DSSSB TGT (Sanskrit) Official Paper (Held On: 27 Aug, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Seven boxes, G, H, I, J, P, Q, and R, are stacked one above the other, but not necessarily in that order.

• I only have three boxes left.
• Only two boxes are between I and R.
• J is placed immediately above H.
• Q is placed somewhere below P and somewhere above G.

The Final Arrangement is, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given :  (Left) 218 ​​239 846 852 273 (Right)

Second digit of the largest number = 8 5 2

 Second digit of the smallest number = 2 1 8

= 5 + 1 

= 6.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center.

• E is sitting third to the right of F.

• C is sitting third to the left of D.

• E is sitting immediately to the right of C

• A is not an immediate neighbor of C

• Counting from B's left, there is only one person sitting between G and B.

• The Final Arrangement is,

• Counting from A's left, one person are sitting between A and C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given:  3 ÷ 5 + 14 × 2 − 4 = ?

3 ÷ 5 + 14 × 2 − 4 = ?

'+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged

⇒3 × 5 - 14 ÷ 2 + 4 =

⇒3 × 5 - 7+ 4 =

⇒15 + 4 - 7

⇒ 19 - 7

⇒ 12.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Seven boxes G, H, I, J, P, Q, and R are stacked one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order.

• No box is placed above H.
• Only three boxes are placed between H and J.
• Only one box is placed between Q and R.
• R is placed immediately above J

The Final Arrangement is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The Logic follows here, 

78 is related to 159

78 x 2 = 156 + 3 = 159

56 is related to 115

56 x 2 = 112 + 3 = 115.

Similarly,

99 x 2 = 198 + 3 = 201

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Family Chart:

As per the given information,

H is the husband of J and G is wife of H and sister of D.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Courses of Action:

I. Government should prevent hoarding and enforce anti-cartelization laws.

• The statement mentions price fluctuations due to hoarding and cartelization.
• Therefore, government intervention as suggested in I is logical.

II. Farmers should disregard soil health and ecological issues.

• The statement emphasizes ecological challenges (soil erosion, overuse, resource scarcity).
• Not follows- Ignoring these issues would worsen farming problems, which is illogical.

Conclusion:

• Only Course of Action I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

(I): No horse is a chair. - True (All chairs are mirrors.No mirror is a horse.No horse is a chair is a True)

(II): Some eagles are horses. - False (As their is no direct relation between eagles and horse may be it is possible but not definite. Hence, it is false)

Only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

'A' means '÷', 'B' means '×', 'C' means '+' and 'D' means '-',

By checking Option,

⇒ 20 C 2 B 2 D 18 A 9

⇒ 20 + 2 × 2 - 18 ÷ 9

⇒ 20 + 2 × 2 - 2

⇒ 20 + 4 - 2

⇒ 24 - 2

⇒ 22

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Logic : First Number x 4 = Second Number 

15 is related to 60 

• 15 x 4 = 60.

Similarly,

27 is related to 108.

• 27 x 4 = 108.

Similarly,

 44 related ?

• 44 x 4 = 176

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given :  (Left) LID CRY EAR RAM (Right)

Second letter of the second word from the right - EAR

Third letter of the second word from the left -  C R Y

Letters between A and Y = 25 − 1 − 1 = 23

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here,

'P # S T' - '4 0 2 5'

 'R S # T' -  '0 1 2 5'

Code for R is 1.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here, 

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Amit starts driving from point A and drives 13 km north.

• He turns right and drives 11 km, then turns right again and drives 17 km.
• He turns right again and drives 15 km.
• He turns right and drives 4 km, stopping at point P.

The Final Diagram, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The correct answer is 829 person/km².

Key Points

• As per the 2011 Census of India, the population density of Uttar Pradesh was recorded at 829 persons per square kilometer.
• Uttar Pradesh ranked among the most densely populated states in India, contributing significantly to the country’s population.
• The state’s population density was much higher than the national average of 382 persons/km² in 2011.
• This high population density can be attributed to factors such as fertile agricultural land, higher birth rates, and urbanization in key cities like Lucknow, Kanpur, and Varanasi.
• Uttar Pradesh had a total population of approximately 199.58 million in 2011, making it the most populous state in India.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 2894 persons/km²
• This figure is incorrect and does not represent the population density of Uttar Pradesh.
• A population density of this magnitude would be more comparable to cities like Mumbai or Delhi, which are metropolitan regions with extremely high population densities.
• Option 3: 109 persons/km²
• This figure is far lower than the population density of Uttar Pradesh.
• A density of 109 persons/km² is more typical for states or regions with large rural areas and sparse populations, such as certain northeastern states or desert regions in India.
• Option 4: 1029 persons/km²
• While this number is close to the actual population density of Uttar Pradesh, it is slightly exaggerated and does not match the official figure from the 2011 Census.
• Population Density in India:
• Population density is defined as the number of people living per square kilometer of land area.
• India's overall population density as per the 2011 Census was 382 persons/km².
• States like Bihar (1106 persons/km²), West Bengal (1028 persons/km²), and Kerala (859 persons/km²) have higher population densities compared to the national average.
• On the other hand, states like Arunachal Pradesh (17 persons/km²) and Mizoram (52 persons/km²) have very low population densities due to their geographical and demographic characteristics.

The correct answer is 30 members.

Key Points

• The Parliamentary Official Language Committee consists of 30 members, with representatives from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
• This committee is formed under the provisions of the Official Languages Act, 1963, which aims to promote the usage of Hindi as the official language of India.
• The committee monitors progress in the use of Hindi for official purposes and advises the President on measures to increase its use.
• The Union Home Minister chairs it and includes 20 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha.
• The committee submits its recommendations to the President periodically, who then places them before both Houses of Parliament for consideration.

Additional Information

• Option 1: 10 members
• Parliamentary committees of smaller size often have 10 members, but the Official Language Committee has 20 members to ensure balanced representation from both houses.
• While some committees, such as the Estimates Committee in the Lok Sabha, have 30 members, others, such as the Committee on Public Undertakings, have fewer.
• Option 2: 30 members
• Some parliamentary committees, such as the Estimates Committee, have 30 members for specific purposes.
• However, the Official Language Committee is limited to 20 members as it deals with a niche area of official language promotion and implementation.
• Option 4: 5 members
• Smaller committees, such as departmental advisory committees, may consist of 5 members, but this does not apply to the Official Language Committee.
• The Official Language Committee requires broader representation from both houses, making 5 members insufficient.
• Main theme: Parliamentary Committees
• Parliamentary committees are an essential part of the Indian legislative system, providing detailed analysis and recommendations on specific issues.
• They are classified into Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees, each serving different purposes.
• The Official Language Committee falls under the category of Standing Committees and plays a crucial role in implementing the Official Language policy.

The correct answer is Who is a parent or guardian, to provide opportunities for education to his child between the age of 6 to 14 years or, as the case may be.

Key Points

• The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, introduced a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A (k) of the Indian Constitution.
• This duty obligates parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children or wards aged between 6 and 14 years.
• The amendment was made in conjunction with the introduction of the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A.
• This duty emphasizes the importance of providing free and compulsory education to children to ensure universal elementary education in India.
• The amendment reflects the government’s commitment towards reducing illiteracy and achieving the goal of education for all.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties
• Fundamental Duties are outlined in Part IVA (Article 51A) of the Indian Constitution.
• They were introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, and initially included 10 duties.
• The 86th Amendment Act added the 11th Fundamental Duty, which focuses on providing education to children.
• Fundamental Duties serve as moral obligations for citizens and aim to promote responsible behavior and respect for the Constitution.

The correct answer is 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - d.

Key Points

• Dr. Hedgewar (1 - c): Dr. Keshav Baliram Hedgewar was the founder of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), established in 1925. The organization aimed to promote Hindu culture, unity, and nationalism.
• Cripps Mission in 1942 (2 - b): The Cripps Mission, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, was sent by the British government to secure Indian cooperation during World War II. It offered Dominion Status to India post-war, but its proposals were rejected by Indian leaders.
• Nehru Proposal in 1928 (3 - a): The Nehru Report was India’s first attempt to draft a constitutional framework. It was prepared under the leadership of Motilal Nehru and aimed to provide self-governance while addressing communal demands.
• Lahore Session of Congress in 1929 (4 - d): The session, presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, adopted the resolution of "Purna Swaraj" (complete self-rule) as the ultimate goal. January 26, 1930, was proclaimed as "Independence Day."

Additional Information

• Dr. Hedgewar and the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS):
• Dr. Hedgewar was a physician and a freedom fighter who established the RSS to strengthen Hindu unity and promote cultural nationalism.
• The RSS played a significant role in shaping nationalist ideologies during and after India’s independence struggle.
• Cripps Mission in 1942:
• The mission proposed Dominion Status and the creation of a Constituent Assembly to draft India’s Constitution.
• The Congress rejected it as it did not grant immediate independence, and the Muslim League opposed it as it did not address their demand for Pakistan.
• Nehru Proposal in 1928:
• The Nehru Report was a significant step towards constitutional development in India.
• It rejected separate electorates for minorities and demanded Dominion Status, which was later criticized by some political groups.
• Lahore Session of Congress in 1929:
• The Lahore Session was a turning point in the Indian freedom struggle, as "Purna Swaraj" became the primary goal of the Indian National Congress.
• The session also saw the hoisting of the tricolor flag, symbolizing India’s aspirations for independence.
• January 26 was chosen as Republic Day to honor this historic declaration.

The correct answer is Gymnastics.

Key Points

• Dipa Karmakar is a celebrated Indian gymnast who brought gymnastics into the spotlight in India.
• She became the first Indian female gymnast to qualify for the Olympics in 52 years and represented India at the 2016 Rio Olympics.
• Dipa is globally recognized for performing the Produnova vault, a highly challenging and risky gymnastics routine, earning her the nickname "The Vault of Death."
• At the 2016 Rio Olympics, she finished fourth in the women’s vault final, narrowly missing out on a medal but winning admiration worldwide.
• For her contributions to gymnastics, she has been honored with prestigious awards such as the Padma Shri and the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna.

Additional Information

• Weightlifting
• Weightlifting is a strength-based sport where athletes lift maximum weights in two specific lifts: the snatch and the clean and jerk.
• India has a strong presence in weightlifting, with athletes like Mirabai Chanu winning medals at international events, including the Olympics.
• The sport requires a combination of power, precision, and technique and is governed internationally by the International Weightlifting Federation (IWF).
• Fencing
• Fencing is a combat sport involving three disciplines: foil, epee, and sabre, where participants score points by striking opponents with a weapon.
• It has been part of the modern Olympics since their inception in 1896.
• India has made recent strides in fencing, with Bhavani Devi becoming the first Indian fencer to qualify for the Olympics in 2021.
• Tennis
• Tennis is a globally popular sport played on surfaces like clay, grass, and hard courts, in singles or doubles formats.
• India has produced notable players such as Leander Paes, Mahesh Bhupathi, and Sania Mirza, who have achieved international success.
• The most prestigious tennis tournaments, known as Grand Slams, include Wimbledon, the US Open, the French Open, and the Australian Open.

The correct answer is Only B.

Key Points

• Defending the country is one of the Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.
• This duty was introduced through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, which added a new part (Part IVA) to the Constitution.
• Article 51A(e) states that it is the duty of every citizen to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• Fundamental Duties are moral obligations meant to instill patriotism and a sense of national unity among citizens.
• Although these duties are non-justiciable and cannot be enforced legally, they serve as guiding principles for responsible citizenship.

Additional Information

• To pay income tax
• Paying income tax is not listed as a Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution.
• It is a legal obligation governed by the Income Tax Act, 1961 and is applicable to individuals whose income exceeds a certain threshold.
• While paying taxes contributes to national development, it is not categorized as a moral obligation under Fundamental Duties.
• 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
• This amendment is known as the "Mini Constitution" due to the extensive changes it brought.
• It introduced Fundamental Duties, tightened the directive principles of state policy, and made various changes to strengthen the central government.
• It added Article 51A under Part IVA of the Constitution, which lists the duties of Indian citizens.

The correct answer is Option 2 (I, II, and III).

Key Points

• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide free legal services to weaker sections of society and ensure justice for all.
• Naya Deep is the official newsletter of NALSA, disseminating updates and developments regarding legal services and awareness activities conducted by the organization.
• The Chief Justice of India serves as the Patron-in-Chief of NALSA, highlighting the authoritative status and oversight of the judiciary in the functioning of the authority.
• NALSA aims to promote legal literacy and provide legal aid to marginalized sections such as Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, women, children, disabled persons, etc.
• The authority coordinates and monitors the activities of State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) and District Legal Services Authorities (DLSAs) across the country.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Only I and III
• This option is incorrect because it excludes the fact that Naya Deep is the official newsletter of NALSA.
• While statements I and III are correct, the exclusion of statement II makes this option incomplete.
• Option 3: Only III
• This option is incorrect because it only considers the Chief Justice of India as the Patron-in-Chief of NALSA while ignoring the other two correct statements.
• Statements I and II are significant in understanding the constitution and activities of NALSA, making this option insufficient.
• Option 4: Only II
• This option is incorrect as it solely highlights Naya Deep as the official newsletter of NALSA, omitting the constitutional basis of NALSA (statement I) and the role of the Chief Justice of India (statement III).
• Thus, this option fails to provide a comprehensive picture of NALSA.
• About NALSA:
• NALSA was established to ensure access to justice for all, irrespective of their social or economic status.
• It provides free legal services to the eligible sections of society and conducts legal awareness campaigns.
• NALSA supervises State and District Legal Services Authorities in implementing legal aid schemes and programs.
• The organization plays a critical role in safeguarding the fundamental rights and legal entitlements of citizens.

The correct answer is The total number of people employed and actively looking for work.

Key Points

• The term "labour force" refers to the total number of people in a country who are either employed or actively seeking employment.
• Labour force includes individuals aged 15 years and above who are physically capable of working and willing to participate in economic activities.
• It is used to calculate the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), which measures the proportion of the working-age population that is part of the labour force.
• Individuals not seeking work due to reasons such as education, retirement, disability, or family responsibilities are not considered part of the labour force.
• The labour force is a key economic indicator used to assess a country's employment levels, productivity, and overall economic activity.

Additional Information

• Types of labor are categorized by:
• skill (unskilled, semi-skilled, skilled, professional),
• function (physical, mental),
• employment structure (wage, contract, self-employed, formal, informal), and
• sector (agricultural, industrial).
• Essentially, labor refers to human effort, categorized by the level of training needed (skilled vs. unskilled), the type of effort (manual vs. intellectual), or how workers are employed (e.g., as employees vs. contractors).

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Hoysala dynasty was a prominent South Indian dynasty that ruled between 1000 AD and 1346 AD, primarily based in present-day Karnataka.
• The capital cities of the Hoysala Empire were Belur and Halebidu, both located in Karnataka.
• The Hoysalas were known for their contributions to art and architecture, particularly their unique style of temple construction, with intricate carvings and detailed sculptures.
• Some of the most famous Hoysala temples include the Chennakesava Temple in Belur and the Hoysaleswara Temple in Halebidu, both UNESCO World Heritage sites.
• The Hoysalas played a significant role in the development of Kannada literature and patronized poets such as Janna and Harihara.

Additional Information

• West Bengal:
• West Bengal is historically known for the Bengal Sultanate, Mughal influences, and later the British colonial period.
• The region is famous for its contributions to art, literature, and the Indian independence movement but does not have any direct connection to the Hoysala dynasty.
• Major cultural landmarks include the terracotta temples of Bishnupur and the legacy of Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore.
• Odisha:
• Odisha has a rich history associated with the ancient Kalinga kingdom and later dynasties such as the Ganga and Eastern Ganga dynasties.
• The state is renowned for its architectural marvels, including the Sun Temple at Konark and the Jagannath Temple in Puri.
• However, the Hoysala dynasty did not originate or rule in Odisha.
• Kerala:
• Kerala is known for its Chera dynasty and later rulers such as the Zamorins of Calicut.
• The cultural landscape of Kerala includes classical art forms like Kathakali and the development of Ayurveda, but the Hoysalas were not associated with this region.
• Kerala’s history is distinct from the Hoysala dynasty, which primarily focused on Karnataka.

The correct answer is Barack Obama.

Key Points

• 'A Promised Land' is a memoir authored by Barack Obama, the 44th President of the United States.
• The book was published on November 17, 2020, and is the first volume of Obama's presidential memoirs.
• It covers his early political career, culminating in his election as the first African-American President of the United States in 2008.
• The memoir provides insights into key moments of his presidency, including the passing of the Affordable Care Act, the raid that killed Osama bin Laden, and the financial crisis recovery.
• Barack Obama reflects on the challenges of leadership, governance, and balancing personal life with his political career in this deeply personal and candid account.

Additional Information

• Michelle Obama:
• Michelle Obama is the wife of Barack Obama and the former First Lady of the United States.
• She authored her own memoir, 'Becoming', which was published in 2018 and became a bestseller worldwide.
• The book provides a compelling narrative of her journey from childhood to becoming the First Lady, focusing on her advocacy for education, healthy living, and women's empowerment.
• George W. Bush:
• George W. Bush was the 43rd President of the United States, serving from 2001 to 2009.
• He authored a memoir titled 'Decision Points', published in 2010, which focuses on pivotal moments during his presidency, including the September 11 attacks and the Iraq War.
• John F. Kennedy:
• John F. Kennedy was the 35th President of the United States, serving from 1961 until his assassination in 1963.
• He authored 'Profiles in Courage', a book published in 1956, which highlights acts of bravery and integrity by U.S. senators throughout history.
• 'A Promised Land' Theme:
• The memoir is an intimate look at Barack Obama's personal growth, political journey, and the complexities of leadership.
• It serves as a reflection on American democracy, exploring the challenges faced during his administration and his hopes for the future.

The correct answer is Reserve Bank of India.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been the primary institution responsible for monetary policy reforms in India, particularly after the economic liberalization reforms of 1991.
• Post-1991 reforms, the RBI implemented various measures such as deregulation of interest rates, introduction of market-determined exchange rates, and inflation control mechanisms.
• One of the major steps taken by the RBI was the introduction of inflation targeting as a part of the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement signed with the Government of India in 2015.
• The RBI played a significant role in the modernization of India’s banking and financial systems, including the development of digital payment systems and financial inclusion measures.
• The central bank also focused on stabilizing inflation, promoting economic growth, and ensuring financial stability, which were key objectives of monetary policy reforms.

Additional Information

• Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
• SEBI is the regulatory authority responsible for overseeing and regulating the securities and commodity market in India.
• It was established in 1988 and given statutory powers in 1992 through the SEBI Act.
• SEBI’s primary role is to protect the interests of investors, ensure transparency in the securities market, and regulate stock exchanges.
• Although SEBI played an important role in post-1991 reforms, its focus was limited to capital markets rather than monetary policy.
• Ministry of Finance
• The Ministry of Finance is responsible for formulating fiscal policy and managing the government’s public finances.
• It played a crucial role in liberalization, privatization, and globalization reforms post-1991.
• The Ministry works closely with the RBI on monetary policy matters but primarily focuses on fiscal policy and economic reforms.
• Planning Commission
• The Planning Commission was an advisory body responsible for formulating India’s five-year plans for economic development.
• It was replaced by the NITI Aayog in 2015 to focus on cooperative federalism and policy innovation.
• The Planning Commission did not have a direct role in monetary policy reforms, as it primarily dealt with long-term development strategies.

The correct answer is Mauryan.

Key Points

• The Mauryan dynasty was established by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 BCE, marking one of the earliest and largest empires in Indian history.
• This dynasty existed from 321 BCE to 185 BCE, which makes it a pre-Gupta dynasty, significantly earlier than the post-Gupta period (6th century CE onwards).
• The Mauryan Empire is renowned for its administrative advancements, military expansion, and cultural contributions under rulers like Chandragupta Maurya, Bindusara, and Ashoka.
• The post-Gupta period refers to the era after the decline of the Gupta Empire (circa 550 CE), during which dynasties like the Maukharies, Maitrakas, and Pushyabhutis emerged. The Mauryan dynasty does not belong to this timeframe.
• Key features of the Mauryan Empire include its centralized administration, Arthashastra by Kautilya (Chanakya), and Emperor Ashoka's propagation of Buddhism.

Additional Information

• Maukharies:
• The Maukhari dynasty emerged during the post-Gupta period (6th century CE) and ruled parts of northern India, primarily in present-day Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
• They were contemporaries of the later Guptas and played a critical role in resisting foreign invasions, particularly from the Huns.
• The Maukhari rulers contributed to the fragmentation of northern India after the decline of the Gupta Empire.
• Maitrakas:
• The Maitraka dynasty ruled Saurashtra (modern-day Gujarat) during the 6th to 8th centuries CE, in the post-Gupta period.
• Their capital was at Vallabhi, which became a prominent center for education and administration.
• They were known for their patronage of Buddhism and Jainism, contributing to the cultural and religious development of western India.
• Pushyabhutis:
• Also known as the Vardhana dynasty, the Pushyabhutis ruled parts of northern India during the post-Gupta era (6th to 7th centuries CE).
• Their most notable ruler was Harsha Vardhana (590 CE–647 CE), who unified much of northern India and promoted cultural and religious harmony.
• Harsha's reign is marked by advancements in art, literature, and religion, with significant contributions to Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism.

The correct answer is Suryabala.

Key Points

• The 34th Vyas Samman Award for 2024 was conferred upon the renowned Hindi writer Suryabala.
• She was honored for her exceptional contributions to Hindi literature, which include novels, short stories, and essays.
• The Vyas Samman, instituted in 1991 by the K.K. Birla Foundation, is awarded annually for an outstanding Hindi literary work published in the last 10 years.
• The award includes a citation, a memento, and a cash reward to recognize the writer's significant impact on Hindi literature.
• Suryabala is known for her captivating storytelling that often blends humor and wit to address societal issues.

Additional Information

• Rajendra Yadav
• Rajendra Yadav (1929–2013) was a prominent Hindi writer and editor, regarded as one of the pioneers of the Nayi Kahani (New Story) movement in Hindi literature.
• He edited the famous Hindi magazine "Hans," which focused on social and political issues.
• His notable works include the novel "Sara Akash," which explores the struggles of young couples in Indian society.
• Despite his significant contributions to Hindi literature, he was not associated with the Vyas Samman Award.
• Kumar Vishwas
• Kumar Vishwas is a contemporary Hindi poet known for his romantic poetry and performances in Kavi Sammelans (poetry gatherings).
• He is celebrated for works like "Koi Deewana Kehta Hai" but is not associated with prose works or awards like the Vyas Samman, which primarily recognize contributions to Hindi literature in prose.
• Madhav Hada
• Madhav Hada is a noted Hindi scholar, writer, and critic known for his essays and critical works on literature and culture.
• He has made significant contributions to Hindi literature but has not received the Vyas Samman Award.

The correct answer is Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Key Points

• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands receive rainfall from both the south-west monsoon (June to September) and the north-east monsoon (October to December).
• This unique geographical location near the equator and the Bay of Bengal leads to a high annual rainfall.
• During the south-west monsoon, the islands receive rainfall due to the moisture-laden winds coming from the Indian Ocean.
• The north-east monsoon brings additional rainfall as these winds pick up moisture while crossing the Bay of Bengal.
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands are known for their tropical climate, lush greenery, and high biodiversity, which are sustained by consistent rainfall from both monsoons.

Additional Information

• Jammu and Kashmir
• Jammu and Kashmir primarily receive rainfall from the western disturbances, particularly during the winter months (December to February).
• The summer monsoon has minimal influence on this region due to the Himalayan barrier that blocks the monsoon winds.
• Rainfall in Jammu and Kashmir is unevenly distributed, with regions like the Jammu plains receiving moderate rainfall, while the Ladakh region remains arid.
• Lakshadweep
• Lakshadweep primarily receives rainfall from the south-west monsoon, starting in May and peaking in June and July.
• The islands do not receive significant rainfall from the north-east monsoon.
• The region experiences a tropical climate with heavy rainfall during the monsoon season, supporting coconut cultivation and marine biodiversity.
• Gujarat
• Gujarat primarily receives rainfall during the south-west monsoon season, from June to September.
• It does not experience significant rainfall during the north-east monsoon, as the winds are dry by the time they reach western India.
• Rainfall in Gujarat varies widely, with regions like Kutch being semi-arid, while the southern parts receive moderate rainfall.
• Monsoons in India
• India's monsoons are driven by the seasonal reversal of winds due to the differential heating of land and water.
• The south-west monsoon brings the majority of rainfall to India, accounting for almost 75% of the annual rainfall.
• The north-east monsoon, although less significant, brings rainfall to the south-eastern parts of India, particularly Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
• The interaction of these two monsoon systems creates varied climatic and rainfall patterns across the country.

The correct answer is Bangalore.

Key Points

• Bangalore, officially known as Bengaluru, is widely regarded as the 'Silicon Valley of India' due to its thriving information technology (IT) industry.
• The city hosts a significant number of global IT companies, startups, and technology parks like Electronic City and International Tech Park Bangalore (ITPB).
• It is home to major Indian IT giants such as Infosys and Wipro, as well as multinational corporations like Google, Microsoft, and IBM.
• Bangalore's robust IT ecosystem is supported by a vast pool of highly skilled professionals and educational institutions like the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) and numerous engineering colleges.
• The city's startup culture has flourished over the years, making it a hub for innovation and entrepreneurship in sectors like artificial intelligence, software development, and fintech.

Additional Information

• Pune:
• Pune is known as the 'Oxford of the East' due to its prominent educational institutions and universities.
• It has a growing IT and automotive industry but does not match the scale of Bangalore's IT sector.
• Pune houses several IT companies and startups, contributing to its emerging status as a tech city.
• Gurugram:
• Gurugram, located in Haryana, is known for its rapid urbanization and financial sector.
• It hosts numerous multinational companies and is considered a hub for business process outsourcing (BPO) and corporate offices.
• While Gurugram is a significant player in India's business landscape, it is not recognized as a major IT hub like Bangalore.
• Hyderabad:
• Hyderabad is another major IT city in India, often referred to as 'Cyberabad' due to its booming IT sector.
• It is home to IT parks like HITEC City and multinational companies such as Google and Facebook.
• Hyderabad has a strong presence in the pharmaceutical and biotechnology sectors as well.
• Silicon Valley of India:
• The term 'Silicon Valley' refers to regions known for their concentration of IT and technology companies, innovation, and startups.
• While Bangalore earned this title due to its unmatched contributions to India's IT industry, cities like Hyderabad and Pune also play significant roles in the nation's technology landscape.

The correct answer is ISRO.

Key Points

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) achieved its 100th successful launch in February 2025, marking a significant milestone in its illustrious journey.
• The mission carried the NVS-02 navigation satellite, which is part of the NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) system.
• Since its inception in 1969, ISRO has consistently made progress in space exploration and satellite deployment, highlighting India’s self-reliance in space technology.
• The NVS-02 satellite enhances the NavIC system, which provides accurate positioning and timing services over India and a region extending up to 1,500 km beyond its borders.
• ISRO's 100th launch reflects its growing stature as a global player in space technology, contributing significantly to scientific advancement and national development.

Additional Information

• NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration)
• NASA is the United States government agency responsible for civilian space exploration and aeronautics research.
• Key achievements include the Apollo Moon landing, Mars rover missions, and the James Webb Space Telescope.
• Its focus spans planetary exploration, human spaceflight, and astrophysics research.
• ESA (European Space Agency)
• ESA is an intergovernmental organization with 22 member states, dedicated to space exploration and technological development.
• Notable missions include the Rosetta comet mission and the development of the Galileo navigation system.
• ESA collaborates with global space agencies on international projects.
• Roscosmos
• Roscosmos is the Russian space agency responsible for space science, exploration, and satellite deployment.
• It has notable achievements, such as launching the first satellite (Sputnik) and the first human (Yuri Gagarin) into space.
• Roscosmos is a key participant in the International Space Station (ISS) program and operates the Soyuz program.

Important Points

• NavIC System
• NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is India’s regional satellite navigation system developed by ISRO.
• It provides precise positioning services in India and up to 1,500 km beyond its borders.
• NavIC is designed for applications such as navigation, disaster management, vehicle tracking, and terrestrial and marine navigation.

The correct answer is charged solar flare ejecta trapped in Earth's magnetic field.

Key Points

• The Aurora Borealis, also known as the Northern Lights, is caused by the interaction of charged particles from the Sun (solar wind) with Earth's magnetic field.
• The Sun emits a continuous stream of charged particles, primarily electrons and protons, known as the solar wind.
• When these charged particles approach Earth, they are funneled towards the magnetic poles due to Earth's magnetic field, where the interaction is most intense.
• As these particles collide with gases in Earth's upper atmosphere (such as oxygen and nitrogen), they transfer energy, causing the gases to emit light, which appears as colorful auroras.
• The color of the aurora depends on the type of gas and altitude of the interaction—oxygen produces green or red light, while nitrogen emits blue or purplish light.

Additional Information

• Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis:
• The Aurora Borealis (Northern Lights) occurs in the Northern Hemisphere, while the Aurora Australis (Southern Lights) occurs in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Both phenomena are caused by the same underlying mechanism of charged particles interacting with Earth's magnetic field and atmosphere.
• Auroras are more commonly observed during periods of high solar activity or solar storms.

The correct answer is Allowing entry to private sector banks at the same level as public sector banks.

Key Points

• The Narasimham Committee, formed in 1991, was tasked with recommending reforms to improve the efficiency and competitiveness of the Indian banking sector.
• A major recommendation was to allow private sector banks to enter the Indian banking system and operate at the same level as public sector banks, enhancing competition and service quality.
• The committee emphasized reducing the dominance of public sector banks and advocated for the creation of a level playing field for private banks to introduce innovation and efficiency in the banking sector.
• This recommendation led to the establishment of prominent private sector banks such as HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, and Axis Bank, revolutionizing the Indian financial landscape.
• By liberalizing bank operations, the committee aimed to transition the banking sector from a state-controlled monopoly to a market-driven system, fostering growth and development.

Additional Information

• Rajan Committee (Rajan Panel) (2009): Post-global crisis, it suggested simplifying regulations, creating a Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC), and strengthening regulatory oversight.
• Nachiket Mor Committee (2013): Focused on comprehensive financial services for the unbanked, recommending universal access to basic banking, credit, insurance, and investment products, and promoting NBFCs as Business Correspondents (BCs).
• Rangarajan Committee: Addressed financial inclusion, disinvestment, and banking computerization, advocating for widespread banking access.
• P.J. Nayak Committee (2014): Recommended improving governance of Boards of Banks in India, including professionalising management and greater board independence.

The correct answer is Anees Salim.

Key Points

• 'Vanity Bagh' is a novel written by the Indian author Anees Salim, who is known for his distinctive storytelling style.
• The book narrates the story of a young boy from a minority Muslim community living in the fictional town of Vanity Bagh, often referred to as "Little Pakistan."
• It delves into themes of identity, communal tensions, and the challenges faced by minority communities in India.
• The protagonist, Imran Jabbari, reflects on his life in Vanity Bagh after being imprisoned for participating in a terror plot, offering a poignant look at the struggles and aspirations of marginalized communities.
• 'Vanity Bagh' won the prestigious The Hindu Literary Prize for Best Fiction in 2013, solidifying Anees Salim's reputation as a significant voice in contemporary Indian literature.

Additional Information

• Vikram Seth
• Vikram Seth is a renowned Indian author and poet, best known for his magnum opus, 'A Suitable Boy', a sprawling novel about post-independence India.
• He has also authored other notable works like 'An Equal Music', a novel about the world of Western classical music, and 'The Golden Gate', a novel in verse.
• Seth's writing is characterized by its lyrical quality, deep character exploration, and rich portrayal of Indian society.
• Arundhati Roy
• Arundhati Roy is an acclaimed Indian author and activist, best known for her debut novel, 'The God of Small Things', which won the Booker Prize in 1997.
• Her work often explores themes of caste, religion, and politics in India.
• In addition to fiction, she is a prominent activist and essayist, with works like 'Field Notes on Democracy' and 'Capitalism: A Ghost Story' addressing social and political issues.
• Anita Desai
• Anita Desai is a celebrated Indian author known for her evocative novels exploring human relationships and emotions.
• Some of her notable works include 'Clear Light of Day', 'Fasting, Feasting', and 'In Custody', which was shortlisted for the Booker Prize.
• Desai’s writing is marked by its psychological depth and nuanced portrayal of Indian culture and society.
• Theme of the Question
• The question highlights the contributions of notable Indian authors who have brought attention to diverse societal themes through their literary works.
• These authors have used their narratives to explore complex issues like identity, culture, politics, and human emotions, leaving a lasting impact on Indian literature and global readership.

The correct answer is Fats.

Key Points

• Fats are a type of macronutrient that provide energy to the body, but they do so slowly due to their complex metabolic process.
• Unlike carbohydrates, fats take longer to break down because they need to undergo processes like beta-oxidation to release energy.
• The slow metabolic activity of fats ensures a gradual and sustained energy release, making them ideal for long-term energy needs.
• Fats are stored in adipose tissues and serve as a reserve energy source, especially during prolonged physical activities or fasting.
• They are an essential part of a balanced diet, providing critical functions such as insulation, organ protection, and aiding in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K).

Additional Information

• Carbohydrates
• Carbohydrates are the primary source of quick energy for the body. They are metabolized rapidly, producing glucose, which is used for immediate energy needs.
• Simple carbohydrates like sugars are digested faster, whereas complex carbohydrates such as starches provide slightly slower energy release.
• They do not provide energy as slowly as fats because their metabolic pathway (glycolysis) is quicker.
• Excess carbohydrates can be stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or converted into fat for long-term storage.
• Proteins
• Proteins are primarily used for growth, repair, and maintaining body tissues rather than as a primary energy source.
• They can serve as an energy source only when carbohydrate and fat reserves are insufficient.
• Protein metabolism is slower compared to carbohydrates but faster than fats.
• Proteins are broken down into amino acids, which can be converted into glucose via gluconeogenesis, providing energy during prolonged fasting or intense physical activity.
• Theme: Metabolism of Macronutrients
• Metabolism refers to the biochemical processes by which the body converts food into energy.
• Fats, carbohydrates, and proteins have distinct metabolic pathways, influencing the rate and duration of energy release.
• Carbohydrates provide immediate energy, proteins contribute during energy deficits, and fats ensure sustained energy release over time.
• A balanced intake of all three macronutrients is critical for optimal body function and maintaining energy levels.

Given:

Length of train 1 = 150 m

Speed of man = 6 km/hr

Time to overtake man = 36 seconds

Length of train 2 = 500 m

Speed of train 2 = 31 km/hr

Formula used:

1. Relative speed = Speed of train - Speed of man (same direction)
2. Speed = Distance / Time
3. Relative speed = Speed of train + Speed of train 2 (opposite direction)
4. Time = Distance / Relative speed

Calculation:

Relative speed = Speed of train - Speed of man

⇒ Speed of train = Distance / Time + Speed of man

⇒ Speed of train = (150 / 36) × (18/5) + 6

⇒ Speed of train = 25 + 6 = 31 km/hr

Relative speed = Speed of train + Speed of train 2

⇒ Relative speed = 31 + 31 = 62 km/hr

⇒ Relative speed = 62 × (5 / 18) = 155/9 m/s

Total distance = 150 + 500 = 650 m

Time = Distance / Relative speed

⇒ Time = 650 / (155/9) = 45 seconds

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Perimeter of base = 44 cm

Height of prism = 8 cm

Total surface area = 390 cm²

Formula used:

Total surface area = Perimeter of base × Height + 2 × Area of triangular bases

Calculation:

390 = 44 × 8 + 2 × Area of triangular bases

⇒ 390 = 352 + 2 × Area of triangular bases

⇒ 390 - 352 = 2 × Area of triangular bases

⇒ 38 = 2 × Area of triangular bases

⇒ Area of triangular bases = 38 ÷ 2 = 19 cm2

∴ Total area of two triangular bases = 19 × 2 = 38 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

The mean proportional of A and 98 is 84.

Formula used:

If x is the mean proportional of a and b, then x = √(a × b).

Calculation:

Mean proportional = 84

⇒ 84 = √(A × 98)

⇒ 84² = A × 98

⇒ 7056 = A × 98

⇒ A = 7056 ÷ 98 = 72

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Edge of the cube = 36 m

Formula used:

Volume of a cube = side³

Calculation:

Volume = 36³

⇒ Volume = 36 × 36 × 36

⇒ Volume = 46,656 m³

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Numbers = 899250, 899493, 899122, 898406

Divisor = 55

Formula used:

A number is divisible by 55 if it is divisible by both 5 and 11.

Divisible by 5: The last digit of the number must be 0 or 5.

Divisible by 11: Difference between the sum of digits in odd positions and the sum of digits in even positions must be divisible by 11.

Calculation:

Checking divisibility:

899250:

• Last digit = 0 ⇒ Divisible by 5.
• Sum of digits in odd positions = 8 + 9 + 5 = 22
• Sum of digits in even positions = 9 + 2 + 0 = 11
• Difference = 22 - 11 = 11 ⇒ Divisible by 11.

⇒ 899250 is divisible by 55.

899493:

• Last digit = 3 ⇒ Not divisible by 5.

⇒ 899493 is not divisible by 55.

899122:

• Last digit = 2 ⇒ Not divisible by 5.

⇒ 899122 is not divisible by 55.

898406:

• Last digit = 6 ⇒ Not divisible by 5.

⇒ 898406 is not divisible by 55.

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3,000

Rate (R) = 7% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula used:

Simple Interest (SI) = $\dfrac{P × R × T}{100}$

Calculation:

SI = $\dfrac{3000 × 7 × 2}{100}$

⇒ SI = $\dfrac{42000}{100}$ = ₹420

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Initial Population (P) = 12,500

Rate of Decrease (r) = 16% annually

Time (t) = 2 years

Formula used:

Final Population = P × (1 - r/100)^t

Percentage Decrease = $\frac{\text{Initial Population - Final Population}}{\text{Initial Population}} \times 100$

Calculation:

Final Population = 12,500 × (1 - 16/100)²

⇒ Final Population = 12,500 × (0.84)²

⇒ Final Population = 8,820

Percentage Decrease = $\frac{12,500 - 8,820}{12,500} \times 100$

⇒ Percentage Decrease = $\frac{3,680}{12,500} \times 100$ = 29.44%

∴ The correct answer is Option 1.

Given:

Speed from Kalyan-Dombivali to Rajkot = 3 km/hr

Speed from Rajkot to Kalyan-Dombivali = 6 km/hr

Formula used:

Average Speed = $\dfrac{2 \times S_1 \times S_2}{S_1 + S_2}$

Where, $\ S_1$ and $\ S_2$ are the speeds of the two journeys.

Calculation:

Average Speed = $\dfrac{2 \times 3 \times 6}{3 + 6}$

⇒ Average Speed = $\dfrac{36}{9}$ = 4 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Sharad completes his journey in 11 hours.

He travels half the distance at 20 km/hr and the remaining half at 30 km/hr.

Formula used:

Total time = Time for first half + Time for second half

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

Total time = 11 hours

Let the total distance = D km.

First half distance = D/2 at speed = 20 km/hr

Second half distance = D/2 at speed = 30 km/hr

⇒ $\frac{D}{2 \times 20} + \frac{D}{2 \times 30} = 11$

⇒ $\frac{D}{40} + \frac{D}{60} = 11$

⇒ $\frac{3D}{120} + \frac{2D}{120} = 11$

⇒ $\frac{5D}{120} = 11$

⇒ $\frac{D}{24} = 11$

⇒ D = 11 × 24 = 264 km

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Outer radius (R) = 14 cm

Inner radius (r) = 7 cm

Height (h) = 10 cm

Formula used:

Volume of hollow cylinder = πh(R² - r²)

Calculation:

Volume = π × 10 × [(14)² - (7)²]

⇒ Volume = π × 10 × [196 - 49]

⇒ Volume = π × 10 × 147

⇒ Volume = 1470π cm³

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

A's investment = ₹8,42,000

B joined after 7 months

Total profit distribution ratio = 6:2 = 3:1

Formula used:

Profit ratio = (Investment × Time)

Calculation:

Let B's investment be ₹x.

A's time = 12 months

B's time = 12 - 7 = 5 months

Profit ratio: A : B = (842000 × 12) : (x × 5)

Given profit ratio = 3:1

⇒ $\dfrac{842000 \times 12}{x \times 5} = \dfrac{3}{1}$

⇒ 842000 × 12 = 3 × x × 5

⇒ x = $\dfrac{842000 \times 12}{15}$ = ₹6,73,600

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Akshay spends 70% of his income.

He saves ₹36,000.

Formula used:

Savings = Income × (100% - Spending%)

Income = Savings ÷ (100% - Spending%)

Calculation:

Income = ₹36,000 ÷ (100% - 70%)

⇒ Income = ₹36,000 ÷ 30%

⇒ Income = ₹1,20,000

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

Speed of water = 6 km/hr

Distance downstream = 78 km

Distance upstream = 26 km

Time taken downstream = Time taken upstream

Distance downstream (to be calculated) = 75 km

Distance upstream (to be calculated) = 15 km

Formula used:

Speed downstream = Speed of boat + Speed of water

Speed upstream = Speed of boat - Speed of water

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

Let the speed of the motorboat be x km/hr.

Speed downstream = x + 6

Speed upstream = x - 6

Time downstream = Time upstream

⇒ $\frac{78}{x+6} = \frac{26}{x-6}$

⇒ 78(x - 6) = 26(x + 6)

⇒ 78x - 468 = 26x + 156

⇒ 78x - 26x = 468 + 156

⇒ 52x = 624

⇒ x = $\frac{624}{52}$ = 12 km/hr

Speed downstream = x + 6 = 12 + 6 = 18 km/hr

Speed upstream = x - 6 = 12 - 6 = 6 km/hr

Time for 75 km downstream:

⇒ Time = $\frac{75}{18}$ = 4 hours 10 minutes

Time for 15 km upstream:

⇒ Time = $\frac{15}{6}$ = 2 hours 30 minutes

Total time = 4 hours 10 minutes + 2 hours 30 minutes = 6 hours 40 minutes

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

6-digit number = 7B256A

Number is divisible by 11

Formula used:

Divisibility rule of 11:

(Sum of digits at odd places − Sum of digits at even places) = 0 or multiple of 11

Calculation:

Digits from left: 7 B 2 5 6 A

Odd places = 7 + 2 + 6 = 15

Even places = B + 5 + A

⇒ (15 − (B + 5 + A)) = 0

⇒ 15 − 5 − B − A = 0

⇒ 10 − (A + B) = 0

⇒ A + B = 10

∴ The correct answer is option: A + B = 10.

Given:

X sells a laptop to Y at a loss of 35%, and Y sells the same laptop to Z at a profit of 36%.

Cost to Z = ₹4,862

Formula used:

Final price to Z = Cost price to X × (1 - Loss% / 100) × (1 + Profit% / 100)

Calculation:

Let the cost price of the laptop to X be ₹x.

₹4,862 = x × (1 - 35/100) × (1 + 36/100)

⇒ ₹4,862 = x × (65/100) × (136/100)

⇒ ₹4,862 = x × (8840/10000)

⇒ x = ₹5,500

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Diagonals of the rhombus = 65 cm and 56 cm

Formula used:

Area of a rhombus = 1/2 × (Length of Diagonal 1) × (Length of Diagonal 2)

Calculation:

Area = 1/2 × 65 × 56

⇒ Area = 1/2 × 3640

⇒ Area = 1820 cm²

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Quantity of rice (Total) = 18 kg

Profit on part of rice = 8%

Profit on the remaining rice = 26%

Overall profit = 24%

Let the quantity of rice sold at 26% profit = x kg

Then, the quantity of rice sold at 8% profit = (18 - x) kg

Formula used:

Total profit = Weighted average of the profit from both parts

Total profit = $\dfrac{(Profit_1 × Quantity_1) + (Profit_2 × Quantity_2)}{Total Quantity}$

Calculation:

Overall profit = $\dfrac{(8 × (18 - x)) + (26 × x)}{18}$

⇒ 24 = $\dfrac{(144 - 8x) + 26x}{18}$

⇒ 24 × 18 = 144 - 8x + 26x

⇒ 432 = 144 + 18x

⇒ 432 - 144 = 18x

⇒ 288 = 18x

⇒ x = $\dfrac{288}{18}$ = 16 kg

∴ The quantity of rice sold at a profit of 26% is 16 kg (Option 4).

Given:

Length (L) = Width (W) + 5 m

Perimeter = 50 m

Formula used:

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (Length + Width)

Calculations:

Perimeter = 2 × (L + W)

50 = 2 × ((W + 5) + W)

⇒ 50 = 2 × (2W + 5)

⇒ 50 = 4W + 10

⇒ 4W = 40

⇒ W = 40 ÷ 4 = 10 m

⇒ L = W + 5 = 10 + 5 = 15 m

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Relay race = 4 × 100 m

Speed of 1st athlete of Team A = 5 m/s

Speed of 1st athlete of Team B = 5 m/s

Speed of 2nd athlete of Team A = 5 m/s

Team B starts after Team A covers 10 m

Formula used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

Time taken by Team A to cover 10 m

⇒ Time = 10 ÷ 5 = 2 s

So, Team B starts 2 s late

Time taken by 1st athlete to run 100 m

⇒ 100 ÷ 5 = 20 s

Time when Team A hands baton to 2nd athlete

⇒ 20 s

Time when Team B hands baton to 2nd athlete

⇒ 20 + 2 = 22 s

Time taken by 2nd athlete of Team A

⇒ 100 ÷ 5 = 20 s

Time when Team A reaches 3rd athlete

⇒ 20 + 20 = 40 s

Available time for 2nd athlete of Team B

⇒ 40 − 22 = 18 s

Required speed of 2nd athlete of Team B

⇒ Speed = 100 ÷ 18 = 5.56 m/s

Convert m/s to km/hr

⇒ 5.56 × 3.6 = 20 km/hr

∴ Required speed of the second athlete of Team B = 20 km/hr.

Given:

Observations = 25, 63, 86, 90, 13, 72, 74, 16, 47

Formula used:

Arithmetic Mean = $\dfrac{\text{Sum of Observations}}{\text{Number of Observations}}$

Calculation:

Sum of Observations = 25 + 63 + 86 + 90 + 13 + 72 + 74 + 16 + 47 = 486

Number of Observations = 9

⇒ Arithmetic Mean = $\dfrac{486}{9}$ = 54

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• The sentence requires the correct usage of articles.
• Option 3 is correct because "No article" is used before "nature" and "the" is used before "mountains" to denote something specific.
• Option 1 is incorrect because "the" cannot be used before "nature" in this context.
• Option 2 is incorrect as it omits the article before "nature" and "mountains" incorrectly.
• Option 4 is incorrect because "the" is not required before "nature" in this case.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "She loves nature and often goes for hikes in the mountains."

Additional Information

• Option 1: The use of "the" before "nature" is incorrect because "nature" is a general concept and does not require an article.
• Option 2: Omitting the article before "nature" and "mountains" is incorrect as the sentence refers to specific mountains.
• Option 4: Using "the" before both "nature" and "mountains" is incorrect as "nature" does not need an article.

The correct answer is 'nurturing'.

Key Points

• The adjective "nurturing" means caring and providing support, which perfectly fits the description of Madhavi's behavior towards her children and old parents.
• Option 2, "majestic," refers to something grand or royal, which is not contextually appropriate here.
• Option 3, "loyal," describes faithfulness, which does not capture the caring aspect required in the sentence.
• Option 4, "magical," refers to something enchanting or supernatural, which is not relevant in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "Madhavi was nurturing and caring towards her children and old parents."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "majestic" is incorrect because it does not convey the sense of care and support needed in the context.
• Option 3: "loyal" is incorrect because while loyalty is a positive trait, it does not encompass the nurturing aspect.
• Option 4: "magical" is incorrect as it refers to something extraordinary or supernatural, which is unrelated to the situation.

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. QORP

Key Points

• The sentence begins with the subject "I had been going," which is indicated by the initial part given.
• Following the subject, "to school by car so far, but" (Q) continues the logical sequence, making it clear what the speaker had been doing.
• The next part, "from now on, I will be going" (O), provides a contrast to what the speaker had been doing, indicating a change.
• Following this, "by the school van" (R) completes the action, explaining how the speaker will be going from now on.
• Finally, "to do my bit for the environment" (P) explains the reason for the change.

Therefore, the correct answer is QORP.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (QPOR): This option incorrectly sequences the parts, which disrupts the logical flow of the sentence.
• Option 2 (PQOR): This option starts with the reason for the change, which is less coherent than stating the actions first.
• Option 3 (RQPO): This option lacks coherence as it doesn't follow the timeline of the actions effectively.

The correct answer is 'Option 2' i.e. 'a spear with a long wooden shaft'.

Key Points

• Pike is a homonym. It can refer to both a type of long spear and a large predatory fish.
• In the context of "handling a pike," it refers to the weapon: a spear with a long wooden shaft.
• The other meanings—"a number of things lying one on top of another" and "place in a pile"—are related to the word "pile," not "pike."
• "A large predatory freshwater fish" is another meaning of "pike" but does not fit the context of handling as a skill.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 2'.

The correct answer is: Proclamation.

Key Points

• The word "Proclamation" refers to an official or public announcement of great importance, usually made by the government or an authoritative body. (घोषणा, सार्वजनिक घोषणा)
• Example: The king issued a proclamation declaring the day a public holiday.
• In the given context, the government's "official statement" is best described as a proclamation, as it is a formal declaration to clarify the situation.
• Hence, the word "Proclamation" perfectly substitutes the underlined words in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Proclamation.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Manifesto (घोषणापत्र): A public declaration of the policies and aims of a political party or organization, especially before an election.
• Example: The party released its election manifesto outlining its plans for economic reform.
• Degree (डिग्री): A unit of measurement, level, or academic qualification.
• Example: She earned her degree in computer science from a renowned university.
• Annulment (निरस्तीकरण): The act of declaring something invalid, especially a legal decision or contract.
• Example: The annulment of the contract left both parties free to negotiate new terms.

The correct answer is 'an, a'.

Key Points

• The article "an" is used before a word that starts with a vowel sound. In this case, "old" starts with a vowel sound, so "an" is correct.
• The article "a" is used before a singular noun that starts with a consonant sound. Here, "historical fact" starts with a consonant sound, so "a" is appropriate.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect as they do not follow the correct usage of articles with vowel and consonant sounds.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "She enjoyed watching an old documentary based on a historical fact."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "the, an" is incorrect because "the" is not used before a general noun such as "old documentary."
• Option 2: "No article, a" is incorrect because an article is required before "old documentary," as it is a singular noun.
• Option 3: "No article, No article" is incorrect because articles are necessary for both "old documentary" and "historical fact."

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "To ignore or neglect."

Key Points

• The idiom "Make light of" means to treat something as unimportant or to minimize the significance of something. (किसी चीज़ को नज़रअंदाज करना या महत्वहीन समझना)
• Example: She made light of her injury, even though it was quite serious.
• Explanation of Correct Answer: "To ignore or neglect" aligns with the meaning of the idiom "Make light of," as it refers to not giving proper importance to something. (अनदेखा करना या उपेक्षा करना)
• Example: He made light of the warning signs, which later led to bigger problems.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: To be kind and grateful (दयालु और आभारी होना): This refers to showing kindness and expressing gratitude.
• Example: She was kind and grateful to everyone who helped her during difficult times.
• Option 3: To fight with (झगड़ा करना): This means to engage in a conflict or argument with someone.
• Example: He often fights with his younger brother over trivial issues.
• Option 4: To think for a long time (लंबे समय तक सोचना): This refers to deeply contemplating or pondering over something.
• Example: She thought for a long time before making her decision.

The correct answer is: Harmful.

Key Points

• The word "Innocuous" means something that is harmless, not offensive, or unlikely to cause any harm. (निष्कर या हानिरहित)
• Example: The child’s innocuous prank brought smiles instead of anger.
• "Harmful" refers to something that causes harm, injury, or damage. It is the opposite of innocuous. (हानिकारक)
• Example: Smoking is harmful to your health and can lead to severe illnesses.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'Innocuous' is 'Harmful'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Harmful.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Graceful (सुंदर): Characterized by elegance or beauty in movement or form.
• Example: The dancer’s graceful movements captivated the audience.
• Delightful (आनंददायक): Something that gives great pleasure or enjoyment.
• Example: The delightful aroma of fresh flowers filled the room.
• Powerful (शक्तिशाली): Having great strength or influence.
• Example: He delivered a powerful speech that inspired the audience.

The correct answer is: Generous.

Key Points

• The word "Generous" refers to someone who is willing to give help, money, or kindness freely to others without expecting anything in return. (उदार)
• Example: She is so generous that she donated half of her earnings to charity.
• Arjun’s behavior of helping others without expecting anything in return is a clear indication of his generous nature. (उदारता)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Generous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Greedy (लालची): Always wanting more of something than one needs, often money or food.
• Example: His greedy nature prevented him from sharing his wealth with others.
• Selfish (स्वार्थी): Concerned excessively or exclusively with oneself and disregarding others.
• Example: She was too selfish to help her struggling friend.
• Stingy (कंजूस): Unwilling to spend money or give things away.
• Example: He is so stingy that he refuses to buy even basic necessities for himself.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Indispensible'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Indispensable'.
• The word 'Indispensable' is an adjective which means 'absolutely necessary'. (अति आवश्यक)
• For Example -
• Education is indispensable for personal and professional growth.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Indispensible'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Interrogate - to ask questions of someone closely, aggressively, or formally (पूछताछ करना)
• Insouciant - showing a casual lack of concern; indifferent (निर्विकार)
• Indomitable - impossible to subdue or defeat (अविजेय)

The correct answer is 'kindhearted'.

Key Points

• The adjective "kindhearted" is the most appropriate to describe Zainab, as it highlights her caring and empathetic nature while comforting the patient.
• Option 1, "flawless," does not suit the context as it refers to perfection, not empathy or care.
• Option 2, "hardworking," focuses on effort rather than the emotional quality required in this scenario.
• Option 4, "noteworthy," implies being remarkable but doesn't convey compassion or kindness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "Zainab, the kindhearted nursing officer, comforted the patient during his stay."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "flawless" is incorrect as it does not relate to the emotional context of the sentence.
• Option 2: "hardworking" is incorrect because it emphasizes effort and not the compassionate quality needed here.
• Option 4: "noteworthy" is incorrect because it implies being remarkable, which does not fit the emotional tone of the sentence.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Polyglot.

Key Points

• The word "Polyglot" refers to a person who is proficient in speaking, reading, or writing multiple languages. (बहुभाषी व्यक्ति)
• Example: As a polyglot, she can fluently converse in English, Spanish, French, and Mandarin.
• A polyglot is often admired for their linguistic skills and ability to connect with people from different cultures. (संस्कृतियों से जुड़ने की क्षमता के लिए प्रशंसा की जाती है)
• Example: He works as a translator because his polyglot skills allow him to communicate with clients worldwide.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Coquette (चंचल स्त्री): A woman who flirts or behaves playfully to attract others.
• Example: She is often called a coquette because of her charming and playful demeanor.
• Demagogue (जननेता): A political leader who seeks support by appealing to popular desires and prejudices rather than by using rational arguments.
• Example: The demagogue stirred the crowd with emotional speeches but lacked a solid plan for governance.
• Almanac (पंचांग): A yearly publication that includes information like calendars, weather forecasts, and important dates.
• Example: Farmers often consult the almanac to plan their planting and harvesting schedules.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Lackadaisikal'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Lackadaisical'.
• The word 'Lackadaisical' is an adjective which means 'lacking enthusiasm and determination; carelessly lazy'. (उदासीन)
• For Example -
• She greeted me with a lackadaisical wave.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Lackadaisikal'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Lachrymose - tending to induce tears; tearful or sad (आँसूभरा)
• Kaleidoscope - a constantly changing pattern or sequence of elements (रंगीन दृश्य)
• Labyrinthine - complicated or intricate (जटिल)

The correct answer is 'surprised'.

Key Points

• The adjective "surprised" is used to describe Tejaswini's reaction to the unexpected guest.
• It fits perfectly in the context of the sentence as it conveys an emotional response to the event.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are inappropriate in this context as they do not match the meaning intended by the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "Tejaswini was surprised by the unexpected guest."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "shy" is incorrect because it describes personality traits rather than a reaction to an event.
• Option 3: "tough" is inappropriate as it does not align with the emotional context of the sentence.
• Option 4: "uncertain" does not express Tejaswini's emotional reaction correctly.

The correct answer is: Option 1 (Ponder).

Key Points

• The idiom "Mull over" means to think about something deeply and carefully before making a decision. (गहराई से विचार करना)
• Example: She decided to mull over the job offer before accepting it.
• "Ponder" refers to the act of carefully considering or thinking deeply about something. (विचार करना)
• Example: He pondered the consequences of his actions before making a decision.
• Thus, the idiom "Mull over" and the word "Ponder" have a similar meaning, making Option 1 the correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 (Ponder).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Guise (वेशभूषा): An external appearance, often concealing the true nature of something.
• Example: He appeared at the party in the guise of a detective.
• Lament (शोक): To express sorrow, regret, or grief.
• Example: She lamented the loss of her childhood home.
• Latter (बाद वाला): Refers to the second or last thing mentioned in a comparison.
• Example: I prefer tea to coffee; the latter is too bitter for my taste.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• India has the highest number of malnourished children in the world, with about 47% children under five being underweight.
• This is a major concern as highlighted in the UNICEF report, indicating India's poor status compared to other countries, even sub-Saharan Africa.
• States like Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Orissa, Bihar, and Maharashtra are the worst-affected.
• Over 50% children in some of these states are malnourished, worsening the national average.
• The causes include poor feeding, high population density, high rate of infectious diseases, illiteracy among women, gender inequality, low immunisation, and birth of underweight babies.
• These factors collectively contribute to the increasing number of malnourished children in India.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: Its increasing number of malnourished children.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Its growing number of population): Incorrect because the passage highlights malnutrition, not population growth, as the main concern.
• Option 2 (Its comparison with Africa’s children): Incorrect because the comparison is used to emphasize the severity, not as the primary concern.
• Option 3 (Its report cards that are published globally): Incorrect since the global reports only present the data, not the concern itself.
• Option 4 (Its increasing number of malnourished children): Correct as it directly addresses the main issue discussed in the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that over 50% children in some of the badly affected states (like Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Orissa, and Maharashtra) are malnourished.
• This means the percentage of suffering children in these states is more than 50%.
• The national average is 47% for children under five who are underweight, but in some states, the situation is worse.
• So, the percentage in the most affected states is higher than both the national average and the 33% reported for sub-Saharan Africa.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: More than 50%.

Additional Information

• Option 2 (More than 33%): Incorrect, as the correct percentage is even higher in these states.
• Option 3 (Less than 47%): Incorrect, because the passage says the percentage is above the national average in these states.
• Option 4 (Less than 50%): Incorrect, as it is actually more than 50%.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• The passage clearly states that the figures are mentioned in UNICEF's 'Progress for Children - A Report Card on Nutrition', released globally.
• UNICEF is the United Nations Children's Fund, which focuses on child welfare globally.
• None of the other options (POC, WHO, or CDNP) are mentioned as the publisher of the report in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: UNICEF.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (POC): Incorrect, not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 2 (WHO): Incorrect, although WHO is a global health organization, it is not the publisher of this report according to the passage.
• Option 3 (CDNP): Incorrect, CDNP is mentioned as a programme, not the publisher.
• Option 4 (UNICEF): Correct, as stated in the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• The passage presents facts and statistics about malnutrition in India, including specific data and comparisons with other regions.
• It mentions sources, affected states, and causes, all in an objective and factual manner.
• There is no use of sarcasm or judgemental language.
• While the passage analyzes causes, its main tone is to inform the reader about the situation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: Informative.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (Analytical): Incorrect, as the passage primarily provides information rather than deep analysis.
• Option 2 (Sarcastic): Incorrect, as there is no sarcasm in the language used.
• Option 3 (Judgemental): Incorrect, since the passage does not pass judgement but simply states facts.
• Option 4 (Informative): Correct, as the passage's primary purpose is to inform the reader.

The correct answer is: Option (2) i.e. Restrain.

Key Points

• The word "Release" means to set free, allow to move, or let go. (रिहा करना / छोड़ना)
• Example: The police decided to release the prisoner after finding him innocent.
• "Restrain" means to hold back, keep under control, or prevent someone or something from moving freely. (रोकना / बाँधना)
• Example: The teacher had to restrain the students from running in the hallway.
• Therefore, "Restrain" is the most suitable antonym for "Release" as it expresses the opposite action—holding back instead of setting free.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Restrain.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Contempt (घृणा / तिरस्कार): The feeling that a person or thing is beneath consideration or worthless.
• Example: He spoke with contempt about the unfair rules.
• Dedicate (समर्पित करना): To devote time, effort, or oneself to a particular task or purpose.
• Example: She decided to dedicate her life to helping the poor.
• Elevate (ऊँचा उठाना): To raise or lift something up to a higher position.
• Example: The new policy will elevate the quality of education in rural areas.

'उगले तो अंधा, खाये तो कोढ़ी' लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है- दुविधा में पड़ना

Key Points

• 'उगले तो अंधा, खाये तो कोढ़ी' का अर्थ - दुविधा में पड़ना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग- "गोपाल ने राज की बात सुन ली थी, लेकिन उसे किसी को बताने में संकोच हो रहा था;
• बताने पर समस्या बढ़ सकती थी और न बताने पर उसकी जान को खतरा था। यह सचमुच "उगले तो अंधा, निगले तो कोढ़ी' वाली स्थिति थी।"
• लोकोक्ति - जब कोई पूरा कथन किसी प्रसंग विशेष में उद्धत किया जाता है, लोकोक्ति कहलाता है। इसी को कहावत कहते है।
• जैसे -  'छोटा मुँह बड़ी बात' का अर्थ - कम उम्र या अनुभव वाले मनुष्य का लम्बी-चौड़ी बातें करना। वाक्य प्रयोग - किशन तो हमेशा "छोटा मुँह बड़ी बात करता है"। ​

अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information 

क्रिया-विशेषण के उचित भेद है - परिमाणवाचक

Key Points

• वाक्य में प्रयोग किया गया शब्द 'कम' क्रिया (पढ़ना) की मात्रा या परिमाण का बोध करा रहा है। वाक्य में परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है।
• जिन अविकारी शब्दों से क्रिया के परिमाण और उसकी संख्या का पता चलता है, उसे परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण कहते हैं।
• जैसे - बहुत, अधिक, पूर्णतया, कुछ, थोडा, काफी, केवल, इतना, उतना, कितना, थोड़ा-थोड़ा, एक-एक करके, जरा, खूब, बिलकुल, ज्यादा, अल्प, बड़ा, भारी, लगभग, क्रमशः आदि।​
• सीता बहुत बोलती है।

Important Points 

 अर्थ के आधार पर क्रिया-विशेषण के भेद-

• स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण
• रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है - अशिष्ट

Key Points

• वाक्य - वर्तमान में नेता एक-दूसरे पर अशिष्ट टिप्पणियाँ करना शान समझते हैं।
• 'अभद्र'​ का पर्यायवाची शब्द 'अशिष्ट' है।
• 'अभद्र'​ के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - असभ्य, अभद्र, बदतमीज़, उजड्ड, उद्दंड, मूर्ख।
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information

    कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - परिमाणवाचक

Key Points

• वाक्य में प्रयोग किया गया शब्द 'पर्याप्त' संज्ञा शब्द 'अनाज' की मात्रा या तौल का बोध करा रहा है। वाक्य में परिमाणवाचक विशेषण है।
• जो विशेषण संज्ञा या सर्वनाम की मात्रा या नाप-तौल के परिणाम की विशेषता बताएं उसे परिणामवाचक विशेषण कहते हैं।
• जैसे- ‘सेर’ भर दूध, ‘तोला’ भर सोना, ‘थोड़ा’ पानी, ‘कुछ’ पानी, ‘सब’ धन, ‘और’ घी लाओ, ‘दो’ लीटर दूध, ‘बहुत’ चीनी इत्यादि।
• उदाहरण - दो किलो चीनी लाओ।

Important Points 

 विशेषण के भेद -

1. गुणवाचक विशेषण
2. परिणामवाचक विशेषण
3. संख्यावाचक विशेषण
4. सार्वनामिक विशेषण

Additional Information  

सही उत्तर है - को - कर्म कारक

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य इस प्रकार होगा: "मोहन ने बिल्ली को गोद में लिया।"
• यहाँ 'लेने' की क्रिया का प्रभाव 'बिल्ली' पर पड़ रहा है। इस वाक्य में 'को' विभक्ति का प्रयोग कर्म कारक के रूप में हुआ है।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप पर क्रिया का प्रभाव या फल पड़े, उसे कर्म कारक कहते हैं। कर्म के साथ ’को’ विभक्ति आती है।
• उदाहरण -
• तनुज ने तारिणी को बुलाया।
• वह शेर को सहलाता है।