only one box is kept between G and C, where G is kept above C

The Final Arrangement is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given:  10 – 154 × 11 + 116 ÷ 36 = ? 

• means –, – means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +

⇒10 – 154 × 11 + 116 ÷ 36 = ? 

⇒ 10 × 154 ÷ 11 - 116 + 36 

⇒ 10 × 14 - 116 + 36 

⇒ 140 + 36 - 116

⇒ 176 - 116

⇒ 60.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Logic : 

First number x Second Number = 2 x Third Number

6 - 2 - 24

6 x 2 = 12 x 2

4 - 6 - 48

4 x 6 = 24 x 2

Similarly

14 - 1 - 28 

14 x 1 = 2 x 14

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given: Raju  ranked 16^th from the top and 55^th from the bottom in his class. 

Raju  rank from the top = 11^th

Raju  rank from the bottom = 61^th 

Total number of students = rank from the top + rank from the bottom - 1

= 61 + 11 - 1 → 71

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I) Some mirrors are not tickets. - True (Some mirror are eggs . Some mirrors are not tickets is True)

(II) Some figs are not eggs.  - True (All ticket is Fig.Some Figs are ticket. Hence Some figs are not eggs is True)

Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given : (Left) 657 127 937 492 376 (Right)

 third digit of the second highest number = 657

 first digit of the lowest number = 127

7 x 1 = 7.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Pranav is standing to the west of Bony, who is standing to the south of Mohit.

The Final Diagram, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The correct answer is ethanol.

Key Points

• Fermentation is a metabolic process where sugars such as glucose are converted into cellular energy and produce ethanol and carbon dioxide as by-products.
• Yeasts, particularly species like Saccharomyces cerevisiae, are commonly used in the fermentation of sugar to produce ethanol, as they can metabolize sugars anaerobically.
• The process of fermentation typically involves glycolysis, where glucose is broken down into pyruvate, and then converted into ethanol and CO₂ under anaerobic conditions.
• Ethanol, commonly referred to as alcohol, is widely used in alcoholic beverages, as a solvent, and as a biofuel.
• This process is vital in industries like brewing, winemaking, and biofuel production, where ethanol serves as the primary end product.

Additional Information

• Citric Acid
• Citric acid is a weak organic acid that occurs naturally in citrus fruits like lemons and oranges.
• It is primarily produced industrially through the fermentation of sugars by the mold Aspergillus niger, not by yeast fermentation.
• It is widely used in the food and beverage industry as a flavoring agent and preservative, as well as in cleaning products and cosmetics.
• Lactic Acid
• Lactic acid is produced through lactic acid fermentation by certain bacteria, such as Lactobacillus, and not yeast.
• This process occurs in the production of fermented foods like yogurt, cheese, and sauerkraut.
• It is also produced in human muscles during intense exercise, when oxygen levels are low, leading to muscle fatigue.
• Ethanoic Acid (Acetic Acid)
• Ethanoic acid, commonly known as acetic acid, is the main component of vinegar.
• It is produced through the fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria, such as Acetobacter.
• It is widely used in the food industry, as well as in the production of synthetic fibers, plastics, and other industrial materials.

The correct answer is Facilitating savings and investments.

Key Points

• Financial institutions play a critical role in the economy by facilitating savings and investments.
• They act as intermediaries between savers and borrowers, ensuring that surplus funds from individuals and organizations are allocated effectively to where they are needed most.
• These institutions provide various financial products and services, such as savings accounts, fixed deposits, loans, and investment instruments, to support economic growth and personal financial planning.
• Examples of financial institutions include commercial banks, credit unions, insurance companies, investment banks, and mutual funds.
• By providing capital to businesses and individuals, financial institutions promote economic stability and development.

Additional Information

• Manufacturing automobiles
• Automobile manufacturing involves the production of vehicles such as cars, trucks, and motorcycles.
• This process includes the design, development, and assembly of automotive parts to create fully functional vehicles.
• It is an industrial activity and is not related to the functions of financial institutions.
• Providing electricity services
• Electricity services are provided by power generation and distribution companies.
• This includes the generation, transmission, and distribution of electricity to homes, businesses, and industries.
• This function is entirely unrelated to the operations of financial institutions.
• Managing transportation logistics
• Transportation logistics involves the planning, implementation, and management of the movement of goods and services from one location to another.
• It is typically handled by logistics companies, supply chain managers, and transportation firms, not financial institutions.

The correct answer is 2.1 × 10^-5.

Key Points

• Scientific notation is a method of expressing very large or very small numbers in the form of a × 10ⁿ, where a is a number between 1 and 10, and n is an integer.
• The given number is 0.000021, which is a very small number.
• To express it in scientific notation, move the decimal point 5 places to the right, making the number 2.1.
• Since the decimal point was moved to the right, the exponent of 10 becomes -5.
• Hence, 0.000021 in scientific notation is expressed as 2.1 × 10^-5.

Additional Information

• Scientific Notation:
• Scientific notation is widely used in mathematics, science, and engineering to handle very large or small numbers conveniently.
• The coefficient (a) must always be between 1 and 10.
• The exponent (n) indicates how many places the decimal point has been moved to convert the number to scientific notation.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• The Palaeolithic Age is the earliest phase of the Stone Age, marked by the use of stone tools. Evidence of these tools has been found in Rajasthan, India.
• The river Luni, which flows through Rajasthan, is an important archaeological site for the discovery of Palaeolithic tools.
• Sites along the Luni River, such as Didwana and Singi Talav, have yielded numerous stone tools made by early humans.
• The tools discovered include hand axes, cleavers, and scrapers, which provide insight into the life and survival strategies of prehistoric humans.
• Rajasthan’s arid climate has helped preserve these tools, making it an essential region for understanding the Palaeolithic era in India.

Additional Information

• West Bengal:
• West Bengal is primarily known for its Neolithic and Chalcolithic sites rather than Palaeolithic ones.
• Sites such as Pandu Rajar Dhibi and Mangalkot have provided evidence of early human settlement in this region.
• The tools and pottery found here indicate advanced agricultural practices and early settlements rather than the use of basic stone tools.
• Kashmir:
• Kashmir has evidence of Neolithic settlements, particularly in places like Burzahom and Gufkral.
• These sites are significant for their pit dwellings and tools made of bone and stone.
• While Palaeolithic tools are not prominently found here, the region has contributed valuable insights into the Neolithic period in South Asia.
• Manipur:
• Manipur is known for its archaeological evidence from the Neolithic and later periods, rather than the Palaeolithic era.
• Stone tools, pottery, and evidence of ancient settlement have been discovered in places like Nongpok Keithelmanbi.
• The region’s archaeological findings primarily highlight its cultural and historical significance rather than Palaeolithic tools.

The correct answer is (Change in total cost)/(Change in output).

Key Points

• Short Run Marginal Cost (SRMC) refers to the additional cost incurred to produce one more unit of output in the short run.
• The formula for SRMC is: Change in Total Cost (ΔTC) / Change in Output (ΔQ).
• In the short run, some factors of production are fixed, and SRMC reflects only the variable costs associated with increasing production.
• SRMC is a critical concept in economics for determining the optimal production level and price setting for firms in competitive markets.
• It helps firms analyze the cost-effectiveness of scaling production in response to demand changes in the short term.

Additional Information

• (Total output) / (Total cost)
• This formula represents average cost (AC), not marginal cost.
• Average cost is calculated by dividing the total cost by the total quantity of output produced.
• AC is useful in understanding the cost per unit of production but does not capture the change in cost due to an additional unit of output.
• Short-Run Marginal Cost in Economic Theory
• In the short run, at least one input (e.g., capital or land) is fixed, and only variable inputs (e.g., labor or raw materials) can be adjusted.
• The SRMC curve typically has a U-shape due to the law of diminishing marginal returns. Initially, SRMC decreases as output increases but eventually rises as additional units of output become more costly to produce.
• Understanding SRMC is crucial for firms to decide whether to increase or decrease production and for profit maximization.

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

• The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme was introduced through an amendment to the Citizenship Act, 1955, in the year 2005.
• The scheme was launched to provide eligible foreign nationals of Indian origin with certain benefits that are on par with Indian citizens, excluding voting rights and the ability to hold public office.
• OCI cardholders enjoy a lifelong visa-free travel to India and are exempt from the need to register with the Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO) for any length of stay in India.
• The scheme was introduced to meet the demands of the Indian diaspora, particularly those who had taken citizenship in other countries but wanted to maintain close ties with India.
• The OCI Scheme is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, and is considered a major step in strengthening India’s relationship with its diaspora.

Additional Information

• 2011
• In 2011, there were discussions on merging the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) and the Person of Indian Origin (PIO) cards to simplify the process for the Indian diaspora. However, the actual merger took place in 2015, not 2011.
• The year 2011 is also significant for the launch of India’s National Population Register (NPR), which aimed at identifying residents and citizens for better governance.
• 2019
• In 2019, the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) was introduced to provide citizenship to persecuted religious minorities from neighboring countries such as Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan. This act, however, does not pertain to the OCI Scheme.
• The CAA amended provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955, but the focus was on granting citizenship rather than the rights of overseas Indians.

The correct answer is Meghalaya.

Key Points

• Khasi, Pnar (a dialect of Khasi), and Garo are the three major languages spoken by the people of Meghalaya.
• The state recognizes Khasi, Pnar, and Garo as its official languages in addition to English, which is the official working language of the state.
• English is widely used in administration, education, and official communication in Meghalaya.
• Khasi and Garo are Austroasiatic and Tibeto-Burman languages respectively, representing the diverse linguistic heritage of the state.
• Meghalaya was carved out as a separate state from Assam in 1972, and since then, these languages have been officially recognized to reflect the cultural diversity of the region.

Additional Information

• Arunachal Pradesh:
• The official language of Arunachal Pradesh is English.
• However, the state is home to numerous tribal languages, including Adi, Nyishi, Apatani, and Monpa.
• These languages belong to the Tibeto-Burman family, reflecting the cultural diversity of the state.
• Nagaland:
• English is the official language of Nagaland.
• However, Nagamese, a creole language based on Assamese, is widely used as a lingua franca among the diverse Naga tribes.
• Each Naga tribe has its own language, with over 15 major languages and numerous dialects spoken in the state.
• Sikkim:
• The official languages of Sikkim include English, Nepali, Sikkimese (Bhutia), and Lepcha.
• Additional regional languages such as Limbu, Sherpa, Rai, and Gurung are also spoken by various ethnic groups in the state.
• Sikkim is known for its rich linguistic diversity owing to its multi-ethnic population.

The correct answer is The responsibility of conducting the Decadal Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India..

Key Points

• The Census of India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• The Census is conducted every 10 years (decadal census), with the first comprehensive Census conducted in 1881.
• The Registrar General and Census Commissioner oversee the planning, execution, and publication of Census operations across the country.
• The Census provides crucial data on population demographics, literacy, employment, housing, and other socioeconomic indicators, forming the basis for policy formulation and resource allocation.
• India's Census is one of the largest administrative exercises in the world, covering over 1.3 billion people.

Additional Information

• The Census Act, 1948:
• The Census Act was enacted in 1948 (not 1950) to provide the legal framework for conducting the Census in India.
• The Act defines the duties and responsibilities of Census officers and ensures confidentiality of the data collected.
• The Census Act prohibits the disclosure of individual information collected during Census operations.
• The First Synchronous Census:
• The first synchronous Census in India was conducted in 1881 under British rule. Before that, Census efforts were non-synchronous and localized.
• The 1870 Census mentioned in the question was not a comprehensive or synchronous Census; it was a preliminary exercise in some regions.
• The Census of 1881 marked the beginning of systematic, nationwide population enumeration in India.

The correct answer is 1969.

Key Points

• The Kerala Official Language (Legislation) Act of 1969 was enacted to promote the use of Malayalam and English as the official languages of Kerala.
• The Act was part of a broader effort to establish Malayalam as the primary language for administrative, legislative, and judicial purposes within the state.
• Under this legislation, Malayalam became the language of communication in government offices, public services, and legislative assemblies, alongside English for certain official purposes.
• This legislation reinforced Kerala’s cultural identity, ensuring that Malayalam, the native language of the majority population, retained its significance in governance and administration.

Additional Information

• The Kerala Official Language (Legislation) Act, 1969, highlights the importance of preserving linguistic diversity in India.
• It serves as an example of how regional languages can coexist with English for effective governance.
• The Act ensures that the native language of Kerala, Malayalam, remains central to its administrative and cultural identity.
• The Act aligned with the provisions of Article 345 of the Indian Constitution, which allows states to adopt their own official languages.

The correct answer is 47.

Key Points

• As per the Constitution of India, seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in proportion to their population in the Lok Sabha.
• In the 17^th Lok Sabha (2019-2024), there are 47 seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs) across various states and Union Territories.
• The reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) is ensured under Article 330 of the Indian Constitution.
• The distribution of reserved seats for STs is based on the population of STs in states and Union Territories as per the latest census.
• The reservation is part of India's affirmative action policies to ensure representation for marginalized and underrepresented communities in the Parliament.

Additional Information

• Constitutional Provision for Reservation
• Article 330 of the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
• The reservation is reviewed every ten years based on the population figures of the latest census.
• This provision aims to ensure adequate representation of marginalized communities in the Parliament to safeguard their interests and promote inclusive governance.

The correct answer is extend credit to small and marginal farmers.

Key Points

• The Kalinga Kisan Silver Card is specifically designed to provide credit facilities to small and marginal farmers.
• It aims to support agricultural activities, including the purchase of seeds, fertilizers, tools, and other necessary inputs for farming.
• The card is issued to eligible farmers who meet specific criteria such as land ownership and agricultural involvement.
• This initiative plays a crucial role in empowering farmers by offering easy access to institutional credit, reducing dependency on informal lenders.
• By providing financial assistance, the card contributes to the overall development and sustainability of small-scale farming practices in rural areas.

Additional Information

• Kalinga Kisan Silver Card
• The card is an innovative financial tool aimed at supporting small and marginal farmers in Odisha and other regions.
• It addresses challenges like limited access to formal credit, high-interest rates from informal lenders, and lack of resources for farming activities.
• By encouraging institutional credit, this initiative strengthens the agricultural sector and rural economy.

The correct answer is 10^th.

Key Points

• India was ranked 10^th in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2025, maintaining its consistent position among the top-performing countries.
• The CCPI evaluates countries based on their performance in four key categories: GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use, and Climate Policy.
• India has been recognized for its ambitious policies and efforts toward renewable energy transition and energy efficiency initiatives.
• The CCPI rankings are compiled annually by Germanwatch, the NewClimate Institute, and the Climate Action Network, considering data from the past year.
• India’s position reflects its global commitment to achieving Net Zero emissions by 2070, as announced at the COP26 Summit.

Additional Information

• Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) Overview:
• The CCPI is a trusted tool to compare and analyze the climate performance of 63 countries and the European Union, responsible for 90% of global emissions.
• The index aims to increase transparency in international climate politics and highlight countries leading or lagging in climate action.
• Rankings are based on quantitative indicators (such as emissions data and renewable energy shares) and qualitative assessments (such as expert evaluations of climate policies).
• India’s consistent ranking in the top tier reflects its active role in global climate negotiations and domestic policy reforms.

The correct answer is war and external aggression.

Key Points

• Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees six fundamental rights related to freedom, including the right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.
• However, these rights can be suspended during a National Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution on grounds of war or external aggression.
• During such emergencies, the government is empowered to impose restrictions on these freedoms to ensure national security and public order.
• The 44^th Amendment Act of 1978 removed "internal disturbances" as a ground for proclaiming a National Emergency, replacing it with "armed rebellion."
• The suspension of Article 19 rights is permitted only when the emergency is declared due to war or external aggression and not for internal reasons.

Additional Information

• Internal Disturbances
• Previously, the term "internal disturbances" was a valid ground for declaring a National Emergency.
• However, the 44^th Amendment Act (1978) replaced it with "armed rebellion" to prevent misuse of emergency powers.
• Internal disturbances are now dealt with under Article 355, which empowers the Union to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbances.
• National Emergency and Fundamental Rights
• National Emergency is declared under Article 352 to safeguard the sovereignty, security, and integrity of India.
• It can be proclaimed on three grounds: war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• The enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Articles 19, 20, and 21 is subject to restrictions during such emergencies.
• The 44^th Amendment Act introduced safeguards to prevent the misuse of emergency provisions.

The correct answer is Colin Mackenzie.

Key Points

• Colin Mackenzie, a Scottish engineer and antiquarian, discovered the ruins of Hampi in the year 1800.
• He was the first Surveyor General of India (appointed in 1815) and is known for his extensive surveys and documentation of historical sites in India.
• He is credited with conducting the first detailed survey of the Vijayanagara ruins, which were once the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• The site of Hampi is a UNESCO World Heritage Site today, and its discovery by Colin Mackenzie played a crucial role in preserving its history and cultural significance.
• Mackenzie collected manuscripts, inscriptions, and drawings, contributing significantly to the study of Indian history and architecture.

Additional Information

• Henry Hardinge:
• Henry Hardinge was the Governor-General of India from 1844 to 1848.
• He is best known for his role during the First Anglo-Sikh War (1845-1846).
• He implemented various reforms in the military and administration during his tenure but had no connection to the discovery of Hampi.
• Joseph Noel Paton:
• Joseph Noel Paton was a renowned Scottish artist and illustrator.
• He is famous for his paintings that depict themes from literature, mythology, and fantasy.
• Paton had no involvement in the discovery or exploration of Hampi.
• Francis Grant:
• Francis Grant was a Scottish portrait painter and became the President of the Royal Academy in 1866.
• His works mostly focused on capturing the likeness of British aristocracy and royalty.
• Grant did not contribute to the exploration or historical documentation of Indian sites like Hampi.
• Hampi:
• Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, one of the largest and most prosperous Indian empires in history.
• The site is known for its stunning temples, intricate carvings, and rich cultural heritage.
• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1986 and continues to be a major tourist and research destination.

The correct answer is State and UT performance on 113 indicators aligned with the National Indicator Framework.

Key Points

• The SDG India Index is a comprehensive index that tracks the progress of Indian States and Union Territories towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• The 2023-2024 edition of the SDG India Index tracks the performance of States and UTs on 113 indicators, which are aligned with the National Indicator Framework (NIF).
• The indicators cover a wide range of social, economic, and environmental parameters, reflecting the 17 global SDGs set by the United Nations.
• Developed by NITI Aayog, the index serves as a tool to monitor and encourage progress and promote competition among States and UTs towards achieving the SDGs.
• The SDG India Index provides insights on areas requiring improvement and helps policymakers align state-level initiatives with national and global development goals.

Additional Information

• National GDP Growth:
• GDP (Gross Domestic Product) measures the economic performance of a country and is a critical indicator of national economic health.
• While GDP is an important metric, it is not part of the SDG India Index as the index focuses on sustainable development goals rather than purely economic measures.
• However, GDP growth indirectly impacts several SDG indicators, such as poverty alleviation and economic opportunities.
• National Literacy Rate:
• The literacy rate measures the percentage of people aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding.
• Although literacy is a crucial factor for human development and closely linked to SDG 4 (Quality Education), it is not a standalone focus of the SDG India Index.
• The SDG India Index evaluates a broader range of indicators related to education, such as school enrollment and quality of learning outcomes.

The correct answer is 1968.

Key Points

• The Telugu Akademi was established in the year 1968 by the Government of Andhra Pradesh.
• Its primary aim was to promote and develop the Telugu language and literature across various domains.
• The Akademi has been instrumental in publishing textbooks, reference books, and other educational materials in Telugu, catering to schools, colleges, and universities.
• It also focuses on preserving the cultural and linguistic heritage of Telugu-speaking communities.
• The Telugu Akademi operates as an autonomous institution under the guidance of the Andhra Pradesh government.

Additional Information

• About the Telugu Akademi
• The Telugu Akademi plays a crucial role in translating technical and scientific terms into Telugu, ensuring accessibility for native speakers.
• It conducts workshops, seminars, and training programs to promote the Telugu language.
• In addition to creating educational resources, it also undertakes research projects related to Telugu literature and linguistics.

The correct answer is ICRISAT and ICAR.

Key Points

• The AI-based Agromet Advisory Service (Agromet) was launched by the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
• This service aims to provide precise weather and climate-related advisories to farmers, helping them make informed decisions to optimize crop yield and reduce risks.
• Agromet leverages artificial intelligence (AI) and advanced data analytics to process weather data, soil conditions, and other agricultural parameters.
• The platform provides customized advisories for specific crops, regions, and seasons, significantly improving the accuracy of weather forecasts and actionable insights for farmers.
• It is considered a significant initiative to support climate-resilient agriculture and address the challenges posed by climate change on farming practices.

Additional Information

• UNICEF and ICRISAT:
• UNICEF (United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund) focuses on child welfare and development across the globe.
• ICRISAT (International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics) is a non-profit agricultural research organization aimed at improving the livelihoods of people in arid and semi-arid regions.
• Though UNICEF and ICRISAT have collaborated on projects related to nutrition and child development, they are not associated with launching the Agromet Advisory Service.
• NASA and ICRISAT:
• NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) primarily focuses on space exploration and Earth science missions.
• While NASA provides satellite data used in agricultural research, it has not collaborated with ICRISAT for the Agromet Advisory Service.
• QpiAI and ICRISAT:
• QpiAI is a technology company that specializes in AI, quantum computing, and machine learning solutions.
• Although QpiAI works in the field of artificial intelligence, it has not partnered with ICRISAT for the launch of the Agromet Advisory Service.

The correct answer is Indigo cultivation was practiced mainly in two forms, the Nij-abad and the Ryoti..

Key Points

• Indigo cultivation in colonial India was primarily carried out in two forms – the Nij-abad system and the Ryoti system.
• In the Nij-abad system, planters directly controlled the land and employed laborers to cultivate indigo.
• In the Ryoti system, peasants (ryots) were forced to cultivate indigo on a portion of their land under highly exploitative contracts with European planters.
• The Ryoti system was more prevalent as it required less investment from the planters and allowed them to exploit local farmers.
• The oppressive practices in both systems, especially in the Ryoti system, were a key factor behind the Indigo Revolt of 1859-60, also known as the Neel Bidroha.

Additional Information

• The Indigo Revolt (Neel Bidroha)
• The Indigo Revolt was a significant event in the history of Indian peasant movements, taking place in Bengal in 1859-60.
• It highlighted the exploitative practices of European indigo planters, who forced peasants to grow indigo instead of food crops.
• The revolt was marked by widespread resistance, including boycotts of indigo cultivation and legal battles against the planters.
• The movement eventually forced the British government to appoint the Indigo Commission in 1860 to investigate the grievances of the peasants, leading to the decline of indigo cultivation in Bengal.

The correct answer is first.

Key Points

• India holds the first position in worldwide production of jaggery, as confirmed by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
• India accounts for approximately 60% to 70% of the total global production of jaggery.
• The country produces an estimated 7 million tonnes of jaggery annually, contributing significantly to the global supply.
• Jaggery is primarily produced in states such as Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, with Uttar Pradesh being the largest producer.
• The production of jaggery in India is mainly derived from sugarcane, and it is a traditional sweetener widely used in Indian cuisine and Ayurvedic medicine.

Additional Information

• Jaggery Production in India
• Jaggery, also known as "gur," is an unrefined natural sweetener made from sugarcane juice or palm sap.
• It is traditionally used in Indian households for cooking, sweetening beverages, and making confectioneries.
• Jaggery contains essential minerals like iron, magnesium, and potassium, making it a healthier alternative to refined sugar.
• The process of jaggery production involves boiling sugarcane juice and then cooling and solidifying it into molds.
• Jaggery is also an important export commodity for India, contributing to the economy and rural livelihoods.

The correct answer is The Assam Himalayas.

Key Points

• The Assam Himalayas are part of the Eastern Himalayas and lie between the Tista and Dihang rivers.
• This section of the Himalayas traverses the states of Arunachal Pradesh and parts of Assam in India.
• The rivers Tista and Dihang mark the western and eastern boundaries of this region, respectively.
• It is characterized by dense forests, high rainfall, and rich biodiversity, including species like the red panda and snow leopard.
• These ranges are geologically young and seismically active due to tectonic movements.

Additional Information

• The Kumaun Himalayas
• They stretch from the Satluj River in the west to the Kali River in the east, covering the Uttarakhand region.
• This section includes important peaks such as Nanda Devi and Trishul.
• The Kumaun Himalayas are known for their scenic beauty, pilgrimage sites, and rich biodiversity.
• The Outer Himalayas
• Also known as the Shivalik Hills, these are the youngest and southernmost range of the Himalayas.
• They extend from the Indus River in the west to the Brahmaputra River in the east.
• These hills are composed of unconsolidated sediments and are prone to landslides and erosion.
• The Arunachal Himalayas
• These are a part of the Eastern Himalayas and extend from the Bhutan border to the Dihang River in Arunachal Pradesh.
• The region is known for its dense forests and is home to several tribal communities.
• Important passes such as Bomdila and Se La are located in this range.

Given:

Pipe A can fill the cistern alone in 22 hours.

Pipe B can fill the cistern alone in 28 hours.

Formula Used:

Work per hour = Total work / Time taken

LCM method for combined work.

Calculation:

⇒ Total work = LCM of 22 and 28 = 308 units.

⇒ Work rate of Pipe A = 308 / 22 = 14 units/hour.

⇒ Work rate of Pipe B = 308 / 28 = 11 units/hour.

⇒ Combined work rate = 14 + 11 = 25 units/hour.

⇒ Time taken to fill half of the cistern = (Half of total work) / Combined work rate.

⇒ Time taken = (308 / 2) / 25 = 154 / 25 = 6.16 hours.

⇒ Time taken = 64256425

hours.

∴ The correct answer is 64256425

hours.

Given:

Marks obtained by B = 50

Marks obtained by A = 75

Formula Used:

Percentage of B's marks that were A's marks = (A's marks / B's marks) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage of B's marks that were A's marks = (75 / 50) × 100

⇒ Percentage of B's marks that were A's marks = 1.5 × 100

⇒ Percentage of B's marks that were A's marks = 150%

∴ The correct answer is 150%.

Given:

82, 11, 21, 84, 14, 21, 65, 18 and 35

Formula Used:

Arithmetic Mean = (Sum of observations) / (Number of observations)

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of observations = 82 + 11 + 21 + 84 + 14 + 21 + 65 + 18 + 35

⇒ Sum = 351

⇒ Number of observations = 9

⇒ Arithmetic Mean = 351 / 9

⇒ Arithmetic Mean = 39

∴ The correct answer is 39.

Given:

Radii of spheres = 7 cm, 14 cm, 21 cm

Height of cylinder = 21 cm

π=227π=227

Formula Used:

Volume of a sphere = 43πr343πr3

Volume of a cylinder = πr2hπr2h

Total surface area of a cylinder = 2πr(r+h)2πr(r+h)

Calculation:

⇒ Volume of spheres = Volume of cylinder

⇒ 43π(73+143+213)=πr2×2143π(73+143+213)=πr2×21

⇒ 43π(343+2744+9261)=πr2×2143π(343+2744+9261)=πr2×21

⇒ 43π×12348=πr2×2143π×12348=πr2×21

⇒ r2=43×1234821r2=43×1234821

⇒ r2=4939263=784r2=4939263=784

⇒ r=784−−−√=28cmr=784=28cm

Total surface area of the cylinder:

⇒ 2πr(r+h)2πr(r+h)

⇒ 2×227×28×(28+21)2×227×28×(28+21)

⇒ 2×227×28×492×227×28×49

⇒ 2×22×4×492×22×4×49

⇒ 17248cm217248cm2

∴ The correct answer is 8624.

Given:

35% of a number = 18 more than 20% of the number

Formula Used:

Percentage formula: (Percentage × Number) / 100

35% of Number - 20% of Number = 18

Calculation:

⇒ (35 × Number) / 100 - (20 × Number) / 100 = 18

⇒ [(35 - 20) × Number] / 100 = 18

⇒ (15 × Number) / 100 = 18

⇒ Number = (18 × 100) / 15

⇒ Number = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Solution:

First, express each term in prime factor form.

1) 4³ × 7² × 14

4 = 2², so 4³ = 2⁶

14 = 2 × 7

Therefore:

4³ × 7² × 14 = 2⁶ × 7² × 2 × 7 = 2⁷ × 7³

2) 4² × 14² × 16

4² = 2⁴

14² = (2 × 7)² = 2² × 7²

16 = 2⁴

Therefore:

4² × 14² × 16 = 2⁴ × 2² × 7² × 2⁴ = 2¹⁰ × 7²

3) 7³ × 14² × 16²

14² = 2² × 7²

16² = 2⁸

Therefore:

7³ × 14² × 16² = 7³ × 2² × 7² × 2⁸ = 2¹⁰ × 7⁵

Finding the LCM:

Take the highest power of each prime factor:

Highest power of 2 = 2¹⁰

Highest power of 7 = 7⁵

LCM = 2¹⁰ × 7⁵

Given:

Income in 2019 = ₹25,600

Annual increment = 30%

Year to calculate income = 2021

Formula Used:

Income in a future year = Income in base year × (1 + Increment Rate)^{Number of Years}

Calculation:

⇒ Increment Rate = 30% = 30/100 = 0.3

⇒ Number of Years from 2019 to 2021 = 2021 - 2019 = 2

⇒ Income in 2021 = ₹25,600 × (1 + 0.3)²

⇒ Income in 2021 = ₹25,600 × (1.3)²

⇒ Income in 2021 = ₹25,600 × 1.69

⇒ Income in 2021 = ₹43,264

∴ The correct answer is ₹43,264.

Given:

Diagonal 1 = 66 cm

Diagonal 2 = 36 cm

Formula Used:

Area of rhombus = (Diagonal 1 × Diagonal 2) / 2

Calculation:

⇒ Area = (66 × 36) / 2

⇒ Area = 2376 / 2

⇒ Area = 1188 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 1188.

Given:

8989

979979

52845284

28732873

Formula Used:

Compare fractions by converting them to decimal values.

Calculation:

⇒ 8989

= 0.8888...

⇒ 979979

= 0.1139...

⇒ 52845284

= 0.6190...

⇒ 28732873

= 0.3835...

∴ The correct answer is 8989

.

Given:

Selling price of the first article = ₹6,000

Profit on the first article = 20%

Selling price of the second article = ₹6,000

Loss on the second article = 25%

Formula Used:

Cost price = Selling price × 100 / (100 ± Profit or Loss %)

Total loss % = (Total loss / Total cost price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Cost price of the first article = 6,000 × 100 / (100 + 20)

⇒ Cost price of the first article = 6,000 × 100 / 120

⇒ Cost price of the first article = ₹5,000

⇒ Cost price of the second article = 6,000 × 100 / (100 - 25)

⇒ Cost price of the second article = 6,000 × 100 / 75

⇒ Cost price of the second article = ₹8,000

⇒ Total cost price = 5,000 + 8,000

⇒ Total cost price = ₹13,000

⇒ Total selling price = 6,000 + 6,000

⇒ Total selling price = ₹12,000

⇒ Total loss = Total cost price - Total selling price

⇒ Total loss = 13,000 - 12,000

⇒ Total loss = ₹1,000

⇒ Total loss % = (Total loss / Total cost price) × 100

⇒ Total loss % = (1,000 / 13,000) × 100

⇒ Total loss % ≈ 7.69%

∴ The correct answer is 7.69.

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹748

Selling Price (SP) = ₹215

Formula Used:

Discount = MP - SP

Discount Percentage = (Discount / MP) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount = 748 - 215

⇒ Discount = 533

⇒ Discount Percentage = (533 / 748) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = 71.26%

∴ The correct answer is 71.26%.

Given:

Length ratio of train A to train B = 3 : 4

Speed of train A = 54 km/hr = 54 × (1000/3600) m/s = 15 m/s

Speed of train B = 72 km/hr = 72 × (1000/3600) m/s = 20 m/s

Time to cross each other = 10 seconds

Length of tunnel = 450 m

Formula Used:

Total length of trains = (Speed of A + Speed of B) × Time

Time taken to cross the tunnel = (Length of train A + Length of tunnel) / Speed of train A

Calculation:

⇒ Total length of trains = (15 + 20) × 10

⇒ Total length of trains = 35 × 10 = 350 m

⇒ Let length of train A = 3x and length of train B = 4x

⇒ 3x + 4x = 350

⇒ 7x = 350

⇒ x = 50

⇒ Length of train A = 3x = 3 × 50 = 150 m

⇒ Length of train B = 4x = 4 × 50 = 200 m

Time taken to cross the tunnel = (Length of train A + Length of tunnel) / Speed of train A

⇒ Time = (150 + 450) / 15

⇒ Time = 600 / 15

⇒ Time = 40 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Given:

Total investment = ₹50,000

Ravi invests ₹4,000 more than Kishan

Kishan invests ₹5,000 more than Surya

Total profit = ₹1,35,000

Formula Used:

Profit share is proportional to the investment.

Total investment = Ravi's investment + Kishan's investment + Surya's investment

Profit share = (Individual investment / Total investment) × Total profit

Calculation:

Let Surya's investment = ₹x

⇒ Kishan's investment = x + 5,000

⇒ Ravi's investment = (x + 5,000) + 4,000 = x + 9,000

⇒ Total investment = x + (x + 5,000) + (x + 9,000)

⇒ Total investment = 3x + 14,000

According to the question, total investment = ₹50,000

⇒ 3x + 14,000 = 50,000

⇒ 3x = 50,000 - 14,000

⇒ 3x = 36,000

⇒ x = 36,000 / 3

⇒ x = ₹12,000

⇒ Surya's investment = ₹12,000

⇒ Kishan's investment = 12,000 + 5,000 = ₹17,000

⇒ Ravi's investment = 17,000 + 4,000 = ₹21,000

Profit share ratio = Ravi's investment : Kishan's investment : Surya's investment

⇒ Profit share ratio = 21,000 : 17,000 : 12,000

⇒ Profit share ratio = 21 : 17 : 12

Total ratio = 21 + 17 + 12 = 50

Ravi's profit share = (Ravi's ratio / Total ratio) × Total profit

⇒ Ravi's profit share = (21 / 50) × 1,35,000

⇒ Ravi's profit share = 2,83,500 / 50

⇒ Ravi's profit share = ₹56,700

∴ The correct answer is ₹56,700.

Given:

R purchased the laptop for ₹1,516.

Q sold the laptop to R at a profit of 25%.

P sold the laptop to Q at a loss of 20%.

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 + Profit%)

Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 - Loss%)

Calculation:

Let the cost price for Q be ₹x.

⇒ Selling Price for Q = Cost Price for Q × (1 + 25/100)

⇒ ₹1,516 = x × (1 + 0.25)

⇒ ₹1,516 = x × 1.25

⇒ x = ₹1,516 / 1.25

⇒ x = ₹1,212.80

Now, let the cost price for P be ₹y.

⇒ Selling Price for P = Cost Price for P × (1 - 20/100)

⇒ ₹1,212.80 = y × (1 - 0.20)

⇒ ₹1,212.80 = y × 0.80

⇒ y = ₹1,212.80 / 0.80

⇒ y = ₹1,516

∴ The correct answer is 1516.

Given:

Speed = 240 km/hr

Time = 5 hours

New time = 1²/₃ hours = 5/3 hours

Formula used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculations:

Distance = 240 × 5 = 1200 km

Required speed = 1200 ÷ (5/3)

⇒ Required speed = 1200 × 3 ÷ 5

⇒ Required speed = 720 km/hr

∴ The required speed is 720 km/hr.

Solution:

The given bar graph shows the production (in thousands) of cookies, ice cream, and chocolate by four companies P, Q, R and S.

Step 1: Note the approximate values from the graph

Company P:

Cookies = 4, Ice Cream = 2, Chocolate = 6

Company Q:

Cookies = 2, Ice Cream = 4, Chocolate = 4

Company R:

Cookies = 6, Ice Cream = 2, Chocolate = 6

Company S:

Cookies = 4, Ice Cream = 2, Chocolate = 4

Step 2: Find total production

Total cookies:

4 + 2 + 6 + 4 = 16

Total ice cream:

2 + 4 + 2 + 2 = 10

Total chocolate:

6 + 4 + 6 + 4 = 20

Total ice cream and chocolate combined:

10 + 20 = 30

Step 3: Calculate the required percentage

Percentage = (Total cookies / Total ice cream and chocolate) × 100

= (16 / 30) × 100

≈ 53%

Final Answer:

The total production of cookies is approximately 53% of the total production of ice cream and chocolate.

Given:

Prakash can complete the work in 15 days.

Vinesh can complete the work in 16 days.

They work together for 5 days.

Formula Used:

Work done in 1 day = 1 / Total days to complete the work.

LCM method to calculate total work.

Remaining work = Total work - Work completed.

Time to complete remaining work = Remaining work / Work done in 1 day.

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 15 and 16 = 240 (Total work).

⇒ Prakash's 1-day work = 240 / 15 = 16.

⇒ Vinesh's 1-day work = 240 / 16 = 15.

⇒ Combined 1-day work = 16 + 15 = 31.

⇒ Work completed in 5 days = 31 × 5 = 155.

⇒ Remaining work = 240 - 155 = 85.

⇒ Time taken by Prakash to complete remaining work = 85 / 16 = 55165516

days.

∴ The correct answer is 55165516

.

Solution:

A number is divisible by 82 if it is divisible by both 2 and 41, since:

82 = 2 × 41

Step 1: Check divisibility by 2

A number divisible by 2 must be an even number.

• 958915 → odd ❌
• 958893 → odd ❌
• 953688 → even ✔
• 956612 → even ✔

Only 953688 and 956612 remain.

Step 2: Check divisibility by 41

953688 ÷ 41 = 23260.68 (not an integer) ❌

956612 ÷ 41 = 23332 (an integer) ✔

Step 3: Final verification

956612 ÷ 82 = 11666 (exact division)

Final Answer:

956612 is divisible by 82.

Given:

Profit percentage (original) = 28%

Increase in cost price = ₹75

Decrease in selling price = ₹70

Profit percentage (new) = 26.4%

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit

Profit = (Profit percentage × Cost Price) / 100

Calculation:

Let the original cost price be ₹x.

Profit (original) = (28 × x) / 100 = 0.28x

Original selling price = x + 0.28x = 1.28x

New cost price = x + 75

New profit percentage = 26.4%

Profit (new) = (26.4 × (x + 75)) / 100 = 0.264(x + 75)

New selling price = (x + 75) + 0.264(x + 75) = 1.264(x + 75)

Also, new selling price = original selling price - 70

⇒ 1.264(x + 75) = 1.28x - 70

⇒ 1.264x + 94.8 = 1.28x - 70

⇒ 94.8 + 70 = 1.28x - 1.264x

⇒ 164.8 = 0.016x

⇒ x = 164.8 / 0.016

⇒ x = 10,300

∴ The correct answer is 10,300.

Given:

Mean proportion of 9 and A = 45

Formula Used:

Mean proportion = √(First number × Second number)

Calculation:

⇒ Mean proportion = √(9 × A)

⇒ 45 = √(9 × A)

⇒ 45² = 9 × A

⇒ 2025 = 9 × A

⇒ A = 2025 / 9

⇒ A = 225

∴ The correct answer is 225.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Begginning'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Beginning'.
• The word 'Beginning' is a noun which means 'the point in time or space at which something starts'. (आरंभ)
• For Example -
• The beginning of the movie was quite intriguing.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Begginning'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Necessary - required to be done, achieved, or present; essential (आवश्यक)
• Location - a particular place or position (स्थान)
• Irrelevant - not connected with or relevant to something (अप्रासंगिक)

The correct answer is: Option 4 (Certain).

Key Points

• The word "dubious" means feeling doubt, uncertainty, or hesitation about something. (संदिग्ध)
• Example: She was dubious about whether the plan would succeed.
• "Certain" refers to being sure or confident about something without any doubt. (निश्चित)
• Example: She was certain that she had locked the door before leaving the house.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'dubious' is 'certain'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (Certain).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Indifferent (उदासीन): Showing no interest or concern about something.
• Example: He was indifferent to the results of the competition.
• Interested (रुचि रखने वाला): Showing curiosity or enthusiasm about something.
• Example: She was genuinely interested in learning about different cultures.
• Skeptical (संदेहपूर्ण): Being doubtful or questioning the authenticity or truth of something.
• Example: He was skeptical about the effectiveness of the new policy.

The correct answer is: Ecologist.

Key Points

• The word "Ecologist" refers to a scientist who studies the relationships between organisms and their environment. (पारिस्थितिकी वैज्ञानिक)
• Example: The ecologist conducted extensive research on the impact of deforestation on local wildlife.
• Ecology is the branch of biology dealing with the relations and interactions between organisms and their surroundings. (पारिस्थितिकी)
• Example: A deeper understanding of ecology helps in creating strategies to protect endangered species.
• Hence, the correct one-word substitute for the given phrase is "Ecologist."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Ecologist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Meteorologist (मौसम वैज्ञानिक): A scientist who studies the atmosphere and forecasts weather.
• Example: The meteorologist predicted heavy rains for the weekend.
• Astronomer (खगोल वैज्ञानिक): A scientist who studies celestial bodies like stars, planets, and galaxies.
• Example: The astronomer discovered a new comet in the night sky.
• Geologist (भूवैज्ञानिक): A scientist who studies the Earth's physical structure and substances, including rocks and minerals.
• Example: The geologist examined the rock formations to determine their age.

The correct answer is: Option 3, i.e., "Getting to the point."

Key Points

• The idiom "Cut to the chase" means to get directly to the main point or matter, skipping unnecessary details. (मुख्य बात पर आना)
• Example: During the meeting, he decided to cut to the chase and address the main issue directly.
• "Getting to the point" refers to focusing on the essential part of a conversation or task without wasting time on unrelated matters. (मुद्दे पर आना)
• Example: Instead of giving a lengthy explanation, she got to the point and clarified her stance.
• Hence, the idiom "Cut to the chase" aligns perfectly with the meaning "Getting to the point."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Slowing down (धीमा करना): Refers to reducing speed or taking things at a slower pace.
• Example: He decided to slow down his work schedule to avoid burnout.
• Option 2: Speaking too much (बहुत अधिक बोलना): Refers to talking excessively or without purpose.
• Example: During the conference, one of the attendees kept speaking too much, delaying the agenda.
• Option 4: Avoiding confrontation (मुठभेड़ से बचना): Refers to steering clear of arguments or conflicts.
• Example: She avoided confrontation by choosing to remain silent during the heated discussion.

The correct answer is 'more'.

Key Points

• The word "more" is used when comparing two items or options.
• The sentence compares the feasibility of two solutions, making "more" the correct choice.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "Of the two solutions you presented, which do you think is more feasible?"

Additional Information

• Option 1: "quite" is incorrect because it does not fit the comparative context.
• Option 2: "most" is incorrect because it is used for comparisons involving three or more items.
• Option 4: "much" is incorrect because it does not convey a comparison.

The correct answer is 'Bildungsroman'.

Key Points

• The term "Bildungsroman" refers to a literary genre focusing on the moral, psychological, and emotional development of the protagonist from youth to adulthood.
• This genre often highlights personal growth, self-discovery, and the challenges faced during the transition into adulthood.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Additional Information

• The other options do not fit the description:
• Allegory: A story or work with a symbolic meaning, often representing abstract ideas.
• Parable: A simple story used to illustrate a moral or spiritual lesson.
• Satire: A genre used to criticize or mock human vices or societal issues through humor, irony, or ridicule.

The correct answer is: Aversion.

Key Points

• The word "predilection" refers to a strong liking or preference for something. (पसंद)
• Example: He has a predilection for classical music and spends hours listening to it.
• "Aversion" means a strong dislike or disinclination towards something. (घृणा)
• Example: She has a strong aversion to eating spicy food because it upsets her stomach.
• Hence, the antonym of 'predilection' is 'aversion'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Aversion.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Penchant (रुझान): A strong or habitual liking for something or tendency to do something.
• Example: He has a penchant for collecting rare coins.
• Remorse (पछतावा): A deep regret or guilt for a wrong committed.
• Example: She felt deep remorse for forgetting her best friend's birthday.
• Competence (क्षमता): The ability to do something successfully or efficiently.
• Example: His competence as a software engineer made him a valuable asset to the company.

The correct answer is **Option 1**.

**Key Points**

- The paragraph begins by introducing the research process and builds logically to the conclusion.
- **Sentence C is the first sentence** as it starts with the initiation of the research:
- "Pioneering research was initiated to explore the anomaly in quantum fluctuations."
- **Sentence D follows** as it discusses the confirmation of the anomaly through experiments:
- "After extensive experiments, researchers confirmed the anomaly's consistency."
- **Sentence B is the third sentence** because it explains the broader implications of the research:
- "The implications of this research are vast, impacting various scientific fields."
- **Sentence A is the fourth** as it concludes the paragraph with the support garnered by the theory:
- "Consequently, the theory proposed has garnered considerable support."
- The correct sequence is **CDBA**.

**Coherent paragraph after rearrangement**:

"Pioneering research was initiated to explore the anomaly in quantum fluctuations. After extensive experiments, researchers confirmed the anomaly's consistency. The implications of this research are vast, impacting various scientific fields. Consequently, the theory proposed has garnered considerable support."

Here is the solution to the question in the given HTML format:

The correct answer is **Option 4**.

**Key Points**

- The paragraph discusses automation and its benefits in modern industries.
- **Sentence Q is the first sentence** as it introduces the concept of automation:
- "Automation has become an integral part of modern industries."
- **Sentence S follows** as it discusses companies investing in automation to enhance productivity:
- "Companies worldwide are investing heavily in robotic systems to enhance productivity."
- **Sentence R is the third sentence** as it details how automation streamlines processes and reduces human intervention:
- "It helps in streamlining complex processes and minimising human intervention."
- **Sentence P is the fourth** as it concludes the paragraph by highlighting the benefits of automation:
- "This not only improves efficiency but also reduces operational costs."
- The correct sequence is **Q-S-R-P**.

**Coherent paragraph after rearrangement**:

"Automation has become an integral part of modern industries. Companies worldwide are investing heavily in robotic systems to enhance productivity. It helps in streamlining complex processes and minimising human intervention. This not only improves efficiency but also reduces operational costs."

The correct answer is 'ashamed'.

Key Points

• The word "ashamed" means feeling embarrassed or guilty due to one's actions or behavior. (शर्मिंदा)
• In the given sentence, the child felt guilty for telling a lie to his parents, which justifies the use of the word "ashamed."
• The other options: "hilarious," "delighted," and "exhausted" do not fit the context appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: The child felt ashamed after telling a lie to his parents.

Additional Information

• Hilarious (अत्यधिक मजेदार): means extremely funny or amusing.
• Delighted (आनंदित): means feeling or showing great happiness.
• Exhausted (थका हुआ): means feeling very tired or drained.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. "At a loss to know how to proceed".

Key Points

• The idiom "At one's wits' end" means being completely confused or perplexed, not knowing what to do next. (अपनी बुद्धि से बाहर होना)
• Example: After trying everything to fix the leaking pipe, he was at his wits' end.
• The correct meaning of "At a loss to know how to proceed" aligns with the meaning of the idiom, which implies being confused and unsure of what steps to take next. (आगे क्या करना है यह समझ न पाना)
• Example: She was at a loss to know how to proceed after her proposal got rejected.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1 - Being calm and relaxed (शांत और आरामदायक होना): Refers to a state of peace and relaxation, not related to the idiom.
• Example: After a long vacation, she felt calm and relaxed.
• Option 3 - Having too many options (बहुत सारे विकल्प होना): Refers to a situation where one has an abundance of choices, which is unrelated to the idiom.
• Example: He felt overwhelmed having too many options to choose from in the restaurant.
• Option 4 - Being completely overjoyed (पूरी तरह से खुश होना): Refers to a state of extreme happiness, which does not connect to the idiom.
• Example: She was completely overjoyed to see her family after years.

The correct answer is 'inspiring'.

Key Points

• The word "inspiring" means causing someone to feel motivated or encouraged. (प्रेरणादायक)
• The sentence "Vikram gave an inspiring speech" indicates that Vikram's speech was motivational and encouraging.
• The other options: "inspirated," "inspire," and "inspiration" are grammatically incorrect or do not fit the context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Vikram gave an inspiring speech.

Additional Information

• Inspirated: Incorrect word; does not exist in standard English vocabulary.
• Inspire: A verb; does not fit the sentence which requires an adjective.
• Inspiration: A noun; does not fit the sentence which requires an adjective.

The correct answer is 'the, the'.

Key Points

• The definite article "the" is used to refer to something specific or previously mentioned.
• In this sentence, "the changes" refers to specific changes that were discussed.
• Similarly, "the organization" refers to a particular organization being discussed.
• Option 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not use the correct combination of articles required for the sentence to be grammatically accurate.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "They discussed the changes needed in the organization."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "a, the" is incorrect because "a" does not refer to specific changes.
• Option 3: "no article, a" is incorrect because omitting the article before "changes" and using "a" before "organization" leads to grammatical inconsistency.
• Option 4: "the, a" is incorrect because "a organization" is grammatically incorrect (it should be "an organization").

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• The definite article "the" is used before "wheat" to specify the particular wheat of Haryana being discussed.
• The definite article "the" is also used before "country" as it refers to a specific country, i.e., India.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because they either omit required articles or use articles incorrectly.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "The wheat of Haryana is exported all over the country."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The ; No article required" is incorrect because "the country" requires the definite article "the."
• Option 2: "No article required ; the" is incorrect because "wheat" requires the definite article "the."
• Option 3: "A ; the" is incorrect because "wheat" is not being referred to in a general sense, but rather specifically.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'epidemology'.

• The correct spelling would be 'epidemiology'.
• The word 'epidemiology' is a noun which means 'the branch of medicine which deals with the incidence, distribution, and control of diseases'. (रोग-विज्ञान)
• For Example -
• The study of epidemiology helps in understanding the spread of infectious diseases.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'epidemology'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words -

• Determinants - factors which decisively affect the nature or outcome of something (निर्धारक)
• Biostatistics - the branch of statistics related to medical and biological data (जीव-सांख्यिकी)
• Equity - the quality of being fair and impartial (न्याय)

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The passage clearly mentions that carbohydrates are the body's primary energy source.
• They fuel daily activities and support proper brain function.
• Proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals serve other important roles but are not the primary energy source.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

• Proteins help in tissue growth, repair and maintenance.
• Vitamins support biochemical processes but do not provide energy.
• Fats act as long-term energy storage but are not the primary energy source.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that fats are essential for energy storage, insulation, and protecting vital organs.
• Although fats have a negative reputation, they play crucial roles in maintaining overall health.
• Option 3 correctly reflects the functions of fats mentioned in the passage.
• Other options do not match the information provided: fats are not non-essential, not the primary energy source (carbohydrates are), and they are not mainly for muscle growth.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Option 1: They are non-essential – Incorrect, as fats are essential.
• Option 2: They are primary energy food – Incorrect; carbohydrates serve as the primary energy source.
• Option 4: They help in muscle growth – Incorrect; proteins serve this function.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that lack of iron causes anaemia.
• Anaemia is characterised by fatigue and weakness due to insufficient healthy red blood cells.
• Iron is essential for the formation of haemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood.
• Other nutrients like Vitamin C, Vitamin D and calcium do not cause anaemia when deficient.

Therefore, the correct answer is iron.

Additional Information

• Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets or osteomalacia.
• Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy.
• Calcium deficiency affects bone strength.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The passage states that fibre is found in fruits, vegetables and whole grains.
• It clearly mentions that fibre aids in digestion and helps prevent constipation and other digestive issues.
• Therefore, the option that best matches the passage is "Aids digestion".
• Other options like blood flow, preventing injury, or sustaining nutrients do not relate to fibre’s role as described.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

• Fibre improves bowel movement and supports gut health.
• A fibre-rich diet lowers the risk of constipation and digestive disorders.
• Soluble fibre also helps regulate blood sugar and cholesterol, but its primary role remains digestion.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that maintaining a balanced diet helps prevent chronic diseases such as heart disease, diabetes and obesity.
• It also emphasizes consuming a variety of nutrient-rich foods and limiting processed foods, sugars and unhealthy fats.
• Option 3: “By intake of nutrient-rich food” directly matches the preventive approach described in the passage.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 contradict the passage, as dehydration, lack of exercise and processed foods negatively affect health.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Additional Information

• Drinking limited water leads to dehydration, which can cause kidney stones and infections.
• Avoiding physical exercise goes against the passage, which highlights exercise as essential for overall well-being.
• Eating processed food increases the risk of chronic diseases, as stated in the passage.

सही उत्तर "राजस्‍व" है। अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प असंगत हैं। 

Key Points

• राजस्‍व- 'वह धन जो आधिकारिक रूप से राज्य को मिलता हो'।
• अन्‍य व‍िकल्‍प सही उत्तर नहीं हैं।

Important Points 

Additional Information 

सही उत्तर है- भारत के गाव

Important Points

• वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते है

Additional Informationवर्तनी संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

सही उत्तर है- कचरा

Key Points

• कूड़े का अर्थ- कचरा

Important Points

• पर्यायवाची शब्द - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

Additional Informationकुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द:-

सही उत्तर है - “द्रविभूत”।

• अशुद्ध वाक्य:- उसकी आपबीती सुनकर मैं द्रविभूत हो गया।
• शुद्ध वाक्य:- उसकी आपबीती सुनकर मैं द्रवीभूत हो गया।

Key Points

• ‘उसकी करुण कहानी सुनकर मैं द्रविभूत हो गया' वाक्य में ‘मैं द्रविभूत’ शब्द में वर्तनी की अशुद्धि है जो वाक्य अशुद्धि का कारण है।

Additional Information

• अशुद्ध वाक्यों में एक से अधिक विषय और एक से अधिक क्रिया होती है।
• दूसरी ओर, अशुद्ध वाक्यों में त्रुटियाँ या गलतियाँ हो सकती हैं।
• शुद्ध वाक्यों में एक ही विषय और एक क्रिया होती है।
• शुद्ध वाक्य वे हैं जो किसी भी त्रुटि या गलतियों से मुक्त हैं।

Important Points

• वर्तनी वाले शब्द का अर्थ:- भाषा के किसी शब्द को को लिखने में प्रयुक्त वर्णों के सही क्रम को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

भाषा की समस्त ध्वनियोँ को सही तरीके से उच्चारण करने के लिए वर्तनी की एकरुपता स्थापित की जाती है।

सही उत्तर है- के

Key Pointsपूर्ण वाक्य है-

• सुरेश परिवार के साथ पंचमढ़ी घूमने के लिए गया है।

Important Points

सही उत्तर है- हे

Key Pointsपूर्ण वाक्य है-

• हे प्रभु ! मेरी गलती को क्षमा करना।

Important Points