DSSSB TGT (Natural Science) Official Paper (Held On: 07 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Given:  Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

• Eden is an immediate neighbour of both Ben and Carla.
• Adam is sitting second to the left of Carla.
• Franklin is sitting third to the left of Ben.
• David is an immediate neighbour of both Adam and Ben

The Final Arrangement is,

Ben is sitting between David and Eden.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here,

19 - 3 -11

• 19 + 3 = 22
• 22 ÷ 2 = 11

8 - 4 - 6 

• 8 + 4 = 12
• 12 ÷ 2 = 6

Similarly,

12 - 8 - 10 

• 12 + 8 = 20
• 20 ÷ 2 = 10.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Total people = 87

• Mae is 16^th from the left.
• Fae is 36^th from the right.
• First, convert Fae’s position to from the left:
• Position of Fae from left
• = 87 − 36 + 1
• = 52^nd from the left
• Now find the number of people between Mae and Fae:
• 52 − 16 − 1
• 35

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

The logic follows here, 

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

‘G R O W’ -  ‘3 9 6 7’  

‘W O R M ’ - ‘3 9 5 7 ’

Code for M is 5.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Given:  (Left) 672 159 764 237 784 (Right)

Original positions:

672 , 159 , 764 , 237 , 784

Arrange numbers in ascending order:

159 , 237 , 672 , 764 , 784.

Only one number (784) remains in the same position.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The pattern followed here is:

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Given:  9 ÷ 4 + 45 × 5 − 14 = ? 

‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged, and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

⇒9 ÷ 4 + 45 × 5 − 14 

‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged, and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

⇒9 × 4 - 45 ÷ 5 + 14 

⇒9 × 4 - 9 + 14 

⇒ 36 + 14 - 9

⇒41.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The least possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusions:

I: Some hammers are wrenches.- False (As there is no direct relation between hammers and wrenches, it may be possible but not definite. Hence, it is false)

II: Some screwdrivers are pliers. - False (All screwdrivers are wrenches and some wrenches are pliers. However, there is no definite relation between screwdrivers and pliers. Hence, it is false)

Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

Family Chart:

As per the given information,

N is mother of Q and L is sister of N.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The logic follows here, 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2"

10 – 143 × 11 + 140 ÷ 22 = ?

⇒10 – 143 × 11 + 140 ÷ 22 

• means –, – means ×, × means ÷, and ÷ means +

⇒10 × 143 ÷ 11 –140 + 22 

⇒ 10 × 13 –140 + 22 

⇒ 130 + 22 –140 

⇒ 152 – 140 

⇒12.

Conclusion I:

The total number of people who prefer yellow and orange is more than the number of people who prefer purple.

Yellow + Orange = 27% + 19% = 46%

Purple = 41%

Since 46% > 41%, this conclusion logically follows.

Conclusion II:

Purple colour is better than yellow colour.

The statement talks only about preference percentages, not about quality or superiority of any colour.

So this conclusion does not follow.

Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

• No one has an exam after Q
• Only one person has an exam between Q and W
• Only three people have exams between W and U
• T has an exam immediately before W
• | Mon | U | | --- | --- | | Tue | | | Wed | | | Thu | T | | Fri | W | | Sat | | | Sun | Q |

R has an exam immediately before Y. 

The Final Arrangement is,

3 people have exams between E and R

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

Given:  (Left) 237 561 154 873 276 (Right)

second digit of the highest number = 8 7 3

third digit of the lowest number =  1 5 4

7 + 4 = 11 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3"

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

• Four branches of a school, S1, S2, S3 and S4, are located in a city.
• S1 is to the west of S2, and S4 is to the east of S3, which is to the south of S2.

The Final Diagram, 

South east .

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The correct answer is Neeraj Chopra.

Key Points

• Neeraj Chopra, an Indian javelin thrower, is the first Indian track-and-field athlete to win an Olympic gold medal. He achieved this historic feat at the Tokyo Olympics in 2021.
• Neeraj Chopra is widely regarded as one of India's finest athletes, holding several national and international records in javelin throw.
• He was selected to lead the Indian athletics contingent at the 2024 Paris Olympics, owing to his exceptional achievements and leadership qualities.
• Neeraj Chopra is also the reigning World Champion in javelin throw, having won the gold medal at the World Athletics Championships 2023, further cementing his position as a global icon.
• His leadership at the Paris Olympics aims to inspire and motivate other athletes in the Indian contingent to perform at their best on the international stage.

Additional Information

• Bajrang Punia:
• Bajrang Punia is an accomplished Indian wrestler specializing in freestyle wrestling.
• He won the bronze medal in the men’s 65 kg category at the Tokyo Olympics 2021.
• Bajrang Punia is a Padma Shri and Khel Ratna awardee, recognized for his contributions to Indian wrestling.
• Although a celebrated athlete, he is not associated with athletics but with wrestling.
• PV Sindhu:
• PV Sindhu is a world-renowned badminton player from India.
• She is the first Indian woman to win two consecutive Olympic medals in badminton (silver in 2016, bronze in 2021).
• Her achievements have made her one of the most celebrated athletes in India.
• While PV Sindhu is an inspiring sports personality, she is not part of the Indian athletics contingent.
• Mirabai Chanu:
• Mirabai Chanu is an Indian weightlifter who won a silver medal in the women’s 49 kg category at the Tokyo Olympics 2021.
• She is a Padma Shri and Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna awardee.
• Mirabai Chanu is a prominent figure in Indian sports but is associated with weightlifting, not athletics.

The correct answer is Justice M Hidayatullah.

Key Points

• Justice M Hidayatullah served as the Chief Justice of India from February 25, 1968, to December 16, 1970.
• He became the Vice President of India in 1979, serving from August 31, 1979, to August 30, 1984.
• Justice Hidayatullah is the first former Chief Justice of India to hold the office of the Vice President.
• During his tenure as Vice President, he also served as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• Justice Hidayatullah is widely recognized for his contributions to Indian jurisprudence and his role in strengthening democratic institutions.

Additional Information

• Justice Sabyasachi Mukherjee
• Justice Mukherjee served as the Chief Justice of India from December 18, 1989, to September 25, 1990.
• He played a significant role in interpreting constitutional provisions during his tenure.
• However, he did not serve as the Vice President of India.
• Justice Harilal Jekisundas Kania
• Justice Kania was the first Chief Justice of India, serving from January 26, 1950, to November 6, 1951.
• He is remembered for laying the foundation of the Indian judiciary post-independence.
• Justice Kania did not hold any political office like the Vice Presidency.
• Justice K Subba Rao
• Justice Subba Rao served as the Chief Justice of India from June 30, 1966, to April 11, 1967.
• He contested the Presidential election in 1967 but was unsuccessful.
• Justice Subba Rao did not serve as the Vice President of India.

The correct answer is Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• According to the UNICEF report Ending Child Marriage: A profile of progress in India 2023, over half of the girls and women in India who married in childhood live in five states: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.
• Both Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh are included in the top five states.
• These states together account for a significant share of women married in childhood.
• Hence, this option correctly contains two of the five states.

Additional Information

• Key Facts About Child Marriage in India
• Child marriage is defined as a marriage where either the girl is below the age of 18 or the boy is below the age of 21.
• The prevalence of child marriage is closely linked to factors such as poverty, lack of education, gender inequality, and social traditions.
• Efforts to combat child marriage in India include initiatives like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao and the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006.

The correct answer is Wardha.

Key Points

• Mahatma Gandhi Antarashtriya Hindi Vishwavidalaya (MGAHV) is located in Wardha, Maharashtra, India.
• This university was established in 1997 by an act of Parliament to promote Hindi as an international language.
• The university is named after Mahatma Gandhi, who strongly advocated the use of Hindi for national integration and development.
• It is recognized as a central university and is funded by the Government of India.
• The institution offers a wide range of courses in Hindi and interdisciplinary subjects to strengthen Hindi's role in global communication.

Additional Information

• Hyderabad:
• Hyderabad, the capital of Telangana, is known for its IT industry and historic sites such as Charminar and Golconda Fort.
• It is home to several prestigious institutions, such as the University of Hyderabad and Osmania University.
• However, Mahatma Gandhi Antarashtriya Hindi Vishwavidalaya is not located here.
• New Delhi:
• New Delhi is the capital of India and serves as the political and administrative hub of the nation.
• It is home to several universities and institutions, including Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) and Delhi University (DU).
• While New Delhi hosts many national-level institutes, Mahatma Gandhi Antarashtriya Hindi Vishwavidalaya is not situated here.
• Tirupati:
• Tirupati is a city in Andhra Pradesh, famous for its Sri Venkateswara Temple, one of the most visited pilgrimage sites in India.
• It houses institutions such as Sri Venkateswara University and IIT Tirupati.
• Mahatma Gandhi Antarashtriya Hindi Vishwavidalaya is not located in Tirupati.

The correct answer is Widow remarriage.

Key Points

• Karsandas Mulji, a prominent social reformer of 19^th-century India, was a vigorous advocate for widow remarriage, challenging societal norms and superstitions.
• He worked relentlessly to promote the rights and dignity of widows, who were often marginalized and subjected to severe restrictions in traditional Indian society.
• Mulji was influenced by the ideas of Raja Rammohan Roy and other reformers who sought to abolish regressive practices and uplift women.
• His advocacy was part of the broader social reform movement in colonial India, focusing on issues such as women's empowerment and equality.
• The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act of 1856, passed earlier with the efforts of reformers like Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, inspired Mulji to continue working towards its wider acceptance in society.

Additional Information

• Improved sanitation systems in Bombay
• During the 19^th century, efforts to improve sanitation in Bombay (now Mumbai) were largely spearheaded by British colonial authorities and urban planners, rather than individual reformers like Karsandas Mulji.
• The Bombay City Improvement Trust (established in 1898) was instrumental in addressing issues like overcrowding and poor sanitation in the city.
• Mulji's contributions were more aligned with social and cultural reforms rather than urban planning or sanitation.
• Universal primary education
• While education reforms were a significant aspect of the 19^th-century reform movements, Mulji did not specifically focus on promoting universal primary education.
• Efforts in this domain were led by reformers like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, who advocated for free and compulsory education for children in British India.
• The push for universal education gained momentum in the 20^th century with the establishment of policies and acts under both colonial and post-independence governments.
• Abolition of child labour
• The abolition of child labor gained attention during the industrial revolution, but it was not a central theme of Karsandas Mulji's work.
• Efforts to address child labor in India were primarily driven by legal reforms enacted by colonial authorities and later by independent India's government.
• The Factories Act of 1881 and subsequent labor laws addressed child labor issues in industrial settings.

The correct answer is Mysore.

Key Points

• The Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) is located in Mysore, Karnataka, and was established in 1969.
• The CIIL functions under the Ministry of Education, Government of India, and is dedicated to the research and development of Indian languages.
• The institute aims to promote and protect the linguistic diversity of India by conducting research, training, and policy development for Indian languages.
• CIIL provides resources and technical support to linguistic minorities and works to improve the teaching and learning of Indian languages.
• The institute also oversees major projects such as the National Translation Mission and the Scheme for Protection and Preservation of Endangered Languages of India (SPPEL).

Additional Information

• New Delhi
• New Delhi is the capital of India and home to various important government institutions such as the Parliament of India, Rashtrapati Bhavan, and several ministries.
• It houses renowned research and educational institutes like the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR), Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU), and Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI).
• However, the Central Institute of Indian Languages is not located in New Delhi.
• Amritsar
• Amritsar is a prominent city in Punjab, known as the spiritual and cultural center of Sikhism.
• It is famous for the Golden Temple (Harmandir Sahib), which is a significant pilgrimage site for Sikhs worldwide.
• While Amritsar holds historical and cultural importance, it is not associated with the Central Institute of Indian Languages.
• Delhi
• Delhi, distinct from New Delhi, refers to the larger metropolitan area that includes New Delhi as its core.
• It is one of India’s most populous cities and serves as a hub for culture, politics, and education.
• Institutes like the University of Delhi and Indian National Science Academy (INSA) are located here, but it is not the location of the CIIL.

The correct answer is President.

Key Points

• The administrator of a Union Territory (UT) does not possess independent legislative authority and must function under the supervision and direction of the central government.
• Per Article 239 of the Indian Constitution, the President exercises authority over Union Territories through administrators appointed by him.
• As per Article 239B, the administrator of a Union Territory is permitted to promulgate ordinances only after receiving prior instructions from the President.
• This provision ensures that legislative decisions affecting Union Territories align with the central government's policies and constitutional framework.
• The President’s approval is critical to maintain uniformity and administrative efficiency across Union Territories.

Additional Information

• Governor:
• The Governor is the constitutional head of a state and functions under Articles 153-162 of the Indian Constitution.
• The Governor has no direct role in the legislative or administrative functioning of Union Territories.
• Governors hold the authority to promulgate ordinances for states under Article 213, but this power does not extend to Union Territories.
• Armed Forces General:
• The Armed Forces General is responsible for the operational command of India’s military forces.
• This designation does not hold legislative powers or administrative authority over Union Territories.
• The role is unrelated to ordinance promulgation or Union Territory governance.
• Chief Minister:
• The Chief Minister is the elected head of government in a state and is responsible for executing state-level policies and legislation.
• Union Territories with legislative assemblies (e.g., Delhi and Puducherry) may have Chief Ministers, but their powers are subject to the administrator’s authority and the President’s oversight.
• In Union Territories without legislative assemblies, there is no Chief Minister, and governance is directly controlled by the administrator and central government.

The correct answer is Krishna I.

Key Points

• Dantidurga, the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, established the dynasty in the mid-8^th century CE and ruled until his death in 756 CE.
• He was succeeded by his uncle Krishna I, who ascended the throne after Dantidurga's demise.
• Krishna I is famously credited with commissioning the construction of the Kailasa Temple at Ellora, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, showcasing architectural brilliance.
• Under Krishna I's reign, the Rashtrakuta dynasty expanded significantly, consolidating power in the Deccan region of India.
• Krishna I was instrumental in strengthening the administrative and military frameworks of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, ensuring its stability and growth.

Additional Information

• Amoghavarsha III:
• Amoghavarsha III was a later ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty, succeeding his father Govinda IV.
• His reign marked the decline of Rashtrakuta power as he faced challenges from Chola and other regional powers.
• Amoghavarsha III's rule was characterized by political instability and weakening central authority.
• Amoghavarsha I:
• Amoghavarsha I was one of the most prominent rulers of the Rashtrakuta dynasty and is considered one of the greatest monarchs of Indian history.
• He ruled from 814 CE to 878 CE and was known for his patronage of art, literature, and architecture.
• Amoghavarsha I authored "Kavirajamarga," the first known literary work in Kannada, emphasizing the richness of Rashtrakuta cultural contributions.
• His reign marked the zenith of Rashtrakuta power, with extensive territorial expansion and cultural achievements.
• Govinda II:
• Govinda II was the son of Krishna I and succeeded him as the ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
• His reign was relatively short, and historical records suggest he was a weaker ruler compared to his predecessors.
• Govinda II faced internal challenges and was eventually succeeded by his brother Dhruva Dharavarsha, who restored the dynasty's strength.

The correct answer is Bronze.

Key Points

• Aman Sehrawat won the Bronze medal in the men’s 57kg freestyle wrestling event at the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• He became the first Indian wrestler to secure a medal in this weight category at the Paris Olympics.
• Aman is known for his agility, technique, and determination, which have contributed to his success on the international stage.
• This achievement marked an important milestone in his wrestling career and added to India’s overall medal tally in the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• He has been a promising young talent in Indian wrestling, following in the footsteps of legends like Bajrang Punia and Sushil Kumar.

Additional Information

• Sakshi Malik: The first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal in wrestling, securing a Bronze at the 2016 Rio Olympics (58kg).
• Vinesh Phogat: A pioneering wrestler, she is the first Indian woman to win gold in both Commonwealth and Asian Games, and the first Indian woman to reach an Olympic final (Paris 2024, 50kg). She is also the only Indian woman to win multiple World Championship medals.
• Geeta Phogat: Became the first Indian woman to qualify for the Olympics (2012) and won India's first-ever Commonwealth Games gold in wrestling (2010).
• Babita Phogat: Commonwealth Games Gold medalist (2014) and multiple-time medalist at the Commonwealth and Asian Championships.
• A nshu Malik: First Indian woman to win a Silver medal at the World Wrestling Championships (2021).

The correct answer is The total value of goods and services consumed by households in an economy.

Key Points

• Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) refers to the total value of goods and services consumed by households in an economy during a specific period.
• PFCE is a major component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and accounts for a significant proportion of economic activity in most countries.
• It includes expenditures on durable goods (e.g., cars, appliances), non-durable goods (e.g., food, clothing), and services (e.g., healthcare, education).
• PFCE is an indicator of the purchasing power and living standards of households in an economy.
• PFCE data is used by policymakers and economists to evaluate consumer behavior, analyze economic trends, and design policies for economic growth.

Additional Information

• Key Aspects of GDP:
• Formula (Expenditure Method): $GDP=C+I+G+(X-M)$ (Consumption + Investment + Government Spending + Net Exports).
• Types:
• Nominal GDP: Measured at current market prices.
• Real GDP: Adjusted for inflation, reflecting true production volume.
• GDP Per Capita: Total GDP divided by population, indicating average individual income
• Components: Consumption (household spending) usually makes up the largest share (65-70%).
• Calculation Methods: Production (value-added), Expenditure (spending), and Income (income earned).

The correct answer is Satavahana.

Key Points

• Gautamiputra Satakarni was one of the greatest rulers of the Satavahana dynasty, which ruled significant parts of India around the 1^st century BCE to 3^rd century CE.
• He is known for his efforts to revive the Satavahana dynasty, which had suffered significant setbacks due to foreign invasions and internal conflicts.
• Gautamiputra Satakarni is credited with defeating the Shakas, Yavanas, and Pahlavas, restoring the glory and territorial integrity of his kingdom.
• Under his rule, the Satavahana Empire extended over a vast territory, covering present-day Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and parts of Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka.
• He is mentioned in the Nasik Prashasti (eulogy), composed by his mother, Gautami Balashri, which highlights his achievements, including his adherence to Vedic traditions.

Additional Information

• Kakatiya Dynasty
• The Kakatiya dynasty was a powerful South Indian dynasty that ruled over present-day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh from the 12^th to the 14^th century CE.
• They are known for their contributions to temple architecture, including the famous Ramappa Temple, which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The most prominent ruler of this dynasty was Rudrama Devi, one of the few female rulers in Indian history.
• Pallava Dynasty
• The Pallavas were a South Indian dynasty that ruled from the 3^rd century to the 9^th century CE, primarily in Tamil Nadu and parts of Andhra Pradesh.
• They are renowned for their architectural achievements, including the rock-cut temples and monolithic structures of Mahabalipuram.
• Prominent rulers include Mahendravarman I and Narasimhavarman I, who were great patrons of art and architecture.
• Chola Dynasty
• The Cholas were one of the longest-ruling dynasties in South India, flourishing from the 9^th century to the 13^th century CE.
• Their rule extended across Tamil Nadu, parts of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and even overseas territories like Sri Lanka and the Maldives.
• The Cholas are celebrated for their administrative brilliance and monumental architecture, such as the Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur.

The correct answer is Starch.

Key Points

• Raw potatoes are a rich source of carbohydrates, specifically in the form of starch, which is the primary energy reserve in plants.
• Starch constitutes approximately 15-20% of a raw potato's weight, depending on the variety.
• Starch in raw potatoes is a complex carbohydrate, making it a valuable source of slow-releasing energy.
• Raw potato starch contains a significant amount of resistant starch, which is not digested in the small intestine and acts as a prebiotic to promote gut health.
• Starch is widely used in the food industry, with potatoes being one of the primary sources for commercial starch production globally.

Additional Information

• Fat:
• Raw potatoes contain a negligible amount of fat (approximately 0.1 grams per 100 grams).
• Fat is a macronutrient primarily found in foods like oils, nuts, seeds, and animal products, not in raw potatoes.
• Potatoes are considered a low-fat food, making them suitable for low-fat diets.
• Vitamin:
• Raw potatoes are a good source of certain vitamins, particularly vitamin C, which acts as an antioxidant and supports immune function.
• They also contain small amounts of vitamins B6 and folate, which are essential for brain health and red blood cell production.
• However, vitamins are not the predominant nutrient in raw potatoes compared to starch.
• Protein:
• Raw potatoes contain about 2 grams of protein per 100 grams.
• The protein content in potatoes is relatively low and does not make them a significant source of protein.
• However, the protein in potatoes contains essential amino acids, making it of good quality.

The correct answer is Iron ore, coking coal and limestone.

Key Points

• Iron ore: It is the primary raw material for producing iron and steel. The iron extracted from iron ore is used to form steel through a combination of processes, including smelting and refining.
• Coking coal: Also known as metallurgical coal, it is used to produce coke, which serves as a reducing agent in the blast furnace during the production of steel.
• Limestone: It acts as a flux in the steel-making process, combining with impurities and forming slag, which is removed to purify the molten steel.
• The combination of these three raw materials ensures the production of steel with desired mechanical and chemical properties.
• Steel production involves various processes such as smelting in blast furnaces and refining in basic oxygen furnaces or electric arc furnaces, all of which require iron ore, coking coal, and limestone.

Additional Information

• Iron and Steel Industry:
• The iron and steel industry is one of the most important industries globally, providing the foundation for infrastructure, transportation, and machinery.
• Steel is produced in two main methods: integrated steel-making (using blast furnaces) and electric arc furnace steel-making (recycling scrap steel).
• India is one of the largest producers of steel, with the availability of abundant iron ore reserves and coal resources.

The correct answer is Vice President.

Key Points

• As per Article 64 of the Constitution of India, the Vice President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
• The Vice President acts as the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha and is responsible for ensuring its smooth functioning.
• In the absence of the Vice President, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the proceedings.
• The Vice President is elected by the members of the Electoral College, consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, through a system of proportional representation.
• The Vice President does not directly participate in the legislative discussions but ensures decorum and discipline during the sessions.

Additional Information

• President
• The President of India is the head of state and the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces.
• As per Article 52, the President's role is not linked to being the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• However, the President summons and prorogues the sessions of Parliament and gives assent to bills passed by both Houses.
• Lok Sabha Speaker
• The Lok Sabha Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament.
• The Speaker's responsibilities include maintaining order during debates, deciding on points of order, and ensuring the smooth functioning of the Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker does not have jurisdiction over the Rajya Sabha.
• Prime Minister
• The Prime Minister of India is the head of the government and leads the Executive branch.
• The Prime Minister is not a presiding officer of either house of Parliament, but he/she is the leader of the ruling party and plays a key role in policy-making and legislative processes.

The correct answer is Chennai.

Key Points

• The SAFF Junior Athletics Championships 2024 will be hosted in Chennai, India, a major sports hub in the country.
• Chennai has been known for its excellent sports facilities and infrastructure, which makes it an ideal venue for hosting international sporting events.
• The event is expected to draw participants from across South Asian countries, showcasing young athletes' talent in various disciplines.
• This championship aims to promote regional cooperation and camaraderie through sports among South Asian nations.
• Chennai has previously hosted numerous international and national-level competitions, further establishing its reputation as a center for athletics and other sports activities.

Additional Information

• New Delhi:
• New Delhi, the capital city of India, is a popular venue for national and international events, including athletics championships.
• It houses the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, one of the largest multipurpose stadiums in India, often used for events like the Commonwealth Games and Asian Games.
• However, it was not chosen as the venue for the SAFF Junior Athletics Championships 2024.
• Chandigarh:
• Chandigarh is a planned city in northern India known for its sports facilities like the Punjab University Athletics Stadium.
• While it has hosted various sports events, it is not the venue for the 2024 SAFF Junior Athletics Championships.
• Kochi:
• Kochi, located in the state of Kerala, is renowned for its sports culture and facilities, including the Jawaharlal Nehru International Stadium, commonly used for football and cricket.
• Despite its prominence, Kochi was not selected as the host city for this specific event.

The correct answer is Household consumption + Government expenditure + Investment + Export - Import.

Key Points

• The formula for calculating national income is based on the expenditure approach, which considers the total spending on the final goods and services within an economy during a specific period.
• According to this approach, national income is calculated as:

National Income = Household Consumption + Government Expenditure + Investment + (Exports - Imports).

• Household consumption refers to the expenditure incurred by households on goods and services for personal use, such as food, clothing, housing, and entertainment.
• Government expenditure includes all spending by the government on public goods, infrastructure, defense, education, healthcare, and other services.
• Investment accounts for capital formation in the economy, including spending on machinery, infrastructure, and buildings.
• Exports minus imports (Net Exports) reflects the net impact of a country's trade with the rest of the world. Positive net exports add to the national income, while negative net exports reduce it.

Additional Information

• Key Aspects of GDP:
• Formula (Expenditure Method): $GDP=C+I+G+(X-M)$ (Consumption + Investment + Government Spending + Net Exports).
• Types:
• Nominal GDP: Measured at current market prices.
• Real GDP: Adjusted for inflation, reflecting true production volume.
• GDP Per Capita: Total GDP divided by population, indicating average individual income.
• Components: Consumption (household spending) usually makes up the largest share (65-70%).
• Calculation Methods: Production (value-added), Expenditure (spending), and Income (income earned).

The correct answer is propagation medium.

Key Points

• The speed of a wave depends on the properties of the medium through which it travels.
• Density, elasticity, and tension of the medium affect speed.
• Different media allow waves to travel at different speeds.

Additional Information

• Energy of wave 
• Energy depends on amplitude, not wave speed.
• Increasing energy does not change the speed of the wave.
• Wave speed remains constant for a given medium.
• Amplitude of wave 
• Amplitude affects the height/intensity of the wave.
• It does not influence how fast the wave travels.
• Speed remains unchanged even if amplitude increases.
• Frequency of wave 
• Frequency is set by the source of the wave.
• Changing frequency changes wavelength, not speed.
• In the same medium, wave speed stays constant.

The correct answer is English.

Key Points

• In 1965, English was given the status of an "associate additional official language" of the Union of India alongside Hindi.
• This provision was made under the Official Languages Act, 1963, to address linguistic diversity and ensure smooth communication across states.
• The decision arose from concerns among non-Hindi-speaking states, particularly in South India, about the imposition of Hindi as the sole official language.
• Article 343 of the Indian Constitution originally stipulated Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language, with English intended for use only for 15 years post-Independence (1947-1965).
• To accommodate regional linguistic diversity and facilitate inter-state communication, English has continued to serve as an associate official language to date.

Additional Information

• Urdu:
• Urdu is one of the 22 scheduled languages of India as per the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• It is widely spoken in states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Telangana, and Jammu & Kashmir and is considered a language of cultural and historical significance.
• However, it was not granted the status of associate official language in 1965.
• Sanskrit:
• Sanskrit, an ancient Indian language, is often referred to as the "mother of all languages" due to its influence on many Indian languages.
• It holds cultural and historical importance but is not widely used as a language of daily communication.
• Sanskrit is one of the 22 scheduled languages of India but was not considered for associate official status.
• Hindi:
• Hindi, in the Devanagari script, is the official language of the Union as per Article 343 of the Indian Constitution.
• It is the most widely spoken language in India and serves as a unifying medium for communication in many states.
• Although Hindi is the primary official language, English was retained as an associate official language to address the needs of non-Hindi-speaking states.
• Background on Official Languages:
• The linguistic diversity of India necessitated the adoption of a flexible language policy to maintain national unity and administrative efficiency.
• The Official Languages Act of 1963 ensures the continued use of English for official purposes along with Hindi.
• This dual-language policy aims to balance the interests of Hindi-speaking and non-Hindi-speaking populations.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• Rythu Bazars are a unique agricultural marketing initiative launched in the state of Andhra Pradesh to ensure direct market access for farmers.
• The concept of Rythu Bazars was introduced in 1999 under the leadership of the then Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, N. Chandrababu Naidu.
• These markets aim to eliminate middlemen by providing farmers a platform to sell their produce directly to consumers at fair prices.
• Rythu Bazars operate across various cities and towns in Andhra Pradesh and are regulated by the government to ensure transparency and fairness in transactions.
• Such markets also ensure that consumers get fresh produce at reasonable prices while enhancing the income of small and marginal farmers.

Additional Information

• Rajasthan:
• Rajasthan is an agriculturally significant state but does not have a dedicated marketing initiative similar to Rythu Bazars.
• The state focuses on agricultural innovations like drip irrigation and crop diversification due to its arid and semi-arid climate.
• Pune:
• Pune is a city in Maharashtra and not a state. However, Maharashtra has introduced initiatives like APMC (Agricultural Produce Market Committees) to regulate agricultural trade.
• The state also promotes farmer-producer organizations (FPOs) to enhance agricultural marketing efficiency.
• Tamil Nadu:
• Tamil Nadu has introduced farmer-friendly policies and initiatives like Uzhavar Sandhai, which is similar to Rythu Bazars.
• Uzhavar Sandhai markets allow farmers to directly sell their produce to consumers without the involvement of middlemen.

The correct answer is Ravi.

Key Points

• The Ravi River originates west of the Rohtang Pass in the Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh, India.
• It flows through the Chamba Valley in Himachal Pradesh, which is a prominent feature of its course.
• The Ravi is one of the five rivers of the Punjab region, which gave the region its name ("Punj" meaning five and "ab" meaning water).
• This river eventually joins the Chenab River in Pakistan, which is part of the Indus River system.
• The Ravi River is historically significant and is mentioned in ancient Indian texts as the "Iravati."

Additional Information

• Kosi River
• The Kosi River, also known as the "Sorrow of Bihar," originates from the Tibetan Plateau, near Mount Everest, and flows through Nepal and Bihar in India.
• It is known for its frequent course changes and devastating floods in the northern plains of Bihar.
• The Kosi is one of the tributaries of the Ganga River system.
• Padma River
• The Padma River is the main distributary of the Ganga River and flows through Bangladesh.
• It originates near the India-Bangladesh border and flows southeast, joining the Meghna River before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• In India, it is referred to as the Ganga before it bifurcates into the Padma and Bhagirathi-Hooghly rivers.
• Bhagirathi River
• The Bhagirathi River originates from the Gangotri Glacier in Uttarakhand, India, at Gaumukh.
• It is one of the two headstreams of the Ganga River, the other being the Alaknanda River.
• The Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda at Devprayag, where they together form the Ganga River.
• Rivers of Himachal Pradesh
• Himachal Pradesh is home to several important rivers, including the Ravi, Beas, Chenab, Sutlej, and Yamuna.
• These rivers are part of the Indus River system and are fed by glaciers and snowmelt from the Himalayas.
• They play a crucial role in agriculture, hydroelectric power generation, and water supply in the region.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2,900

Rate of Interest (R) = 5% per annum

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (2,900 × 5 × 3) / 100

⇒ SI = (43,500) / 100

⇒ SI = 435

∴ The correct answer is 435.

Shortcut Trick

Apply compounded growth for 2 years: 20,00,000 × (1.03)² = 21,21,800.

Apply 3^rd year growth: 21,21,800 × 1.03 = 21,85,454.

Subtract epidemic deaths occurring one year ago: 21,85,454 − (500 × 1.03) = 21,85,454 − 515.

Since the death occurred one year ago, those 500 would have grown by 3% if they lived.

Actual population = 20,00,000 × (1.03)³ − 500 × (1.03)⁰... Wait, deaths occurred 1 year ago, so they are subtracted from the total after the 2^nd year's growth.

∴ The correct answer is 21,84,939.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Population = 20,00,000 | Rate = 3% | Time = 3 years | Deaths = 500 (1 year ago).

⇒ Population 2 years ago = 20,00,000 + 3% of 20,00,000 = 20,60,000

⇒ Population 1 year ago (before deaths) = 20,60,000 + 3% of 20,60,000 = 21,21,800

⇒ Population 1 year ago (after deaths) = 21,21,800 − 500 = 21,21,300

⇒ Present Population = 21,21,300 + 3% of 21,21,300

⇒ Present Population = 21,21,300 + 63,639 = 21,84,939

∴ The correct answer is 21,84,939.

Additional Information

Population Growth Formula

The population after n years is given by P × (1 + R/100)ⁿ, where P is the initial population and R is the growth rate.

Successive Percentage Change

When values change sequentially, use the net change formula a + b + (ab/100) or multiplying factors for each stage.

Net Population with Migration/Death

Subtract or add specific values at the exact time point they occur in the timeline before applying further growth rates.

Given:

Initial population = 1,70,000

Population migrated = 4% of 1,70,000

Population died = 1% of 1,70,000

Formula Used:

Population migrated = Initial population × (Percentage migrated / 100)

Population died = Initial population × (Percentage died / 100)

Present population = Initial population - (Population migrated + Population died)

Calculation:

⇒ Population migrated = 1,70,000 × (4 / 100)

⇒ Population migrated = 6,800

⇒ Population died = 1,70,000 × (1 / 100)

⇒ Population died = 1,700

⇒ Present population = 1,70,000 - (6,800 + 1,700)

⇒ Present population = 1,70,000 - 8,500

⇒ Present population = 1,61,500

∴ The correct answer is 1,61,500.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2,900

Rate of interest (R) = 6%

Time (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (2900 × 6 × 3) / 100

⇒ SI = (52200) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹522

∴ The correct answer is ₹522.

Given:

Average price of three items = ₹17,835

Ratio of prices = 3 : 5 : 7

Formula Used:

Total price = Average price × Number of items

Price of cheapest item = (Ratio of cheapest item / Sum of ratios) × Total price

Calculation:

⇒ Total price = ₹17,835 × 3

⇒ Total price = ₹53,505

⇒ Sum of ratios = 3 + 5 + 7

⇒ Sum of ratios = 15

⇒ Price of cheapest item = (3 / 15) × ₹53,505

⇒ Price of cheapest item = ₹10,701

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,701.

Given:

Average price of three items = ₹17,805

Ratio of their prices = 3 : 5 : 7

Formula Used:

Sum of items = Average × Number of items

Individual value = (Ratio of item / Sum of ratios) × Total sum

Calculation:

⇒ Sum of items = ₹17,805 × 3

⇒ Sum of items = ₹53,415

⇒ Sum of ratios = 3 + 5 + 7 = 15

⇒ Price of cheapest item = (3 / 15) × ₹53,415

⇒ Price of cheapest item = ₹10,683

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,683.

Given:

Initial population = 20,00,000

Decrease in 1^st year = 4%

Increase in 2^nd year = 5%

Increase in 3^rd year = 10%

Formula Used:

Population after decrease/increase = Previous population × (1 ± percentage change/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Population after 1^st year = 20,00,000 × (1 - 4/100)

⇒ Population after 1^st year = 20,00,000 × 0.96

⇒ Population after 1^st year = 19,20,000

⇒ Population after 2^nd year = 19,20,000 × (1 + 5/100)

⇒ Population after 2^nd year = 19,20,000 × 1.05

⇒ Population after 2^nd year = 20,16,000

⇒ Population after 3^rd year = 20,16,000 × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ Population after 3^rd year = 20,16,000 × 1.10

⇒ Population after 3^rd year = 22,17,600

⇒ Total increase in population = Final population - Initial population

⇒ Total increase = 22,17,600 - 20,00,000

⇒ Total increase = 2,17,600

∴ The correct answer is 2,17,600.

Given:

Height (h) = 12 cm

Radius of lower end (r₁) = 6 cm

Radius of upper end (r₂) = 15 cm

Cost of metal per cm² = ₹100

π = 3.14

Formula Used:

Lateral Surface Area of frustum = π × (r₁ + r₂) × l

Total Surface Area = Lateral Surface Area + Area of lower circular base

Cost = Total Surface Area × Cost per cm²

l = √(h² + (r₂ - r₁)²)

Calculation:

⇒ l = √(12² + (15 - 6)²)

⇒ l = √(144 + 81)

⇒ l = √225

⇒ l = 15 cm

⇒ Lateral Surface Area = 3.14 × (6 + 15) × 15

⇒ Lateral Surface Area = 3.14 × 21 × 15

⇒ Lateral Surface Area = 989.1 cm²

⇒ Area of lower circular base = π × r₁²

⇒ Area of lower circular base = 3.14 × 6²

⇒ Area of lower circular base = 3.14 × 36

⇒ Area of lower circular base = 113.04 cm²

⇒ Total Surface Area = 989.1 + 113.04

⇒ Total Surface Area = 1102.14 cm²

⇒ Cost = 1102.14 × 100

⇒ Cost = ₹1,10,214

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,10,214.

Given:

Listed price = 94% more than cost price

Discount = 73%

Formula Used:

Loss Percentage = [(Cost Price - Selling Price) / Cost Price] × 100

Selling Price = Listed Price × (1 - Discount/100)

Listed Price = Cost Price × (1 + Markup/100)

Calculation:

⇒ Listed Price = Cost Price × (1 + 94/100)

⇒ Listed Price = Cost Price × 1.94

⇒ Selling Price = Listed Price × (1 - 73/100)

⇒ Selling Price = Cost Price × 1.94 × 0.27

⇒ Selling Price = Cost Price × 0.5238

⇒ Loss = Cost Price - Selling Price

⇒ Loss = Cost Price - (Cost Price × 0.5238)

⇒ Loss = Cost Price × (1 - 0.5238)

⇒ Loss = Cost Price × 0.4762

⇒ Loss Percentage = (Loss / Cost Price) × 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = (0.4762 / 1) × 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = 47.62%

∴ The correct answer is 47.62%.

Given:

Kiran's initial capital = ₹50,000

Time Kiran invests = 12 months

Zarina joins after 7 months

Total time Zarina invests = 12 - 7 = 5 months

Profit ratio = 3 : 2

Formula Used:

Capital × Time = Investment Contribution

Profit ratio = Kiran's Investment Contribution : Zarina's Investment Contribution

Calculation:

⇒ Kiran's Investment Contribution = ₹50,000 × 12 = ₹600,000

⇒ Let Zarina's capital be ₹x.

⇒ Zarina's Investment Contribution = ₹x × 5

⇒ Profit ratio = Kiran's Contribution : Zarina's Contribution

⇒ 600,000 : 5x = 3 : 2

⇒ (600,000 / 5x) = (3 / 2)

⇒ 600,000 × 2 = 3 × 5x

⇒ 1,200,000 = 15x

⇒ x = 1,200,000 / 15

⇒ x = ₹80,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹80,000.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹12,00,000

Time (T) = 6 years

Simple Interest (SI) increase = 60% of the principal

Time for compound interest = 3 years

Formula Used:

Rate (R) = (SI × 100) / (P × T)

Compound Interest (CI) = P × [(1 + R / 100)^T - 1]

Calculation:

⇒ SI = 60% of ₹12,00,000 = (60 / 100) × 12,00,000 = ₹7,20,000

⇒ R = (SI × 100) / (P × T) = (7,20,000 × 100) / (12,00,000 × 6)

⇒ R = 10%

⇒ CI = P × [(1 + R / 100)^T - 1]

⇒ CI = 12,00,000 × [(1 + 10 / 100)³ - 1]

⇒ CI = 12,00,000 × [(1 + 0.1)³ - 1]

⇒ CI = 12,00,000 × [(1.1)³ - 1]

⇒ CI = 12,00,000 × [1.331 - 1]

⇒ CI = 12,00,000 × 0.331

⇒ CI = ₹3,97,200

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,97,200.

Given:

Loss percentage for X = 28%

Profit percentage for Y = 40%

Selling price for Z = ₹3,906

Formula Used:

Cost price = Selling price / (1 ± Percentage/100)

Step-by-step calculation: CP of X → SP of X = CP of Y → SP of Y = CP of Z

Calculation:

⇒ Cost price for Z = ₹3,906

⇒ Selling price for Y = Cost price for Z / (1 + 40/100)

⇒ Selling price for Y = ₹3,906 / 1.4

⇒ Selling price for Y = ₹2,790

⇒ Cost price for X = Selling price for Y / (1 - 28/100)

⇒ Cost price for X = ₹2,790 / 0.72

⇒ Cost price for X = ₹3,875

∴ The correct answer is ₹3,875.

Given:

Proportion: X : Y : Z : W = 5 : 2 : 4 : 3

Z gets ₹2,00,000 more than W.

Formula Used:

Total amount = k × (5 + 2 + 4 + 3)

Z's share - W's share = ₹2,00,000

k = Constant multiplier

Calculation:

⇒ Z's share = 4k

⇒ W's share = 3k

⇒ 4k - 3k = ₹2,00,000

⇒ k = ₹2,00,000

⇒ Total amount = ₹2,00,000 × (5 + 2 + 4 + 3)

⇒ Total amount = ₹2,00,000 × 14

⇒ Total amount = ₹28,00,000

⇒ X's share = 5k = 5 × ₹2,00,000

⇒ X's share = ₹10,00,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹10,00,000.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2,900

Rate of interest (R) = 5% per annum

Time (T) = 4 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (₹2,900 × 5 × 4) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹58,000 / 100

⇒ SI = ₹580

∴ The correct answer is ₹580.

Given:

Average of 14 numbers = 94

First 7 numbers = 31, 33, 44, 87, 106, 70, 14

Formula Used:

Total sum of numbers = Average × Total numbers

Sum of remaining numbers = Total sum - Sum of first 7 numbers

Average of remaining numbers = Sum of remaining numbers / Number of remaining numbers

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum of numbers = 94 × 14

⇒ Total sum of numbers = 1316

⇒ Sum of first 7 numbers = 31 + 33 + 44 + 87 + 106 + 70 + 14

⇒ Sum of first 7 numbers = 385

⇒ Sum of remaining numbers = Total sum - Sum of first 7 numbers

⇒ Sum of remaining numbers = 1316 - 385

⇒ Sum of remaining numbers = 931

⇒ Average of remaining numbers = Sum of remaining numbers / Number of remaining numbers

⇒ Average of remaining numbers = 931 / 7

⇒ Average of remaining numbers = 133

∴ The correct answer is 133.

Given:

Length = 35 m

Breadth = 30 m

Height = 2 m

Formula Used:

Volume of a cuboid = Length × Breadth × Height

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = 35 × 30 × 2

⇒ Volume = 1050 × 2

⇒ Volume = 2100 m³

∴ The correct answer is 2100.

Given:

Total sum invested = ₹25,00,000

Fraction invested in recurring deposit = 3/5

Rate of compound interest = 12% per annum

Time period for compound interest = 2 years

Remaining fraction invested in simple interest = 2/5

Rate of simple interest = 12% per annum

Time period for simple interest = 2 years

Formula Used:

Compound Interest (CI) = P × (1 + R/100)^T - P

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Difference in interest = CI - SI

Calculation:

Amount invested in compound interest ⇒ (3/5) × ₹25,00,000 = ₹15,00,000

Amount invested in simple interest ⇒ (2/5) × ₹25,00,000 = ₹10,00,000

CI on ₹15,00,000:

⇒ CI = ₹15,00,000 × (1 + 12/100)² - ₹15,00,000

⇒ CI = ₹15,00,000 × (1.12)² - ₹15,00,000

⇒ CI = ₹15,00,000 × 1.2544 - ₹15,00,000

⇒ CI = ₹18,81,600 - ₹15,00,000

⇒ CI = ₹3,81,600

SI on ₹10,00,000:

⇒ SI = (₹10,00,000 × 12 × 2) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹2,40,000

Difference in interest:

⇒ Difference = ₹3,81,600 - ₹2,40,000

⇒ Difference = ₹1,41,600

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,41,600.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹2,900

Rate of Interest (R) = 7% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ SI = (2,900 × 7 × 2) / 100

⇒ SI = (40,600) / 100

⇒ SI = ₹406

∴ The correct answer is ₹406.

Given:

Kiran spends 60% of his income.

He saves ₹96,000.

Formula Used:

Total income = Savings / (1 - Spending percentage).

Calculation:

⇒ Spending percentage = 60% = 60 / 100 = 0.6

⇒ Savings percentage = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4

⇒ Total income = ₹96,000 / 0.4

⇒ Total income = ₹2,40,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,40,000.

Given:

Average runs over 8 innings = 54

Runs scored in 9^th inning = 267

Total innings = 9

Formula Used:

Total runs = Average × Number of innings

New average = Total runs / Total innings

Increase in average = New average - Old average

Calculation:

⇒ Total runs for 8 innings = 54 × 8

⇒ Total runs for 8 innings = 432

⇒ Total runs for 9 innings = 432 + 267

⇒ Total runs for 9 innings = 699

⇒ New average = 699 / 9

⇒ New average = 77.67

⇒ Increase in average = 77.67 - 54

⇒ Increase in average = 23.67

⇒ Rounded increase in average = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Restrained.

Key Points

• The word "ostentatious" means characterized by vulgar or pretentious display; designed to impress or attract notice. (दिखावटी)
• Example: She wore an ostentatious necklace to the party, which caught everyone’s attention.
• "Restrained" refers to being characterized by moderation or reserve; not excessive or extravagant. (संयमित)
• Example: His restrained response to criticism showed his maturity and professionalism.
• Hence, the opposite of 'ostentatious' is 'restrained', as it conveys the idea of moderation and simplicity, which is the antonym of being showy or extravagant.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Restrained.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Extravagant (फिजूलखर्च): Lacking restraint in spending money or using resources.
• Example: His extravagant lifestyle led to his financial downfall.
• Flamboyant (चमकदार): Tending to attract attention because of their exuberance, confidence, and stylishness.
• Example: The actor's flamboyant outfit at the event caught everyone’s eye.
• Pretentious (दिखावटी): Attempting to impress by affecting greater importance, talent, culture, etc., than is actually possessed.
• Example: His pretentious remarks made him seem insincere to the audience.

The correct answer is: Foreshadowing.

Key Points

• "Foreshadowing" is a literary technique where authors provide subtle hints or clues about events that will occur later in the story. (पूर्वाभास)
• Example: In a mystery novel, the author might mention a seemingly unimportant object that later becomes crucial to solving the case.
• Foreshadowing creates anticipation and suspense for readers, preparing them for significant plot developments. (पूर्वाभास कहानी में आने वाले घटनाओं की ओर इशारा करता है और पाठकों को तैयार करता है।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Foreshadowing.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Synecdoche (अंशात्मक): A figure of speech in which a part of something represents the whole, or vice versa.
• Example: Referring to a car as "wheels" is an example of synecdoche.
• Metaphor (रूपक): A figure of speech that directly compares two different things without using "like" or "as."
• Example: "Time is a thief" is a metaphor suggesting that time takes away valuable moments in life.
• Flashback (पुनरावलोकन): A literary technique where past events are described in the narrative to provide context or explain the present.
• Example: In a story, a character might recall childhood memories to explain their current actions.

The correct answer is 'older than'.

Key Points

• The correct phrase to compare age is "older than" and not "elder from" or "elder to".
• The word "elder" is used without "than" and typically in contexts of family relationships (e.g., "my elder brother").
• Option 3 ("oldest than") is incorrect because "oldest" is the superlative form and does not fit the comparison here.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "Tara is older than her friend Priya."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "elder from" is incorrect because "from" is not used in comparisons of age.
• Option 2: "elder to" is incorrect because "elder" is not used with "to" for comparisons.
• Option 3: "oldest than" is grammatically incorrect as "oldest" is a superlative and should not be used with "than."

The correct answer is 'as many as'.

Key Points

• The phrase "as many as" is used to indicate a specific number when referring to countable nouns (like "candidates").
• The sentence refers to a specific quantity ("five candidates"), and since "candidates" is countable, "as many as" is appropriate.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "As many as five candidates were selected for the final round of interviews."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "as more as" is incorrect; it is not a valid construction in English.
• Option 2: "as most as" is incorrect; it is not grammatically valid.
• Option 3: "as much as" is incorrect as it is used for uncountable nouns, not countable nouns like "candidates."

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The idiom "By the skin of your teeth" means narrowly escaping or achieving something by a very small margin. (बहुत कम अंतर से बचना)
• Example: He passed the exam by the skin of his teeth, scoring just above the cut-off mark.
• Here, the phrase suggests a close call or barely managing to do something successfully.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Run swiftly (तेज़ी से दौड़ना): To move or run very fast.
• Example: The athlete ran swiftly to secure the first position in the race.
• Option 3: Speak confidently (आत्मविश्वास से बोलना): To express oneself with assurance and boldness.
• Example: She spoke confidently during her job interview, impressing the panel.
• Option 4: Walk quickly (तेज़ी से चलना): To move or proceed at a fast pace.
• Example: He walked quickly to catch the bus before it left.

The correct answer is 'the; No article required'.

Key Points

• The definite article "the" is used before "rights" as it refers to specific rights that are being advocated.
• No article is required before "women" because it refers to women in general, not a particular group.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they use incorrect articles or combinations that do not fit the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "She is an advocate for the rights of women in rural areas."

Additional Information

• Option 2: "No article required; a" is incorrect because "a" cannot be used before "women."
• Option 3: "a; No article required" is incorrect because "a" cannot be used before "rights."
• Option 4: "the; a" is incorrect because "a" cannot be used before "women."

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Questionaire'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Questionnaire'.
• The word 'Questionnaire' is a noun which means 'a set of printed or written questions used for collecting information'.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Questionaire'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words -

• Consensus - general agreement.
• Millennium - a period of a thousand years.
• Occurrence - an incident or event.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with the doctors implementing a new treatment protocol.
• Sentence B is the first sentence as it introduces the new treatment protocol:
• "Doctors implemented a new treatment protocol based on recent clinical trials."
• Sentence D follows because it explains the evidence from trials that justified the protocol:
• "The trials indicated a higher efficacy rate than the traditional treatment methods."
• Sentence C is the third sentence as it describes the specifics of the protocol:
• "This protocol introduced a combination of drugs previously untested together."
• Sentence A is the fourth as it concludes with the positive outcome:
• "There was a notable improvement in patient outcomes as a result."
• The correct sequence is BDCA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Doctors implemented a new treatment protocol based on recent clinical trials. The trials indicated a higher efficacy rate than the traditional treatment methods. This protocol introduced a combination of drugs previously untested together. There was a notable improvement in patient outcomes as a result."

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by highlighting the problem of poor sales performance.
• Sentence B is the first sentence as it introduces the issue:
• "Initially, the product did not meet the expected sales targets."
• Sentence C follows as it explains the response to the problem:
• "As a result, the marketing strategy was completely revamped."
• Sentence D is the third sentence because it details the specific changes made:
• "This included introducing more aggressive advertising and new packaging."
• Sentence A is the fourth as it concludes with the positive outcome:
• "The market has shown a favourable response to this innovative approach."
• The correct sequence is BCDA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Initially, the product did not meet the expected sales targets. As a result, the marketing strategy was completely revamped. This included introducing more aggressive advertising and new packaging. The market has shown a favourable response to this innovative approach."

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The proverb "Empty vessels make the most sound" refers to people who often speak loudly or excessively but lack knowledge or substance. (खाली बर्तन सबसे अधिक शोर करते हैं)
• Example: During the meeting, it was evident that the person constantly interrupting others had little understanding of the topic.
• "Disruptive chatter" refers to unnecessary or loud speaking that disturbs the environment. (विघटनकारी बात)
• Example: The students’ disruptive chatter distracted others during the class.
• Hence, the proverb highlights how people with less knowledge or substance often make the most noise.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: Vessels make a loud noise when they are not filled (खाली बर्तन जोर से शोर करते हैं): This is a literal interpretation of the proverb, not its intended metaphorical meaning.
• Example: When I dropped the empty pot, it made a loud noise.
• Option 2: Quiet people are much wiser in quieter environments (शांत लोग शांत वातावरण में अधिक समझदार होते हैं): This is unrelated to the meaning of the proverb and focuses on a different context entirely.
• Example: Introverts often excel in calm and focused settings.
• Option 4: Noise can be really distracting for any kind of work (शोर किसी भी काम के लिए वास्तव में विचलित कर सकता है): While true, this does not relate to the proverb’s meaning about people with less knowledge speaking loudly.
• Example: The construction noise outside was distracting during the exam.

The correct answer is 'an, the'.

Key Points

• The article "an" is used before words that start with a vowel sound.
• The article "the" is used before the names of specific newspapers, such as "The Times of India."
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: "I found an interesting article on language in the Times of India."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "the, a" is incorrect because "the" is not appropriate before "interesting article".
• Option 2: "a, the" is incorrect because "a" cannot be used before a word starting with a vowel sound.
• Option 3: "no article, the" is incorrect because an article is required before "interesting article".

The correct answer is: Energetic.

Key Points

• The word "lethargic" means lacking energy, feeling drowsy, or sluggish. It is used to describe someone who is unwilling or unable to act due to tiredness or lack of motivation. (सुस्त, आलसी)
• Example: After staying awake all night, she felt so lethargic that she could barely keep her eyes open.
• "Energetic" is the opposite of lethargic. It means full of energy, active, and enthusiastic. (ऊर्जावान)
• Example: The children were so energetic after eating sweets that they played for hours without a break.
• Hence, the antonym of 'lethargic' is 'energetic'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Energetic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Listless (उदासीन): Lacking energy or enthusiasm, similar to lethargic.
• Example: She felt listless and uninterested in the work assigned to her.
• Torpid (निष्क्रिय ): Mentally or physically inactive; sluggish.
• Example: During the winter, many animals enter a torpid state to conserve energy.
• Sluggish (धीमा): Slow-moving or lacking in energy.
• Example: The sluggish progress of the project frustrated the entire team.

The correct answer is 'fastest'.

Key Points

• The word "fastest" is the superlative form of the adjective "fast."
• The sentence is comparing all the contestants, making the superlative form "fastest" the most appropriate choice.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "Out of all the contestants, she was the fastest to finish the race."

Additional Information

• Option 1: "more fast" is incorrect because "more" is used for comparatives, and "fast" requires either "faster" or "fastest."
• Option 2: "most fast" is incorrect because "most" is not the standard superlative form; the correct form is "fastest."
• Option 4: "faster" is incorrect because "faster" is the comparative form, not the superlative form.

The correct answer is: Jurisdiction.

Key Points

• The word "Jurisdiction" refers to the official power or authority to make legal decisions and judgments within a specific area or territory. (अधिकार क्षेत्र)
• Example: The case was transferred to the court that had jurisdiction over the matter.
• In the given sentence, "limits or territory within which authority may be exercised" is the meaning of jurisdiction.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Jurisdiction.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Sovereignty (संप्रभुता): Supreme power or authority, especially of a state or nation to govern itself.
• Example: The country fought hard to maintain its sovereignty against foreign invasion.
• Tombstone (कब्र का पत्थर): A stone marker placed at a grave to commemorate the deceased.
• Example: The tombstone bore a touching inscription about the life of the individual.
• Epitaph (समाधि लेख): A phrase or statement written in memory of a person who has died, especially as an inscription on a tombstone.
• Example: His epitaph read, "A beloved father and friend to all."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Committment'.

• The correct spelling would be 'Commitment'.
• The word 'Commitment' is a noun which means 'the state or quality of being dedicated to a cause or activity'. (प्रतिबद्धता)
• For Example -
• His commitment to his work is truly commendable.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'Committment'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words -

• Occurrence - an incident or event (घटना)
• Appearance - the way that someone or something looks (दिखावट)
• Conclusion - the end or finish of an event or process (निष्कर्ष)

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• Technology has replaced chalkboards and textbooks in traditional classrooms with interactive whiteboards, tablets, and educational software.
• This can be inferred from the passage, which states: "Interactive whiteboards, tablets and educational software have replaced chalkboards and textbooks, making lessons more engaging and interactive."
• Options like ‘school’, ‘playground’, and ‘teachers’ are not mentioned as being replaced in the passage.
• The passage specifically refers to the replacement of traditional teaching tools and materials, not the broader school environment or teachers themselves.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: Textbooks.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (School): Incorrect, as the passage doesn’t mention schools being replaced.
• Option 2 (Playground): Incorrect, as playgrounds are not discussed in the context of technology replacing them.
• Option 4 (Teachers): Incorrect, as teachers are mentioned as benefiting from technology, not being replaced by it.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• Adaptive learning software provides customised lessons tailored to each student's strengths and weaknesses, offering personalised training.
• According to the passage: "Adaptive learning software can assess a student's strengths and weaknesses and provide customised lessons that cater to their individual needs. This personalised approach helps students learn at their own pace..."
• It does not mention eliminating homework, reducing education cost, or replacing teachers as direct benefits.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: It gives personalised training.

Additional Information

• Option 1 (It eliminates homework): Incorrect, as the passage does not mention homework elimination.
• Option 2 (It reduces education cost): Incorrect, as cost reduction is not discussed as a benefit of adaptive learning software.
• Option 4 (It replaces teachers): Incorrect, because the software is described as a tool for personalisation, not as a replacement for teachers.

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses how technology has revolutionised and transformed education, impacting students, teachers, and the overall learning environment.
• It covers various aspects such as digital tools, personalised learning, accessibility, collaboration, benefits, and challenges of technology in education.
• Option 4, "The Role of Technology in Transforming Education," comprehensively encapsulates all the key themes of the passage.
• Other options are too narrow or focus only on one aspect, whereas the passage provides a broader perspective.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: The Role of Technology in Transforming Education.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, as the passage covers more than just personalised vs. traditional classrooms.
• Option 2: Incorrect, since the focus is not only on tools for teachers but also on students and the entire learning process.
• Option 3: Incorrect, as the digital divide is discussed but not the main theme of the passage.

The correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Key Points

• An inclusive learning environment considers the diversity of learners, accommodating different backgrounds, abilities, and learning needs.
• A dynamic learning environment encourages maximum participation, engagement, and adaptability.
• The passage mentions that leveraging technology can help create a more inclusive and dynamic environment, meaning that all students are considered and actively involved.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: Considering diversity and maximum participation.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, as it excludes diversity and maximum participation.
• Option 2: Incorrect, as minimum participation does not reflect a dynamic environment.
• Option 4: Incorrect for the same reasons as Option 1.

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

• The passage states: "This personalised approach helps students learn at their own pace, ensuring they grasp fundamental concepts before moving on to more advanced topics." This directly supports Option 2.
• Option 1 is incorrect because the passage mentions that technology enhances communication and collaboration, not reduces it.
• Option 3 is incorrect because the passage highlights the existence of a digital divide, indicating that educational inequalities still exist.
• Option 4 is incorrect as the passage states that students can access a wealth of information online, making no claim that they prefer textbooks over online resources.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: Adaptive software allows students to progress at their own pace.

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrect, as technology fosters communication and community.
• Option 3: Incorrect, since educational inequalities still exist due to the digital divide.
• Option 4: Incorrect, as the passage indicates a shift towards online resources.

वाक्य का सही क्रम होगा - मुझसे नारायणदास ने कहा था।

Key Points

• वाक्य का सही क्रम - मुझसे नारायणदास ने कहा था है।
• वाक्य को तार्किक और व्याकरणिक रूप -
• कर्ता और कारक: यहाँ 'कहने' का कार्य नारायणदास ने किया है, इसलिए 'ने' विभक्ति नारायणदास के ठीक बाद आनी चाहिए (नारायणदास ने)।
• कर्म/गौण कर्म: 'मुझसे' यहाँ माध्यम या सुनने वाला है, जो कर्ता और मुख्य क्रिया के बीच में आता है।
• क्रिया: 'कहा था' वाक्य के अंत में क्रिया के रूप में आएगी।

Important Pointsपदक्रम संबंधी नियम -

• वाक्य में पहले कर्ता, फिर कर्म तथा अन्त में क्रिया आती है।
• यदि क्रिया अकर्मक है तो वाक्य में पहले कर्ता फिर क्रिया आती है।
• विस्मयादि बोधक शब्द वाक्य के आरंभ में आते हैं।
• जहाँ प्रश्नवाचक वाक्यों हाँ/नहीं उत्तर वाले प्रश्नों में 'क्या' प्रश्नवाचक शब्द वाक्य के आरंभ में आते हैं
• तथा शेष प्रश्नवाचक शब्द प्रायः वाक्य के मध्य में आते हैं।
• क्रिया-विशेषण शब्द, क्रिया के पूर्व आते हैं।

Additional Information 

 पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

वाक्य कारक के आधार पर पूर्ण होगा - की, के लिए 

Key Points

• पूर्ण शुद्ध वाक्य: "बच्चों की शिक्षा एवं उनकी बेहतरी के लिए अनेक नीतियां बनाई जानी चाहिए।"
• ​"बच्चों की शिक्षा" - यहाँ 'शिक्षा' का संबंध 'बच्चों' से दर्शाया जा रहा है, इसलिए संबंध कारक (का/के/की) का प्रयोग होगा।
• "बेहतरी के लिए" - यहाँ उद्देश्य प्रकट हो रहा है। जब किसी के हेतु या हित में कोई कार्य किया जाता है, तो वहाँ संप्रदान कारक (के लिए) का प्रयोग होता है।
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।
• सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं।
• जैसे - यह राधेश्याम का बेटा है। वह कमला की गाय है। सोने के गहने लाओ।​
• सम्प्रदान का अर्थ ‘देना’ होता है।
• जब वाक्य में किसी को कुछ दिया जाए या किसी के लिए कुछ किया जाए तो वहां पर सम्प्रदान कारक होता है।
• सम्प्रदान कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह के लिए या को हैं।
• ​जैसे- साहिल ब्राह्मण को दान देता है। राधा गीता के लिए खाना लाई है।

Important Points हिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Information 

 कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- विद्यार्थी अध्यापक से सीखते है।

सही उत्तर है - दुर्दमनीय

Key Points

• 'जिसका दमन करना कठिन हो' वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द होगा - दुर्दमनीय
• वाक्यांश के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द - अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द को प्रयुक्त करना ही वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द कहलाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Additional Information कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - अनुनय

Key Points

• वाक्य - ईश्वर से यही प्रार्थना है कि सभी का जीवन खुशियों से भरा रहे।
• 'प्रार्थना' का पर्यायवाची शब्द 'अनुनय' है।
• 'प्रार्थना' के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - विनती, निवेदन, माँगना, विनय, अर्ज, भक्ति, भजन, कीर्तन, पूजा।
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

• 'अनुगामी' के सभी पर्यायवाची शब्द - अनुयायी, अनुचर, अनुवर्ती, अनुगत, अनुग, सेवक, दास, सहचर।
• 'अनुरक्ति' के सभी पर्यायवाची शब्द - अनुराग, आसक्ति, प्रीति, स्नेह, भक्ति, लगाओ, प्रणय, रुचि, अनुरति।

Additional Information 

 कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - से

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य: "बढ़ती आबादी से नदियों का जलस्तर घट गया है।"
• वाक्य को सार्थक और व्याकरणिक रूप से शुद्ध बनाने के लिए करण कारक के चिह्न 'से' का प्रयोग किया जाएगा।
• यहाँ 'बढ़ती आबादी' जलस्तर घटने का कारण या माध्यम है। जब एक क्रिया किसी कारण से घटित होती है।
• वह साधन जिससे क्रिया होती है, वह करण कहलाता है। यानि, जिसकी सहायता से किसी काम को अंजाम दिया जाता, वह करण कारक कहलाता है।
• करण कारक के दो विभक्ति चिन्ह होते है- से और के द्वारा।
• उदाहरण -
• अर्जुन ने जयद्रथ को बाण से मारा।
• बालक गेंद से खेल रहे है।

Important Points हिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Informationकारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- राम का घर बड़ा है।

सही उत्तर है - नेत्र

Key Points

• वाक्य - पूजा के लोचन सुन्दर हैं।
• 'लोचन' का पर्यायवाची शब्द 'नेत्र' है।
• 'लोचन' के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - नयन, नेत्र, चक्षु, दृग, विलोचन, अक्षि, अम्बक, दृष्टि ।
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -

• 'पैर' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - पाँव, चरण, पाद, पग, टाँग, कदम।
• 'हाथ' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - हस्त, कर, पाणि, भुजा, बाँह, बाजू ।
• 'कान' के पर्यायवाची शब्द - कर्ण, श्रवण, श्रुतिपट, श्रवणेंद्रिय, श्रोत्र।

Additional Information 

 कुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - में

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य: हम रागरंग और पाश्चात्य फैशन परस्ती में अपने गौरवपूर्ण अतीत को भूल गए।
• वाक्य को सार्थक बनाने के लिए यहाँ अधिकरण कारक की विभक्ति 'में' का प्रयोग सबसे उपयुक्त है।
• यहाँ 'रागरंग' और 'पाश्चात्य फैशन परस्ती' एक ऐसी अवस्था या स्थिति को दर्शाते हैं, जिसमें व्यक्ति पूरी तरह डूब गया है या खो गया है।
• अधिकरण का अर्थ होता है – आश्रय। संज्ञा का वह रूप जिससे क्रिया के आधार का बोध हो उसे अधिकरण कारक कहते हैं।
• इसकी विभक्ति में और पर होती है। भीतर, अंदर, ऊपर, बीच आदि शब्दों का प्रयोग इस कारक में किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण - 
• वह कमरे में सो रहा है।
• पेड़ पर तोता बैठा है।

Important Points हिन्दी में आठ कारक हैं -

Additional Information कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- सीता ने राम को देखा।

सही उत्तर है - की

Key Points

• पूर्ण वाक्य: "हमारे कुछ पर्व ऐसे भी हैं जिन्हें राष्ट्रीय पर्व की संज्ञा दी जाती है। जिसमें संबंध कारक (की) का प्रयोग होता है।
• यहाँ 'राष्ट्रीय पर्व' और 'संज्ञा' (नाम) के बीच एक संबंध स्थापित किया जा रहा है। "किसकी संज्ञा?" — "राष्ट्रीय पर्व की संज्ञा।"
• संज्ञा या सर्वनाम का वह रूप जो हमें किन्हीं दो वस्तुओं के बीच संबंध का बोध कराता है, वह संबंध कारक कहलाता है।
• सम्बन्ध कारक के विभक्ति चिन्ह का, के, की, ना, ने, नो, रा, रे, री आदि हैं।
• जैसे -
• भारत के नागरिक वीर हैं।
• यह कमला की गाय है।
• यह राधेश्याम का बेटा है।

Important Points हिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Information  

 कारक:-

• जो शब्द वाक्य में क्रिया का संज्ञा और सर्वनाम शब्दों के साथ संबंध बनाए, उसे कारक कहते हैं।
• कारक चिन्ह को, से, के लिए, से, का/के/की, में, पर आदि।
• जैसे- वह पेड़ से गिर गया।