DSSSB TGT (Hindi) Official Paper (Held on: 23 Aug 2025, Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

LOGIC:

First Number + (First Number ÷ 2)= Second Number 

Second Number +30 = Third Number

In (38, 57, 87) → 38+ (First Number ÷ 2) =57

57 + 30 = 87

In (52, 78, 108)→ 52 + (First Number ÷ 2) =78

78 + 30 =108.

Similarly,

(46, 69, 99)

46 + (First Number ÷ 2) = 69

69+30 = 99.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

According to question, In each word, each vowel is replaced by the letter that immediately precedes it in the English alphabetical order, and each consonant is replaced by the letter that immediately follows it in the English alphabetical order

Given :-  BUD JAB MID LAB

• BUD → B→C, U→T, D→E ⇒ C T E (contains E) → has a vowel
• JAB → J→K, A→Z, B→C ⇒ K Z C (no vowels)
• MID → M→N, I→H, D→E ⇒ N H E (contains E) → has a vowel
• LAB → L→M, A→Z, B→C ⇒ M Z C (no vowels)

So 2 letter groups contain no vowels (JAB and LAB).

Hence, the correct answer is 2.

Given : Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.

1. Only four boxes are kept between G and A.
2. Only C is kept above G

3. Only two bo×es are kept between B and F.

4.D is kept immediately above E

5. F is not kept immediately above D

Thus, 4 bo×es are kept above E

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given - GUT NET MOB MAN

According to the question:

Second letter of the first word from the right → MAN → A

Second letter of the first word from the left → GUT → U

So, number of letters between the second letter of the first word from the right and the second letter of the first word from the left → A(1) - U(21) → 19 (B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N,O,P,Q,R,S,T).

Hence, the correct answer is 19.

Given - 

Harsh starts from Point Y and drives 19 km towards north.

He then takes a left turn, drives 22 km, turns left and drives 58 km.

He then takes a right turn and drives 17 km. He takes a right turn, drives 13 km.

He then turns right, drives 39 km to stop at Point Z.

Hence, the correct answer is 26 km towards north.

Given :- A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1. D sits third to the right of A.

2. C sits second to the left of D.

3. B sits second to the right of E.

4. F sits to the immediate right of B.

Hence, the correct answer is 1 person sits between C and F when counted from the left of C.

The Logic between the pairs AHEL → IPMT and CJGN → KROV is +8

A(1) + 8 = I(9)

H(8) + 8 = P(16)

E(5) + 8 = M(13)

L(12) + 8 = T(20)

Following same logic

C(3) + 8 = K(11)

J(10) + 8 = R(18)

G(7) + 8 = O(15)

N(14) + 8 = V(22)

Similarly, 

E(5) + 8 = 13 is the alphabetical value of M.

L(12) + 8 = 20 is the alphabetical value of T.

I(9) + 8 = 17 is the alphabetical value of Q.

P(16) + 8 = 24 is the alphabetical value of X.

Hence, the correct answer is MTQX.

The series follows a pattern where each letter in the three-letter groups moves backward by one position in the alphabet.

First letter sequence:O → N → M → L → K

Second letter sequence:H → G → F → E → D

Third letter sequence:L → K → J → I → H

Hence, the correct answer is KDH.

Given Equation -

1048 ÷ 2 + 4016 × 8 − 145 = ?

After ‘+’ and ‘−‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged

⇒1048 × 2 - 4016  ÷ 8 +145 = ?

⇒1048 × 2 - 502 +145 = ?

⇒2096 - 502 +145  = ?

⇒1739

Hence, the correct answer is 1739.

Given  - Each of G, H, I, J, M, N and O has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week.

• Only three people have exam between H and I.
• I has exam on the last day of the week.

 

• Only one person has exam between G and J.

• N has exam immediately the day before O.

• M does not have exam on Friday.

• J has exam on someday before G

The final arrangement is 

Hence, the correct answer is six.

The logic followed here is:

8 - 32 - 128 - 139 

8 × 4 = 32, 32 × 4 = 128 , 128 + 11 = 139,

16 - 64 - 256 - 267

16 × 4 = 64 , 64 × 4 = 256 , 256 +11 = 267,

Similarly,

34 - 136 - 544 - 555

34  × 4 = 136, 136 × 4 = 544, 544 + 11 = 555 .

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

IF ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’

After interchanged

123 - 7 × 108 ÷ 9 + 16 = ?

123 - 7 × 12 +16

123 - 84 + 16 

55

Hence, the correct answer is 55.

The least possible diagram for the given statements is as follows.

Conclusions:

(I) Some houses are figs. → False  →(As their is no direct relation between House and fig . Some houses are kites and some kites are figs so some house are figs is possibility but not definite.)

(II) Some kites are mirrors.→ False  →(As their is no direct relation between kites and mirrors Some houses are kites and all mirror are houses. It  is possibility but not definite.

Hence, the correct answer is Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Preparing the family tree diagram by using the following symbols:

As per the given information:

 

Given expression:‘D + F ÷ G × H − J’ 

D is the son of F, F is the Father of G, G is the wife of H, and H is brother of J.

Hence, the correct answer is Brother's wife's brother.

Given:

DAYS is coded as 6958.

LADY is coded as 2958.

Both words share the letters A, Y, and D and the codes 9, 5, and 8. The pairing is:

A = 9

Y = 5

D = 8

In the word DAYS, the letter S is paired with the remaining digit, 6.

In the word LADY, the letter L is paired with the remaining digit, 2.

Hence, the correct answer is 2.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is JO - LR.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is QTN 67.

The first course of action follows because the global warming is identified as the cause; it is logical to advise citizens to take preventive or corrective measures.

The first course of action follows because using solar energy reduces dependency on fossil fuels—one of the main contributors to global warming.

Both courses of action I and II follow.

Hence, "option 4" is the correct answer.

Here the logic is :

22 +12 = 34

34 + 24 = 58 

58 + 36 = 94 

94 + 48 = 142 ,

Similarly,

142 + 60 = 202 

Hence, the correct answer is 202.

The table shows alphabet serial number –

Here the logic is:

The correct answer is Option 4.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Nagarahole National Park is located in the state of Karnataka in southern India.
• It is also referred to as the Rajiv Gandhi National Park and is a prominent part of India's Project Tiger initiative.
• The park is situated in the Kodagu and Mysore districts of Karnataka and spans an area of approximately 643 square kilometers.
• Nagarahole National Park forms a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which is one of the largest protected areas in southern India.
• This park is a critical habitat for various wildlife species, including Bengal tigers, Asian elephants, leopards, and Indian bison (gaur).
• Project Tiger, launched in 1973, aims to conserve tiger populations and their ecosystems. Nagarahole National Park is one of the tiger reserves under this project.
• Additionally, the park is part of Project Elephant, which focuses on the conservation of the Asian elephant.
• Hence, Karnataka is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Geography and Location:
• Nagarahole National Park is located in the Western Ghats, which is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site for its biodiversity.
• It lies near the famous Bandipur National Park and is connected to it via the Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, forming the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
• Flora and Fauna:
• The park is known for its deciduous forests, which host a wide range of plant species such as teak, rosewood, sandalwood, and bamboo.
• Fauna: The park houses various species like Bengal tigers, leopards, elephants, Indian bison, deer, and many bird species.
• Conservation Efforts:
• The park is a major hub for Project Tiger, which aims to protect tiger populations and their habitats.
• Similarly, Project Elephant focuses on mitigating human-elephant conflicts and ensuring the survival of elephants in India.

Important Points

• Historical Significance:
• The park's name, Nagarahole, translates to "Snake River" in Kannada, inspired by the serpentine streams within the park.
• Nagarahole was initially established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1955 and later upgraded to a national park in 1988.
• Tourism and Accessibility:
• The park is a popular ecotourism destination, offering wildlife safaris and nature trails. It can be accessed from cities like Mysore and Bangalore.
• The best time to visit Nagarahole National Park is during the dry season (October to May) when animal sightings are more frequent.

The correct answer is Kathak.

Key Points

• Kathak is one of the prominent classical dance forms of India, known for its intricate footwork, spins, and rhythmic patterns.
• The use of ghungroos (ankle bells) is a significant aspect of Kathak, as they enhance the rhythmic movements of the dancer's feet, making the beats audible and synchronized with the music.
• The dancers wear tightly tied ghungroos, which weigh between 100 to 200 grams, depending on their level of expertise.
• The rhythmic sound of ghungroos complements the intricate footwork (tatkaar) of Kathak and highlights the precision of every step and movement.
• Kathak is highly influenced by Hindustani classical music, and the ghungroos help in synchronizing the dancer’s movements with the beats of the accompanying tabla and pakhawaj.
• Unlike other dance forms like Manipuri or Kathakali, where the focus is more on expressions and storytelling, Kathak puts strong emphasis on the intricate and precise movements of the feet, making ghungroos a vital element. Hence, Kathak prominently uses ghungroos compared to other dance forms.

Additional Information

• Kathak:
• Kathak originated in North India and is derived from the Sanskrit word Katha, meaning "story." It is a storytelling dance form that combines expressions, intricate footwork, and graceful movements.
• Ghungroos are tied to the dancer's ankles, helping to amplify the rhythmic beat of their feet. They are an integral part of Kathak performances.
• Kathak often involves spins and rapid movements, and ghungroos play a key role in accentuating these movements.
• Other Classical Dance Forms:
• Kathakali: A classical dance-drama from Kerala that emphasizes facial expressions, gestures, and elaborate costumes rather than intricate footwork. Ghungroos are not a prominent feature.
• Sattriya: A dance form from Assam, primarily focused on storytelling and religious themes. It involves modest use of rhythmic footwork and ghungroos, but not as prominently as Kathak.
• Manipuri: Originating from Manipur, this dance focuses more on soft, graceful movements and expressions rather than rhythmic footwork. Ghungroos are used sparingly.

Important Points

• Ghungroos:
• They are small metallic bells tied around the ankles of classical dancers to produce rhythmic sounds while performing.
• Ghungroos are used in various Indian classical dances, but their significance is highest in Kathak.
• The number of bells can vary, ranging from 50 to over 200, depending on the complexity of the dance style and the dancer's expertise.
• Notable Features of Classical Dance Forms:
• Kathak: Focuses on intricate footwork and spins.
• Kathakali: Known for elaborate makeup, costumes, and expressions.
• Sattriya: Reflects Assamese culture and devotional themes.
• Manipuri: Emphasizes soft, graceful movements, inspired by the spiritual traditions of the region.

The correct answer is ₹20.

Key Points

• Dadabhai Naoroji, also known as the “Grand Old Man of India,” was an Indian political leader, scholar, and economist who first highlighted the concept of the economic drain theory during British rule.
• According to Dadabhai Naoroji, the per capita income in India during the period 1867-1868 was estimated to be ₹20. This estimation was one of the earliest attempts to analyze India's economic condition under British rule.
• This figure was calculated based on his studies and observations about India's resources and wealth being drained to Britain. Hence, the correct value is ₹20.
• Dadabhai Naoroji argued that the British government extracted wealth from India through various economic mechanisms, leaving Indians impoverished. His calculation of ₹20 per capita income underscored the extreme poverty of Indians during colonial rule.
• The estimation was significant as it helped raise awareness about the economic exploitation faced by India and became a cornerstone of India's economic discourse in the fight for independence. Hence, the correct answer is ₹20.

Additional Information

• Economic Drain Theory:
• Dadabhai Naoroji introduced the concept of the economic drain theory to describe how the British exploited India's resources. He argued that the wealth generated in India was being transferred to Britain, leaving India impoverished.
• This included factors such as unfair trade practices, excessive taxation, high land revenue demands, and profits from British companies being sent back to England rather than reinvested in India.
• Dadabhai Naoroji’s Contribution:
• He was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament and used his position to highlight the economic plight of Indians.
• Naoroji’s book: He authored “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India”, which elaborated on the drain theory and provided statistical evidence of India's economic decline under British rule.
• Impact: His work inspired future leaders like Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru to focus on economic independence as a critical aspect of India's freedom struggle.
• Historical Context:
• During the 19th century, India's economy was primarily agrarian, and the British policies heavily taxed farmers, further impoverishing them.
• The British colonial policies, including the establishment of railways and revenue systems, were often designed to benefit Britain rather than India.
• Naoroji's calculation of ₹20 per capita income highlighted the stark poverty and served as a rallying point for Indian nationalists.

Important Points

• Key Contributions of Dadabhai Naoroji:
• He was a founding member of the Indian National Congress and played a key role in uniting Indians against British exploitation.
• He emphasized the importance of self-rule and economic independence in his speeches and writings.
• Historical Impact:
• ₹20 per capita income: This estimation was one of the earliest indicators of the economic challenges faced by India under colonial rule.
• Naoroji's works remain a significant part of India's economic history and inspired subsequent studies on colonial exploitation.

The correct answer is 1984.

Key Points

• The Family Courts Act was enacted in 1984 by the Government of India to address and resolve disputes related to family matters in a more efficient and amicable manner.
• The primary objective of the act was to promote conciliation and secure speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.
• The act emphasized the establishment of Family Courts across the country to resolve issues like divorce, child custody, alimony, and other family disputes in a non-adversarial manner. Hence, the year 1984 is correct.
• The act was introduced as a legislative measure to reduce the burden of family-related cases on regular courts and provide a specialized forum for resolving these disputes.
• The Family Courts Act reflects the intent of the government to provide a framework for amicable resolutions, focusing on family welfare rather than legal confrontation.

Additional Information

• Family Courts Act, 1984:
• The act provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the state governments in consultation with the High Court to ensure the effective resolution of disputes related to family and marriage.
• The act is applicable across India, except in the state of Jammu and Kashmir (prior to the abrogation of Article 370 in 2019).
• The Family Courts are designed to prioritize reconciliation and conciliation rather than litigation, ensuring that families can resolve disputes without prolonged legal proceedings.
• Key Provisions of the Act:
• The Family Courts have exclusive jurisdiction in matters such as marriage, divorce, alimony, custody of children, and guardianship.
• The courts are expected to promote conciliation and discourage adversarial litigation, thereby creating an atmosphere of trust and mutual resolution.
• Examples of Implementation:
• Several states in India, including Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Tamil Nadu, have established family courts under this act to cater to the growing need for specialized judicial forums for family disputes.

Important Points

• Key Features of the Family Courts:
• The act mandates that these courts should ensure privacy and confidentiality during hearings, especially in cases involving sensitive issues like divorce or child custody.
• The courts aim to resolve disputes through mediation and counseling before resorting to formal judicial proceedings.
• Family Courts are empowered to seek the assistance of medical and welfare experts to arrive at decisions that are in the best interest of all parties involved.

The correct answer is Net Production Taxes = Production Taxes – Production Subsidies..

Key Points

• Net Production Taxes: The term refers to the difference between the total production taxes collected by the government and the production subsidies provided. The formula is: Net Production Taxes = Production Taxes – Production Subsidies.
• Production Taxes: These are taxes levied by the government on the production of goods and services. It includes taxes such as excise duties, GST (Goods and Services Tax), sales tax, VAT, etc.
• Production Subsidies: Subsidies are financial assistance provided by the government to industries and producers to reduce their production costs and encourage production. Examples include agricultural subsidies, energy subsidies, or subsidies for manufacturing industries.
• The difference between production taxes and subsidies is vital for determining the government's net revenue from production activities. It helps in understanding whether the government is gaining more from taxes or spending more on subsidies.
• Correct Statement: The equation for Net Production Taxes = Production Taxes – Production Subsidies is accurate as it factors in both revenue generation and government spending on subsidies. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Incorrect Statements: Other options, such as "Net Production Taxes = Production Taxes" or "Net Production Taxes = Production Taxes + Production Subsidies," fail to account for the subtraction of subsidies, which is a critical component of the calculation. These statements are incorrect.
• The equation "Total Production Taxes = Direct Taxes + Indirect Taxes" is unrelated to net production taxes. It refers to the classification of taxes based on their nature, and hence this statement is incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is Net Production Taxes = Production Taxes – Production Subsidies.

Additional Information

• Understanding Production Taxes:
• Production Taxes are levied on producers or manufacturers during the production or distribution of goods and services. These taxes contribute significantly to government revenue.
• Examples of production taxes include GST (Goods and Services Tax), VAT (Value Added Tax), excise duties, and other indirect taxes.
• Role of Production Subsidies:
• Subsidies play a crucial role in encouraging production, reducing costs, and promoting economic growth. They are used as a tool to support sectors like agriculture, renewable energy, and manufacturing.
• For instance, the Indian government provides fertilizer subsidies to farmers to make agricultural production more viable.
• Net Production Taxes in Macroeconomics:
• Net production taxes are a key component of the calculation of GDP (Gross Domestic Product).
• They represent the net revenue generated by the government from production activities after deducting subsidies.
• This value is used to assess the fiscal policy, economic health, and government spending patterns.

Important Points

• Difference between Direct and Indirect Taxes:
• Direct Taxes: These are taxes directly levied on an individual or organization, such as Income Tax and Corporate Tax.
• Indirect Taxes: These are levied on goods and services, and the burden is indirectly passed on to the consumers. Examples include GST, VAT, and excise duties.
• Importance of Subsidies:
• Subsidies are crucial for supporting sectors that require government intervention to remain viable, such as agriculture, renewable energy, and public services.
• Examples: Subsidies on fertilizers help farmers reduce production costs, while subsidies in renewable energy encourage sustainable development.

The correct answer is 1838.

Key Points

• The Landholders' Society: The Landholders' Society was established in 1838, and it is recognized as the first political association in India.
• It was formed with the primary objective of representing the interests of the zamindars (landholders) and influential landowners during the British colonial era.
• The society aimed to protect the rights of landowners and address grievances related to land revenue policies imposed by the British government.
• It served as a precursor to later political organizations in India, marking the beginning of organized political activity in the country.
• The formation of the Landholders' Society laid the foundation for subsequent political movements, including the establishment of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
• Hence, the correct answer is 1838.

Additional Information

• Political associations in India:
• The Landholders' Society (1838): It was the first political association in India, primarily focused on the interests of the zamindars and landholders. It marked the beginning of organized political activity during the British colonial period.
• The Bengal British India Society (1843): This organization aimed to promote the welfare of Indians and address grievances against British policies. It merged with the Landholders' Society in 1851 to form the British Indian Association.
• The British Indian Association (1851): Formed by the merger of the Bengal British India Society and the Landholders' Society, it advocated for Indian rights and played a significant role in the early political movement.
• The Indian National Congress (1885): The INC was established as a platform for Indians to voice their political concerns and demands for independence. It became the driving force behind the Indian freedom struggle.
• The evolution of political movements:
• The formation of early political associations like the Landholders' Society reflected the growing awareness among Indians about their rights and the need to organize against colonial rule.
• Later organizations built upon this foundation, culminating in the national freedom movement led by the Indian National Congress.

Important Points

• Key characteristics of political associations:
• Focus on specific interests: Early political associations like the Landholders' Society primarily represented specific groups such as zamindars and landowners.
• Gradual expansion: Over time, political movements expanded to include broader sections of society, culminating in the national independence movement.
• Influence on later movements: The efforts of early organizations laid the groundwork for the Indian National Congress and the broader struggle for independence.
• Historical significance:
• The establishment of the Landholders' Society in 1838 marked the beginning of organized political activity in India, highlighting the growing awareness of rights and responsibilities among Indians under colonial rule.

The correct answer is Govindarajan Padmanabhan.

Key Points

• Vigyan Ratna Puraskar is a prestigious award given to individuals who have made significant contributions in the field of science and technology.
• Govindarajan Padmanabhan was the first recipient of this award due to his outstanding work and contributions to the development of biotechnology and molecular biology.
• He is recognized for his extensive research in protein engineering, molecular genetics, and gene cloning, which laid the foundation for advancements in these fields.
• The award acknowledges his role in fostering innovation and development in scientific research, particularly in India.
• Govindarajan Padmanabhan has also been instrumental in mentoring young scientists and contributing to scientific education. Hence, the correct answer is Govindarajan Padmanabhan.

Additional Information

• About Vigyan Ratna Puraskar:
• The Vigyan Ratna Puraskar is awarded to scientists who have demonstrated exceptional achievements in science and technology, contributing to the betterment of society.
• It aims to recognize contributions that have both national and international significance in advancing science.
• Contributions of Govindarajan Padmanabhan:
• He has worked extensively in the field of biotechnology, particularly in protein engineering and molecular biology.
• His research has helped advance medical science and provided insights into genetic disorders.
• Example: His work on protein structures and gene cloning has been instrumental in developing new therapies for various diseases.
• Similar Awards:
• Other notable awards for contributions in science include the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize, Padma Awards, and Infosys Prize.
• These awards serve to motivate scientists and researchers in making impactful contributions.

Important Points

• Significance of Vigyan Ratna Puraskar:
• The award is a symbol of excellence in scientific research and aims to bring Indian scientists to the global forefront.
• It highlights the importance of fostering scientific innovation for societal and economic development.
• Encouraging Scientific Community:
• Such awards help recognize the efforts of individuals and inspire future generations to pursue careers in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics).
• They also encourage collaboration between academic and research institutions to advance technology.

The correct answer is 11.

Key Points

• As of October 3, 2024, a total of 11 languages have been accorded the status of Classical Language in India.
• The Government of India grants the status of Classical Language to languages that meet specific criteria such as antiquity, rich heritage, and independence of tradition. These criteria ensure that the language has a distinct identity and a long history of literary tradition.
• The languages that have been declared as Classical Languages in India are:
• Tamil (declared in 2004)
• Sanskrit (declared in 2005)
• Kannada (declared in 2008)
• Telugu (declared in 2008)
• Malayalam (declared in 2013)
• Odia (declared in 2014)
• Marathi (declared in 2023)
• Other languages declared subsequently to reach the count of 11 by 2024
• The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry responsible for granting this status based on recommendations by an expert committee of scholars in linguistics and related fields.
• A language must fulfill certain criteria for being declared as a Classical Language, including its antiquity of over 1500–2000 years, a body of ancient literature or texts, and originality distinct from modern languages.
• The recognition of a language as classical brings it certain benefits, such as financial assistance for its promotion, establishment of a center of excellence, and awards for scholars who contribute to its development.
• Hence, the correct answer is 11.

Additional Information

• Criteria for Declaring Classical Language:
• The language must have a recorded history of at least 1500–2000 years.
• It should possess a rich and independent literary tradition, distinct from other languages or groups of languages.
• The language must have a body of ancient texts or literature, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations.
• Benefits of Classical Language Status:
• Financial assistance is provided for setting up a Center of Excellence for the study of the language.
• University Grants Commission (UGC) provides funds for conducting research and promoting the language at various educational levels.
• Annual awards are given to scholars who contribute significantly to the development and promotion of the language.
• Examples of Classical Languages:
• Tamil: Tamil literature, such as the Sangam texts, dates back to over 2000 years.
• Sanskrit: The language of ancient Indian scriptures, including the Vedas and Upanishads.
• Kannada and Telugu: Both have a rich literary tradition dating back centuries, with significant contributions to Indian culture.

Important Points

• Role of the Ministry of Culture:
• The Ministry of Culture oversees the process of granting Classical Language status and provides guidelines for the development and promotion of these languages.
• It consults with an expert committee comprising scholars and linguists to assess the eligibility of a language.
• Recent Developments:
• Marathi was declared a Classical Language in 2023 due to its rich literary tradition and historical significance.
• Efforts are underway to promote these languages through the establishment of research centers, publication of texts, and organizing conferences and seminars.

The correct answer is 0.073.

Key Points

• As per the Sample Registration System (SRS), the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) refers to the number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 live births in a specific time period.
• According to the data provided, the MMR at the national level has shown significant improvement. It reduced from 8.1% in 2015-17 to 0.073 in 2016-18.
• The reduced MMR of 0.073 indicates progress in maternal healthcare services and successful implementation of related government programs. Hence, the correct option is 0.073.
• The decline in MMR is a crucial indicator of the country's overall health improvement, especially regarding maternal and child health.

Additional Information

• Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR):
• MMR is defined as the number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 live births. It is an essential indicator of maternal health and reflects the effectiveness of healthcare systems.
• The reduction in MMR signifies better access to healthcare facilities, improved awareness, and implementation of health policies targeting maternal care.
• Key Government Initiatives:
• Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY): A program launched under the National Health Mission (NHM) to promote institutional deliveries among poor pregnant women.
• Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA): This scheme ensures quality antenatal care to pregnant women on the 9th of every month at designated government facilities.
• LaQshya Programme: Focuses on improving the quality of care in labor rooms and maternity operation theaters to reduce maternal and newborn mortality.
• MMR Decline Trends:
• India has shown consistent improvement in reducing MMR over the years due to targeted programs and awareness campaigns.
• The SRS data is a reliable source for tracking MMR trends and evaluating the impact of health initiatives across the country.

Important Points

• Global Context:
• The United Nations Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.1 aims to reduce the global MMR to less than 70 per 1,00,000 live births by 2030.
• India’s commitment to achieving this goal has led to the adoption of innovative solutions like mobile health programs, community health workers, and digital monitoring systems.
• Regional Variations:
• States like Kerala and Tamil Nadu have low MMR due to better healthcare infrastructure, while states like Uttar Pradesh and Bihar still face challenges in reducing maternal deaths.

The correct answer is 2005.

Key Points

• Sanskrit was declared a Classical Language by the Government of India in the year 2005.
• The declaration of a language as "Classical" is based on several criteria, such as its antiquity, richness in literature, and influence on other languages. Sanskrit fulfills all these criteria due to its historical and cultural significance. Hence, 2005 is the correct year.
• Sanskrit is one of the oldest languages in the world, with its origins tracing back to ancient Indian civilization. It has an extensive body of literature, including the Vedas, Upanishads, epics like Mahabharata and Ramayana, and classical poetry.
• The status of a Classical Language confers certain benefits, such as financial support for research and promotion of the language and recognition of its cultural and historical importance.
• The declaration of Sanskrit as a Classical Language in 2005 further strengthened its role in Indian heritage and ensured its preservation for future generations. This statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Criteria for Classical Language Status:
• A language must have a recorded history of over 1500 years.
• It should have a rich and distinct literary tradition not borrowed from other traditions.
• Sanskrit meets these criteria due to its extensive body of ancient texts and its profound influence on languages such as Hindi, Marathi, Bengali, and others.
• Features of Sanskrit:
• Sanskrit is recognized as the language of the gods in Hindu tradition, and its grammar was codified by Panini in the Aṣṭādhyāyī around 5th century BCE.
• It is the root language for many Indian languages and has influenced linguistic development across South Asia.
• Examples: Major Sanskrit texts include the Rigveda, Bhagavad Gita, Puranas, and the epics Mahabharata and Ramayana.
• Languages Declared Classical by the Government of India:
• Other languages granted Classical status include Tamil (2004), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), Odia (2014), and Sanskrit (2005).
• Each of these languages has a rich literary heritage and significant antiquity.

Important Points

• Recognition Process:
• A language is granted Classical status by the Ministry of Culture based on recommendations from linguistic experts.
• The recognition includes funding for research and the establishment of centers dedicated to the study and promotion of the language.
• Historical Significance of Sanskrit:
• Sanskrit played a pivotal role in shaping Indian culture, philosophy, and religious practices.
• It remains an important language for Hindu rituals and is taught in educational institutions across India.
• Its legacy continues to influence modern Indian languages and global linguistic studies.

The correct answer is University of Kerala.

Key Points

• Researchers from the University of Kerala presented their findings at the International Conference on Coastal Resilience (ECSA 60), held in September 2024.
• The study highlights the ecological degradation occurring in the Veli-Akkulam Lake, which is an important water body situated in Kerala.
• The researchers focused on environmental changes and challenges affecting the lake, emphasizing the loss of biodiversity, pollution, and eutrophication. Hence, the statement is correct.
• The findings presented were part of a larger effort to promote awareness about coastal resilience and the need for immediate environmental conservation measures in Kerala.
• The Veli-Akkulam Lake has been under scrutiny due to its deteriorating water quality and impacts on local communities and biodiversity. Hence, the correct option is University of Kerala.

Additional Information

• Veli-Akkulam Lake:
• Located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, the Veli-Akkulam Lake is a prominent water body that connects to the Arabian Sea.
• The lake serves multiple purposes, including fishing, tourism, irrigation, and local livelihoods. However, it has been facing environmental challenges over the years.
• Pollution, encroachments, and unchecked urbanization have led to a decline in its water quality and biodiversity.
• University of Kerala:
• Established in 1937, the University of Kerala is one of the oldest and most prestigious universities in India, located in Thiruvananthapuram.
• The university is known for its contributions to research and development, particularly in areas of ecology, environmental science, and biodiversity conservation.
• The research presented at the International Conference on Coastal Resilience (ECSA 60) is part of their ongoing commitment to addressing environmental challenges in Kerala.
• International Conference on Coastal Resilience (ECSA 60):
• This conference brings together global experts, researchers, and policymakers to discuss key topics related to coastal ecosystems, resilience, and sustainability.
• The 2024 edition focused on ecological degradation and strategies for improving the health of coastal and estuarine systems.
• Findings like those from the University of Kerala contribute significantly to global efforts for environmental conservation.

Important Points

• Pollution in Veli-Akkulam Lake:
• The lake has been affected by industrial waste, domestic sewage, and agricultural runoff. These pollutants have resulted in eutrophication, which impacts aquatic life.
• Efforts are being made to implement restoration programs, focusing on cleaning, desilting, and removing encroachments around the lake.
• Coastal Resilience and its Importance:
• Coastal resilience involves measures to protect coastal ecosystems from threats such as climate change, pollution, and urbanization.
• Conferences like ECSA 60 aim to foster collaboration and research, promoting sustainable practices for preserving coastal environments globally.

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

• India's top import source during April-October 2024: China emerged as the leading import source with $65.89 billion worth of inbound shipments, marking a 9.8% year-on-year increase.
• India's imports from China primarily include electronics, machinery, chemicals, and pharmaceuticals. This reflects China's position as a manufacturing hub and its significant trade relationship with India.
• India's trade relations with China are substantial despite geopolitical tensions, highlighting the economic interdependence between the two countries. Hence, statement is correct.

Additional Information

• India-China Trade Relations:
• China has been one of India's largest trading partners for years, particularly in terms of imports.
• India imports a wide range of products from China, including electronics, machinery, organic chemicals, and fertilizers. These goods are essential for India's various industries.
• Despite geopolitical tensions, trade between the two nations remains robust, highlighting economic interdependence.
• Comparison with Other Countries:
• United States: The US is a significant trade partner, but its exports to India primarily consist of oil, aircrafts, and services, which do not match the volume of imports from China.
• Germany and Japan: These countries are known for high-quality machinery and automobiles, but their trade volume with India is comparatively lower than China.
• Key Features of China's Export Dominance:
• China is a global leader in manufacturing, offering goods at competitive prices.
• Chinese products cater to diverse sectors in India, including consumer electronics, industrial machinery, and pharmaceutical raw materials.
• India's reliance on Chinese imports is fueled by affordability and availability of goods in bulk.

Important Points

• India's Efforts to Reduce Dependence:
• The Indian government has launched initiatives like Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) to reduce dependence on imports, including those from China.
• Focus on domestic manufacturing and Make in India is key to reducing reliance on foreign goods.
• Trade Deficit with China:
• India has a significant trade deficit with China, meaning imports exceed exports.
• India exports products like iron ore, cotton, and organic chemicals to China, but the volume is far less than imports.

The correct answer is Total output will increase..

Key Points

• An increase in an input, such as labor, capital, or raw materials, typically leads to an increase in total output in a production function. This is because more resources are available to produce goods and services.
• The relationship between input and output is a fundamental concept in production theory. Inputs are transformed into outputs using various production techniques. When the quantity or quality of input increases, the output produced generally rises. Hence, statement "Total output will increase" is correct.
• Statement "There will be a decrease in total output" is incorrect because increased input seldom decreases output unless there are inefficiencies or diminishing returns.
• Statement "The total output will remain the same" is also incorrect as an increase in input usually leads to a proportional or greater increase in output, depending on the efficiency of production.
• Statement "There is no relationship between input and output" is incorrect because input and output are directly related in production functions. Inputs are essential components of production, and their variations affect the output. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Production Function:
• A production function describes the relationship between the quantities of inputs used in production and the quantity of output produced. This relationship can be expressed mathematically as Q = f(L, K), where Q is output, L is labor input, and K is capital input.
• An increase in input factors such as labor, capital, technology, or raw materials typically results in higher output levels.
• Law of Diminishing Returns:
• While increasing input generally increases output, the law of diminishing returns states that after a certain point, adding more of one input while keeping others constant will result in progressively smaller increments in output.
• For example, if a factory adds more workers without increasing machinery, the productivity of additional workers may decrease over time due to overcrowding or inefficiencies.
• Types of Inputs:
• Fixed Inputs: Inputs like land or heavy machinery that remain constant during production.
• Variable Inputs: Inputs such as labor or raw materials that can be adjusted based on production needs.
• For example, increasing the number of workers in a factory is a variable input that can lead to higher production output.

Important Points

• Key Characteristics of a Production Function:
• Short Run vs Long Run: In the short run, some inputs are fixed, while in the long run, all inputs can be adjusted.
• Technological Advances: Improvements in technology can increase output without a proportionate increase in input.
• Impact of Input Increase:
• An increase in input can lead to higher output, improved efficiency, and economies of scale.
• However, excessive input increase without proper utilization can lead to inefficiencies or wastage.

The correct answer is 4) Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct..

Key Points

• Justice Yashwant Vishnu Chandrachud served as the longest-serving Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India. This statement is factually correct as per historical records.
• He served as the Chief Justice of India for a duration of 7 years and 4 months, from February 22, 1978, to July 11, 1985. This is the longest tenure served by any Chief Justice of India. Hence, conclusion (i) is correct.
• As stated above, Justice Y.V. Chandrachud served from the year 1978 to 1985, which aligns with the second conclusion. Hence, conclusion (ii) is also correct.
• Since both conclusions (i) and (ii) are factually accurate based on the given statement, the correct answer is option 4. Both conclusions (i) and (ii) are correct.

Additional Information

• Justice Yashwant Vishnu Chandrachud:
• Justice Y.V. Chandrachud served as the 16th Chief Justice of India. His tenure began on February 22, 1978, and ended on July 11, 1985.
• He was known for his landmark judgments and played a significant role in shaping the Indian judiciary during his time.
• Longest-serving Chief Justice:
• Justice Y.V. Chandrachud's tenure of 7 years and 4 months makes him the longest-serving Chief Justice of India till date.
• He succeeded Justice M.H. Beg and was succeeded by Justice P.N. Bhagwati after his retirement.
• Landmark Judgments:
• Justice Y.V. Chandrachud delivered several landmark judgments during his tenure, including cases related to personal liberty, constitutional rights, and governance.
• One of his most notable judgments includes his ruling in the Minerva Mills case (1980), which reaffirmed the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution.

Important Points

• Basic Structure Doctrine:
• The Basic Structure Doctrine was first introduced in the Keshavananda Bharati case (1973). It establishes that certain features of the Constitution, such as secularism, federalism, and separation of powers, cannot be amended by Parliament.
• Justice Y.V. Chandrachud reaffirmed this doctrine in the Minerva Mills case, ensuring the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting the fundamental rights of citizens.
• Judiciary's Role:
• The Indian judiciary plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of power and upholding the principles of the Constitution.
• Judgments delivered by eminent judges like Justice Y.V. Chandrachud continue to influence Indian jurisprudence and serve as precedents in various legal matters.

The correct answer is Classical Mendelian ratios for dihybrid crosses.

Key Points

• The 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is observed in the offspring of a dihybrid cross, which involves two traits governed by independent genes.
• This ratio was established by Gregor Mendel, the father of genetics, as part of his experiments on pea plants.
• In a dihybrid cross, two heterozygous parents are crossed for two traits (AaBb x AaBb), resulting in four phenotypic categories. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The 9:3:3:1 ratio represents four phenotypes: 9 individuals with both dominant traits, 3 individuals with one dominant and one recessive trait, another 3 with the other dominant and recessive trait, and 1 individual with both recessive traits.
• This ratio is distinct to dihybrid crosses and does not apply to monohybrid crosses, which yield a 3:1 phenotypic ratio. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 is based on the principle of independent assortment, which states that alleles for different traits segregate independently during gamete formation.
• This ratio is not related to monohybrid crosses (which involve only one trait) or trihybrid crosses (which involve three traits). Hence, statement 3 and statement 4 are incorrect.
• In conclusion, the 9:3:3:1 ratio is a classical Mendelian ratio for dihybrid crosses, as it demonstrates the inheritance of two traits simultaneously. Hence, the correct answer is Classical Mendelian ratios for dihybrid crosses.

Additional Information

• Dihybrid Cross:
• A dihybrid cross examines the inheritance of two separate traits simultaneously. For example, Mendel studied the traits of seed color (yellow or green) and seed shape (round or wrinkled).
• The parental generation (P) consists of homozygous individuals with contrasting traits (e.g., YYRR x yyrr). The first generation (F1) is heterozygous for both traits (YyRr).
• Independent Assortment:
• Mendel’s second law, the Law of Independent Assortment, states that alleles of different genes assort independently during gamete formation.
• This principle forms the basis for the 9:3:3:1 ratio observed in dihybrid crosses.
• Phenotypic Categories in Dihybrid Cross:
• The 9:3:3:1 ratio breaks down as follows:
• 9: Both traits are dominant (e.g., yellow round seeds).
• 3: One dominant and one recessive trait (e.g., yellow wrinkled seeds).
• 3: Other dominant and recessive trait (e.g., green round seeds).
• 1: Both traits are recessive (e.g., green wrinkled seeds).

Important Points

• Comparing Phenotypic Ratios:
• A monohybrid cross, involving one trait, yields a phenotypic ratio of 3:1.
• A trihybrid cross, involving three traits, becomes more complex with many combinations, leading to a ratio of 64 phenotypic classes.
• Historical Context:
• Mendel’s work on dihybrid crosses laid the foundation for understanding the inheritance of multiple traits, contributing significantly to the field of genetics.
• His experiments on Pisum sativum (pea plants) demonstrated predictable patterns in inheritance, which are still studied today.

The correct answer is vitamin A.

Key Points

• Beta-carotene is a type of carotenoid, which is a pigment found in plants, fruits, and vegetables. It gives yellow, orange, or red colors to these foods.
• Beta-carotene is a precursor to vitamin A, meaning that the body converts beta-carotene into vitamin A as needed.
• Vitamin A is essential for various bodily functions, including vision, immune function, reproduction, and cellular communication. It plays a critical role in maintaining healthy skin and mucous membranes.
• Beta-carotene is commonly found in foods such as carrots, sweet potatoes, spinach, kale, and apricots. Consuming these foods helps meet the body’s vitamin A requirements.
• The conversion process occurs primarily in the small intestine, where enzymes break down beta-carotene into retinol, the active form of vitamin A.
• Vitamin A deficiency can lead to health issues like night blindness, dry skin, weakened immunity, and in severe cases, complete blindness.
• The other options, such as vitamin K, vitamin E, and vitamin C, are not derived from beta-carotene, though they are important nutrients in their own right.

Additional Information

• Vitamin A:
• Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin and exists in two forms: preformed vitamin A (retinol and retinyl ester) and provitamin A carotenoids (like beta-carotene).
• It is critical for maintaining vision, immune health, and reproduction. It also supports the function of the heart, lungs, and kidneys.
• Sources: Beta-carotene sources include carrots, pumpkins, spinach, mangoes, and other colorful vegetables and fruits. Preformed vitamin A is found in animal-based foods like eggs, milk, and liver.
• Functions of Vitamin A:
• Plays a vital role in the formation of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that helps us see in dim light.
• Supports skin health by promoting healthy cell growth and repair.
• Immune Health: Helps maintain the integrity of mucosal barriers and promotes the production of white blood cells.
• Other Vitamins:
• Vitamin K: Essential for blood clotting and bone health. Found in green leafy vegetables like spinach and kale.
• Vitamin E: A powerful antioxidant that protects cells from damage caused by free radicals. Found in nuts, seeds, and vegetable oils.
• Vitamin C: Important for collagen formation, immune health, and iron absorption. Found in citrus fruits, strawberries, and bell peppers.

Important Points

• Beta-Carotene Conversion:
• The conversion of beta-carotene to vitamin A depends on the body's needs. Excess beta-carotene is stored in fat tissues and does not lead to toxicity, unlike preformed vitamin A.
• Beta-carotene absorption and conversion are influenced by factors like dietary fat, health conditions, and genetic factors.
• Health Benefits:
• Regular consumption of beta-carotene-rich foods can help prevent vitamin A deficiency, promote healthy skin, and improve vision.
• Beta-carotene is also a potent antioxidant that helps combat oxidative stress and reduces the risk of chronic diseases.

The correct answer is Lunate.

Key Points

• Lower Palaeolithic Age: The Lower Palaeolithic Age is the earliest phase of the Stone Age, characterized by the use of simple stone tools such as choppers, handaxes, and cleavers.
• Lunate: A lunate is a crescent-shaped tool that is typically associated with the Mesolithic Age and not the Lower Palaeolithic Age. Hence, this is the correct answer.
• Chopper: Choppers are crude stone tools with a sharp edge used for cutting and scraping. They are a hallmark of the Lower Palaeolithic Age and were widely used by early humans. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Handaxe: Handaxes are bifacial tools with sharp edges, commonly used for chopping and digging. They are another key tool of the Lower Palaeolithic Age. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Cleaver: Cleavers are similar to handaxes but have a broader cutting edge. They were used for skinning animals and cutting meat, also prominently associated with the Lower Palaeolithic Age. Hence, this statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Lower Palaeolithic Tools:
• The tools of the Lower Palaeolithic Age were mainly made of stone, often using the core of stones.
• Choppers, handaxes, and cleavers were the primary tools. These tools were used for various purposes like cutting, digging, and scraping.
• Examples of Lower Palaeolithic sites in India include the regions of Sohan Valley in Punjab, Attirampakkam in Tamil Nadu, and Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh.
• Characteristics of Lunate:
• Lunates are small, crescent-shaped tools made of stone and are typically associated with the Mesolithic Age.
• They were used as projectiles, scrapers, or components of composite tools like arrows.
• Lunates are not considered part of the Lower Palaeolithic toolkit, as they were developed later with more advanced tool-making techniques.
• Functions of Lower Palaeolithic Tools:
• Choppers: Used for cutting wood, meat, and scraping hides.
• Handaxes: Multi-purpose tools used for digging, cutting, and hunting.
• Cleavers: Specialized tools with a sharp edge, used for processing large animal carcasses.

Important Points

• Key Differences Between Lower Palaeolithic and Mesolithic Tools:
• Lower Palaeolithic Tools: Crude and large tools made of stone cores, such as handaxes, cleavers, and choppers.
• Mesolithic Tools: Smaller, more refined tools made of stone flakes. Lunates and microliths are key examples.
• Evolution of Human Tool-Making:
• The evolution of tools reflects the development of human intelligence and skills, starting from crude tools in the Lower Palaeolithic Age to more advanced composite tools in the Mesolithic and Neolithic Ages.
• This evolution also mirrors the transition of humans from hunter-gatherers to settled agricultural societies.

The correct answer is 10th Amendment Act, 1961.

Key Points

• The 10th Amendment Act, 1961 incorporated the territories of Goa, Daman, and Diu into the Indian Union. These territories were liberated from Portuguese rule by the Indian military action known as Operation Vijay in 1961.
• The territories were annexed into India following their liberation, and the 10th Constitutional Amendment Act formalized their inclusion in the Indian Constitution. This amendment added these territories to the list of Union Territories under the Constitution.
• Goa, Daman, and Diu were initially governed as a single Union Territory. Later, Goa gained statehood in 1987, while Daman and Diu continued as Union Territories. Hence, the answer is correct.
• The liberation of Goa, Daman, and Diu marked the end of European colonial rule in India and was a significant moment in India's history. The 10th Amendment Act ensured their integration into the Indian polity.

Additional Information

• Operation Vijay:
• Operation Vijay was the military action undertaken by India in December 1961 to liberate Goa, Daman, and Diu from Portuguese colonial rule.
• The operation lasted for about 36 hours, resulting in the surrender of Portuguese forces and the integration of these territories into India.
• This marked the end of Portuguese control in India, which had lasted for over 450 years.
• Goa’s Statehood:
• Goa achieved statehood on May 30, 1987, becoming the 25th state of India. Before that, it was governed as a Union Territory along with Daman and Diu.
• Daman and Diu remained Union Territories until they were merged with Dadra and Nagar Haveli in 2020 to form a single Union Territory.
• Portuguese Colonial Rule:
• The Portuguese established their rule in Goa in 1510, making it one of the longest colonial occupations in India.
• Despite India gaining independence in 1947, Portuguese authorities refused to relinquish control over Goa, Daman, and Diu, leading to their eventual liberation in 1961.

Important Points

• Legal Framework for Annexation:
• The Constitutional 10th Amendment was essential for formally incorporating Goa, Daman, and Diu into the Union of India.
• The amendment added these territories to the First Schedule of the Constitution, under the category of Union Territories.
• Significance of Liberation:
• The liberation and subsequent integration of Goa, Daman, and Diu into India ended the last vestiges of colonial rule in the country.
• It reinforced India's commitment to protecting its sovereignty and territorial integrity.

The correct answer is In 1206 AD.

Key Points

• Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the founder of the Slave dynasty, also known as the Mamluk dynasty, in India.
• He became the first independent ruler of the Delhi Sultanate in the year 1206 AD after the death of Mu'izz al-Din Muhammad Ghori, who was his ruler and mentor.
• The Slave dynasty is named so because many of its rulers, including Aibak, were former slaves who rose to power. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Qutub-ud-din Aibak ruled from Lahore and laid the foundation of the Delhi Sultanate, marking the beginning of Muslim rule in India.
• He was known for his construction projects, including the famous Qutub Minar, which was initiated during his reign but completed by his successor, Iltutmish. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• He ruled for only four years, from 1206 AD to 1210 AD, and is remembered as a significant figure in establishing Muslim rule in northern India.
• Hence, the correct answer is In 1206 AD.

Additional Information

• Qutub-ud-din Aibak:
• Qutub-ud-din Aibak was born in Turkestan and served as a slave under Ghori. He later rose to prominence and became the ruler of India after Ghori’s death.
• Aibak is credited with founding the Mamluk dynasty, the first of the five dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Slave Dynasty:
• The Slave Dynasty ruled from 1206 AD to 1290 AD. It is known for its contributions to architecture, administration, and cultural development.
• The term "slave" refers to the origins of its rulers, as many of them were former slaves who gained power through their military prowess and loyalty.
• Key rulers of this dynasty include Qutub-ud-din Aibak, Iltutmish, and Balban.
• Qutub Minar:
• The Qutub Minar is one of the most iconic structures built during Aibak’s reign. It symbolizes the establishment of Muslim rule in India and showcases Indo-Islamic architecture.
• Though Aibak initiated its construction, it was completed by his successor Iltutmish.

Important Points

• Death of Qutub-ud-din Aibak:
• Aibak died in 1210 AD after a tragic accident during a polo match (chaugan).
• His sudden death led to the succession of Iltutmish, who played a crucial role in consolidating the Delhi Sultanate.
• Significance of Slave Dynasty:
• The Slave Dynasty laid the foundation for the Delhi Sultanate, which ruled northern India for over three centuries.
• It introduced new administrative systems, architectural styles, and cultural practices that influenced Indian history.

The correct answer is Farokh Engineer.

Key Points

• Col. CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award: This prestigious award is conferred by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) to honor outstanding contributions to Indian cricket. It is named after Col. CK Nayudu, India's first Test captain.
• Farokh Engineer: A former Indian cricketer, Farokh Engineer was known for his exceptional skills as a wicketkeeper-batsman. He represented India in 46 Test matches and played a significant role in Indian cricket during the 1960s and 1970s.
• Farokh Engineer was honored with the Col. CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award during the BCCI Awards in 2025 for his remarkable contributions to Indian cricket as a player and ambassador of the sport. Hence, the correct answer is Farokh Engineer.
• The award recognizes individuals who have significantly impacted Indian cricket through their performances, leadership, and dedication.

Additional Information

• Farokh Engineer's Achievements:
• Born: Farokh Maneksha Engineer was born on 25 February 1938 in Mumbai, India.
• Test Debut: He made his Test debut for India in 1961 against England.
• Performance: In his 46 Test matches, he scored 2611 runs at an average of 31.08, including two centuries and sixteen half-centuries. He also took 66 catches and completed 16 stumpings.
• County Cricket: Farokh played county cricket for Lancashire in England, where he was highly regarded for his batting and wicketkeeping skills.
• Col. CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award:
• This award was instituted by the BCCI to honor individuals who have made a lasting impact on Indian cricket.
• The awardees are selected based on their contribution to cricket, leadership qualities, and overall influence on the sport in India.
• Previous recipients of this award include cricketing legends like Sunil Gavaskar, Sachin Tendulkar, and Sourav Ganguly.
• Important Contributions by Farokh Engineer:
• He was known for being one of the first Indian cricketers to attract attention in English county cricket, paving the way for future Indian players.
• Engineer played a crucial role during the 1967–68 tour of Australia, where his performances brought laurels to Indian cricket.
• Apart from his playing career, he has been a respected commentator and a prominent figure in promoting cricket globally.

Important Points

• Other Options in the Question:
• Sourav Ganguly: Former Indian captain and BCCI President. While he has contributed significantly to Indian cricket, he was not the recipient of this award in 2025.
• Sachin Tendulkar: Known as the "God of Cricket," Tendulkar has already been honored with several lifetime achievement awards but was not the recipient in 2025.
• Sunil Gavaskar: A legendary batsman and former Indian captain, Gavaskar had received the award earlier but not in the year 2025.
• Significance of the Award:
• This award not only recognizes the contributions of cricketers but also inspires young players to strive for excellence and serve Indian cricket with dedication.

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹5,000

Simple Interest (SI) = ₹800

Rate of Interest (R) = 8% per year

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) / 100

Calculation:

⇒ 800 = (5000 × 8 × T) / 100

⇒ 800 × 100 = 5000 × 8 × T

⇒ 80000 = 40000 × T

⇒ T = 80000 / 40000

⇒ T = 2 years

∴ The time required is 2 years.

Given:

Marked price of the item = ₹1,100

Selling price of the item = ₹330

Formula Used:

Discount Percentage = [(Marked Price - Selling Price) × 100] / Marked Price

Calculation:

⇒ Discount = ₹1,100 - ₹330

⇒ Discount = ₹770

⇒ Discount Percentage = (₹770 × 100) / ₹1,100

⇒ Discount Percentage = 70%

∴ The discount percentage is 70%.

Given:

Total mixture = 100 litres

Initial ratio of milk to water = 4 : 1

Required ratio of milk to water = 1 : 4

Formula Used:

Milk quantity remains constant during the process.

Milk quantity = Total quantity × (Milk ratio / Total ratio)

Water to be added = Required water - Initial water

Calculation:

Milk = (4 ÷ (4+1)) × Total

Water = (1 ÷ (4+1)) × Total

Final ratio condition: Milk / Water = 1 / 4

⇒ Milk = (4/5) × 100 = 80 L

⇒ Water = (1/5) × 100 = 20 L

Let added water = x L

⇒ 80 / (20 + x) = 1 / 4

⇒ 4 × 80 = 20 + x

⇒ 320 = 20 + x

⇒ x = 320 − 20 = 300

∴ Required additional water = 300 litres.

Given:

(a³ × b⁻⁸ × c⁷) ÷ (a⁻⁴ × b⁻⁶ × c⁸)

Formula Used:

When dividing: a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^m−n

Calculation:

⇒ a^{3 − (−4)} × b^{−8 − (−6)} × c^{7 − 8}

⇒ a³⁺⁴ × b⁻⁸⁺⁶ × c⁻¹

⇒ a⁷ × b⁻² × c⁻¹ = $\rm \frac{a^7}{b^2 c}$

∴ Simplified form $\rm \frac{a^7}{b^2 c}$.

Given:

Marked price of the hot pot = ₹7,650.

Discount = 26%.

Formula Used:

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 - Discount Percentage / 100)

Calculation:

⇒ Selling Price = 7650 × (1 - 26 / 100)

⇒ Selling Price = 7650 × (1 - 0.26)

⇒ Selling Price = 7650 × 0.74

⇒ Selling Price = 5661

∴ The selling price of the hot pot is ₹5661.

Given:

Ratios to arrange: 3:20, 6:5, 12:3, 26:11.

Formula Used:

Convert ratios into decimal values to compare.

Calculation:

⇒ 3:20 = 3 ÷ 20 = 0.15

⇒ 6:5 = 6 ÷ 5 = 1.2

⇒ 12:3 = 12 ÷ 3 = 4

⇒ 26:11 = 26 ÷ 11 ≈ 2.36

Arrange in ascending order:

⇒ 0.15, 1.2, 2.36, 4

Corresponding ratios:

⇒ 3:20, 6:5, 26:11, 12:3

The correct order is: 3:20, 6:5, 26:11, 12:3.

Given:

Profit claimed by the trader = 61%

Dishonest weight used = 2% less than the original weight

Formula Used:

Total profit percentage = (Profit claimed × Adjustment due to weight)

Adjustment due to weight = 100 / (100 - Reduction in weight percentage)

Calculation:

Reduction in weight percentage = 2%

⇒ Adjustment due to weight = 100 / (100 - 2)

⇒ Adjustment due to weight = 100 / 98

⇒ Adjustment due to weight = 1.0204

Profit claimed = 61%

⇒ Total profit percentage = Profit claimed × Adjustment due to weight

⇒ Total profit percentage = 61 × 1.0204

⇒ Total profit percentage = 62.2444

Rounded total profit percentage = 62%

∴ The total percentage of profit earned by the trader is 62%.

Given:

Employees in Research department (2020) = 60

Employees in Marketing department (2020) = 60

Employees in Production department (2020) = 115

Employees in Account department (2020) = 70

Employees in Finance department (2020) = 55

Formula Used:

Total number of employees = Sum of employees in all departments

Calculation:

⇒ Total number of employees = 60 + 60 + 115 + 70 + 55

⇒ Total number of employees = 360

∴ The total number of employees in company ABC Ltd., in the year 2020 is 360.

Given:

Radius of hemisphere (R) = 14 cm

Radius of cylinder (r) = 7 cm

Height of cylinder (h) = 10 cm

Formula used:

Volume of hemisphere = (2/3)πR³

Volume of cylinder = πr²h

No. of full vessels = (Volume of hemisphere) ÷ (Volume of cylinder)

Calculations:

⇒ No. of vessels = [(2/3)π × 14³] ÷ [π × 7² × 10]

⇒ = [(2/3) × 2744] ÷ [490]

⇒ = (5488 ÷ 3) ÷ 490

⇒ = 1829.33 ÷ 490

⇒ ≈ 3.73

∴ 3 full vessels can be filled completely from the hemispherical bowl.

Given:

The table provides data for boys and girls interested in Tennis, Badminton, and Athletics over the 5 years.

We need to find the ratio of the number of boys interested in Tennis and Badminton to the number of girls interested in Athletics.

Formula Used:

Ratio = (Sum of boys interested in Tennis + Sum of boys interested in Badminton) / (Sum of girls interested in Athletics)

Calculation:

Sum of boys interested in Tennis over 5 years = 20 + 22 + 25 + 30 + 23 = 120

Sum of boys interested in Badminton over 5 years = 35 + 32 + 36 + 28 + 29 = 160

Sum of girls interested in Athletics over 5 years = 62 + 45 + 42 + 46 + 45 = 240

⇒ Ratio = (120 + 160) / 240

⇒ Ratio = 280 / 240

⇒ Ratio = 7 : 6

∴ The correct ratio is 7 : 6.

Given:

Average age of 20 students = 27 years.

Average age of 21 individuals (20 students + teacher) = 28 years.

Formula Used:

Total age = Average age × Number of individuals

Calculation:

Total age of 20 students = 27 × 20 = 540 years.

Total age of 21 individuals = 28 × 21 = 588 years.

⇒ Age of the teacher = Total age of 21 individuals - Total age of 20 students.

⇒ Age of the teacher = 588 - 540 = 48 years.

The age of the teacher is 48 years.

Given:

The numbers are 21, 18, and 7.

Formula Used:

Fourth Proportional = (Second Number × Third Number) / First Number

Calculation:

⇒ Fourth Proportional = (18 × 7) / 21

⇒ Fourth Proportional = 126 / 21

⇒ Fourth Proportional = 6

The fourth proportional to 21, 18, and 7 is 6.

Given:

Vehicle A completes 2000 m while Vehicle B gets a start of 300 m and Vehicle A wins by 10 seconds.

Vehicle A gives Vehicle B a start of 500 m, and they finish the race together.

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Relative Distance = Distance covered by A - Distance covered by B

Calculation:

Let the speed of Vehicle A be S_A m/s and the speed of Vehicle B be S_B m/s.

In the first case, Vehicle A covers 2000 m in the same time Vehicle B covers (2000 - 300) m, but Vehicle A wins by 10 seconds.

⇒ Time taken by B = Time taken by A + 10 seconds

⇒ (2000 - 300) / S_B = 2000 / S_A + 10

⇒ 1700 / S_B = 2000 / S_A + 10

In the second case, Vehicle A gives Vehicle B a start of 500 m, and they finish the race together.

⇒ Time taken by B = Time taken by A

⇒ (2000 - 500) / S_B = 2000 / S_A

⇒ 1500 / S_B = 2000 / S_A

From the second equation:

⇒ S_B = (1500 / 2000) × S_A

⇒ S_B = (3 / 4) × S_A

Substitute S_B in the first equation:

⇒ 1700 / ((3 / 4) × S_A) = 2000 / S_A + 10

⇒ 1700 × 4 / (3 × S_A) = 2000 / S_A + 10

⇒ (6800 / 3) / S_A = 2000 / S_A + 10

⇒ (6800 / 3) = 2000 + 10 × S_A

⇒ 10 × S_A = (6800 / 3) - 2000

⇒ 10 × S_A = (6800 - 6000) / 3

⇒ 10 × S_A = 800 / 3

⇒ S_A = (800 / 3) / 10

⇒ S_A = 80 / 3 m/s

Time taken by Vehicle A to cover 2000 m:

⇒ Time = Distance / Speed

⇒ Time = 2000 / (80 / 3)

⇒ Time = (2000 × 3) / 80

⇒ Time = 6000 / 80

⇒ Time = 75 seconds

⇒ Time = 1 minute 15 seconds

Vehicle A takes 1 minute 15 seconds to run 2000 m.

Given:

Volume of the cube = 12167 m³

Formula Used:

1. Volume of cube = side³
2. Lateral Surface Area (LSA) of cube = 4 × (side)²

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = side³

⇒ 12167 = side³

⇒ side = 23 m

⇒ LSA = 4 × (side)²

⇒ LSA = 4 × (23)²

⇒ LSA = 4 × 529

⇒ LSA = 2116 m²

The lateral surface area of the cube is 2116 m².

Given:

Length of the train = 1155 m

Speed of the train = 38 m/s

Time taken to cross the tunnel = 134 seconds

Formula Used:

Distance covered = Speed × Time

Total distance covered = Length of train + Length of tunnel

Calculation:

⇒ Total distance covered = Speed × Time

⇒ Total distance covered = 38 × 134

⇒ Total distance covered = 5092 m

⇒ Length of tunnel = Total distance covered - Length of train

⇒ Length of tunnel = 5092 - 1155

⇒ Length of tunnel = 3937 m

The length of the tunnel is 3937 m.

Given:

Total Investment = ₹31,700

Total Profit = ₹17,500

Mohsin's Share of Profit = ₹7,000

Formula Used:

Investment Ratio = Profit Ratio

Difference of Investment = Abdul's Investment - Mohsin's Investment

Calculation:

⇒ Profit Ratio of Abdul : Mohsin = (Total Profit - Mohsin's Share) : Mohsin's Share

⇒ Profit Ratio = (₹17,500 - ₹7,000) : ₹7,000

⇒ Profit Ratio = ₹10,500 : ₹7,000

⇒ Profit Ratio = 3 : 2

Since Investment Ratio = Profit Ratio, Investment Ratio of Abdul : Mohsin = 3 : 2.

⇒ Total Investment = Abdul's Investment + Mohsin's Investment

⇒ Abdul's Investment = (3 / (3 + 2)) × ₹31,700

⇒ Abdul's Investment = (3 / 5) × ₹31,700

⇒ Abdul's Investment = ₹19,020

⇒ Mohsin's Investment = Total Investment - Abdul's Investment

⇒ Mohsin's Investment = ₹31,700 - ₹19,020

⇒ Mohsin's Investment = ₹12,680

⇒ Difference of Investment = Abdul's Investment - Mohsin's Investment

⇒ Difference of Investment = ₹19,020 - ₹12,680

⇒ Difference of Investment = ₹6,340

The difference of their investment is ₹6,340.

Given:

Total sum = 595

15 × (First part) + 5 × (Second part) = 3975

Formula Used:

Let the first part = x and the second part = 595 - x.

15 × x + 5 × (595 - x) = 3975

Ratio = First part / Second part

Calculation:

⇒ 15 × x + 5 × (595 - x) = 3975

⇒ 15x + 2975 - 5x = 3975

⇒ 10x = 3975 - 2975

⇒ 10x = 1000

⇒ x = 100

First part = x = 100

Second part = 595 - x = 595 - 100 = 495

Ratio = First part / Second part

⇒ Ratio = 100 / 495

⇒ Ratio = 20 : 99

The ratio of the first to the second parts is 20 : 99.

Given:

The first 27 even natural numbers.

Formula Used:

Average of n even natural numbers = Sum of n even natural numbers / n

Sum of first n even natural numbers = n × (n + 1)

Calculation:

n = 27

⇒ Sum of first 27 even natural numbers = 27 × (27 + 1)

⇒ Sum of first 27 even natural numbers = 27 × 28

⇒ Sum = 756

⇒ Average = Sum / n

⇒ Average = 756 / 27

⇒ Average = 28

The average of the first 27 even natural numbers is 28.

Given:

CP ratio of X : Y = 2 : 9

Profit on X = 31%

Loss on Y = 13%

Formula used:

Gain or Loss % = [(Total SP − Total CP) ÷ Total CP] × 100

SP = CP × (1 ± (profit or loss)/100)

Calculations:

Let CP of X = 2 and CP of Y = 9

⇒ SP of X = 2 × (1 + 31/100) = 2 × 1.31 = 2.62

⇒ SP of Y = 9 × (1 − 13/100) = 9 × 0.87 = 7.83

⇒ Total CP = 2 + 9 = 11

⇒ Total SP = 2.62 + 7.83 = 10.45

⇒ Loss = 11 − 10.45 = 0.55

⇒ Loss % = (0.55 ÷ 11) × 100 = 5%

∴ The man incurs an overall loss of 5%.

Given:

Profit% (original) = 52%

CP increased by ₹50

SP reduced by ₹84

Profit% (new) = 39.2%

Formula Used:

SP = CP × (1 + Profit%)

Overall gain/loss % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100

Calculation:

Let CP = x

⇒ Original SP = x × 1.52

⇒ New CP = x + 50

⇒ New SP = (x + 50) × 1.392

⇒ Also, New SP = Original SP − 84 = x × 1.52 − 84

⇒ x × 1.52 − 84 = (x + 50) × 1.392

⇒ 1.52x − 84 = 1.392x + 69.6

⇒ (1.52 − 1.392)x = 69.6 + 84

⇒ 0.128x = 153.6

⇒ x = 153.6 ÷ 0.128

⇒ x = 153600 ÷ 128

⇒ x = 1200

∴ Original cost price = ₹1,200.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes the entrance as "an inconspicuous door, nearly invisible among the weathered stone walls," which implies it is subtle, old, and wooden in nature.
• The figure arrived at this door cautiously, suggesting the entrance is not grand or obvious, aligning with the idea of an ancient wooden door.
• This description emphasizes secrecy and antiquity rather than heaviness or unusual placement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: A trapdoor in the ground – Not mentioned; the passage specifies a door in the wall.
• Option 3: A heavy iron gate – The passage does not describe the door as iron or heavy; it emphasizes subtlety and concealment.
• Option 4: A narrow passageway – No passageway is mentioned; the entrance is explicitly a door.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The passage mentions that the hidden library is "spoken of only in hushed voices, rumored to house ancient secrets of immense power." (अत्यधिक शक्ति वाले प्राचीन रहस्य)
• This indicates that the library is famed not for wealth, ghosts, or mythical guardians, but for the powerful knowledge contained within.
• Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: It is guarded by a mythical creature (पौराणिक प्राणी द्वारा संरक्षित) – Not mentioned in the passage.
• Option 2: It is haunted by spirits (भूत-प्रेतों से भूतिया) – Passage does not suggest ghosts or haunting.
• Option 3: It contains vast wealth (विशाल संपत्ति) – The passage focuses on knowledge and secrets, not material wealth.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes a hooded figure moving through streets with deliberate purpose, unnoticed by others. (ध्यानपूर्वक और अनदेखा होकर चलना)
• The figure's final destination is explicitly mentioned as a hidden library, a place shrouded in myth and housing ancient secrets. (एक गुप्त पुस्तकालय)
• The description emphasizes secrecy, myths, and ancient tomes, confirming the destination is not a garden, market, or door, but a library.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Additional Information

• A jasmine garden (चमेली का बगीचा) – Mentioned in the passage only as a scent, not as the figure’s destination.
• A bustling market (व्यस्त बाजार) – The figure passes through it, but it is not the endpoint.
• An ancient wooden door (प्राचीन लकड़ी का दरवाजा) – Part of the library entrance, not the final destination itself.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes the hooded figure moving with intention and purpose through a crowded market without being noticed. (सावधानीपूर्वक / जानबूझकर)
• The word "deliberate" means done consciously and intentionally. (जानबूझकर)
• Example: She made a deliberate effort to remain calm during the tense meeting.
• The movement of the hooded figure is described as careful, purposeful, and unnoticed, which aligns with the meaning of "deliberate".
• Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 - Deliberate.

 

Additional Information

• Hesitant (हिचकिचाहट भरा): Showing uncertainty or indecision.
• Example: He was hesitant to speak in front of the large audience.
• Clumsy (असावधान / बेढंगा): Lacking coordination or skill in movement.
• Example: His clumsy movements caused him to drop the vase.
• Erratic (अनियमित / अस्थिर): Unpredictable or inconsistent in movement or behavior.
• Example: The car swerved in an erratic manner along the winding road.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "shadows moved across the worn cobblestone paths" evokes a sense of secrecy, unpredictability, and hidden movement, which are classical elements that create an atmosphere of mystery. (रहस्यपूर्ण वातावरण)
• Example: Shadows dancing in the alley at midnight gave the place an eerie and mysterious feeling.
• Other elements, such as the bustling market, chimes, or scent of jasmine, contribute to setting and sensory detail but do not primarily create the mysterious atmosphere.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The bustling market" (व्यस्त बाजार) – Sets the scene of activity but adds liveliness, not mystery.
• Option 3: "The sound of distant chimes" (दूर से घंटियों की आवाज़) – Adds ambiance but does not evoke secrecy or suspense.
• Option 4: "The scent of jasmine" (चमेली की खुशबू) – Enhances sensory detail, contributing to atmosphere, but not specifically to mystery.

The correct answer is 'further'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective "further" is used to refer to additional plans or actions.
• The sentence asks about "plans" to accomplish goals, so "further" is appropriate to indicate continuation or addition.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 refer to physical distance and are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "Do you have any further plans to accomplish your goals?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "farther" is incorrect because it is used for physical distance, not for abstract concepts like plans.
• Option 3: "farthest" is incorrect because it refers to the greatest physical distance.
• Option 4: "furthest" is incorrect as it is primarily used for physical or metaphorical distance, but "further" is preferred for abstract additions like plans.

The correct answer is 'dark'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective "dark" is the most appropriate choice because it describes the forest path as being poorly lit, which aligns with the use of headlamps for navigation.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not match the context of a forest path requiring headlamps.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "The trekkers used their headlamps to navigate the dark forest path."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "smart" is incorrect as it is unrelated to the description of a forest path.
• Option 3: "sunny" is incorrect because the context mentions headlamps, implying darkness rather than sunlight.
• Option 4: "bright" is incorrect as it contradicts the need for headlamps.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by introducing the broad context and general trend of adventure sports evolving into mainstream leisure activities.
• Sentence D is the first sentence as it establishes the overarching idea:
• "Adventure sports have evolved from niche pursuits to mainstream leisure activities, attracting participants of all ages and skill levels."
• Sentence B follows as it elaborates on the role of safety equipment and technology:
• "Moreover, advancements in safety equipment and technology have played a pivotal role in making adventure sports more accessible."
• Sentence C comes next as it provides a future outlook on the adventure sports market:
• "The global adventure sports and activities market is projected to continue its upward trajectory in the coming years."
• Sentence A concludes the paragraph by highlighting key drivers for this growth:
• "Key drivers of this growth include rising disposable incomes, increased awareness about the physical and mental health benefits of outdoor activities, and a burgeoning interest in experiential travel."
• The correct sequence is DBCA.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Adventure sports have evolved from niche pursuits to mainstream leisure activities, attracting participants of all ages and skill levels. Moreover, advancements in safety equipment and technology have played a pivotal role in making adventure sports more accessible. The global adventure sports and activities market is projected to continue its upward trajectory in the coming years. Key drivers of this growth include rising disposable incomes, increased awareness about the physical and mental health benefits of outdoor activities, and a burgeoning interest in experiential travel."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'bibliograhy'.

• The correct spelling would be 'bibliography'.
• The word 'bibliography' is a noun which means 'a list of books or articles referred to in scholarly work, typically printed as an appendix'. (संदर्भ ग्रंथ सूची)
• For Example -
• She included an extensive bibliography at the end of her thesis.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'bibliograhy'.

Additional Information

Let's understand the meanings of the other marked words -

• Credibility - the quality of being trusted and believed in (विश्वसनीयता)
• Anomalies - something that deviates from what is standard, normal, or expected (असामान्यता)
• Meticulous - showing great attention to detail; very careful and precise (सूक्ष्म)

The correct answer is: Criticise.

Key Points

• The word "Praise" means to express warm approval or admiration for someone or something. (प्रशंसा करना)
• Example: The teacher praised the student for her excellent performance in the exam.
• "Criticise" refers to the act of expressing disapproval of someone or something, typically by pointing out their faults. (आलोचना करना)
• Example: The editor criticised the writer for the numerous errors in the manuscript.
• Since "Criticise" is the opposite of "Praise," it serves as the most appropriate antonym.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Criticise.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Grasp (पकड़ना): To seize and hold firmly; to understand something completely.
• Example: She grasped the rope tightly to prevent herself from falling.
• Forbid (मना करना ): To refuse to allow something; to prohibit.
• Example: The school forbids students from using mobile phones during class hours.
• Expand (विस्तार करना): To increase in size, volume, or scope.
• Example: The company plans to expand its operations to new markets next year.

The correct answer is 'the'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence refers to a specific employee, emphasizing that he is the most diligent among all employees in the office.
• The definite article "the" is required to specify that he is unique in this context.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 are grammatically incorrect because they do not fit the structure of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "He is the most diligent employee in this office, therefore I will recommend his name for promotion."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "an" is incorrect because "an" is used before singular nouns starting with a vowel sound, and does not fit the sentence.
• Option 2: "a" is incorrect because "a" is used before singular nouns starting with a consonant sound, and does not match the context.
• Option 4: "no article required" is incorrect because the sentence requires a definite article to specify the employee being referred to.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with the narrator hearing a faint sound, introducing the context of the event.
• Sentence B comes first as it describes the sound heard:
• "It was a very faint sound, not unlike the sight of wind."
• Sentence D follows as it elaborates on why the sound could not have been the wind:
• "Yet it could not have been the wind, for the night was still as the grave."
• Sentence A is next, as it reveals the narrator’s decision to investigate:
• "Though it was not repeated, I resolved to go upstairs and see for myself what it all meant."
• Sentence C is last before the final sentence, tying the sensory experiences together:
• "Two senses had been affected-touch and hearing."
• The correct sequence is BDAC.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"I was in the act of turning to go in again when a sound overhead caught my ear. It was a very faint sound, not unlike the sight of wind. Yet it could not have been the wind, for the night was still as the grave. Though it was not repeated, I resolved to go upstairs and see for myself what it all meant. Two senses had been affected-touch and hearing. And I could not believe that I had been deceived."

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

The misspelled word is 'Byepass'.

• The correct spelling would be 'bypass'.
• The word 'bypass' in terms of surgery means 'creating a new pathway to divert blood flow around a blocked or damaged vessel. 
• For Example - The doctor has done a bypass surgery successfully.

Therefore, the correct answer would be 'bypass'.

The correct answer is: Option 4 - Picturesque.

Key Points

• The word "idyllic" refers to something extremely peaceful, happy, or picturesque, often idealized in its simplicity or beauty. (शांतिपूर्ण और खूबसूरत)
• Example: The small village nestled in the mountains offered an idyllic escape from the busy city life.
• "Picturesque" means visually attractive, often used to describe scenes or landscapes that are charming and pretty. (सुंदर या आकर्षक)
• Example: The picturesque view of the sunset over the valley left everyone in awe.
• Since "idyllic" and "picturesque" share similar meanings, the synonym for "idyllic" in the context of the sentence is "picturesque".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 - Picturesque.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Idle (निष्क्रिय): Refers to being inactive or not doing anything productive.
• Example: He spent the entire afternoon idle, just lying on the couch.
• Chaotic (अराजक): Refers to a state of complete disorder or confusion.
• Example: The marketplace was chaotic, with people shouting and pushing each other.
• Unpleasant (अप्रिय): Refers to something disagreeable or not enjoyable.
• Example: The unpleasant odor from the garbage made it hard to breathe.

The correct answer is 'dramatic'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective "dramatic" is appropriate and grammatically correct to describe a significant rise in temperatures.
• The word "dramatic" conveys the intensity and suddenness of the rise in temperature, which aligns with the context.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not fit the context or the grammatical structure of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: "A dramatic rise in the temperatures sends jitters around the world."

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: "hesitant" is incorrect because it does not describe a rise in temperatures.
• Option 3: "faint" is incorrect as it suggests something weak or minimal, which does not match the context.
• Option 4: "welcoming" is incorrect because it does not align with the idea of sending jitters around the world.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph begins by introducing Emma's interest in pottery, followed by her university education and career trajectory.
• Sentence D is the first sentence as it introduces Emma's educational background:
• "She had done a degree in fine art at university."
• Sentence B follows as it discusses her initial career after finishing her studies:
• "However, after finishing her studies, she worked in the marketing department."
• Sentence C comes next as it delves into her experience working there:
• "Although she didn’t have much responsibility, she found it quite stressful."
• Sentence A is the fourth sentence as it explains her initial intention to work temporarily:
• "She had intended to work there only temporarily."
• The correct sequence is DBCA.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Emma first got into pottery when she took up evening classes. She had done a degree in fine art at university. However, after finishing her studies, she worked in the marketing department. Although she didn’t have much responsibility, she found it quite stressful. She had intended to work there only temporarily. But ended up staying for nearly ten years."

The correct answer is 'obscure'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective "obscure" means "not well-known or not easily recognized."
• The sentence describes someone who is not famous as a musician, composer, and writer but possesses great skills, making "obscure" the most fitting choice.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because their meanings do not match the context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "She is an obscure musician, an anonymous composer, and an unknown writer with great skills."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "adamant" is incorrect because it means "stubborn or unyielding," which does not fit the context.
• Option 2: "enormous" is incorrect as it refers to size or magnitude, not fame or recognition.
• Option 3: "obvious" is incorrect because it means "easily perceived or understood" and does not align with the sentence's meaning.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The paragraph describes the life of Thomas Edison, focusing on his inventive abilities but lack of business acumen.
• Sentence R comes first as it introduces Edison’s unconventional approach to accounting:
• "He did not keep account books."
• Sentence P follows as it elaborates on the two big books in his office:
• "But he had two big books in his office."
• Sentence Q comes next as it explains the purpose of one of the books:
• "In one of them, he stuck the bills he owed."
• Sentence S concludes by describing the use of the second book:
• "In the other, he pinned the bills owed to him."
• The correct sequence is RPQS.

 

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

"Edison was an inventor of great ability. He did not keep account books. But he had two big books in his office. In one of them, he stuck the bills he owed. In the other, he pinned the bills owed to him. But he was not a very good businessman."

The correct answer is: Essential.

Key Points

• The word "redundant" means something that is unnecessary, repetitive, or superfluous; it adds no value and is not essential. (अनावश्यक)
• Example: The report contained a lot of redundant information, making it unnecessarily long.
• "Essential" refers to something that is absolutely necessary or of the utmost importance; it is the opposite of redundant. (आवश्यक)
• Example: Water is essential for the survival of all living organisms.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'redundant' is 'essential'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Essential.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Humorous (हास्यास्पद): Funny or amusing in a light-hearted way.
• Example: The comedian shared a humorous story that had everyone laughing.
• Verbose (शब्दाडंबरपूर्ण): Using or expressed in more words than are needed; wordy.
• Example: His verbose explanation made the simple concept seem confusing.
• Inflexible (अड़ियल): Unwilling to change or compromise.
• Example: The manager was inflexible and refused to consider alternative suggestions.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "Good luck".

Key Points

• The idiom "Break a leg" is a common phrase used to wish someone good luck before they perform or undertake something important. (शुभकामनाएँ)
• Example: Before the audition, her friends told her to break a leg.
• "Good luck" is used to express hope for success or good fortune for someone undertaking a task. (शुभकामनाएँ)
• Example: Good luck with your final exams tomorrow!
• Hence, the idiom "Break a leg" is appropriately synonymous with "Good luck."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. "Good luck".

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Get well soon (जल्दी स्वस्थ हो जाओ): A phrase used to wish someone a quick recovery from illness.
• Example: After her surgery, everyone sent her cards that said "Get well soon."
• Option 3: Be careful (सावधान रहो): A phrase used to advise someone to take precautions or avoid danger.
• Example: Be careful while driving on icy roads.
• Option 4: Work hard (कड़ी मेहनत करो): A phrase that encourages someone to put in effort and dedication towards a task.
• Example: If you want to succeed in life, you need to work hard.

सही उत्तर है- चैन

Key Points

व्याख्या:

• बेचैनी = अशांति, व्याकुलता(restlessness, anxiety)
• विलोम: चैन = शांति, सुकून, आराम (peace, comfort)

Important Points

अन्य विकल्पों का अर्थ + विलोम:

1. कुंठा → अर्थ: मानसिक अवरोध, हताशा, निराशा (frustration, inhibition) → विलोम: प्रेरणा, उत्साह, संतुष्टि
2. दर्द → अर्थ: पीड़ा, वेदना (pain, ache) → विलोम: सुख, आनंद, राहत
3. संत्रास → अर्थ: भय, आतंक, घबराहट (fear, terror) → विलोम: निर्भयता, निडरता, शांति

सही उत्तर है- खूबसूरत

Key Points

व्याख्या:

• रूपवान = सुंदर, आकर्षक चेहरा-मोहरा वाला (beautiful/handsome)
• पर्यायवाची: खूबसूरत (very beautiful)

Important Points

अन्य विकल्पों का अर्थ:

1. बदसूरत → विलोम — कुरूप, असुंदर (ugly, unattractive)
2. स्तब्ध → आश्चर्य से स्थिर, हक्का-बक्का (stunned, astonished)
3. कुरूप → विलोम — बदसूरत, विकृत आकार वाला (ugly, deformed)