DSSSB TGT (English) Official Paper (Held On: 24 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

(I) Some chocolates are tables. - False (As their is no direct relation between chocolates and tables may be it is possible but not definite.)

(II) Some bats are tables. - False (As their is no direct relation between chocolates and tables may be it is possible but not definite.)

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given :

Each of D, G, K, P, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. T has an exam on Thursday. U has an exam on one of the days after G and on one of the days before P. No one has an exam after V. Only D has an exam immediately between V and K.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The diagram given below, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The English alphabetical series is given as-

The logic is as follows-  +1 for all letters

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given :

• A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
• B sits to the immediate right of D.
• C is an immediate neighbour of both F and A.
• E sits third to the right of A.
• A is an immediate neighbour of D.

The final arrangement is

The position of F with respect to E is immediately to the right. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

Similarly, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

1. Identify the lowest and highest numbers from the list: 895, 915, 548, 584, 624.
2. The lowest number is 548. Its second digit is 4.
3. The highest number is 915. Its third digit is 5.
4. Add the second digit of the lowest number to the third digit of the highest number: 4 + 5 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2 ".

To find the code for 'D,' you can compare the two given codes:

RISE is coded as 5381.

DESI is coded as 9581.

By comparing the two words and their codes

• The letters 'I,' S,' and 'E' are common to both RISE and DESI.
• The digits '5', '8', and '1' are common to both codes.
• The common letters 'I', 'S', and 'E' match the common digits '5,' '8,' and '1'.
• In RISE, the only remaining letter is 'R', and the remaining digit is '3.' So, the code for 'R' is '3.'
• In DESI, the only remaining letter is 'D', and the remaining digit is '9.'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The logic follows here. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3 "

Applying these replacements to the original equation, 36 ÷ 320 × 5 + 12 – 6 = ?, results in the new equation:

36 + 320 ÷ 5 − 12 × 6 = ? 

Following the order of operations (BODMAS):

Division: 320 ÷ 5 = 64

36 + 64 − 12 × 6

Multiplication: 12 × 6 = 72

36 + 64 − 72

Addition: 36 + 64 = 100

100 − 72

= 28

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

According to the information given in the question :

Given expression : 'A - D @ G ÷ K & M'

Possible family tree diagram will be :

K is the son of M and G is daughter of A . So, relation between between A and M is  father of son's wife

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Explanation:

Statement B:

The group needs funds to conduct their annual meeting, which is the underlying reason for the leader's request for contributions.

Statement A:

The leader's request to contribute money is a direct consequence of the group's need for funds to hold the meeting.

Key point: Cause-and-effect relationships often involve one statement explaining why something else happens. In this case, Statement B explains why the leader is making the request in Statement A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given: ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’. 

Equation: 89 B 13 D 484 A 4 C 151 = ?

Substitution: 89 × 13 − 484 ÷ 4 + 151 = ?

89 × 13 - 121 + 151 = ?

1036 + 151 = 1187

 Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Given—(Left) 895 874 832 897 824 (Right)

The third digit of the lowest number is added to the second digit of the highest number.

The third digit of the lowest number (824) is 4. The second digit of the highest number (897) is 9.

9 + 4 = 13.  

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

Logic : (First Number + Second Number) × 2 = Third Number.

7 - 3 - 20

(7 + 3) x 2 = 10 x 2 =20.

4 - 5 - 18

(4 + 5) x 2 = 9 x 2 =18.

Similarly,

4 - 7 - 22

 (4 + 7) x 2 = 22.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Logic: 

All follow the same logic except JK-PT. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The Logic follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

**Given :**Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, K, L and M, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order.

Only two boxes are kept below K.

• Only one box is kept above L.
• Only one box is kept between L and D.
• B is kept immediately above M.
• C is kept at some place below A

The final Arrangment is 

• | A | | --- | | L | | C | | D | | K | | B | | M |

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1 "

The Logic follows.

All follows the same logic except INL. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

The correct answer is 113.

Key Points

• The SDG India Index 2023-24 tracks the performance of all Indian States and Union Territories (UTs) on 113 indicators derived from the National Indicator Framework (NIF) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• The National Indicator Framework (NIF) aligns with the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), providing a standardized method to monitor India’s progress toward achieving its SDG targets.
• These 113 indicators span across social, economic, and environmental dimensions of sustainable development, ensuring comprehensive coverage of the SDG framework.
• The SDG India Index is developed by NITI Aayog, the apex public policy think tank of the Government of India, in collaboration with the United Nations.
• The index serves as a tool for policy formulation and decision-making, fostering competition among states and UTs for better performance on SDG-related parameters.

Additional Information

• SDG India Index:
• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a collection of 17 global goals set by the United Nations in 2015 to address global challenges such as poverty, inequality, climate change, and environmental degradation.
• The SDG India Index, introduced in 2018, ranks Indian states and UTs based on their performance across these goals using specific indicators.
• The index promotes cooperative federalism by encouraging states and UTs to compete and collaborate for improved SDG outcomes.
• The index is updated annually to include new data and refine methodologies for better accuracy and relevance.

The correct answer is Sharad Pagare.

Key Points

• The book 'Patliputra Ki Samagri' is a historical novel written by Sharad Pagare.
• It is based on the ancient city of Pataliputra, which was the capital of the Magadha Empire and played a central role in Indian history.
• The novel explores the socio-political and cultural aspects of ancient India, particularly during the Mauryan period.
• Sharad Pagare is known for his historical fiction, and this book is among his notable works reflecting his extensive knowledge of Indian history.
• The author uses fictional elements to weave a compelling story while staying true to historical facts and events.

Additional Information

• Narendra Kohli
• Narendra Kohli is a renowned Hindi author known for his works in satirical and mythological genres.
• He is celebrated for modern adaptations of Indian epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata, such as 'Abhyudaya' and 'Mahasamar'.
• His writings focus on presenting traditional Indian values in a contemporary manner.
• Mannu Bhandari
• Mannu Bhandari was a noted Hindi novelist and short story writer, associated with the Nayi Kahani movement in Hindi literature.
• Her famous works include 'Aapka Bunty' and 'Mahabhoj', which explore themes of social and personal conflicts.
• She is known for her deep understanding of human emotions and societal issues.
• Mamta Kalia
• Mamta Kalia is a contemporary Hindi writer known for her poetry, fiction, and essays.
• Her works often focus on the challenges faced by women in Indian society and are marked by a feminist perspective.
• Some of her notable works include 'Beghar' and 'Nayi Devyani'.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form that originated in Kerala and is named after "Mohini," a mythical enchantress avatar of Lord Vishnu.
• This dance form is known for its graceful movements and emotive expressions, symbolizing feminine beauty and elegance.
• Mohiniyattam is traditionally performed as a solo recital by women, accompanied by Carnatic music and instruments like mridangam and veena.
• It is characterized by soft rhythms, subtle gestures, and lyrical storytelling based on themes from Hindu mythology, especially the stories of Lord Vishnu.
• The costume used in Mohiniyattam is mostly white or ivory, accentuated with golden borders, which reflects the cultural aesthetics of Kerala.

Additional Information

• Karnataka
• Karnataka is known for classical dance forms such as Bharatanatyam and Yakshagana.
• Yakshagana is a traditional folk theatre form combining dance, music, and dialogue, originating in Karnataka.
• Bharatanatyam, although primarily associated with Tamil Nadu, also has a strong presence in Karnataka.
• Andhra Pradesh
• The state is renowned for Kuchipudi, a classical dance form that blends dance, drama, and storytelling.
• Kuchipudi originated in the village of Kuchipudi and is characterized by intricate footwork and expressive hand gestures.
• It is traditionally performed by both men and women and includes musical and narrative components.
• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu is the birthplace of Bharatanatyam, one of the oldest and most popular classical dance forms in India.
• Bharatanatyam emphasizes rhythmic footwork, mudras (hand gestures), and facial expressions to convey stories from Hindu mythology.
• The dance form is deeply rooted in Tamil culture and is often performed in temples as an offering to deities.

The correct answer is WC Bonnerjee.

Key Points

• WC Bonnerjee was the first President of the Indian National Congress (INC) and presided over its first session in 1885 held in Bombay (now Mumbai).
• He was a prominent barrister and one of the founding members of the INC, contributing significantly to the early political movements in India.
• The first session of the INC was attended by 72 delegates from across the country, marking the foundation of a political platform for India's freedom struggle.
• WC Bonnerjee emphasized the importance of unity among Indians and peaceful methods to achieve constitutional reforms under British rule.
• His leadership in the first session laid the groundwork for the INC to evolve into a major force in India's independence movement.

Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi
• Mahatma Gandhi, also known as the Father of the Nation, played a pivotal role in India's struggle for independence.
• He joined the Indian National Congress in 1915 and later became its President in 1924 during the Belgaum session.
• He is best known for his philosophy of non-violence (Ahimsa) and his leadership in movements such as the Non-Cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement, and Quit India Movement.
• AO Hume
• Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British civil servant, was one of the key founders of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
• He played a crucial role in bringing together Indian leaders from different regions to form a unified political platform.
• Though he did not preside over the first session, his efforts were instrumental in establishing the INC as an organization.
• Jawaharlal Nehru
• Jawaharlal Nehru, India's first Prime Minister, was a prominent leader of the INC and a key figure in the independence movement.
• He served as the President of the INC multiple times, including the Lahore session of 1929, where the demand for complete independence (Purna Swaraj) was adopted.
• However, he was not associated with the first session of the INC in 1885 as he was only 16 years old at the time.

The correct answer is Dfc – Cold humid winter with short summer.

Key Points

• Arunachal Pradesh experiences a Dfc climate as per the Köppen classification. This climate type is characterized by cold winters with humid conditions and short summers.
• The Dfc climate is typically found in high-altitude regions, which aligns with Arunachal Pradesh’s geography as a Himalayan state in Northeast India.
• In the Dfc climate, the average temperature of the warmest month is below 22°C, and the coldest month is below 0°C, which matches the conditions in Arunachal Pradesh.
• Arunachal Pradesh receives substantial precipitation throughout the year due to its proximity to the Himalayan region and the monsoon winds.
• The region's unique topography and altitude contribute to its climatic conditions, making it a suitable example of the Dfc climate zone.

Additional Information

• Cwg – Monsoon with dry winter:
• This climate type is characterized by monsoon conditions with a significant dry season during winter months.
• Cwg climates are typically found in regions with distinct wet and dry seasons, such as parts of Central India and Northern plains.
• Arunachal Pradesh, however, does not experience a dry winter due to its geographical location and elevation.
• Amw – Monsoon with short dry season:
• This climate type is marked by heavy monsoon rainfall with a brief dry season.
• It is commonly observed in coastal areas and regions closer to the tropics, such as parts of South India.
• Arunachal Pradesh’s climate is more influenced by its altitude and Himalayan proximity rather than tropical characteristics.
• Bwhw – Semi-arid steppe climate:
• This climate type is defined by arid or semi-arid conditions with scarce rainfall and high temperatures.
• It is typically found in desert areas like Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat.

The correct answer is It facilitates group-based lending to reduce credit risk and enhance repayment rates.

Key Points

• The Joint Liability Group (JLG) model is a critical mechanism in microfinance that promotes group-based lending, ensuring that borrowers provide mutual guarantees for loan repayment.
• This model helps reduce the credit risk for financial institutions by leveraging peer pressure and collective accountability among group members.
• JLGs typically consist of 4 to 10 individuals who come together voluntarily, often engaging in similar economic activities, to secure loans without requiring collateral.
• By fostering collective responsibility, the JLG model significantly enhances repayment rates, making it a sustainable model for microfinance institutions (MFIs).
• It also helps in financial inclusion by providing access to credit to economically weaker sections, particularly in rural areas, where traditional banking services are limited.

Additional Information

• Joint Liability Group (JLG) Model
• The JLG model was introduced to address the issue of collateral-free credit for the economically weaker sections of society.
• It is widely used in India to promote financial inclusion and empower small entrepreneurs, farmers, and women.
• The success of the JLG model depends on trust, mutual accountability, and group cohesion among its members.

The correct answer is Deccan and Kalinga.

Key Points

• After the decline of the Mauryan Empire, several regional kingdoms emerged, including in regions like the Deccan and Kalinga, which were part of Ashoka’s empire.
• The Deccan region saw the rise of the Satavahanas, who played a key role in Indian history post-Mauryan rule.
• Kalinga, which was famously conquered by Ashoka, became an independent region and saw the emergence of rulers like the Chedis.
• The disintegration of the Mauryan Empire led to political fragmentation, where local rulers and dynasties asserted their authority in these regions.
• The regions of Deccan and Kalinga were culturally and politically significant during and after the Mauryan period, contributing to the spread of religion, trade, and art.

Additional Information

• Kalinga and Bengal:
• Kalinga was significant during Ashoka’s reign, especially after the Kalinga war in 261 BCE; however, Bengal was not a distinct region associated with Ashoka’s empire.
• Post-Mauryan Bengal saw the rise of the Pundra and Samatata regions under local rulers.
• Deccan and Gujarat:
• The Deccan was a part of the Mauryan Empire and witnessed the rise of the Satavahanas after its decline.
• Gujarat, however, was more influenced by the Western Satraps, who ruled after the Mauryan period, rather than being closely associated with Ashoka’s empire.
• Gujarat and Rajasthan:
• While parts of Gujarat were under Ashoka’s empire, Rajasthan was primarily a region of the Malwa and Surasena tribes during this time.
• These regions saw the rise of local powers like the Western Satraps and the Rajput clans post-Mauryan era.

The correct answer is 8.

Key Points

• The original Indian Constitution, which came into effect on 26 January 1950, had a total of 8 schedules.
• The schedules of the Constitution provide additional details and administrative provisions that are not explicitly included in the articles.
• The 8 schedules in the original Constitution covered topics such as allocation of powers, representation, and governance structures (e.g., lists of states, union territories, and provisions for administration).
• Over time, the number of schedules increased due to constitutional amendments, with the current total being 12 schedules.
• The original schedules dealt with important aspects such as the division of powers between the Union and the States (7^th Schedule) and the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (4^th Schedule).

Additional Information

• First Schedule: Lists the States and Union Territories (UTs), defining their territorial jurisdictions.
• Second Schedule: Outlines provisions regarding emoluments, allowances, and privileges of high officials (President, Governors, SC/HC Judges, CAG).
• Third Schedule: Contains forms of oaths and affirmations for ministers, judges, and legislators.
• Fourth Schedule: Specifies the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) to States and UTs.
• Fifth Schedule: Governs the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
• Sixth Schedule: Details the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• Seventh Schedule: Defines the distribution of power between the Union and States through three lists: Union (100 subjects), State (61 subjects), and Concurrent (52 subjects).
• Eighth Schedule: Recognizes 22 official languages.

The correct answer is Animal Husbandry.

Key Points

• Operation Flood was launched by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in 1970 to make India self-sufficient in milk production and transform the country into the largest producer of milk globally.
• Animal husbandry, particularly dairy farming, played a central role in Operation Flood as it aimed to increase milk production by improving livestock breeding, health, and feed practices.
• The initiative was instrumental in creating a nationwide milk grid, reducing dependency on imports, and ensuring fair prices for both producers and consumers.
• Under this program, cooperatives were established to empower farmers, especially small-scale dairy farmers, to collectively market their milk and earn better livelihoods.
• Operation Flood also contributed significantly to rural development by improving the income levels of dairy farmers and promoting livestock management practices.

Additional Information

• Information Technology:
• Information technology involves the use of computers, software, and networks for processing and distributing information.
• While IT has revolutionized various sectors like banking, education, and healthcare, it is not directly related to Operation Flood, which primarily focuses on dairy and livestock development.
• However, IT has indirectly contributed to dairy farming by enabling better record-keeping, supply chain management, and online platforms for marketing agricultural produce.
• Fisheries:
• Fisheries refer to the cultivation, harvesting, and marketing of fish and other aquatic organisms.
• Though important for India's agricultural economy, fisheries are not connected to Operation Flood, which exclusively focuses on milk production and dairy farming.
• India is a major producer of fish globally, but this sector falls under the purview of programs like the Blue Revolution rather than Operation Flood.
• Horticulture:
• Horticulture involves the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, flowers, and ornamental plants.
• This sector plays a vital role in enhancing nutritional security and generating employment but is unrelated to Operation Flood, which centers around dairy farming.
• Government programs like the National Horticulture Mission are focused on promoting horticulture development in India.

The correct answer is Heredity.

Key Points

• Heredity is the biological process through which genetic traits are passed from parents to their offspring.
• This transmission occurs through genes, which are the functional units of heredity located on chromosomes.
• Heredity ensures the continuity of specific characteristics, such as physical traits, eye color, and susceptibility to certain diseases, across generations.
• It forms the basis of evolutionary processes, allowing organisms to adapt to their environment over time.
• Gregor Mendel, known as the "Father of Genetics," conducted experiments on pea plants to establish the fundamental principles of heredity.

Additional Information

• Regeneration:
• Regeneration refers to the process by which organisms repair or replace damaged or lost tissues, organs, or body parts.
• It is observed in various organisms, such as starfish, flatworms, and salamanders, which can regenerate entire body parts.
• This process is different from heredity as it involves the restoration of structures rather than the transfer of traits between generations.
• Transformation:
• In biology, transformation refers to the genetic alteration of a cell resulting from the direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous DNA.
• This phenomenon was first observed by Frederick Griffith in 1928 during his experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• While it is a method of genetic exchange, it is unrelated to the inheritance of traits from parent to offspring.
• Mutation:
• Mutations are changes that occur in the DNA sequence, which can result from errors during DNA replication or exposure to environmental factors such as radiation.
• While mutations can lead to new traits and variations, they do not directly describe the process of inheritance from one generation to the next.
• Mutations are a source of genetic diversity and can play a role in evolutionary adaptation.

The correct answer is 9.

Key Points

• On 7 September 2024, the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change celebrated the International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies.
• The event was marked by awarding the top 9 best-performing cities under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
• The NCAP aims to reduce air pollution levels across cities in India and improve overall air quality by reducing PM2.5 and PM10 concentrations.
• These cities were selected based on their consistent efforts and remarkable progress in achieving air quality improvement under the NCAP framework.
• The occasion highlighted India’s commitment to combating air pollution and showcased the achievements of cities that have implemented successful air quality management practices.

Additional Information

• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
• The NCAP was launched in January 2019 by the Government of India to tackle air pollution in a comprehensive manner.
• The programme aims to achieve a 20-30% reduction in PM2.5 and PM10 particulate matter concentrations by 2024 (with 2017 as the base year).
• It focuses on 131 non-attainment cities, which have been identified based on air quality data that does not meet the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS).
• Strategies include better monitoring systems, stakeholder participation, capacity building, and public awareness campaigns.
• Significance of International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies:
• The United Nations General Assembly designated 7 September as the International Day of Clean Air for Blue Skies in 2019.
• This global observance aims to raise awareness about air pollution and its harmful effects on health, climate, and ecosystems.
• The theme for 2024 focuses on sustainable solutions and collaborative efforts to reduce air pollution.

The correct answer is Henry's law.

Key Points

• Henry's law states that the partial pressure of a gas in the vapor phase is directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution at constant temperature.
• The mathematical expression for Henry's law is: P = k_H * x, where P is the partial pressure, k_H is Henry's law constant, and x is the mole fraction of the gas in the liquid.
• Henry's law helps explain phenomena like the solubility of gases in liquids, such as carbon dioxide in carbonated beverages or oxygen dissolving in blood.
• The value of Henry's law constant (k_H) depends on the nature of the gas, the solvent, and the temperature. For most gases, solubility decreases with an increase in temperature.
• It plays a vital role in various scientific and industrial processes, including the design of oxygenation systems and understanding gas exchange in biological systems.

Additional Information

• Boyle's Law
• Boyle's law states that at constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
• Mathematically, it is expressed as: P * V = constant, where P is pressure and V is volume.
• This law applies to ideal gases and is relevant in processes like the compression of gases and the functioning of syringes.
• Charles's Law
• Charles's law states that the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature, provided the pressure remains constant.
• It is mathematically represented as: V/T = constant, where V is volume and T is temperature (in Kelvin).
• This law explains the expansion of gases when heated and has applications in hot air balloons and thermodynamics.
• Raoult's Law
• Raoult's law states that the partial vapor pressure of a component in a solution is proportional to its mole fraction and the vapor pressure of the pure component.
• Mathematically: P_A = x_A * P_A^0, where P_A is the partial pressure, x_A is the mole fraction, and P_A^0 is the vapor pressure of the pure component.
• This law is fundamental in studying ideal solutions and colligative properties like boiling point elevation and freezing point depression.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• A Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India and is appointed by the President of India.
• As per Article 156 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
• The Governor can resign from their position by addressing their resignation letter to the President of India.
• The resignation is formalized when the President accepts the letter, after which the Governor ceases to hold office.
• The Governor's role is significant in ensuring the state's administration runs as per constitutional provisions and upholding the law and order within the state.

Additional Information

• Prime Minister of India
• The Prime Minister is the head of the government in India and leads the executive branch.
• While the Prime Minister holds substantial powers in decision-making, they are not directly involved in the resignation process of a Governor.
• Chief Minister of the Concerned State
• The Chief Minister is the elected head of the state government and is responsible for day-to-day governance in the state.
• While the Governor and Chief Minister work in close coordination, the Chief Minister has no role in accepting or processing the resignation of the Governor.
• Union Home Minister
• The Union Home Minister manages internal security and administration across the country.
• However, the resignation of a Governor is not addressed to the Union Home Minister but to the President of India as per constitutional provisions.

The correct answer is 1) a person who held a position or rank.

Key Points

• The term Mansabdar referred to an individual who held a rank or position in the administrative and military hierarchy of the Mughal Empire.
• The Mansabdari system was introduced by Akbar, the third Mughal emperor, to organize the military and bureaucracy efficiently.
• Mansabdars were assigned ranks, called 'Mansabs', which determined their status, salary, and the number of cavalrymen they needed to maintain.
• The ranks were expressed in terms of 'Zat' (personal rank) and 'Sawar' (number of cavalry), which indicated the size of the contingent they were expected to maintain.
• Mansabdars were paid through Jagirs (land revenue assignments), which were not hereditary and could be reassigned.

Additional Information

• The Mansabdari System
• The Mansabdari system was a unique administrative and military system introduced by Emperor Akbar to strengthen central authority.
• The system helped in efficiently managing the empire's vast territories and maintaining a well-organized military force.
• It created a centralized bureaucracy where appointments, promotions, and transfers were based on merit rather than hereditary rights.

The correct answer is 345.

Key Points

• Article 345 of the Indian Constitution allows the legislature of a state to adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state.
• Under this Article, the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly passed a proposal in 2010, making Hindi the official language and Sanskrit the second official language of the state.
• Article 345 is part of the constitutional provisions related to language, which are included under Part XVII (Official Language) of the Indian Constitution.
• This Article ensures flexibility for states to choose their own official language(s) apart from Hindi and English, which are recognized as the official languages of the Union Government.
• The decision made under Article 345 reflects the cultural and linguistic preferences of the state government and its people.

Additional Information

• Article 234:
• It deals with the appointment of district judges in a state.
• Under this Article, the appointment, posting, and promotion of district judges are made by the Governor of the state in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in the state.
• This Article is part of Part VI (The States) of the Indian Constitution, specifically addressing the judiciary at the state level.
• Article 199:
• It defines what constitutes a "Money Bill" in a state legislature.
• It outlines the provisions related to Money Bills, including their introduction, definition, and certification by the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.
• This Article is part of Part VI (The States) of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 310:
• It is part of the provisions related to services under the Union and the states.
• It lays down the "doctrine of pleasure," according to which civil servants hold office during the pleasure of the President (for Union services) or the Governor (for state services).
• It ensures that the government has control over its employees while protecting them from arbitrary dismissal.

The correct answer is Vulnerable.

Key Points

• The Indian Bison, also known as the Gaur (Bos gaurus), has been classified as Vulnerable on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List since 1986.
• This classification is due to a significant decline in its population, primarily caused by habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflict.
• The species is native to South and Southeast Asia and is the largest extant bovine, known for its muscular build and imposing size.
• Conservation efforts include protected habitats, breeding programs, and initiatives to reduce poaching and human encroachment.
• The Indian government has implemented measures to safeguard the Gaur under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, and it is listed in Schedule I of the Act, providing it the highest level of protection.

Additional Information

• Near Threatened
• Species categorized as Near Threatened on the IUCN Red List are close to qualifying for or are likely to qualify for a threatened category in the near future.
• While the Indian Bison does not fall under this category, other species like the Olive Ridley Turtle are examples of Near Threatened species.
• Extinct in the Wild
• Species categorized as Extinct in the Wild survive only in captivity or as part of a conservation program.
• Examples include the Scimitar Oryx and the Hawaiian Crow.
• Critically Endangered
• This category includes species facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
• Examples include the Vaquita and the Javan Rhino.

The correct answer is Option 3: 1 Vice Chairman and 3 Members.

Key Points

• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
• The NCSC consists of one Chairman, one Vice Chairman, and three other members as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• The Chairman, Vice Chairman, and Members of the Commission are appointed by the President of India.
• Its primary role is to investigate and monitor matters related to the safeguards provided to Scheduled Castes under the Constitution and other laws.
• The NCSC submits annual reports to the President, which are tabled in Parliament for discussion.

Additional Information

• National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
• The NCSC was originally set up as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, but it was bifurcated into separate commissions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in 2004.
• The Commission is empowered to oversee implementation of various programs and policies aimed at the welfare and development of Scheduled Castes.
• It can also inquire into specific complaints regarding rights violations of Scheduled Castes.

The correct answer is The degree of income inequality within a society.

Key Points

• The Lorenz curve is a graphical representation used to measure income or wealth inequality within a society. It plots the cumulative percentage of total income earned against the cumulative percentage of the population.
• A perfectly equal income distribution would result in a 45-degree line called the "line of equality," while deviations from this line represent the degree of inequality.
• The greater the area between the Lorenz curve and the line of equality, the higher the income inequality in a society.
• The Lorenz curve is often used alongside the Gini coefficient, a numerical measure of inequality derived from the Lorenz curve.
• This concept is widely applied in economics and social sciences to understand inequality trends and design policies to reduce disparities.

Additional Information

• Line of Perfect Equality: A straight 45-degree diagonal line where a given percentage of the population receives an equal percentage of income (e.g., 20% of the population earns 20% of the income).
• Line of Perfect Inequality: A theoretical, extreme curve that follows the horizontal axis and then the right vertical axis, indicating that one person holds all the income/wealth.
• Gini Coefficient: Derived from the Lorenz curve, this measures the area between the line of perfect equality and the Lorenz curve, ranging from 0 (perfect equality) to 1 (perfect inequality).

The correct answer is 27.3%.

Key Points

• As per the report of the Technical Group on Population Projections, youth in the age group of 15-29 years constituted 27.3% (0.273) of the Indian population in 2021.
• The Technical Group on Population Projections is constituted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and provides critical insights into demographic trends in India.
• Youth population is a significant demographic cohort in India, contributing to the workforce, innovation, and social development.
• This percentage is part of India’s demographic dividend, which refers to the economic growth potential resulting from a high proportion of the working-age population.
• Policymaking and developmental initiatives in India are often guided by such data to ensure proper education, employment, and skill development opportunities for the youth.

Additional Information

• Relevance of Population Data:
• Population projections and demographic trends are essential for policy formulation, especially in education, health, employment, and urban planning.
• India’s demographic structure, with a large youth population, offers opportunities for economic growth provided there is adequate investment in their education, skill development, and employment.
• Such data also help in tracking progress toward sustainable development goals (SDGs) related to population and economic development.

The correct answer is Two.

Key Points

• Preethi Pal won two medals in Athletics during the Paris 2024 Paralympics.
• The medals include one gold and one silver in different track and field events.
• Her performance was highly appreciated globally, showcasing her exceptional talent and determination.
• Preethi Pal competed in the 100m sprint and long jump, securing podium finishes in both events.
• The Paris 2024 Paralympics highlighted inclusivity and celebrated the achievements of athletes with disabilities from across the world.

Additional Information

• Paralympics:
• The Paralympic Games are the world's premier sporting event for athletes with disabilities, held every four years.
• They promote inclusivity, diversity, and the competitive spirit among athletes overcoming physical challenges.
• The Paris 2024 Paralympics were marked by record-breaking performances and global participation.
• India's Paralympic athletes, including Preethi Pal, have consistently demonstrated outstanding skills and resilience, earning international recognition.

Given:

Average age of 22 students = 11 years.

Number of students = 22.

Average age of 22 students + teacher = 12 years.

Total individuals (students + teacher) = 23.

Formula Used:

Total age = Average age × Number of individuals.

Calculation:

⇒ Total age of 22 students = 11 × 22 = 242 years.

⇒ Total age of 23 individuals = 12 × 23 = 276 years.

⇒ Age of the teacher = Total age of 23 individuals - Total age of 22 students.

⇒ Age of the teacher = 276 - 242.

⇒ Age of the teacher = 34 years.

The age of the teacher is 34 years.

Given:

Total amount = ₹3,83,160

Amount subtracted: A = ₹3,700, B = ₹4,800, C = ₹5,300

Remaining shares ratio = 13 : 17 : 27

Formula Used:

Share of A = Total Share - Subtracted Amount

Distribution in ratio: Remaining amount = Sum of ratio × Individual ratio / Total ratio

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of ratio = 13 + 17 + 27 = 57

⇒ Remaining total amount = ₹3,83,160 - (₹3,700 + ₹4,800 + ₹5,300)

⇒ Remaining total amount = ₹3,83,160 - ₹13,800 = ₹3,69,360

⇒ A's remaining share = ₹3,69,360 × 13 / 57

⇒ A's remaining share = ₹84,240

⇒ A's total share = A's remaining share + Amount subtracted from A

⇒ A's total share = ₹84,240 + ₹3,700

⇒ A's total share = ₹87,940

The amount A receives is ₹87,940.

Given:

Total investment = ₹59,800

Total profit = ₹18,400

Brijesh’s profit = ₹6,000

Formula Used:

Profit ratio = Investment ratio (for equal time)

Calculation:

⇒ Kushal’s profit = 18,400 − 6,000 = 12,400

⇒ Ratio (Kushal : Brijesh) = 12,400 : 6,000 = 124 : 60 = 31 : 15

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 31 + 15 = 46

⇒ Value of 1 part = 59,800 ÷ 46 = 1,300

⇒ Kushal’s investment = 31 × 1,300 = 40,300

⇒ Brijesh’s investment = 15 × 1,300 = 19,500

⇒ Difference = 40,300 − 19,500 = 20,800

∴ The correct answer is 20,800.

Given:

Observations: 12, 46, 83, 43, 97, 34, 31, 33, 26

Formula Used:

Arithmetic Mean = Sum of observations / Total number of observations

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of observations = 12 + 46 + 83 + 43 + 97 + 34 + 31 + 33 + 26

⇒ Sum = 405

⇒ Total number of observations = 9

⇒ Arithmetic Mean = 405 / 9

⇒ Arithmetic Mean = 45

∴ The arithmetic mean is 45.

Given:

Expression = 5090.4 × 438.7 × 0.2131

Formula Used:

Shift decimal points by powers of 10 across factors so that the net scaling factor is 1.

Calculation:

⇒ 5090.4 × 438.7 × 0.2131 = (5090.4 ÷ 100) × (438.7 × 10) × (0.2131 × 10)

⇒ 50.904 × 4387 × 2.131

∴ The correct answer is 50.904 × 4387 × 2.131.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹5,000

Interest (I) = ₹900

Rate of Interest (R) = 9% per annum

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Time (T) = (SI × 100) / (P × R)

Calculation:

⇒ T = (900 × 100) / (5000 × 9)

⇒ T = 90,000 / 45,000

⇒ T = 2 years

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Given:

Profit = 49%

Cost price increased by = ₹40

Selling price reduced by = ₹55

New profit = 47.5%

Formula Used:

Selling price = Cost price × (1 + Profit%)

Calculation:

⇒ Let original cost price = x

⇒ Original selling price = 1.49 × x

⇒ New cost price = x + 40

⇒ New selling price = 1.475 × (x + 40)

⇒ Also, new selling price = 1.49 × x − 55

⇒ 1.49 × x − 55 = 1.475 × (x + 40)

⇒ 1.49x − 55 = 1.475x + 59

⇒ 1.49x − 1.475x = 59 + 55

⇒ 0.015x = 114

⇒ x = 114 ÷ 0.015

⇒ x = 114 ÷ (15 ÷ 1000) = 114 × (1000 ÷ 15) = 7600

∴ The correct answer is 7600.

Given:

A = 17%.  B = 21%,  C = 29%,  D = 8%,  E = 25%

Formula Used:

Comparison of values

Calculation:

⇒ 17 < 21

⇒ 21 < 25

⇒ 25 < 29

⇒ 29 is maximum

∴ The correct answer is C.

Given:

Cost price of 3 coconuts = ₹50

Selling price of 4 coconuts = ₹100

Formula Used:

Profit Percentage = (Profit / Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Cost price of 1 coconut = 50 / 3

⇒ Cost price of 4 coconuts = (50 / 3) × 4 = 200 / 3

Selling price of 4 coconuts = ₹100

Profit = Selling price - Cost price

⇒ Profit = 100 - (200 / 3)

⇒ Profit = (300 / 3) - (200 / 3)

⇒ Profit = 100 / 3

Profit Percentage = (Profit / Cost Price) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = ((100 / 3) / (200 / 3)) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (100 / 200) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 50%

The profit percentage is 50%.

Given:

Pipe A can fill the tank in 23 hours.

Pipe B can fill the tank in 17 hours.

Formula Used:

Time taken when both pipes are open = Total capacity of the tank / Combined rate of both pipes.

Calculation:

Rate of Pipe A = 1/23 tanks per hour.

Rate of Pipe B = 1/17 tanks per hour.

Combined rate = 1/23 + 1/17

⇒ Combined rate = (17 + 23)/(23 × 17)

⇒ Combined rate = 40/391 tanks per hour.

Time taken when both pipes are opened = 1 / (40/391)

⇒ Time taken = 391 / 40

⇒ Time taken = 9$\frac{31}{40}$hours.

∴ The time taken to fill the tank is 9$\frac{31}{40}$ hours.

Given:

Marked price = ₹8,100

Selling price = ₹810

Formula Used:

Discount Percentage = ((Marked Price - Selling Price) / Marked Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price

⇒ Discount = 8,100 - 810

⇒ Discount = 7,290

⇒ Discount Percentage = (7,290 / 8,100) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = (729 × 100) / 810

⇒ Discount Percentage = 90%

∴ The discount percentage is 90%.

Given:

Income of Amit in 2019 = ₹25,600

Annual increment = 10%

Year to find income = 2021

Formula Used:

Income after n years = Initial Income × (1 + Increment Rate)ⁿ

Calculation:

Increment rate = 10% = 10/100 = 0.1

From 2019 to 2021, n = 2 years

⇒ Income in 2021 = 25,600 × (1 + 0.1)²

⇒ Income in 2021 = 25,600 × (1.1)²

⇒ Income in 2021 = 25,600 × 1.21

⇒ Income in 2021 = ₹30,976

The correct income of Amit in 2021 is ₹30,976.

Given:

A number when decreased by 1% gives 3960.

Formula Used:

Original Number = Result / (1 - Percentage decrease)

Calculation:

⇒ Original Number = 3960 / (1 - 1/100)

⇒ Original Number = 3960 / (99/100)

⇒ Original Number = 3960 × 100 / 99

⇒ Original Number = 4000

The number is 4000.

Given:

Dimensions of the cuboidal tank:

Length = 23 m

Breadth = 23 m

Height = 9 m

Formula Used:

Volume of a cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = 23 × 23 × 9

⇒ Volume = 529 × 9

⇒ Volume = 4761 m³

The volume of the cuboidal tank is 4761 m³.

Given:

No. of persons = 75

Space per person on ground = 10 m²

Air per person = 95 m³

Formula used:

Total base area = (No. of persons × Area per person)

Total volume = (No. of persons × Air per person)

Volume of cone = (1/3)πr²h

Base area = πr²

Calculations:

⇒ Base area = 75 × 10 = 750 m²

⇒ Volume = 75 × 95 = 7125 m³

⇒ (1/3)πr²h = 7125 and πr² = 750

⇒ r² = 750 ÷ π = 238.7

⇒ (1/3)π × 238.7 × h = 7125

⇒ h = (7125 × 3) ÷ (π × 238.7)

⇒ h = 21375 ÷ 749.8

⇒ h ≈ 28.5 m

∴ The approximate height of the tent = 28.5 m.

Given:

Expression = 5 × (8 × (3²)) ÷ 4 + 62 − 11

Formula Used:

BODMAS

Calculation:

⇒ 3² = 9

⇒ 5 × (8 × 9) ÷ 4 + 62 − 11

⇒ 5 × 72 ÷ 4 + 62 − 11

⇒ 360 ÷ 4 + 62 − 11

⇒ 90 + 62 − 11

⇒ 152 − 11

⇒ 141

∴ Simplified value = 141

Given:

Jitesh = 9 days, Kamal = 12 days, Worked together = 5 days

Formula Used:

Work done = Rate × Time

Calculation:

⇒ Total Work = LCM(9,12) = 36 units

⇒ Jitesh’s rate = 36 ÷ 9 = 4 units/day

⇒ Kamal’s rate = 36 ÷ 12 = 3 units/day

⇒ Together = 4 + 3 = 7 units/day

⇒ Work in 5 days = 5 × 7 = 35 units

⇒ Remaining = 36 − 35 = 1 unit

⇒ Time by Jitesh = 1 ÷ 4 = 1/4 day = 0.25 day

∴ Jitesh will finish in 0.25 day.

Given:

Side of the square field = 30 metres.

Speed of the boy = 3 km/hr.

Formula Used:

Time = Distance / Speed.

Calculation:

⇒ Perimeter of the square field = 4 × Side

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × 30 = 120 metres

Convert speed to metres per second:

⇒ Speed = (3 × 1000) / (60 × 60) = 3000 / 3600 = 5/6 metres/second

⇒ Time = Distance / Speed

⇒ Time = 120 / (5/6)

⇒ Time = 120 × 6 / 5

⇒ Time = 144 seconds

The boy will take 144 seconds to complete one round.

Given:

Speed of first person = 9 km/hr

Speed of second person = 10.8 km/hr

Time taken to overtake first person = 10 s

Time taken to overtake second person = 12.5 s

Formula Used:

Relative speed (same direction) = Train speed − Person speed

Speed conversion: km/hr to m/s = × 5/18

Length of train L = Relative speed × Time

Calculation:

Let speed of train = v km/hr

Using first person:

⇒ Relative speed = (v − 9) km/hr

⇒ In m/s = (v − 9) × 5/18

⇒ Train length L = Relative speed × Time

⇒ L = [(v − 9) × 5/18] × 10

⇒ L = (v − 9) × 50/18

Using second person:

⇒ Relative speed = (v − 10.8) km/hr

⇒ In m/s = (v − 10.8) × 5/18

⇒ L = [(v − 10.8) × 5/18] × 12.5

⇒ L = (v − 10.8) × 62.5/18

Since both represent same train length

⇒ (v − 9) × 50/18 = (v − 10.8) × 62.5/18

⇒ (v − 9) × 50 = (v − 10.8) × 62.5

⇒ 50v − 450 = 62.5v − 675

⇒ 675 − 450 = 62.5v − 50v

⇒ 225 = 12.5v

⇒ v = 225 ÷ 12.5

⇒ v = 18 km/hr

∴ Speed of the train = 18 km/hr.

Given:

Population at the end of 2022 = 11,02,500

Annual population growth rate = 5%

Migrated population in 2020 = 1,025

Formula Used:

Population at the beginning of the year = Population at the end of the year / (1 + Growth Rate)^{Number of Years}

Calculation:

Population at the end of 2022 = Population at the beginning of 2020 × (1 + 5/100)³

⇒ Population at the beginning of 2020 = Population at the end of 2022 / (1 + 5/100)³

⇒ Population at the beginning of 2020 = 11,02,500 / (1.05)³

⇒ (1.05)³ = 1.157625

⇒ Population at the beginning of 2020 = 11,02,500 / 1.157625

⇒ Population at the beginning of 2020 = 9,52,500

Considering the migrated population,

⇒ Actual population at the beginning of 2020 = 9,52,500 + 1,025

⇒ Actual population at the beginning of 2020 = 10,01,025

∴ The population at the beginning of 2020 is 10,01,025.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'attention'.

Key Points

• The word "attention" is most appropriate because it signifies the scientist's careful consideration and precision, which ensured the accuracy of the experiment.
• While words like "concentration", "focus", and "observation" are related, "attention" specifically highlights the act of paying close heed to detail, making it the best choice.
• Attention relates to the deliberate act of focusing on something in detail, ensuring thoroughness and accuracy.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Concentration: While concentration implies mental effort to focus, it does not fully capture the careful consideration to detail required in the context of the experiment.
• Focus: Focus is related to attention but lacks the nuance of careful examination or consideration implied by "attention".
• Observation: Observation refers to the act of noticing or watching, but it does not emphasize the detailed consideration essential in this case.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'faster'.

Key Points

• The word "faster" is the comparative form of the adjective "fast".
• Comparative adjectives are used to compare two things, as in this sentence where life in Delhi is compared to life in other cities.
• Option 1 ("more fast") is grammatically incorrect because "fast" is an irregular adjective, and its comparative form is "faster," not "more fast."
• Option 3 ("fast") is not appropriate because it is the base form of the adjective and does not indicate comparison.
• Option 4 ("fastest") is the superlative form, which is used to compare more than two things, making it unsuitable in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. In this sentence, "faster" modifies "life in Delhi."
• Comparative Form: Comparative adjectives are used to show how one thing differs from another, typically formed by adding "-er" to the adjective or by using "more."
• Superlative Form: Superlative adjectives are used to compare three or more things and are typically formed by adding "-est" to the adjective or using "most."

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. phenomenological, conscientious, epistemological, commendable.

Key Points

• The misspelled words in the paragraph are:
• phenomenalogical → phenomenological
• consciencious → conscientious
• epistomological → epistemological
• commendible → commendable
• Phenomenological: Relating to the philosophical study of experience and consciousness. (प्रभाववादी)
• Example: Husserl is known for his phenomenological approach to philosophy.
• Conscientious: Wishing to do one's work or duty well and thoroughly. (ईमानदार/कर्तव्यनिष्ठ)
• Example: She is a conscientious student who always does her homework on time.
• Epistemological: Relating to the study of knowledge. (ज्ञानमीमांसा संबंधी)
• Example: The paper discusses the epistemological foundations of science.
• Commendable: Deserving praise. (सराहनीय)
• Example: His actions during the crisis were truly commendable.

Therefore, the correct answer is: phenomenological, conscientious, epistemological, commendable.

Additional Information

• Option 1: "hermenetic" is incorrect, and "conscientious, epistemological, commendable" are correct.
• Option 2: "frequiently" is misspelled; the correct spelling is "frequently".
• Option 4: "jargoan" is incorrect; the correct word is "jargon".

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. S P Q R

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with S, which introduces the debate about technology’s role in society.
• Next is P, which presents the view that technology is the solution to global challenges.
• Then comes Q, which provides the counterpoint that technology may create more problems than it solves.
• Finally, R concludes by summarizing that technology can solve some issues but may exacerbate others.

Therefore, the correct answer is S P Q R.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (S R P Q): Starts with the debate, then gives the summary before mentioning the arguments, which disrupts the logical flow.
• Option 3 (P S R Q): Begins with an argument before introducing the existence of the debate, which is not coherent.
• Option 4 (P Q R S): Starts with arguments and ends with the introductory sentence, making the paragraph less meaningful.

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e 'Diplomatic'.

Key Points

• The word "Diplomatic" refers to tactful and skillful handling of sensitive situations, which is relevant in the context of de-escalating tension at the border.
• The other options do not fit the context of the sentence:
• Abrasive: Suggests a rough or harsh manner, which would escalate rather than de-escalate tensions.
• Belligerent: Indicates aggression, which is the opposite of what is needed in a tense situation.
• Tactless: Implies a lack of sensitivity or diplomacy, which would worsen the situation.
• The option "Diplomatic" accurately describes the minister's conduct in handling the tense situation.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 4.

Additional Information

• Diplomatic: Indicates skill in managing sensitive situations, especially where conflict is involved, making it the most appropriate choice here.
• Context: The sentence specifically mentions de-escalation, which aligns with the qualities of diplomacy.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Calming.

Key Points

• The word "inflammatory" means likely to provoke anger, excitement, or violence; something that stirs up strong emotions. (उत्तेजक)
• Example: His inflammatory remarks led to protests in the city.
• "Calming" means having a soothing effect, reducing anger or agitation. (शांत करने वाला)
• Example: The teacher's calming words helped settle the noisy classroom.
• Hence, the antonym of 'inflammatory' is 'calming'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Calming.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Predictable (पूर्वानुमेय): Something that can be foreseen or expected.
• Example: The ending of the movie was predictable.
• Lengthy (लंबा): Something that is prolonged or takes a lot of time.
• Example: His speech was so lengthy that people began to leave.
• Boring (उबाऊ): Something that is not interesting or dull.
• Example: The lecture was so boring that students started yawning.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. difficult task.

Key Points

• The phrase "a tall order" means something that is very difficult to achieve or accomplish. (कठिन कार्य/मुश्किल काम)
• Example: Completing the marathon in under three hours was a tall order for the first-time runners.
• "Difficult task" refers to a job or activity that is not easy to complete. (मुश्किल कार्य)
• Example: Solving advanced math problems without a calculator can be a difficult task.
• Thus, the underlined segment "a tall order" means difficult task.

Therefore, the correct answer is: difficult task.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Task for a common cause (सामान्य उद्देश्य के लिए कार्य): Refers to a job done for a shared reason.
• Example: Volunteers united for a common cause during the fundraiser.
• Hidden advantage (छुपा हुआ लाभ): Refers to a benefit that is not obvious.
• Example: The policy had a hidden advantage for small business owners.
• Top priority (शीर्ष प्राथमिकता): Something considered most important.
• Example: Safety is our top priority at the construction site.

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Raj is an ______ student.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'intelligent'.

Key Points

• The word "intelligent" is an adjective that modifies the noun "student" by describing a quality about Raj.
• Adjectives are used to describe or qualify nouns or pronouns, providing more information about them.
• Here, "student" is a noun, and the adjective "intelligent" describes what kind of student Raj is.
• The other options do not fit the blank grammatically or contextually:
• "intelligible" is an adjective but means "understandable," which does not fit the context.
• "intelligence" is a noun and cannot directly modify another noun.
• "intelligently" is an adverb and cannot modify the noun "student."

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. In this sentence, "intelligent" modifies the noun "student".
• Noun: A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. "student" is the noun in this sentence.
• Adverb: An adverb modifies verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs. "intelligently" is an adverb but does not fit the context as it cannot describe the noun "student."
• Verb: A verb expresses an action, occurrence, or state of being. There is no verb in the blank in this sentence.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e 'interesting'.

Key Points

• The word "interesting" is an adjective that describes the noun "book."
• Adjectives are used to modify or describe nouns, providing more information about the noun.
• In this case, "interesting" highlights the nature or quality of the book.
• The other options, such as "interested" (past participle/adjective), "interests" (plural noun/verb), and "interest" (noun/verb), do not fit grammatically or contextually in the blank.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 3.

Additional Information

• Interested: Typically used to describe someone's feelings or emotions about something. E.g., "I am interested in reading this book."
• Interests: Can be used as a noun (plural form) or verb but does not describe the book in this context.
• Interest: A noun or verb but does not fit as an adjective to describe the book.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'a; the'.

Key Points

• The sentence requires two articles to complete it correctly: "a" before "peaceful place" and "the" before "meeting."
• The indefinite article "a" is used with "peaceful place" because it refers to any peaceful place in general, not a specific one.
• The definite article "the" is used with "meeting" because it refers to a specific meeting that the subject wants to hold.
• Articles are important to make the sentence grammatically correct and convey the intended meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• No Article Required: This option is incorrect because both blanks require appropriate articles to make the sentence meaningful.
• Incorrect Articles: Other options use incorrect combinations of articles, which do not fit the grammatical structure of the sentence.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. critiqued.

Key Points

• The misspelled word in the sentence is critikued.
• The correct spelling is critiqued, which means to evaluate or analyze critically. (आलोचना करना / समालोचना करना)
• Example: The professor critiqued the research paper in great detail.
• Critiqued is the past tense of "critique," used when a work, idea, or performance is reviewed or analyzed.
• Therefore, the correct answer is critiqued.

Additional Information

• Critiqueed (गलत वर्तनी): No such spelling exists in English.
• Criticed (गलत वर्तनी): The correct word is "criticized" (आलोचना की), but it is not contextually correct here.
• Cretiqued (गलत वर्तनी): No such word exists in English.

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. Q R P S

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with Q, introducing Artificial Intelligence and its impact on industries.
• Next comes R, highlighting that AI, despite its benefits, is not free from errors and ethical challenges.
• Then P follows, explaining how lack of maintenance and monitoring can lead to biased or flawed AI outcomes.
• Finally, S concludes by emphasizing the importance of responsible deployment and transparency in AI algorithms.

Therefore, the correct answer is Q R P S.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (P Q R S): Begins with maintenance issues before introducing AI, which disrupts the logical flow.
• Option 3 (R Q S P): Starts with challenges before providing context about AI's positive impact, which is less coherent.
• Option 4 (Q P R S): Breaks the logical sequence by discussing maintenance before mentioning challenges.

The correct answer is ' the ; No article required' .

Key Points

• The expression "the service of humanity" is a fixed and commonly used phrase.
• The definite article "the" is used before "service" to indicate a specific, well-recognized concept.
• No article is used before "humanity" when it refers to mankind in general.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "I have dedicated my life to the service of humanity."

Additional Information

• Option 1 is incorrect because "a humanity" is grammatically incorrect.
• Option 2 is incorrect because "a service" changes the intended meaning.
• Option 3 is incorrect because the definite article is required before "service."

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. A brief nap or short sleep.

Key Points

• The idiom "forty winks" means taking a short sleep or a brief nap, usually during the day. (थोड़ी देर की झपकी)
• Example: After lunch, he decided to catch forty winks before returning to work.
• "A brief nap or short sleep" refers to resting for a short period, often to refresh oneself. (थोड़ी देर की नींद/झपकी)
• Example: She felt much better after a brief nap in the afternoon.
• Therefore, the meaning of forty winks is a brief nap or short sleep.

Therefore, the correct answer is: A brief nap or short sleep.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• A brief study (संक्षिप्त अध्ययन): Refers to studying for a short time, not related to sleep.
• Example: He did a brief study of the chapter before the test.
• A brief history (संक्षिप्त इतिहास): Means a short account of past events.
• Example: The teacher gave a brief history of the monument.
• A brief description (संक्षिप्त विवरण): Means a short explanation of something.
• Example: Please provide a brief description of your project.

The correct answer is 'Option (3)' i.e. 'Compliment means to praise and complement means to complete or enhance.'

Key Points

• Compliment: To praise someone (प्रशंसा करना)
• Example: She gave him a compliment on his new haircut.
• Complement: To blend well with something or complete it (पूरक होना)
• Example: The red scarf complements her outfit perfectly.

Therefore, the correct answer is - 'Option 3'.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the development, collaboration, and current commercial and research opportunities of the International Space Station (ISS).
• It highlights how the ISS is opening new possibilities for both commerce and research in space, similar to how oceans opened new avenues for trade in the past.
• Option 4 precisely captures this dual focus on commerce and research, making it the most appropriate title.
• Other options focus either only on tourism, history, or truth about research, which do not fully encompass the main idea of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Title: "ISS – A New Avenue for Commerce and Research"

Additional Information

• Option 1: Focuses only on space tourism, which is not the main theme of the passage.
• Option 2: Emphasizes “stunning truth about new space research,” but the passage is broader, covering commerce as well.
• Option 3: Suggests only a historical perspective, while the passage discusses both history and future prospects.
• Option 4: Accurately reflects the passage’s emphasis on the ISS as a platform for both commerce and research, making it the most suitable title.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• According to the passage, the ISS is about four times as large as the Russian space station Mir, not five times.
• Option 3 incorrectly states that the ISS is five times the size of Mir, making it NOT a fact as per the passage.
• All other options accurately reflect facts mentioned in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Relevant Passage Extract: “It is about four times as large as the Russian space station Mir and five times as large as the U.S. Skylab.”

Additional Information

• Option 1: Matches the passage (“the size of a football field”).
• Option 2: Matches the passage (took 10 years and more than 30 missions).
• Option 4: Matches the passage (created by linking two Russian Soyuz vehicles).
• Option 3: Does not match the passage and is NOT a fact.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage describes the ISS as the result of "unprecedented scientific and engineering collaboration among five space agencies representing 15 countries."
• This clearly indicates that the ISS is a cooperative project involving multiple countries and agencies working together.
• There is no mention of the ISS being privately funded, defunct, or exclusive to any one nation or group.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Relevant Passage Extract: “It is the result of unprecedented scientific and engineering collaboration among five space agencies representing 15 countries.”

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect—The ISS is not privately funded.
• Option 2: Incorrect—The ISS is an active, operational project.
• Option 4: Incorrect—The ISS is not exclusive; it is a collaborative, international project.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The passage presents factual information about the International Space Station—its construction, size, collaboration, and significance—in a balanced and unbiased manner.
• It does not include personal opinions or emotional language, which are characteristic of a subjective tone.
• The passage is not speculative or based on predictions, nor does it involve calculations or numerical analysis.
• An objective tone is marked by clear, fact-based, and impartial presentation, which is evident throughout the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Supporting Example: “It is the result of unprecedented scientific and engineering collaboration among five space agencies representing 15 countries.”

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Advanced.

Key Points

• The word "rudimentary" means basic, undeveloped, or at an early stage of development. (मूलभूत/आधारभूत)
• Example: The tools they used were rudimentary, made from stones and wood.
• "Advanced" refers to something that is highly developed or complex, far beyond the basic or initial stage. (उन्नत)
• Example: Modern computers are equipped with advanced technology.
• Thus, advanced is the antonym of rudimentary.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Advanced.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Elementary (प्रारंभिक): Relating to the most basic or beginning level of something.
• Example: He has only an elementary understanding of French.
• Basic (मूलभूत): Forming an essential foundation or starting point; fundamental.
• Example: She taught him the basic rules of chess.
• Simple (सरल): Easily understood or done; presenting no difficulty.
• Example: The solution to the problem was surprisingly simple.

सही उत्तर - चाँद आगे बढ़ता जा रहा था।

Key Points

• वाक्य में पदक्रम- वाक्य में 'पदक्रम' का विशेष महत्व होता हैं। जब कोई शब्द अकेले हों तब वह 'शब्द' ही कहलाता है लेकिन,
• जब वही 'शब्द' किसी वाक्य में अन्य शब्दों के साथ प्रयोग होता हैं तो वह 'पद' बन जाता है।
• वाक्य में सभी 'पदों' का एक निश्चित क्रम होता है।

Additional Information

• वाक्य रचना में पदक्रम संबंधी नियम-वाक्य में सबसे पहले 'कर्ता' उसके बाद 'कर्म' तथा अंत में 'क्रिया' आती है।
• जैसे- सोहन पानी पीता है।वाक्य में यदि 'क्रिया' 'अकर्मक' है,
• तो वाक्य में पहले 'कर्ता' उसके बाद 'क्रिया' आएगी। जैसे- राधिका सोती है।
• 'विस्मयादि बोधक' शब्द वाक्य के शुरू में आते हैं।
• जैसे- ओह! तुम डर गये।प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों में 'हाँ'/'नहीं' उत्तर वाले प्रश्नों में 'क्या' 'प्रश्नवाचक शब्द' वाक्य के शुरू में ही आते हैं,
• तथा अन्य 'प्रश्नवाचक शब्द' जैसे 'कौन' 'किसके' वाक्य के बीच में प्रयोग होते हैं।
• जैसे- 1. क्या तुम खेलने चलोगे? (हाँ या नहीं), 2. घर पर कौन है?
• वाक्य में 'क्रिया विशेषण' शब्द, क्रिया के पहले प्रयोग किये जाते हैं। जैसे- मीना जल्दी-जल्दी खा रही है।

सही उत्तर - प्रेम में फँसाना।

Key Points

• मुहावरा - डोरे डालना, अर्थ - प्रेम में फँसाना।
• मुहावरा:- ‘मुहावरा’ शब्द अरबी भाषा का है जिसका अर्थ है ‘अभ्यास होना’।
• मुहावरे वाक्यांशों का एक ऐसा समूह है जिसका अर्थ शाब्दिक अर्थ से भिन्न होता है।
• कई लोगों को हम मुहावरे के रूप में अपनी बात कहते हुए देखते हैं तो इनका अर्थ समझ आता है।
• मुहावरा एक वाक्यांश या अभिव्यक्ति भी है।
• अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information अन्य मुहावरों के उदाहरण:-

सही उत्तर - बहुत घमंड होना।

Key Points

• मुहावरा - दिमाग आसमान पर चढ़ना।
• अर्थ - बहुत घमंड होना।
• मुहावरा:- ‘मुहावरा’ शब्द अरबी भाषा का है जिसका अर्थ है ‘अभ्यास होना’।
• मुहावरे वाक्यांशों का एक ऐसा समूह है जिसका अर्थ शाब्दिक अर्थ से भिन्न होता है।
• कई लोगों को हम मुहावरे के रूप में अपनी बात कहते हुए देखते हैं तो इनका अर्थ समझ आता है।
• मुहावरा एक वाक्यांश या अभिव्यक्ति भी है।

Additional Informationमुहावरे के कुछ उदाहरण:

सही उत्तर - जिगीषा।

Key Points

• जीतने की इच्छा - जिगीषा।
• वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द- जब किसी वाक्य में प्रयुक्त या स्वतन्त्र, किसी वाक्यांश के लिए किसी एक शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है,
• जो उस वाक्यांश के अर्थ को पूरी तरह सिद्ध करता हो तो उसे वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहते हैं,
• अर्थात अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द-

सही उत्तर - हमनें।

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - हमने सबको मिलकर कार्य करना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - हम सबको मिलकर कार्य करना चाहिए।
• वाक्य मे सर्वनाम संबंधित त्रुटि है।
• वाक्य मेें ने, कारक शब्द का प्रयोग करना अनुचित है।
• वाक्यगत अशुद्ध- वाक्य सम्प्रेषण की सबसे महत्वपूर्ण और सार्थक इकाई होती है।
• अतः वाक्यगत अशुद्धियाँ को शुद्ध रूप में लिखना सम्प्रेषण को अधिक सरल बनाता है।
• वाक्य में, संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, लिंग, वचन, क्रिया-विशेषण, क्रिया, विशेषण आदि संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ हो सकती हैं।

Additional Informationसर्वनाम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

सही  उत्तर है - ने

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य: 'सुनीता ने अगर पढ़ाई की होती, तो वह अच्छे अंक ला पाती।'
• 'ने' कर्ता कारक का चिन्ह है। जब भूतकाल की सकर्मक क्रिया (जैसे: पढ़ना/पढ़ाई करना) का प्रयोग होता है,
• तो कर्ता (सुनीता) के साथ 'ने' विभक्ति का प्रयोग अनिवार्य होता है।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से क्रिया के करने वाले का बोध हो, उसे कर्ता कारक कहते हैं।
• कर्ता कारक का विभक्ति चिन्ह ‘ने’ होता है।
• उदाहरण -
• रवि ने गाड़ी चलाई।
• सीता ने आम खाया।

Important Points हिन्दी में आठ कारक हैं -

Additional Information कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- विद्यार्थी अध्यापक से सीखते है।

सही उत्तर है - को

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य: आज नानी ने पीहू को अपने पास सुलाया।
• कर्म कारक का विभक्ति चिन्ह 'को' है। यहाँ 'सुलाने' की क्रिया का प्रभाव 'पीहू' पर पड़ रहा है, इसलिए 'पीहू' के साथ 'को' का प्रयोग होगा।
• जब वाक्य में किसी को कुछ दिया जाए या किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए तो वहां पर सम्प्रदान कारक होता है।
• सम्प्रदान कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह के लिए या को हैं।
• जैसे - 
• वह अरुण के लिए मिठाई लाया।
• विकास तुषार को किताबें देता है।

Important Points हिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Information कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- सीतापुर, मोहन का गाँव है।

सही उत्तर - उसकी दृष्टि बड़ी सूक्ष्म है।

Key Points

• दृष्टि के साथ सूक्ष्म शब्द का प्रयोग करना उचित होगा।
• निम्न, छोटी, ओझल, पतली के साथ दृष्टि का मेल नहीं होता है।
• इस प्रश्न में शब्द चयन संबंधित त्रुटि है।
• उदाहरण के तोर पर कुछ युग्म शब्दों का अध्ययन किजिए -

1. ग्रन्थ का संकलन।
2. भवन का निर्माण।
3. कार्य का पूर्ण।
4. शंका का समाधान।​

Additional Informationनिम्नलिखित वाक्यगत अशुद्धि होती हैं - 

• संज्ञा संबंधित त्रुटि।
• लिंग संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ।
• वचन संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ।
• कारक संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ।
• शब्द चयन की अशुद्धियाँ।
• सर्वनाम संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ।
• विशेषण संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ।
• क्रिया संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ।
• अव्यय संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ।
• पदक्रम संबंधित अशुद्धियाँ

सही उत्तर - नास्तिक। 

Key Points

• जिसे ईश्वर में विश्वास न हो-  नास्तिक।
• वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द- जब किसी वाक्य में प्रयुक्त या स्वतन्त्र, किसी वाक्यांश के लिए किसी एक शब्द का प्रयोग किया जाता है,
• जो उस वाक्यांश के अर्थ को पूरी तरह सिद्ध करता हो तो उसे वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहते हैं,
• अर्थात अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प- 

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - को

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य: 'लड़कों ने मिलकर चोर को मारा।'
• यहाँ 'मारने' की क्रिया का प्रभाव 'चोर' पर पड़ रहा है, इसलिए चोर के साथ कर्म कारक की विभक्ति 'को' का प्रयोग होगा।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप पर क्रिया का प्रभाव या फल पड़े, उसे कर्म कारक कहते हैं।
• कर्म के साथ ’को’ विभक्ति आती है।
• उदाहरण -
• गोपाल ने राधा को बुलाया।
• रामू ने घोड़े को पानी पिलाया।

Important Pointsहिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Information कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- कमरे के अंदर क्या है।