DSSSB TGT (Sanskrit) Official Paper (Held On: 27 Aug, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given: (Left) TAB ACE SOB JIG (Right)

The first word from the left is TAB.

The first letter of the first word from the left is: T (TAB)

The third word from the right is ACE (JIG → SOB → ACE).

The third letter of the third word from the right is: E (ACE)

The number of letters in the English alphabet between E and T is the count of letters F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S.

So, the number of letters between the two is:

→ 14.

The correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is,

Logic: First number × 4 = Second number; Second number + 4 = Third number; Third number + 4 = Fourth number.

Now, checking the given sets:

For 15-60-64-68:

⇒ 15 × 4 = 60

⇒ 60 + 4 = 64

⇒ 64 + 4 = 68

For 16-64-68-72:

⇒ 16 × 4 = 64

⇒ 64 + 4 = 68

⇒ 68 + 4 = 72

Similarly, for Option 3: 18-72-76-80

⇒ 18 × 4 = 72

⇒ 72 + 4 = 76

⇒ 76 + 4 = 80

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

The logic followed here is,

The next letter-cluster in the series is "BUJ".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is,

Option 1. UQ → PK 

Option 2. OK → JF

Option 3. TP → OK 

Option 4. NJ → IE 

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is "UQ - PK".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 3 - 9 ÷ 32 + 16 × 4 = ?

Decoding the given information:

Now replacing the sign and following the BODMAS Rule, we get:

Original Equation: 3 - 9 ÷ 32 + 16 × 4

New Equation: 3 × 9 + 32 - 16 ÷ 4

⇒ 27 + 32 - 4

= 55

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the center.

C is an immediate neighbor of both E and D.

D is sitting third to the left of B.

F is sitting immediately to the left of B.

G is not an immediate neighbor of D.

And A sits at the remaining place.

Then counting from the left of F, two people are sitting between F and C.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Seven boxes (G, H, I, J, P, Q, R) are stacked one over the other, with positions numbered 1 to 7 from bottom to top.

1. Only H is placed above Q.

2. Only four boxes are placed between Q and I.

3. R is placed immediately above G. 

4. Only two boxes are placed between J and P.

5. P is not placed immediately above R. 

The box that is fourth from the top is R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is,

Logic: First number + 6 = Second number;

Second number × 2 = Third number;

Third number + 12 = Fourth number.

Now, checking the given sets:

For 19-25-50-62:

⇒ 19 + 6 = 25

⇒ 25 × 2 = 50

⇒ 50 + 12 = 62

For 47-53-106-118:

⇒ 47 + 6 = 53

⇒ 53 × 2 = 106

⇒ 106 + 12 = 118

Similarly, checking the options:

Option 3: 48-54-108-120

⇒ 48 + 6 = 54

⇒ 54 × 2 = 108

⇒ 108 + 12 = 120

- Follows the logic

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3."

Given: Seven boxes (G, H, I, J, P, Q, R) are stacked one over the other, with positions numbered 1 to 7 from bottom to top.

1. Only three boxes are placed above H.

2. Only one box is placed between G and H.

3. Only three boxes are placed between G and I. I is placed at one of the positions above H.

4. Q is placed immediately below I.

5. R is placed at one of the positions above P.

6. J is not placed immediately above or below G.

Final Arrangement:

The box placed at the bottom is P.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Statement: Despite claiming a diverse range of wildlife, Zoo X has struggled to attract a large number of visitors compared to other zoos in the area.

Now, analyzing the possible reasons:

Reason I: Limited marketing and promotional efforts have resulted in a lack of awareness regarding the wildlife offered by Zoo X, thus reducing its appeal to potential visitors.

⇒ If people are unaware of the diverse wildlife (due to poor marketing), they are unlikely to visit. This directly explains why the diverse wildlife might not be translating into high visitor numbers.

Therefore, "Reason I is a possible reason".

Reason II: The nearby Zoo Y has consistently invested in new attractions and interactive experiences, attracting a larger segment of the public and drawing potential visitors away from Zoo X.

⇒ This points to strong competition (Zoo Y) that is actively providing a better, more appealing alternative, thus diverting potential visitors from Zoo X, even if Zoo X has diverse wildlife.

Therefore, "Reason II is a possible reason".

Since both reasons provide a logical and plausible explanation for the event described in the statement, both are possible reasons.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The given coded language is:

Thus, the code for ‘%’ is "4".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is'

Option 1) 'TSR':

Option 2) 'GFE':

Option 3) 'UUS':

Option 4) 'IHG':

Thus, the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group is UUS.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

BODMAS Rule:

According to the question, the letters are interchanged as follows:

Now, given the equation: 25 R 3 Q 100 P 50 S 25 = ?

After interchanging the specified letters, the new equation is:

25 × 3 + 100 ÷ 50 − 25 = ?

⇒ 25 × 3 + 100 ÷ 50 − 25

⇒ 75 + 2 − 25

⇒ 77 − 25

⇒ 52

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Gieven:

Neha starts driving from point A and drives 24 km towards the East.

Then she turns right and drives 19 km.

She then turns right again and drives 31 km.

Next, she turns right and drives 37 km.

Finally, she turns right and drives 7 km, stopping at point P.

Movement of Neha is,

So she drive 18 km, towards the South to return to point A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given Statements:

1. All sticks are eagles.
2. Some eagles are grapes.
3. All roses are sticks.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is:

Conclusions:

(I) All roses are eagles. → True (If all roses are sticks and all sticks are eagles, it logically follows that all roses must be eagles.)

(II) Some sticks are grapes. → (Since there is no definite link between 'Sticks' and 'Grapes', the conclusion "Some sticks are grapes" is a possibility but not a definite logical deduction.)

So, only conclusion (I) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given words:

(Left) NUT VOW RIP MEN (Right)

The second word from the right is "RIP".

The first letter of RIP is "R".

The first word from the left is "NUT".

The second letter of NUT is "U".

Now,

→ The letters are: R, S, T, U.

→ The letters between R and U are S and T.

→ There are 2 letters between R and U.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

The logic followed here is.

For BARD : FFXK

For JKDR : NPJY

Now, applying the same logic for RUPF:

For RUPF : ?

So, RUPF is related to VZVM.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, the missing number in the series is 102.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given Expression: D + F ÷ G - H × J

H × J: H is the wife of J.

G - H: G is the brother of H.

F ÷ G: F is the father of G.

D + F: D is the son of F.

Family Tree Representation:

Since D is the brother of H, and H is the wife of J, "D is J's wife's brother" (or Brother-in-law).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is Naishadha Charita.

Key Points

• Shri Harsha is the celebrated author of the epic poem Naishadha Charita, which is a prominent work in Sanskrit literature.
• The Naishadha Charita is based on the love story of Nala and Damayanti, derived from the Mahabharata.
• Shri Harsha lived during the 12^th century CE and is considered one of the greatest poets of classical Sanskrit literature.
• The Naishadha Charita is renowned for its intricate use of language, poetic beauty, and profound philosophical depth.
• It is considered one of the Pancha Mahakavyas (five great epics) of Sanskrit literature, alongside works like Kalidasa's Raghuvamsha and Bharavi's Kiratarjuniya.

Additional Information

• Sanskrit Literature:
• Sanskrit literature is rich in epics, drama, poetry, and philosophy, with works dating back thousands of years.
• It includes iconic texts like the Mahabharata, Ramayana, Vedas, and Upanishads, which have greatly influenced Indian culture and philosophy.
• Great poets like Kalidasa, Bharavi, Magha, and Shri Harsha have contributed immensely to the classical Sanskrit tradition.
• Naishadha Charita:
• This epic work primarily focuses on the story of King Nala and Queen Damayanti, emphasizing themes of love, devotion, and morality.
• The poem comprises 22 cantos and is highly regarded for its use of alankaras (figures of speech) and poetic imagery.
• Other Works by Shri Harsha:
• Shri Harsha is also believed to have authored other philosophical and poetic works.
• His writings often reflect a deep understanding of Indian philosophy, aesthetics, and culture.
• Pancha Mahakavyas:
• The Pancha Mahakavyas are considered the five great epics of classical Sanskrit literature: Raghuvamsha, Kumarasambhava, Kiratarjuniya, Shishupalavadha, and Naishadha Charita.
• These works showcase the height of Sanskrit literary tradition and are studied widely for their literary and philosophical significance.

The correct answer is 2019.

Key Points

• Jammu and Kashmir, along with Ladakh, was declared a Union Territory on 31 October 2019, following the abrogation of Article 370.
• The move was initiated by the Government of India on 5 August 2019, when it passed the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 in Parliament.
• The act bifurcated the former state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir (with a legislative assembly) and Ladakh (without a legislative assembly).
• This decision was aimed at integrating Jammu and Kashmir with the rest of India and ensuring the implementation of all central laws and schemes in the region.
• The reorganization officially came into effect on 31 October 2019, which also coincides with the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, India's first Home Minister.

Additional Information

• Article 370 and its Abrogation:
• Article 370 of the Indian Constitution granted special autonomy to Jammu and Kashmir, allowing it to have its own constitution, flag, and laws.
• On 5 August 2019, the central government revoked Article 370, effectively removing the special status of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The abrogation allowed the application of all central laws to Jammu and Kashmir, including laws related to fundamental rights and reservations.
• Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019:
• This act was passed by Parliament on 6 August 2019.
• It restructured Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir (with a legislative assembly) and Ladakh (without a legislative assembly).
• The act also specified the powers and functions of the legislative assembly of Jammu and Kashmir and the administrative framework of both Union Territories.
• Union Territories in India:
• India has a total of 8 Union Territories after the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir in 2019.
• Examples of Union Territories include Delhi, Puducherry, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Union Territories are directly governed by the central government through an appointed administrator or lieutenant governor.
• Significance of 31 October:
• The reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh was made effective on 31 October 2019.
• This date was chosen to honor Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who is known as the "Iron Man of India" for his role in unifying India post-independence.

The correct answer is Pune.

Key Points

• The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established in 1870 in Pune, Maharashtra, India. It was one of the earliest institutions to promote public welfare and represent the voice of the people during British rule.
• This organization was founded with the aim of creating a platform for the public to express their grievances and engage in discussions on political, social, and economic issues.
• Some of the prominent leaders associated with the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha include Mahadev Govind Ranade and other reformists who played a significant role in the Indian freedom movement.
• The Sabha was instrumental in raising awareness about issues such as land revenue reforms, education, and public health during the colonial period.
• The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha also served as a precursor to the establishment of modern political organizations in India, such as the Indian National Congress.

Additional Information

• Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and its Contributions:
• The Sabha emphasized the importance of Indian self-rule and contributed to the political awakening of the Indian masses.
• It played a vital role in documenting public grievances and forwarding them to the British government for redressal.
• The Sabha published a journal to communicate its ideas and spread awareness among the people.
• The organization also conducted surveys and studies on issues such as agriculture, famines, and economic conditions in India.
• Prominent Leaders:
• Mahadev Govind Ranade: A founding member of the Sabha, he was a social reformer and a key figure in the Indian National Congress. His efforts in promoting education and advocating for social reforms were crucial.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale: Though not directly associated with its foundation, he was influenced by the Sabha’s work and carried forward its ideals through the Servants of India Society.
• Relevance to Modern India:
• The Sabha set the foundation for democratic institutions in India by fostering a culture of public engagement and representation.
• It highlighted the importance of organized efforts in addressing socio-political issues, which later inspired the formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
• Other Locations and Historical Context:
• Champaran: Known for Gandhi’s first major satyagraha in 1917 to address the plight of indigo farmers, but it is unrelated to the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.
• Calcutta: The Indian National Congress was established here in 1885, but it is not the location of the Sabha.
• Madras: Known for its contributions to the Indian freedom movement, but no connection to the Sabha’s establishment.

The correct answer is Pallavas and Chalukyas.

Key Points

• In the post-Gupta period, the southern part of India witnessed the rise of prominent dynasties such as the Pallavas and the Chalukyas.
• The Pallavas ruled from their capital at Kanchipuram and were known for their contributions to architecture, especially the rock-cut temples at Mahabalipuram.
• The Chalukyas, with their capital at Badami (in present-day Karnataka), are known for their temple architecture at Aihole, Pattadakal, and Badami.
• Both dynasties played a significant role in promoting art, culture, and religion (particularly Hinduism), influencing the cultural landscape of South India.
• The Pallavas and Chalukyas were often in conflict with each other for territorial dominance, particularly over the fertile regions of the Kaveri Delta.

Additional Information

• Pallavas:
• The Pallavas ruled from the 4^th to 9^th centuries CE.
• They are credited with the development of Dravidian architecture, including the famous shore temples and rock-cut caves of Mahabalipuram, which are UNESCO World Heritage sites.
• Notable Pallava rulers include Mahendravarman I and Narasimhavarman I (popularly known as Mamalla).
• The Pallavas were patrons of art and literature, with Sanskrit and Tamil flourishing under their rule.
• Chalukyas:
• The Chalukyas ruled from the 6^th to 12^th centuries CE, with their rule divided into three phases: Badami Chalukyas, Western Chalukyas, and Eastern Chalukyas.
• Their architectural achievements include the Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal and cave temples at Badami.
• Famous rulers include Pulakeshin II, who defeated Harsha of Kanauj.
• The Chalukyas were known for their contributions to temple-building and their promotion of art and culture.
• Conflict between Pallavas and Chalukyas:
• The Pallavas and Chalukyas frequently clashed over territory, particularly the Krishna-Tungabhadra region.
• These conflicts are recorded in inscriptions and literary works, highlighting the rivalry between these dynasties.
• Other Dynasties in the Post-Gupta Period:
• The Gupta Dynasty declined in the 6^th century, leading to the rise of regional powers like the Pallavas, Chalukyas, Cholas, and Rashtrakutas in the south.
• The Cholas, who succeeded the Pallavas, also played a significant role in South Indian history.

The correct answer is Transfer of ownership of public sector enterprises to private companies.

Key Points

• Privatisation refers to the process of transferring the ownership, management, or control of public sector enterprises to private individuals or companies. This is done to increase efficiency, profitability, and competitiveness in the economy.
• In the context of the 1991 economic reforms in India, privatisation was one of the key components of the Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) policy, aimed at reducing the government's role in business operations.
• Privatisation in India involved strategies like disinvestment, where the government sold a part or all of its stake in public enterprises to private entities. For instance, companies like Maruti Udyog Limited saw significant stake sales to private players.
• It was introduced to address inefficiencies in public sector units (PSUs), reduce fiscal deficits, and attract private investments for better economic growth.
• The goal was to increase private sector participation in critical sectors like aviation, telecom, and banking, while the government retained control of strategically important industries like defense and railways.

Additional Information

• Key Features of Privatisation:
• Disinvestment: This involves selling a portion of government equity in public enterprises to private investors. Examples include the disinvestment of Hindustan Zinc Limited and Bharat Aluminium Company Limited.
• Public-Private Partnerships (PPP): Encouraging partnerships where private entities collaborate with the government to provide infrastructure and services. Example: Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC).
• Complete Privatisation: In some cases, the government completely exits from the ownership and control of an enterprise, e.g., BALCO.
• Impact of Privatisation:
• It led to enhanced efficiency, higher profits, and better service delivery in several sectors.
• Encouraged foreign direct investment (FDI) and technology transfer.
• However, it also raised concerns about monopolistic practices, job losses, and lack of access to essential services for marginalized groups.
• 1991 Economic Reforms:
• India faced a severe balance of payments crisis in 1991, leading to the introduction of structural reforms under Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
• Key components of the reforms included liberalisation (reduction of government control over industries), privatisation, and globalisation (integration of the Indian economy with the global market).
• Privatisation in Other Nations:
• Several countries adopted privatisation strategies to enhance economic efficiency. For example, the United Kingdom privatised British Airways, British Telecom, and other public enterprises under Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher.
• Similarly, the United States encouraged private sector involvement in areas like healthcare, education, and infrastructure development.
• Important Points:
• Privatisation does not always mean the complete transfer of ownership; it can also involve partial disinvestment or management contracts.
• Essential services like defense, atomic energy, and railways remain under government control in India, even after privatisation efforts in other sectors.
• The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) was set up to attract investments and support privatisation initiatives.

The correct answer is Actively participating in local elections and governance processes.

Key Points

• The Indian Constitution, under Part IVA, specifies Fundamental Duties of citizens in Article 51A. These duties were added by the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• One of the duties outlined is to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. This is a constitutional obligation of every citizen. Hence, this is a Fundamental Duty.
• Another duty is to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures. This is also a Fundamental Duty.
• Citizens are also required to value and preserve the rich heritage of India's composite culture. This is part of the Fundamental Duties.
• Actively participating in local elections and governance processes, though important for democracy, is not listed as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution of India. Hence, this is not a Fundamental Duty.

Additional Information

• Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution:
• Fundamental Duties were added through the 42^nd Amendment Act, 1976, under the influence of the USSR Constitution.
• There are 11 Fundamental Duties, and they serve as moral obligations for citizens to promote a spirit of patriotism and uphold the unity of India.
• These duties include respecting the National Flag, the National Anthem, protecting the natural environment, and striving for excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
• Article 51A:
• Article 51A lists the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
• It emphasizes duties such as safeguarding public property, renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women, and promoting harmony among all people.
• Non-Fundamental Duties:
• Activities like voting in elections, paying taxes, and participating in governance processes are essential for a democracy but are not explicitly mentioned as Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
• These are considered moral and civic responsibilities rather than constitutional obligations.
• Important Points:
• The Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by the courts.
• They aim to inspire citizens to fulfill their responsibilities towards the nation and society.

The correct answer is IIT Bombay.

Key Points

• In February 2025, IIT Bombay developed a groundbreaking innovation in the form of needle-free shock syringes.
• The innovation was aimed at improving medical procedures, especially for individuals who have a fear of needles or for children who require painless injection methods.
• The needle-free shock syringes utilize a high-pressure mechanism to deliver medicine or vaccines directly into the skin, making the process quicker and more efficient.
• This device is expected to revolutionize the healthcare sector, particularly in rural areas, where access to skilled healthcare professionals can be limited.
• IIT Bombay is renowned for its contributions to technological innovations in the fields of healthcare, energy, and engineering, and this invention further solidifies its reputation as a leading research institute in India.

Additional Information

• IIT Bombay:
• Located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, IIT Bombay is one of the premier institutes of technology in India, established in 1958.
• It has a strong focus on cutting-edge research in various domains, including healthcare, AI, energy, and materials science.
• The institute has produced numerous patents and startups, contributing significantly to India's technological advancement.
• Needle-Free Shock Syringes:
• These syringes are designed to administer drugs or vaccines without the need for a traditional needle.
• The technology uses high-pressure liquid streams to penetrate the skin and deliver the medication directly into the tissue.
• It minimizes pain, risk of infection, and the fear associated with needle-based injections.
• Applications of Needle-Free Syringes:
• Ideal for mass vaccination programs, especially during pandemics or outbreaks.
• Useful for children and elderly patients who are more sensitive to needle-based procedures.
• Promotes better compliance in patients with needle phobia.
• Other Innovations by IIT Bombay:
• Development of low-cost ventilators during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Advancements in renewable energy technologies, such as solar panels and energy storage systems.
• Innovations in AI and machine learning for applications in healthcare and agriculture.

The correct answer is 42^nd Constitutional Amendment.

Key Points

• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution under Part IVA.
• This amendment was implemented during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and was a part of the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• The Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Article 51A of the Constitution to emphasize the responsibilities of citizens in the promotion of democracy and public welfare.
• Initially, 10 Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution, and they were later expanded to 11 duties by the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• The Fundamental Duties aim to serve as a reminder for citizens to uphold the spirit of patriotism and support the national interest.

Additional Information

• 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act:
• Known as the "Mini Constitution," the 42^nd Amendment Act made extensive changes to the Indian Constitution, including the addition of Fundamental Duties.
• It was enacted in 1976 during the Emergency period to strengthen the central government's authority.
• It introduced changes in various parts of the Constitution, such as the Preamble, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Rights.
• Swaran Singh Committee:
• The Swaran Singh Committee was constituted by the government to recommend the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
• The committee suggested that citizens should be reminded of their duties alongside their rights.
• The recommendations of this committee formed the basis for the inclusion of Article 51A in the Constitution.
• Article 51A:
• Article 51A lists the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens, which include respecting the Constitution, cherishing the nation's heritage, protecting the environment, and promoting harmony.
• The duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be legally enforced but serve as moral obligations for citizens.
• 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act:
• The 86^th Amendment Act of 2002 added the 11^th Fundamental Duty, which mandates parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children aged 6 to 14 years.
• This amendment was linked to the Right to Education Act, ensuring free and compulsory education for children.

Important Points

• Significance of Fundamental Duties:
• They act as a constant reminder for citizens to uphold the dignity of the Constitution and contribute to the nation's progress.
• Fundamental Duties are inspired by the Constitution of USSR and reflect the principles of civic responsibility and patriotism.
• Although non-justiciable, they play a crucial role in promoting responsible behavior among citizens.
• Examples of Fundamental Duties:
• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions.
• To protect the environment and safeguard public property.
• To promote scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry.

The correct answer is 2002.

Key Points

• The Vijay Kelkar Committee was set up in the year 2002 to recommend measures for tax reforms in India.
• The committee aimed to simplify the tax structure, enhance tax compliance, and increase revenue collection for the government.
• It focused on both direct taxes (such as income tax) and indirect taxes (like customs and excise duties).
• The Kelkar Committee proposed reforms like the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST), which was implemented later in 2017.
• One of its key recommendations was to make the tax administration more efficient and transparent, reducing the burden on taxpayers.

Additional Information

• Key Objectives of the Vijay Kelkar Committee:
• The committee's primary goal was to reform India's taxation system to make it more growth-oriented.
• It sought to reduce the complexities in tax laws and improve the ease of doing business in India.
• Recommendations were made to improve the efficiency of the tax administration and reduce corruption.
• It emphasized the need for a uniform tax system across states to eliminate cascading tax effects.
• Introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST):
• The GST, one of India's biggest tax reforms, was influenced by the Kelkar Committee's recommendations.
• GST was implemented in July 2017, subsuming multiple indirect taxes like VAT, excise duty, and service tax.
• It created a single tax structure across the country, improving compliance and reducing tax evasion.
• Impact of Tax Reforms:
• The committee's suggestions contributed to higher revenue collection for the government and improved fiscal discipline.
• It helped in reducing India's fiscal deficit and boosting economic growth over time.
• Other Recommendations:
• The Vijay Kelkar Committee also highlighted the importance of direct tax reforms, such as reducing exemptions and increasing tax rates for high-income individuals.
• It recommended measures to bring more people into the tax net, broadening the base for revenue generation.

Important Points

• The Vijay Kelkar Committee was instrumental in shaping modern tax policies in India.
• Many of its recommendations were implemented gradually, leading to significant changes in India's tax regime.
• The committee's work highlighted the need for a robust tax administration system to prevent evasion and ensure compliance.
• Its focus on simplifying tax laws helped in reducing the compliance burden on taxpayers.

The correct answer is Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah.

Key Points

• Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah founded the Bahmani Sultanate in the year 1347. He established it as the first independent Muslim kingdom in South India.
• This Sultanate was formed after a revolt against the Tughlaq Dynasty, specifically against Mohammad Bin Tughlaq, the then ruler of the Delhi Sultanate.
• The Bahmani Sultanate's capital was initially located at Gulbarga and later shifted to Bidar.
• The Sultanate played a vital role in the history of Deccan India, fostering art, architecture, and cultural development during its reign.
• Hasan Bahman Shah sought to consolidate his power in the Deccan region by uniting various Muslim nobles who were discontented under the Tughlaq rule. Hence, Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Bahmani Sultanate:
• It lasted from 1347 to 1527 and was one of the major kingdoms in medieval India.
• The Sultanate controlled the Deccan region, which included parts of present-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Telangana.
• The Bahmani rulers were known for promoting Persian culture and literature, establishing educational institutions, and constructing architectural marvels.
• It later split into five Deccan Sultanates: Bijapur, Golkonda, Ahmadnagar, Bidar, and Berar.
• Muhammad Bin Tughlaq:
• He was a ruler of the Tughlaq Dynasty (Delhi Sultanate) and reigned from 1325 to 1351.
• His policies, including the transfer of the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad, were often considered impractical, leading to widespread dissatisfaction among his subjects.
• The revolt of Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah was partly motivated by the discontent under Muhammad Bin Tughlaq's administration.
• Significance of Gulbarga and Bidar:
• Gulbarga served as the initial capital of the Bahmani Sultanate and was a prominent center of architecture and culture.
• Later, the capital shifted to Bidar, which became a hub for Persian art and literature under the Sultanate.
• Monuments like the Bidar Fort and Bahmani Tombs are iconic remnants of Bahmani architecture.
• Legacy of the Bahmani Sultanate:
• The Sultanate significantly influenced the Deccan region's cultural and political landscape.
• Its contributions to architecture include mosques, palaces, and forts, showcasing Indo-Islamic and Persian styles.
• The Deccan Sultanates, which emerged after the fall of Bahmani rule, continued its legacy of fostering art and culture.

The correct answer is Ministry of Rural Development.

Key Points

• The PM-Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan was launched in June 2020 to address the issues of migrant workers who returned to their villages due to the COVID-19 lockdown.
• It was implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development in collaboration with other ministries such as the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, Ministry of Panchayati Raj, and Ministry of Agriculture.
• The scheme aimed to provide employment opportunities to migrant workers and boost rural infrastructure development in 116 districts across six states: Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, and Odisha.
• The program was designed to run for 125 days, focusing on 25 different types of works such as rural housing, water conservation, construction of roads, and plantation activities to generate employment.
• The total financial allocation for the scheme was Rs. 50,000 crore, ensuring a quick and effective response to the economic challenges posed by the pandemic.

Additional Information

• Ministry of Rural Development:
• The Ministry of Rural Development is responsible for implementing various programs aimed at poverty alleviation, employment generation, and infrastructure development in rural areas.
• Key schemes under this ministry include Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G), and Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM).
• Key Features of PM-Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan:
• The program was launched as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan to empower rural workers and create durable infrastructure in rural areas.
• It included a convergence of efforts from 12 Central Government Ministries and departments.
• The scheme prioritized migrant workers who faced unemployment during the pandemic by leveraging existing skill sets and providing training opportunities.
• Other Ministries Involved:
• The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship played a role in upskilling workers and helping them adapt to new job opportunities.
• The Ministry of Panchayati Raj helped in the local-level implementation and monitoring of the projects under this scheme.
• Impact of PM-Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan:
• The scheme provided a significant boost to rural infrastructure with the construction of roads, wells, and houses while providing livelihood opportunities to migrant workers.
• It also helped in addressing the immediate concerns of unemployment and income loss among vulnerable rural populations during the pandemic.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• India is divided into 4 seismic zones, as per the Seismic Zone Map of India, based on the level of seismic activity and earthquake risk.
• These zones are classified as Zone II, Zone III, Zone IV, and Zone V. Zone II represents areas with the lowest seismic risk, and Zone V represents the areas with the highest seismic risk.
• Zone II includes regions with low seismic activity, whereas Zone V includes regions that are the most prone to earthquakes, such as parts of the Himalayan region.
• The seismic zoning is done based on the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) IS 1893:2002, which provides criteria for earthquake-resistant construction and categorizes regions based on past seismic activity and tectonic setup.
• Seismic Zone IV, which includes major cities like Delhi, is considered highly prone to destructive earthquakes, while Zone V covers the most vulnerable areas like parts of the Northeastern states.

Additional Information

• Seismic Zones of India:
• Zone II: This is the least active seismic zone. It includes regions like the Deccan Plateau and some parts of Central India.
• Zone III: This zone experiences moderate seismic activity and includes regions like Mumbai and Kolkata.
• Zone IV: This zone is considered severe in terms of earthquake risk and includes areas like Delhi, Jammu, and parts of Bihar.
• Zone V: This is the most seismically active zone, covering areas like the Himalayan belt, Northeast India, and parts of Gujarat (e.g., Kutch region).
• Earthquake-prone regions:
• India has experienced several major earthquakes, including the 2001 Bhuj Earthquake (Gujarat) and the 2015 Nepal Earthquake, which significantly impacted Northern India.
• Regions near tectonic plate boundaries, such as the Himalayan region, are particularly prone to frequent and severe earthquakes.
• Seismic Zoning Map:
• The Seismic Zoning Map of India is developed by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), which provides guidelines to engineers and architects for constructing earthquake-resistant structures.
• The map categorizes regions based on their seismic potential and helps in urban planning and disaster management.
• Important Points:
• Many cities in India, such as Delhi and Guwahati, fall under zones IV and V, which are prone to high seismic risks.
• India’s seismic activity is primarily due to the interaction of the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, leading to frequent tectonic movements.
• Understanding seismic zones is critical for designing structures that can withstand earthquakes and reduce damage to life and property.

The correct answer is 912 women per 1000 men.

Key Points

• According to the 2011 Census, the sex ratio of Uttar Pradesh was recorded as 912 women per 1000 men.
• The sex ratio is a critical demographic indicator that reflects the number of females per 1000 males in a population, and it provides insights into the gender balance within a region.
• The sex ratio in Uttar Pradesh was lower than the national average of 943 females per 1000 males, indicating a gender disparity in the state.
• States like Uttar Pradesh have traditionally faced challenges in achieving gender equality due to socio-economic and cultural factors.
• The sex ratio is influenced by factors such as birth rates, mortality rates, gender-specific migration, and societal attitudes towards females.

Additional Information

• Sex Ratio in India (2011 Census):
• The overall sex ratio in India, as per the 2011 Census, was 943 females per 1000 males.
• The highest sex ratio was recorded in Kerala (1084 females per 1000 males), while the lowest was in Haryana (877 females per 1000 males).
• Factors Affecting Sex Ratio:
• Socio-cultural preferences: In many regions, a preference for male children leads to gender imbalance.
• Access to healthcare: A lack of adequate healthcare for women and girls affects survival rates.
• Economic factors: In some societies, sons are considered economic assets, influencing gender ratios.
• Government Initiatives:
• Beti Bachao Beti Padhao: A campaign launched in 2015 to address declining child sex ratios and promote gender equality.
• National Policy for Empowerment of Women: Aimed at improving the status of women through legislative and developmental measures.
• Regional Disparities:
• Northern states: States like Uttar Pradesh and Haryana have lower sex ratios due to socio-cultural preferences for male children.
• Southern states: States like Kerala and Tamil Nadu generally exhibit higher sex ratios due to better education and healthcare systems.
• Importance of Balanced Sex Ratio:
• A balanced sex ratio is essential for sustainable development and social harmony.
• It reflects gender equality and improved status of women in society.

The correct answer is Mithali Raj.

Key Points

• Mithali Raj, one of India’s greatest female cricketers, was awarded the title of 'Sportstar (Female) of the Year' at the 2025 Sportstar Aces Awards.
• The Sportstar Aces Awards is a prestigious annual event that recognizes and honors outstanding performances and contributions in the field of sports across various disciplines.
• Mithali Raj is celebrated as the highest run-scorer in women’s international cricket and has been a trailblazer in the promotion of women’s cricket in India.
• Her remarkable achievements include leading India to the finals of the ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup twice, in 2005 and 2017, and being a consistent performer for over two decades.
• In February 2025, she was recognized not only for her stellar cricketing career but also for her significant role in inspiring the next generation of female athletes in India.

Additional Information

• Mithali Raj's Cricket Career:
• Mithali Raj is the first woman cricketer to score 7,000 runs in Women’s One Day Internationals (ODIs).
• She is the only female cricketer to have captained India in over 200 matches, spanning Test, ODI, and T20 formats.
• Raj retired from international cricket in June 2022, leaving behind an unparalleled legacy.
• Sportstar Aces Awards:
• The Sportstar Aces Awards are given annually by The Hindu Group to honor excellence in sports.
• The awards cover a wide range of categories, including Male and Female Sportspersons of the Year, Emerging Talent, and various team and individual sport awards.
• It recognizes contributions in both popular and less mainstream sports, promoting inclusivity in Indian sports.
• Notable Achievements of Mithali Raj:
• She was awarded the Arjuna Award in 2003 and the Padma Shri in 2015 for her contribution to Indian cricket.
• In 2021, she became the first Indian woman cricketer to be awarded the Khel Ratna, India’s highest sporting honor.
• Raj also holds the record for the most consecutive half-centuries in Women’s ODIs, showcasing her consistency and skill.
• Inspiration for Women’s Cricket:
• Mithali Raj's performances and leadership have been instrumental in raising the profile of women’s cricket in India.
• She has inspired initiatives like the Women’s IPL and has been a role model for aspiring female cricketers.
• Post-retirement, she continues to contribute to the game as a mentor and ambassador for women’s sports.

The correct answer is The House of Blue Mangoes.

Key Points

• David Davidar, an Indian author, wrote the critically acclaimed novel 'The House of Blue Mangoes', which was his debut work.
• The book, published in 2002, is known for its vivid portrayal of life in a fictional South Indian village called Chevathar.
• Colonialism is a central theme in the book, and it strongly critiques its impact on the lives and culture of the Indian people.
• The novel spans three generations of a family, focusing on their struggles, cultural transitions, and the socio-political changes during the colonial era in India.
• The book is celebrated for its historical depth, detailed characterization, and exploration of themes such as identity, resistance, and loss.

Additional Information

• David Davidar:
• David Davidar is an Indian author, editor, and publisher. He is known for his significant contributions to Indian English literature.
• He has held leadership roles in the publishing industry, such as being the CEO of Penguin India and co-founder of Aleph Book Company.
• His other notable works include 'The Solitude of Emperors' and 'Ithaca', which also explore themes of identity and socio-political issues.
• About 'The House of Blue Mangoes':
• The novel spans the time period from the late 19^th century to India's independence in 1947.
• It delves into the lives of the Dorai family, focusing on patriarch Solomon Dorai and his descendants.
• The book explores the impact of colonial rule, caste discrimination, and family dynamics in a rapidly changing India.
• It has been praised for its rich narrative and ability to capture the essence of South Indian culture.
• Colonialism in Literature:
• Colonialism has been a recurring theme in Indian English literature, reflecting the impact of British rule on Indian society and culture.
• Other notable works that critique colonialism include 'A Passage to India' by E.M. Forster and 'Midnight's Children' by Salman Rushdie.
• These works often highlight themes of identity, resistance, and the struggle for independence.
• Other Options:
• Vanity Bagh: A novel by Anees Salim, focusing on the life of a young man in a Muslim ghetto.
• Early India: A historical book by Romila Thapar, providing an in-depth analysis of India's ancient history.
• Narcopolis: A novel by Jeet Thayil, set in Mumbai, exploring themes of addiction and the underbelly of urban life.
• None of these works deal with colonialism in the same way as 'The House of Blue Mangoes'.

The correct answer is Capillary water.

Key Points

• Capillary water is the primary source of water for plants as it is held in the micropores of the soil and is available for absorption by plant roots.
• It is retained in the soil due to surface tension and is present in spaces small enough to defy gravitational pull but large enough to allow movement to plant roots.
• The water molecules in capillary water are mobile and can travel to the roots through the process of capillarity, ensuring plants receive a steady supply of moisture.
• Plants absorb capillary water through their root hairs via the process of osmosis, which facilitates nutrient uptake alongside water absorption.
• Unlike gravitational water, which drains away quickly, and hygroscopic water, which is tightly bound to soil particles, capillary water is the most beneficial for plant growth.

Additional Information

• Gravitational water:
• Gravitational water is water that drains out of the large soil pores due to the force of gravity.
• It is not retained for long in the soil and is generally unavailable to plants as it moves too quickly for roots to absorb.
• This type of water is more common in sandy soils with larger pores.
• Crystalline water:
• Crystalline water refers to water molecules that are part of the crystal structure of certain minerals.
• This water is chemically bound and cannot be utilized by plants.
• It is usually released only when the mineral undergoes decomposition or a chemical reaction.
• Moisture-absorbing water (Hygroscopic water):
• Hygroscopic water is a thin layer of water tightly bound to soil particles.
• This water is unavailable to plants as it is held too strongly by the soil particles for the roots to extract it.
• It is more common in clay soils where particles have a higher surface area.
• Importance of capillary water for agriculture:
• Capillary water is crucial for crop growth as it provides a steady water supply during dry conditions.
• Soil management practices like mulching and proper irrigation techniques aim to maximize capillary water retention.
• Understanding soil texture and structure helps in optimizing water availability for plants.

The correct answer is Sulphur.

Key Points

• Macronutrients are essential elements that plants require in larger quantities for their growth and development. These include elements like nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), potassium (K), calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg), and sulphur (S).
• Sulphur is classified as a macronutrient because it is required in relatively large amounts and plays a critical role in the synthesis of proteins, vitamins, and enzymes.
• Sulphur is essential for the formation of amino acids like cysteine and methionine, which are building blocks of proteins. It is also involved in the production of chlorophyll, crucial for photosynthesis.
• Although elements like manganese, chlorine, and iron are important for plant growth, they are classified as micronutrients since they are needed in trace amounts compared to macronutrients.
• Hence, the correct answer is Sulphur.

Additional Information

• Classification of Nutrients:
• Plant nutrients are divided into macronutrients (needed in large amounts) and micronutrients (needed in small amounts).
• Macronutrients include nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium, and sulphur, while micronutrients include iron, manganese, zinc, copper, molybdenum, boron, and chlorine.
• Functions of Sulphur:
• Protein Synthesis: Sulphur is a constituent of certain amino acids like cysteine and methionine, which are essential for protein formation.
• Enzyme Activity: Sulphur is involved in enzymatic functions crucial for plant metabolism.
• Photosynthesis: Sulphur contributes to chlorophyll production, aiding in photosynthesis and plant growth.
• Oil Content in Seeds: Sulphur increases oil content in crops like mustard and sunflower.
• Micronutrients and Their Functions:
• Manganese: Facilitates photosynthesis and enzyme activation.
• Chlorine: Plays a role in osmosis and ionic balance.
• Iron: Essential for chlorophyll synthesis and acts as a cofactor for enzymes.
• Deficiency Symptoms:
• Sulphur Deficiency: Results in yellowing of leaves, stunted growth, and reduced crop yield.
• Micronutrient Deficiencies: Lead to specific disorders, such as iron chlorosis or manganese toxicity.

Important Points

• Sulphur Sources:
• Sulphur is naturally available in soil and can be supplemented through fertilizers like ammonium sulphate, gypsum, and potassium sulphate.
• It is also obtained through organic sources such as manure and compost.
• Role in Agriculture:
• Crops like mustard, soybean, and sunflower have higher sulphur requirements compared to other crops.
• Sulphur-rich fertilizers are often used to improve soil fertility and enhance crop yield.

The correct answer is 15.

Key Points

• The SDG India Index 2023-24 is a report released by the NITI Aayog, which measures the progress of States and Union Territories (UTs) toward achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• The index evaluates the performance of states and UTs across 15 SDGs, covering various dimensions like poverty, health, education, climate action, and more.
• The target-time scores for each of the 15 SDGs have been calculated individually for all states and UTs based on their progress in achieving the targets set by the United Nations.
• The SDG India Index is an important policy tool that enables states and UTs to evaluate their performances and identify gaps to improve their SDG-related initiatives.
• The scores are calculated using a composite methodology based on indicators derived from the national and sub-national data available.

Additional Information

• Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
• The SDGs are a collection of 17 global goals established by the United Nations in 2015 to address issues such as poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, and peace and justice.
• The goals are intended to be achieved by the year 2030 and are a part of the broader UN 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
• In India, the NITI Aayog is the nodal agency for coordinating the implementation of SDGs at the national and sub-national levels.
• Role of NITI Aayog in SDG Implementation:
• The NITI Aayog facilitates the adoption of SDGs by developing state-wise indices and encouraging competition among states for improved performance.
• It works in collaboration with the United Nations, other international organizations, and various stakeholders to align India’s development priorities with SDGs.
• Methodology of the SDG India Index:
• The index uses a set of 115 indicators to measure the performance of states and UTs across 15 SDGs.
• The scores range from 0 to 100, with higher scores indicating better progress toward achieving the targets.
• The indicators are sourced from national datasets, reports, and surveys conducted by various government and non-governmental organizations.
• Significance of the SDG India Index:
• The index promotes competitive federalism by ranking states and UTs based on their SDG performance.
• It provides a roadmap for policymakers to strengthen their strategies and initiatives to achieve the SDGs.

The correct answer is 1975.

Key Points

• National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) was established in the year 1975.
• NHPC was incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 with an aim to promote and organize an integrated and efficient development of hydroelectric power in India.
• It is a Government of India enterprise and is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Power.
• NHPC has been instrumental in harnessing water resources for electric power generation and has contributed significantly to the growth of hydroelectric power in the country.
• The organization is headquartered at Faridabad, Haryana, and is one of the largest hydroelectric power-generating companies in India.

Additional Information

• Hydroelectric Power in India:
• Hydroelectric power is a renewable source of energy generated by harnessing the energy of flowing water.
• It constitutes one of the major sources of electricity in India, contributing to both energy security and sustainable development.
• India is endowed with a vast potential for hydropower, estimated at approximately 148,700 MW of installed capacity.
• Several rivers like the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and their tributaries serve as excellent sources for hydroelectric power generation.
• NHPC’s Achievements:
• NHPC has an installed capacity of over 7000 MW through its operational power stations.
• It has also diversified into other renewable energy sources like solar and wind energy.
• NHPC operates several major projects, including Teesta-V (510 MW) in Sikkim and Subansiri Lower (2000 MW) in Arunachal Pradesh/Assam.
• Role of Hydroelectric Power:
• Hydropower is crucial for maintaining grid stability as it can be quickly ramped up or down to meet demand fluctuations.
• It also plays a significant role in reducing greenhouse gas emissions as it is a clean energy source.
• Hydropower projects often contribute to regional development by providing irrigation, flood control, and drinking water supply.
• Important Points:
• The establishment of NHPC in 1975 marked a focused approach towards utilizing India's hydropower potential.
• NHPC has played a pivotal role in achieving the government's vision of “Power for All”, ensuring energy security in India.
• It also contributes significantly to India’s renewable energy goals under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).

The correct answer is Urdu.

Key Points

• Urdu was declared as the second official language of Uttar Pradesh in 1989, primarily due to the significant population of Urdu-speaking individuals in the state.
• Hindi remains the first official language of Uttar Pradesh as per the Official Languages Act of the state.
• The decision to make Urdu the second official language was aimed at recognizing and preserving the cultural and linguistic heritage of the state.
• Government communications and documents in Uttar Pradesh can be issued in both Hindi and Urdu, ensuring inclusivity for Urdu-speaking communities.
• This status enables the use of Urdu in judicial and administrative proceedings, alongside Hindi.

Additional Information

• Urdu Language:
• Urdu is an Indo-Aryan language primarily spoken in the Indian subcontinent, especially by the Muslim communities.
• It originated in the Delhi Sultanate and Mughal Empire, borrowing heavily from Persian, Arabic, and Turkish languages.
• Urdu is written in the Persian-Arabic script and is known for its rich literary tradition, including poetry and prose.
• It is one of the 22 scheduled languages recognized by the Indian Constitution under the Eighth Schedule.
• Other Official Languages of Indian States:
• Bihar: Hindi and Urdu are the official languages. Urdu was recognized as the second official language in 1981.
• Jammu & Kashmir: Urdu is the official language, along with Hindi, Dogri, Kashmiri, and English.
• West Bengal: Bengali is the official language, while Urdu has special status in certain areas.
• Linguistic Diversity in India:
• India is home to 22 scheduled languages and over 1,600 dialects.
• The Constitution of India provides for the protection and promotion of languages under Article 29 and Article 30.
• Linguistic reorganization of states was carried out after Independence, starting with the States Reorganization Act, 1956.
• Important Points:
• The recognition of Urdu as the second official language in Uttar Pradesh helps in maintaining its linguistic inclusivity and addressing the needs of its large Urdu-speaking population.
• It supports the preservation of cultural identity and enhances communication within the state.

Given:

Pipe A fills tank in 45 hours

Pipe B fills tank in 15 hours

Formula used:

Work = LCM of time taken

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Total time = Total work ÷ (Efficiency of A + Efficiency of B)

Calculations:

⇒ LCM of 45 and 15 = 45 units (total work)

⇒ A’s 1-hour work = 45 ÷ 45 = 1 unit

⇒ B’s 1-hour work = 45 ÷ 15 = 3 units

⇒ Total 1-hour work = 1 + 3 = 4 units

⇒ Time taken together = 45 ÷ 4 = $11\frac{1}{4}$ hours 

∴ The tank will be filled in $11\frac{1}{4}$ hours.

Given:

Base of the parallelogram = 26 cm.

Height of the parallelogram = 10 cm.

Formula Used:

Area of parallelogram = Base × Height

Calculation:

⇒ Area = 26 × 10

⇒ Area = 260 cm²

∴ The area of the parallelogram is 260 cm².

Given:

We need to find what percent of a number its 1% of 1% is.

Formula used:

1% of 1% of a number = (1/100) × (1/100) × Number

Calculations:

⇒ (1/100) × (1/100) × N = (1/10000) × N

⇒ (1/10000) × N = (0.01)% of N

∴ 1% of 1% of a number = 0.01% of that number.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹3,000

Rate of interest (R) = 7% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (3000 × 7 × 3) / 100

⇒ SI = (3000 × 21) / 100

⇒ SI = 630

∴ The simple interest is ₹630.

Given:

Pipe A fills tank in 15 hours

Pipe B fills tank in 27 hours

Formula used:

Work = LCM of time taken

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

Total time = Total work ÷ (Efficiency of A + Efficiency of B)

Calculations:

⇒ LCM of 15 and 27 = 135 units (total work)

⇒ A’s 1-hour work = 135 ÷ 15 = 9 units

⇒ B’s 1-hour work = 135 ÷ 27 = 5 units

⇒ Combined 1-hour work = 9 + 5 = 14 units

⇒ Time to fill half tank = (135/2) ÷ 14

⇒ Time to fill half tank = 135/28 = $4\frac{23}{28}$ hours

∴ It will take $4\frac{23}{28}$ hours to fill half the tank.

Given:

A can do the work in 19 days

B can do the work in 21 days

Formula used:

Work = LCM of days taken

Efficiency = Work ÷ Time

They work alternately starting with B.

Calculations:

⇒ LCM of 19 and 21 = 399 units (total work)

⇒ A’s 1-day work = 399 ÷ 19 = 21 units

⇒ B’s 1-day work = 399 ÷ 21 = 19 units

⇒ Work done in 2 days (B + A) = 19 + 21 = 40 units

⇒ Work done in 9 such pairs (18 days) = 9 × 40 = 360 units

⇒ Remaining work = 399 − 360 = 39 units

Next day (19^th day) B works and does 19 units

⇒ Work left = 39 − 19 = 20 units

Now A will do 21 units per day, so time for 20 units = 20 ÷ 21 = 20/21 day

⇒ Total time = 19 + 20/21 = $19\frac{20}{21}$ days

∴ The work will be finished in approximately $19\frac{20}{21}$ days.

Given:

Claimed profit = 15%

Uses 21% less weight ⇒ Sells only 79% of marked weight

Formula used:

Actual profit % = { (Selling price per marked quantity − Cost price per marked quantity) ÷ Cost price per marked quantity } × 100

Calculations:

Let cost price of 1 kg = ₹100

Claimed selling price = ₹100 + 15% of 100 = ₹115 (for 1 kg marked weight)

But merchant actually gives only 79% of 1 kg = 0.79 kg for ₹115

⇒ Selling price per kg (actual) = 115 ÷ 0.79 = ₹145.57

⇒ Profit % = ((145.57 − 100) ÷ 100) × 100 = 45.57%

∴ Overall profit ≈ 46%.

Given:

22% of $50-\frac{2}{7}× \sqrt[3]{125}× \sqrt{49}=y$

Formula Used:

Percentage value = (Percentage × Total) / 100.

∛(x) = x^1/3.

√(x) = x^1/2.

Calculation:

22% of $50-\frac{2}{7}× \sqrt[3]{125}× \sqrt{49}=y$

22/100 × 50 - 2/7 × 5 × 7 = y 

11 - 10 = y 

∴ The value of y is 1.

Given:

Rainfall (in mm):

Delhi = 44

Mumbai = 66

Kolkata = 61

Bengaluru = 57

Formula used:

To find which city’s rainfall equals the average of the remaining three cities.

Calculations:

If we exclude Delhi: Average = (66 + 61 + 57) ÷ 3 = 184 ÷ 3 = 61.33 → ≠ 44

If we exclude Mumbai: Average = (44 + 61 + 57) ÷ 3 = 162 ÷ 3 = 54 → ≠ 66

If we exclude Kolkata: Average = (44 + 66 + 57) ÷ 3 = 167 ÷ 3 = 55.67 → ≠ 61

If we exclude Bengaluru: Average = (44 + 66 + 61) ÷ 3 = 171 ÷ 3 = 57 → = 57 

∴ Bengaluru’s rainfall is the average of the rainfall in the remaining cities.

Given:

Ratio of purchase prices of goods X and Y = 3:7.

Profit percentage on goods X = 25%.

Loss percentage on goods Y = 20%.

Formula Used:

Overall profit/loss percentage = ((Total Selling Price - Total Cost Price) / Total Cost Price) × 100

Calculation:

Let the cost price of goods X = 3x and cost price of goods Y = 7x.

⇒ Selling price of goods X = 3x + (25 / 100) × 3x = 3x + 0.75x = 3.75x

⇒ Selling price of goods Y = 7x - (20 / 100) × 7x = 7x - 1.4x = 5.6x

⇒ Total cost price = 3x + 7x = 10x

⇒ Total selling price = 3.75x + 5.6x = 9.35x

⇒ Profit/Loss = Total Selling Price - Total Cost Price = 9.35x - 10x = -0.65x (Loss)

⇒ Overall profit/loss percentage = (-0.65x / 10x) × 100

⇒ Overall profit/loss percentage = -6.5%

∴ The person suffers a loss of 6.5% in the entire transaction.

Given:

Total rice = 63 kg

Profit percentages: 5% on part of the rice and 26% on the remaining rice

Overall profit = 23%

Formula Used:

Overall profit = (Profit from part 1 + Profit from part 2) / Total quantity

Calculation:

Let the quantity of rice sold at 26% profit be x kg.

⇒ Quantity sold at 5% profit = 63 - x

Profit from part 1 = (63 - x) × 5 / 100

Profit from part 2 = x × 26 / 100

Overall profit = 63 × 23 / 100

⇒ (63 - x) × 5 / 100 + x × 26 / 100 = 63 × 23 / 100

⇒ 5(63 - x) + 26x = 63 × 23

⇒ 315 - 5x + 26x = 1449

⇒ 21x = 1449 - 315

⇒ 21x = 1134

⇒ x = 1134 / 21

⇒ x = 54

∴ The quantity of rice sold at a 26% profit is 54 kg.

Given:

Principal amount (P) = ₹53,625

Annual interest rate (R) = 20%

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Compound Interest Formula: A = P × (1 + R/100)^T

Calculation:

⇒ A = ₹53,625 × (1 + 20/100)²

⇒ A = ₹53,625 × (1 + 0.2)²

⇒ A = ₹53,625 × (1.2)²

⇒ A = ₹53,625 × 1.44

⇒ A = ₹77,220

∴ The total amount Akshat will receive is ₹77,220.

Given:

7230.8 × 353.5 × 0.868 = ?

Formula used:

Move the decimal points such that the total power of 10 remains the same.

Calculations:

7230.8 = 72.308 × 100

353.5 = 3535 ÷ 10

0.868 = 8.68 ÷ 10

⇒ (72.308 × 100) × (3535 ÷ 10) × (8.68 ÷ 10)

⇒ 72.308 × 3535 × 8.68 × (100 ÷ 100)

⇒ 72.308 × 3535 × 8.68

∴ The value of 7230.8 × 353.5 × 0.868 is equal to 72.308 × 3535 × 8.68.

Given:

Marked price of the toy bike = ₹8,540

Selling price of the toy bike = ₹5,510

Formula Used:

Discount percentage = (Discount / Marked Price) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Discount = Marked Price - Selling Price

⇒ Discount = 8,540 - 5,510

⇒ Discount = 3,030

⇒ Discount percentage = (3,030 / 8,540) × 100

⇒ Discount percentage = 0.3548 × 100

⇒ Discount percentage = 35.48%

∴ The discount percentage is 35.48%. The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

The time taken upstream is three-quarters of the time taken downstream.

Formula Used:

Let the boat's speed in still water = B, and the current speed = C.

Time = Distance / Speed

Upstream speed = B - C, Downstream speed = B + C

Ratio of time upstream to time downstream = 3/4

Calculation:

Let the distance covered upstream and downstream be the same, say D.

⇒ Time upstream / Time downstream = 3 / 4

⇒ (D / (B - C)) / (D / (B + C)) = 3 / 4

⇒ (B + C) / (B - C) = 3 / 4

⇒ 4(B + C) = 3(B - C)

⇒ 4B + 4C = 3B - 3C

⇒ 4B - 3B = -3C - 4C

⇒ B / C = 7 / 1

∴ The ratio of the boat's speed in still water to the speed of the current is 7 : 1.

Given:

Observations: 92, 19, 23, 69, 81, 36, 35, 38, and 93.

Formula Used:

Arithmetic Mean = (Sum of observations) / (Number of observations)

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of observations = 92 + 19 + 23 + 69 + 81 + 36 + 35 + 38 + 93

⇒ Sum of observations = 486

⇒ Number of observations = 9

⇒ Arithmetic Mean = 486 / 9

⇒ Arithmetic Mean = 54

∴ The arithmetic mean is 54.

Given:

Distance = 182 km

Let Abhay’s speed = a km/h

Let Sameer’s speed = s km/h

Abhay takes 5 hours more than Sameer

If Abhay doubles his speed, he takes 8 hours less than Sameer

Formula used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ (182 ÷ a) = (182 ÷ s) + 5 ........(1)

⇒ (182 ÷ (2a)) = (182 ÷ s) − 8 ........(2)

From (1): 182 ÷ s = (182 ÷ a) − 5

Substitute in (2):

⇒ 182 ÷ (2a) = (182 ÷ a) − 5 − 8

⇒ 182 ÷ (2a) = (182 ÷ a) − 13

Multiply both sides by 2a:

⇒ 182 = 2 × (182 − 13a)

⇒ 182 = 364 − 26a

⇒ 26a = 364 − 182 = 182

⇒ a = 7 km/h

∴ Abhay’s original speed = 7 km/h.

Given:

A storage tank is still 1% empty after 50 liters of petrol have been filled into it.

Formula Used:

Total capacity of the tank = Amount filled + (Remaining percentage of the tank × Total capacity)

Calculation:

Let the total capacity of the tank = C liters.

⇒ 50 + (1 / 100) × C = C

⇒ 50 = C - (1 / 100) × C

⇒ 50 = (99 / 100) × C

⇒ C = 50 × (100 / 99)

⇒ C = 50 × 1.0101

⇒ C = 50.51 liters

∴ The total capacity of the tank is 50.51 liters, so 0.51 liters will be needed to completely fill the tank.

Given:

Diameter_large = Diameter_small + 14

Surface area difference = 1232 cm²

Use π = 22/7

Formula used:

Surface area of sphere = 4πr²

Calculations:

Let r = radius of smaller sphere ⇒ radius of larger = r + 7

⇒ 4π(r + 7)² − 4πr² = 1232

⇒ 4π[(r + 7)² − r²] = 1232

⇒ 4π[(r² + 14r + 49) − r²] = 1232

⇒ 4π(14r + 49) = 1232

⇒ 4 × π × 7 × (2r + 7) = 1232

Substitute π = 22/7: 4 × (22/7) × 7 × (2r + 7) = 1232

⇒ (4 × 22) × (2r + 7) = 1232 ⇒ 88 × (2r + 7) = 1232

⇒ 2r + 7 = 1232 ÷ 88 = 14

⇒ 2r = 7 ⇒ r = 3.5 cm

⇒ Diameter of larger = 2 × (r + 7) = 2 × (3.5 + 7) = 2 × 10.5 = 21 cm

∴ Diameter of the larger sphere = 21 cm.

Given:

Reduced cost price of the article = ₹996

Percentage decrease in actual cost price = 60%

Formula Used:

Reduced cost price = Actual cost price × (1 - Percentage decrease / 100)

Calculation:

Let the actual cost price = x

⇒ Reduced cost price = x × (1 - 60 / 100)

⇒ 996 = x × (1 - 0.6)

⇒ 996 = x × 0.4

⇒ x = 996 / 0.4

⇒ x = 2490

∴ The actual cost price of the article is ₹2490.

The correct answer is: Anthology.

Key Points

• The word "book" refers to a written or printed work consisting of pages, bound together, containing information, stories, or knowledge. (पुस्तक)
• Example: I borrowed a book from the library about world history.
• "Anthology" refers to a collection of literary works, such as poems, short stories, or plays, often compiled in one book or volume. (कविताओं या कहानियों का संग्रह)
• Example: The anthology featured stories from 20 different authors from around the world.
• Hence, the most suitable word to substitute "book" in the given sentence is "Anthology".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Anthology.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Magazine (पत्रिका): A publication containing articles, stories, photographs, and advertisements, typically published regularly.
• Example: She enjoys reading fashion magazines during her free time.
• Series (श्रृंखला): A number of events, objects, or people of a similar kind or related nature coming one after another.
• Example: The TV series has been renewed for another season.
• Novel (उपन्यास): A long narrative written in prose, typically depicting fictional characters and events.
• Example: Her latest novel explores themes of love and betrayal.

The correct answer is 'Option (2)', i.e., 'An official count of a population.'

Key Points

• Census: An official count or survey of a population, typically recording various details of individuals.
• Example: The government conducted a census to gather data on population growth.
• Other options:
• Option 1 - Criticize strongly: This does not relate to census.
• Option 3 - In or near the centre: Incorrect meaning for census.
• Option 4 - Very critical: Not relevant to census.

Therefore, the correct answer is - 'Option 2.'

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e 'Affable'.

Key Points

• The word "affable" means friendly, courteous, and easy to talk to, which is appropriate in the context of talking respectfully to elders.
• The other options do not fit the context.
• Option 2: "Plumpy" refers to being chubby or rounded, which is unrelated to the context.
• Option 3: "Dilapidated" refers to something in a state of disrepair or ruin, which does not describe a person’s behavior.
• Option 4: "Petite" refers to someone who is small or dainty, which again is irrelevant to the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 1.

Additional Information

• Affable: This is an adjective used to describe someone who is friendly and easy to approach or talk to.
• Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun, such as "affable" describing Vighnesh’s behavior.
• Contextual Clues: The sentence indicates a situation where respectful and polite behavior is expected, making "affable" the most fitting choice.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Influence someone or something in a positive way.

Key Points

• The idiom "Make all the difference" means to have a significant positive impact or bring about an important change. (महत्वपूर्ण सकारात्मक प्रभाव डालना)
• Example: A good night's sleep can make all the difference in how you perform the next day.
• Positive influence: This idiom is used to highlight the importance of something that improves a situation or outcome. (सकारात्मक प्रभाव डालना)
• Example: A kind word or gesture can make all the difference in someone's day.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Influence someone or something in a negative way (नकारात्मक प्रभाव डालना): Refers to causing harm or a detrimental effect on someone or something.
• Example: His rude behavior influenced the team in a negative way.
• Option 3: Have a brief and concise summary (संक्षिप्त और स्पष्ट सारांश देना): This phrase does not align with the meaning of the idiom.
• Example: Can you provide a brief summary of the report?
• Option 4: Have a well-mannered approach (शिष्टतापूर्ण दृष्टिकोण रखना): Refers to behaving in a polite and respectful manner.
• Example: His well-mannered approach impressed the clients.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. "To remain focused on one goal".

Key Points

• The idiom "Make a beeline for" means to go directly towards something without hesitation or diversion. (तुरंत या सीधे किसी चीज़ की ओर बढ़ना)
• Example: As soon as the store opened, the customers made a beeline for the sale section.
• "To remain focused on one goal" refers to concentrating entirely on achieving a specific objective or target. (एक लक्ष्य पर ध्यान केंद्रित करना)
• Example: Despite the challenges, she remained focused on her goal of becoming a doctor.
• Hence, the idiom "Make a beeline for" appropriately aligns with the meaning "To remain focused on one goal".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To remain idle (अवकाश या निष्क्रिय रहना): To stay inactive and not engage in any activity.
• Example: Instead of remaining idle, he decided to volunteer at the local shelter.
• Option 2: To think divergent (विभिन्न सोच रखना): To think differently or creatively, exploring various perspectives.
• Example: The team was encouraged to think divergent to find innovative solutions to the problem.
• Option 3: To remain in a passive state (निष्क्रिय अवस्था में रहना): To not take any active role or initiative.
• Example: He remained in a passive state during the group discussion, contributing very little.

The correct answer is 'Option (4)' i.e. 'a small timepiece usually worn on the wrist'.

Key Points

• Watch: A word with multiple meanings, i.e., a homonym.
• Option 1: 'an act of watching' refers to observing something.
• Option 2: 'look at attentively' refers to focusing on something visually.
• Option 3: 'be careful about' refers to being cautious.
• Option 4: 'a small timepiece usually worn on the wrist' refers to a physical object used to tell time.
• In the sentence, 'Vishnu checked his watch to see if he was late to the school', the term 'watch' clearly refers to a small timepiece worn on the wrist.

Therefore, the correct answer is- 'Option 4'.

The correct answer is: Orthodox.

Key Points

• The word "Orthodox" means accepting and closely following the traditional beliefs and customs of a religion or established practices. (रूढ़िवादी)
• Example: He followed an orthodox lifestyle, adhering strictly to traditional customs and beliefs.
• It refers to those who conform to established doctrines, especially in religion. (परंपरागत)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Orthodox.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Heterodox (विषम मत): Holding opinions or beliefs that are not in accordance with established or orthodox doctrines.
• Example: His heterodox views on religion often sparked debates within his community.
• Iconoclastic (परंपरा विरोधी): Attacking or rejecting established beliefs, traditions, or institutions.
• Example: She held iconoclastic views, challenging societal norms and conventions.
• Dogmatic (मताग्राही): Inclined to lay down principles as undeniably true, without consideration of evidence or the opinions of others.
• Example: His dogmatic approach to teaching left little room for discussion or differing views.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Inarticullate'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Inarticulate'.
• The word 'Inarticulate' is an adjective which means 'unable to express feelings or ideas clearly or easily'. (अस्पष्ट)
• For Example -
• He was inarticulate with shock after hearing the news.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Inarticullate'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Imperturbable - unable to be upset or excited; calm (अडिग)
• Immaculate - perfectly clean, neat, or tidy (निर्मल)
• Impervious - not allowing fluid to pass through; unable to be affected by (अभेद्य)

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e 'extravagant'.

Key Points

• The adjective "extravagant" is used to describe something that is excessively costly, luxurious, or elaborate.
• In the given sentence, the word "extravagant" appropriately describes Amit's wedding, indicating that it was lavish and required a significant amount of money.
• Other options like "considerate", "desirable", and "alluring" do not fit the context of describing a costly and luxurious wedding.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 1.

Additional Information

• Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. Here, "extravagant" modifies the noun "wedding" and explains its luxurious nature.
• Considerate: This word refers to being thoughtful or kind, which does not describe the nature of the wedding.
• Desirable: While "desirable" means something that is worth having, it does not fit the context of describing the wedding's costliness or luxury.
• Alluring: This word means attractive or enticing, but again, it does not match the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is: Option 1 (Claustrophobia).

Key Points

• The word "Claustrophobia" refers to an irrational fear of confined spaces or enclosed areas. (संकीर्ण स्थानों का डर)
• Example: She avoided elevators due to her claustrophobia, preferring to take the stairs instead.
• The word "Fear of confined spaces" is a direct description of claustrophobia. The correct substitution is "Claustrophobia" as it precisely defines the fear mentioned in the sentence. (संकीर्ण स्थानों का डर)
• Example: His claustrophobia made it impossible for him to enter a crowded subway train.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 (Claustrophobia).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Agoraphobia (खुले स्थानों का डर): Fear of open or crowded spaces.
• Example: She experienced agoraphobia and avoided going to busy marketplaces.
• Acrophobia (ऊंचाई का डर): An extreme fear of heights.
• Example: His acrophobia prevented him from climbing the tall tower.
• Xenophobia (विदेशियों से डर या घृणा): Dislike or fear of people from other countries or cultures.
• Example: Xenophobia can lead to discrimination and social divisions.

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e 'a, the'.

Key Points

• The sentence begins with "She made", indicating that the action involves making a specific item, i.e., "a delicious cake". Here, the article "a" is used because "delicious cake" is singular and starts with a consonant sound.
• The second blank refers to "the eighteenth birthday", which is a specific and definite event in the context of the sentence. Hence, the article "the" is used.
• Articles "a" and "the" are used to refer to singular nouns, with "a" used for non-specific items and "the" for specific or particular items.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 4.

Additional Information

• No Article: This option is incorrect as articles are necessary for the given blanks to make the sentence grammatically correct.
• "a, an": This is incorrect because "an" is used before words starting with a vowel sound, whereas "eighteenth" starts with a consonant sound.
• "the, No article": This is incorrect because the first blank requires an article ("a") to refer to a singular noun "delicious cake", and the second blank needs "the" to specify a particular event.

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e 'kindred'.

Key Points

• The word "kindred" is an adjective that means having a close connection or similar nature, which fits the context of a bond between Simrin and Kannan that cannot be broken.
• Grave refers to seriousness, which does not suit the context of the bond described as unbreakable.
• Frail means weak or delicate, which contradicts the description of the strong bond.
• Grumpy means bad-tempered or irritable, and is not appropriate to describe a bond.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 1.

Additional Information

• Adjective: An adjective modifies or describes a noun or pronoun. In the given sentence, "kindred" describes the nature of the bond between Simrin and Kannan.
• Noun: A noun is a person, place, thing, or idea. In the sentence, "bond" is an example of a noun, which is modified by the adjective "kindred."
• Verb: A verb is a word expressing an action, occurrence, or state of being. No verb is directly modified in this sentence.

The correct answer is: Option 3 (Clemency).

Key Points

• The word "Clemency" refers to the act of showing mercy or leniency toward someone, often by reducing their punishment or granting a pardon. (दया)
• Example: The governor granted clemency to the prisoner, reducing his sentence from life imprisonment to 20 years.
• "Clemency" is used in legal and formal contexts when referring to the reduction of penalties or pardoning of crimes. (दया)
• Example: The President’s clemency allowed the criminal to be released from prison earlier than expected.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 (Clemency).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Amnesty (माफी): An official pardon for people who have been convicted of political offenses.
• Example: The government granted amnesty to the dissidents, allowing them to return to the country without facing any charges.
• Reprieve (स्थगन): A temporary relief or delay from punishment, especially from execution.
• Example: The death row inmate received a last-minute reprieve from the governor, delaying his execution for 30 days.
• Absolution (मुक्ति): Formal release from guilt, obligation, or punishment.
• Example: The priest gave him absolution for his sins during confession.

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 'No article, a'.

Key Points

• The sentence requires the first blank to be filled with no article because we are referring to a general field of study (commerce).
• The second blank requires the article "a" because we are referring to a general, unspecified local degree college.
• Articles are used based on whether we are talking about specific items (definite article "the") or non-specific items (indefinite articles "a" or "an").
• In this context, there is no need for the definite article "the" for "commerce", and the indefinite article "a" is appropriate for "local degree college".

Therefore, the correct answer is- Option 2.

Additional Information

• Definite Article: The article "the" is used to refer to specific or known nouns. For instance, "the local degree college" would imply that the college is already known.
• Indefinite Articles: The articles "a" and "an" are used to refer to non-specific nouns. In the sentence, "a local degree college" implies any local degree college, not a specific one.
• No Article: In cases where the noun refers to a general category or concept, no article is required. For example, "commerce" in the sentence is a general field of study, so no article is used.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'heruistics'.

• The correct spelling would be 'heuristics'.
• The word 'heuristics' is a noun which refers to enabling someone to discover or learn something for themselves. It is commonly used in psychology and decision-making contexts. (अन्वेषणात्मक)
• For Example -
• Heuristic methods help solve complex problems quickly by using practical approaches.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'heruistics'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Realm - a kingdom or a field or domain of activity or interest (क्षेत्र)
• Psychology - the scientific study of the human mind and its functions, especially those affecting behavior in a given context (मनोविज्ञान)
• Biases - a prejudice in favor of or against one thing, person, or group compared with another (पक्षपात)

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• Researchers from Pennsylvania State University predicted that with a 6% increase in solar radiation, in 150 million years, only underwater life and some resilient microbes will remain.
• This means that Earth will become uninhabitable for humans in about 150 million years with that level of solar radiation increase.
• Other options are not supported by the passage.
• The timeframes of 1.5 billion years and 600–700 million years refer to alternative models, not the prediction for a 6% increase in solar radiation.
• There is no mention of the sun cooling down over time; the passage states it will become a "red giant."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: Earth will become uninhabitable in 150 million years.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, as this refers to a different prediction by Wolf and Toon.
• Option 2: Incorrect, as this refers to a more gradual increase model, not the 6% scenario.
• Option 3: Incorrect, as the sun is predicted to become hotter, not cooler.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• Discovery of new life forms is NOT predicted in the passage.
• The passage discusses the survival of underwater life, Earth's atmosphere being stripped away, and human extinction within 150 million years, but it does not mention the discovery of new life forms.
• Other options are supported by the passage.
• Option 1: Survival of underwater life is mentioned in the context of a 6% increase in solar radiation.
• Option 3: The sun stripping away Earth's atmosphere is described in the red giant phase.
• Option 4: Human extinction within 150 million years is predicted by the Pennsylvania State University model.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: Discovery of new life forms.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, as the survival of underwater life is mentioned.
• Option 3: Incorrect, as Earth's atmosphere being stripped away is predicted.
• Option 4: Incorrect, as human extinction within 150 million years is discussed.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• Wolf and Toon argue that the ultimate end will come in about four billion years, when the sun goes out.
• The passage states: "The ultimate end will come much later, in about four billion years, when the sun goes out."
• Other options do not match Wolf and Toon's prediction.
• Option 1 refers to a different model's timeframe, not Wolf and Toon's.
• Option 2: 5 billion years is not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 4: 3 billion years is also not mentioned as the ultimate timeframe.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: 4 billion years.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, this is the Kopparapu model's prediction for gradual temperature rise.
• Option 2: Incorrect, 5 billion years is not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 4: Incorrect, 3 billion years is not mentioned.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• The passage states that with a 6% increase in solar radiation, in 150 million years, only underwater life and some resilient microbes will remain.
• This implies that eventually, only microbial (and possibly some underwater) life will survive, while complex life forms like humans will become extinct.
• Other options are not supported by the passage.
• Option 1: There is no suggestion that no life will survive the next century.
• Option 2: The passage emphasizes the finite nature of life, not indefinite continuation.
• Option 4: Atmospheric changes are mentioned, but the passage specifically says some microbial life could persist.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: Only microbial life will survive eventually.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, as life is predicted to last much longer than a century.
• Option 2: Incorrect, as the passage discusses the eventual extinction of most life forms.
• Option 4: Incorrect, because some forms of life (microbes) may still survive despite atmospheric changes.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Weak.

Key Points

• The word "resilient" means someone or something that is able to withstand or recover quickly from difficult conditions. (लचीला)
• Example: The resilient child managed to cope with her parents' divorce quite well.
• "Weak" refers to someone or something that lacks strength or is frail and easily damaged or defeated. (कमज़ोर)
• Example: The old man was too weak to lift the heavy box.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'resilient' is 'weak'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Weak.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Uncertain (अनिश्चित): Not able to be relied on; not known or definite.
• Example: The weather forecast was uncertain, so they decided to postpone the picnic.
• Brief (संक्षिप्त): Lasting only for a short duration of time; concise.
• Example: The teacher gave a brief overview of the topic before starting the detailed lesson.
• Endless (अंतहीन): Having or seeming to have no end; infinite.
• Example: The possibilities for adventure seem endless when you're young and full of energy.

सही उत्तर है - कुशलतापूर्वक​

Key Pointsपूर्ण वाक्य होगा- 

• वह कुशलतापूर्वक रहता है

Important Pointsक्रिया-विशेषण-

• वे शब्द होते हैं जो क्रिया की विशेषता, स्थिति, परिमाण, काल, स्थान, आदि को व्यक्त करते हैं।
• वे क्रिया की गुणवत्ता, स्थिति, समय, स्थान, कारण, तरीका, परिमाण इत्यादि को बताने के लिए प्रयोग होते हैं।

Additional Informationपरिमाणवाचक क्रिया - विशेषण-

• ये विशेषण क्रिया के परिमाण को बताते हैं।
• उदाहरण-
• 'मैंने बहुत काम किया।'
• यहां 'बहुत' एक परिमाणवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है।

कालवाचक क्रिया - विशेषण-

• ये विशेषण क्रिया के समय या काल को बताते हैं।
• उदाहरण-
• 'मैंने कल पढ़ाई की।'
• यहां 'कल' एक कालवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है।

स्थानवाचक क्रिया - विशेषण-

• ये विशेषण क्रिया के स्थान को बताते हैं।
• उदाहरण-
• 'मैंने ऊपर देखा।'
• यहां 'ऊपर' एक स्थानवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है।

रीतिवाचक क्रिया - विशेषण-

• ये विशेषण क्रिया की रीति, तरीका या मार्ग को बताते हैं।
• उदाहरण-
• 'वह तेज़ी से दौड़ रहा है।'
• यहां 'तेज़ी से' एक रीतिवाचक क्रिया-विशेषण है।