DSSSB TGT (Natural Science) Official Paper (Held On: 06 Sept, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Third number=2×(First number+Second number)

7 - 5 - 24

⇒ 2×(7+5)=2×12=24

9 - 4 - 26

⇒ 2×(9+4)=2×13=26

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) 44 - 80 - 6

⇒ 2×(44+80)=248 ≠ 6 

Option 2) 5 - 4 - 18

⇒ 2×(5+4)=18

Option 3) 19 - 2 - 44

⇒ 2×(19+2)=42≠ 44

Option 4) 10 - 3 - 36 

⇒ 2×(10+3)=26 ≠ 36

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2"

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 35 D 7 B 5 A 2 C 3 = ?

Now, replacing letters with their sign

So,

35 ÷ 7 - 5 + 2 × 3

⇒ 5 - 5 + 6

⇒ 0 + 6 = 6

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘NATO’ is coded as ‘1975’

For,   ‘INTO’ is coded as ‘7154’

Common letters in NATO and INTO are: N, T, O

Common digits in 1975 and 7154 are: 7, 5, 1

In NATO, the unique letter is A, and the unique digit is 9

In INTO, the unique letter is I, and the unique digit is 4

So, The code for I is 4

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

thus, "15" will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct option is "Option 1".

Given: 

Mohan started walking from Point A, towards south. He walked for 4 m and turned left.

He walked for 3 m and turned left again.

He walked for 2 m and turned left again.

He walked for 5 m. Once again, he turned left and walked for 4 m.

Again, he turned left and walked for 7 m.

Lastly, he turned left again and walked for 6 m before stopping at point B.

So, He should walk 5 m towards west in order to reach Point A again.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Seven boxes, Z, X, C, V, B, N and M, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only B is kept above Z.

2) Only two boxes are kept between Z and N.

3. X is kept immediately above M.

4) Only V is kept below C.

So, there are 'Two' boxes are kept between M and B.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Family Chart:

Decoding the Symbols:

Given: Y+S-P% K #G+N

It means:

Y is the Mother of S.

S is the Brother of P.

P is the Father of K.

K is the Daughterof G.

G is the Mother of N.

So, G is the Son's wife of Y.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: 

First number × 2 = second number

Then +10

Then +10 again

92-184-194-204

92 × 2 = 184

184 + 10 = 194

194 + 10 = 204

86-172-182-192 

86 × 2 = 172

172 + 10 = 182

182 + 10 = 192

Now, checking the options:

Option 1) 69-138-148-168

69 × 2 = 138 

138 + 10 = 148 

148 + 10 = 158 ≠ 168

Option 2) 88-176-186-196

88 × 2 = 176 

176 + 10 = 186 

186 + 10 = 196

Option 3) 73-146-156-168

73 × 2 = 146 

146 + 10 = 156 

156 + 10 = 166 ≠ 168

Option 4) 78-156-176-186

78 × 2 = 156 

156 + 10 = 166 ≠ 176

Hence, the correct option is "Option 2"

Given:

Statement:

Despite having abundant natural resources, Region B struggles with high unemployment rates and poverty.

Reason:

I. Region B lacks adequate infrastructure and transportation networks to facilitate efficient exploitation of its natural resources → Possible (Region B lacks adequate infrastructure and transportation networks to facilitate efficient exploitation of its natural resources.)

II. The economic policies in Region B prioritise resource extraction over local employment and economic diversification  → Possible  (The economic policies in Region B prioritise resource extraction over local employment and economic diversification.)

So, Both I and II are possible reasons.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is:

Conclusions:

I: Some pianos are violins → True (As some pianos are guitars and all guitars are violins. As some part of pianos is common with guitars which whole comes in violins, therefore it is true.)

II: No guitars are drums → True (As all guitars are violins and no violins are drums. As whole guitars comes in violins which cannot be drums, therefore it is true.)

So, Both conclusions (1) and (II) follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Given: (Left) 452 917 726 549 276 (Right)

Highest number = 917

Third digit of 917 = 7

Arrange numbers in ascending order: 276, 452, 549, 726, 917

Second lowest number = 452

Second digit of 452 = 5

So, Sum = 7×5=35

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'GCH' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) ΝΤΡ

Option 2) RXT

Option 3) LSW

Option 4) TZV

Here, 'LSW' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) JK-NO

Option 2) GH-LM

Option 3) PQ-TU

Option 4) AB-EF

Here, 'GH-LM' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. F sits third to the right of C.

2. E sits second to the left of C.

3. B sits third to the right of D.

4. A sits to the immediate left of B.

Here, Two people sit between A and E when counted from the left of A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Given: (Left) 493 672 815 264 357 (Right)

264, 357, 493, 672, 815

Highest number = 815

Second lowest number = 357

Second digit of 815 = 1

Third digit of 357 = 7

So, Multiplying = 1×7=7

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Position from left = Total − position from right + 1

Given: 

Total students = 97

All are facing north

Tall is 15th from the right end

Short is 36th to the left of Tall

Now, 97−15+1=83

So, Tall is 83rd from the left.

Short is 36 places to the left of Tall: 83− 36= 47

Thus, Short is 47th from the left end.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The position and positional values or English Alphabets are:

Logic: 

First letters increase by +2 each time

Second letters increase by +2, then +7

Now,

NK-PM-RT

N → P → R (+2, +2)

K → M → T

K → M = +2

M → T = +7

RO-TQ-VX

R → T → V (+2, +2)

O → Q → X

O → Q = +2

Q → X = +7

Let's check each Option One by One.

Option 1) MJ-OK-QR 

 M → O → Q (+2, +2) 

J → K = +1 

K → R = +7

Option 2) NJ-PK-QR

N → P → Q (+2, +1)

J → K = +1 

K → R = +7

Option 3) MJ-OL-QS 

M → O → Q (+2, +2) 

J → L → S

J → L = +2

L → S = +7

Option 4) NI-PL-QR

N → P → Q

N → P = +2

P → Q = +1 (should be +2)

So, Only MJ-OL-QS  follows the pattern of given letter cluster.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

BODMAS Table: 

Given equation: 12 ÷ 4 + 20 × 5 − 7 = ? 

Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:

⇒ 12×4−20÷5+7 = ?

⇒ 48−20÷5+7 = ?

⇒ 48−4+7 =51

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

So, 'MIU' will replace the question mark in the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is Introduction of collateralised debt obligations (CDOs).

Key Points

• A collateralised debt obligation (CDO) is a financial innovation used to pool various debt instruments, such as mortgage loans, into a single security that can be traded in financial markets.
• CDOs were developed in the 1980s and gained significant popularity in the 1990s and 2000s, especially in the mortgage-backed securities market.
• They played a critical role in the securitisation of mortgage loans, allowing banks to package and sell these loans to investors, thereby transferring credit risk.
• CDOs are structured products divided into tranches, each with varying levels of risk and return, which cater to different types of investors.
• While CDOs were designed to enhance liquidity and diversify risk, they were heavily criticized for their role in the 2008 financial crisis, as they often contained subprime mortgage loans that defaulted in large numbers.

Additional Information

• Implementation of high-frequency trading algorithms
• High-frequency trading (HFT) refers to the use of advanced algorithms and high-speed computer systems to execute a large number of trades in fractions of a second.
• HFT has revolutionized stock markets by increasing liquidity and narrowing bid-ask spreads but is not directly related to the securitisation of mortgage loans.
• It is primarily used in equities, derivatives, and forex markets rather than in mortgage-backed securities.
• Development of credit default swaps (CDS)
• A credit default swap is a financial derivative that allows investors to swap or offset their credit risk with that of another investor.
• While CDSs are often linked to mortgage-backed securities and CDOs, they are separate instruments and primarily serve as insurance against default rather than a means of securitisation.
• CDSs gained prominence during the financial crisis but were not the primary innovation associated with mortgage securitisation.
• Creation of exchange-traded funds (ETFs)
• ETFs are investment funds traded on stock exchanges, similar to stocks, and they hold assets such as stocks, commodities, or bonds.
• They are designed for ease of trading and portfolio diversification but are unrelated to the securitisation of mortgage loans.
• ETFs are primarily investment vehicles rather than instruments for managing credit risk or securitising debt.

The correct answer is Eight.

Key Points

• India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was launched in 2008 by the Government of India to address climate change and promote sustainable development.
• The NAPCC comprises eight core missions, each focusing on specific aspects of climate adaptation and mitigation.
• The eight missions are: National Solar Mission, National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, National Mission on Sustainable Habitat, National Water Mission, National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem, National Mission for a Green India, National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture, and National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change.
• The missions aim to foster inclusive growth while addressing the challenges posed by climate change.
• The NAPCC encourages state governments to adopt their own State Action Plans on Climate Change (SAPCC) aligned with the national strategy.

Additional Information

• Important details about NAPCC:
• The NAPCC reflects India’s commitment to sustainable development while mitigating the adverse effects of climate change.
• It promotes actions aligned with India's development objectives while ensuring ecological sustainability.
• Each mission under the NAPCC has specific goals, strategies, and implementation mechanisms overseen by relevant ministries.
• Key objectives include reducing greenhouse gas emissions, enhancing energy efficiency, and improving climate resilience.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• Girish Chandra Murmu assumed office as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India on 8th August 2020.
• He succeeded Rajiv Mehrishi, who completed his term as the CAG.
• Prior to his appointment as CAG, Girish Chandra Murmu served as the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir after its reorganization in 2019.
• The CAG of India is an independent constitutional authority under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, responsible for auditing all receipts, expenditures, and accounts of the central and state governments.
• Girish Chandra Murmu is a retired Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the 1985 Gujarat cadre, known for his extensive administrative experience.

Additional Information

• Role of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India
• The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the central and state governments, as well as public sector undertakings.
• It ensures transparency and accountability in the use of public resources by presenting audit reports to the President and Governors.
• The CAG also audits funds provided to local bodies and autonomous institutions.
• The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) and the Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) of Parliament.

The correct answer is This forest is spread over the region receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm.

Key Points

• Thorn forests are typically found in areas receiving less than 70 cm of annual rainfall, not between 200 cm and 70 cm.
• These forests are characterized by sparse vegetation and are adapted to arid and semi-arid climates.
• They are dominated by thorny trees and shrubs, which are drought-resistant and can survive harsh conditions with limited water.
• The vegetation in thorn forests is specially adapted to conserve water, with features such as small, thick, and waxy leaves and deep root systems.
• These forests are primarily found in the north-western and central parts of India, including regions of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

Additional Information

• Key Classifications & Examples
• Deciduous (Hardwood/Broadleaf): Shed leaves in autumn.
• Oak: Sturdy, durable wood, acorns, great shade.
• Maple: Colorful fall foliage, used for syrup.
• Birch: Distinctive bark, cold-tolerant.
• Elm: Excellent shade, urban-tolerant.
• Evergreen (Conifers/Softwood): Keep needles/leaves year-round.
• Pine: Needles, cones, good for construction.
• Cedar: Rot-resistant wood, aromatic.
• Spruce/Fir: Common in forests, often used as Christmas trees.
• Unique & Specialised Types:
• Fruit Trees: Mango (tropical fruit), Cherry (stone fruit).
• Medicinal/Sacred: Neem (antibacterial), Peepal (sacred, high oxygen).
• Coastal/Tropical: Coconut (fruit, water), Mangroves (shoreline stabilization).

The correct answer is Option 3: 12.

Key Points

• The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the upper house of the Parliament of India.
• Under Article 80 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.
• The nominated members are chosen for their expertise in fields such as literature, science, art, and social services.
• These nominations aim to enrich legislative discussions with specialized knowledge and experience from diverse domains.
• The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum of 250 members, out of which 12 are nominated, and the remaining are elected by state and union territory legislatures.

Additional Information

• Rajya Sabha (Upper House)
• Representation: States and Union Territories.
• Election: Indirect election by elected members of State Assemblies (Proportional Representation).
• Age: Minimum 30 years.
• Term: Permanent body, 1/3 members retire every 2 years (6-year terms for members).
• Presiding Officer: Vice-President of India (ex-officio Chairman).
• Key Powers: Ensures state rights, equal power in ordinary bills, can initiate no confidence motion.

The correct answer is Potash (K).

Key Points

• India does not have any significant reserves of potash (K), which is a critical raw material for the fertiliser industry.
• The country is entirely dependent on imports of potash to meet its agricultural and industrial needs.
• Potash is primarily used in the production of fertilisers such as Muriate of Potash (MOP), which is vital for improving crop yield and quality.
• Major exporters of potash to India include countries like Canada, Russia, Belarus, and Israel, which have abundant reserves.
• The Indian government has been working on ensuring adequate supply by entering into long-term agreements with global producers to address the increasing demand for this essential nutrient.

Additional Information

• Sulphur (S):
• Sulphur is an essential nutrient for plant growth and is used in the production of sulphur-containing fertilisers such as ammonium sulphate and single superphosphate.
• India has limited reserves of elemental sulphur but produces it as a by-product in oil refineries, making it less dependent on imports.
• Nitrogen (N):
• Nitrogen is a key component of fertilisers like urea and ammonium nitrate.
• India has a well-established nitrogen-based fertiliser industry and produces significant quantities domestically. However, it also imports raw materials like ammonia and urea to meet its growing demand.
• Phosphate (P):
• Phosphate is an essential nutrient for plant growth and is used in the production of fertilisers such as diammonium phosphate (DAP) and single superphosphate (SSP).
• While India has some reserves of rock phosphate, they are insufficient to meet domestic demand, leading to partial dependency on imports from countries like Jordan, Morocco, and Egypt.
• Fertiliser Industry in India:
• India's fertiliser industry is one of the largest in the world, catering to the agricultural sector, which forms the backbone of the economy.
• The industry is divided into three major nutrients – nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K), often referred to as the NPK ratio in fertilisers.
• While India has substantial production capacities for nitrogenous and phosphatic fertilisers, potassic fertilisers are entirely import-dependent.

The correct answer is gymnosperms.

Key Points

• Gymnosperms are a group of seed-producing plants that have naked seeds, meaning their seeds are not enclosed within a fruit or ovary.
• The seeds are typically borne on the surface of scales or leaves, often forming structures like cones.
• Gymnosperms include plants like pine, fir, spruce, cycads, ginkgo, and gnetophytes.
• They are mainly characterized by their adaptation to survive in extreme environmental conditions and are predominantly found in cold regions.
• Gymnosperms are vascular plants, possessing well-developed vascular tissues (xylem and phloem) for the conduction of water and nutrients.

Additional Information

• Pteridophytes
• Pteridophytes are vascular plants that reproduce through spores instead of seeds.
• They include ferns, horsetails, and club mosses and are considered the first true vascular plants.
• They are characterized by the presence of xylem and phloem, but they do not produce flowers or seeds.
• Pteridophytes thrive in moist, shaded environments and are an important part of the ecosystem as they prevent soil erosion.
• Bryophytes
• Bryophytes are non-vascular plants, meaning they lack xylem and phloem for water and nutrient conduction.
• This group includes mosses, liverworts, and hornworts, which are commonly found in damp, shady areas.
• Bryophytes reproduce through spores and have a dominant gametophyte stage in their life cycle.
• They play a significant role in preventing soil erosion and maintaining soil fertility.
• Angiosperms
• Angiosperms, also known as flowering plants, are the most diverse and widespread group of plants on Earth.
• They are characterized by seeds that are enclosed within a fruit or ovary.
• Angiosperms include a wide variety of plants, such as grasses, shrubs, and trees.
• They play a crucial role in ecosystems by providing food, oxygen, and habitats for various organisms.

The correct answer is Lord Curzon.

Key Points

• In 1898, Lord Curzon, the then Viceroy of India, passed an Act to suppress freedom of speech and expression against British rule.
• This Act made it a criminal offence to incite or provoke people against the British rulers or government policies.
• The primary aim was to curb the growing nationalist movement and to suppress revolutionary activities against the colonial administration.
• Lord Curzon introduced several reforms and policies during his tenure (1899–1905), some of which were highly controversial and opposed by Indian nationalists.
• His tenure is particularly remembered for the partition of Bengal in 1905, which led to widespread protests and the Swadeshi Movement.

Additional Information

• Lord Willingdon:
• Lord Willingdon served as the Viceroy of India from 1931 to 1936.
• He is known for his repressive measures against the Indian independence movement, including suppressing the Civil Disobedience Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi.
• During his tenure, the Government of India Act 1935 was passed, which introduced provincial autonomy and expanded the electorate.
• Lord Dalhousie:
• Lord Dalhousie was the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856.
• He is known for implementing the Doctrine of Lapse, which allowed the British to annex princely states that did not have a male heir.
• Dalhousie also introduced several modern reforms, including the establishment of railways, telegraphs, and the postal system in India.
• He played a crucial role in transforming India's infrastructure, though his policies caused resentment among Indian rulers and contributed to the Revolt of 1857.
• Lord Lytton:
• Lord Lytton served as the Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880.
• He is infamous for organizing the Delhi Durbar of 1877 to proclaim Queen Victoria as the Empress of India.
• His administration passed the Vernacular Press Act (1878), aimed at curbing the freedom of the Indian press.
• Lord Lytton’s tenure was marked by the Great Famine of 1876–1878, which led to widespread suffering and criticism of his policies.

The correct answer is 30 u.

Key Points

• The molecular formula of glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆, which means it contains 6 carbon (C), 12 hydrogen (H), and 6 oxygen (O) atoms.
• The atomic masses of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are approximately 12 u, 1 u, and 16 u, respectively.
• The molecular mass of glucose is calculated as: (6 × 12) + (12 × 1) + (6 × 16) = 72 + 12 + 96 = 180 u.
• Glucose is a simple sugar that serves as a primary energy source for cells in living organisms.
• The molecular mass of 180 u is essential in understanding glucose's role in cellular respiration and energy production.

Additional Information

• Importance of Molecular Mass
• Molecular mass is the sum of the atomic masses of all atoms in a molecule.
• It helps in determining the stoichiometry of chemical reactions and understanding the physical and chemical properties of substances.
• For biological molecules like glucose, molecular mass is crucial in calculating molar concentrations, energy yields, and metabolic rates.

The correct answer is Environmental Science.

Key Points

• Dr. Purabi Saikia has been recognized for her outstanding contributions to the field of Environmental Science, specifically in biodiversity conservation and ecosystem studies.
• The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is one of the most prestigious scientific honors in India, awarded annually by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
• Dr. Saikia's research primarily focuses on sustainable development and the preservation of natural ecosystems, which are crucial in combating climate change and environmental degradation.
• Her work has significantly contributed to the understanding of forest resource utilization, plant biodiversity, and their role in maintaining ecological balance.
• The award highlights her efforts in promoting scientific solutions to pressing environmental challenges, including conservation of endangered species and habitat restoration.

Additional Information

• Engineering Sciences
• Engineering Sciences primarily deal with the design, analysis, and innovation of systems, structures, and devices to solve real-world problems.
• Areas of focus include civil, mechanical, electrical, and computer engineering, among others.
• Previous Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award recipients in this field have worked on advancements in AI, robotics, renewable energy, and material science.
• Biological Sciences
• This field focuses on the study of living organisms, their structure, function, growth, and evolution.
• Key research areas include genetics, molecular biology, biotechnology, and microbiology.
• Notable Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awardees in this domain have contributed to breakthroughs in vaccine development, genomics, and disease control.
• Chemistry
• Chemistry is the branch of science concerned with the properties, composition, and structure of substances and their reactions.
• Key areas of research include organic, inorganic, physical, and analytical chemistry.
• Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awardees in this field have made significant advancements in green chemistry, drug discovery, and material synthesis.

The correct answer is 2003.

Key Points

• The Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003 was enacted to replace the unified National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes with two separate Commissions.
• The amendment led to the formation of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST).
• The Act became effective on 19 February 2004, providing dedicated focus and resources to address the unique challenges faced by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) are constitutional bodies established under Article 338 and Article 338A, respectively.
• The NCSC and NCST are tasked with monitoring and safeguarding the rights and welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, including investigating complaints related to discrimination and ensuring implementation of constitutional safeguards.

Additional Information

• National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
• Constitutional Basis: Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
• Role: Protects the social, educational, economic, and cultural interests of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Anglo-Indian communities.
• Functions: Investigates SC rights, monitors safeguards, and advises governments on development.
• National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)
• Constitutional Basis: Article 338-A of the Indian Constitution, established by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003.
• Role: Works for the socio-economic development and protection of Scheduled Tribes (STs).
• Functions: Inquires into complaints, evaluates development, and reports to the President on ST safeguards.

The correct answer is Konkani.

Key Points

• The Goa, Daman and Diu Official Language Act, 1987, declares Konkani as the sole official language of the Indian state of Goa.
• Konkani is written in the Devanagari script and is one of the 22 scheduled languages recognized by the Indian Constitution under the Eighth Schedule.
• The language has a rich literary tradition and is spoken widely by the Goan population, making it a unifying cultural element in the state.
• The Act was passed to preserve the cultural and linguistic heritage of Goa and to affirm Konkani's status as the primary language of communication in administrative and governmental matters.
• While Konkani is the official language, the Act also provides for the use of Marathi for official purposes in certain circumstances, reflecting the linguistic diversity of the state.

Additional Information

• English
• English is widely used for administrative and educational purposes in India but is not the official language of Goa.
• It serves as a subsidiary official language of the Indian Union alongside Hindi.
• English is often used in Goa for business, tourism, and communication with the non-Konkani-speaking population.
• Hindi
• Hindi, written in the Devanagari script, is the official language of the Government of India.
• It is spoken by a significant portion of the Indian population and serves as a link language in many parts of the country, including Goa.
• However, it is not recognized as the official language of Goa under the Goa, Daman and Diu Official Language Act, 1987.
• Marathi
• Marathi is spoken by a considerable number of people in Goa, especially in the northern parts of the state.
• Although Konkani is the sole official language, the Act allows for the use of Marathi in specific circumstances, making it an important regional language.
• Marathi has its own rich literary tradition and shares cultural ties with Konkani-speaking communities.

The correct answer is Jahangir.

Key Points

• Mehrunnisa, later known as Nur Jahan, was married to Emperor Jahangir in 1611.
• Nur Jahan became one of the most influential women in Mughal history, known for her political acumen and administrative capabilities.
• She was Jahangir’s 20th wife and wielded significant power during his reign, often issuing orders and coins in her name.
• Nur Jahan was instrumental in advancing the arts, architecture, and culture during Jahangir's reign.
• Her marriage to Jahangir marked the beginning of a powerful partnership, where she played a pivotal role in shaping the Mughal Empire’s policies.

Additional Information

• Babur:
• Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India, ruling from 1526 to 1530.
• He defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat (1526), marking the beginning of Mughal rule in India.
• Babur was known for his military strategies, poetry, and contributions to architecture.
• Mehrunnisa’s timeline does not overlap with Babur’s era as he passed away long before her birth.
• Bahadur Shah Zafar:
• Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal emperor, reigning during the 19th century (1837–1857).
• He played a symbolic role in the Indian Rebellion of 1857 against British colonial rule.
• His reign marked the decline of the Mughal Empire, and he was exiled to Burma after the rebellion.
• Mehrunnisa lived in the early 17th century, making Bahadur Shah Zafar’s timeline incompatible with her story.
• Akbar:
• Akbar, Jahangir’s father, was one of the greatest Mughal emperors, ruling from 1556 to 1605.
• He was known for his religious tolerance, administrative reforms, and patronage of art and architecture.
• Although Mehrunnisa lived during the Mughal era, she was married to Jahangir after Akbar’s death.
• Akbar’s reign laid the foundation for the cultural and political advancements seen during Jahangir’s rule.

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya.

Key Points

• Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador sent by Seleucus I Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan Empire.
• He authored the famous book Indica, which provides a detailed account of Indian society, administration, and culture during Chandragupta Maurya's reign.
• Megasthenes described the Mauryan Empire as well-organized and highlighted its efficient administrative structure and strong military.
• His observations included descriptions of Pataliputra, the capital city of the Mauryan Empire, which was noted for its grandeur and systematic urban planning.
• Megasthenes’ accounts remain an important source of information about ancient India, despite being criticized for certain inaccuracies.

Additional Information

• Bindusara:
• Bindusara was the second Mauryan emperor and the son of Chandragupta Maurya.
• He is known for consolidating the empire and extending its boundaries southward.
• Bindusara maintained diplomatic relations with Hellenistic kingdoms but did not receive Megasthenes as an ambassador.
• Brihadratha:
• Brihadratha was the last ruler of the Mauryan dynasty.
• His reign marked the decline of the Mauryan Empire, which ended with his assassination by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Shunga.
• There is no historical evidence of diplomatic ties with foreign ambassadors during Brihadratha’s rule.
• Ashoka:
• Ashoka, the third Mauryan emperor, is renowned for his conversion to Buddhism and efforts to spread its principles globally.
• Though Ashoka maintained extensive diplomatic relations, Megasthenes visited India during Chandragupta Maurya’s reign, not Ashoka’s.
• Ashoka’s inscriptions (edicts) are vital for understanding his policies and the Mauryan administration during his reign.

The correct answer is Class 12.

Key Points

• The Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2023 revealed that a higher percentage of girls expressed the desire to pursue education beyond Class 12 compared to boys.
• This trend highlights the growing aspirations among girls to continue formal education at the college or university level.
• ASER 2023 is a household survey conducted across rural India, focusing on children’s schooling status and basic learning levels.
• The report emphasized the importance of promoting access to higher education for girls, as it plays a crucial role in enhancing gender equality and empowering women.
• The findings suggest that targeted interventions, such as scholarships and mentorship programs, could help bridge the gender gap in higher education aspirations.

Additional Information

• Graduation
• Graduation refers to completing a bachelor’s degree program at a university or college.
• It signifies the formal education required for specialized fields and higher-level employment opportunities.
• While aspirations for graduation are significant, the ASER 2023 survey specifically highlighted the desire to pursue education beyond Class 12 rather than directly focusing on graduation.
• Post-graduation
• Post-graduation refers to completing a master’s degree or other advanced programs following graduation.
• Such programs are pursued by individuals aiming for academic specialization or higher-level professional skills.
• ASER 2023 did not focus on post-graduation aspirations; instead, it measured the immediate transition from secondary to higher education.
• Class 10
• Class 10 marks the completion of secondary education in India and is a critical milestone for students.
• It is often followed by decisions regarding the choice of streams (science, commerce, humanities) for higher secondary education.
• ASER 2023 focused on aspirations beyond Class 12, making Class 10 unrelated to the scope of this question.
• Gender and Education
• The ASER 2023 findings underline the importance of addressing gender disparities in education by creating equitable opportunities for girls and boys.
• Encouraging girls to pursue education beyond Class 12 is essential for fostering social and economic empowerment.
• Government schemes like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and scholarship programs for girls aim to support higher education aspirations.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• Odia was officially recognized as a classical language by the Government of India in 2014.
• It became the 6th Indian language to receive the classical language status after Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, and Malayalam.
• The recognition was granted due to Odia's rich literary heritage, historical significance, and originality compared to other languages.
• Odia has a documented history spanning over 1,500 years, with ancient texts like the "Charyapada" and works by poets like Sarala Das and Upendra Bhanja.
• Languages classified as classical in India receive special provisions for promotion, research, and preservation, including grants and dedicated centers for study.

Additional Information

• Criteria for Classical Language Status:
• High antiquity of early texts/recorded history over 1,000 years.
• A rich and valuable body of ancient literature.
• Originality compared to other languages from the same family.
• Recognition of cultural heritage and unique traditions reflected in the language.

The correct answer is A situation where individuals cannot escape poverty due to a lack of resources and opportunities.

Key Points

• The poverty trap is a self-reinforcing mechanism where poverty perpetuates itself, making it difficult for individuals or societies to break out of it.
• It occurs due to a lack of access to basic resources, such as education, healthcare, and capital, which are essential for improving one's economic situation.
• Individuals in poverty often cannot afford to invest in these resources, leading to limited opportunities for upward mobility.
• Common factors contributing to the poverty trap include unemployment, inadequate social infrastructure, and high levels of inequality in society.
• Breaking the poverty trap often requires substantial external intervention, such as government policies focused on education, skill development, and social welfare programs.

Additional Information

• Poverty concepts center on lacking resources for basic needs (food, shelter, health, education) and well-being, categorized mainly as-
• Absolute Poverty (lack of essentials for survival) and Relative Poverty (having less income/resources than the societal average, creating social disadvantage).
• Modern views, like Amartya Sen's, emphasize multidimensionality, including lack of capability, voice, security, and opportunity, not just income. It's seen as a deprivation in dignity, health, education, security, and empowerment, going beyond mere money.

The correct answer is 8th Schedule.

Key Points

• The 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages recognized by the Indian government.
• It initially included 14 languages when the Constitution was enacted in 1950, but now has 22 languages after amendments.
• The languages listed in the 8th Schedule include Hindi, Bengali, Gujarati, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, and others, representing the linguistic diversity of India.
• The 8th Schedule provides a framework for the development and promotion of these languages and allows their use for official purposes such as parliamentary proceedings, judiciary, and communication between the central and state governments.
• Amendments to the 8th Schedule are made through legislative action by Parliament to accommodate new languages based on demand and cultural importance.

Additional Information

• 7th Schedule
• The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between the Union and State governments.
• It contains three lists: Union List (subjects under the exclusive jurisdiction of the central government), State List (subjects under the jurisdiction of state governments), and Concurrent List (subjects where both Union and State governments can make laws).
• Examples of subjects under the Union List include defense, foreign affairs, and atomic energy; State List includes police and public health; Concurrent List includes education and forests.
• 10th Schedule
• The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the anti-defection law.
• It was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 to address political defections by legislators.
• The law disqualifies a member of Parliament or State Legislature if they voluntarily give up membership of their party or vote against party directives without prior permission.
• The Speaker or Chairman of the House decides on disqualification under this schedule.
• 9th Schedule
• The 9th Schedule was added to the Indian Constitution by the 1st Amendment Act of 1951.
• It contains laws that are protected from judicial review, primarily to uphold land reforms and abolish the zamindari system.
• The purpose of the 9th Schedule is to shield certain laws from challenges in courts regarding their constitutionality, especially those related to socio-economic reforms.

The correct answer is Chandigarh University.

Key Points

• Chandigarh University emerged as the winner of the Khelo India University Games 2024, showcasing excellent performances across various sporting disciplines.
• The university is known for its robust sports infrastructure and commitment to fostering athletic talent among students.
• Chandigarh University secured the highest number of gold medals in multiple events, including athletics, wrestling, and swimming.
• The Khelo India University Games 2024 featured participation from universities across India, making it one of the largest sporting events for university students.
• Chandigarh University's victory highlights the importance of balancing academics and sports to develop well-rounded individuals.

Additional Information

• Delhi University:
• Delhi University is one of the premier educational institutions in India, recognized for its academic excellence across various disciplines.
• While the university actively participates in the Khelo India University Games, it did not secure the top position in 2024.
• Delhi University has a rich history of producing notable athletes who have represented India at national and international levels.
• Amity University:
• Amity University is a private university known for its focus on holistic development, including academics, sports, and extracurricular activities.
• The university participated in the Khelo India University Games but did not win the championship title in 2024.
• Amity University invests significantly in sports infrastructure and training to nurture athletic talent among its students.
• Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU):
• IGNOU is renowned for its distance learning programs and is one of the largest universities in the world.
• Due to its focus on distance education, IGNOU's participation in sporting events like the Khelo India University Games is limited compared to conventional universities.
• IGNOU primarily emphasizes providing accessible education opportunities rather than extensive sports programs.

The correct answer is ₹60 crores.

Key Points

• The average propensity to consume (APC) is defined as the ratio of total consumption (C) to total income (Y), represented by the formula: APC = C/Y.
• In this question, the APC is given as 60% or 0.6, and the national income (Y) is ₹100 crores.
• Using the formula, Consumption (C) = APC × Income (Y). Substituting the values, we get C = 0.6 × ₹100 crores = ₹60 crores.
• The correct consumption expenditure is ₹60 crores, as per the calculation above.
• This concept is part of Keynesian economics, which highlights the relationship between income and consumption in an economy.

Additional Information

• Keynesian Consumption Function:
• The Keynesian consumption function establishes a relationship between income and consumption, stating that consumption increases as income rises but not necessarily in equal proportion.
• APC decreases as income increases because individuals tend to save more at higher income levels.
• Importance of APC:
• APC helps in understanding the spending behavior of consumers at different income levels.
• It is crucial for policymakers to determine the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) and plan economic policies accordingly.

Given:

Total number of candidates appearing in all the examinations are:

1172

1369

1230

1090

Formula Used:

Total candidates = Sum of all given values

Calculation:

⇒ Total candidates = 1172 + 1369 + 1230 + 1090

⇒ Total candidates = 4861

⇒ Total candidates in thousands = 4861 / 1000

⇒ Total candidates in thousands = 4.861 × 1000 = 4861

∴ The correct answer is 1230.

Given:

Length (L) = 33 m

Breadth (B) = 3 m

Height (H) = 17 m

Formula Used:

Volume of cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = 33 × 3 × 17

⇒ Volume = 99 × 17

⇒ Volume = 1683 m³

∴ The correct answer is 1683 m³.

Given:

Distance covered = 156 km

Anmol's time = Nikhil's time + 5 hours

If Anmol doubles his speed, he will take 8 hours less than Nikhil

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

Let Anmol's original speed = x km/hr, and Nikhil's speed = y km/hr.

Time taken by Anmol = 156 ÷ x

Time taken by Nikhil = 156 ÷ y

⇒ 156 ÷ x = 156 ÷ y + 5

If Anmol doubles his speed, his speed becomes 2x:

⇒ 156 ÷ (2x) = 156 ÷ y - 8

From the first equation:

⇒ 156 ÷ x - 156 ÷ y = 5

Taking LCM:

⇒ 156(y - x) ÷ (xy) = 5

⇒ xy = 156(y - x) ÷ 5

From the second equation:

⇒ 156 ÷ (2x) - 156 ÷ y = -8

Taking LCM:

⇒ 156(y - 2x) ÷ (2xy) = -8

⇒ 2xy = -156(y - 2x) ÷ 8

Now solving these equations simultaneously:

Assume x = 6 km/hr (trial):

⇒ Time taken by Anmol = 156 ÷ 6 = 26 hours

⇒ Time taken by Nikhil = 156 ÷ 9 = 17 hours

⇒ 26 - 17 = 5 hours

⇒ If speed doubles = 156 ÷ (2 × 6) = 156 ÷ 12 = 13 hours

⇒ 17 - 13 = 8 hours

∴ The correct answer is 6 km/hr.

Given:

Speed while going (S₁) = 72 km/hr

Speed while returning (S₂) = 90 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average Speed = (2 × S₁ × S₂) / (S₁ + S₂)

Calculation:

⇒ Average Speed = (2 × 72 × 90) / (72 + 90)

⇒ Average Speed = (2 × 6480) / 162

⇒ Average Speed = 12960 / 162

⇒ Average Speed = 80 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 80 km/hr.

Given:

B's marks = 64

A's marks = 80

Formula Used:

Percentage of B's marks that were A's marks = A's marks / B's marks

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage = 80 / 64

⇒ Percentage = 1.25

⇒ Percentage = 125%

∴ The correct answer is 125%.

Given:

(4³×2³×4²)/(4²×8)

Formula Used:

a^m×aⁿ = a^m+n

For simplifying fractions: a^m/aⁿ = a^m-n

Calculation:

⇒ (4³×2³×4²)/(4²×8)

⇒ (4³⁺²×2³)/(4²×2³)

⇒ (4⁵×2³)/(4²×2³)

⇒ 4^5-2

⇒ 4³

⇒ 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Given:

Pipe A fills the cistern in 13 hours.

Pipe B fills the cistern in 20 hours.

Formula Used:

LCM = Total work

Efficiency = Total work ÷ Time

Time taken to complete work together = Total work ÷ Combined efficiency

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 13 and 20 = 260 units (Total work).

⇒ Efficiency of A = 260 ÷ 13 = 20 units/hour.

⇒ Efficiency of B = 260 ÷ 20 = 13 units/hour.

⇒ Combined efficiency = 20 + 13 = 33 units/hour.

⇒ Work needed for half cistern = 260 ÷ 2 = 130 units.

⇒ Time = Work ÷ Combined efficiency = 130 ÷ 33.

⇒ Time = 331/33 hours.

∴ The correct answer is 3(31)/(33) hours.

Given:

A can complete work in 25 days.

B can complete work in 23 days.

Work is done on alternate days, starting with B.

Formula Used:

LCM = Total work.

Efficiency = Total work ÷ Time.

Calculation:

⇒ LCM of 25 and 23 = 575 (Total work).

⇒ Efficiency of A = 575 ÷ 25 = 23 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of B = 575 ÷ 23 = 25 units/day.

⇒ On alternate days: Day 1 (B) + Day 2 (A) = 25 + 23 = 48 units/day.

⇒ Number of complete cycles (48 units/day): 575 ÷ 48 = 11 complete cycles (528 units completed).

⇒ Remaining work = 575 - 528 = 47 units.

⇒ Day 23(B works) completes 25 units.

⇒ Day 24(A works) completes 22 units.

⇒ Total days = 11 cycles × 2 + 1 + 22/23 = 23(22/23) days.

∴ The correct answer is 23(22/23) days.

Given:

Cost Price Ratio of articles X : Y = 3 : 7

Profit percentage for X = 18%

Loss percentage for Y = 17%

Formula Used:

Total Gain/Loss percentage = (Profit/Loss from X + Profit/Loss from Y) / Total Cost Price × 100

Profit/Loss from an article = Profit/Loss percentage × Cost Price of the article

Calculation:

Let the cost prices of X and Y be 3k and 7k respectively.

⇒ Profit from X = 18% of 3k = 0.18 × 3k = 0.54k

⇒ Loss from Y = 17% of 7k = -0.17 × 7k = -1.19k

⇒ Total Cost Price = 3k + 7k = 10k

⇒ Total Profit/Loss = 0.54k - 1.19k = -0.65k

⇒ Total Gain/Loss percentage = (-0.65k / 10k) × 100

⇒ Total Gain/Loss percentage = -6.5%

∴ The correct answer is Loss, 6.5%.

Given:

Observations = 90, 75, 25, 75, 42, 74, 43, 88, 91

Total number of observations = 9

Formula Used:

Arithmetic Mean = Sum of all observations / Total number of observations

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of observations = 90 + 75 + 25 + 75 + 42 + 74 + 43 + 88 + 91

⇒ Sum of observations = 603

⇒ Arithmetic Mean = 603 / 9

⇒ Arithmetic Mean = 67

∴ The correct answer is 67.

Given:

Perpendicular distances from an interior point to the sides of an equilateral triangle = 5 cm, 10 cm, 15 cm

Formula used:

Sum of perpendiculars from any interior point = altitude of equilateral triangle

Area of equilateral triangle = (√3 ÷ 4) × side²

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of perpendiculars = 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 cm

⇒ Altitude = 30 cm

Altitude = (√3 ÷ 2) × side

⇒ (√3 ÷ 2) × side = 30

⇒ side = (30 × 2) ÷ √3 = 60 ÷ √3 = 20√3

⇒ Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × (20√3)²

⇒ Area = (√3 ÷ 4) × 1200

⇒ Area = 300√3 cm²

∴ The area of the equilateral triangle is 300√3 cm².

Given:

Ratio = 9 : 16 : 5

Third part = ₹57,300

Formula Used:

Total Sum = (Sum of Ratios) × (Third part ÷ Third Ratio)

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of Ratios = 9 + 16 + 5 = 30

⇒ Total Sum = 30 × (57,300 ÷ 5)

⇒ Total Sum = 30 × 11,460

⇒ Total Sum = ₹3,43,800

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,43,800.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2,900

Rate of Interest (r) = 6% per annum

Time (t) = 4 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × r × t) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (2900 × 6 × 4) / 100

⇒ SI = (2900 × 24) / 100

⇒ SI = 696

∴ The correct answer is 696.

Given:

Investment ratio of Akhilesh and Balram = 3:2

Total profit (100%) = ?

Charity = 15% of total profit

Akhilesh's share = ₹1,27,500

Formula Used:

Total profit = (Profit after charity / Akhilesh's ratio) × Total ratio

Profit after charity = Total profit × (100% - Charity%)

Akhilesh's profit = (Profit after charity × Akhilesh's ratio) / Total ratio

Calculation:

⇒ ₹1,27,500 = (Total profit × (100 - 15)% × 3) / (3 + 2)

⇒ ₹1,27,500 = (Total profit × 85% × 3) / 5

⇒ Total profit = (₹1,27,500 × 5) / (85 × 3)

⇒ Total profit = ₹6,37,500 / 255

⇒ Total profit = ₹2,50,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,50,000.

Given:

Distance₁ = 155 km

Speed₁ = 31 km/hr

Distance₂ = 192 km

Speed₂ = 48 km/hr

Distance₃ = 693 km

Speed₃ = 99 km/hr

Formula Used:

Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculation:

⇒ Total distance = Distance₁ + Distance₂ + Distance₃

⇒ Total distance = 155 + 192 + 693 = 1040 km

⇒ Time₁ = Distance₁ ÷ Speed₁

⇒ Time₁ = 155 ÷ 31 = 5 hours

⇒ Time₂ = Distance₂ ÷ Speed₂

⇒ Time₂ = 192 ÷ 48 = 4 hours

⇒ Time₃ = Distance₃ ÷ Speed₃

⇒ Time₃ = 693 ÷ 99 = 7 hours

⇒ Total time = Time₁ + Time₂ + Time₃

⇒ Total time = 5 + 4 + 7 = 16 hours

⇒ Average speed = Total distance ÷ Total time

⇒ Average speed = 1040 ÷ 16 = 65 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 65 km/hr.

Solution:

Population three years ago = 4,80,000

Successive increase rates:

1st year = 3%

2nd year = 2.5%

3rd year = 5%

Step 1: Population after first year

= 4,80,000 × 1.03

= 4,94,400

Step 2: Population after second year

= 4,94,400 × 1.025

= 5,06,760

Step 3: Population after third year

= 5,06,760 × 1.05

= 5,32,098

Step 4: Find increase in population

= 5,32,098 − 4,80,000

= 52,098

Final Answer:

Increase in population = 52,098

Solution:

Let the cost price of 1 kg millet = ₹100

Step 1: Calculate selling price with claimed profit

Claimed profit = 30%

Selling price = 100 + 30

= ₹130

Step 2: Effect of dishonest weight

Weight used is 11% less

So, actual weight given = 89%

= 0.89 kg for ₹130

Step 3: Find effective selling price per kg

Effective SP = 130 ÷ 0.89

= 146.07

Step 4: Calculate actual profit

Profit = 146.07 − 100

= 46.07

Step 5: Profit percentage

Profit % = 46.07%

Rounded off = 46%

Final Answer:

Total profit = 46%

Given:

9³ = 729

17² = 289

(28 ÷ 14)² = 2² = 4

14 × 9 = 126

Formula Used:

Evaluate terms using arithmetic operations and powers.

Calculation:

⇒ 9³ - 17² + (28 ÷ 14)² - 18 + 14 × 9

⇒ 729 - 289 + 4 - 18 + 126

⇒ 729 - 289 = 440

⇒ 440 + 4 = 444

⇒ 444 - 18 = 426

⇒ 426 + 126 = 552

∴ The correct answer is 552.

Given:

Listed price = 80% more than cost price

Discount = 56%

Formula Used:

Loss % = (Loss / Cost Price) × 100

Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price

Selling Price = Listed Price - Discount

Calculation:

⇒ Let Cost Price = ₹100

⇒ Listed Price = 100 + 80 = ₹180

⇒ Discount = 56% of Listed Price = (56 × 180) / 100 = ₹100.8

⇒ Selling Price = Listed Price - Discount = 180 - 100.8 = ₹79.2

⇒ Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price = 100 - 79.2 = ₹20.8

⇒ Loss % = (Loss / Cost Price) × 100 = (20.8 / 100) × 100 = 20.8%

∴ The correct answer is 20.8%.

Given:

Spending percentage = 65%

Savings = ₹42,000

Savings percentage = 100% - 65% = 35%

Formula Used:

Total income = Savings ÷ (Percentage saved ÷ 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Total income = ₹42,000 ÷ (35 ÷ 100)

⇒ Total income = ₹42,000 ÷ 0.35

⇒ Total income = ₹1,20,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,20,000.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The proverb "You can't unscramble eggs" means that once something is done, it cannot be undone or reversed. (एक बार कुछ हो जाने के बाद उसे पलटा नहीं जा सकता।)
• Example: Once you quit your job, you can't go back and undo that decision. You can't unscramble eggs.
• "Irreversible" relates to something that cannot be changed back to its original state. (अपरिवर्तनीय)
• Example: The damage caused by the flood was irreversible.
• Hence, the meaning of the proverb aligns with the concept of irreversibility.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Those who talk too much may miss an opportunity (जो ज्यादा बात करते हैं, वे अवसर चूक सकते हैं):
• Example: He kept talking during the meeting and missed the chance to present his ideas.
• Option 3: Difficult tasks seem easier when done voluntarily (जब स्वेच्छा से किया जाए तो कठिन कार्य आसान लगते हैं):
• Example: Volunteering for a project makes it more enjoyable, even if the task is tough.
• Option 4: One good event does not mean that everything is right (एक अच्छी घटना का मतलब यह नहीं है कि सबकुछ सही है):
• Example: Just because the team won one game doesn't mean they are the best in the league.

The correct answer is 'a, the'.

Key Points

• The first blank requires the indefinite article "a" because "walk" is a singular, countable noun, and it is being mentioned for the first time.
• The second blank requires the definite article "the" because "Juhu beach" is a specific, well-known location in Mumbai.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect as they do not use the appropriate combination of articles.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "They went for a walk on the Juhu beach in Mumbai."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "no article, the" is incorrect because "walk" requires an article and cannot be left without one.
• Option 3: "the, no article" is incorrect because "walk" cannot take "the" in this context, and "Juhu beach" needs "the" as it is a specific location.
• Option 4: "a, a" is incorrect because "Juhu beach" is a specific place and requires "the," not "a."

The correct answer is 'fewer'.

Key Points

• The word "fewer" is used to refer to a smaller number of countable items, such as students, chairs, or apples.
• In the given sentence, the noun "students" is countable, so the correct choice is "fewer."
• Option 1 (less) and Option 2 (lesser) are incorrect because they are used with uncountable nouns, not countable ones.
• Option 4 (least) is incorrect because it is a superlative and does not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "Due to the new policy, fewer students are attending the after-school programme."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "less" is incorrect because it is used for uncountable nouns, such as water, time, or money.
• Option 2: "lesser" is not appropriate in this context, as it is used in comparative phrases and not with countable nouns.
• Option 4: "least" is incorrect because it indicates the smallest amount or degree and does not fit the sentence structure.

The correct answer is D.

The correct answer is 'an, the'.

Key Points

• The first blank requires the article "an" because it precedes a word ("article") starting with a vowel sound.
• The second blank requires the article "the" because it specifies the importance of mental health, which is a particular and universally understood concept.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect or do not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "He wrote an article on the importance of mental health."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "no article, the" is incorrect because the first blank requires an article for grammatical correctness.
• Option 2: "an, no article" is incorrect because the second blank requires the definite article "the" for proper specificity.
• Option 4: "a, no article" is incorrect because "a" cannot be used before a word starting with a vowel sound.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'embarassing'.

• The correct spelling would be 'embarrassing'.
• The word 'embarrassing' is an adjective which means 'causing a feeling of self-consciousness, shame, or awkwardness'. (शर्मिंदगी)
• For Example -
• It was embarrassing to forget her name in front of everyone.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'embarassing'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words -

• Occurrence - an incident or event (घटना)
• Restaurant - a place where people pay to sit and eat meals that are cooked and served on the premises (रेस्तरां)
• Especially - used to single out one person, thing, or situation over all others (विशेष रूप से)

The correct answer is 'as much as'.

Key Points

• The phrase "as much as" is used to indicate a quantity or amount.
• In the context of the sentence, the charity event raised a specific amount of money, making "as much as" the appropriate choice.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because they do not fit grammatically or contextually.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "The charity event raised as much as $1,000 for the local shelter."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "as many as" is incorrect because it is used to indicate a large number of countable items, not an amount of money.
• Option 2: "as more as" is incorrect because this is not a valid grammatical structure in English.
• Option 3: "as most as" is incorrect because it is also not a valid grammatical structure.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by introducing the concept of human memory and its cognitive aspects.
• Sentence A is the first sentence as it provides a general introduction to human memory:
• "Human memory is a complex cognitive function that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information."
• Sentence B follows as it expands on the concept of memory and its dynamic nature:
• "Recent research suggests that memory is not a static repository but rather a dynamic and reconstructive process."
• Sentence C comes next as it explains the factors that influence memory formation and recall:
• "Factors such as emotions, attention, and prior knowledge influence how memories are formed and recalled."
• Sentence D concludes as it discusses the implications of understanding memory in various fields:
• "This understanding has significant implications for fields like education, neuroscience, and even criminal justice, where eyewitness testimonies are often scrutinised."
• The correct sequence is ABCD.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Human memory is a complex cognitive function that involves encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Recent research suggests that memory is not a static repository but rather a dynamic and reconstructive process. Factors such as emotions, attention, and prior knowledge influence how memories are formed and recalled. This understanding has significant implications for fields like education, neuroscience, and even criminal justice, where eyewitness testimonies are often scrutinised."

The correct answer is 'more beautifully than any other'.

Key Points

• The correct phrase is "more beautifully than any other" because it is used for comparisons involving one person or thing with the rest of a group.
• Option 1, "much more beautifully than any" is incorrect because it lacks the word "other," which is essential in this context to avoid ambiguity.
• Option 3, "most beautiful than any," is grammatically incorrect because "most" is used for superlative comparisons, and the adjective "beautiful" should not follow this structure.
• Option 4, "beautifully than any other," is incorrect because it lacks the necessary word "more" to make the comparison meaningful.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Complete Sentence: "Maria sings more beautifully than any other contestant in the competition."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "much more beautifully than any" is incorrect because it does not specify "other" contestants, leading to ambiguity.
• Option 3: "most beautiful than any" is incorrect because the comparison requires an adverb ("beautifully") rather than an adjective ("beautiful").
• Option 4: "beautifully than any other" is incorrect because it lacks the word "more" for comparative clarity.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (Inclination).

Key Points

• The word "aversion" means a strong dislike or disinclination towards something. (घृणा, अरुचि)
• Example: She has an aversion to loud music and prefers quiet environments.
• The word "inclination" refers to a natural tendency or desire to behave in a particular way or to be drawn toward something. (झुकाव, रुचि)
• Example: He has an inclination for painting and spends hours creating beautiful artwork.
• As "aversion" signifies a strong dislike, its opposite would be "inclination," which represents a strong liking or tendency toward something.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (Inclination).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Sensation (संवेदना): A physical feeling or perception resulting from something that happens to or comes into contact with the body.
• Example: The cold water gave him a tingling sensation.
• Loathing (घृणा): A feeling of intense dislike or disgust.
• Example: She felt a deep loathing for the person who betrayed her trust.
• Pretention (दिखावा): A claim or aspiration to something, especially of importance or quality.
• Example: His pretention to being an expert was quickly debunked by the panel of judges.

The correct answer is: Hypocrite.

Key Points

• The word "Hypocrite" refers to a person who pretends to have moral or religious beliefs, principles, or virtues that they do not actually possess or practice. (पाखंडी)
• Example: He called out the politician as a hypocrite for advocating environmental protection while using private jets excessively.
• It describes someone whose actions contradict their stated beliefs or values.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Hypocrite.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cynic (निंदक): A person who believes that people are motivated purely by self-interest rather than acting for honorable or unselfish reasons.
• Example: The cynic doubted the charity’s intentions, suspecting it to be a publicity stunt.
• Misogynist (स्त्री द्वेषी): A person who dislikes, despises, or is strongly prejudiced against women.
• Example: The misogynist's remarks caused outrage during the debate.
• Atheist (नास्तिक): A person who does not believe in the existence of God or gods.
• Example: Despite being an atheist, she was respectful of her friends’ religious beliefs.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'padagogical'.

• The correct spelling would be 'pedagogical'.
• The word 'pedagogical' is an adjective which relates to the methods and practices of teaching. (शैक्षिक)
• For Example -
• The school introduced new pedagogical techniques to improve student engagement.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'padagogical'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words - 

• Comprehensive - complete and including everything that is necessary (व्यापक)
• Reevaluation - the process of examining or assessing something again (पुनर्मूल्यांकन)
• Systemic - relating to a system, especially as opposed to a particular part (संपूर्ण प्रणाली से संबंधित)

The correct answer is: Confidence.

Key Points

• The word "trepidation" means a feeling of fear or anxiety about something that may happen. (घबराहट या डर)
• Example: She felt trepidation as she walked into the dark, silent forest.
• "Confidence" refers to the feeling or belief that one can rely on someone or something; firm trust or self-assurance. (आत्मविश्वास)
• Example: He spoke with great confidence during the interview, impressing the panel.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'trepidation' is 'confidence'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Confidence.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Apprehension (आशंका): Fear or anxiety about something unpleasant that might happen.
• Example: She looked at the storm clouds with apprehension, worried about the coming rain.
• Anxiety (चिंता): A feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease about something with an uncertain outcome.
• Example: He felt anxiety about his performance in the exam.
• Dread (भय): Great fear or apprehension about something that might happen.
• Example: She felt dread when she heard the sound of footsteps in the empty hallway.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by discussing humanity's reliance on the environment for basic needs like food, water, and shelter.
• Sentence A is the first sentence as it introduces the subject:
• "Human beings rely heavily on the environment for food, water, and shelter."
• Sentence B follows as it highlights the risks posed to humanity by climate change and environmental degradation:
• "With climate change and environmental degradation, the future of humanity is at risk."
• Sentence D is the third sentence because it elaborates on the ecological problems caused by human activities:
• "Deforestation, pollution, and over-exploitation of resources have created several ecological problems."
• Sentence E follows as it emphasizes the urgent need to protect the environment:
• "Protecting the environment has become an urgent need for the survival of all species on Earth."
• Sentence C concludes the paragraph by stressing the importance of conserving resources for future generations:
• "Thus, it becomes essential to conserve and protect natural resources for future generations."
• The correct sequence is ABDEC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Human beings rely heavily on the environment for food, water, and shelter. With climate change and environmental degradation, the future of humanity is at risk. Deforestation, pollution, and over-exploitation of resources have created several ecological problems. Protecting the environment has become an urgent need for the survival of all species on Earth. Thus, it becomes essential to conserve and protect natural resources for future generations."

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. To die.

Key Points

• The idiom "Kick the bucket" is a colloquial expression meaning "to die" or "to pass away." (मर जाना)
• Example: After a long illness, the elderly man finally kicked the bucket last night.
• In Hindi, "Kick the bucket" translates to "मर जाना या स्वर्ग सिधार जाना।"

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: To save money (पैसे बचाना): This means to economize or reduce expenditure.
• Example: During tough financial times, it's important to save money wherever possible.
• Option 2: To start a project (एक परियोजना शुरू करना): This refers to initiating a new task or endeavor.
• Example: The team is excited to start the new project this month.
• Option 4: To celebrate an event (एक कार्यक्रम का जश्न मनाना): This means to mark a significant occasion with festivities or activities.
• Example: We threw a big party to celebrate our company's 10th anniversary.

The correct answer is: Option (2) i.e. Graham Bell.

Key Points

• The passage states that the telephone was invented by Alexander Graham Bell in 1876. (टेलीफोन का आविष्कार 1876 में अलेक्जेंडर ग्राहम बेल ने किया था।)
• He enabled real-time voice communication over long distances, revolutionizing human interaction.
• Other options like Thomas Bell and Thomas Edison are not correct as per the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Graham Bell

Additional Information

• Thomas Bell (थॉमस बेल): There is no historical record of Thomas Bell inventing the telephone.
• Thomas Edison (थॉमस एडीसन): Edison was an inventor but not of the telephone; he invented the phonograph and improved the light bulb.
• None of the options (इनमें से कोई नहीं): This is incorrect since Graham Bell is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: Option (2) i.e. Long distance written communication.

Key Points

• The passage states that the invention of the telegraph revolutionised long-distance communication, allowing messages to be transmitted over wires in minutes rather than days. (टेलीग्राफ ने लंबी दूरी की लिखित संचार क्रांति ला दी।)
• This was a major improvement over previous methods that took much longer.
• The telegraph did not revolutionise radio, video calls, or the internet, but specifically long-distance written communication.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Long distance written communication

Additional Information

• Radio signal broadcasting (रेडियो सिग्नल प्रसारण): This was revolutionised later by radio technology.
• Real time video calls (रीयल टाइम वीडियो कॉल्स): This became possible much later with the internet and smartphones.
• The internet revolution (इंटरनेट क्रांति): Telegraph came long before the internet.

The correct answer is: Option (3) i.e. Internet.

Key Points

• The passage states that the development of the internet in the late 20th century enabled instant access to vast amounts of information. (इंटरनेट ने विशाल जानकारी तक त्वरित पहुँच संभव बनाई।)
• Television and radio brought information to wide audiences, but the internet allowed direct, rapid, and vast access to information and new forms of communication.
• The telegraph was an earlier communication breakthrough but did not provide instant access to vast data.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Internet

Additional Information

• Television (टेलीविजन): Brought news and entertainment but not instant access to vast information.
• Radio (रेडियो): Provided audio news and content, but not direct, instant access to vast data.
• Telegraph (टेलीग्राफ): Allowed for quick messages, but not access to vast information.

The correct answer is: Option (1) i.e. Data privacy.

Key Points

• The passage specifically mentions digital privacy as a significant concern that has emerged with the advancement of communication technology. (डेटा प्राइवेसी एक प्रमुख चुनौती है जो नई संचार तकनीक के साथ सामने आई है।)
• Other challenges include misinformation and the digital divide, but data privacy is directly listed as a challenge in the passage.
• Global communication and voice calling are benefits, not challenges, and internet speed is not specified as a main challenge in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Data privacy

Additional Information

• Global communication (वैश्विक संचार): This is an advantage, not a challenge.
• Voice calling (वॉयस कॉलिंग): This is a feature or benefit, not a challenge.
• Internet speed (इंटरनेट की गति): The passage does not mention this as a main challenge.

The correct answer is: Option (1) i.e. Inferences.

Key Points

• The word 'implications' as used in the passage refers to the likely consequences, effects, or meanings that follow from something. (Implications का अर्थ है - निहितार्थ, परिणाम या संकेत।)
• 'Inferences' means conclusions or meanings drawn from evidence or reasoning, which closely matches the sense of 'implications' in this context. (Inference मतलब निष्कर्ष या संकेत।)
• Other options like elements, compounds, and theories do not fit the meaning of 'implications' as used in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Inferences

Additional Information

• Elements (तत्व): Means parts or components, not consequences or meanings.
• Compounds (यौगिक): Refers to chemical substances, unrelated to the context here.
• Theories (सिद्धांत): Means systematic explanations, not the same as implications.

सही उत्तर -​ मरना

Key Points

• खेत आना' मुहावरे का अर्थ होता है मरना
• मुहावरे ऐसे वाक्यांश हैं, जो अपने साधारण (शाब्दिक) अर्थ को छोड़कर एक विशेष, लाक्षणिक या सांकेतिक अर्थ प्रकट करते हैं।
• ये पूरे वाक्य नहीं, बल्कि वाक्य का हिस्सा (वाक्यांश) होते हैं।
• मुहावरा मूलत: अरबी भाषा का शब्द है जिसका अर्थ है बातचीत करना या उत्तर देना।

 Additional Information अन्य उदाहरण :  

सही उत्तर - का अत्युक्तिपुर्ण

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य : जायसी ने पद्मावती की सुकुमारता का अत्युक्तिपुर्ण वर्णन किया है। 
  

अत्युक्ति में अति उपसर्ग मूल शब्द युक्ति है।

• शुद्ध वाक्य : जायसी ने पद्मावती की सुकुमारता का अत्युक्तिपूर्ण वर्णन किया है।
• अत्युक्ति का अर्थ :   बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर कही हुई बात।​

Additional Information

सही उत्तर - एक पत्र में उसके लेखक की भावनाएं ही व्यक्त नहीं होतीं, बल्कि उसका व्यक्तित्व भी उभरता है

Key Points

• वाक्य सार्थक शब्दों का वह व्यवस्थित समूह है, जो पूर्ण अर्थ व्यक्त करता है (जैसे- कर्ता+कर्म+क्रिया)।
• वाक्यगत अशुद्धि व्याकरणिक, वर्तनी, पदक्रम या लिंग-वचन संबंधी त्रुटियों के कारण होती है।
• इन्हें दूर कर स्पष्ट व मानक रूप लिखना 'वाक्य शुद्धि' है।

Additional Informationवाक्य में मुख्य रूप से निम्नलिखित अशुद्धियाँ होती हैं

सही उत्तर - के लिए, को 

Key Points

• कारक के आधार पर पूर्ण वाक्य  होगा ,क्रांतिकारियों ने देश के हित ,के लिए स्वयं  को बलिदान कर दिया।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से वाक्य के अन्य शब्दों, विशेषकर क्रिया के साथ उनका संबंध ज्ञात हो, उसे 'कारक' कहते हैं।
• इन्हें विभक्ति चिह्नों या परसर्ग (ने, को, से, के लिए) द्वारा पहचाना जाता है।

Additional Information हिंदी में कारक के आठ मुख्य भेद हैं:

कर्ता कारक - (ने) जो क्रिया करने वाला होता है।

कर्म कारक -(को)  जिस पर क्रिया होती है।

करण कारक - **(से,द्वारा  )**जिससे क्रिया होती है, या जिसके द्वारा क्रिया होती है।

सम्प्रदान कारक -( को के लिए ) जिसे क्रिया का लाभ या हानि पहुँचती है।

**अपादान कारक - (से अलगाव  )**जिससे क्रिया का त्याग या वियोग होता है।

अधिकरण कारक -( में पर ) जहाँ क्रिया होती है या जिसका संबंध क्रिया से होता है।

सम्बन्ध कारक - (का की रा री) जो किसी अन्य शब्द से संबंध दर्शाता है।

सम्बोधन कारक -( हे भो अरे) किसी को पुकारने या सावधान करने के लिए।

सही उत्तर - ​के लिए। 

Key Points

• कारक के आधार पर पूर्ण वाक्य होगा - युवावस्था में धनार्जन के लिए खून पसीना एक करना पड़ता है।
• ���िस वाक्य में कर्ता किसी के लिए कुछ कार्य करता है या किसी को कुछ देता है, (दान, उपहार, आदि), उस संज्ञा या सर्वनाम पद को संप्रदान कारक कहते हैं।
• उदाहरण (देना): "राजा ने ब्राह्मण को दान दिया।" **(यहाँ ब्राह्मण संप्रदान)**है।
• विभक्ति चिह्न: के लिए, को, के वास्ते, के हेतु

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प :

सही उत्तर - की

Key Points 

• कारक के आधार पर पूर्ण वाक्य - इस समय भारत की जनसंख्या एक सौ पचास करोड़ है।
• सम्बन्ध का अर्थ दो या अधिक वस्तुओं, व्यक्तियों, या संज्ञा/सर्वनाम शब्दों के बीच लगाव, नाता, या जुड़ाव से है। व्याकरण में, जो शब्द अन्य शब्दों से संज्ञा का सम्बन्ध बताते हैं,
• उन्हें सम्बन्ध कारक कहते हैं, जिनके चिन्ह (विभक्ति) 'का', 'की', 'के', 'रा', 'री', 'रे' आदि हैं।
• सम्बन्ध का अर्थ:
• नाता/रिश्ता: भाई-बहन, पति-पत्नी।
• लगाव: जुड़ना या मिलना।

Additional Information

• सम्बन्ध कारक के अन्य उदाहरण :
• दशरथ के चार पुत्र थे।
• वह मेरा भाई है।
• तुम्हारी घड़ी कहाँ है?
• यह विद्यालय का मैदान है।
• राम ने अपना काम किया
• ​यह अंशु की बहन आशु है।

सही उत्तर - पर

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य होगा - कृष्ण भक्तिकाव्य मूलतः पदगायन-परम्परा पर आधारित है।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम के जिस रूप से क्रिया के आधार (स्थान, समय या अवसर) का बोध होता है, उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिह्न (परसर्ग): इसके मुख्य चिह्न 'में' और 'पर' हैं।

उदाहरण:

1. में: मछली पानी में रहती है। (यहाँ 'पानी' क्रिया का आधार है)।
2. पर: पुस्तक मेज पर रखी है। ('मेज' आधार है)।
3. भीतर/अंदर: वह कमरे के अंदर है। **(स्थान का बोध)।**​

Additional Information अन्य विकल्प :

करण कारक विभक्ति चिह्न : इसके मुख्य चिह्न 'से' और 'के द्वारा' हैं।

उदाहरण:

• राम ने रावण को बाण से मारा**:** यहाँ 'बाण' मारने का साधन है, इसलिए 'बाण से' करण कारक है।
• बच्चे गेंद से खेल रहे हैं**:** खेलने का साधन 'गेंद' है।
• पत्र को कलम से लिखा गया**: लिखने का माध्यम 'कलम'** है।