DSSSB TGT (English) Official Paper (Held On: 31 Aug, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is,

22 is related to 57 → 

22 × 2 + 13 = 44 + 13 = 57

24 is related to 61 → 

24 × 2 + 13 = 48 + 13 = 61

Similarly,

26 is related to → 

26 × 2 + 13 = 52 + 13 = 65

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is,

85-120-155-190 → 

85 + 35 = 120

120 + 35 = 155

155 + 35 = 190

72-107-142-177 → 

72 + 35 = 107

107 + 35 = 142

142 + 35 = 177

Now, check the options one by one,

(1) 55-90-125-165 → 

55 + 35 = 90

90 + 35 = 125

125 + 35 = 160 ≠ 165

(2) 91-126-161-196 → 

91 + 35 = 126

126 + 35 = 161

161 + 35 = 196

(3) 76-111-146-191 → 

76 + 35 = 111

111 + 35 = 146

146 + 35 = 181 ≠ 191

(4) 68-103-138-163 → 

68 + 35 = 103

103 + 35 = 138

138 + 35 = 173 ≠ 163

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

(1) EIK

E + 4 = I

I + 2 = K

(2) PTV

P + 4 = T

T + 2 = V

(3) MQS

M + 4 = Q

Q + 2 = S

(4) BFI

B + 4 = F

F + 3 = I

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

According to the given information,

Arnav has to drive 15 - 12 = 2 km to the North to reach point A again.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

'RUST' is coded as '9256' and 'TARS' is coded as '6975'. 

The code for "A" is "7".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Equation: 25 A 5 D 4 B 4 C 16 = ?

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:                                                                         

Now replacing the signs and applying the BODMAS Rule (Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) we get:

⇒ 25 ÷ 5 - 4 × 4 + 16

⇒ 25 ÷ 5 - 4 × 4 + 16

⇒ 5 - 4 × 4 + 16

⇒ 5 - 16 + 16

⇒ -11 + 16

⇒ 5

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2".

Given Expression: A # D & G % K ÷ M

A is sister of D, D is Father of G, G is brother of K and K is wife of M.

A is M's Wife's father's sister.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given Equation: 88 ÷ 240 * 12 + 14 - 6 =

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:                                                                         

Now replacing the signs and applying the BODMAS Rule (Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) we get:

⇒ 88 + 240 ÷  12 - 14 × 6 

⇒ 88 + 20 - 14 × 6 

⇒ 88 + 20 - 84

⇒ 108 - 84

⇒ 24

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Least possible Venn diagram,

Conclusions:

(I) No hen is a candy → Follow (Al Hens are Bins and no Bin is a candy. so, Ho hen is a candy).

(II) Some racks are candies → Does not follow (There is no direct relation given between rack and candy. it is possible not definite).

Only conclusion (1) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Statement I: Deepti had been working extra shifts as a nurse in the hospital since last year and was very efficient with her work. 

It describes Deepti's actions and performance over a period: "working extra shifts" and being "very efficient." This established record of hard work and efficiency provides the justification or reason for a promotion.

Statement II : Deepti is promoted as a head nurse in the hospital by the hospital manager last week.

It describes a consequence or outcome that logically follows good performance: "Deepti is promoted as a head nurse."

Statement I is the cause and statement II is its possible effect.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

GL-IF-MO →

LQ-NK-RT →

Similarly,

(1) OT-QN-UW

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Seven boxes, A, C, D, F, G, I and L, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only one box is kept below F.  2. Only one box is kept above I. 3. G is kept at one of the positions below F. Only C is kept immediately between F and A. 4. Only one box is kept between C and L.

There are 4 boxes kept between D and F

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given numbers : (Left) 569 695 821 858 836 (Right)

Highest number = 858

Lowest number = 569

Second digit of the highest number = 5

First digit of the lowest number = 5

Resultant = 5 + 5 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

26 + (6 × 1) = 26 + 6 = 32

32 + (6 × 2) = 32 + 12 = 44

44 + (6 × 3) = 44 + 18 = 62

62 + (6 × 4) = 62 + 24 = 86

86 + (6 × 5) = 86 + 30 = 116

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Three-digit numbers :  (Left) 259 275 295 257 256 (Right)

Highest number = 295

Lowest number = 256

The third digit of the highest number = 5

The second digit of the lowest number = 5

Resultant = 5 + 5 = 10

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

(1)  KM-OP

(2) NP-RZ

(3) OQ-SA

(4) MO-QY

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Each of Z, X, C, V, B, N and M has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

1. Only B has an exam before Z.  2. Z has an exam immediately before X.  3. No one has an exam after V. 4. N has an exam on one of the days after M and on one of the days before C.

There are three people N, C, V  have exams after M.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. 

1.Only two people sit between D and B, when counted from the right of D.

2. Only two people sit between B and G, when counted from the right of B.
3. Only three people sit between D and E, when counted from the right of D. 
4. F sits to the immediate left of C.

There are 3 people sit between C and G when counted from the left of G.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The correct answer is Unit of labour.

Key Points

• Money serves as a unit of account: It provides a common measure for valuing goods and services, making economic transactions comparable and consistent.
• Money acts as a medium of exchange: It facilitates the buying and selling of goods and services, eliminating the inefficiencies of the barter system.
• Money functions as a store of value: It allows individuals to save and transfer purchasing power over time, maintaining its worth (with exceptions due to inflation).
• Standard of deferred payment: Money enables individuals or businesses to settle debts or obligations in the future, ensuring smooth transactions across time.
• Unit of labour is not a function of money: Labour is a measure of human effort and cannot be equated to the functions of money, which are primarily related to exchange, valuation, and storage.

Additional Information

• Medium of exchange:
• Money eliminates the double coincidence of wants inherent in the barter system.
• It is universally accepted in exchange for goods and services, making trade efficient.
• Examples include cash, digital payments, and bank transfers.
• Standard of deferred payment:
• It facilitates credit transactions by allowing payments to be made in the future.
• Money must retain its value over time to serve this function effectively.
• Examples include loans and installment-based purchases.
• Store of value:
• This function allows individuals to preserve their purchasing power for future use.
• It is effective when money does not lose its value due to inflation or other economic factors.
• Assets like gold, real estate, and bonds also serve as stores of value but differ from money in terms of liquidity.

The correct answer is algae.

Key Points

• Agar is a gelatinous substance derived from certain species of red algae, primarily Gelidium and Gracilaria.
• It is widely used as a solidifying agent in microbiological culture media and as a thickener in food products like jelly, ice cream, and puddings.
• Agar contains two main components: agarose (used in molecular biology) and agaropectin (responsible for its gel-like properties).
• The extraction of agar involves boiling algae in water, followed by filtration and cooling to form a gelatinous substance.
• Agar is non-toxic, biodegradable, and has high compatibility with various applications, making it an essential tool in scientific research, food industries, and cosmetics.

Additional Information

• Aspergillus:
• Aspergillus is a genus of fungi, commonly found in soil and decaying organic matter.
• It is used industrially for the production of enzymes like amylase and citric acid.
• Some species, such as Aspergillus niger, are significant in biotechnology, while others may cause human infections like aspergillosis.
• Agaricus:
• Agaricus refers to a genus of mushrooms, including edible varieties like Agaricus bisporus (commonly known as button mushrooms).
• These mushrooms are rich in nutrients and are widely consumed worldwide.
• They are unrelated to agar production but are vital in food industries for culinary purposes.
• Fungi:
• Fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds, mushrooms, and yeasts.
• They play essential roles in ecosystems as decomposers and are used in industries for fermentation and antibiotic production.
• While fungi are not sources of agar, they are critical in biotechnology and food processing.

The correct answer is Arecaceae family of monocotyledonous flowering plants.

Key Points

• Palm trees belong to the Arecaceae family, also known as Palmae, which is a family of monocotyledonous flowering plants.
• The Arecaceae family includes approximately 2600 species, distributed across tropical and subtropical regions worldwide.
• Palm trees are monocots, meaning their seeds contain only one embryonic leaf or cotyledon, a distinguishing feature of this family.
• They are economically significant plants, providing various resources like coconut, date fruits, betel nuts, palm oil, and sago starch.
• Palms are also known for their unique structural features, including tall, unbranched stems and large, compound leaves arranged in a spiral pattern.

Additional Information

• Fabaceae family of leguminous flowering plants in India
• The Fabaceae family (also known as Leguminosae) is one of the largest families of flowering plants, including legumes, beans, peas, and pulses.
• Plants in this family are characterized by their nitrogen-fixing capability due to the presence of symbiotic bacteria in root nodules.
• It includes economically important crops like soybean, chickpea, lentil, and groundnut.
• The fruit of these plants is typically a legume or pod.
• Moraceae family of tropical flowering plants in India
• The Moraceae family includes tropical and subtropical plants such as figs, mulberries, and breadfruit.
• These plants are known for their latex-producing capability, and their fruits are often multiple or aggregated.
• Ficus species, such as the banyan tree and peepal tree, are prominent members of this family in India.
• Many species in this family hold cultural and religious significance in India.
• Pinaceae family of coniferous evergreen plants in India
• The Pinaceae family consists of coniferous plants such as pines, cedars, firs, and spruces.
• These plants are gymnosperms, meaning they bear naked seeds not enclosed in fruits.
• They are primarily found in temperate regions and are known for their needle-like leaves and woody cones.
• The Pinaceae family is economically important for timber, resin, and essential oils.

The correct answer is 43.59%.

Key Points

• The percentage share of exports of MSME (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises)-related products in India’s total exports for the year 2022-23 was 43.59%.
• This data highlights the significant contribution of MSMEs to India’s export sector, showcasing their pivotal role in bolstering the economy.
• The MSME sector is a major growth driver in India, contributing significantly to GDP, exports, and employment generation.
• The government has implemented various schemes like ‘Make in India’ and ‘Digital MSME’ to facilitate the growth and export potential of MSMEs.
• MSME-related products often include goods such as textiles, leather, engineering products, gems and jewelry, and handicrafts, which are highly in demand globally.

Additional Information

• Importance of MSME Exports
• The MSME sector plays a crucial role in providing employment opportunities and enhancing the country's economic growth.
• India has over 63 million MSMEs, which are instrumental in producing a wide range of products for both domestic and global markets.
• Government schemes such as ‘Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG)’, ‘Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS)’, and ‘MSME Champions’ aim to enhance the competitiveness of the MSME sector.
• MSMEs also play a significant role in promoting inclusive development by empowering rural and semi-urban areas of India.

The correct answer is Chumbi Valley.

Key Points

• Chumbi Valley is a tri-junction between India, Bhutan, and Tibet, located in the eastern Himalayas.
• This valley serves as the strategic route connecting Jelep La and Nathu La passes, facilitating trade and communication between India and Tibet.
• The valley is significant in Indo-Tibetan trade history and has been a crucial transit point since ancient times for silk, spices, and other goods.
• Both Nathu La and Jelep La passes are located near the Chumbi Valley, making it a critical area for geopolitics and trade.
• The valley is flanked by the Dongkya Range and other mountain ranges, which provide natural barriers and contribute to its geographical prominence.

Additional Information

• Damodar Valley
• Located in eastern India, the Damodar Valley spans Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• It is historically known as the "River of Sorrows" due to its flooding history, although it is now managed by the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC).
• The valley is rich in coal reserves and industrial activity, contributing significantly to India's energy production.
• It is not associated with Indo-Tibetan trade routes.
• Ketti Valley
• Ketti Valley is located in Tamil Nadu, India, and is one of the largest valleys in Asia.
• It is renowned for its lush greenery and scenic beauty, attracting tourists and nature enthusiasts.
• The valley is primarily known for its tea plantations and peaceful environment rather than trade routes.
• It has no relation to Indo-Tibetan trade or the passes mentioned in the question.
• Gurez Valley
• Gurez Valley is situated in the northern region of Jammu and Kashmir in India.
• It is famous for its natural beauty, cultural heritage, and the Kishanganga River that flows through it.
• Historically, it was part of the Silk Route connecting Kashmir with Gilgit-Baltistan, but it is not relevant to the Indo-Tibetan trade routes via Jelep La or Nathu La.
• This valley lies far from the eastern Himalayan passes mentioned in the question.

The correct answer is Amartya Sen.

Key Points

• Amartya Sen is the author of the book The Argumentative Indian, which was published in 2005.
• The book is a collection of essays that delve into India's rich cultural history, diversity, and the tradition of public debate and reasoning.
• Amartya Sen, a Nobel laureate in Economics (1998), is renowned for his work in welfare economics, social choice theory, and development economics.
• The book emphasizes the importance of India's argumentative tradition in shaping its democracy and secularism.
• It also explores India's contributions to global culture, science, and intellectual discourse, making it a significant work in understanding the country's heritage.

Additional Information

• Salman Rushdie
• Salman Rushdie is an acclaimed author known for his magical realism and post-colonial literature.
• His most famous work, Midnight's Children, won the Booker Prize in 1981 and the Booker of Bookers in 1993 and 2008.
• Rushdie's writing often explores themes of migration, identity, and cultural conflicts.
• Another notable work, The Satanic Verses, sparked global controversy due to its depiction of Islamic themes.
• Arundhati Roy
• Arundhati Roy is an Indian author and activist best known for her debut novel The God of Small Things, which won the Man Booker Prize in 1997.
• She is also recognized for her socio-political essays and activism, particularly on issues such as environmental conservation, human rights, and India's political landscape.
• Other notable works include Capitalism: A Ghost Story and The Ministry of Utmost Happiness.
• Jhumpa Lahiri
• Jhumpa Lahiri is an Indian-American author known for her works focusing on the immigrant experience and cultural identity.
• Her debut collection of short stories, Interpreter of Maladies, won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000.
• Lahiri's other notable works include The Namesake, which was adapted into a film, and Unaccustomed Earth.
• She has also explored themes of language and translation in her later works, such as In Other Words.

The correct answer is Bihar.

Key Points

• Bihar has a higher proportion of multi-dimensionally poor population compared to other states, as per the latest Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report released by NITI Aayog and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• The MPI measures poverty based on multiple indicators such as health, education, and standard of living, rather than income alone.
• Approximately 51.91% of Bihar’s population is categorized as multidimensionally poor, which is the highest among all Indian states.
• Key contributing factors to multidimensional poverty in Bihar include poor access to healthcare, low literacy rates, inadequate sanitation facilities, and lack of basic infrastructure.
• Efforts to combat poverty in Bihar include various government schemes such as Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Housing for All) and Ayushman Bharat for health coverage.

Additional Information

• Kerala:
• Kerala has the lowest proportion of multidimensionally poor population in India, with only 0.71% of its population falling into this category.
• Key factors contributing to Kerala’s low poverty rate include high literacy levels, better healthcare facilities, and effective implementation of social welfare programs.
• Kerala’s Human Development Index (HDI) is one of the highest in India due to its focus on education, gender equality, and healthcare.
• Gujarat:
• In Gujarat, approximately 16.50% of the population is categorized as multidimensionally poor.
• Despite being one of India’s economically advanced states, challenges such as rural poverty, lack of healthcare access in remote areas, and uneven development persist.
• The Gujarat government has implemented schemes like Garib Kalyan Mela and Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana to uplift marginalized communities.
• Maharashtra:
• Maharashtra has around 9.83% of its population classified as multidimensionally poor.
• Being one of India’s industrial hubs, Maharashtra has relatively better infrastructure, but urban poverty and rural underdevelopment remain key challenges.
• Government initiatives such as the Shiv Bhojan scheme and Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aim to reduce poverty in the state.

The correct answer is Hyderabad.

Key Points

• Sri Thyagaraja Government College of Music and Dance was established in 1952 by the erstwhile government of united Andhra Pradesh.
• The college is located in Hyderabad, the capital city of Telangana, which was part of united Andhra Pradesh at the time of establishment.
• This institution was founded with the aim of propagating and preserving Indian classical music and dance forms, including Carnatic music and Kuchipudi dance.
• Named after Saint Thyagaraja, a renowned Carnatic music composer, the college serves as a hub for learning and promoting traditional art forms of India.
• It is one of the oldest and most prestigious institutions in South India for music and dance education.

Additional Information

• Vizianagaram:
• Vizianagaram is a town in Andhra Pradesh known for its cultural heritage and contributions to classical music.
• It is the birthplace of several prominent musicians, including Dwaram Venkataswamy Naidu, a renowned violinist.
• While Vizianagaram holds cultural significance, the Sri Thyagaraja Government College of Music and Dance is not located here.
• Kakinada:
• Kakinada is an important port city in Andhra Pradesh, known for its industrial and trade activities.
• Though Kakinada has a growing cultural presence, it is not home to the Sri Thyagaraja Government College of Music and Dance.
• Visakhapatnam:
• Visakhapatnam, also known as Vizag, is a major city in Andhra Pradesh and an emerging cultural hub.
• While Visakhapatnam has institutions promoting art and culture, the Sri Thyagaraja Government College of Music and Dance is not situated in this city.

The correct answer is 1084.

Key Points

• As per Census 2011, Kerala had the highest sex ratio among all Indian states, with 1084 females per 1000 males.
• The sex ratio is a key demographic indicator that measures the number of females per 1000 males in the population.
• Kerala consistently ranks as the state with the highest sex ratio in India due to factors such as high literacy rates, better healthcare systems, and a progressive socio-cultural environment.
• The state's high female literacy rate of 92.07% (as per Census 2011) contributes significantly to gender empowerment and equality.
• Kerala's focus on maternal and child healthcare initiatives, as well as its strong implementation of gender-sensitive policies, has positively impacted its sex ratio.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio in India:
• The sex ratio is a critical demographic parameter that reflects the gender balance in a population.
• In India, cultural, social, and economic factors have historically contributed to a skewed sex ratio favoring males.
• Efforts to improve sex ratios include stronger enforcement of laws prohibiting sex-selective abortions, gender sensitization programs, and investments in female education and healthcare.

The correct answer is Michael O’Dwyer – to avenge his role in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Key Points

• Udham Singh assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, the former Lieutenant Governor of Punjab, on 13 March 1940, at Caxton Hall, London.
• Michael O’Dwyer had approved General Dyer’s actions during the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 1919, where hundreds of unarmed Indians were killed during a peaceful protest.
• Udham Singh considered the massacre a grave injustice and held O’Dwyer responsible for his support and justification of the massacre.
• This act of assassination was motivated by revenge and to symbolize the fight against British colonial oppression in India.
• Udham Singh was later arrested and executed on 31 July 1940, becoming a martyr in India’s struggle for independence.

Additional Information

• Lord Zetland, Secretary of State for India:
• Lord Zetland was a British politician who served as the Secretary of State for India from 1935 to 1940.
• While he was associated with colonial policies, he had no direct involvement in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
• He was not targeted by Udham Singh, as his role did not align with Singh’s motivations for revenge.
• Jack Gibson:
• Jack Gibson was a British officer but had no connection to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre or British colonial atrocities in India.
• This option is factually incorrect in the context of Udham Singh’s assassination of Michael O’Dwyer.
• Charles Innes, former Viceroy of India:
• Charles Innes served as a British administrator and held various colonial positions in India.
• He was not directly involved in events like the Jallianwala Bagh massacre or any specific policies that led to Udham Singh’s act of assassination.
• This option is unrelated to the reasons behind Udham Singh’s actions.

The correct answer is polarisation of light.

Key Points

• Light waves are transverse in nature, meaning the oscillations of electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
• Polarisation is the phenomenon that arises due to the transverse nature of light, where the oscillations of electric fields are restricted to a single plane.
• It helps distinguish between transverse waves (e.g., light waves) and longitudinal waves (e.g., sound waves).
• The phenomenon of polarisation can be achieved using polarising filters, crystals like calcite, or scattering of light in the atmosphere.
• Applications of polarisation include glare reduction in sunglasses, stress analysis in materials, and enhancing contrast in optical instruments.

Additional Information

• Convergent Nature of Light:
• Convergence refers to the phenomenon where light rays come together to meet at a point.
• This occurs in lenses like convex lenses, which focus light rays to form an image.
• It is unrelated to the transverse nature of light but is significant in optics and imaging systems.
• Reflection of Light:
• Reflection is the bouncing back of light rays when they hit a surface.
• This phenomenon follows the laws of reflection, where the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection.
• Reflection occurs in mirrors and other reflective surfaces and is not directly related to the transverse nature of light.
• Divergent Nature of Light:
• Divergence refers to the phenomenon where light rays spread out from a point.
• This occurs in concave lenses or when light sources emit light in multiple directions.
• It is unrelated to the transverse nature of light but is important in understanding light behavior in optical systems.

The correct answer is 1969.

Key Points

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was formed on 15 August 1969 by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, who is considered the father of the Indian space program.
• ISRO was established to harness space technology for national development and to conduct space science research.
• It replaced the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), which was set up in 1962 under the Department of Atomic Energy.
• The administrative control of ISRO was brought under the Department of Space, which was formed in 1972.
• ISRO launched its first satellite, Aryabhata, in 1975, marking a significant milestone in India's space exploration journey.

Additional Information

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
• ISRO has grown into one of the world's leading space organizations, with numerous achievements, including the Chandrayaan missions and the Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan).
• It is known for developing cost-effective satellite launch systems, such as the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
• ISRO's vision is to harness space technology for sustainable development and address societal needs in areas such as communication, navigation, and earth observation.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Bori and Moregaon are prominent Lower Palaeolithic archaeological sites located in Maharashtra, India.
• The Bori site is known for the discovery of stone tools and has provided evidence of early human habitation dating back approximately 1.4 million years.
• Moregaon, another Lower Palaeolithic site, has yielded significant artifacts such as stone tools, scrapers, and cores, which highlight early human technological advancements.
• Maharashtra is a region rich in prehistoric archaeological evidence, showcasing human evolution and cultural progression over millennia.
• The presence of these sites has helped researchers understand the spread of early humans and the development of tool-making techniques in the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu:
• Tamil Nadu is known for its rich archaeological heritage, including Upper and Middle Palaeolithic sites such as Attirampakkam.
• Attirampakkam is considered one of the oldest sites in India, with evidence of human habitation dating back over 385,000 years.
• The state also boasts Neolithic and Megalithic sites, showcasing advanced agricultural and burial practices.
• Haryana:
• Haryana is home to numerous Harappan (Indus Valley Civilization) sites, such as Rakhigarhi and Banawali.
• Rakhigarhi is one of the largest Harappan sites in India, with evidence of advanced urban planning and early settlements.
• While Haryana has a rich archaeological record, it is not associated with Lower Palaeolithic sites like Bori and Moregaon.
• Gujarat:
• Gujarat is famous for its association with the Indus Valley Civilization, including sites like Lothal and Dholavira.
• Lothal is known for its dockyard, showcasing advanced engineering and maritime trade during the Harappan era.
• Although Gujarat has significant archaeological relevance, it does not feature Lower Palaeolithic sites like those found in Maharashtra.
• Lower Palaeolithic Period:
• The Lower Palaeolithic period marks the earliest phase of the Stone Age, characterized by crude stone tools and early human habitation.
• Sites from this period in India provide insights into early human technology, subsistence patterns, and adaptation to environmental changes.
• The study of Lower Palaeolithic sites like Bori and Moregaon helps reconstruct the evolutionary history of humans in the Indian subcontinent.

The correct answer is Daman and Diu.

Key Points

• The Administrator of Dadra and Nagar Haveli also serves concurrently as the Administrator of Daman and Diu.
• In 2020, the two Union Territories, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, were merged into one Union Territory called Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
• The merger was made effective through the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Act, 2019.
• The Administrator is appointed by the President of India and functions as the executive head of the Union Territory under the guidance of the central government.
• The merger aimed to streamline administrative processes and improve governance by reducing duplication of work across the two territories.

Additional Information

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands
• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group of islands located in the Bay of Bengal.
• It has a separate Lieutenant Governor and is not administratively connected to Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
• It is the first Union Territory in India to form a tri-services command, known as the Andaman and Nicobar Command, which combines the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
• Puducherry
• Puducherry (formerly known as Pondicherry) is a Union Territory with a unique status of partial statehood.
• It has its own elected Legislative Assembly and Chief Minister, unlike Dadra and Nagar Haveli or Daman and Diu.
• Puducherry comprises four districts: Puducherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam, which are geographically separate.
• Lakshadweep
• It is an archipelago consisting of 36 islands located in the Arabian Sea.
• Lakshadweep is governed by an Administrator appointed by the President of India and is not connected administratively to Dadra and Nagar Haveli or Daman and Diu.
• It is the smallest Union Territory of India in terms of population and area.
• Union Territories
• Union Territories (UTs) are regions governed directly by the Central Government of India.
• Unlike states, UTs do not have the same degree of autonomy and are administered by a centrally appointed Administrator or Lieutenant Governor.
• As of 2023, India has eight Union Territories: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep, Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.

The correct answer is Dr. Chandra Sekhar Pemmasani.

Key Points

• Dr. Chandra Sekhar Pemmasani is not a Cabinet Minister in the Government of India.
• He is the founder and CEO of the US-based platform MedAchievers, which connects healthcare professionals and institutions worldwide.
• He is associated with healthcare and entrepreneurship, not with Indian politics or the government cabinet.
• The question specifically asks about Cabinet Ministers, and Dr. Chandra Sekhar Pemmasani has no such association with the Indian Cabinet.

Additional Information

• HD Kumaraswamy
• HD Kumaraswamy is a senior Indian politician and a member of the Janata Dal (Secular) party.
• He served as the Chief Minister of Karnataka twice, first from 2006 to 2007 and then from 2018 to 2019.
• Although he is a prominent politician, he is not a current Cabinet Minister in the Indian Government.
• Shivraj Singh Chouhan
• Shivraj Singh Chouhan is a senior leader of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and the current Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh.
• He has served as the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh multiple times, with his most recent term beginning in March 2020.
• While he holds a significant state-level leadership position, he is not part of the Union Cabinet of India.
• Sarbananda Sonowal
• Sarbananda Sonowal is a prominent BJP leader and a current Cabinet Minister in the Government of India.
• He holds the portfolios of Ayush and Ports, Shipping, and Waterways in the Union Cabinet.
• Previously, he served as the Chief Minister of Assam from 2016 to 2021.
• Cabinet Minister
• Cabinet Ministers are senior members of the Government of India who head various ministries and departments.
• They are appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• Cabinet Ministers are responsible for implementing government policies and managing their respective ministries effectively.

The correct answer is Small pre-formed plastic pellets used for moulding and extrusion.

Key Points

• Nurdles are tiny, pre-manufactured plastic pellets that serve as the raw material for producing plastic products through moulding and extrusion processes.
• They are typically about the size of a lentil, measuring 2-5 mm in diameter, and are made from different types of plastics such as polyethylene, polypropylene, and polystyrene.
• They are a key component in the plastic supply chain and are transported globally for the production of plastic goods like bottles, containers, and packaging materials.
• Nurdles are a significant environmental concern as they often spill during production or transportation, leading to widespread pollution in marine ecosystems.
• Once in the environment, nurdles are difficult to clean up and can absorb harmful pollutants, posing a threat to wildlife that ingests them, mistaking them for food.

Additional Information

• Compressed wooden pellets used for furniture and panel making
• These are not related to plastics but are made from compressed wood particles or sawdust, used in the manufacturing of furniture and engineered wood products.
• These wooden pellets are eco-friendly and commonly used as a sustainable alternative to solid wood in various applications.
• Tiny recycled glass beads used for road marking and decoration
• These are small glass beads often added to road paints to provide retroreflectivity, improving visibility of road markings at night.
• In decoration, these beads are sometimes used in art and craft projects or for adding a reflective effect to surfaces.
• These beads are unrelated to nurdles, as they are made from recycled glass rather than plastic.
• Natural clay balls shaped for pottery and ceramic production
• These are small, rounded clay balls used in pottery and ceramic-making processes, designed for creating artisanal and functional ceramic items.
• Clay balls are entirely natural and do not contribute to plastic pollution in any form.
• Plastic Pollution from Nurdles
• Nurdles are a major contributor to microplastic pollution in oceans and waterways, causing harm to marine life and ecosystems.
• Efforts are being made globally to address nurdle spills through improved handling practices and containment systems during transportation.
• Organizations like the "Great Nurdle Hunt" work to raise awareness and reduce the environmental impact of nurdles.

The correct answer is Part IVA.

Key Points

• Part IVA of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. It was added by the 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976.
• Article 51A under Part IVA prescribes a list of 11 Fundamental Duties for Indian citizens.
• These duties include respecting the Constitution, promoting harmony, protecting the environment, safeguarding public property, and nurturing the spirit of scientific temper.
• Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts, but they serve as a moral obligation for citizens to uphold national values.
• Originally, there were 10 Fundamental Duties, but the 86^th Amendment Act of 2002 added the 11^th duty, which emphasizes the provision of education to children aged 6 to 14 years.

Additional Information

• Part VB
• This option is incorrect because Part VB does not exist in the Indian Constitution.
• The Constitution of India is divided into 25 parts; the numbering of parts skips VB.
• Some parts, such as Part IVA and Part IXA, were added later through amendments, but there is no Part VB.
• Part IIA
• This option is incorrect because Part IIA does not exist in the Indian Constitution.
• The numbering system of parts in the Constitution does not include Part IIA.
• For accurate reference, Part II of the Constitution deals with Citizenship, including provisions in Articles 5 to 11.
• Part VIB
• This option is incorrect as Part VIB does not exist in the Indian Constitution.
• The Constitution is structured into parts ranging from Part I to Part XXV, with no reference to Part VIB.
• For clarification, Part VI of the Indian Constitution deals with the States, covering Articles 152 to 237.

The correct answer is Someswara I.

Key Points

• Someswara I, also known as Ahavamalla, was one of the prominent rulers of the Western Chalukya dynasty (also referred to as the Kalyani Chalukyas).
• He is credited with shifting the capital of the Chalukyan kingdom from Manyakheta (modern Malkhed in Karnataka) to Kalyani (modern Basavakalyan in Karnataka).
• The shift to Kalyani is believed to have been a strategic move, as the city was more centrally located and better suited for defense and administration.
• Someswara I ruled from 1042–1068 CE and was known for his military campaigns and efforts to expand and consolidate the Chalukyan empire.
• He was also a patron of art, architecture, and literature, contributing significantly to the cultural development of the region during his reign.

Additional Information

• Jayasimha II
• Jayasimha II, also known as Jagadekhamalla, was a Western Chalukya ruler who reigned from 1015–1042 CE.
• He is noted for his military conflicts with the Cholas and the expansion of the Chalukyan empire during his reign.
• Jayasimha II was known for his patronage of scholars and the construction of temples and other architectural marvels.
• However, he did not shift the capital to Kalyani; this was done by his successor Someswara I.
• Vikramaditya VI
• Vikramaditya VI was one of the most celebrated rulers of the Western Chalukya dynasty, reigning from 1076–1126 CE.
• He is remembered for his extensive military campaigns and the establishment of the Vikrama Samvat, a new era starting in 1076 CE.
• Vikramaditya VI was a great patron of art, literature, and architecture, and his rule marked the peak of the Chalukyan empire's power and cultural achievements.
• While he achieved significant feats, the capital was already established at Kalyani by Someswara I before his reign.
• Taila III
• Taila III was one of the last rulers of the Western Chalukya dynasty, ruling during the late 12^th century.
• His reign was marked by the decline of the Chalukyan empire due to invasions by the Hoysalas, Yadavas, and Kalachuris.
• Taila III did not play a significant role in shifting or establishing the capital, as the decline of the dynasty overshadowed his contributions.
• Western Chalukyan Dynasty
• The Western Chalukya dynasty, also known as the Kalyani Chalukyas, ruled large parts of present-day Karnataka and Maharashtra from the 10^th to 12^th centuries.
• The dynasty is renowned for its contributions to Indian art, architecture, and temple construction, particularly in the Vesara style.
• Their rule was characterized by frequent conflicts with the Cholas, Rashtrakutas, and Hoysalas, as well as significant cultural and administrative achievements.

The correct answer is Vibrio pectenicida.

Key Points

• In 2025, scientists identified Vibrio pectenicida as the bacterium responsible for the mass die-off of over 5 billion sunflower sea stars (Pycnopodia helianthoides) since 2013.
• Sunflower sea stars are a vital species in marine ecosystems, playing a significant role in maintaining ecological balance by preying on sea urchins.
• The disease caused by Vibrio pectenicida is referred to as Sea Star Wasting Syndrome (SSWS), which leads to rapid tissue decay and disintegration in affected sea stars.
• Sea Star Wasting Syndrome was first observed in 2013 along the Pacific coasts of North America and resulted in catastrophic declines in sea star populations.
• Understanding the role of Vibrio pectenicida has been crucial in devising strategies for marine conservation and biodiversity protection.

Additional Information

• Vibrio parahaemolyticus
• This bacterium is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses, especially from consuming raw or undercooked seafood such as oysters.
• It is a halophilic (salt-loving) bacterium and thrives in brackish and coastal waters.
• Vibrio parahaemolyticus infections can cause symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal cramps, nausea, and vomiting.
• It is not linked to Sea Star Wasting Syndrome or marine species die-offs.
• Vibrio cholerae
• This bacterium causes cholera, a severe diarrheal disease that can lead to dehydration and death if untreated.
• Cholera outbreaks are primarily associated with poor sanitation and contaminated water supplies.
• Vibrio cholerae is not known to affect marine organisms like sunflower sea stars.
• Vibrio vulnificus
• Vibrio vulnificus is another halophilic bacterium associated with human infections, particularly wound infections and septicemia.
• It is considered one of the most virulent species of Vibrio and thrives in warm coastal waters.
• Vibrio vulnificus poses a risk to humans but is not implicated in the mass mortality of marine species.
• Sea Star Wasting Syndrome
• SSWS is a devastating condition observed in sea stars, causing lesions, loss of limbs, and eventual death due to tissue breakdown.
• Environmental stressors like rising ocean temperatures and pollution have been identified as contributing factors exacerbating the syndrome.
• The discovery of Vibrio pectenicida as the causative agent has provided critical insights into combating the syndrome and conserving marine biodiversity.

The correct answer is 1961.

Key Points

• The Kendriya Hindi Sansthan was established in 1961 under the Ministry of Human Resources Development, now known as the Ministry of Education.
• It is headquartered in Agra, Uttar Pradesh, and serves as a national institute promoting the Hindi language.
• The institution was founded with the aim of encouraging the use and development of Hindi as the official language of India.
• The Kendriya Hindi Sansthan organizes training programs, workshops, and seminars to promote Hindi among students, educators, and professionals.
• It has regional centers in various parts of India, including Delhi, Hyderabad, Guwahati, Shillong, Mysore, and Ahmedabad, to cater to diverse linguistic needs.

Additional Information

• Promotion of Hindi Language
• The Kendriya Hindi Sansthan plays a crucial role in promoting Hindi as a link language and encouraging its development as the official language of India.
• It conducts research, training, and outreach programs aimed at increasing the proficiency of Hindi among learners across the country and abroad.
• The institution also fosters international collaboration to promote Hindi globally.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2,900

Rate of interest (R) = 5% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (2,900 × 5 × 2) / 100

⇒ SI = (2,900 × 10) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹290

∴ The simple interest is ₹290.

Given:

Diagonal 1 (d₁) = 25 cm

Diagonal 2 (d₂) = 6 cm

Formula used:

Area of rhombus = $\dfrac{1}{2} \times d_1 \times d_2$

Calculations:

Area = $\dfrac{1}{2} \times 25 \times 6$

⇒ Area = $\dfrac{150}{2}$ = 75 cm2

∴ The area of the rhombus is 75 cm².

Given:

The value to calculate is:

$\frac{\left(\frac{16}{5}+\frac{17}{8}\text{ of }\frac{8}{5}\right)}{\left(19-\frac{13}{8}\div\frac{5}{8}\right)}$

Formula Used:

Basic arithmetic operations (addition, multiplication, division, subtraction) and simplification of fractions.

Calculation:

$\frac{\left(\frac{16}{5}+\frac{17}{8}\text{ of }\frac{8}{5}\right)}{\left(19-\frac{13}{8}\div\frac{5}{8}\right)}$

⇒ $\frac{\left(\frac{16}{5}+\frac{17}{8}\times\frac{8}{5}\right)}{\left(19-\frac{13}{8}\times\frac{8}{5}\right)}$

⇒ $\frac{\left(\frac{16}{5}+\frac{17}{5}\right)}{\left(19-\frac{13}{5}\right)}$

⇒ $\frac{\left(\frac{33}{5}\right)}{\left(\frac{95 - 13}{5}\right)}$

⇒ ${\left(\frac{33}{82}\right)}$

∴ Option 3 is the correct answer.

Given:

Prime numbers between 60 and 70 = 61, 67

Multiples of 4 between 50 and 61 = 52, 56, 60

Formula used:

Average = Sum of terms ÷ Number of terms

Calculations:

Average of prime numbers = $\dfrac{61 + 67}{2}$

⇒ $\dfrac{128}{2}$ = 64

Average of multiples of 4 = $\dfrac{52 + 56 + 60}{3}$

⇒ $\dfrac{168}{3}$ = 56

Difference = 64 − 56 = 8

∴ The required difference is 8.

Given:

Speed of stream = 5 km/hr

Downstream distance = 84 km

Upstream distance = 56 km

Let speed of boat in still water = x km/hr

Formula used:

Downstream speed = (x + 5)

Upstream speed = (x − 5)

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

Equal time condition:

$\dfrac{84}{x+5} = \dfrac{56}{x-5}$

⇒ 84(x − 5) = 56(x + 5)

⇒ 84x − 420 = 56x + 280

⇒ 84x − 56x = 280 + 420

⇒ 28x = 700

⇒ x = 25 km/hr

Downstream speed = 25 + 5 = 30 km/hr

Upstream speed = 25 − 5 = 20 km/hr

Required time:

Time downstream = $\dfrac{73}{30}$ hr

Time upstream = $\dfrac{74}{20}$ hr

Total time = $\dfrac{73}{30} + \dfrac{74}{20}$ hr.

⇒ Total time = $\dfrac{146 + 222}{60}$ = 368/60 hr = 6 hours 8 minutes

∴ Required time 6 hours 8 minutes.

Given:

Total profit = ₹102,858

Arpit invested $\frac{1}{5}$ of capital for $\frac{1}{5}$ of time

Kirti invested remaining capital for whole time

Formula used:

Profit ∝ Capital × Time

Profit share ratio = (Capital × Time) ratio

Calculations:

Assume total capital = 1 and total time = 1

Arpit’s share = $\frac{1}{5} \times \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{25}$

Kirti’s capital = 1 − $\frac{1}{5}$ = $\frac{4}{5}$

Kirti’s share = $\frac{4}{5} \times 1 = \frac{4}{5}$

Profit ratio (Kirti : Arpit)

⇒ $\frac{4}{5} : \frac{1}{25}$

⇒ 20 : 1

Total parts = 20 + 1 = 21

Kirti’s share = $\frac{20}{21} \times 102858$

⇒ Kirti’s share = ₹97,960

∴ Kirti’s share of the profit is ₹97,960.

Given:

Branch B1 sales in 2022 = 50 (thousand)

Branch B1 sales in 2023 = 30 (thousand)

Branch B3 sales in 2022 = 50 (thousand)

Branch B3 sales in 2023 = 50 (thousand)

Formula used:

Total sales = Sales in 2022 + Sales in 2023

Required ratio = Total sales of B1 : Total sales of B3

Calculations:

Total sales of B1 = 50 + 30 = 80

Total sales of B3 = 50 + 50 = 100

⇒ Required ratio = 80 : 100

⇒ Required ratio = 4 : 5

∴ The ratio of total sales of branch B1 to branch B3 is 4 : 5.

Given:

Discount = 87%

Profit = 104%

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = Listed Price (LP) × (100 − Discount)%

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (100 + Profit)%

Calculations:

Discount = 87% ⇒ SP = 13% of LP

Profit = 104% ⇒ SP = 204% of CP

⇒ 13% of LP = 204% of CP

⇒ $\dfrac{13}{100}$ LP = $\dfrac{204}{100}$ CP

⇒ 13 LP = 204 CP

⇒ CP : LP = 13 : 204

∴ The ratio of Cost Price to Listed Price is 13 : 204.

Given:

Loss incurred by A = 40%

Profit gained by B = 25%

C's purchase price = ₹7,218

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) for A = C's purchase price / [(1 + Profit%) × (1 - Loss%)]

Calculation:

⇒ CP for A = ₹7,218 / [(1 + 25/100) × (1 - 40/100)]

⇒ CP for A = ₹7,218 / [(1.25) × (0.6)]

⇒ CP for A = ₹7,218 / 0.75

⇒ CP for A = ₹9,624

∴ The cost of the laptop for A is ₹9,624.

Given:

Claimed profit = 17%

Weight used is 32% less

Formula used:

Effective gain factor = $\dfrac{1 + \text{profit}}{1 - \text{less weight}}$

Total profit % = (Effective gain − 1) × 100

Calculations:

Profit factor = 1 + 17% = 1.17

Weight factor = 1 − 32% = 0.68

Effective gain = $\dfrac{1.17}{0.68}$ = 1.7206

Total profit % = (1.7206 − 1) × 100

⇒ Total profit % = 72.06% ≈ 72%

∴ The total percentage of profit earned by the trader is 72%.

Given:

Pipe A can fill the cistern in 18 hours

Pipe B can fill the cistern in 27 hours

Formula used:

Combined rate = Sum of individual rates

Time = Work ÷ Rate

Calculations:

Rate of A = $\dfrac{1}{18}$

Rate of B = $\dfrac{1}{27}$

Combined rate = $\dfrac{1}{18} + \dfrac{1}{27}$

⇒ Combined rate = $\dfrac{3 + 2}{54}$ = $\dfrac{5}{54}$ cistern/hour

Work to be done = $\dfrac{1}{2}$ cistern

Time = $\dfrac{\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{5}{54}}$ = $\dfrac{54}{10}$ hours = $\dfrac{27}{5}$ hours

⇒ Time = $5\frac{2}{5}$ hours

∴ The time taken to fill half of the cistern is $5\frac{2}{5}$ hours.

Given:

Observations: 43, 17, 95, 34, 73, 74, 49, 97, 49

Formula Used:

Arithmetic mean = (Sum of observations) / (Number of observations)

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of observations = 43 + 17 + 95 + 34 + 73 + 74 + 49 + 97 + 49 = 531

⇒ Number of observations = 9

⇒ Arithmetic mean = 531 / 9 = 59

∴ The arithmetic mean of the observations is 59.

Given:

Total amount paid to X and Y per day = ₹440

Amount paid to X = 140% of the amount paid to Y

Formula Used:

If Y is paid ₹y, then X is paid 140% of y = 1.4y.

Total amount paid = Amount paid to X + Amount paid to Y

Calculation:

Let Y's daily payment = ₹y.

⇒ X's daily payment = ₹1.4y

⇒ Total payment = ₹y + ₹1.4y = ₹440

⇒ 2.4y = 440

⇒ y = 440 / 2.4

⇒ y = 183.33

∴ Y is paid ₹183.33 per day.

Given:

A can complete the work in 18 days

B can complete the work in 27 days

They work on alternate days starting with B

Formula used:

Work done per day = 1 ÷ Total days

Total work = LCM of individual days

Calculations:

Let the total work = (LCM of 18 and 27) = 54 units

Work done by A in 1 day = 54 ÷ 18 = 3 units

Work done by B in 1 day = 54 ÷ 27 = 2 units

In 2 days (B + A) work done = 2 + 3 = 5 units

Work done in 20 days (10 such cycles) = 10 × 5 = 50 units

Remaining work = 54 − 50 = 4 units

21^st day → B works → work done = 2 units

Remaining work = 4 − 2 = 2 units

A can do 3 units in 1 day

Time taken by A to do 2 units = $\dfrac{2}{3}$ day

Total time = 21 + $\dfrac{2}{3}$ days = $21\frac{2}{3}$ day

∴ The work will be finished in 21$\dfrac{2}{3}$ days.

Given:

Speed while going to the mall = 50 km/hr.

Speed while returning from the mall = 75 km/hr.

Formula Used:

Average speed = (2 × Speed₁ × Speed₂) / (Speed₁ + Speed₂)

Calculation:

⇒ Average speed = (2 × 50 × 75) / (50 + 75)

⇒ Average speed = 7500 / 125

⇒ Average speed = 60 km/hr

∴ The average speed for the whole journey is 60 km/hr.

Given:

Population in 2020 = 53,56,000

Rate of increase = 10% per year

Time = 3 years (2020 to 2023)

Formula used:

Population after t years = Present population × (1 + r/100)^t

Calculations:

Population in 2023 = 53,56,000 × (1 + 10/100)³

⇒ Population = 53,56,000 × (1.1)³

⇒ Population = 53,56,000 × 1.331

⇒ Population = 71,28,836

∴ The population of the town in the year 2023 would be 71,28,836.

Given:

Priya's initial investment = ₹59,000

Trisha joins after 3 months.

Profit is divided in the ratio 8:3 (Priya : Trisha).

Time period for Priya = 12 months

Time period for Trisha = 12 - 3 = 9 months

Formula Used:

Profit share ratio = (Investment of Priya × Time of Priya) : (Investment of Trisha × Time of Trisha)

Calculation:

Let Trisha's investment be ₹x.

Profit ratio is given as 8:3.

⇒ (₹59,000 × 12) : (₹x × 9) = 8 : 3

⇒ (₹59,000 × 12) / (₹x × 9) = 8 / 3

⇒ (59,000 × 12 × 3) = (x × 9 × 8)

⇒ x = (59,000 × 12 × 3) / (9 × 8)

⇒ x = (59,000 × 4) / 8

⇒ x = ₹29,500

∴ Trisha's contribution in the capital is ₹29,500.

Given:

30% of the number exceeds 20% of the number by 18.

Formula Used:

Difference = (30% × Number) - (20% × Number)

Calculation:

Let the number be x.

⇒ (30% × x) - (20% × x) = 18

⇒ 0.3x - 0.2x = 18

⇒ 0.x = 18

⇒ x = 18 × 10

⇒ x = 180

∴ The number is 180.

Given:

The value to calculate is: 7² + √(9²) - 5√(36) - 11.

Formula Used:

Simplification based on arithmetic and square root properties.

Calculation:

⇒ 7² + √(9²) - 5√(36) - 11

⇒ 49 + 9 - (5 × 6) - 11

⇒ 49 + 9 - 30 - 11

⇒ 58 - 41

⇒ 17

∴ The value is 17.

Given:

Radius (r) = 11.2 cm

Slant height (l) = 20 cm

Formula used:

Curved surface area of cone = $\pi \times r \times l$

Calculations:

Curved surface area = $\dfrac{22}{7} \times 11.2 \times 20$

⇒ Curved surface area = $\dfrac{22}{7} \times 224$

⇒ Curved surface area = 704 cm²

∴ The curved surface area of the cone is 704 cm².

The correct answer is: Concealer.

Key Points

• The word "Harbinger" refers to someone or something that announces or signals the approach of another, often considered as a forerunner or a sign of something to come. (अग्रदूत, संकेत)
• Example: The blooming flowers are a harbinger of spring.
• "Concealer" means someone or something that hides or keeps something secret, thus preventing it from being revealed or announced. (छिपाने वाला)
• Example: The dense fog acted as a concealer, hiding the mountains from view.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Harbinger' is 'Concealer'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Concealer.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Precursor (अग्रगामी): A person or thing that comes before another of the same kind; a forerunner.
• Example: The radio was a precursor to modern communication technology.
• Messenger (संदेशवाहक): A person who carries a message or is employed to carry messages.
• Example: The messenger arrived with urgent news from the battlefield.
• Forerunner (अग्रदूत): A sign or warning of something to come; a predecessor.
• Example: The dark clouds were a forerunner of the approaching storm.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'buraeucratic'.

• The correct spelling would be 'bureaucratic'.
• The word 'bureaucratic' is an adjective which means 'relating to the business of running an organization, or government'. (नौकरशाही से संबंधित)
• For Example -
• She had to navigate through bureaucratic hurdles to finalize the deal.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'buraeucratic'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Irreconcilable - impossible to reconcile or bring into harmony (अमेलनीय)
• Acrimonious - angry and bitter in speech or debate (कटु)
• Entrepreneurial - characterized by the taking of financial risks in the hope of profit (उद्यमशील)

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'formidable'.

Key Points

• The adjective "formidable" appropriately modifies the noun "athlete", describing their impressive qualities and achievements.
• Adjectives are used to describe or modify nouns or pronouns, providing more information about their qualities, characteristics, or states.
• The word "formidable" conveys the sense of awe-inspiring strength or capability, which fits the context of an athlete breaking a world record.
• Option 3 correctly answers the question by providing an adjective that matches the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• Adverb: An adverb modifies verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs, explaining how, when, where, or to what extent something happens. None of the options provide a suitable adverb for this sentence.
• Noun: A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. While "athlete" is a noun in the sentence, the blank requires an adjective to describe this noun.
• Verb: A verb expresses an action, occurrence, or state of being. None of the options provide a verb to complete this sentence.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'panoramic'.

Key Points

• The word "panoramic" is an adjective that describes a wide and all-encompassing view, which perfectly fits the context of a picture taken from a mountain top.
• Panoramic is commonly used to refer to breathtaking views or visuals that extend across a large area, capturing the full scene in detail.
• Other options like "partial" or "narrow" would not fit the description of an amazing and breathtaking picture, as they imply limited or incomplete views.
• The word "serene" refers to calm and peacefulness, which may describe the mood but does not convey the wide-angle perspective indicated by the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Partial: This word means incomplete or limited, which does not suit the description of a breathtaking picture capturing the full view.
• Narrow: This word refers to something restricted in width or scope, which contradicts the idea of a wide-angle panoramic image.
• Serene: While this word denotes peace and calmness, it does not capture the expansive and detailed perspective required in the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'the, the'.

Key Points

• The sentence is about a specific type of tea, i.e., tea grown in the hilly regions of Assam. Hence, the definite article "the" is used.
• The first blank requires the article "the" before "tea" because it refers to a specific type of tea, not tea in general.
• The second blank also requires the article "the" before "hilly regions" because it specifies particular regions of Assam.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Use of Articles: The definite article "the" is used to refer to something specific or previously mentioned. The indefinite article "a" is used for something non-specific, which is not applicable in this case.
• Grammar Rule: When we talk about specific nouns, such as geographical locations or specific items, we use the definite article.
• The sentence would be incorrect without an article, as it would lose clarity and specificity.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The idiom "Bite the bullet" means to face a difficult or unpleasant situation with courage and determination. (मुश्किल स्थिति का साहसपूर्वक सामना करना)
• Example: Despite the pain, she decided to bite the bullet and go through with the surgery.
• Option 1: To face a difficult situation bravely (कठिन स्थिति का साहसपूर्वक सामना करना) is the correct meaning of the idiom.
• Example: He bit the bullet and confessed his mistake to his boss.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: To run away from problems (समस्याओं से भागना)
• Example: Instead of running away from problems, one should try to resolve them.
• Option 3: To avoid the issue (मुद्दे से बचना)
• Example: He avoided the issue by changing the subject.
• Option 4: To take immediate action (तुरंत कार्रवाई करना)
• Example: The government took immediate action to address the crisis.

The correct answer is 'Option (3)' i.e. 'air'.

Key Points

• Err: To make a mistake (गलती करना)
• Example: To err is human.
• Are: A form of the verb 'to be' used for plural subjects (हैं)
• Example: They are going to the park.
• Air: Atmosphere or the invisible gaseous substance surrounding the earth (वायु)
• Example: The air was fresh and clean.
• Ere: Before (पहले)
• Example: Ere the sun rises, we must leave.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 3'.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The idiom "Kick the bucket" is a colloquial phrase that means "to die" or "to pass away." (मृत्यु होना)
• Example: After living a long and fulfilling life, he finally kicked the bucket at the age of 95.
• This phrase is often used informally and humorously, rather than in solemn contexts.
• It does not literally mean kicking a physical bucket; it is used metaphorically to refer to death.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To start a new venture (नए प्रयास की शुरुआत करना): It refers to beginning a new project or business activity.
• Example: She decided to kickstart a new venture in the tech industry.
• Option 3: To win a prize (पुरस्कार जीतना): This refers to achieving a reward or recognition for success.
• Example: He worked hard all year and finally won the employee of the month prize.
• Option 4: To celebrate an achievement (उपलब्धि का जश्न मनाना): It implies rejoicing or commemorating a successful accomplishment.
• Example: After completing the project, they celebrated their achievement with a dinner party.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'The, the'.

Key Points

• The use of the article "The" before "seventh chapter" indicates specificity, as it refers to a particular chapter of the Ramayana.
• The article "the" before "Ramayana" is necessary because it denotes a specific text, the epic Ramayana.
• Using "The" before proper nouns (like Ramayana) is appropriate when referring to sacred or renowned texts, such as "The Ramayana" or "The Bible."
• Option 2 correctly uses both articles to provide clarity and specificity in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "A, the" is incorrect because "a" is used for general or non-specific references, whereas the sentence refers to a specific chapter and text.
• Option 3: "The, No article" is incorrect because omitting the article before "Ramayana" would make the sentence grammatically incomplete.
• Option 4: "No article, the" is incorrect because the absence of an article before "seventh chapter" fails to convey specificity.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word in the sentence is 'sureptitious'.

• The correct spelling is 'surreptitious'.
• The word 'surreptitious' is an adjective which means 'kept secret, especially because it would not be approved of'. (गुप्त)
• For Example -
• She took a surreptitious glance at her watch during the meeting.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Surreptitious' (as the option provided the misspelled version in the original context, but here we identify the word that was misspelled in the sentence).

Additional Information

The other words are spelled correctly:

• Connoisseur - a person who has a great deal of knowledge about the fine arts or an expert in matters of taste (विशेषज्ञ)
• Unscrupulous - having or showing no moral principles; not honest or fair (अनैतिक)
• Discerning - having or showing good judgment (विवेकी)

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. EADCB

Key Points

• The sentence begins with the general introduction to the topic, which is about remarkable celestial events in the universe. This is clearly stated in part (E).
• The next part, (A), introduces a specific celestial event, i.e., a supernova, providing a definition and setting the context.
• Part (D) continues by describing the duration of the explosion and its visibility over time, logically following the introduction of supernovae.
• Part (C) elaborates on the significance of supernovae by discussing the heavy elements they create.
• Part (B) concludes by mentioning the rarity of observing supernovae with the naked eye, wrapping up the paragraph in a coherent manner.

Therefore, the correct sequence is EADCB.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (DEBAC): This option starts with (D), which skips the general introduction provided by (E). The sequence fails to establish the topic before discussing the duration of supernovae.
• Option 3 (CABDE): This sequence starts with (C), discussing the generation of heavy elements without introducing the concept of supernovae, which disrupts the logical flow.
• Option 4 (BDCAE): This sequence starts with (B), which talks about visibility but fails to introduce the concept of supernovae first, making the paragraph incoherent.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'meticulous; groundbreaking'.

Key Points

• The word "meticulous" refers to being extremely careful and precise, which is an essential quality for research.
• The word "groundbreaking" refers to discoveries that are innovative and make a significant impact.
• The other options (careless, hasty, sloppy) suggest negative attributes for research, which do not align with the context of the sentence.
• Option 3 best fits the context of the sentence as it highlights the positive contribution of Indian scientists.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• Careless; insignificant: These words convey a lack of attention and importance, which do not suit the context of scientific research.
• Hasty; minor: Hasty research often results in minor or superficial discoveries, which does not align with the groundbreaking achievements mentioned.
• Sloppy; redundant: Sloppy research leads to redundant outcomes, which is not appropriate for the context.

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. CDBA

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with part C, which introduces the timeline and the puzzling gap in the human fossil record. This sets the context for the discussion.
• Next, part D follows logically, discussing the emergence of the aquatic ape theory as a potential explanation for the gap.
• Part B builds upon the theory, explaining the lifestyle shift of primitive humans toward a littoral (coastal) existence due to resource competition.
• Part A concludes the paragraph by drawing analogies to seal populations, providing a comparative example for the proposed theory.

Therefore, the correct answer is CDBA.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (DBCA): This option begins with the theory explanation (D), skipping the introduction of the problem in part C, which disrupts the logical sequence.
• Option 3 (ACDB): Starting with analogies (A) creates confusion as it does not provide the background or context for the theory.
• Option 4 (BDAC): This order misplaces the introduction and explanation, leading to a fragmented flow of ideas.

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e 'Barren'.

Key Points

• The word "barren" is an adjective that aptly describes the desert landscape as being harsh and devoid of vegetation, fitting the context of the sentence perfectly.
• Barren means unproductive, empty, or lifeless, which aligns with the characteristics of a desert.
• None of the other options (picking, lawn, logistic) are appropriate adjectives to describe the desert landscape.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 1.

Additional Information

• Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. In the given sentence, "barren" modifies the noun "landscape", making it the correct choice.
• Other Options: "picking" is a verb or a gerund, "lawn" is a noun, and "logistic" is an adjective but does not fit the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'Adorable'.

Key Points

• The adjective "adorable" is used to describe something or someone as being delightful, charming, or extremely cute.
• In the given sentence, the word "adorable" perfectly describes the baby, which is why it is the most appropriate adjective.
• Option 1, "admiring", is incorrect because it refers to showing admiration rather than describing the baby.
• Option 2, "antique", is incorrect because it refers to something old and valuable, which is unrelated to the context of the sentence.
• Option 4, "antic", is incorrect as it describes playful or silly behavior, which does not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• Adjective: An adjective is a word used to modify or describe a noun or pronoun. In this sentence, "adorable" modifies the noun "baby" and describes it as delightful or charming.
• Contextual Relevance: The context of the sentence is about the English couple being blessed with a baby, and the most appropriate word to describe the baby is "adorable".

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• A) Yudhishthira showed respect towards his elders before the battle.
• This can be inferred from the passage. The passage explicitly describes Yudhishthira laying aside his weapons, walking unarmed, and seeking blessings from Bhishma, which signifies his respect for his elders.
• B) Yudhishthira was mocked by some for his gesture.
• This can be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that some people cried out "Coward" when Yudhishthira approached Bhishma unarmed, indicating that he was mocked by them.
• C) Krishna acknowledged Yudhishthira’s nobility.
• This can be inferred from the passage. The passage states that only Krishna understood the true nobility of Yudhishthira’s purpose, confirming Krishna's acknowledgment.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2 - Yudhishthira's Noble Gesture.

Additional Information

• Option 1 - Arjuna's Triumph: Incorrect because the passage focuses on Yudhishthira's actions, not Arjuna's triumph.
• Option 3 - Bhishma's Blessing: Incorrect because the passage mainly highlights Yudhishthira's gesture rather than Bhishma's response.
• Option 4 - The Pandavas' Preparation: Incorrect because the main theme of the passage is Yudhishthira's noble gesture, not the overall preparation.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• A) Yudhishthira showed respect towards his elders before the battle.
• This can be inferred from the passage. The passage explicitly describes Yudhishthira laying aside his weapons, walking unarmed, and seeking blessings from Bhishma, which signifies his respect for his elders.
• B) Yudhishthira's actions were misunderstood by many, but not by Krishna.
• This can be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that some people called Yudhishthira a coward, but Krishna understood the true nobility of his purpose.
• C) Yudhishthira prioritized his duty as a Kshatriya along with respecting his elders.
• This can be inferred from the passage. Yudhishthira sought Bhishma's blessings to fulfill his duty as a Kshatriya, even though it required fighting against his respected elders.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2 - Yudhishthira’s respect for elders and teachers.

Additional Information

• Option 1 - The reaction of the Pandava army: Incorrect because the passage focuses more on Yudhishthira's actions than the army's reaction.
• Option 3 - The Pandavas’ battle strategies: Incorrect because the passage doesn’t detail their battle strategies, but rather highlights Yudhishthira’s gesture.
• Option 4 - Krishna’s understanding of Yudhishthira: Incorrect because although Krishna understood Yudhishthira, the central theme is about Yudhishthira’s respect for his elders and teachers.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• A) Bhishma refused to bless Yudhishthira.
• This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage does not mention Bhishma refusing to bless Yudhishthira.
• B) Arjuna was hesitant to use his bow Gandiva.
• This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions Arjuna rising to his bow Gandiva, but does not mention any hesitation.
• C) Yudhishthira’s brothers supported his decision.
• This cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage indicates that Yudhishthira's brothers and allies watched in anger and shame, which suggests a lack of support for his decision.
• D) Yudhishthira walked unarmed towards Bhishma.
• This is clearly mentioned in the passage. The text explicitly states that Yudhishthira laid aside his weapons and took off his armour before walking unarmed towards Bhishma.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4 - Yudhishthira walked unarmed towards Bhishma.

Additional Information

• Option 1 - Bhishma refused to bless Yudhishthira: Incorrect because the passage does not mention any refusal by Bhishma.
• Option 2 - Arjuna was hesitant to use his bow Gandiva: Incorrect because the passage does not suggest that Arjuna was hesitant.
• Option 3 - Yudhishthira’s brothers supported his decision: Incorrect because the passage indicates that his brothers were angry and ashamed, indicating a lack of support.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• A) Yudhishthira's actions demonstrate a high level of respect and honor towards his elders.
• The passage details Yudhishthira’s respectful and humble approach to Bhishma, showcasing his reverence for his elders.
• B) The passage focuses on the nobility of Yudhishthira’s purpose, as understood by Krishna.
• This indicates a tone of admiration and respect towards Yudhishthira’s actions.